Category: Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How can the distribution of the height and landform in a region be shown?
Answer:
(i) While studying different landforms on the surface of the earth, one has to consider various facets of landforms like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) For this maps prepared using mathematical survey methods are used.
(iii) These maps help us to understand the above characteristics of the landforms.

Question 2.
To whom are contour maps useful?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps are useful to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers.
(ii) The nature of the ground and its shape can be estimated .
(iii) Defence officers use contour maps for strategic planning.
(iv) It is possible to identify suitable site for any project from the contour map of the region.

Question 3.
What do you understand by observing contour lines?
Answer:
(i) Contour lines are isolines of height.
(ii) These are drawn by joining the places of equal altitude.
(iii) These help in identification of land forms and their altitude from sea level.
(iv) These lines also help us to understand the nature and direction of the slope.

Question 4.
How will a contour map be useful to a fanner?
Answer:
(i) It is helpful selecting the type of farming to be practiced plantation farming in hilly regions, intensive farming in low lying region.
(ii) In order to reduce the erosion of soil, trenches are dug out in the direction perpendicular to the slope of the land.
(iii) Trees are planted along such trenches. When the farmer digs out such trenches, he will be careful in maintaining the level.

2. Fill the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
If the contour lines are closer to each other, the slope is ______.
Answer:
steep

Question 2.
The contour lines on the map represent ______.
Answer:
places of same altitude

Question 3.
The slope can be understood from the distance between the ______.
Answer:
contour lines

Question 4.
If the distance between two contour lines is more then the ______ is gentle.
Answer:
slope

3. Identify the landforms in the following map:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms InText Questions and Answers

A model of the relief in an area is shown in fig. Observe it carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which landforms do you seen in the model?
Answer:
Mountains & river valleys are seen in the model.

Question 2.
Which colours have been used on them?
Answer:
Yellow & blue colours have been used in the model.

Model of the Earth’s surface:

Question 1.
What all you seen in the map?
Answer:
We can see many contour lines on the map showing a hilly region. We can see the altitude of the hill ranges as well as its slope.

Question 2.
What is the general direction of the ranges shown in the map?
Answer:
The general direction of the ranges shown in the map is east-west

Question 3.
Towards which direction is the flat land located in the map?
Answer:
The flat land is located towards the east.

Question 4.
What are the maximum and minimum values of the lines in the map?
Answer:
The maximum value of the lines in the map is 800 & minimum value is 600.

Question 5.
What do these values indicate?
Answer:
These lines indicate the altitude of the region from the sea level.

Question 6.
Do you find any similarities in the map and the model in fig. (a)? What are those?
Answer:
The model in figure (a) & the contour line map in figure (b) are of the same region. The values of latitudes & longitudes are same on both the maps.

Question 7.
Which figure give us more information and what is that information?
Answer:
Fig. (b) Contour line map gives more information. It gives us information about the altitude of the landforms slope of the land forms with latitudes & longitudes

Question 8.
Is there any similarity between this map and the sketch map of the potato hill?
Answer:
Yes, similar to the sketch map of the potato hill,
the contour line map too is a 3D figure (Model of earth’s surface) which has been converted into a 2D map. The Contour line map is depicting contour line intervals.

Consider you have gone for mountaineering. You have to conquer a peak on the hill “A”. A map of this hill is given below. Studying the contour lines in the map, find the side from which you will reach the peak safely and easily. Mark your path on the map with a pencil.

Answer:
I will climb from eastwards to reach the peak safely as the slope eastwards is gentle and not steep. Lesser distance between the contour lines, indicates steep slope. The distance between the lines is greater eastwards, which shows the slope is more gentle on that side.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Contour lines join places with the same on a map.
Answer:
altitude

Question 2.
Generally, contour lines do not _______ each other.
Answer:
cross.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How are contour maps helpful to us?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps help us to understand various facets of landforms, like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) These maps are of immense use to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers, etc.
(iii) These maps prove to be of great use in planning of a region.

Question 2.
Contour lines generally do not cross each other. Give reason.
Answer:
(i) Contour lines join places with the same altitude on a map.
(ii) Therefore they generally do not cross each other.

Observe the model and the map given below and answer the following questions:

A 3D model is given in fig. (a) The northern part of the model shows the basin of the rivers Mula-Mutha. To its south is the Katraj. Diveghat range extending from the west to the east. Beyond that some portion of Karha basin is seen.

Question 1.
In which direction does fort Purandar lie?
Answer:
Fort Purandar lies in the south direction.

Question 2.
What is the direction of flow of the river Karha?
Answer:
River Karha flows from west to east.

Question 3.
In which parts are the hill ranges not observed?
Answer:
The hill ranges are not observed in the eastern parts.

Question 4.
Which part of the model is not seen in the map? Why?
Answer:
The Karha river & the direction of its flow, the contour height and the slope of the land are part of map & not seen in the model.

Question 5.
In which direction does the altitude of Katraj- Diveghat range decrease?
Answer:
The altitude of katraj-Diveghat range decreases from west to east.

Question 6.
In which direction are higher hill ranges located?
Answer:
Higher hill ranges are located in the southern direction.

Use your brain!

When one sees a landform on a contour map, what is the observer’s position with respect to landform? For example, a hill is shown with the help of contours on a map. From where do you think you are looking at it?
Answer:
Aerial view. From somewhere above, may be from an aeroplane or helicopter.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions

• Chapter 1 The Living World : Adaptations and Classification
• Chapter 2 Plants : Structure and Function
• Chapter 3 Properties of Natural Resources
• Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms
• Chapter 5 Food Safety
• Chapter 6 Measurement of Physical Quantities
• Chapter 7 Motion, Force and Work
• Chapter 8 Static Electricity
• Chapter 9 Heat
• Chapter 10 Disaster Management
• Chapter 11 Cell Structure and Micro-organisms
• Chapter 12 The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings
• Chapter 13 Changes – Physical and Chemical
• Chapter 14 Elements, Compounds and Mixtures
• Chapter 15 Materials we Use
• Chapter 16 Natural Resources
• Chapter 17 Effects of Light
• Chapter 18 Sound : Production of Sound
• Chapter 19 Properties of a Magnetic Field
• Chapter 20 In the World of Stars

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find the following words in the grid:

Question 1.
A sense of ‘we-feeling’ and empathy towards fellow citizens
Answer:
Fraternity.

Question 2.
A system in which sovereign power is in the hands of the people
Answer:
Democracy.

Question 3.
Introduction to the Constitution
Answer:
Preamble.

Question 4.
A system in which all religions are considered equal
Answer:
Secular

2. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the provisions in a secular Constitution?
Answer:

• In a Secular State, all religions are considered as equal.
• No religion is considered to be the state religion. The citizens are free to follow their own religion.
• The state cannot discriminate among citizens on the basis of religion.

Question 2.
What is meant by adult franchise?
Answer:

• Adult franchise means all citizens completing 18 years of age have the right to vote in the elections.
• This enables equal participation of citizens in the running of our country.

Question 3.
What right does economic justice ensure?
Answer:
Economic justice ensures our right to a source of livelihood so as to look after oneself and one’s family.

Question 4.
How will human dignity be established in a society?
Answer:
When every individual respects another and honours their freedom and rights, dignity of the individual will be established.

3. How should we make use of our freedom ? Write your views about it.
Answer:

• Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru has rightly said. ‘We have to assume the responsibility ourselves of what we do’.
• Freedom must be exercised with care, with a sense of responsibility.
• Our freedom and independence which we gained after innumerable sacrificies must be safeguarded.
• We should use the different freedoms endowed on us by our Constitution to bring out the best in us and build a better nation, a better world
• The future lies in our hands.

4. Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Socialist State
Answer:

• A Socialist State is such a State where the gap between the rich and the poor is minimum.
• All have a right over the wealth of the country.
• It is ensured that wealth is not concentrated in the hands of a few people.

Question 2.
Equality
Answer:
(i) The Preamble guarantees the Indian citizens equality of status and there will be no discrimination based on caste, creed, race, sex, place of birth, etc.

(ii) The guarantee of equality means that there should be no discrimination between people in terms of high-low, superior-inferior.

Question 3.
Sovereign State
Answer:
The word sovereign means that a state is not under the control of a foreign power. The most important goal of our freedom struggle was to acquire sovereignty. ‘Sovereignty’ means the ultimate authority to govern oneself. In a democracy, sovereignty rests with the people

Question 4.
Equality of opportunity.
Answer:
Equality means the state of being equal in status, rights or opportunities. Equality of status, and of opportunity means that all have equal human status and there will be no discrimination based on caste, creed, race, sex, place of birth, etc. All will get the opportunities for development without any discrimination.

5. Make a list of the key words in the Preamble. Look for their meanings in a dictionary. Prepare a chart in the following way:

Answer:

Activities:

1. Visit your Tehsil office with your teacher to understand how a vote is cast and how the electronic voting machine works.
2. Make a list of newspapers available in your locality.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Answer the following concepts:

Question 1.
Liberty
Answer:
(i) Liberty implies that there should be no coercive, unfair restrictions upon us and that ’ there should be an atmosphere conducive to the development of our inherent capacities.

(ii) In a democracy, citizens enjoy liberty. In fact, democracy becomes mature only if the citizens enjoy freedom.

Discuss:

Question 1.
Some statements regarding freedom have been given below for discussion. Express your views.
(a) While publicly celebrating our festivals, we need to follow some rules. That does not restrict our freedom,
(b) Freedom means behaving in a responsible way, not as per our whims and fancies.
Answer:
Yes, With freedom comes responsibilities. Rules should be followed while exercising freedom for a smooth life and to ensure that we work towards responsible citizenship.

Question 2.
Read what Deepa has written on the topic: “My Family’.
Answer:
Democracy does not only imply elections. My parents do all the household work together. We also participate in it. We ensure that we talk cordially with each other. Even if we happen to fight, we try to listen to each others views by stopping the fight as soon as possible. If any change has to be made, even the grandparents are consulted. Anuja wants to take up agricultural research as her career. Her decision was appreciated by everybody.

Question 3.
Do you think that Deepa’s house functions in a democratic way? Which features of democracy can be found in this passage.
Answer:
Yes. They function in a democratic way and the features of democracy displayed here are:

• Carrying out responsibilities collectively as a unit.
• Mutual respect.
• Honouring opinions which are not in line with our views.
• Consensus in decision making.
• Freedom of thought and expression.
• Freedom of occupation.

Activities:

Question 1.
Visit your Tehsil office with your teacher to understand how a vote is cast and how the electronic voting ntachine (EVM) works.
Answer:
The voting machines used in India are a combination of two components. First component is called the Balloting unit on which the voters press the button. The other part is called the Control unit. This unit gives supervising power to the polling officer stationed at the poll booth.

The two units are connected by a five-meter cable. The voter places his /her vote on the Balloting unit which is placed inside the Voting compartment.

An EVM runs on 6-volt batteries to eliminate the need of any external power source. It is designed to record 64 candidate names and 3,840 votes at the max. The 64 candidate names can be split across (a maximum of) 4 balloting units connected in parallel, with 16 candidate names on each of the unit.

Question 2.
Make a list of newspapers available in your locality.
Answer:

English News Papers:

• The Times of India
• Economic Times
• Financial Express
• Indian Express
• Mumbai Mirror
• Mid-day
• DNA (Daily News and Analysis)
• Business- Standard
• Hindustan Times
• Free Press Journal

Hindi News Papers (Including Urdu Daily):

• Hindi Mid-Day
• Tehalka News
• Navbharat Times
• Humara Mahanagar
• Aaj Ka Anand
• YashoBhoomi
• Dopahar
• Saamna
• Hindmata
• Mumbai Sandhya

Marathi News Papers:

• Loksatta
• Maharashtra Times
• Navshakti
• Navakal
• Vartahar
• Saamna (saamana)
• Sakai
• Sandesh
• Lokmat
• Divyabhaskar
• Mumbai Mitra
• Sandhyanand
• Punya Nagri
• Samrat

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The _______ to the Indian Constitution is called the ‘Preamble’. (Preface, Preview, Annexure)
Answer:
Preface

Question 2.
The Preamble sets out the ______ of our Constitution. (declaration, objectives, theme of the Articles)
Answer:
objectives

Question 3.
It talks about the resolve of the Indians to constitute India into a ‘Sovereign, Socialist, _______ Democratic Republic’. (Theocratic, Autocratic, Secular)
Answer:
Secular

Question 4.
Our country became independent on _______. (15th August 1947, 26th January 1950, 26th November 1949)
Answer:
15th August 1947

Question 5.
The word _______ means that a state is not under the control of a foreign power. (Sovereign, Secular, Socialist)
Answer:
Sovereign

Question 6.
A Socialist State is such a State where the gap between the rich and the poor ______. (is maximum, is minimum, does not exist)
Answer:
is minimum

Question 7.
In _________ State, all religions are considered equal and no religion is considered as a State religion. (secular, socialist, sovereign)
Answer:
secular

Question 8.
In a _______ the sovereign power is in thehands of the people. (democracy, autocracy, monarchy)
Answer:
democracy

Question 9.
Elections are conducted in India after a fixed period when voters elect their ______. (President, Vice-president, Representatives)
Answer:
Representatives

Question 10.
The Parliament or Legislature and the Executive take decisions for the entire population as per the procedure laid down by the ______.(High Court, Supreme Court, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 11.
________ implies removal of injustice and ensuring that everybody has the opportunity for progress. (Liberty, Justice, Equality)
Answer:
Justice

Question 12.
________ ensures that as human beings all have the right to the same dignity and respect, the same status. (Political justice, Social justice, Economic justice)
Answer:
Social justice

Question 13.
Since we have adopted universal adult franchise, all citizens completing ________ years of age have the right to vote in the elections. (18, 20, 21)
Answer:
18

Question 14.
The liberty of belief, faith and worship implies ______ freedom. (economic, social, religious)
Answer:
religious

Question 15.
_____ implies a ‘we-feeling’ towards one another. (Fraternity, Empathy, Sympathy)
Answer:
Fraternity

Question 16.
________ implies equal respect to each (Human Rights, Equality, Dignity)
Answer:
Equality

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – e
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c

Name the following:

Question 1.
The fundamental and the highest law of the land which is an important document clarifying the rules of the administration.
Answer:
Constitution.

Question 2.
A systematic arrangement of all the aims and objectives of a law which is the preface to the Constitution.
Answer:
Preamble

Question 3.
The words with which the Preamble begins,
Answer:
’We, the people of India’.

Question 4.
The word that means that a State is not under the control of a foreign power.
Answer:
Sovereign

Question 5.
A state where the gap between the rich and poor is minimum.
Answer:
Socialist.

Question 6.
A state wherein all religions are considered equal.
Answer:
Secular state.

Question 7.
In this form of governance, the sovereign power is in the hands of the people.
Answer:
Democracy.

Question 8.
Institutions in India created by our Constitution.
Answer:

• Parliament
• Legislature
• Executive.

Question 9.
In this form of government, all positions are elected by the people and no public position is occupied on the basis of hereditary succession.
Answer:
Republic.

Question 10.
Three types of Justice talked of in the Constitution.
Answer:
Social Justice, Economic Justice, Political Justice.

Question 11.
This implies that there should be no coercive, unfair restrictions upon us and that there should be an atmosphere conducive to the development of our inherent capacities.
Answer:
Liberty

Question 12.
The most fundamental freedom of an individual.
Answer:
Freedom of Thought and Expression.

Question 13.
The liberty of belief, faith and worship implies this value.
Answer:
Religious freedom.

Question 14.
The goal which is included in the Constitution which implies a ‘we-feeling ‘ and feeling of empathy.
Answer:
Fraternity.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason:

Question 1.
The Preamble begins with the mention that the people of India have given the Constitution to themselves.
Answer:
False : The Preamble begins with the words ‘We, the People of India’.

Question 2.
In a democracy, the sovereign power is in the hands of the people.
Answer:
True: Democracy is the Government of the people, by the people and for the people.

Question 3.
In a democracy, citizens enjoy liberty.
Answer:
True : In fact democracy becomes mature only if citizens enjoy liberty.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
The Preamble guarantees the Indian citizens equality of status and of opportunity. Explain.
Answer:

• It means that all have equal human status and there will be no discrimination based on caste, creed, race, sex, place of birth, high or low status or superior-inferior.
• The Preamble has given great importance to equality of opportunity as well.
• Each one gets the opportunities for development without discrimination.

Answer the following concepts:

Question 1.
Constitution and Preamble
Answer:

• Our Constitution is the fundamental and the highest law of the land.
• There are definite aims or purposes in making any law.
• Basic provisions in the law are made, after clarifying these objectives.
• A systematic arrangement of all the aims and objectives of a law is the Preface to the law.
• The Preface to the Indian Constitution is called the ‘Preamble’. The Preamble sets out the objectives of our Constitution.

Question 2.
Republic and how is it different from Monarchy.
Answer:

• Along with being a democracy, we are a Republic. All public positions in a Republic are elected by the people.
• No public position is occupied on the basis of hereditary succession.
• The position like the President, the Prime Minister, the Governor, the Chief Minister, the , Mayor, the Sarpanch, etc. are public positions.
• Any Indian citizen fulfilling the prescribed age criterion can get himself/herself elected to any of these positions.

Question 3.
Fraternity
Answer:

• Fraternity implies a ‘we-feeling’ towards one another.
• It creates a feeling of empathy.
• People become more understanding towards each other’s problems and needs.

Explain the terms:

Question 1.
Justice
Answer:

• Justice implies removal of injustice and ensuring that everybody has the opportunity for progress.
• Establishing justice is adopting such policies that will promote public good.

Question 2.
Social Justice
Answer:

• There should be no discrimination among individuals on the basis of caste, creed, race, language, region, place of birth or sex.
• As human beings, all have the right to the same dignity and respect, the same status.

Question 3.
Economic Justice
Answer:

• Poverty leads to the evils of hunger, hunger -deaths or malnourishment.
• If poverty is to be eradicated, everyone should have the right to a source of livelihood so as to look after oneself and one’s family.
• Our Constitution has given this right to every citizen without any discrimination.

Question 4.
Political Justice
Answer:

• We have adopted universal adult franchise to enable equal participation in the running of the country.
• Accordingly, all citizens completing 18 years of age have the right to vote in elections.

Give reason:

Question 1.
India is a sovereign state.
Answer:

• India was ruled by Britain for a long period.
• The British rule ended on 15th August, 1947. Our country became independent and India became sovereign i.e a state not under the control of a foreign power.

Question 2.
India is a secular state.
Answer:

• In India, all religions are considered as equal.
• No one religion is considered to be a state religion. The citizens are free to follow their own religion. So, India is a secular state.

Question 3.
Freedom of thought and expression is the most fundamental freedom for an individual.
Answer:

• Freedom of thought and expression is the most fundamental freedom for an individual.
• Everyone is free to express their own views and opinions. A give-and-take of ideas enhances the spirit of cooperation and unity amongst us.
• Similarly, it also enables us to understand the various dimensions of any problem.

Question 4.
Promotions of fraternity has been included in the Preamble as a goal.
Answer:

• The makers of the Constitution believed that merely guaranteeing justice, freedom and equality would not lead to establishing equality in Indian society.
• No amount of laws would help us achieve these goals if fraternity is lacking among Indians.
• Hence the promotion of fraternity has been included in the Preamble as a goal.

Question 5.
Fraternity is closely related with human dignity.
Answer:

• Human dignity implies equal respect to each individual as a human being. .
• It does not depend upon the criteria of caste, creed, race, sex, language, etc.
• Just as we would like to be treated with dignity and respect by others, we should treat others with the same dignity and respect.
• When every individual respects another and honours their freedom and rights, dignity of the individual will get established.
• This will also develop fraternity, a ‘we-feeling’ towards one another.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Provisions in the Constitution
Answer:
It is the basic or fundamental law that is stated directly in the Constitution. Therefore, the rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land. The government is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Constitution Day
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November, 1949. Therefore, 26th November is observed as ‘Constitution Day’ in India.

2. Discuss:

Question 1.
A Constituent Assembly was established.
Answer:
(i) The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in 1946.

(ii) The leaders of the freedom movement insisted that independent India will be governed not by the laws made by the British, but by laws made by Indians themselves.

(iii) A Committee was established to prepare the Constitution of Independent India and it came to be known as Constituent Assembly.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.
Answer:
(i) The draft of the Constitution was prepared by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and presented to the Constituent Assembly after an in-depth contemplation and study of the Constitution of different countries of the world.

(ii) It was discussed Article by Article. Many amendments were suggested by different members.

(iii) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar would present the draft, answer the various questions raised on them and make changes in the draft as per the suggestions of the Constituent Assembly in order to make every provision of the Constitution flawless.

(iv) Due to his contribution towards the making of the Constitution, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.

Question 3.
What is included in the administration of a country?
Answer:
(i) The Government has to make laws relating to several subjects such as defending the boundaries, protecting the people from external aggression, eradication of poverty, creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries, protection of the weaker sections, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people, etc.

(ii) In short, governments in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is included in the administration of a country

3. Choose the right option:

Question 1.
The Constitution of this country is primarily unwritten
(a) America
(b) India
(c) England
(d) None of these
Answer:
England

Question 2.
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Durgabai Deshmukh
(d) B.B. Rai
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Who among these was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Moulana Azad I
(c) RajkumariAmritKaur
(d) Hansaben Mehta I
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

4. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
On what subjects does the Government have to make laws?
Answer:
Government has to make laws relating to several subjects:

• Defending the boundaries.
• Protecting the people from external aggression.
• Eradication of poverty.
• Creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries.
• Protection of the weaker section, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people.

Question 2.
Why do we celebrate 26th January as Republic Day?
Answer:

• Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.
• The Indian Republic came into existence from this day.
• Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of running the government as per the provisions of the Constitution?
Answer:
There are several advantages of governing a country with the help of rules or provisions included in a Constitution:

(i) The Government has to function within a set of rules. This reduces the possibility of the misuse of the power and authority they have been given.

(ii) A Constitution includes the rights and freedom of the citizens. The Government cannot take away these rights. Therefore, people’s rights and freedoms are safeguarded.

(iii) Running a country as per the provisions of the Constitution is the same as establishing the rule of law, so there is no scope for the misuse of power or high-handed administration.

(iv) If a country is run as per the Constitution, the faith that the common people have in the government increases. They then become more keen on participating in the activities of the government. Democracy is strengthened due to the increased participation of the people.

(v) The Constitution presents some political ideals before the country. The nation is also bound to act in that direction. It creates an atmosphere conducive to attain world peace and security, and preservation of human rights.

(vi) Since the Constitution also includes the list of citizens’ duties, it fixes the responsibility of the citizens as well.

Activities

1. Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the Constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
2. Prepare a report on how you celebrated Constitution Day in your school.
3. Make a collection of the photos of the members of the Constituent Assembly.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution InText Questions and Answers

In-text questions.

Question 1.
Do you wish to ask the questions that puzzled Sameer and Vandana?
Answer:
Yes, I wish to ask such questions.

Question 2.
Where can we find all the rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out?
Answer:
The rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out are found mentioned in a country’s constitution.

Question 3.
Who makes those rules?
Answer:
These rules are made by the Constituent Assembly which consist of the representatives of the states and provinces and the leaders of that country.

Question 4.
Is it binding on us to follow them?
Answer:
Yes. All the rules mentioned in the Constitution are binding on every citizen of the country.

Let’s find out:

Find out some information about the Constitution of any one country of your choice with the help of the following points.

Question 1.
Name of the country
Answer:
India

Question 2.
Year of the making of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November 1949. However the country began to be actually governed according to the provisions of the Constitution only from 26th January 1950.

Question 3.
Two features of the Constitution:
Answer:
(a) The lengthiest Constitution in the world: The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed of all the written Constitutions of the world containing 449 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 101 Amendments.

(b) Parliamentary form of Government: The constitution of India establishes a parliamentary form of a government both at the Centre and the State. The essence of the parliamentary government is its responsibility to the Legislature. The President is the constitutional head of the State but the real executive power is vested in the council of ministers whose head is the Prime Minister.

Activity:

Question 1.
Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
Answer:

1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure: Rajendra Prasad
2. Steering Committee : Rajendra Prasad
3. Finance and Staff Committee: Rajendra Prasad
4. Credential Committee: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
5. House Committee: B. Pratibha Sitaramayya
6. Order of Business Committee: K.M. Munsi
7. Adhoc Committee on the National Flag: Rajendra Prasad
8. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly: G.V. Mavalankar
9. States Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
10. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas:Vallabhbhai Patel
11. Minorities Sub-Committee: H. C. Mookherjee
12. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: J. B. Kripalani
13. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub¬Committee: Gopinath Bardoloi
14. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee: A.V. Thakkar
15. Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. Union Constitution Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
17. Drafting Committee: B.R. Ambedkar

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The administration of our village or city is carried out in accordance with _______. (will of the majority, rules, orders of the Collector)
Answer:
rules

Question 2.
The book in which all the provisions regarding the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systematic way is called a ______ . (Law book, Guide, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 3.
Democracy is _____ due to increased participation of the people. (strengthened, maintained, weakened)
Answer:
strengthened

Question 4.
The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in the year _____. (1952,1947,1946)
Answer:
1946

Question 5.
A committee which was established to prepare the Constitution of independent India was the _______ (Drafting Committee, StandingCommittee, Constituent Assembly)
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 6.
There were a total of ______ members in the Constituent Assembly. (298, 299, 289)
Answer:
299

Question 7.
_____ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. (Durgabai Deshmukh, J.B. Kripalani, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar)
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 8.
Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ______ of the Indian Constitution’. (Architect, Visionary, Inspiration)
Answer:
Architect

Question 11
_____is observed as ‘Constitution Day’. (26th November, 26th January, 15th August)
Answer:
26th November

Question 10.
26th January is celebrated as ______ Day. (Independence, Republic, Constitution)
Answer:
Republic

Question 11.
Our Constitution is a/an _________ document of the provision related to the administration of the country. (written, oral, inspirational)
Answer:
written

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b
4 – d

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we follow norms and rules?
Answer:
We follow norms and rules in order that the activities in the family, our school, our village or city are carried out smoothly.

Question 2.
How is the administration of our country carried out?
Answer:
The administration of our country is carried out through a system of rules.

Question 3.
Explain the term ‘Constitution’.
Answer:
The book in which all the provisions related to the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systemic way is called Constitution.

Question 4.
What are the basic or fundamental law of the land?
Answer:
The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.

Question 5.
How were decisions made in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion.

Question 6.
What is governance?
Answer:
Government in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is governance.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Name the well-known members of the constituent assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Sarojini Naidu, J. B. Kriplani, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Durgabai Deshmukh, Hansaben Mehta and others.

Question 2.
The President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 3.
The States in pre-independence period where the local princes carried out the administration.
Answer:
Princely states.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
We celebrate 26th January as Republic Day.
Answer:
(i) Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.

(ii) The Indian Republic came into existence from this day. Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 2.
Nature of the Constitutions of different countries is different.
Answer:

• There are differences of history, social structures, culture, traditions, etc., between the countries.
• Similarly, their needs and objectives also might be different.
• Each country tries to create a Constitution that is not only suited to its needs and objectives, but also is in tune with its distinct nature.

Explain in detail:

Question 1.
If the government does not follow the Constitution while making laws, the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional. Explain.
Answer:

• The Government is established by the representatives elected by the people.
• It is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.
• While making laws, the government is bound to follow the Constitution.
• If it does not do so, then the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional.

Question 2.
How long did it take to write the Constitution?
OR
Why is it the lengthiest Constitution in the world?
Answer:
(i) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to ! complete the writing of the Constitution.

(ii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules in the original Constitution, thus making it the lengthiest Constitution in the world.

Question 3.
Write about the wide range of issues in the Constitution which were contributed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s contribution was in a wide range of issues like water conservation, foreign policy, national security, journalism, economics, social justice, etc.

Question 4.
We are proud of our Constitution.
Answer:
(i) Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion. A respect for opposing view points and the acceptance of the appropriate suggestions were a characteristic of the working of the Constituent Assembly.

(ii) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to complete the writing of the Constitution.

(iii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 schedules in the original Constitution

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Air Pressure Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Air Pressure

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.
Answer:

• The proportion of dust in the air, water vapour, heavy gases, etc. is higher in the air and closer to the surface of the earth.
• This proportion decreases with increasing altitude.
• As one moves higher and higher from the surface of the earth, the air becomes thinner and thinner.
• As a result, the air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

Question 2.
Pressure belts oscillate.
Answer:

• The duration and the intensity of sunrays varies during particular periods of the year in both the hemispheres.
• So, the locations of the temperature zones and the pressure belts dependent on the sun’s heat also vary.
• This change is of the order of 5° to 7° towards the north in Uttarayan1 and 5° to 7° south in Dakshinayan2.
• In this way pressure belts oscillate.

2. Give short answers to the following questions.

Question 1.
What effect does temperature have on air pressure?
Answer:

• Temperature and air pressure are closely related. Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low.
• As the temperature rises, the air gets heated, expands, and becomes lighter.
• This lighter air in the vicinity of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky
• As a result, the air pressure in such areas decreases.

Question 2.
Why is the subpolar low pressure belt formed?
Answer:

• Due to earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles.
• This results in lesser friction1 of the air with the earth’s surface.
• Air in this region is thrown out because of this reduced friction and also because of the earth’s rotational motion.
• This leads to the development of a low pressure belt in the sub polar region i.e. in area between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

3. Write notes on:

Question 1.
Mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.
• Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier.
• This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.
• This leads to the formation of high pressures, belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.
• This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Question 2.
Horizontal distribution of air pressure.
Answer:

• The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions.
• The distribution of temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles.
• This difference can lead to difference in air pressure.
• There are four air pressure belts formed on the earth surface.
• Equatorial low-pressure belt between 5°N and 5°S parallels as the temperature is high here.
• Mid latitudinal high-pressure belt between 25° and 35° parallels due to descending heavier air.
• Subpolar low-pressure belt formed between 55° and 65° parallels due to friction and rotation.
• Polar high-pressure belt formed between 80° and 90° parallels due to low temperatures.

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate option.

Question 1.
At higher altitudes air becomes ________. (thicker, thinner, hotter, more humid)
Answer:
thinner

Question 2.
Air pressure is expressed in _______ .(millibars, millimeters, milliliters, milligrams)
Answer:
millibars

Question 3.
On the earth, air pressure is _______.(uniform, uneven, high, low)
Answer:
uneven

Question 4.
The ______ pressure belt spreads between 5° North and 5° South parallel. (equatorial low, polar high, subpolar low, mid-latitudinal high)
Answer:
equatorial low

5. How does a high-pressure belt get formed near 30 ° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

6. Draw a neat diagram showing pressure belts. Label the diagram.
Answer:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagram Fig. (a) and (b) carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which pressure belt is mainly found in the Tropics?
Answer:
Equatorial low pressure belt is mainly found in the tropics.

Question 2.
With which pressure belt are the polar winds associated? In which temperature zone are they observed?
Answer:
The polar winds are associated with polar high pressure belt and sub polar low pressure belt. It is observed in the frigid zone.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind a low pressure belt in the Tropics?
Answer:
Low pressure belt is formed in the tropics because the temperature is high.

Question 4.
With which pressure belts are the winds in the Temperate zone associated?
Answer:
The winds in temperate zone are associated with mid latitudinal high pressure belt.

Question 5.
Write the latitudinal extent of the low pressure belts.
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of Equatorial low pressure belt is between 50°N & 50°S parallel & the latitudinal extent of the sub polar low pressure belt is between 55° & 65° parallel in both the hemispheres.

Observe the map given above and study the distribution of air pressure and answer the following

Question 1.
The nature of the isobars.
Answer:
The isobars are joining places of equal air pressure on the map.

Question 2.
High and low pressure belts and their latitudinal position.
Answer:
(i) The latitudinal position of high pressure belt is between 25° & 35° parallels and between 80° & 90° parallels in both the hemisphere
(ii) The latitudinal position of low pressure belt is between 0° & 5° parallels and between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 3.
The direction of the isobars and the distance between successive isobars over the oceans and continents.
Answer:
(i) In the northern hemisphere most of the isobars are in southwest to north east direction over the continents. Also the distance between the isobars varies.

(ii) Closely spaced isobars indicate large pressure changes over a small area. Widely spaced isobars indicate gentle or gradual pressure change.

(iii) In the southern hemisphere, the isobars extend  in east-west direction. The distance between the isobars is fairly constant over the oceans & so the isobars are fairly parallel to each other.

Question 4.
Comparison of the isobars in the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
In the northern hemisphere the isobars are far spaced and uneven, whereas in the southern hemispheres it is closely spaced and parallel.

Use your brainpower !

Question 1.
If there is low pressure at the equator, what will be the condition of air pressure in the Arctic Zone?
Answer:
The Arctic zone will experience high pressure as the temperature is lower than 0°C.

Try this:

Question 1.

• Take a flying lantern.
• Tie an approximately 5m long thread to the flying lantern so that you can bring the lantern down whenever required.
• After carefully reading the instructions given on the package of the lantern open it and light the candle placed in it.
• After some time, bring the lantern down with the help of the thread and put off the candle.

Question 2.
Did the flying lantern start ascending immediately after the candle was lit?
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
What would have happened to the flying lantern had the candle got extinguished after the lantern had gone up in the air?
Answer:
The lantern would have fallen back on the earth.

Give it a try: 

Question 1.
Study the temperative distribution map given in your std VI textbook and the pressure distribution map in this lesson to find the correlation between air temperature and air pressure.
Answer:

• The temperature deceases continuously from the equator to the poles but the air pressure varies alternately.
• In the equatorial region the average temperature is high. Hence, the air pressure is low.
• In the polar regions, the temperature is low & hence the air pressure is comparative high.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Pressure belts oscillates between ______ parallels. (5° to 7°, 10° to 20°, 80° and 90°, 25° to 30°)
Answer:
5° to 7°

Question 2.
The instrument used to measure air pressure is ______ .(barometer, thermometer, hygrometer, seismometer)
Answer:
barometer

Question 3.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below ________ throughout the year. (5°C, 0°C, 7°C, 6°C)
Answer:
0°C

Question 4.
The line that joins the places of equal pressure on the map is called an _______. (isotherm, isohytes, millibars, isobar)
Answer:
isobar

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of the temperate zones is much _____ while belts are narrower.
Answer:
Larger

Question 2.
The extent of air pressure belt is upto ______ parallel.
Answer:
10°

Question 3.
Pressure belts are formed between the _______ and the pole.
Answer:
Equator

Question 4.
The sun rays fall perpendicular between the ______and ________.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn

Question 5.
Due to the earths curvature, the area betweentwo parallels gets ______ as we move towards the poles.
Answer:
reduced

Question 6.
The air pressure at sea level is ______ millibars.
Answer:
1013.2

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Air pressure is uniform on all places on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
false

Question 2.
Whenever the temperature is high, the air pressure is also high.
Answer:
false

Question 3.
The heat received from the sun, is uneven in different regions.
Answer:
true

Question 4.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is low throughout the year.
Answer:
true

Question 5.
Air pressure is measured in units of millimetres.
Answer:
false

Answer the following questions in one to two sentence:

Question 1.
Which factors influence air pressure?
Answer:
The altitude of a region, temperature of the air and the amount of water vapour in the air are some factors influencing air pressure.

Question 2.
What is the extent of air pressure belt?
Answer:
The extent of air pressure belt is generally upto 10° parallel.

Question 3.
What is the latitudinal extent of temperate zone?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of temperate zone is from 23°30’N to 66°30’N and 23° 30’S to 66° 30’S.

Question 4.
What is the temperature in the polar region?
Answer:
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0°C throughout the year.

Question 5.
Why do all things in and on the earth stay earth bound?
Answer:
All things in and on the earth stay bound due to the earth’s gravity.

Question 6.
Why are temperature zones created on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions. Hence the distribution of the temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles. As a result, temperature zones are created.

Question 7.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in which region?
Answer:
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in the mid latitudinal high pressure belt ie; between 25° to 30° parallels in both hemispheres.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure is maximum at sea level.
Answer:

• All things in and on the earth stay earthbound because of the earth’s gravity. This includes air which is in the gaseous form.
• Due to the earth’s gravity, air is pulled to the earth’s surface.
• Also as one moves higher & higher from the earth’s surface the air becomes thinner & thinner.
• Therefore, the air pressure is maximum at sea- level.

Question 2.
A low pressure belt is formed near the equator.
Answer:

• The sunrays can be perpendicular between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The temperature is higher in this region.
• Hence air in this region gets heated, expands and becomes lighter and moves towards the sky.
• As this process operates continuously, a low pressure belt gets formed in the central part of this region between the parallels 5° N and 5° S, near the equator.

Question 3.
High pressure belt is formed near the polar region.
Answer:

• In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0° throughout the year.
• The air is cold.
• Hence, high pressure belt is formed in the polar region.

Question 4.
Low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.
Answer:

• Due to the earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles. This results in lesser friction of the air with the earth’s surface.
• The air between 55° and 65° parallels is thrown out because of the reduced friction and also due to the earth’s rotation.
• Therefore, a low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 5.
Temperature and air pressure are closely related.
Answer:

• Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low. As the temperature rises the air gets heated, expands, and become lighter.
• Thin, lighter air in the vicinity3 of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky. As a result the air pressure in such area decreases.
• Hence, temperature and air pressure are closely related.

Question 6.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The air in mid-latitudinal high pressure belt (between 25° to 35° parallels in both hemisphere) is found to be dry.
• The amount of water vapour is very low & hence this region gets extremely scarce or no rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid latitudinal high pressure belts.

Give short answers to the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of air pressure?
Answer:
Air pressure has the following effects.

• Origin of winds.
• Generation of storms
• Convectional type of rain.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the temperature zones and pressure belts?
Answer:
(i) The difference between the temperature zones & pressure belts is that the latitudinal extent of temperature zones is much larger while pressure belts are narrower.

(ii) For example, the Temperate zone extends from 23°30′ to 66°30′ in both hemisphere. Compared to this the pressure belt has limited extent which is generally upto 10° parallel.

(iii) Also the temperature zones are continuous & spread from the equator to the poles from Torrid to Frigid.

(iv) Pressure belts are not continuous & areas of high & low pressure are found in different regions from the equator to the poles.

Question 3.
How does a high pressure belt get formed near 30° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Think about it:

Question 1.
What will be the effect on air pressure if the temperature drops? Why?
Answer:
If the temperature drops, the air pressure will increase as the air becomes heavy.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj

Class 7 History Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Pune, Supe, Chakan, Bengaluru
Answer:
Bengaluru

Question 2.
Jadhavs of Phaltan, Mores of Javali, Ghorpades of Mudhol, Sawants of Sawantwadi
Answer:
Jadhavs of Phaltan

Question 3.
Torana, Murumbdev, Sinhgad,Sindhudurg
Answer:
Sindhudurg.

2. Write about in your words:

Question 1.
The efforts Veermata Jijabai took for Shivaji Maharaj’s education.
Answer:
The following were the efforts Veermata Jijabai took for Shivaji Maharaj’s education.
(i) She instilled in Shivaji the values like modesty, vigilance, truthfulness, oratory, courage and fearlessness.
(ii) She inspired the will to win the dream of Swaraj.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj started his work of founding Swaraj in the Maval region.
Answer:
(i) The Maval terrain was full of hills and valleys and was not easily accessible.
(ii) He made use of these geographical features of Maval very skilfully for the purpose of the foundation of the Swaraj.

3. List the companions and associates of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:

1. Yesaji Kank
2. Baji Pasalkar
3. Bapuji Mudgal
4. Kavji Kondhalkar
5. Jiva Mahala
6. Tanaji Malusare
7. Kanhoji Jedhe
8. Bajiprabhu Deshpande
9. Dadaji Narasprabhu Deshpande.
10. Narhekar Deshpande brothers

4. Find out and write:

Question 1.
Why Shahaji Maharaj is termed Swaraj visionary.
Answer: .
(i) Shahajiraje was valiant, courageous, intelligent a great political expert.
(ii) He was an excellent archer.
(iii) He was also an expert in using the sword, patta and spear.
(iv) He loved his subjects.
(v) He had won many regions in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. South India was in awe of him.
(vi) While Shivaji and Jijabai were at Bengaluru he had arranged for providing excellent education to Shivaji so as to enable him to become a king.
(vii) He himself aspired to established Swaraj by ousting the powers of foreign people. That is why he is known as Swaraj visionary.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj paid attention to building a Navy.
Answer:
(i) After the conquest of Javali, Kalyan, Bhiwandi, Shivaji Maharaj came in contact with the Siddi, Portuguese and British power on the western Coast.
(ii) He realized that in order to fight these powers, it was necessary to have a strong naval force. Hence Shivaji Maharaj paid attention to raise a Navy.

Question 3.
Shivaji Maharaj entered into a treaty with the Adilshah.
Answer:
(i) On one hand, Aurangzeb had Sent Shaistakhan to invade the Pune Province and on other hand the conflict with Adilshah continued.
(ii) Therefore, Shivaji Maharaj realized that it would hot be prudent to fight both the enemies at the same time.
Therefore Shivaji Maharaj entered into a treaty with the Adilshah.

Question 4.
How did Shivaji Maharaj escape from Panhalgad?
Answer:
(i) When Shivaji Maharaj took shelter in Panhala fort, Siddi soldiers laid siege to the fort for about five months.
(ii) Shivaji Maharaj found himself trapped inside the fort.
(iii) Netoji Palkar tried to raise the siege by attacking Siddi’s army from outside.
(iv) He couldn’t succeed as his forces were meagre (inadequate)
(v) Siddi showed no sign of relenting so he decided to have open talks with him.
(vi) Shiva Kashid, a brave youth who resembled Shivaji Maharaj in looks came forward.
(vii) He dressed up like Shivaji Maharaj and sat in a palanquin.
(viii) The palanquin left by the Raj-dindi gate and was captured by Siddi’s army and Kashid sacrificed himself for Swaraj.
(ix) In the meanwhile, Shivaji Maharaj left the fort using another route.

Activities:

1. Describe a fort you have seen. Suggest measures for conserving a historical site.
2. Find out what a 7/12 extract means and relate it to the words in the chapter.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj started the work of establishing Swaraj in the ______ region. (Maval, Javali, Chakan)
Answer:
Maval

Question 2.
Jijabai was the daughter of the great Sardar ______ (Shahajiraje, Netaji Palkar, Lakhujiraje)
Answer:
Lakhujiraje

Question 3.
______ was the first capital of Swaraj. (Pratapgad, Rajgad, Panhala)
Answer:
Rajgad

Question 4.
Shivaji Maharaj renamed Khelna as ______.(Vishalgad, Pratapgad, Rajgad)
Answer:
Vishalgad

Question 5.
The Adilshah gave Siddi the title of _____ (Salabatkhan, Adilshahi, Nizamshahi)
Answer:
Salabatkhan

Question 6.
Badi Sahiba sent ______ to curb Shivaji Maharaj. (Nizamshah, Afzalkhan, Shaistakhan)
Answer:
Afzalkhan

Question 7.
________ was a pre-eminent Sardar in the Deccan.(Lakhujiraje, Bajiprabhu Deshpande, Shahajiraje)
Answer:
Shahajiraje

Question 8.
The Nizamshahi came to an’end in _______. (1636 CE, 1648 CE, 1630 CE)
Answer:
1636 CE

Question 9.
Shahajiraje sent ______ and _______ from Bangalore to Pune with some loyal and competent associates. (Yesaji Rank and Jiva Mahala, Dalvi and Surve, Shivaji and Jijabai)
Answer:
Shivaji and Jijabai

Question 10.
Shivaji Maharaj took shelter in the _______ Fort. (Rajgad, Panhala, Vishalgad)
Answer:
Panhala

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – b
4 – a

Question 2.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Arrange in chronological order:

Question 1.
(i) A treaty with Adilshah
(ii) Defeat of Afzalkhan
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj captured Javali
(iv) Shivaji Maharaj escaped from Panhala Fort
Answer:
(i) Shivaji Maharaj captured Javali
(ii) Defeat of Afzalkhan
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj escaped from Panhala Fort
(iv) A treaty with Adilshah

Question 2.
(i) Meeting with Afzalkhan
(ii) End of Nizamshahi
(iii) Siege to Panhala
(iv) Attack on Javali
Answer:
(i) End of Nizamshahi (1636 CE)
(ii) Attack on Javali (1656 CE)
(iii) Meeting with Afzalkhan (1659 CE)
(iv) Siege to Panhala (1660 CE)

Question 3.
(i) Siddi Jauhar marched against Shivaji Maharaj
(ii) Birth of Shivaji Maharaj
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj built Pratapgad
(iv) Shahajiraje became a Sardar of Adilshah
Answer:
(i) Birth of Shivaji Maharaj
(ii) Shahajiraje became a Sardar of Adilshah
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj built Pratapgad
(iv) Siddi Jauhar marched against Shivaji Maharaj

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What were the extraordinary qualities of Shahajiraje.
Answer:
Shahajiraje was a valiant, courageous, intelligent and a great political leader.

Question 2.
Which Jagirs were granted to Shahajiraje from Nizamshah?
Answer:
Shahajiraje was granted the jagirs of Pune, Supe, Indapur and Chakan parganas located between the Bheema and Neera rivers.

Question 3.
Who was Afzalkhan?
Answer:
Afzalkhan was a powerful and experienced Adilshahi General.

Question 4.
Which forts did Shivaji Maharaj capture while laying the foundation of Swaraj?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj captured the forts of Torana, Murumbdev, Kondhana and Purandar while laying the foundation of Swaraj.

Question 5.
Whom did Shahajiraje entrust the jagir of Pune?
Answer:
Shahajiraje entrusted the jagir of Pune to Shivajiraje and Veermata Jijabai.

Question 6.
Who was looking after the administration of the Adilshahi?
Answer:
Badi Sahiba was looking after the administration of the Adilshahi.

Question 7.
Whom did Badi Sahiba send to curb Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
Badi Sahiba sent Afzalkhan, a powerful and experienced Adilshahi General to curb Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 8.
What is inscribed on the Royal Seal?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaja’s objective of establishing Swaraj was clearly expressed in his Royal Seal.

Question 9.
Who was Chandrarao More?
Answer:
Chandrarao More of Javali in Satara district was a powerful Sardar in the Adilshahi, who was against the founding of the Swaraj.

Question 10.
When was Shivaji Maharaj bom?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj was bom on 19th February, 1630 and as per Hindu Calendar on Phagun Vadya Tritiya, Shaka year 1551.

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Yesaji Kank, Baji Pasalkar, Tanaji Malusare the Mores of Javali
Answer:
The Mores of Javali.

Question 2.
Portuguese, Siddi, British, Mughals
Answer:
Mughals

Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj decided to acquire the forts that were within his own jagir.
Answer:

• The forts situated within the jagir of Shivaji Maharaj were not under his control but were under the control of Adilshah.
• In those days, forts were of special significance.
• With a firm hold over a fort, it was possible to control the surrounding area. Hence, Shivaji Maharaj decided to acquire the forts that were within his own jagir.

Question 2.
Conquest of Javali increased Shivaji Maharaj strength in all respects.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj attacked Javali and captured the region in 1656 CE.
• Shivaji Maharaj established his post in Javali.
• He also captured Raigad. He attained a huge wealth from Javali.
• After this victory, his activities in Konkan increased.
• He built the Pratapgad fort in the Javali valley.
• In this way, the conquest of Javali increased his strength in all respects.

Question 3.
Bajiprabhu dies a hero’s death.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj left the fort using another difficult route.
• He was accompanied by Bajiprabhu Deshpande and some chosen soldiers.
• Bajiprabhu army pursued Shivaji Maharaj.
• Shivaji Maharaj entrusted the responsibility of stopping Siddi’s army at the foot of Vishalgad to Bajiprabhu Deshpande.
• Bajiprabhu Deshpande checked Siddi’s army at the Ghod pass near Gajapur.
• He fought with the greatest valour.
• Bajiprabhu died a hero’s death in the battle.

Find out and write:

Question 1.
Adilshah sent Siddi Jauhar, the Sardar of the Kamul region against Shivaji Maharaj in 1600 CE.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj captured the Adilshahi forts of Panhala, Vasantgad and Khelna.
• Shivaji Maharaj had posed a big challenge before the Adilshahi.
• Therefore, Adilshah sent Siddi Jauhar, the Sardar of the Kamul region against Shivaji Maharaj in 1660 CE.

Write in short about:

Question 1.
Defeat of Afzalkhan
Answer:

• Badi Sahiba sent the powerful and experienced Afzalkhan to curb Shivaji Maharaj.
• A meeting between Afzalkhan and Shivaji was arranged at the foot of Pratapgad near Wai.
• At the meeting, Afzalkhan attempted treachery.
• In return, Shivaji Maharaj killed Afzalkhan and routed the Adilshahi army.

Question 2.
Royal Seal (Rajmudra)
Answer:

• The objective of Shivaji Maharaj of establishing of Swaraj is expressed in his Royal Seal.
• The meaning expressed is that this seal will grow in splendour like the new moon. The seal of Shivaji, the son of Shivaji receiving homage from the whole world denotes the welfare of the people.

Question 3.
Veermata Jijabai
Answer:

• Jijabai was daughter of the great Sardar Lakhujiraje Jadhav of Sindkhedraja in Buldhana district.
• At a young age, she had received military education along with learning various arts.
• She helped and encouraged Shahaji Maharaj to realise his dream of establishing Swaraj
• She was a competent and visionary political expert.

Let’s Learn:

Observe the official seal of our country.

Question 1.
What features do you observe?
Answer:

• Official seal is called the National Emblem of India.
• Elephant is in East, Horse in west (left), Bull south (right) and lion in North.
• There are four lions standings back to back, but in the emblem three are seen.
• There is a wheel under the lions.
• Underneath there are the words “Satyameva Jayate’ in Devnagri script.

Question 2.
In which places is the official seal used?
Answer:
Coins, currency notes, postcards, envelops, passport and Government documents.

Algebraic Formulae – Expansion of Squares Class 7 Maths Chapter 14 Practice Set 50 Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Maths Solutions covers the 7th Std Maths Practice Set 50 Answers Solutions Chapter 14 Algebraic Formulae – Expansion of Squares.

Std 7 Maths Practice Set 50 Solutions Answers

Question 1.
Expand:
i. (5a + 6b)²
ii. \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{2}+\frac{\mathrm{b}}{3}\right)^{2}\)
iii. (2p – 3q)²
iv. \(\left(x-\frac{2}{x}\right)^{2}\)
v. (ax + by)²
vi. (7m – 4)²
vii. \(\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}\)
viii. \(\left(a-\frac{1}{a}\right)^{2}\)
Solution:
i. (5a + 6b)²
Here, A = 5a and B = 6b
(5a + 6b)² = (5a)² + 2 × 5a × 6b + (6b)²
…. [(A + B)² = A² + 2AB + B²]
∴ (5a + 6b)² = 25a² + 60ab + 36b²

ii. \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{a}}{2}+\frac{\mathrm{b}}{3}\right)^{2}\)
Here A = \(\frac { a }{ 2 }\) and B = \(\frac { b }{ 3 }\)

iii. (2p – 3q)²
Here, a = 2p and b = 3q
(2p – 3q)² = (2p)² – 2 × (2p) × (3q) + (3q)²
…. [(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²]
∴ (2p – 3q)² = 4p² – 12pq + 9q²

iv. \(\left(x-\frac{2}{x}\right)^{2}\)
Here a = x and b = \(\frac { 2 }{ x }\)

v. (ax + by)²
Here, A = ax and B = by
(ax + by)² = (ax)² + 2 × ax × by + (by)²
…. [(A + B)² = A² + 2AB + B²]
∴ (ax + by)² = a²x² + 2abxy + b²y²

vi. (7m – 4)²
Here, a = 7m and b = 4
(7m – 4)² = (7m)² – 2 × 7m × 4 + 4²
…. [(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²]
∴ (7m – 4)² = 49m² – 56m + 16

vii. \(\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)^{2}\)
Here a = x and b = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

viii. \(\left(a-\frac{1}{a}\right)^{2}\)
Here A = a and B = \(\frac { 1 }{ a }\)

Question 2.
Which of the options given below is the square of the binomial
(A) \(64-\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)
(B) \(64+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)
(C) \(64-\frac{16}{x}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)
(D) \(64+\frac{16}{x}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)
Solution:
(C) \(64-\frac{16}{x}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)

Hint:
= \(\left(8-\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2}=8^{2}-2 \times 8 \times \frac{1}{x}+\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)^{2}\) …[(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²]
= \(64-\frac{16}{x}+\frac{1}{x^{2}}\)

Question 3.
Of which of the binomials given below is the m²n² + 14mnpq + 49p²q² the expansion?
(A) (m + n) (p + q)
(B) (mn – pq)
(C) (7mn + pq)
(D) (mn + 7pq)
Solution:
(D) (mn + 7pq)

Hint:
Here, square root of the first term = mn
Square root of the last term = 7pq
∴ Required binomial = (mn + 7pq)²

Question 4.
Use an expansion formula to find the values of:
i. (997)²
ii. (102)²
iii. (97)²
iv. (1005)²
Solution:
i. (997)² = (1000 – 3)²
Here, a = 1000 and b = 3
(1000 – 3)² = (1000)² – 2 x 1000 x 3 + 3²
…. [(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²]
= 1000000 – 6000 + 9
= 994009
∴ (997)² = 994009

ii. (102)² = (100 + 2)²
Here, a = 100 and b = 2
(100 + 2)² = (100)² + 2 x 100 x 2 + 2²
…. [(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²]
= 10000 + 400 + 4
= 10404
∴ (102)² = 10404

iii. (97)² = (100 – 3)²
Here, a = 100 and b = 3
(100 – 3)² = (100)² – 2 x 100 x 3 + 3²
…. [(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²]
= 10000 – 600 + 9
= 9409
∴ (97)² = 9409

iv. (1005)² = (1000 + 5)²
Here, a = 1000 and b = 5 (1000 + 5)²
= (1000)² + 2 x 1000 x 5 + 5²
…. [(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²]
= 1000000+ 10000 + 25
= 1010025
∴ (1005)² = 1010025

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Maths Chapter 14 Algebraic Formulae – Expansion of Squares Practice Set 50 Intext Questions and Activities

Question 1.
Use the given values to verify the formulae for squares of binomials. (Textbook pg. no. 92)
i. a = -7, b = 8
ii. a = 11,b = 3
iii. a = 2.5,b = 1.2
Solution:
i. (a + b)² = (-7 + 8)²
= 1²
= 1
a² + 2ab + b² = (-7)² + 2 x (-7) x 8 + 8²
= 49 – 112 + 64
= 1
∴(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²
(a – b)² = (-7 – 8)²
= (-15)²
= 225
a² – 2ab + b² = (-7)² – 2 x (-7) x 8 + (8)²
= 49 + 112 + 64
= 225
∴(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²

ii. (a + b)² = (11 + 3)²
= 14²
= 196
a² + 2ab + b² = 11² + 2 x 11 x 3 + 3²
= 121 + 66 + 9
= 196
∴(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²
(a – b)² = (11 – 3)² = 8²
= 64
a² – 2ab + b² = 11² – 2 x 11 x 3 + 3²
= 121 – 66 + 9
= 64
∴(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²

iii. (a + b)² = (2.5 + 1.2)²
= 3.7²
= 13.69
a² + 2ab + b² = (2.5)² + 2 x 2.5 x 1.2 + (1.2)²
= 6.25 + 6 + 1.44
= 13.69
∴(a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²
(a – b)² = (2.5 – 1.2)²
= 1.32
= 1.69
a² – 2ab + b² = (2.5)² – 2 x 2.5 x 1.2 + (1.2)²
= 6.25 – 6 + 1.44
= 1.69
∴(a – b)² = a² – 2ab + b²-

Class 7 Maths Solution Maharashtra Board

• Pythagoras’ Theorem Practice Set 48 Class 7 Maths Solution
• Pythagoras’ Theorem Practice Set 49 Class 7 Maths Solution
• Algebraic Formulae – Expansion of Squares Practice Set 50 Class 7 Maths Solution
• Algebraic Formulae – Expansion of Squares Practice Set 51 Class 7 Maths Solution
• Algebraic Formulae – Expansion of Squares Practice Set 52 Class 7 Maths Solution
• Algebraic Formulae – Expansion of Squares Practice Set 53 Class 7 Maths Solution
• Statistics Practice Set 54 Class 7 Maths Solution
• Statistics Practice Set 55 Class 7 Maths Solution

Std 7 Science Chapter 12 The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 12 The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 7 Science Chapter 12 The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Fill in the blanks with the right word from the brackets:

Question a.
The process of digestion starts from the ………….. (stomach, mouth).
Answer:
mouth

Question b.
Eyelids have …………… muscles. (voluntary, involuntary)
Answer:
involuntary

Question c.
……………. is not a function of muscular system. (production of blood cell, performing movement)
Answer:
Production of blood cells

Question d.
Muscles of the heart are …………….. . (ordinary muscles, cardiac muscles)
Answer:
cardiac muscles

Question e.
Pushing forward the food that has been chewed is the function of the …………… . (stomach, oesophagus)
Answer:
Oesophagus.

2. Find a match for me.

Question a.

3. Who is telling a lie?

Question a.

Answer:

1. Lie. My taste buds can tell all tastes – sweet sour, bitter.
2. Truth.
3. Lie. It is 1.5 metre long.
4. Truth.
5. Lung → Lie. It plays important role in breathing.

4. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Food becomes acidic in the stomach.
Answer:

1. The gastric glands of stomach secrete gastric juice.
2. Food that has entered stomach is churned.
3. Three components of gastric juice namely hydrochloric acid, pepsin and mucus are mixed with food here and the food becomes acidic.

Question 2.
Cardiac muscles are said to be involuntary muscles.
Answer:

1. Cardiac muscles are found in the heart.
2. These muscles bring about the contraction and relaxation (beating) of the heart.
3. Their movement is involuntary.
4. Cardiac muscles cause our heart to relax and contract continuously at a rate of about 70 times per minute. They do not depend upon our will.
5. Beating is carried out in their own fixed manner.

So cardiac muscles are said to be involuntary muscles.

Question 3.
Intoxicating substances should not be consumed.
Answer:

1. Physical health is important for our organ system to function properly.
2. But harmful habits like smoking, chewing of tobacco, drinking alcohol affect our health adversely.
3. If we consume any tobacco products, the mouth, pharynx, alimentary canal, and other organs of the digestive system cannot function properly.
4. It causes problems like vomiting, nausea, and headache.
5. Tobacco particles stick to teeth, gums, and skin of the mouth cavity and slowly cause injury to those parts resulting in their dysfunction.
6. This causes swelling of the gums and pain when moving the jaws.
7. The pharynx and intestine become inflamed it progress into cancer leading to death.

Question 4.
Your muscles should be strong and efficient.
Answer:
Muscles are bundles of fibres that can contract and relax as required.

1. The action of muscles is necessary for all kinds of movements from the small movements of eyelid to those that demand great strength when chopping wood with an axe.
2. We use muscles for various movements like talking laughing, walking, jumping, throwing etc.
3. Therefore our muscles should be strong and efficient to do our day today work well and smooth functioning of life processes.

5. Answer the following. 

Question a.
How many types of muscles are there? Which are those types?
Answer:
Muscles are bundles of fibres that can contract and relax as required. There are three types of muscles.

• Skeletal muscles.
• Heart or cardiac muscles.
• Smooth muscles.

1. Skeletal muscles: (a) Skeletal muscles work with bones, the two ends of each of these muscles are attached to two different bones. (b) They are responsible for holding the bones of the skeleton together and giving shape to our body, (c) Skeletal muscles permits movement of t the body and maintain the posture of the body. (d) Skeletal muscle is voluntary e.g. muscles in our arms and legs are voluntary muscles, their action depends upon our will. That’s why they are called voluntary muscles.

2. Heart or cardiac muscles: (a) Heart or cardiac muscles bring about the contraction and relaxation (beating) of the heart. (b) Their movement is involuntary, (c) Cardiac muscles cause our heart to relax and contract continuously at a rate of about 70 times per minute, (d) Cardiac muscle is found in heart.

3. Smooth muscles: (a) These muscles are present in the internal organs other than the heart, e.g. muscles of the stomach, intestine, blood vessels, uterus etc. (b)Their movements are involuntary and slow, (c) They are not according to our will. (d) Various vital functions of our body such as digestion, respiration and movement of food material of which we remain quite unaware, are carried out by these special muscles.

Question b.
What causes the problem of acidity? What is its effect on the body?
Answer:

1. Stress is the main cause of acidity.
2. Hectic lifestyle and stress can lead to unhealthy or irregular meals, not good for digestion process, and this may cause acidity.
3. Other reasons are eating spicy food, drinking too much alcohol, missing meals, an empty stomach may lead to acidity.
4. Acidity leads to stomach upset, burning sensation in chest and stomach, constriction of blood vessels, weight gain, obesity, cardiovascular damage.

Question c.
Name the different types of teeth. What is the function of each type?
Answer:
There are four types of teeth, namely incisors, canines, pre-molars, and molars.
Each tooth is covered by a hard substance called enamel. Enamel is made up of calcium salt.
The process of digestion begins with the function of the teeth in the mouth.
1. Incisors: (a) These come in first 6-months of age. Incisors are the eight teeth in the front and centre four on top and four on bottom, (b) They are sharp and blade like for cutting food. e.g. for biting an apple, (c) We use them to take first bite of food.

2. Canines: (a) These are strong and pointed, sharpest of all for tearing food. e.g. to tear off a piece of tough meat, (b) They play important role in digestion of food, (c) They appear between 11 and 20 months of age.

3. Pre-molar: Pre molar share features of both canines and molars. (a) You can use them for grinding and chewing food. So that it becomes semi-liquid helping to gulp down the throat easily, (b) They are situated at each side of your mouth in deep settings, (c) They appear at the age of 10 years.

4. Molar: (a) These are broad and flat on top for crushing and grinding food. e.g. to grind up nutmeats. (b) Two teeth above and two teeth below, they appear at the age 11-13 years. (c) Molars are more prone to germ attack because of their remote location in our mouth.
So we should keep them clean.

6. Sketch and label a diagram of the digestive system and describe it in your own words.

Question a.
Sketch and label a diagram of the digestive system and describe it in your own words.
Answer:

1. Conversion of food into a soluble form and its absorption into the blood is called digestion.
2. The digestive system consists of the alimentary canal and digestive glands.
3. The total length of alimentary canal is about 9 metres.
4. Its main parts are the mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus.
5. The salivary glands, liver, pancreas are the digestive glands connected to the alimentary canal.
6. Different organs of the digestive system perform the function of digestion.
7. There are different stages in the process of digestion of food.
8. The process of digestion begins with the function of the teeth in the mouth, food is chewed into small pieces.
9. There are four types of teeth, incisors, canines, pre-molars and molars.
10. Saliva in the mouth contains enzymes, ptyalin, or amylase. It converts starch into maltose.

a. Oesophagus:

1. It is a tube leading from the pharynx to the stomach,
2. It pushes the food towards the stomach.

b. Stomach:

1. The large sac like part of the alimentary canal is called the stomach.
2. Food that has entered is churned.
3. The gastric glands of stomach secrete gastric juice which contain hydrochloric acid, pepsin and mucus.
4. They mix with food and food becomes acidic.
5. Mainly proteins are digested in stomach.
6. Due to the churning and actions of gastric juice, food become a semi-solid slurry which is pushed into the small intestine.

c. Small intestine: (6m long)

1. Bile secreted by liver mixes with food in small intestine,
2. Most of the digestion and absorption of food takes place here.

d. Large intestine: (1.5m long) only water is absorbed in the large intestine. Undigested remain is thrown out of the body through the anus.

Project:

Question 1.
Make charts about maintaining good health.

Question 2.
Design a power point presentation about the digestive system and present it in the class.

Class 7 Science Chapter 12 The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings Important Questions and Answers

Choose and write the correct word.

Question 1.
The structure that connects bones to the muscles is the ………………….. .
(a) ligament
(b) tendon
(c) fascicle
(d) skin
Answer:
(b) tendon

Question 2.
………………….. is not performed by muscles.
(a) Motion
(b) Excretion
(c) Maintenance of posture
(d) Heat production
Answer:
(d) Heat production

Question 3.
Approximately ………………….. skeletal muscles are there in the human body.
(a) 1000
(b) 600
(c) 100
(d) 60
Answer:
(b) 600

Question 4.
Most of the fat digestion occurs in ………………….. .
(a) rectum
(b) stomach
(c) small intestine
(d) large intestine
Answer:
(c) small intestine

Question 5.
Protein digestion is accomplished in ………………….. .
(a) stomach
(b) ileum
(c) rectum
(d) duodenum
Answer:
(b) ileum

Question 6.
The main function of the muscular system is ………………….. .
(a) excretion
(b) digestion
(c)movement
(d) contraction
Answer:
(c)movement

Question 7.
The largest muscle of our body is in the ………………….. .
(a) arm
(b) face
(c) thigh
(d) None
Answer:
(c) thigh

State whether True or False. Correct the false statement and rewrite:

Question 1.
Saliva is mixed with food in the mouth.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Gastric juice makes food alkaline.
Answer:
False. Gastric juice makes food acidic.

Question 3.
Pancreas is the largest gland in the body.
Answer:
False. Liver is the largest gland in the body.

Question 4.
Food becomes acidic in stomach.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Cardiac muscles are said to be voluntary muscles.
Answer:
False. Cardiac muscles are involuntary.

Question 6.
Muscles contribute 60% of the weight of a healthy adult human body.
Answer:
False. Muscles contribute almost 40% of the weight of a healthy adult human body.

Question 7.
There are about 30 muscles in the human face.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Muscles in our arms and legs have involuntary muscles.
Answer:
False. Muscles in our arm and legs are voluntary muscles.

Question 9.
Functions of organs like stomach, intestine, heart are carried out by voluntary muscles.
Answer:
False. Functions of these organs are carried out by involuntary muscles.

Question 10.
Smooth muscles are involuntary muscles.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
The digestive function of the liver is to produce bile.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
The muscular tissue has the ability to contract or shorten.
Answer:
True.

Find a match for me.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Stomach, esophagus, liver, small intestine, rectum
Answer:
Liver which is a gland and others are parts of digestive tract.

Question 2.
Saliva, bile, pancreatic juice, gastric juice chyme
Answer:
Chyme, it is a liquid food others are digestive juices.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Gastric juices in stomach
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid, Pepsin, Mucus.

Question 2.
Juices secreted by liver
Answer:
Bile.

Question 3.
Pancreatic juices.
Answer:
Trypsin, Lipase, Amylase.

Question 4.
Salivary gland secretion.
Answer:
Saliva

Question 5.
Enzyme present in saliva.
Answer:
Ptyalin or Amylase.

Question 6.
Types of muscles.
Answer:
Skeletal, Cardiac and Smooth muscles.

Question 7.
Study of muscles.
Answer:
Myology

Give scientific reason:

Question 1.
Skeletal muscles give shape to our body.
Answer:

1. Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles. The two ends of each of these muscles are attached to two different bones.
2. Muscles of the arms and legs are skeletal muscles.
3. They are responsible for holding the bones of the skeleton together and giving shape to our body.

Question 2.
The process of digestion begins in the mouth.
Answer:

1. The process of digestion begins with the function of the teeth.
2. There are 4 types of teeth – incisors, canines, pre-molar, and molar.
3. They are responsible for grinding the food.
4. Saliva present in the mouth mixes with the food and makes it soft.
5. An enzyme present in saliva called ptyalin amylase converts starch into maltose. Thus, the process of digestion begins in the mouth.

Question 3.
Metabolic processes are impossible without enzymes.
Answer:

1. Enzymes are substances secreted’ in the body of an organism which bring about specific chemical reactions.
2. Enzymes are specific type of proteins. They are most active at normal body temperature.
3. Digestion enzymes of the digestive system bring about changes in the food material.
4. Food is digested with the help of enzymes and converted into more soluble and simple form.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Voluntary muscles
Answer:

1. Working with our hands, walking, eating are functions that depend upon our will.
2. Muscles used in these actions are called voluntary muscles, e.g. skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles.

Question 2.
Involuntary muscles
Answer:

1. Various processes like breathing, blood circulation, digestion are vital function, essential for life.
2. They do not depend upon our will.
3. The muscles of organs which carry out these involuntary functions are called involuntary muscles.
4. Functions of organs like the stomach, intestine, heart are carried out in their own fixed manner by involuntary muscles, e.g. cardiac muscle present in heart, smooth muscles in lining of stomach, small intestine, blood vessel, uterus.

Question 3.
Muscle and its types
Answer:
There are three types of muscles in body

1. Skeletal Muscles
2. Cardiac Muscles
3. Smooth Muscles

Question 4.
Digestive glands
Answer:
The salivary glands, liver and pancreas are the digestive glands connected to the alimentary canal.
1. Salivary glands: (a) Saliva is produced in the salivary glands in the mouth cavity, located in front of the ears, below the tongue, (b) It is carried to the mouth via ducts, (c) It is mixed with food during the process of chewing.

2. Saliva: contains an enzyme called Ptyalin or salivary amylase. Ptyalin convdrtfe starch into a sugar called maltose.

3. Liver: (a) The liver is the largest gland in the body, (b) Main function is storage of glucose, (c) The digestive juice secreted by the liver is bile, (d) Bile is carried into small intestine, it mixes with food and helps in digestion of fats.

4. Pancreas: The pancreas secretes the pancreatic juice that contains various enzymes

• Trypsin → converts proteins into amino acids.
• Lipase → converts fats into fatty acids, glycerol
• Amylase → converts complex carbohydrate into simple sugar

Question 5.
Enzymes
Answer:
Enzymes are substances secreted in the body an organism which bring about specific chemical reactions.

1. Metabolic processes are impossible without enzymes.
2. Digestive exzymes of the digestive system bring about changes in the find material.
3. They break down the food into simple form.
4. They are a type of protein.
5. Saliva contain pytalin which converts starch into maltose.
   • Trypsin: Convert proteins into amino acids.
   • Lipase: Convert fats into fatty acid.
   • Amylase: Converts complex carbohydrates into simple sugar.

Question 6.
Draw the structure of the different layers of the tooth.
Answer:

Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Voluntary and Involuntary muscles.
Answer:

Question 2.
Skeletal muscle and Cardiac muscle.
Answer:

Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is meant by organ system?
Answer:

1. There are different structural organizational levels in living organism.
2. Cells → tissues → organ → organ system → organism
3. Different organs together form one organ system.

Question 2.
How are the bones in our body joined to each other?
Answer:
Skeleted muscles join two bones with the help of tendons.

Can you tell?

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is the mutual relationship between muscles and bones?
Answer:

1. Muscles are firmly attached to bones by means of tendons.
2. When muscles contract there is movement at the joint and there is pull on tendon which in turn pull on the bones to which they are attached.

Question 2.
Are the muscles of the different organs in our body identical?
Answer:
No, muscles of the different organs are not identical, some are voluntary, some are involuntary.

Question 3.
How do muscles perform their functions?
Answer:

1. Muscles in our body always work in groups.
2. When some muscles contract other muscles of the same group relax.
3. This is how muscles help in proper performance of the various functions of own body.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which parts of our body are made up only of muscles?
Answer:
Tongue, heart, stomach, liver, pancreas, intestines are made up of only muscles.

Question 2.
What would happen if the cardiac muscles do not move?
Answer:

1. Cardiac muscles cause our heart to relax and contract continuously at a rate of about 70 times per minute.
2. These muscles bring about the contraction and relaxation (beating) of the heart.
3. If the cardiac muscles do not move, heart will stop beating, and will not pump blood to other parts of the body and person will die.

Question 3.
Food enters the stomach and the stomach muscles do not move.
Answer:

1. Smooth muscles are present in the lining of stomach.
2. Their movement is responsible for churning of food.
3. If the muscles do not move, food will not be digested.

Question 4.
During digestion does all the food that we have eaten get converted into useful nutritive substances?
Answer:

1. During digestion not all the food is converted into useful nutritive substance, only whatever nutrients we obtain by digestion of food gets absorbed into the blood in small intestine.
2. Undigested remains of the food enters the large intestine and thrown out of the body through the anus.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

• Cell Structure and Micro-organisms Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Changes – Physical and Chemical Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Elements, Compounds and Mixtures Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Materials We Use Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Natural Resources Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Effects of Light Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound: Production of Sound Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Properties of a Magnetic Field Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• In the World of Stars Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 7 Science Chapter 16 Natural Resources Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 16 Natural Resources Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 7 Science Chapter 16 Natural Resources Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Describe natural resources with reference to the following 3 types:

Question a.
Mineral resources
Answer:
Mineral wealth has an important place among natural resources. The rocks on the earth are mainly made of minerals. These minerals can be obtained by mining. Minerals that contain a high proportion of metals are ores, (i) Minerals are formed from the magma in the earth’s crust and the lava from the eruption of volcanoes when they cool and get transformed into crystals e.g. magnetite, mica, (ii) Minerals get transformed from one form into another due to large changes in temperature and pressure e.g. Diamond, Graphite, (iii) There are 3 types of minerals according to their properties Non-metal minerals: e.g. mica, sulphur, potash, diamond.

• Metals minerals: e.g. Iron, gold, silver, tin, bauxite, platinum.
• Energy minerals: e.g. Coal, mineral oil, natural gas, diamond, ruby, sapphire, jade are used as gems.

Some important minerals and ores are Iron ore, manganese, bauxite, copper and mica.

Question b.
Forest resources
Answer:

1. A forest is a natural habitat of plants, animals and microbes.
2. Forest perform certain specific protective and productive functions.
3. We get different types of wood and many medicinal plants from forests.
4. Forest wealth includes fire wood, trees like teak, mahogany, neem, acacia, subabhul, fibers, paper, rubber, gum, aromatic substances.
5. We get fragrant essential oils from lemon grass, vanilla, kewada, vetiver (khus) and eucalyptus.
6. Sandalwood and oil of eucalyptus are used for making soaps, cosmetics and incense sticks.
7. Also we get fruits, bulbs, roots, honey, sealing wax, dyes from forest.
8. Many medicinal plants adulsa, bel, neem, periwinkle, cinnamon, are used for treatment of various diseases such as cough cold, malaria, diarrhoea, cancer, fever and cold.
9. Wood is used as a source of energy for cooking purpose and for keeping warm.
10. For making furniture, tool handles, matches, bridges, boats etc.
11. Bamboos are used for matting, flooring, basket, ropes, rafts, cots etc.
12. Bamboos, wood are used in the manufacture of rayon, yams, artificial silk-fibers.

Question c.
Ocean resources
Answer:

1. Oceans occupy about 70% of a earth’s surface.
2. Energy can be obtained on a large scale from oceans.
3. Sea waves at high and low tide and ocean currents are being used for generation of power.
4. There are billions of tons of minerals dissolved in ocean water.
5. There are large reserves of tin, chromium, potassium, phosphates, copper, zinc, iron, lead, thorium, manganese, sulphur, uranium in the ocean and sea beds.
6. Also we get many types of gems, conches, shells and pearls from the sea.
7. There are large reserves of mineral oil and natural gas at the bottom of sea.
8. We get fishes, dried shrimp, shells, fungi, shark, cod fish and sea cucumber from the ocean.

2. Write answers to the following questions in your own words.

Question a.
What is meant by fossil fuel? What are their types?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels (such as coal or natural gas) are formed in the earth from dead plants and animals, due to high pressure from above and the heat from the earth’s interior.
2. The dead plants, animals get transformed into fossil fuel.
3. There are three types of fossil fuels which can be used for energy production, Coal, oil and natural gas.

a. Coal:

1. Coal is a solid fossil fuel formed over millions of years by the decay of land vegetation,
2. Coal is a store house of carbon. Coal is found in mines,
3. It is like porous, hard, black rock.
4. It is burnt to obtain heat energy.
5. It is used as a fuel in thermal power plants and to run boilers and railway engines, for cooking and baking bricks.
6. Anthracite is the coal of the highest grade.
7. Producer gas and water gas are obtained from coal.

b. Mineral oil:

1. Mineral oil is the liquid fuel formed by the decomposition of organic substances buried underground,
2. The underground mineral oil is extracted through oil wells.
3. Mineral oil is found mainly in oil sands, shale, sandstone and limestone at a depth of about 1000 to 3000 metres.
4. Mineral oil is also known as petroleum or crude oil. It is greenish-brown in colour.
5. Petroleum is a mixture of many compounds mainly of the hydrocarbon type.
6. It also contains compounds of oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur.
7. Petroleum is extracted through oil wells and refined by fractional distillation to separate other components,
8. Aviation petrol, gasoline, diesel, kerosene, naphtha, lubricating oil, tar are all obtained from petroleum.
9. They are used as fuel and for production of dyes, pesticides, perfumes and artificial fibres.

c. Natural gas:

1. Natural gas is an important fossil fuel.
2. It is lighter than air. It is found with petroleum in underground oil wells and in some places as natural gas alone.
3. The main component of natural gas is methane (CH₄), ethane (C₂H₆), propane (C₃H₈) and butane (C₄H₁₀) are present in small proportions.
4. This gas is highly flammable.
5. This fuel can be carried over long distance by means of a gas pipeline.
6. In absence of pipeline, it is transformed under high pressure into compressed natural gas (CNG) and liquefied natural gas (LNG).

Question b.
Make a list of the components we obtain from mineral oil.
Answer:

1. Mineral oil is the liquid fuel. It is also known as petroleum or crude oil. Petroleum is refined by fractional distillation to separate other components.
2. Aviation petrol, gasoline, diesel, kerosene, naphtha, lubricating oil, tar are the components we obtain from mineral oil.

Question c.
What do we get from forest?
Answer:

1. A forest is a natural habitat of plants, animals and microbes. We get wood, firewood from trees like teak, mahogany, neem, subabhul.
2. Also we get fibers, paper, rubber, gum and aromatic substances.
3. We get many medicinal plants like Adulsa, Bel, Neem, Periwinkle, Cinnamon, Cinchona which are used for treatment of various diseases like cough, cold, diarrhea, fever, cancer, diarrhoea, nausea, malaria.
4. We get fragrant essential oils from lemon grass, vanilla, kewada, khus, eucalyptus.
5. In addition to this we get fruits, bulbs and roots, honey, sealing wax, catechu, dyes from forest.

Question d.
What are the items included in ocean resources? What are their uses?
Answer:

1. Tons of minerals are found in ocean water.
2. They are tin, chromium, phosphates, copper, zinc, iron, lead, manganese, sulphur, uranium etc.
3. We also get many types of gems, conches, shells and pearls from the sea.
4. Mineral oil and natural gas is found at the bottom of sea.

Bio-resources in oceans

• Fishes – like pomfret, seer fish as also shrimps
• prawns – they are sources of proteins and vitamins, therefore, mainly used as sea food
• Dried shrimp, Bombay duck powder – used as poultry feed and is a good manure.
• Shells – used for preparation of medicines, ornaments and decorative articles.
• Fungi – used for the production of antibiotics.
• shark and cod fish – used for producing edible oil rich in Vitamins A, D and E.
• Sea cucumbers – used as medicine for treating cancer and tumours.

Mineral resources from oceans

• Thorium – used in the production of atomic energy.
• Magnesium – used in the flash bulb of a camera.
• Potassium – the main ingredient in production of soap, glass, fertilizer.
• Sodium – used in the production of cloth and paper.
• Sulphate – used in making artificial silk.

Question e.
Why should we prevent the wastage of fuels used for vehicles?
Answer:

1. Vehicles are powered by gasoline or diesel petrol.
2. Nowadays compressed natural gas (CNG) is also used.
3. Aviation petrol, gasoline, diesel, we get from petroleum after fractional distillation.
4. Petroleum is a non-renewable source of energy.
5. It is getting depleted day by day and the demand for fuel has increased greatly due to the rapidly growing population.
6. But the reserves of petroleum (fossil fuel) are limited.
7. It is becoming difficult to meet the increased demand. So we should prevent the wastage of fuel.

Question f.
Why is the diversity of plants and animals in the forests declining?
Answer:

1. The major causes of biodiversity decline are land use changes, pollution, changes in atmosphere, CO₂ concentration, changes in the nitrogen cycle, acid rain, climate alteration and introduction of exotic species.
2. All this is due to population growth.
3. This is the main cause of the loss of biodiversity. More of wood for fuel is been used, more land is required for food production, livestock grazing etc.
4. Rainforest land is converted to industrial and residential usage, so natural habitat of birds, animals is destroyed.
5. Due to population growth most of wild land is converted to crop land. So no space for animals to live, their natural habitat is destroyed.

Question g.
Write the names of five minerals and the useful substances obtained from them.
Answer:
Some important minerals and ores are:

1. Iron ore: It is used for making farming implements, rails of railway tracks etc.
2. Manganese: Compounds of manganese are used in the preparation of medicines and for giving a pink tinge to glass. Manganese is also used in electrical appliances.
3. Bauxite: It contains 55% Aluminium. Therefore, it is used mainly in aeroplanes, transport vehicles and to make electric wire.
4. Copper: It is used to make electric wires as well as in radios, telephones, vehicles, and for making kitchen utensils and statues.
5. Mica: Mica has many uses such as in ayurvedic medicines, dyes, electric machines and equipment, wireless communication equipment, etc.

Question h.
Name the two important stages in the process of obtaining metals from ores.
Answer:
The two important stages in the process of obtaining metals from ores are extraction and purification.

3. What steps are taken for protection and conservation of natural resources?

Question a
What steps are taken for protection and conservation of natural resources?
Answer:

1. Protection and conservation of natural resources is necessary to protect the natural world. (CNRM) Community Natural Resource Management has been promoted in recent years for biological conservation.
2. The World Conservation Union has been formed. It is the world’s leading authority and democratic platform in conservation and sustainability.
3. Young trees should not be cut. More and more trees need to be grown.
4. The stringent restrictions/ laws/ Regulations regarding use of forests should be strictly followed. Awareness is being created through Mass media.

4. Complete the Flow Chart:

Question a.

Answer:

5. How does the economic condition of a nation depend on its natural resources?

Question a.
How does the economic condition of a nation depend on its natural resources?
Answer:
1. Natural resources are a necessary condition for economic growth.
2. Three circles enclosed within one another shows how both economy and society are subsets of our planetary ecological system.

3. Natural resource economics deals with the supply, demand and allocation of the Earth’s natural resources.
4. Economic growth is an increase in the value of goods and services produced in an economy.
5. The natural resources of a country depend on the climatic and environmental conditions.
6. Countries having plenty of natural resources enjoy good growth than countries with small amount of natural resources.
7. A country having skilled and educated work force with rich natural resources takes the economy on the growth path, because skilled and educated people can efficiently utilize or exploit natural resources, e.g. Saudi Arabia: their economic growth is high, because they have oil wells.
8. All countries import fuel or oil from them so Saudi Arabia is economically a rich country.

6. Which medicinal plants will you grow on your school premises and near your house? Why?

Question a.
Which medicinal plants will you grow on your school premises and near your house? Why?
Answer:
1. I will grow tulsi, neem, lemon grass, bel, adulsa, periwinkle, cinnamon, ashwagandha, shatavari, amla, hirda, behda.
2. These plants are used for treatment of various diseases.

• Tulsi → for cough and cold.
• Amla, hirda, behda → Help in digestion of food or any stomach related problems.
• Adulsa → for cough and cold
• Bel → for Diarrhoea
• Neem → Fever and cold
• Periwinkle → Cancer
• Cinnamon → Diarrhoea, nausea.
• Cinchona → Malaria.
• Ashwagandha → It can reduce blood sugar levels. It can reduce stress and anxiety, may reduce symptom of depression.
• Shatavari → has been used for centuries in Ayurveda to support the reproductive system.
• Amla → Excellent source of vitamin C. Amla juice is best tonic to keep you younger for long.
• Hirda → This fruit is commonly called Haritaki. It is used for treating arthritis, dental problems like caries, bleeding gums.
• Behda →(Beleric) is a rejuvenative and laxative, proves beneficial for hair, throat and eyes.
• Tulsi → Tulsi has germicidal, fungicidal, anti-bacterial anti-biotic properties, cures fever. Treats diabetes, protects the heart. Tulsi has anti-oxidant component Eugenol which keeps one’s blood pressure under control.

Project:

Question 1.
Collect conches and shells of various shapes and colours and make a decorative article.

Question 2.
Collect information about the mines of various minerals.

Class 7 Science Chapter 16 Natural Resources Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
………….. is the major raw material for biogas.
Answer:
cow dung

Question 2.
Atomic energy is obtained by using ores of ………….. .
Answer:
Uranium

Question 3.
Biogas generation is mainly based on the principle of ………….. .
Answer:
Fermentation

Question 4.
Floods can be prevented by ………….. .
Answer:
Afforestation

Question 5.
Coal, petroleum, natural gas are ………….. resources.
Answer:
non-renewable

Question 6.
The total percent of land of world under forest cover is ………….. .
Answer:
30%

Question 7.
A naturally occurring substance ………….. .
Answer:
minerals

Question 8.
Minerals that contain a high proportion of metal are called ………….. .
Answer:
ore

Question 9.
Coal, mineral oil and natural gas are ………….. .
Answer:
fossil fuel

Question 10.
Deposits of common salt are also found in the earth. This salt is called ………….. .
Answer:
rock salt

Question 11.
………….. is the liquid fuel formed by the decomposition of organic substances.
Answer:
Mineral oil

Question 12.
The underground mineral oil is extracted through ………….. .
Answer:
oil wells

Question 13.
Mineral oil is also known as ………….. or ………….. .
Answer:
petroleum, crude oil

Question 14.
………….. are the preserved remains of dead organisms in rock.
Answer:
Fossil

Question 15.
Coal can be formed from ………….. .
Answer:
Fossils

Question 16.
Impurities of sand and soil in ore are called ………….. .
Answer:
Gangue

Question 17.
Coal mainly contains ………….. .
Answer:
carbon

Question 18.
Petroleum is formed from ………….. .
Answer:
organisms in sea

Question 19.
Separation of various fractions of petroleum is called ………….. .
Answer:
Refining

Question 20.
We can obtain minerals from rocks by ………….. .
Answer:
mining

Question 21.
………….. is the most important ore of aluminium
Answer:
Bauxite

Question 22.
………….. is the coal of the highest grade.
Answer:
Anthracite

Question 23.
Metals are obtained from their ore by ………….. and ………….. .
Answer:
extraction, purification

Question 24.
………….. is the largest oil and gas research and production company in India.
Answer:
ONGC

Question 25.
Natural gas is transformed under high pressure into ………….. and ………….. .
Answer:
LNG and CNG

Question 26.
The main component of Natural gas is ………….. .
Answer:
Methane

Question 27.
………….. and ………….. are used for adding fragrance in soaps and incense sticks.
Answer:
Sandalwood and oil of Encalyptus

Question 28.
………….. is a natural herbal medicine for cough and cold.
Answer:
Adulsa

Answer the following:

Question 1.
What is meant by natural resources?
Answer:

1. We get many substances from nature.
2. They satisfy a variety of our daily needs. Soil, stones, minerals, air, water, plants and animals on the earth are all various kinds of natural resources.

Question 2.
What are alternative fuels?
Answer:
Hydrogen, biofuels, methanol or wood alcohol, ethanol or green alcohol are some of the alternative fuels.

Question 3.
What is meant by fuels?
Answer:

1. Fuel is a substance that is used in day-to-day life and burned to generate energy.
2. Fuels such as coal, wood, oil, gas provide energy when burned.
3. Fuels are found in solid, liquid or gaseous state.

Question 4.
Which natural resources do we use as fuels?
Answer:
We use coal, mineral oil and natural gas as fuels.

Question 5.
What is meant by forests?
Answer:
An extensive area of land covered by a variety of plants is called a forest. A forest is a natural habitat of plants, animals and microbes.

Question 6.
What are the uses of forests?
OR
Write short note on forest and its uses.
Answer:

1. A forest is a natural habitat of plants, animals and microbes.
2. Forest help improve and maintain the quality of environment.
3. Forest helps in prevention of soil-erosion, help to control floods, protects wild life, maintains the balance of atmospheric gases.
4. We get many medicinal plants from forest which help in treatment of various diseases.
5. Examples Adulsa, Bel, Neem, periwinkle, amla tulsi, cinnamon.
6. We also get wood, firewood from trees like teak, mahogani, neem, sababhul. Wood is useful for making furniture, farming implements, in construction work.
7. Forest wealth includes fibres, paper, rubber, gum and aromatic substances.
8. We get fragrant essential oils from lemon grass, vanilla, kewada and eucalyptus.
9. They are used for making soaps, cosmetics and incense sticks. We get various fruits, bulbs, roots, honey, sealing wax, catechu dyes etc. from forest.

Question 7.
Are minerals to be found in seas and on the seabed as they are found inside the earth?
Answer:
Yes, there are very large reserves of tin chromium, phosphates, copper, zinc, iron, lead, manganese, sulphur, uranium etc. in the ocean and seabed.

Question 8.
How is mineral oil formed?
Answer:

1. Mineral oil is the liquid fuel formed by the decomposition of organic substances buried underground.
2. Millions of years ago, bodies of dead sea organisms sank to the bottom of the sea.
3. Layers of soil and sand collected on them.
4. Due to high pressure and temperature the remains of the dead organisms were transformed into mineral oil.
5. The underground mineral oil is extracted through oil wells.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Why are all minerals not ores?
Answer:

1. Minerals that contain a high proportion of metal are called ores.
2. Majority of the metals occur in the form of compounds called ores.
3. But all minerals are not ores.
4. Few metals like gold, silver, copper, platinum and bismuth occur in free state in nature. So all minerals are not ores.

Question 2.
What is meant by metal mineral and non¬metal mineral?
Answer:

1. Metal-minerals contain metallic elements in their chemical formula. So they are called metal-minerals, for example, iron, copper, gold, silver etc.
2. They contain metal in raw form.
3. Non-metallic minerals do not contain metal elements in their inorganic chemical formula Example, Clay, Diamond, Dolomite, Gypsum, Mica, Quartz.

Question 3.
Why is mineral oil called ‘liquid gold’?
Answer:
Because of its high price and value and its economic need, the mineral oil is called liquid gold. It’s reserve is less and demand is more.

Question 4.
Why is coal called black gold?
Answer:

1. Coal is a storehouse of carbon. Coal is used as a fuel, in thermal power plants as well as to run boilers and railway engines.
2. It is used as a fuel for cooking and for baking bricks in kilns on a large scale.
3. The gaseous fuels, producer gas and water gas are obtained from coal.
4. Coal as an energy resource, contributes greatly to industrial development.
5. As coal is black in colour and worth a lot of money just like gold, it is called black gold.

Question 5.
What would happen if underground mineral resources are exhausted?
Answer:

1. Coal, petroleum and other mineral are all non-renewable sources of energy.
2. The reserve is less and demand is more. They would get exhausted one day.
3. If such a situation occurs, we will not get electricity.
4. All our household and industries depend on electricity.
5. Transportation and household items, and food items would become very costly.
6. The survival of human life will be ver\ difficult.

Question 6.
Why is natural gas an eco-friendly fuel?
Answer:

1. Natural gas is an important source of energy which is eco-friendly because of its low carbon dioxide emission.
2. When burned it produces 45% less CO₂ than coal, 30% less than oil, and about 15% less than wood.
3. It does not produce carbon monoxide, sulphur dioxide or airborne particles, all of which are harmful to human and animal health.
4. It is referred as the clean energy source and is fuel for the present century as it does not ‘ pollute the atmosphere or contribute to global warming.

Question 7.
What useful things will we have to do without if rubber is no longer available?
Answer:

1. Rubber has played a largely hidden role in global environment history for more than 150 years.
2. In industries, rubber is needed to connect and protect all moving parts of machines.
3. Native people used rubber for rubber boots.
4. Household uses rubber in everything viz dish washing gloves, toys, jar seals, tyres in vehicles.
5. Welcome mat at the door, Boots, raincoats, mattress cushions, earplugs, hot water bottles, surgical tubing and gloves, in labs, birth control device.
6. In schools rubber bands, erasers, mouse pads, key board, rolling chair wheels. Head phone pads, rubber stamps are useful items used in schools and offices.

Question 8.
What are the adverse effects of clearing of forest or cutting down trees?
Answer:

1. Clearing of forest is also called Deforestation.
2. Removal or cutting down of trees has resulted in damage to habitat, biodiversity loss and aridity.
3. If has adverse impacts on concentration of atmospheric carbon dioxide. (Trees use up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere for the process of photosynthesis.)
4. Deforestation is a main contributor to global warming. Major cause of enhanced greenhouse effect. Deforestation cause carbon dioxide to linger in the atmosphere.
5. Deforestation reduced the content of water in the soil and ground water and atmospheric moisture, because trees extract ground water through the roots and release it into the atmosphere.
6. When a part of forest is removed the trees no longer transpire this water, resulting in much drier climate.
7. Due to deforestation soil erosion and flooding, landslide problems occur.
8. Deforestation results in decline in biodiversity, on a natural global scale is known to cause the extinction of many species.
9. Forest is habitat for wild life, and many medicinal plants. If forests are removed it will affect wild life and also we will not get medicinal plants.

Find out:

Question 1.
How did the various ages of the prehistoric period get their names on the basis of the uses of metals.
Answer:
1. The three-age system in history archaeology, and physical anthropology is a methodological concept adopted during the 19th century by which artifacts and events of late prehistory and early history could be ordered into a recognizable chronology.

2. Initially developed by C. J. Thomson, director of the Royal Museum of Nordic Antiquities, Copenhagen – as a means to classify the museum’s collection according to whether the artifacts were made of stone, bronze or iron.

3. Depending-upon the use of stone, bronze, iron, that period was known as stone age, bronze age, and iron age, respectively.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Write down the difference between Metal minerals and Non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write down the different types of coal.
Answer:
Peat, lignite (brown coal), bituminous coal and anthracite are various types of coal.
Anthracite is the coal of the highest grade.

Question 3.
Write down the characteristics of Compressed Natural Gas.
Answer:
Characteristics of CNG:

1. Catches fire easily.
2. No solid waste remains after combustion.
3. Carbon dioxide and water are formed in small quantities.
4. Other pollutants are not produced.
5. Can be transported easily.
6. Combustion can be controlled easily.

Observe the pictures and answer the question.

Question a.
What is the process shown in the given picture?
Answer:
The process shown is formation of mineral oil and natural gas.

Question b.
Explain the process.
Answer:

1. Mineral oil is the liquid fuel formed by the decomposition of organic substances buried underground.
2. Millions of years ago, bodies of dead sea organisms sank to the bottom of the sea.
3. Layers of soil and sand collected on them.
4. Due to high pressure and temperature the remains of the dead organisms were transformed into mineral oil.
5. The underground mineral oil is extracted through oil wells.

Question c.
What are the gaseous substances formed in the above process?
Answer:
Natural gas is also formed along with mineral oil. It contains methane, ethane, propane and butane gases.

Question d.
When the products of the process is refined, what other components are produced?
Answer:
When mineral oil is refined by fractional distillation products produced are petrol, diesel, kerosene, naphtha lubricating oil, tar, etc.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

• Cell Structure and Micro-organisms Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Changes – Physical and Chemical Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Elements, Compounds and Mixtures Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Materials We Use Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Natural Resources Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Effects of Light Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound: Production of Sound Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Properties of a Magnetic Field Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• In the World of Stars Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 7 Science Chapter 20 In the World of Stars Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 20 In the World of Stars Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 7 Science Chapter 20 In the World of Stars Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Write the proper words in the blanks:
(meridian, horizon, twelve, nine, apparent, celestial, ecliptic)

Question a.
When seen from a great distance, the sky seems to be touching the ground along a circle. This circle is called the …………… .
Answer:
horizon

Question b.
The ………….. is used while defining the zodiac sign.
Answer:
meridian

Question c.
Classified according to seasons, one season will have ………… nakshatras.
Answer:
nine

Question d.
The rising of the sun in the east and its setting in the west is the ………. motion of the sun.
Answer:
apparent

2. A star rises at 8 pm. tonight. At what time will it rise after a month? Why?

Question a.
A star rises at 8 pm. tonight. At what time will it rise after a month? Why?
Answer:

1. Str s rise and set 4 minutes earlier every day. If star rises at 8 pm tonight, it will rise at 7:56 pm tomorrow.
2. It will rise at 5:24 pm after a month.
3. The sun and the moon are seen to move from the west to the east against the background of stars.
4. The sun moves through one degree every day and the moon through 12 to 13 degrees.
5. This happens due to the motion of the earth around the sun and the moon around the earth which affects the duration of the stars and shortens its time period.

3. What is meant by “The sun enters a nakshatra?” It is said that in the rainy season the sun enters the mrug nakshatra. What does it mean?

Question a.
What is meant by “The sun enters a nakshatra?” It is said that in the rainy season the sun enters the mrug nakshatra. What does it mean?
Answer:

1. When we look at the sun we see not only the sun but also constellation behind the sun.
2. The constellation cannot be seen in bright sunlight but it is indeed present behind the sun.
3. As the earth changes its position, a different constellation or zodiac sign or raashi appears behind the sun.
4. This is what we express when we say that the sun enters a particular zodiac sign or raashi.
5. In rainy season due to the perceived motion of the sun, it enters mrug nakshatra and that is how it is expressed.

4. Answer the following questions. 

Question a.
What is a constellation?
Answer:
A group of stars occupying a small portion of the celestial sphere is called a constellation.

Question b.
What points should be considered before a skywatch?
Answer:

1. The place for sky watching should be away from the city and as far as possible it should be new moon night.
2. Binoculars or telescopes should be used for skywatch.
3. Identifying the pole star in the north makes the skywatch easier. Hence the pole star should be used as a reference point for skywatch.
4. As the stars in the west set early, sky watching should begin with stars in the west.
5. (a) On a sky map, the north and south are towards the bottom and top of the map respectively, (b) This is because the sky map is to be held overhead in such a way that the direction we face is at the bottom side.

Question c.
It is wrong to say that the planets, stars and nakshatras affect human life. Why?
Answer:

1. Science has proved that the constituents of the solar system e.g. planets, satellites and comets as also distant stars and constellations do not have any influence on human life.
2. Man has stepped on the moon and will conquer Mars in the 21st century.
3. Hence, in this age of science, holding on to beliefs which have been proved wrong by numerous scientific tests, is an unnecessary waste of time and energy.
4. It is important to consider all these issues with a scientific frame of mind.

5. Write a paragraph on the birth and life cycle of stars using following figure.

Question a.
Write a paragraph on the birth and life cycle of stars using following figure.
Answer:
Stars are born out of nebulae. Nebulae are clouds made up mainly of hydrogen gas and dust particles which are attracted towards one another by the force of gravity, (i) As a result of pressure, the internal temperature increases and the cloud becomes dense and spherical in shape, (ii) From the diagram, life cycle of two stars can be explained.

(a) Ordinary star: (i) The ordinary star forms a Red giant star at the later stage of its evolution when it runs out of hydrogen gas at its core. (ii) At the end stage of its life it forms a white dwarf. Stars like the sun become white dwarf when its nuclear fuel is totally exhausted. (iii) It is 1% in diameter of its original size.

(b) Massive Star: (i) Massive star forms Red super giant star at the end of its life cycle, (ii) They are also called super red giants with a relatively cool outer surface, (iii) Supernova is the explosive death of the star of the end of its life with the brightness of 100 million stars in a short amount of time, (iv) A neutron star is the dense core of the supernova. (v) It is the smallest and the densest star known to exist with a 10 km radius, (vi) Neutron stars sometimes end as a black hole, (vii) Black holes are not seen from telescopes and are identified by their intense gravitational pull where even light cannot escape.

Project:

Question a.
Visit a planetarium, collect information and present it in your school on Science day.

Class 7 Science Chapter 20 In the World of Stars Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The different group of stars is known as ………….. .
Answer:
constellation

Question 2.
The pole star is ………….. .
Answer:
North star

Question 3.
The moon moves around the earth in about ………….. days.
Answer:
27 days

Question 4.
The celestial objects are ………….. .
Answer:
The stars

Question 5.
The star that lies close to the aris of rotation of the earth ………….. .
Answer:
Pole star

Question 6.
The definite elliptical path in which a planet revolves around the sun is called ………….. .
Answer:
Orbit

Question 7.
Our earth as well as the sun belongs to the galaxy which has a spiral shape called ………….. .
Answer:
milky way

Question 8.
………….. is made up of five bright stars which are distributed along the figure of the letter M.
Answer:
Sharmishtha

Question 9.
The pole star has ……………. on one-side and ……………… on the other.
Answer:
Saptarashi, Sharmishtha

Question 10.
The continuous empty space between the planets and stars in the sky is called ………….. .
Answer:
space

Name the following:

Question 1.
The brightest star in the nakshatra.
Answer:
Yogatara

Question 2.
The stars forming a group that has a recognizable shape.
Answer:
Constellation

Question 3.
Millions of stars and planets present in the sky forming a group.
Answer:
Milky way

Question 4.
The clouds from which stars are bom.
Answer:
Nebulae

Question 5.
Saptarshi constellation in English.
Answer:
Great Bear

Question 6.
The festival celebrated when sun enters Makar raashi.
Answer:
Makara Sankranti

Question 7.
The brightest star in the Orion constellation.
Answer:
Sirius

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
The hydrogen gas and dust particles in a nebulae are attracted towards each other by gravity.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
While standing on the ground, the celestial sphere exactly below our feet is called the Zenith.
Answer:
False. The point on the celestial sphere exactly above our head is called the Zenith

Question 3.
The circle describing the apparent motion of the earth around the sun is called the ecliptic.
Answer:
False. Ecliptic is the apparent motion of sun around the earth

Question 4.
Vrushchik or Scorpio is a constellation with 10 to 12 stars.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Makar raashi is also known as Capricorn zodiac sign.
Answer:
True

Match the following:

Question a.

Answer:

Answer in one line:

Question 1.
In which direction stars move in the sky except polar star?
Answer:
When seen from earth, stars appear to move from east to west.

Question 2.
What activity does IUCAA carry out?
Answer:
IUCAA which is present in PUNE carries out fundamental research in astronomy.

Question 3.
Define constellation.
Answer: A group of stars occupying a small portion of the celestial sphere is called constellation.

Question 4.
What is Nakshatra?
Answer:
The moon completes one revolution around the earth in approximately 27 days. The portion celestial sphere traversed by the moon in one day is called a nakshatra.

Question 5.
What is yogatara?
Answer:
A nakshatra is known from the brightest star that it contains. The brightest star is called the yogatara.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Horizon
Answer:
Far away the sky seems to be touching the ground. The line at which they meet is caled horizon.

Question 2.
Zenith
Answer:
While standing on the ground the point on the celestial sphere exactly above our head is called the Zenith.

Question 3.
Nadir
Answer:
While standing on the ground the point on the celestial sphere exactly below our feet is called the nadir.

Question 4.
Meridian
Answer:
The great circle which passes through both the celestial poles and the observer’s zenith and nadir is called a meridian.

Question 5.
Celestial equator
Answer:
If we uniformly expand earth’s equator in all directions indefinitely, it will penetrate the celestial sphere along a circle. This circle is known as the celestial equator.

Question 6.
Ecliptic
Answer:
The earth moves around the sun, but seen from the earth, the sun appears to move along a circle on the celestial sphere. This circle describing the apparent motion of the sun around the ‘ earth is called the ecliptic.

Question 7.
Zodiac sign
Answer:
The ecliptic has been imagined to divided into 12 equal parts. Each part subtends 30 degrees at the centre of the celestial sphere. Each of these part is called a raashi or zodiac sign.

Question 8.
Mrug Nakshatra or Orion
Answer:
It has 7 – 8 starts of which four are at the comers of quadrangle. The line passing through the three middle stars of the constellation when extended meets a very bright star. This is Vyadh or Sirius.

Find out.

Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Using a Marathi calendar collect information about 27 nakshatras, and divide them into the following 3 categories.
(i) Monsoon Nakshatra (ii) Winter Nakshatra (iii) Summer Nakshatra
Answer:
27 nakshtras: Ashwini, Bharani, Krittika, Rohini, Mrigashirasha, Ardra, Punarvasu, Pushya, Ashlesha, Magha, PurvaPhalguni, Uttara Phalguni, Hasta, Chitra, Swati, Vishakha, Anuradha, Jyeshtha, Mula, Purva Ashadha, Uttara Ashadha, Abhijit, Shravana, Dhanishtha, Shatabhishta, Purva Bhadrapada, Uttara Bhadrapada, Revati

Question 2.
Write the difference between constellations Saptarshi and Mrug nakshatra
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw sketches to show the relative position of prominent stars in Ursa major and Orion.
Answer:
a. Ursa major (Saptarshi) appears like a big dipper, (or kite shape). There are 3 bright stars in the handle and 4 stars in the bowl of the dipper. (It can be seen during April in summer in northern skies).

(b) Orion appears like a hunter. Three bright stars appear in the belt, 5 bright stars are arranged in the form of a quadrilateral. (It is visible during winter in the northern skies)

Question 4.
Why is the pole star important for sky watch?
Answer:

1. Identifying the Pole Star in the north makes the sky watch easier. Hence the pole star should be used as a reference point for skywatch.
2. If we extend one side of the quadrangle of Saptarshi, it reaches the Pole Star.
   The pole star has Saptarshi on one side and Sharmishtha on the other.

Question 5.
What is the relation between the pole star and the constellations Saptarshi and Sharmishtha?
Answer:

1. Saptarshi is in the shape of a quandrangle with a tail made up 3 stars resembling a kite. If we extend one side of the quadrangle it reaches the Pole Star.
2. The constellations of Saptarshi and Sharmishtha are useful in locating the Pole Star.
3. The perpendicular bisector of the line joining the third and fourth stars in Sharmishtha goes towards the Pole star.
4. The Pole Star has Saptarshi on one side and Sharmishtha on the other.

Use your brain power!

Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
One Zodiac Sign = ………….. nakshatras
Answer:
27 nakshatras. Each nakshatra is divided in padas or charan. Every nakshatra has 4 padas. These 27 nakshatra complete the entire circle of 360° of zodiac.
The zodiac comprises of 360°.

Question 2.
Is sun the only star present in our Milky Way galaxy?
Answer:
No. Sun is not the only star present in the Milky Way. There are lakhs of stars in the Milky Way, some of them being many times bigger than our sun. Some of them have their own planetary systems with a great diversity in colour, brightness, as well as size.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

• Cell Structure and Micro-organisms Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Muscular System and Digestive System in Human Beings Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Changes – Physical and Chemical Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Elements, Compounds and Mixtures Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Materials We Use Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Natural Resources Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Effects of Light Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound: Production of Sound Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Properties of a Magnetic Field Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• In the World of Stars Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions