Class 11 – Page 22 – Balbharati Solutions

The World Since 1945 – I Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Question Answer The World Since 1945 – I Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
In 1949, China became a communist country under the leadership of ___________ (Khrushchev, Mao Zedong, Joseph Stalin, Ho Chi Minh)
Answer:
Mao Zedong

Question 2.
The principle of peaceful co-existence was put forth by ___________ (Eisenhower, Joseph Stalin, Khrushchev, Jawaharlal Nehru)
Answer:
Khrushchev

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Period of the dominance of European powers.
Answer:
Eurocentric

Question 2.
The conflict between America and the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Cold War

1C. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, France.
Answer:
France (not from the soviet bloc)

Question 2.
Italy, Poland, Spain, Greece.
Answer:
Poland (Not from the capitalist bloc nations)

2A. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 - I 2A Q1
Answer:

2B. Observe the given map and answer the following questions.

See a map of the Division of Europe after World War II.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 - I 2B Q1

Question i.
Name two East European countries under influence of the Soviet Union.
Answer:
Poland, Hungary, Czechoslovakia, Bulgaria, Romania.

Question 2.
Name two West European countries under the influence of the United States.
Answer:
France, Spain, Italy, Belgium, England.

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
After the Bolshevik Revolution, Soviet Russia became a capitalist nation.
Answer:
This statement is False.

After the 1917 Bolshevik Revolution. Vladimir Lenin established Socialism based on Marxist doctrine in Russia.
Thus, Russia became the first communist nation in the world. The USA is an example of a capitalist nation.

Question 2.
The Bandung Conference brought Cold War in Asia.
Answer:
This statement is False.

In 1955, the Bandung conference had 24 participating countries and sought to broad base the concept of regionalism to Asia and Africa.
The Bandung conference tried to bring cooperation and stability to the regions.

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the term regionalism.
Answer:
Regional organisations are created by countries from a particular geographic region. They form groups to promote their national interest in a cooperative manner. They try to establish their independent identity. This process of regional level cooperation is also called regionalism.

While geographic linkages are important, sometimes some functional issues become the basis of regional cooperation. These can be in areas like transport and communication, energy, health, etc.

The process of regionalism usually begins with a political dialogue amongst the participants. Such a dialogue may lead to the creation of an organisation. Organisations like the European Union (EU), Association of South-East Asian Nations (ASEAN), or South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) are examples of such regional groupings.

Question 2.
Discuss the role of the United Nations (UNO).
Answer:
The UNO was established in 1945. Its main functions include to
(i) Maintain International Peace and Security: The United Nations came into being with one main purpose i.e., the maintenance of international peace and security. The UN does this by working to prevent conflict, helping parties in conflict to make peace, peacekeeping activities, and creating the conditions to allow peace to hold and flourish.

(ii) Protect Human Rights: The promotion and protection of human rights is a key purpose and guiding principle of the UN. On 10th December 1948, the Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted.

(iii) Deliver Humanitarian Aid: One of the purposes of the United Nations is “to achieve international cooperation in solving international problems of an economic, social, cultural or humanitarian character.” The international community relies on the UN to coordinate humanitarian relief operations in times of natural and man-made disasters.

(iv) Promote Sustainable Development: The global understanding of development has changed over the years. The UN seeks to promote sustainable development, that is, a development that promotes prosperity and economic opportunity, greater social well-being, and protection of the environment.

(v) Uphold International Law: The development of and respect for international law has been a key part of the work of the UNO. This work is carried out in many ways – by courts, tribunals, multilateral treaties, and by the Security Council and ICJ.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate on the dimensions of the Cold War.
(a) political
(b) ideological
(c) economic
(d) security
Answer:
The hostile relations between the USA and its’ allies and the USSR and its allies along with ideological conflict between them is called the ‘Cold War’ or Bipolarity. Its dimensions are
(a) Political dimension: was the aspect of the struggle for political influence over the areas under the control of the two countries. Areas under Soviet influence included East Germany, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Romania, Bulgaria, and Albania. Areas under the United States’ influence included Netherlands, Denmark, Belgium, West Germany, France, Italy, Spain, Greece, and United Kingdom. Finland was forced to opt for neutrality to ensure that both the United States and the Soviet Union did not clash in the region.

(b) Ideological dimension: Eastern Europe adopted Socialist ideology under the influence of the Soviet Union and followed a Socialist form of government. Western Europe adopted capitalist ideology under the leadership of the United States. These countries had democratic governments.

(c) Economic dimension: East European countries with socialist governments followed the socialist economic system. This meant that the government or the public sector would play a dominant role in the economic system. West European countries that followed the democratic system of government had a capitalist form of economy. Here the private sector played a dominant role in the economic system.

(d) Security dimension: Military alliances were created in Europe to protect these countries. The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) was created in 1949 as a military alliance to defend West European countries and the United States from the threat of invasion from the Soviet Union and East Europe. Warsaw Pact was created in 1955 to defend East European countries and the Soviet Union from the threat from Western Europe and the United States.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

Development Administration Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Question Answer Development Administration Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 8 Development Administration Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Development Administration Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 8 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
State that promotes the economic and social well-being of its citizens.
Answer:
Welfare State

Question 2.
Unnecessary delays in administrative work are called.
Answer:
Red Tape

2. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 8 Development Administration 2 Q1
Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Change and growth-oriented approaches are called Development Administration.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Development is a complex term that means improvement, growth, or progress. When public administration studies ‘government in action for development’ it becomes development administration.
According to Edward Weidner, “The process of guiding an organization towards the achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives that are authoritatively determined in one manner or the other” is development administration.

Question 2.
In post-independent India, the government deliberately invested in the public sector.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Post-independence India was reeling from the effects of colonial exploitation in the form of poverty and underemployment.
It needed to modernize the economy towards self-reliance. To establish a welfare state and bring about a socialist pattern of the economy, more emphasis was given to the public sector.

Question 3.
The 73rd amendment act gave constitutional status to municipalities.
Answer:
This statement is False.

73rd Amendment Act (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions and is considered a landmark in grassroots democracy in India.
74th Amendment Act (1992) gave constitutional status to municipalities (urban areas).

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Planning Commission and NITI Aayog (Traditional public administration and development administration).
Answer:
Development is a complex term that means improvement, growth, or progress. When public administration studies ‘government in action for development’ it becomes development administration. According to Edward Weidner,” development administration is “the process of guiding an organisation toward the achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives that are authoritatively determined in one manner or the other”.

An approach to have innovative planning towards growth is called development administration. The need for this was felt due to limitations in the traditional approach to public administration, which covered areas such as

Organization of the government machinery
management of different tasks like leadership, planning, etc
personnel administration i.e., recruitment, training of personnel
financial administration e.g., budget, audit, etc
administrative law e.g., tribunals for dispute resolution.

The new approach to public administration and public policy focuses on socio-economic development, political modernization, and adaptation of new technologies in administration.

Development administration has two important aspects viz.

Administration of development – setting development goals and achieving them through the medium of administration.
Development of administration – the existing system has to be improved so as the achieve the goals.

5. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Discuss any 4 areas of study in traditional public administration.
Answer:
The main areas of study in traditional public administration include:

Organization of government machinery.
Management of different tasks like leadership, planning, etc.
Personnel administration i.e., recruitment, training of personnel.
Financial administration e.g., budget, audit, etc.
Administrative law e.g., tribunals for dispute resolution.

Question 2.
Write in brief about NITI Aayog.
Answer:
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India). After Independence, the Planning Commission was the apex planning body. India adopted Five Year Plans which identified short-term and long-term goals of development in areas such as agriculture, irrigation, industrialization, infrastructure, social security, etc. In 1991, the New Economic Policy focused on economic liberalization.

The Planning Commission has now been replaced by the NITI Aayog (established on 1st January 2015). The Prime Minister is the ex-officio chairman of NITI Aayog. Since India has moved from centralized planning to decentralized planning, this body proposes grassroots level planning from village and district levels to be harmonized with state-level planning and finally with national planning.

NITI Aayog has Governing Council comprising the Chief Ministers of all 29 states and of Delhi and Puducherry and Lt. Governors of Union Territories. As of 2019 Vice-Chairman is Rajiv Kumar and CEO is Amitabh Kant.

6. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Citizen participation is necessary in development administration.
Answer:
According to Edward Weidner, development administration is “The process of guiding an organisation toward the achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives that are authoritatively determined in one manner or the other”.

An approach to have innovative planning towards growth is called Development Administration. The need for this was felt due to limitations in the traditional approach to public administration.

The new approach to public administration and public policy focuses on socio-economic development, political modernization, and adaptation of new technologies in administration.

Development Administration has two important aspects viz.

Administration of development – setting development goals and achieving them through the medium of administration.
Development of administration – the existing system has to be improved so as the achieve the goals.
Citizen participation – Development being a process of social and economic change, it is important that people participate actively in it.

If the process of development is cut off from the grassroots then it eventually fails to materialize the objectives it has set. This necessitates peoples’ participation in the process of planning, implementation, and eventual evaluation.

In a diverse society like India people’s participation is necessary. In India, the needs, requirements, and choices of people may vary vastly according to region. The Indian government had introduced a Community Development Programme in 1952 followed by National Extension Service in 1953. The focus was to promote development in the rural and remote areas. The experience of these programmes helped the government to focus on rural India. The purpose of the participation of the rural and urban citizens was sought through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

Public Administration Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Question Answer Public Administration Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Public Administration Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The backbone of any administrative system is _____________ (material resource, human resource, natural resource, geographic resource)
Answer:
human resource

Question 2.
Gullick and _____________ put forth the acronym POSDCORB. (Woodrow Wilson, Herbert Simon, Urwick, Dwight Waldo)
Answer:
Urwick

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Kautilya – Arthashastra
(b) Aristotle – The Politics
(c) Machiavelli – Republic
Answer:
Machiavelli – The Prince or Plato – Republic

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The systematic management of governmental affairs in 18th century Germany and Austria.
Answer:
Cameralism

Question 2.
Efforts of companies to integrate social and environmental concerns.
Answer:
Corporate Social Responsibility

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
The first step in administration is staffing.
Answer:
This statement is False.

According to Gullick and Urwick, public administration should focus on aspects related to the executive branch of government.
It is explained by the acronym POSDCORB. Thus, the first step in administration is Planning, followed by Organisation and then Staffing.

Question 2.
Public Administration as an academic discipline was born in India.
Answer:
This statement is False.

Public Administration as an academic discipline originated in the USA and Woodrow Wilson was the first person to emphasize the need to study it.
However, Kautilya’s ‘Arthashastra’ was a text on administration and political economy in ancient India.

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Narrow and Broad perspective of Public Administration (Private administration and Public administration).
Answer:
Private administration is concerned with achieving the goals of private business organizations. The similarities between private and public administration are that both aim to serve the people, have similar types of hierarchy and management systems, and rely on common skills, techniques, and procedures.

The differences between private and public administration relate to aspects like scope, motive, responsibility, weakness, and financial control. Private administration is business-like with a narrower scope, wealth creation as the motive, responsibility to the owners, fewer chances of red-tapism, and internal financial control.

Public administration is bureaucratic with a very wide scope and motive as public service, responsibility to the ministers, intrinsic weakness of red-tapism, and external financial controls.

Question 2.
National Administration and State Administration (Rural administration and Urban administration).
Answer:
At the local level, the administration is either urban or rural. Urban administration includes political and administrative dimensions. For cities, there are Municipal Corporations (with a population of 3 lakhs and more) headed by the Mayor, Municipal Councils (Nagar Palika), City Councils (Nagar Panchayats), and Cantonment Boards. There is also a Municipal Commissioner who performs administrative functions and a Collector who looks after revenue, law, and order, land records, etc.

Rural administration includes three tiers i.e., Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, and Gram Panchayat. Developmental administration includes Chief Executive Officer, Block Development Officer, and Gram Sevak. There is also the Collector and Tehsildar.

4. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the functioning of the administration.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration 4 Q1

(i) At the national level, the work of the Central Government is conducted by various ministries (departments). For example, there are ministries of Agriculture, Health, Home, Defence, etc. Each ministry (or department) is headed by a Minister. Below the Minister is the bureaucracy or the administrative machinery. Besides the ministries, there are such institutions as the Election Commission, Union Public Service Commission. NITI Aayog, etc. These also require administrators or a bureaucracy.

(ii) At the State level also, there are various ministries and commissions that do the work of the government. The ministries of the State are also headed by a Minister and staffed by the bureaucracy.

(iii) At the local level, the administration is of two types: urban and rural administration. At the district level_ the highest administrative officer is the collector. In large cities, the Municipal Commissioner is in charge of the Municipality or Municipal Corporation. In rural areas, at the level of the Tehsil, the Tehsildar looks after the administration.

(iv) There is a close link between political leadership and administrative machinery. At the national, state levels and local levels, the political leaders are closely linked to the administrative machinery.

(v) The recruitment for all administrative posts at all levels is done through competitive examinations conducted by the government. At the central government level, the UPSC and Staff Selection Commission are the bodies that conduct these examinations.

Question 2.
Explain the steps in public policymaking.
Answer:
Public Policy refers to the new approach to understanding aspects of government activities for public welfare ‘ that is beyond simple administrative activities for e.g., Ayushman Bharat which aims to provide universal access to good quality health care in India.

Public policy can be understood in three steps.

Policy Choice: Elected representatives, bureaucrats, and others decide the on which concerns of citizens to deal with, various options available about how to deal with it, and the formulation of a programme are then decided for e.g., anti-malaria programme (its objectives and implementation).
Policy Output: Actual implementation of the policy takes place and policy output is determined
Policy Impact (evaluation stage): This involves assessment of the objectives to determine policy impact and any improvements if required.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Define public administration and explain its scope with reference to the following points.
(a) narrow perspective
(b) wider perspective
Answer:
Public Administration is a sub-discipline of Political Science. It focuses on ‘government in action’ i.e., implementation of government decisions, policies, and programmes in fields of social security and welfare, law and order, transport and communication, health and sanitation, etc.

The executive branch of government consists of the Political Executive (council of ministers) and Permanent/ Non-political Executive or Bureaucracy. Public Administration as a subject studies the activity and process of the government. According to Waldo, ‘Public Administration is the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the state’.

Public Administration broadly includes the following:

Activities of all three branches of government, especially that of the executive branch.
Non-political public bureaucracy operating in a political system.
Management of public affairs and policy execution.
Concerned with public welfare and hence provides service and regulatory functions to the people to attain a good life.

Scope of public Administration.
Public Administration can be studied as two categories.
(a) Narrow perspective – It focuses on aspects related only to the executive branch of government. Gullick and Urwick sum this view in the acronym POSDCORB to denote Planning, Organisation, Staffing, Directing, Coordinating, Reporting, Budgeting.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 7 Public Administration 5 Q1

Planning – working out in broad outline/ blueprint of what is to be done and methods to be adopted for it. e.g., NITI Aayog has adopted the approach of grassroots – national level.
Organising – establishing the formal structure of authority through which work is delegated, defined, and coordinated e.g. All India services.
Staffing – recruitment, training, and working conditions of personal e.g., in India this is through UPSC.
Directing – making decisions and issuing instructions and orders as the administration is a continuous activity.
Coordinating – interrelating the work of various selections and parts of the organization. eliminate overlapping of work or conflict over responsibility
Reporting – reporting to superiors/higher authorities any information about ongoing/completed tasks. This ensures responsibility and accountability.
Budgeting – refers to fiscal planning, control, and accounting.

(b) Broad perspective – This differs from the narrow, managerial view of public administration. It includes activities of all three branches of the government, their interrelationships. Specialized government functions such as defense, finance, health care, etc. as well as collaborations with private groups e.g., NGO’s in providing services to the community. This view is concerned with techniques of administration (POSDCORB) as well as with substantive matters of administration.

According to Woodrow Wilson, ‘Administration is the most obvious part of the government- it is a government inaction, the most visible, operative side of the government.’

Activity (Text Book Page No.63)

Question 1.
Look at the latest Annual Report of the Ministry of Home, Government of India. Make a list of the main activities of the ministry.
Answer:
The main activities of the Ministry of Home, GOI include the maintenance of internal security and domestic policy.
The departments included under this Ministry are-

Intelligence Bureau (IB)
Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
Border Security Force (BSF)
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
National Security Guards (NSG)
National Investigation Agency (NIA)
Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB).

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

Role of the Judiciary Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Question Answer Role of the Judiciary Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
___________ is the first country to create independent judiciary. (India, United States, United Kingdom, Soviet Union)
Answer:
United States

Question 2.
The primary function of the judiciary is ___________ (making laws, executing laws, adjudication, make appointments)
Answer:
adjudication

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Written Consitution – India
(b) Judicial Review – United Kingdom
(c) Independent Judiciary – United States
Answer:
(b) Judicial Review – USA

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Petition regarding important public concerns.
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

Question 2.
The process of removal of judges.
Answer:
Impeachment

Question 3.
Cases can be heard for the first time only in certain courts.
Answer:
Original Jurisdiction

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary 2 Q1
Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
There is no need to approve the appointment of judges by the Senate in the United States.
Answer:
This statement is False.

The Judges of the Supreme Court of America and the courts subordinate to it are appointed by the President of the USA.
These appointments can be confirmed only after the Senate gives its approval.

Question 2.
In India judiciary is independent.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Provisions for judicial independence are provided in the Indian Constitution.
This includes provisions related to appointment, tenure, salary, and allowances, removal from office, etc., of judges so that the judiciary acts in a free and fair manner.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Judiciary and Executive.
Answer:
The judiciary and executive are both organs of the government. The main function of the executive is the implementation of laws and policies while the functions of the judiciary include interpretation of law and adjudication. In India, judges are appointed by the President (nominal executive). Traditionally, these appointments were made after consulting with the existing government (ministry). However, to maintain judicial independence, the collegium of judges recommends names for appointment to the President.

There are many instances where the executive is a party to a dispute either as the plaintiff or as the defendant. Given the power of the Government, any legal dispute between it and one or more citizens is usually unequal. There is a possibility that the Government would use its powers to secure a favourable decision. This is where the independence of the Judiciary becomes important. An independent judiciary ensures that all those who appear before it is treated on an equal plane, and thus makes sure that decisions are in accordance with the law.

Question 2.
Supreme Court and High Court.
Answer:
India has a single integrated judicial system, with the Supreme Court at the apex and followed by the High Courts in the States. The Supreme Court controls all courts and tribunals in the territory of India. The High Court controls and supervises the functioning of the subordinate courts e.g., District Courts, in its territorial jurisdiction. The High Courts have Appellate jurisdiction, regarding decisions of the lower courts while Supreme Court can hear appeals in civil, criminal, and constitutional cases against decisions of the High Courts.

Supreme Court has original Jurisdiction such as in disputes about the election of the President or Vice¬President which are its exclusive jurisdiction. Both, Supreme Court and High Court have Writ Jurisdiction i.e., they can issue directives or writs such as Habeas Corpus in case of violation of a person’s fundamental rights. In case of appointment of judges of High Courts, the President also consults the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Judiciary must have a leading role in the appointment of judges.
Answer:
One of the main ways to secure judicial independence relates to the appointment of the judges. A judiciary that works under government favour, fear, or pressure i.e., a ‘committed judiciary’ can never give impartial, fair decisions especially when the government is a party in any dispute. The judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the President of India who is expected to be politically neutral.

However, according to the 42nd Amendment Act, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Union Ministry, Hence, executive interference in judicial appointments is a real possibility. Since the 1990s, the Supreme Court ruled that the Judiciary must play a leading role in its judicial appointments.

The Supreme Court set up a Collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the court which would recommend names to the President for appointment to the Supreme Court and the High Courts. The Government’s role in this process has now been minimized.

Question 2.
Judicial activism is significant today.
Answer:
Judiciary in India has started taking a wider view of its functions. For instance, the courts have allowed individuals to file petitions on matters of important public concern. Such cases are known as Public Interest Litigation (PILs). There have been instances where the courts of their own accord, without anyone complaining or filing a petition, have taken note of matters of public concern (Suo moto). This wider view taken by the Judiciary of its functions has been termed as ‘Judicial Activism’.

In recent years, Judicial Activism has led to the courts examining the legality of the decision of the executive over a wide variety of issues including the ones referred to above. Moreover, in many instances, they have also either issued orders on what should be done over many issues or have directed the executive to take action about the same in a specified time period.

There has been much debate over Judicial Activism. Some feel that the judiciary was compelled to intervene because the executive was not discharging its functions properly, while others believe that the courts are exceeding their powers by looking into matters which fall within the jurisdiction of the executive or legislative.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the process of Judicial Review?
(a) Meaning
(b) Need
(c) When and where it started
(d) Indian context
Answer:
(a) Meaning: Judicial Review means the power of the Judiciary to examine if any law passed by the legislature or any executive policy or action is consistent with the Constitution or not, and if it is not then to declare it as unconstitutional and hence null and void.

(b) Need: It becomes necessary to have an institution that would examine whether the laws are consistent with the Constitution or not. That institution should also have the power to declare any law found inconsistent with the Constitution to be invalid and therefore not to be implemented. This would prevent the Legislature from making laws that violate the Constitution. In democracies with written Constitutions, this power is vested in the Judiciary. The Judiciary is not involved in any way in the law-making process. It is an independent body. Hence it has been assigned this power.

(c) When and where it started: The origins of the power of Judicial Review can be traced to a decision of the Supreme Court of the United States of America given in 1803 in a case known as the Marbury vs Madison case. This was for the first time that the American Supreme Court declared a law passed by the United States Congress to be invalid on the grounds that it was inconsistent with the Constitution of the United States. However, it must be noted that the American Constitution does not have an explicit provision that gives the Judiciary the power of Judicial Review. It is an implied power. To date, the American Supreme Court’s power of Judicial Review has been unchallenged. This is so because it is accepted that such a power is necessary to retain the supremacy of the Constitution.

(d) Indian Context: The Constitution of India does not explicitly provide the judiciary with the power of Judicial Review. However, like in the United States, these powers are implied. The Supreme Court of India has on many occasions declared laws passed by the Legislature as being inconsistent with the Constitution and therefore unconstitutional. In the Indian context, the real issue has been whether the amendments to the Constitution can be held unconstitutional. The issue was settled by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). In its judgment, the Court stated that the Constitution of India had a ‘Basic Structure’. The Constitutional Amendments passed by the Parliament have to be consistent with this ‘Basic Structure’, and if they are found to be not, then the Supreme Court would declare them unconstitutional. The power to declare any Amendments as unconstitutional rests only with the Supreme Court.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 52)

Make a list of examples of Judicial Activism in India.
Answer:
Judicial Activism refers to the active role of the judiciary in upholding the rights of citizens and preserving constitutional provisions and the legal system of the country. The judiciary takes an active part wherever the legislature of executive fails to perform its duty, especially to dispense social justice.
Some areas of judicial activism include:

Reforming the BCCI even though it is a private body.
The Supreme Court insisting on a collegium of judges to suggest names for elevation as judges to the High/Supreme courts.
Protection of the ecosystem and environmental jurisprudence.
In regard to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984).
Conduct NEET exam all over the country.
The right to privacy is a part of a fundamental right.
Improving conditions of undertrials.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

Concept of Representation Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Question Answer Concept of Representation Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 5 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Ancient Greece had ___________ (dictatorship, direct democracy, indirect democracy, monarchy)
Answer:
Direct democracy

Question 2.
The oldest representative assembly in the world is ___________ (House of Commons, House of Lords, Senate, House of Representative)
Answer:
House of Commons

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The political system is where people elect representatives to govern themselves.
Answer:
Representative Democracy

1C. Find the odd word in the given set.

Question 1.
The Indian National Trade Union Congress, All India Kisan Sabha, National Students Union of India, Indian National Congress
Answer:
Indian National Congress (it is a political party)

2. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 Concept of Representation 2 Q1
Answer:

3. Explain the correlation between the following.

Question 1.
Governmental and Non-Governmental Organizations.
Answer:
Governmental organizations are public organizations that have a formalized structure. They are formed by election or nomination. They have legal status in terms of their jurisdiction. They are more concerned with political and administrative aspects.

However, such organizations due to their structure and scope may not be able to satisfy the concerns of different sections of the population or to represent various interests and causes. This leads to people who are devoted to the cause coming together as non-profit groups and further their cause. NGO’s work in the field of political and environmental awareness, the welfare of the elderly/women/children/disabled, etc., for e.g., Green Peace (environment), Help Age (senior citizens), CRY (children), AGNI (Political awareness), PFA (animals).

4. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Pressure groups are different from political parties.
Answer:
I agree with the statement.

The political parties are part of the governmental system. They seek to influence government policy from the inside. A pressure group tries to influence the government from the outside. They do not stand for elections or aim to become members of the legislature/ government.
Political parties have a broad agenda. They seek to represent the people for political, social, economic, cultural, and other concerns. Pressure groups usually have a narrow focus. They focus on specific issues or agitations for a specific cause e.g., the environment.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
What is meant by representation? Explain the various methods of representation?
(a) Meaning
(b) Electoral
(c) Non-electoral
(d) Non-official
Answer:
(a) Meaning: The concept of representation is important in any democracy.
Today, most countries have large territories and populations. Hence, direct democracy is not possible. The form of democracy today is indirect democracy or representative democracy. People elect representatives among themselves to govern the country for e.g., in India, Members of Parliament (MP’s), Members of State Legislative Assemblies/ Councils (MLA’s, MLC’s), of corporations, etc., are all our representatives.

(b) Electoral Method: Persons are directly or indirectly elected by the citizens to govern them as members of representative assemblies e.g., General elections to Lok Sabha, Assembly elections.

(c) Non-electoral Method: Representatives occupy their position through nomination or appointment for e.g., President of India appoints 12 Members to the Rajya Sabha.

(d) Non-official Method: Civil society represents the people through various pressure groups like trade unions, student groups, peasant organizations.

6. Suggest ways by which you can encourage people to vote in elections.
Answer:

NGO’s such as AGNI have special programmes designed to encourage people to exercise their franchise.
Street plays, flash mobs at railway stations, talks in colleges about the importance of voting.
Voter enrollment drives to encourage youngsters to vote.
Advertisements, especially involving celebrities as ‘ambassadors’ for the franchise.
In some countries of the world, the franchise is compulsory.

Activity (Text Book Page No. 44)

Question 1.
Write the history of anyone national political party in India.
Answer:
Indian National Congress
Indian National Congress was founded on 28th December 1885 due to the efforts of A.O. Hume, to act as a platform for civil and political dialogue among educated Indians. The first session, held in Bombay with 72 delegates in attendance, elected W.C. Banerjee as its first President. Members were mainly from the Bombay and Madras Presidencies such as Dadabhai Naoroji, Dinshaw Wacha, Pherozshah Mehta, and others. During its early phase, the Congress was led by the Moderates.

The party first split at the Surat session (1907) into two groups i.e., Moderates and Extremists (led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak). The party began to endorse the policy of “Swaraj” (Self-rule) and “Swadeshi” (of our own country), After the death of Lokmanya Tilak, the leadership of the Congress passed into the hands of Mahatma Gandhi. His philosophy was based on the ideals of Satyagraha and Ahimsa. Various movements were organized by Gandhiji such as Non-Cooperation Movement (1920’s), Civil Disobedience (1930’s), and Quit India Movement (1942).

The INC has dominated most of India’s political landscape since Independence. The period 1947-1967 is described as the One-Party Dominant System (OPDS) of the INC. However, Congress dominance has declined. In the UPA government (2004 – 2014) the INC was one of the major parties. At present, it is the main opposition party (2019).

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

Constitutional Government Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Question Answer Constitutional Government Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 4 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
Unwritten Constitution exists in _____________ (United Kingdom, India .South Africa, United States)
Answer:
United Kingdom

Question 2.
In a parliamentary system there is a _____________ of legislative and executive powers. (separation, coordination, merger, centralisation)
Answer:
merger

Question 3.
The ten amendments to the American Constitution are collectively referred to as _____________ (Bills of Rights, Magna Carta, Basic Structure Doctrine, Fundamental Rights)
Answer:
Bill of Rights

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Magna Carta – England
(b) Veto – United Kingdom
(c) Kesavananda Bharati Case – Basic structure doctrine
Answer:
(b) Veto – USA

1C. Find the odd word out in the given set.

Question 1.
England, Scotland, Wales, Republic of Ireland.
Answer:
The Republic of Ireland (not part of UK)

Question 2.
India, Australia, Canada, Argentina.
Answer:
Argentina (not a parliamentary system)

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Indian Federation can be described as a ‘quasi-federation’.
Answer:
This statement is True.

The Indian Constitution provides for dual set of governments i.e Union State governments. There is a distribution of powers on the basis of three lists viz. Union list, State list, and Concurrent list.
However, India has a federal structure with a powerful central government. The constitution framers felt that a strong Union government was needed to ensure the balanced development of the country.

Question 2.
The parliamentary system exists in the United States.
Answer:
This statement is False.

In a Parliamentary system, there is a merger of legislative and executive functioning. There are two executives, i.e., real and normal executives. This is noticed in India, United Kingdom, etc.
the United States follows the Presidential system based on separation of government powers. Here, there is only one executive i.e., President who is directly elected by citizens.

3. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Legislature and Executive in a parliamentary system.
Answer:
In a parliamentary system, there is a fusion of legislative and executive functions. The real executive i.e. the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers is drawn from the Legislature. There are no separate elections for the post of Prime Minister and other Ministers. The Prime Minister and the Ministers play a dual role i.e., they are part of both Legislature and Executive. Thus, they also attend Parliamentary sessions.

The leader of the party or group which commands a majority in the legislature is invited by the nominal executive (President) to form the government and assume the post of Prime Minister. The Ministry stays in power only as long as it enjoys majority support in Parliament. The lower house of the Parliament in England (House of Commons) and in India (Lok Sabha) can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Ministry which means that the Prime Minister and his/her Council of Ministers must resign. This is due to parliamentary sovereignty. Thus, the executive is subordinate to and responsible to the Parliament (legislature).

Question 2.
President and Legislature in a presidential system.
Answer:
In a Presidential system, there is a separation of government powers and a system of checks and balances. The President i.e., head of the executive is directly elected by the citizens for a fixed tenure. He/she enjoys powers granted to the office by the constitution and must conduct his/her administration in accordance with laws passed by the legislature. Members of the executive are prohibited from being members of the legislature.

The legislature is also popularly elected. Its powers are not absolute since the President can exercise ‘Veto Power’ to reject a law passed by the legislature. Similarly, the legislature can also impeach the President if it is proved that the constitution has been violated by him/her. The President continues in office irrespective of whether he/she enjoys majority support in the legislature. However such lack of support may lead to a breakdown or impasse in government functioning.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain constitutionalism and constitutional morality.
Answer:
Constitutionalism refers to the idea that there should be limitations on the powers of the government which may be specified in the constitution or may arise due to historical developments. The Magna Carta (Great Charter) (1215) and Bill of Rights (1689) in England were attempts to restrict the powers of the Monarchs. As the concept of separation of legislative, executive, judicial powers became popular, so also, the idea of restricting powers of the government as a whole emerged. The origins of constitutionalism can be traced to the Social Contract Theory propounded by John Locke. He believed that people should have the right to change the government if it committed any wrongdoings.

The first ten amendments to the American Constitution (collectively called the Bill of Rights) imposed restrictions on the government. The Indian Constitution also restricts government jurisdiction so that it doesn’t violate Fundamental Rights.
Any constitution is subject to amendments. Thus, it is possible that certain governments may use their amendment powers to remove restrictions, on their policies and actions.

In any democracy, Constitutionalism refers to restrictions on the power of the government and adherence to the spirit of the constitution. It refers to the values which form its foundations and the manner in which those who hold power are expected to behave. This can be described by the term ‘Constitutional Monarchy’.

5. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain Constitution and its three distinct interrelated components.
(i) What is a Constitution?
(ii) set of rules
(iii) set of rights
(iv) set of objectives and values
Answer:
(i) The constitution is the highest law of the country. It reflects the objectives of the state and the rights and aspirations of its citizens. It establishes the rule of law and sets limits on government authority. A constitution is a living document that indicates the way in which a country is governed. The primary function of the constitution is to lay out the basic structure of the government according to which the people are to be governed. A constitution has three distinct but interrelated components.

(ii) Set of Rules – A constitution is a set of rules that describes the structure, powers, and functions of the three organs of government to ensure that each organ functions without its jurisdiction. It lays down the limitations on what the government can do or cannot do.

(iii) Set of Rights – A constitution lists the rights of the citizens, means for the protection of these rights, and the duties of citizens. It also lists the means of protecting the rights e.g., in India, the judiciary is entrusted with protecting the rights. The rights guaranteed by the constitution are not unlimited i.e. they are subject to reasonable limitations.

(iv) Set of Objectives and Values – A constitution enumerates the values and objectives that it seeks to fulfill. For e.g., the Indian Constitution seeks to ensure the values of justice, liberty, and equality.

11th Political Science Digest Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Intext Questions and Answers

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 30)

How many times has the Indian Constitution been amended? What was the latest amendment?
Answer:
Amendments refer to changes in certain provisions of the constitution. In India, Article 368 deals with the amendment procedure. Till March 2019, the Indian Constitution has been amended 103 times. The 101st amendment (July 2017) introduced GST, the 102nd amendment gave constitutional status to National Commission for Backward Classes, and the 103rd amendment provided for a maximum of 10% reservation for economically weaker sections (EWS) by amending Articles 15,16. (Right to Equality)

Find out! (Text Book Page No.32)

Make a list of all Prime Ministers of India with their tenure.
Answer:

Jawaharlal Nehru (August 1947 – May 1964)
Gulzarilal Nanda – Acting Prime Minister (27 May 1964 – 9 June 1964, 11 January 1966 – 24 January 1966)
Lai Bahadur Shastri (June 1964 – January 1966)
Indira Gandhi (January 1966 – March 1977, January 1980 – October 1984)
Morarji Desai (March 1977 – July 1979)
Charan Singh (July 1979 – January 1980)
Rajiv Gandhi (October 1984 – December 1989)
V. P. Singh (December 1989 – November 1990)
Chandra Shekar (November 1990 – June 1991)
P. V. Narsimha Rao (June 1991 – May 1996)
A. B. Vajpayee (May 1996 – June 1996, March 1998 – May 2004)
H. D. Deve Gowda (June 1996 – April 1997)
I. K. Gujral (April 1997 – March 1998)
Dr. Manmohan Singh (May 2004 – May 2014)
Narendra Modi (May 2014 – till date)

Find out! (Text Book Page No. 34)

Name any four American Presidents who belonged to the Republican Party and for who belonged to the Democratic Party
Answer:

Republican Party – Abraham Lincoln, Richard Nixon, Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush, George W. Bush.
Democratic Party – F. D. Roosevelt, J. F. Kennedy, Bill Clinton, Barack Obama, Donald Trump.

Do this. (Text Book Page No. 35)

Look at the following subjects (Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution):

Law and Order
Atomic Energy
Banking
Agriculture
Police
Electricity
Education
Railways
Public health
Foreign affairs
Forests.

Find out which of these subjects is in Union, state, or concurrent list.
Answer:

Union List	State List	Concurrent List
Atomic Energy	Police	Education
Foreign Affairs	Agriculture	Electricity
Banking	Law and order	Forest
Railways	Public Health

Activity (Text Book Page No. 36)

What are the rights mentioned in the Bill of Rights of the American Constitution?
Answer:
The Bill of Rights refers to the first ten amendments of the US constitution. Some of the rights include.

First Amendment prohibits the making of any law impeding the free exercise of religion or restricting the freedom of speech or of the press or to assemble peacefully.
The Second Amendment protects the individual right to keep arms.
The Fifth Amendment protects against double jeopardy and self-incrimination.
The sixth amendment establishes a number of rights of the defendant in a criminal trial such as speedy, public trial by an impartial jury, the assistance of counsel, etc.
The Tenth amendment reinforces the principles of separation of powers and of federalism.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

Equality and Justice Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Question Answer Equality and Justice Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 3 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The base of political equality is __________ (democracy, dictatorship, military rule, monarchy)
Answer:
democracy

Question 2.
John Rawls was an advocate of __________ justice. (distributive, political, economic, gender-based)
Answer:
distributive

1B. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
The principle of equality states that each one should get an opportunity for the development of their individual personality.
Answer:
Equality of opportunity

Question 2.
Type of equality which says that every citizen has an equal right to participate in affairs of the State.
Answer:
Political equality

Question 3.
Absence of economic exploitation.
Answer:
Economic equality

1C. Complete the following sentence using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
In India, laws were made regarding the abolition of untouchability. Because
(a) untouchability is a political concept
(b) untouchability is a legal concept
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation
Answer:
(c) social inequality can be controlled by State legislation

2. Complete the concept map/maps.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Equality and Justice 2 Q1
Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Democracy denies equality.
Answer:
This statement is False.

A democratic government is based on the pillars of liberty, equality, justice, and fraternity.
Equality signifies equality of opportunity, political participation, and equal protection of the law which can be ensured only in a democracy.

Question 2.
Equality is a political goal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Equality signifies that all human beings have an equal worth irrespective of their race, religion, caste, etc. It, however, does not mean uniformity.
In modern times, equality includes aspects like tolerance and empathy i.e., a moral and collective dimension. It is also the basis of liberty and justice and is thus considered a political goal.

Question 3.
Social democracy is the foundation of political democracy.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Social democracy means that there is equality i.e., no distinction among individuals merely on basis of ethnicity, creed, gender, etc. It ensures the dignity of the individual.
Political democracy is expressed in political rights such as the right to vote, to criticize the government, etc. In the absence of social democratic political democracy will be less worthwhile.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Equality and justice.
Answer:
Equality refers to equal rights and opportunities for all persons irrespective of their race, creed, gender, etc. It means no person or group will be discriminated against socially, economically, or politically. Similarly, no person or group will have special privileges that are denied to the vast majority in society.

Justice refers to that state of affairs in which every individual gets exactly those burdens and benefits that are due to him. It refers to the absence of socio-economic, political, and legal injustices.

In the absence of equality, there will be a denial of justice and the progress of society will be hindered. Justice aims at the reconciliation of individual rights and larger social interests.

Question 2.
Legal Justice and Social Justice
Answer:
Legal justice is the application of the abstract concept of justice through the implementation of the law. Justice is a precondition to the law as, without it, the law may become an instrument of tyranny and suppression. Austin considers law as a means to suppress injustice as well as to establish justice. Legal justice signifies an independent and impartial judiciary that observes specific rules for judicial proceedings. Any accused should be charged keeping in mind his/her human rights.

Social justice is both reformative and distributive. It aims at a revision of the social order by doing away with socio-economic evils for e.g. to eradicate untouchability, there is Article 17 of the constitution as well as laws passed by Parliament.

Procedural justice demands equality before the law as well as correct interpretation and application of the law. Social justice is also reformative i.e., equitable distribution of goods and services so that underprivileged sections can get an adequate share in this distribution.

5. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
Casteism is a barrier to social equality.
Answer:
The caste system is one of the basic features of Indian society. It implies divisions in society based merely on one’s birth into a particular section of society. There was a caste hierarchy in which the upper castes enjoyed privileges that were denied to the lower castes. Even, within the four main Chaturvaranas, hierarchies began to develop.

Casteism began to become a social evil, as it resulted in untouchability as well as the exploitation and segregation of lower castes. They were denied equal opportunities to have socio-economic and political rights. Casteism did not permit upward mobility in the caste hierarchy due to marriage or achievement. The intermingling of castes was prohibited. Lower castes were often discriminated against in educational, political, and employment facilities. In some cases, they were denied access to public places like water bodies, hospitals, etc.

Social equality means that there has to be no favouring of or discrimination against any person/group on irrelevant aspects like caste and creed. It means that the dignity and intrinsic worth of every person must be recognized. Thus, the rigid hierarchies and discrimination perpetuated by casteism hinder social equality.

6. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Explain the Indian concept of Justice.
Answer:
There exist different kinds of inequalities in India, such as those created through the caste system, through the patriarchal system, etc. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar argued that justice would be achieved when the structure and values associated with these systems undergo a change. He also related the concept of justice to the concept of the distribution of resources. The Constitution of India ensures justice through both, procedural justice and social justice. This can be achieved through the educational and economic development of the backward classes.

Justice is implemented through the following policies:

The policy of reservation.
Granting of scholarships, grants, loans, health services, etc. for weaker sections of the society.
Eradication of unjust social and economic practices which exploit the backward classes.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

Liberty and Rights Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Liberty and Rights Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The book, ‘On Liberty’ was written by ___________ (Robert Nozick, Thomas Hobbes, J. S. Mill, Isaiah Berlin)
Answer:
J. S. Mill

Question 2.
The concept of Swaraj was spelled out by ___________ (Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Rajendra Prasad)
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

1B. Complete the following sentence by using appropriate reason.

Question 1.
According to Jeremy Bentham, the State should not bring any obstruction, in liberty because –
(a) State does not give liberty.
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.
(c) liberty is a hurdle-less situation.
Answer:
(b) the individual knows how to protect his own interests.

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statement.

Question 1.
Fundamental right introduced in Constitution of India by 86th Amendment.
Answer:
Right to education

Question 2.
Rights-based on the conscience of the individual and the community.
Answer:
Moral rights

2. Complete the concept map.

Question 1.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights 2 Q1
Answer:

3. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Legal rights are not universal.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Legal rights include political and civil rights which are granted by the State to the people. Legal rights are codified in law.
Different countries grant different rights to their people. Hence, unlike natural rights, legal rights are not universal.

4. Explain the co-relation between the following.

Question 1.
Concept of Liberty by Thomas Hobbes and John Locke (Positive liberty and Negative liberty).
Answer:
Positive liberty and Negative liberty are two aspects of liberty that have their origin in liberalism. Negative liberty emerged from classical and neoclassical liberalism and finds expression in the views of thinkers like Jeremy Bentham, John Stuart Mill, Robert Nozick, Friedrich Hayek, and Isaiah Berlin.

Negative liberty opposes all restraints on liberty i.e., the State should not interfere in the social, economic life of the individual. It opposes any coercion, interference, or force on part of the State. The base negative aspect of liberty is the freedom of thought. Bentham argues that every person knows how to protect their own interest and hence no obstruction should be brought by the State.

John Stuart Mill suggests that negative liberty should be rejected only if it adversely impacts society. Hayek described liberty as a hurdle-less situation while Nozick suggested that the individual should be free from social, economic, and State restrictions. Berlin explains that negative liberty is opposition to restraints on the choice of alternatives.

The positive aspect of liberty as advocated by Jean-Jacques Rousseau and Herbert Marcuse emerged from modern liberalism. It states that liberty affects equality and justice. The law guides the individual towards the enrichment of their personality. Rousseau advocated the idea of State control over the individual since the State is a sovereign power that represents the ‘General Will’. Similarly, Marcuse advocates State interference and collective control as essential in community life.
We can conclude in the two statements of Isaiah Berlin.

The negative aspect of liberty – ‘I am a slave to no man’.
The positive aspect of liberty – ‘I am my own master’.

Question 2.
Natural rights and Legal rights.
Answer:
According to Harold Laski, ‘Rights are those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

Rights may be classified as natural rights, moral rights or legal (civil-political) rights.
Natural Rights e.g., the right to life, are parts of human nature and reason. They are not dependent on the laws of any government or the customs of any culture. They are universal and inalienable. They are considered beyond the authority of any government or international body to dismiss. The idea of human rights is closely related to that of natural rights. In the United States Declaration of Independence, natural rights mentioned are ‘Life, Liberty, and pursuit of Happiness. Our natural rights as human beings include being treated justly regardless of race, religion, gender, region, etc.

John Locke and Thomas Hobbes strongly advocated natural rights. Natural rights are important because without them we would have no claim to freedom. Legal rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

5. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Explain Mahatma Gandhi’s idea of liberty
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi accepted the concept of Swaraj as liberty. He spelled this out in his work, ‘Hind Swaraj’. The term Swaraj implies a combination of two ideas: Self (Swa) and Rule (Raj). Thus Swaraj means Self-Rule. Gandhiji’s concept of Swaraj was comprehensive. He did not accept Swaraj only as freedom from British rule but also as freedom from western cultural domination. Swaraj would mean freedom from the trampling of humanitarian values. This concept gives more importance to self-governance, self-discipline, and human values.

Question 2.
Discuss the concept of Human Rights.
Answer:
Human Rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The U.N.O adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (U.D.H.R) on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e., they develop with changing times. U.D.H.R expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes the culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc
Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g., the right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions in the state. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as happens in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Question 3.
Explain Isaiah Berlin’s concept of Liberty.
Answer:
Isaiah Berlin in his famous essay, ‘Two Concepts of Liberty’, discussed Negative and Positive Liberty. He believed that liberty is unrestrained. According to Isaiah Berlin, freedom of action is negative liberty. As per this principle, the opportunity to act is important while the action itself is secondary.

According to him, the impact of the action is not considered important and hence it is not measured. Therefore, this principle does not give importance to quality. For example, this concept does not make a qualitative difference between choosing one’s education, profession, or suffer deprivation. He would rather give importance to give an opportunity to do these actions than the outcome of the action itself.

Isaiah Berlin has mentioned the following features of negative liberty.

Individuals should have complete freedom of choice. He should not have restraints on the choice of alternatives. Opposition to such restraints is a feature of negative liberty.
Negative Liberty is based on Neoliberalism.

6. Answer the following in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Elaborate the concept of Rights –
(a) Meaning and Classification of Rights
(b) Legal Rights
(c) Human Rights
Answer:
(i) Meaning and Classification of Rights: Rights are those social conditions that are necessary for the development of our personality. Laski defines rights as ‘those conditions of social life without which no man can seek, in general, to be himself at his best.

Maharashtra Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights 6 Q1

Natural Rights – These rights are universal in character e.g. the right to life and liberty.
Moral Rights – These rights are based on the conscience of the person and the community e.g. respect for elders.
Legal Rights – These rights are granted by the state and are codified in law. These rights are not universal. Legal rights may be:
- Civil rights: related to the person and property of the individual’s right to liberty, equality, property.
- Political rights: are available only to citizens in a democratic State and aim to encourage active political participation e.g. the right to vote, to contest elections.

(ii) Legal Rights: These rights refer to rights according to law. These rights are granted by the State to the people and exist differently in different countries. They are justiciable and codified in law. Such rights are neither universal nor inalienable. Legal rights include civil rights and political rights.

(iii) Human Rights: These rights are those rights that we are entitled to simply because we are human beings. Henry Thoreau first described natural rights as human rights. These are basic rights of people anywhere in the world to be free from exploitation, injustice, and want, to lead a dignified existence, and to develop to the fullest extent. The UNO adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10th December 1948. These rights are dynamic i.e. they develop with changing times. UDHR expresses belief in the liberty and equality of human beings and promotes a culture of peace and cooperation.

Human rights can be classified as

Civil and Political rights – These are liberty-oriented rights like the right to freedom of thought, right to vote, etc.
Social, Cultural, and Economic rights – These include the right to social justice, the right to work, etc.
Developmental rights – These are linked to the concept of fraternity e.g. right to a healthy environment, right to information.

The implementation of human rights requires favorable political, socio-economic conditions. In the absence of such, these rights may be violated or denied as in the case of women, children, displaced persons, minorities, etc.

Activity 1 (Text Book Page No. 17)

Make a list of Civil Rights in India.
Answer:
Civil rights in India include

Right to life
Right to personal freedom
Right to Family life
Right to freedom of religion
Right to freedom of thought and expression including freedom of the press
Right to freedom of movement association and assembly
Right to Education
Right to freedom of occupation and vocation
Right to freedom from arbitrary arrest
Right to justice.

Activity 2 (Text Book Page No. 15)

Discuss and make a note of examples of human rights violations.
Answer:
Human rights violations are noticed in many countries of the world.

Violation of rights of women: In many countries exhibiting a patriarchal mindset, women are considered as having an inferior status. They become victims of social evils like dowry, female foeticide, F.G.M., and of crimes like sexual assaults, domestic violence, etc.
Violation of rights of children: The world over and especially in poorer countries or in areas of conflict, violation of child rights occurs by physical neglect, abandonment, abuse, sexual crimes, child labour, etc.
Violation of rights of underprivileged sections: Such persons face exploitation, deprivation, discrimination, and poverty. This section includes tribals, handicapped persons, ethnic/religious/linguistic minorities.
Violation of rights of displaced persons: Displacement of persons may be due to hostile government, civil war, and conflicts, natural disasters, developmental projects, etc. Such persons are often unwanted everywhere e.g., Syrian refugees.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

The State Question Answer Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Maharashtra Board

May 6, 2025

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Question Answer The State Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 The State Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 The State Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Political Science Class 11 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the appropriate alternative and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
The term Nation is derived from the Latin word ___________ (Nasci, Natio, Natalis, Nauto)
Answer:
Nasci

Question 2.
The origin of Liberal Nationalism is in the ___________ Revolution. (American, Russian, French, British)
Answer:
French

1B. Identify the incorrect pair in every set, correct it and rewrite.

Question 1.
(a) Aristotle – German Thinker
(b) Jean Bodin – French Thinker
(c) Woodrow Wilson – American Thinker
(d) Harold Laski – British Thinker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle – Greek Thinker

1C. State the appropriate concept for the given statements.

Question 1.
The force which holds the people to a sense of political loyalty to the country –
Answer:
Nationalism

Question 2.
The area of the State within which it has the authority to govern –
Answer:
Jurisdiction

2. State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons.

Question 1.
Progressive Nationalism can create differences amongst people.
Answer:
This statement is False.

Progressive nationalism is integral nationalism that can help people of a society to unite and to promote development towards the objective of national integration.
Aggressive nationalism is destructive and can create differences amongst people.

Question 2.
Sovereignty means State has the freedom to take its own decision.
Answer:
This statement is True.

Sovereignty refers to the supreme power of the state internally as well as externally.
The State is free from external control and also legally sovereign with its own independent constitution.

Question 3.
Palestine is a State.
Answer:
This statement is False.

The state has four essential elements i.e. population, territory, government, and sovereignty. Palestine does not have a sovereign government. Its territory is under Israeli jurisdiction.
Hence, Palestine is a nation, not a State although more than 100 members of the UNO have given recognition to Palestine as a State.

Question 4.
Expansionist Nationalism is a type of Aggressive Nationalism.
Answer:
This statement is True.

In the expansionist form of nationalism, countries become aggressive, imperialist, and colonialist, and create empires for national glory.
This has been noticed in Nazi Germany Fascist Italy.

3. Express your opinion of the following.

Question 1.
India is a State.
Answer:
I agree with the above statement.
In Political Science, the term ‘State’ is used to describe a sovereign country. Anti-colonial nationalism led to the freedom struggle in India and subsequent independence from British Rule in 1947.

Any state has the following elements:

Sovereignty: India achieved the status of a Sovereign Republic on 26th January 1950 when its constitution came into effect.
Government: As a British colony, there was a government but it was not a sovereign government However, after political independence, a Sovereign, Parliamentary, Federal government was constituted in India.
Territory: India is defined by its geographical boundaries. Its jurisdiction extends all over its compact territory, now comprising of 29 states and 7 union territories.
Population: India has a vast population, exhibiting great diversity in terms of ethnicity/race, region and language, culture, religion, and so on. Thus, we can conclude that India is a nation-state.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the features of a Nation?
Answer:
The word ‘nation’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Nasci’ meaning ‘to be born’. Thus, the literal meaning of a nation is a people having a common race/ethnicity or cultural linkages. Earnest Barker defines a nation as a body of men, inhabiting a definite territory, who normally are drawn from different races but possess a common stock of thoughts and feelings acquired and transmitted during the course of common history.

A nation refers to a large group of people, united in common bonds of geography, race, history, religion, language, sharing common objectives.

Features of a Nation:

Population: A nation must have a population that has a sense of ethnic, historical, and cultural oneness.
Feeling of community: The emotional dimension of a nation is a perception held by the population of psychological oneness i.e., they are a community.
Desire to be politically separate: A feeling of unity and of being a nation is a product of the urge for ‘self-determination’. This can lead to a demand for self-governance. This signifies that people who feel united should have the right to decide the type of government that they prefer.

Question 2.
What is Nationalism? Explain its types.
Answer:
Nationalism is a force that binds the people to a sense of integrity and loyalty to their country. It is a spirit of oneness or common consciousness that binds a community together. Nationalism is a sense of political identity and emotional attachment to one’s ‘homeland’.

The forms of Nationalism from a political perspective are:

Liberal Nationalism: Its origins are in the ideals of the French Revolution. President Woodrow Wilson linked the concept of a nation to the right to self-determination and sovereignty.
Conservative Nationalism: It views a nation as a closely linked society with great importance to patriotism and the concept of ‘motherland’.
Expansionist Nationalism: It is aggressive nationalism, which leads to imperialism, conquest, and colonialism. It has been seen in European imperialism by countries like England, Italy, Spain, France, etc.
Anticolonial Nationalism: It refers to liberation struggles for independence from colonial rule, e.g., Indonesian freedom struggle from Dutch colonial rule.

5. Answer the following question in detail with reference to the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the following elements of the State.
(a) Sovereignty
(b) Government
(c) Population
(d) Territory
Answer:
(a) Sovereignty: It signifies the supreme power of the State internally as well as externally. It means an independent nation with its own constitution.

(b) Government: This refers to the agency through which the will of the state is expressed. Modern governments have three organs viz. legislature, executive, and judiciary. Government must be independent. Institutions of the State are ‘public’ institutions and have the legitimacy to act on behalf of the State. These institutions are responsible for making and implementing laws to promote the general welfare of the people. There are various kinds of government based on their creation or style of function for e.g., democracy or dictatorship, republic or monarchy, presidential or parliamentary system, etc.

(c) Population: A State is an association of human beings. The progress of a State depends on the quality of the population. Some states viz. China, India, etc., have a large population while some States have a small population viz. Monaco, Belgium, etc. The population may be homogeneous e.g., Israel or diverse e.g. erstwhile USSR comprised of many nationalities like Russians, Ukrainians, Latvians, etc. Thus a ‘State’ may comprise of many ‘nations’.

(d) Territory: A State is recognized by its territory. This includes the land area within its boundaries, the airspace above the area, and surrounding territorial waters (up to 12 nautical miles). The area within which the State has the authority to govern is called its jurisdiction. Some states have a small territory e.g., Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Maldives, etc., while other States e.g., Brazil, Russia, India, and Australia have a large territory. Most States have compact territory e.g., India, while some states which exist as islands have scattered territory e.g., Indonesia.

Activity (Text Book Page No.8)

Identify the States with the smallest territory and largest territory on the world map.
Answer:
States having the largest territory: Russia, Canada, USA, China, Brazil, Australia, India, Argentina, Kazakhstan, Algeria, etc.
States with the smallest territory: Vatican City, Monaco, Nauru, San Marino, Maldives, Singapore, Mauritius, Fiji, etc.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Political Science Textbook Solutions

11th Biology Chapter 6 Exercise Biomolecules Solutions Maharashtra Board

May 5, 2025

Biomolecules Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 6 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 6 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A)
Sugar, amino acids, and nucleotides unite to their respective subunits to form ________
(a) bioelements
(b) micromolecules
(c) macromolecules
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) macromolecules

Question (B)
Glycosidic bond is found in __________ .
(a) Disaccharide
(b) Nucleosides
(c) Polysaccharide
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question (C)
Amino acids in a polypeptide are joined by _______ bond.
(a) Disulphide
(b) glycosidic
(c) hydrogen bond
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question (D)
Lipids associated with cell membrane are _________ .
(a) Sphingomyelin
(b) Isoprenoids
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Cholesterol
Answer:
(c) Phospholipids

Question (E)
Linoleic, Linolenic and ________ acids are referred as essential fatty acids since they cannot be synthesized by the body and hence must be included in daily diet.
(a) Arachidonic
(b) Oleic
(c) Steric
(d) Palmitic
Answer:
(a) Arachidonic

Question (F)
Hemoglobin is a type of ________ protein, which plays indispensable part in respiration.
(a) simple
(b) derived
(c) conjugated
(d) complex
Answer:
(c) conjugated

Question (G)
When inorganic ions or metallo-organic molecules bind to apoenzyme, they together form
(a) isoenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) denatured enzyme
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) holoenzyme

Question (H)
In enzyme kinetics, Km = Vmax/2. If Km value is lower, it indicates _______
(a) Enzyme has less affinity for substrate
(b) Enzyme has higher affinity towards substrate
(c) There will be no product formation
(d) All active sites of enzyme are saturated
Answer:
(b) Enzyme has higher affinity towards substrate

2. Solve the following questions

Question (A)
Observe the following figures and write the differences between them.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 1
Answer:

Saturated fats	Unsaturated fats
1. They contain single chain of carbon atoms with single bonds.	They contain chain of carbon atoms with one or more double bonds.
2. They are solid at room temperature.	They are liquid at room temperature.
3. They increase blood cholesterol level by depositing it in the inner wall of arteries.	They lower the blood cholesterol level and have many health benefits.
4. They do not get spoiled.	They get spoiled easily.
5. Saturated fats are obtained from animal fats, palm oil, etc.	Unsaturated fatty acids are obtained from plant and vegetable oil, etc.

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
What are building blocks of life?
Answer:
Life is composed of four main building blocks: Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.

Question (B)
Explain the peptide bond.
Answer:
1. The covalent bond that links the two amino acids is called a peptide bond.
2. Peptide bond is formed by condensation reaction.

Question (C)
How many types of polysaccharides you know?
Answer:
There are two types of polysaccharides:
1. Homopolysaccharides: It contains same type of monosaccharides. E.g. Starch, glycogen, cellulose.
2. Heteropolysaccharides: It contains two or more different monosaccharides. E.g. Hyaluronic acid, heparin, hemicellulose.

Question (D)
Enlist the significance of carbohydrates.
Answer:
Significances of carbohydrates are as follows:

Carbohydrates provide energy for metabolism.
Glucose is the main substrate for ATP synthesis.
Lactose, a disaccharide present in the milk provides energy to babies.
Polysaccharide serves as a structural component of cell membrane, cell wall and reserved food as starch and glycogen.

Question (E)
What is reducing sugar?
Answer:
1. A sugar that serves as a reducing agent due to presence of free aldehyde or ketone group is called a reducing sugar.
2. These sugars reduce the Benedict’s reagent (Cu²+ to Cu⁺) since they are capable of transferring hydrogens (electrons) to other compounds, a process called reduction.
3. All monosaccharides are reducing sugars.

Question (F)
Enlist the examples of simple proteins and their significance.
Answer:
Examples of simple proteins are: E.g.: Albumins and histones.
Significance:
1. Albumin:
a. % It is the main protein in the blood.
b. It maintains the pressure in the blood vessels.
c. It helps in transportation of substances like hormone and drugs in the body.
2. Histones:
a. It is the chief protein of chromatin.
b. They are involved in packaging of DNA into structural units called nucleosomes.

Question (G)
Describe the secondary structure of protein with examples.
Answer:

There are two types of secondary structure of protein: a-helix and P-pleated sheets.
The polypeptide chain is arranged in a spiral helix. These spiral helices are of two types: a-helix (right handed) and P-helix (left handed).
This spiral configuration is held together by hydrogen bonds.
The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain determines the location of its bend or fold and the position of formation of hydrogen bonds between different portions of the chain or between different chains. Thus, peptide chains form an a-helix structure.
Example of a-helix structure is keratin.
In some proteins two or more peptide chains are linked together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds. Such structures are called P-pleated sheets.
Example of P-pleated sheet is silk fibres.
Due to formation of hydrogen bonds peptide chains assume a secondary structure.

Question (H)
Explain the induced fit model for mode of enzyme action.
Answer:
1. The induced fit model shows that enzymes are flexible structures in which the active site continually reshapes by its interactions with the substrate until the time the substrate is completely bound to it. It is also the point at which the final form and shape of the enzyme is determined.
2. Three-Dimensional conformation:
a. All enzymes have specific 3-dimensional conformation.
b. They have one or more active sites to which substrate (reactant) combines.
c. The points of active site where the substrate joins with the enzyme is called substrate binding site.

Question (I)
What is RNA? Enlist types of RNA.
Answer:
1. RNA stands for Ribonucleic Acid. It is a long single stranded polynucleotide chain which helps in protein synthesis, functions as a messenger and translates messages coded in DNA into protein.
2. There are three types of RNA:
mRNA (messenger RNA), rRNA (ribosomal RNA) and tRNA (transfer RNA)

Question (J)
Describe the concept of metabolic pool.
Answer:
1. Metabolic pool is the reservoir of biomolecules in the cell on which enzymes can act to produce useful products as per the need of the cell.
2. The concept of metabolic pool is significant in cell biology because it allows one type of molecule to change into another type E.g. Carbohydrates can be converted to fats and vice-versa.

Question (K)
How do secondary metabolites useful for mankind?
Answer:
1. Drugs developed from secondary metabolites have been used to treat infectious diseases, cancer, hypertension and inflammation.
2. Morphine, the first alkaloid isolated from Papaver somniferum is used as pain reliver and cough suppressant.
3. Secondary metabolites like alkaloids, nicotine, cocaine and the terpenes, cannabinol are widely used for recreation and stimulation.
4. Flavours of secondary metabolites improve our food preferences.
5. Tannins are added to wines and chocolate for improving astringency.
6. Since most secondary metabolites have antibiotic property, they are also used as food preservatives.
7. Glucosinolates is a secondary metabolite which is naturally present in cabbage imparts a characteristic flavour and aroma because of nitrogen and sulphur-containing chemicals. It also offers protection to these plants from many pests.

4. Solve the following questions

Question (A)
Complete the following chart.

Protein	Physiological role
Collagen	(i)
(ii)	Responsible for muscle contraction
Immunoglobulin	(iii)
(iv)	Significant in Respiration
Fibrinogen	(v)

Answer:

Protein	Physiological role
1. Collagen	Provides strength and plays structural role
2. Myosin & Actin	Responsible for muscle contraction
3. Immunoglobulin	Protects the body from infection
4. Haemoglobin	Significant in Respiration
5. Fibrinogen	Responsible for normal clotting of blood.

Question (B)
Answer the following with reference
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 2
i. Name the type of bond formed between two polypeptides.
ii. Which amino acid is involved in the formation of such bond?
iii. Amongst I, II, III and IV structural level of protein, which level of structure includes such bond? Answer:
i. Disulfide bond.
ii. Cysteine
iii. Tertiary structure.
[Note: Quaternary structure of protein also have disulfide bond, for stabilization of protein structure.!

Question (C)
Match the following items given in column I and II.

Column I	Column 11
1. RNA	(a) Induced fit model
2. Yam plant	(b) Flax seeds
3. Koshland	(c) Hydrolase
4. Omega – 3 – fatty acid	(d) Uracil
5. Sucrase	(e) Anti-fertility pills

Answer:

Column I	Column 11
1. RNA	(d) Uracil
2. Yam plant	(e) Anti-fertility pills
3. Koshland	(a) Induced fit model
4. Omega – 3 – fatty acid	(b) Flax seeds
5. Sucrase	(c) Hydrolase

5. Long answer questions

Question (A)
What are biomolecules? Explain the building blocks of life.
Answer:
Biomolecules are essential substances produced by our body which are necessary for life.
The building blocks of life are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids.
1. Carbohydrates:
a. Carbohydrates are biomolecules made from carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
b. The general formula of carbohydrates is (CH20) n.
c. They contain hydrogen and oxygen in the same ratio as in water (2:1).
d. Carbohydrates can be broken down to release energy.
e. Based on sugar units, carbohydrates are classified into three types: Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides.

2. Lipids:
a. These are group of substances with greasy consistency with long hydrocarbon chain containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
b. In lipids hydrogen to oxygen ration is greater than 2:1.
c. Lipid is a broader term used for fatty acids and their derivatives.
d. They are soluble in organic solvents (non-polar solvents).
e. Fatty acids are organic acids which are composed of hydrocarbon chain ending in carboxyl group (COOH) ….
f. These are divided into: Saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids.
g. Fatty acids are basic molecules which form different kinds of lipids.
h. Lipids are classified into three types:
Simple lipids, Compound lipids, Derived lipids.

3. Proteins:
a. Proteins are large molecules containing amino acid units ranging from 100 to 3000.
b. They have higher molecular weight.
c. In proteins, amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds which join the carboxyl group of one amino acid residue to the amino group of another residue.
d. A protein molecule consists of one or more polypeptide chains.
e. Proteins contain any or all twenty naturally occurring amino acid types.
f. Proteins have different structures like primary structure, secondary structure, tertiary structure and quaternary structure.
g. Proteins are classified into three types:
Simple proteins: Simple proteins on hydrolysis yield only amino acids. E.g. Histones and albumins. Conjugated proteins: It consists of a simple protein united with some non-protein substance. E.g. Haemoglobin.
Derived proteins: These proteins are not found in nature as such but are derived from native protein molecules on hydrolysis. E.g. Metaproteins, peptones.

4. Nucleic Acids:
a. Nucleic acids are macromolecules composed of many small units or monomers called nucleotides.
b. Each nucleotide is formed of three components i.e. pentose sugar, a nitrogen base and a phosphate (phosphoric acid).
c. When sugar combine with nitrogenous base it forms nucleoside. Nucleotides can be called as nucleoside phosphate.
d. There are two types of nucleic acids, i.e. DNA and RNA.
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is a genetic material of a cell. It is double stranded helix. Each strand of helix is made up of deoxyribose nucleotides.
RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) is a single stranded structure having fewer nucleotides as compared to DNA. The strands may be straight or variously folded upon itself. It is made up of nucleotides.

Question (B)
Explain the classes of carbohydrates with examples.
Answer:
Based on number of sugar units, carbohydrates are classified into three types namely, monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides.
1. Monosaccharides:
a. Monosaccharides are the simplest sugars having crystalline structure, sweet taste and soluble in water.
b. They cannot be further hydrolyzed into smaller molecules.
c. They are the building blocks or monomers of complex carbohydrates.
d. They have the general molecular formula (CH20)n, where n can be 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.
e. They can be classified as triose, tetrose, pentose, etc.
f. Monosaccharides containing the aldehyde (-CHO) group are classified as aldoses e.g. glucose, xylose, and those with a ketone(-C=0) group are classified as ketoses. E.g. ribulose, fructose.

2. Disaccharides:
a. Disaccharide is formed when two monosaccharide react by condensation reaction releasing a water molecule. This process requires energy.
b. A glycosidic bond forms and holds the two monosaccharide units together.
c. Sucrose, lactose and maltose are examples of disaccharides.
d. Sucrose is a nonreducing sugar since it lacks free aldehyde or ketone group.
e. Lactose and maltose are reducing sugars.
f. Lactose also exists in beta form, which is made from P-galactose and p-glucose.
g. Disaccharides are soluble in water, but they are too big to pass through the cell membrane by diffusion.

3. Polysaccharides:
a. Monosaccharides can undergo a series of condensation reactions, adding one unit after the other to the chain till a very large molecule (polysaccharide) is formed. This is called polymerization.
b. Polysaccharides are broken down by hydrolysis into monosaccharides.
c. The properties of a polysaccharide molecule depends on its length, branching, folding and coiling.
d. Examples: Starch, glycogen, cellulose.

Question (C)
Describe the types of lipids and mention their biological significance.
Answer:
Lipids are classified into three main types:
1. Simple lipids:
a. These are esters of fatty acids with various alcohols. Fats and waxes are simple lipids.
b. Fats are esters of fatty acids with glycerol (CH₂OH-CHOH-CH₂OH).
c. Triglycerides are three molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol.
d. Unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature and are called oils. Unsaturated fatty acids are hydrogenated to produce fats e.g. Vanaspati ghee.

Biological significance:
a. Fats are a nutritional source with high calorific value and they act as reserved food materials.
b. In plants, fat is stored in seeds to nourish embryo during germination.
c. In animals, fat is stored in the adipocytes of the adipose tissue.
d. Fats deposited in subcutaneous tissue act as an insulator and minimize loss of body heat.
e. Fats deposited around the internal organs act as cushions to absorb mechanical shocks.
f. Wax is another example of simple lipid. They are esters of long chain fatty acids with long chain alcohols.
g. They are found in the blood, gonads and sebaceous glands of the skin.
h. Waxes are not as readily hydrolyzed as fats.
i. They are solid at ordinary temperature.
j. Waxes form water insoluble coating on hair and skin in animals, waxes form an outer coating on stems, leaves and fruits.

2. Compound lipids:
a. These are ester of fatty acids containing other groups like phosphate (Phospholipids), sugar (glycolipids), etc.
b. They contain a molecule of glycerol, two molecules of fatty acids and a phosphate group or simple sugar.
c. Some phospholipids such as lecithin also have a nitrogenous compound attached to the phosphate group.
d. Phospholipids have both hydrophilic polar groups (phosphate and nitrogenous group) and hydrophobic non-polar groups (hydrocarbon chains of fatty acids).
e. Glycolipids contain glycerol, fatty acids, simple sugars such as galactose. They are also called cerebrosides.
Biological significance:
a. Phospholipids contribute in the formation of cell membrane.
b. Large amounts of glycolipids are found in the brain white matter and myelin sheath.

3. Derived Lipids:
a. They are composed of fused hydrocarbon rings (steroid nucleus) and a long hydrocarbon side chain.
b. One of the most common sterols is cholesterol.
Biological significance:
a. It is widely distributed in all cells of the animal body, but particularly in nervous tissue.
b. Cholesterol exists either free or as cholesterol ester.
c. Adrenocorticoids, sex hormones (progesterone, testosterone) and vitamin D are synthesized from cholesterol.
d. Cholesterol is not found in plants.
e. Sterols exist as phytosterols in plants.
f. Yam Plant (Dioscorea) produces a steroid compound called diosgenin. It is used in the manufacture of antifertility pills, i.e. birth control pills.

Question (D)
Explain the chemical nature, structure and role of phospholipids in biological membrane.
Answer:
Chemical nature: Phospholipids are amphiphilic in nature. As they have hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail.
Structure: It contains an alcohol, two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group.
Role: Phospholipids forms the membranes around the cells and cellular organelles. They form a lipid bilayer membrane. The phospholipids are arranged tail to tail. It serves as a barrier against movement of any ions or polar compounds into and out of the cell.

Question (E)
Describe classes of proteins with their importance.
Answer:
On the basis of structure, proteins are classified into three categories:
1. Simple proteins:
a. Simple proteins on hydrolysis yield only amino acids.
b. These are soluble in one or more solvents.
c. Simple proteins may be soluble in water.
d. Histones of nucleoproteins are soluble in water.
e. Globular molecules of histones are not coagulated by heat.
f. Albumins are also soluble in water but they get coagulated on heating.
g. Albumins are widely distributed e.g. egg albumin, serum albumin and legumelin of pulses are albumins.
Importance: They are involved in structural components; they also act as a storage kind of protein.
Some are associated with nucleic acids in nucleoproteins of cell.

2. Conjugated proteins:
a. Conjugated proteins consist of a simple protein united with some non-protein substance.
b. The non-protein group is called prosthetic group e.g. haemoglobin.
c. Globin is the protein and the iron containing pigment haem is the prosthetic group.
d. Similarly, nucleoproteins have nucleic acids.
e. Proteins are classified as glycoproteins and mucoproteins.
f. Mucoproteins are carbohydrate-protein complexes e.g. mucin of saliva and heparin of blood.
g. Lipoproteins are lipid-protein complexes e.g. conjugate protein found in brain, plasma membrane, milk etc. Importance: They are involved in structural components of cell membranes and organelles.
They also act as a transporter.
Some conjugated proteins are important in electron transport chain in respiration.

3. Derived proteins:
a. These proteins are not found in nature as such.
b. These proteins are derived from native protein molecules on hydrolysis.
c. Metaproteins, peptones are derived proteins.
Importance: They act as a precursor for many molecules which are essential for life.

Question (F)
What are enzymes? How are they classified? Mention example of each class.
Answer:
1. Enzymes are biological macromolecules which act as a catalyst and accelerates the reaction in the body.
2. Enzymes are classified into six classes:
a. Oxidoreductases: These enzymes catalyze oxidation and reduction reactions by the transfer of hydrogen and/or oxygen, e.g. alcohol dehydrogenase

b. Transferases: These enzymes catalyse the transfer of certain groups between two molecules, e.g. glucokinase

c. Hydrolases: These enzymes catalyse hydrolytic reactions. This class includes amylases, proteases, lipases etc. e.g. Sucrase

d. Lyases: These enzymes are involved in elimination reactions resulting in the removal of a group of atoms from substrate molecule to leave a double bond. It includes aldolases, decarboxylases, and dehydratases, e.g. fumarate hydratase.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 6
e. Isomerases: These enzymes catalyze structural rearrangements within a molecule. Their nomenclature is based on the type of isomerism. Thus, these enzymes are identified as racemases, epimerases, isomerases, mutases, e.g. xylose isomerase.

f. Ligases or Synthetases: These are the enzymes which catalyze the covalent linkage of the molecules utilizing the energy obtained from hydrolysis of an energy-rich compound like ATP, GTP e.g. glutathione synthetase, Pyruvate carboxylase.

Question (G)
Explain the properties of enzyme? Describe the models for enzyme actions.
Answer:
1. Proteinaceous Nature:
All enzymes are basically made up of protein.

2. Three-Dimensional conformation:
a. All enzymes have specific 3-dimensional conformation.
b. They have one or more active sites to which substrate (reactant) combines.
c. The points of active site where the substrate joins with the enzyme is called substrate binding site.

3. Catalytic property:
a. Enzymes are like inorganic catalysts and influence the speed of biochemical reactions but themselves remain unchanged.
b. After completion of the reaction and release of the product they remain active to catalyze again.
c. A small quantity of enzymes can catalyze the transformation of a very large quantity of the substrate
into an end product.
d. For example, sucrase can hydrolyze 100000 times of sucrose as compared with its own weight.

4. Specificity of action:
a. The ability of an enzyme to catalyze one specific reaction and essentially no other is perhaps its most significant property. Each enzyme acts upon a specific substrate or a specific group of substrates.
b. Enzymes are very sensitive to temperature and pH.
c. Each enzyme exhibits its highest activity at a specific pH i.e. optimum pH.
d. Any increase or decrease in pH causes decline in enzyme activity e.g. enzyme pepsin (secreted in stomach)shows highest activity at an optimum pH of 2 (acidic)

5. Temperature:
a. Enzymes are destroyed at higher temperature of 60-70°C or below, they are not destroyed but become inactive.
b. This inactive state is temporary and the enzyme can become active at suitable temperature.
c. Most of the enzymes work at an optimum temperature between 20°C and 35°C.

There are two types of models:
1. Lock and Key model:
a. Lock and Key model was first postulated in 1894 by Emil Fischer.
b. This model explains the specific action of an enzyme with a single substrate.
c. In this model, lock is the enzyme and key is the substrate.
d. The correctly sized key (substrate) fits into the key hole (active site) of the lock (enzyme).
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 9

2. Induced Fit model (Flexible Model):
a. Induced Fit model was first proposed in 1959 by Koshland.
b. This model states that approach of a substrate induces a conformational change in the enzyme.
c. It is the more accepted model to understand mode of action of enzyme.
d. The induced fit model shows that enzymes are rather flexible structures in which the active site continually reshapes by its interactions with the substrate until the time the substrate is completely bound to it.
e. It is also the point at which the final form and shape of the enzyme is determined.
[Note: Temperature is a factor affecting enzyme activity and not a property of enzyme.]
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 10

Question (H)
Describe the factors affecting enzyme action.
Answer:
The factors affecting the enzyme activity are as follows:
1. Concentration of substrate:
a. Increase in the substrate concentration gradually increases the velocity of enzyme activity within the limited range of substrate levels.
b. A rectangular hyperbola is obtained when velocity is plotted against the substrate concentration.
c. Three distinct phases (A, B and C) of the reaction are observed in the graph.
Where V = Measured velocity, V_max = Maximum velocity, S = Substrate concentration,
K_m = Michaelis-Menten constant.
d. K_m or the Michaelis-Menten constant is defined as the substrate concentration (expressed in moles/lit) to produce half of maximum velocity in an enzyme catalyzed reaction.
e. It indicates that half of the enzyme molecules (i.e. 50%) are bound with the substrate molecules when the substrate concentration equals the Km value.
f. K_m value is a constant and a characteristic feature of a given enzyme.
g. It is a representative for measuring the strength of ES complex.
h. A low K_m value indicates a strong affinity between enzyme and substrate, whereas a high Km value reflects a weak affinity between them.
1. For majority of enzymes, the K_m values are in the range of 10_-5 to 10_-2 moles.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 11

2. Enzyme Concentration:
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 12
a. The rate of an enzymatic reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of the substrate.
b. The rate of reaction is also directly proportional to the square root of the concentration of enzymes.
c. It means that the rate of reaction also increases with the increasing concentration of enzyme and the rate of reaction can also decrease by decreasing the concentration of enzyme.

3. Temperature:
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 13
a. The temperature at which the enzymes show maximum activity is called Optimum temperature.
b. The rate of chemical reaction is increased by a rise in temperature but this is true only over a limited range of temperature.
c. Enzymes rapidly denature at temperature above 40°C.
d. The activity of enzymes is reduced at low temperature.
e. The enzymatic reaction occurs best at or around 37°C which is the average normal body temperature in homeotherms.

4. Effect of pH:
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 14
a. The pH at which an enzyme catalyzes the reaction at the maximum rate is known as optimum pH.
b. The enzyme cannot perform its function beyond the range of its pH value.

5. Other substances:
a. The enzyme action is also increased or decreased in the presence of some other substances such as co-enzymes, activators and inhibitors.
b. Most of the enzymes are combination of a co-enzyme and an apo-enzyme.
c. Activators are the inorganic substances which increase the enzyme activity.
d. Inhibitor is the substance which reduces the enzyme activity.

Question (I)
What are the types of RNA? Mention the role of each class of RNA.
Answer:
There are three types of cellular RNAs:
1. messenger RNA (mRNA),
2. ribosomal RNA (rRNA),
3. transfer RNA (tRNA). ‘

1. Messenger RNA (mRNA):
a. It is a linear polynucleotide.
b. It accounts 3% of cellular RNA.
c. Its molecular weight is several million. , d. mRNA molecule carrying information to form a complete polypeptide chain is called cistron.
e. Size of mRNA is related to the size of message it contains.
f. Synthesis of mRNA begins at 5’ end of DNA strand and terminates at 3’ end.

Role of messenger RNA:
It carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes, which are the sites of protein synthesis.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 15

2. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA):
a. rRNA was discovered by Kurland in 1960.
b. It forms 50-60% part of ribosomes.
c. It accounts 80-90% of the cellular RNA.
d. It is synthesized in nucleus.
e. It gets coiled at various places due to intrachain complementary base pairing.
Role of ribosomal RNA: It provides proper binding site for m-RNA during protein synthesis.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 16

3. Transfer RNA (tRNA):
a. These molecules are much smaller consisting of 70-80 nucleotides.
b. Due to presence of complementary base pairing at various places, it is shaped like clover-leaf.
c. Each tRNA can pick up particular amino acid.
d. Following four parts can be recognized on tRNA
1. DHU arm (Dihydroxyuracil loop/ amino acid recognition site
2. Amino acid binding site
3. Anticodon loop / codon recognition site
4. Ribosome recognition site.
e. In the anticodon loop of tRNA, three unpaired nucleotides are present called as anticodon which pair with codon present on mRNA.
f. The specific amino acids are attached at the 3′ end in acceptor stem of clover leaf of tRNA.
Role of transfer RNA: It helps in elongation of polypeptide chain during the process called translation.
Maharashtra Board Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules 17

Question (J)
What is metabolism? How metabolic pool is formed in the cell.
Answer:

Metabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions that take place within each cell of a living organism and provide energy for vital processes and for synthesizing new’ organic material.
Metabolic pool in the cell is formed due to glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
The catabolic chemical reaction of glycolysis and Krebs cycle provides ATP and biomolecules. These biomolecules form the metabolic pool of the cell.
These biomolecules can be utilized for synthesis of many important cellular components.
The metabolites can be added or withdrawn from the pool according to the need of the cell.

Question 6.
If double stranded DNA has 14% C (cytosine) what percent A (adenine), T (thymine) and G (guanine) would you expect?
Answer:
A purine always pairs with pyrimidine.
Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine.
Therefore, as per the given data If cytosine = 14% then guanine = 14%.
According to Chargaff s rule,
(C+G) = 14+ 14 = 28%
Therefore, (A+T) = 72%
So, A= 36%, T= 36%, G = 14%.

Question 7.
Name
1. The reagent used for testing for reducing sugar.
2. The form in which carbohydrate is transported in a plant.
3. The term that describes all the chemical reactions taking place in an organism.
Answer:
1. Benedict’s reagent
2. Sucrose
3. Metabolism

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Perform an experiment to study starch granules isolated from potato.
Answer:
Isolation of starch granules from potato:

Peal the potato with a clean knife.
Grind the potato till the homogenous mixture is formed.
Then strain the mixture through a cheese cloth into a beaker.
Keep it standing for some time.
Throw the supernatant and fill the beaker containing starch with water.
Stir it well and again allow the starch to settle.
After sometime, again through the supernatant.
Repeat this for 2-3 times.
Collect the white starch in the watch glass and keep it in the oven for drying.

To study the isolated starch granules:
1. Examination under microscope:
Examine starch granules under microscope by using a mixture of equal volumes of glycerol and distilled water.
Result: The potato starch granules appears transparent granules. They are irregularly shaped.
2. Using Iodine solution:
Boil a little amount of starch with water. Cool it. Add iodine solution to it.
Result: The solution changes colour to blue. This indicates the presence of starch.

Question 2.
Study the action of enzyme urease on urea.
Answer:
Urease is an enzyme which exists in a dimer form. It has two active sites which are highly specific and only bind to urea or hydroxy urea. The active sites of urease contain nickel atoms. Urease catalyzes the hydrolysis of substrate urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia. It attacks the nitrogen and carbon bond in amide compounds and forms alkaline product like ammonia.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 6 Biomolecules Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 59)

(i) Which are different cell components?
Answer:
a. The three main components of any cell are: Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus.
b. The components present in both plant and animal cells are: Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, mitochondria, vacuoles.
c. The components present in plant cell and not in animal cell: Cell wall and plastids.
d. The components present in animal cell and not in plant cell: Cilia and flagella.

(ii) What is the role of each component of cell?
Answer:
The role of each component of a cell is as follows:
a. Cell membrane: Cell membrane separates the cytoplasmic contents from external environment.
b. Cytoplasm: Site for metabolic activities and organelles.
c. Nucleus: It is the control center of the cell. Genetic material is present in the nucleus.
d. Endoplasmic reticulum: It produces, processes and transports proteins and lipids.
e. Ribosomes: Ribosome is the site for protein synthesis.
f. Golgi apparatus: It is involved in modifying, sorting and packing of proteins for secretion. It also transports lipids around the cell.
g. Lysosomes: It is involved in digestion of worn out organelles and waste removal.
h. Mitochondria: It is responsible for production of energy.
i. Vacuoles: It has various functions like storage, waste disposal, protection and growth.
j. Cell wall: It provides strength and support to the cell.
k. Plastids: They are responsible for production and storage of food. It also contains photosynthetic pigments (Chloroplasts).
l. Cilia and flagella: Help in motility.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 62)

What are carbohydrates?
Answer:

The word carbohydrates mean ‘hydrates of carbon’.
They are also called saccharides.
They are biomolecules made from just three elements: carbon, hydrogen and oxygen with the general formula C_x(H₂0)y.
They contain hydrogen and oxygen in the same ratio as in water (2:1).
Carbohydrates can be broken down (oxidized) to release energy.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 62)

(i) Enlist the natural sources, structural units and functions of the following polysaccharides.
a. Starch
b. Cellulose
c. Glycogen
Answer:
a. Starch:
1. Natural Sources: Cereals (wheat, maize, rice), root vegetables (potato, cassava etc.)
2. Structural units: Starch consist of two types of molecules – Amylose and amylopectin.
3. Functions: It acts as a reserve food and supply energy.

b. Cellulose:
1. Natural sources: Plant fibers (cotton, flax, hemp, jute, etc.), wood.
2. Structural units: It is made from p glucose molecules.
3. Functions: It in a major component of cell wall. It provides structural support.

c. Glycogen:
1. Natural sources: Fruits, starchy vegetables, whole grain foods.
2. Structural units: It consists of linear chains of glucose residues. The glucose is linked linearly by a (1 → 4) glycosidic bonds and branches are linked to the linear chain by a (1 → 6) glycosidic bonds.
3. Functions: It is stored in liver and muscles and it readily provides energy when the blood glucose level decreases.

(ii) The exoskeleton of insects is made up of chitin. This is a ________.
(A) mucoprotein
(B) lipid
(C) lipoprotein
(D) polysaccharide
Answer:
polysaccharide

(iii) List names of structural polysaccharides.
Answer:
Arabinoxylans, cellulose, chitin, pectin.

(iv) Write a note on oligosaccharide and glycosidic bond.
Answer:
Oligosaccharides:
a. A carbohydrate polymer comprising of two to six monosaccharide molecules is called oligosaccharide.
b. They are linked together by glycosidic bond.
c. They are classified on the basis of monosaccharide units:
Disaccharides: These are the sugars containing two monosaccharide units and can be further hydrolysed into smaller components. E.g.: Sucrose, maltose, lactose, etc.
Trisaccharides: These contain three monomers. E.g. Raffmose.
Tetrasaccharides: These contain four monomers. E.g.: Stachyose.

Glycosidic bond:
a. Glycosidic bond is a covalent bond that forms a linkage between two monosaccharides by a dehydration reaction.
b. It is formed when a hydroxyl group of one sugar reacts with the anomeric carbon of the other.
c. Glycosidic bonds are readily hydrolyzed by acid but resist cleavage by base.
d. There are two types of glycosidic bonds: a-glycosidic bond and P-glycosidic bond.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 63)

What are lipids? Classify them and give at least one example of each.
Answer:
Lipids:
Lipids are a group of heterogeneous compounds like fats, oils, steroids, waxes, etc.
They are macro-biomolecules.
These are group of substances with greasy consistency with long hydrocarbon chain containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Lipids are classified into:
1. Saturated fatty acids: They contain single chain of carbon atoms with single bonds.
E.g. Palmitic acid, stearic acid
2. Unsaturated fatty acids: They contain one or more double bonds between the carbon atoms of the hydrocarbon chain.
a. Simple lipids: These are esters of fatty acids with various alcohols.
E.g. Fats, wax.
b. Compound lipids: These are ester of fatty acids containing other groups like phosphate (Phospholipids), sugar (glycolipids), etc.
E.g. Lecithin
c. Sterols: They are derived lipids. They are composed of fused hydrocarbon rings (steroid nucleus) and a long hydrocarbon side chain.
E.g. Cholesterol, phytosterols.

Find out (Textbook Page No. 63)

(i) Why do high cholesterol level in the blood cause heart diseases?
Answer:
a. When there is high level of cholesterol in the blood, the cholesterol builds up on the walls of arteries causing a condition called atherosclerosis (a form of heart disease).
b. Because of this the arteries are narrowed and the blood flow to the heart is slowed down.
c. The blood carries oxygen to the heart, but because of this condition enough blood and oxygen does not reach to the heart and causes heart diseases.
d. If the condition increases, the supply of oxygen and blood is completely cut off to the heart and this can lead to heart attack.

(ii) Polyunsaturated fatty acids are believed to decrease blood cholesterol level. How?
Answer:
a. The liver converts polyunsaturated fatty acids into ketones instead of cholesterol.
b. Therefore, polyunsaturated fatty acids are transported directly to tissues for oxidation without leaving behind any lipoprotein in the form of cholesterol as it is seen in the case of saturated fatty acids.
c. Thus, polyunsaturated fatty acids are believed to decrease blood cholesterol level.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 64)

Which of the following is a simple protein?
(A) nucleoprotein
(B) mucoprotein
(C) chromoprotein
(D) globulin
Answer:
Globulin

Can you tell? Textbook Page No. 64)

What are conjugated proteins? How do they differ from simple ones? Give one example of each.
Answer:
1. Conjugated proteins consist of a simple protein attached with some non-protein substance. The non-protein group is called prosthetic group.
2. The conjugated protein functions in interaction with other chemical group whereas simple proteins contain only amino acids and no other chemical group attached to it.
3. Example of conjugated protein is haemoglobin. Globin is the protein and iron containing pigment and haem is the prosthetic group.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 64)

All Proteins are made up of the same amino acids; then how proteins found in human beings and animals may be different from those of other?
Answer:
The proteins found in human beings and animals may be different from those of others because the ratio of amino acids present in the protein differs.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

What is a nucleotide? How is it formed? Mention the names of all nucleotides.
Answer:
1. Nucleotide is a unit which consists of a sugar, phosphate and a base. Nucleotides are basic units of nucleic acids.
2. The nitrogen base and a sugar form a nucleoside. In a nucleoside, nitrogenous base is attached to the first carbon atom (C-1) of the sugar and when a phosphate group gets attached with that of the carbon (C-5) atom of the sugar molecule a nucleotide molecule is formed.
3. The names of all nucleotides are:

Base	Nucleotides of RNA	Nucleotides of DNA
Adenine	Adenylate	Deoxydenylate
Guanine	Guanylate	Deoxyguanylate
Cytosine	Cytidylate	Deoxy cytidylate
Thymine	–	Deoxythymidylate
Uracil	Uridylate	–

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

Describe the structure of DNA molecule as proposed by Watson and Crick.
Answer:

According to Watson and Crick, DNA molecule consists of two strands twisted around each other in the form of a double helix.
The two strands i.e. polynucleotide chains are supposed to be in opposite direction so end of one chain having 3′ lies beside the 5′ end of the other.
One turn of the double helix of the DNA measures about 34A.
It consists paired nucleotides and the distance between two neighboring pair nucleotides is 3.4A.
The diameter of the DNA molecule has been found be 20A.

Can you tell (Textbook Page No. 70)

Name the chemical found in the living cell which has necessary message for the production of all enzymes required by it.
Answer:
DNA found in the nucleus of a living cell has necessary message for the production of all enzymes required by it. DNA forms mRNA through the process of transcription. This mRNA through the process of translation forms proteins.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

Difference between DNA and RNA is because of
(A) sugar and base
(B) sugar and phosphate
(C) phosphate and base
(D) sugar only
Answer:
Sugar and base

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

Differentiate between DNA and RNA.
Answer:

DNA	RNA
1. It is a genetic material of majority of the organisms.	It is a genetic material only of some viruses.
2. It is double stranded.	It is single stranded.
3. Deoxyribose sugar is present.	Ribose sugar is present.
4. Nitrogen bases like Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine are present.	Nitrogen bases like Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil are present.
5. Specific base pairing is observed.	Nitrogen bases do not form pair.
6. Total number of purines is equal to total number of pyrimidine. Thus, purine to pyrimidine ratio is 1:1.	Amount of purine and pyrimidine may or may not be equal.
7. It is present in nucleus.	It is present in nucleus and cytoplasm.
8 It is responsible for determining hereditary characters and for formation of RNA.	It takes part in protein synthesis.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 70)

Co-enzyme is ________
(A) often a metal
(B) often a vitamin
(C) always as organic molecule
(D) always an inorganic molecule
Answer:
Always as organic molecule

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 70)

(i) Which enzyme is needed to digest food reserve in castor seed?
(A) Amylase
(B) Diastase
(C) Lipase
(D) Protease
Answer:
Lipase

(ii) List the important properties of enzymes.
Answer:
a. Proteinaceous Nature
b. Three-Dimensional conformation
c. Catalytic property
d. Specificity of action
e. Temperature

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 70)

To demonstrate the effect of heat on the activities of inorganic catalysts and enzymes.
Answer:
1. Using MnO₂ and Enzymes without any heat treatment:
Mn0₂ and cellular enzymes (catalase/peroxidase) causes breakdown of H₂0₂ and evolution of oxygen.
2. Using Mn0₂ and Enzymes after heat treatment:
Oxygen evolves in the H₂0₂ solution containing boiled and cooled Mn0₂. But oxygen does not evolve in the tube containing the enzyme.
3. This confirms that heat affects the enzyme and inactivates it whereas heat does not have any effect on inorganic catalyst.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Category: Class 11

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 9 Question Answer The World Since 1945 – I Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 9 The World Since 1945 – I Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Question Answer Development Administration Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 8 Development Administration Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Question Answer Public Administration Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 7 Public Administration Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Question Answer Role of the Judiciary Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 6 Role of the Judiciary Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Question Answer Concept of Representation Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 5 Concept of Representation Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Question Answer Constitutional Government Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 4 Constitutional Government Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Question Answer Equality and Justice Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 3 Equality and Justice Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Liberty and Rights Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 2 Liberty and Rights Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Std 11 Political Science Chapter 1 Question Answer The State Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Political Science Chapter 1 The State Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Biomolecules Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Class 11 Biology Chapter 6 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board