Category: Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 6 Conflict with the Mughals Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 6 Conflict with the Mughals

Class 7 History Chapter 6 Conflict with the Mughals Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Arrange in chornological order:

Conflict With The Mughals Std 7 Answers Question 1.
(i) Southern campaign of Shivaji Maharaj
(ii) Raid on Lai Mahal
(iii) Escape from Agra
(iv) Coronation
(v) Treaty of Purandar
(vi) Shaistakhan’s invasion
Answer:
(i) Shaistakhan’s invasion
(ii) Raid on Lai Mahal
(iii) Treaty of Purandar
(iv) Escape from Agra
(v) Coronation
(vi) Southern campaign of Shivaji Maharaj

2. Find the names from the chapter:

Conflict With The Mughals Std 7 Question Answer Question 1.
A dictionary containing Sanskrit alternatives.
Answer: Rajya – vyavahara – kosha

Conflict With The Mughals Std 7 Question 2.
He won Trimbakgad.
Answer:
Moropant Pingale

Class 7 History Chapter Question 3.
This Sardar was defeated at Vani-Dindori.
Answer:
Sardar Daudkhan

Conflict With The Mughals Questions And Answers Question 4.
A place where the British, Dutch and French had their factories.
Answer:
Surat

3. Write about these in your own words:

Conflict With Mughals Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj’s preparation for the > coronation.
Answer:
(i) The famous learned Pandit Gagabhatt was invited to conduct the coronation of Shivaji Maharaj.

(ii) Invitations were sent to learned Brahmans of all parts of India.

(iii) Shivaji visited the famous temples in Maharashtra and distributed clothes and other things among the Brahmans.

(iv) A gold plated steel/stool was prepared with precious ornaments was brought for Shivaji Maharaj.

(v) Holy water from seven sacred rivers Yamuna, Indus, Ganga, Godavari, Kaveri and Krishna was brought and kept in a gold vessel.

(vi) A special royal umbrella of cloth with gold fringes and pearls was prepared.

(vii) Special scarlet robes for Shivaji Maharaj was prepared.

Question 2.
The Coronation of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
(i) Shivaji Maharaj felt that it was necessary to entitle himself as a king.

(ii) A formal coronation ceremony was organized.

(iii) Many learned Brahmans from all parts of India came. Even Ambassadors from all over India came to witness the ceremony.

(iv) On 6th June, 1674, Shivaji got up early in the morning, worshipped the gods and took blessing from the priests.

(v) He was dressed up in a special scarlet robe and precious ornaments

(vi) The Brahmans chanted Mantras and blessed Shivaji.

(vii) Gagabhatt held the royal umbrella over the Maharaj’s head, and poured the holy water from seven rivers.

(viii) Special coins were minted-a gold coin called Hon and a copper coin called Shivrai.

(ix) A dictionary showing Sanskrit meaning for Persian words was prepared. It is called Rajya- vyavahara-kosha.

Question 3.
Escape from Agra.
Answer:
(i) Shivaji Maharaj pretended to be ill.

(ii) He complained of severe pain in the stomach. Doctors were called. They started treating the patient, Shivaji.

(iii) He started sending out huge baskets of sweets to Sadhus and Maulavis for his quick recovery. In the beginning, the guard outside would examine the baskets.

(iv) In the course of time, they got tired of this daily routine and stopped it.

(v) One evening, Shivaji made Hiroji sleep in his bed and asked Madari to manage his feat.

(vi) Then Shivaji Maharaj and Sambhaji Raje hid themselves in two of the many baskets that were going out.

(vii) The baskets were supposed to contain sweets and allowed to pass unchecked.

(viii) At a place previously fixed, Shivaji Maharaj and Sambhaji Raje got out of the baskets and adroitly escaped from Agra and reached Maharashtra safely after a few days.

Question 4.
Shivaji Maharaj’s Campaign of the South.
Answer:
(i) After the coronation ceremony, Shivaji went to the South at Golconda.
(ii) He made friendship with Qutubshah.
(iii) He captured the forts like Bangalore, Hoskote, Jinji, Vellore, etc. and some territories of Adilshah.
(iv) He appointed Raghunath Narayan Hanamante the chief officer to look after these territories.

4. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj entered into the ‘Treaty of Purandar’.
Answer:
(i) Aurangzeb sent a powerful Sardar, Jaisingh to defeat Shivaji Maharaj.
(ii) He started a naval campaign against Maharaj.
(iii) Jaisingh and Dilerkhan siege the fort of Purandar.
(iv) The Mughals siege the Fort of Purandar.
(v) Murarbaji Deshpande fought with courage but died a hero’s death.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj took an aggressive stand against the Mughals.
Answer:
(i) The Treaty of Purandar meant a great loss of wealth and humiliation for the Marathas.
(ii) Shivaji Maharaj wanted to recapture the forts and territories given to the Mughals as per the Purandar treaty.
(iii) In order to earn the reputation, Shivaji Maharaj took an aggressive stand against the Mughals.

Activities:

How do you prepare for the special programmes on Independence Day/ Republic Day ? Make a list with help of your teacher.
Visit a historical place in your neighbourhood and write a report on your visit.

Class 7 History Chapter 6 Conflict with the Mughals InText Questions and Answers

Do you remember?

Question 1.
Which Indian king started a new calendar?
Answer:
King Vikramaditya started the Vikrama Sam vat Era after defeating the Shakas in 57-58 BC and Shivaji Maharaj also started Rajyabhisheka Shaka (the coronation era in 1674).

Gather information:

Question 1.
Find out how Shivaji Maharaj escaped from his house arrest at Agra.
Answer:
(i) In 1666, Aurangzeb invited Shivaji to Agra, along with his nine-year-old son Sambhaji and a few of his trusted people.

(ii) Aurangzeb’s plan was to send Shivaji to Kandahar, now in Afghanistan, to consolidate the Mughal empire’s north-western frontier.

(iii) However, in the court, on 12th May 1666, Aurangzeb made Shivaji stand behind military commanders of his court.

(iv) Shivaji took offence and stormed out of court, and was promptly placed under house arrest under the watch of Faulad Khan, Kotwal of Agra.

(v) Shivaji pretended severe illness and requested to send most of his group back to the Deccan and conveyed his wish to distribute some sweets to the poor as offerings for getting well.

(vi) Thereafter, on his request, he was allowed to send daily shipments of sweets and gifts to saints, fakirs, and temples in Agra as offerings for his health.

(vii) The Kotwal was requested that the boxes of sweets should be touched by Maharaj himself as a custom and hence all the boxes were strictly checked.

(viii) According to the Mughal documents, after several days and weeks of sending out boxes containing sweets, Shivaji, disguised as labourer carrying sweet basket escaped on 17 August 1666.

(ix) Sambhaji, being a child had no restrictions and was sent out of the prison camp before Shivaji escaped.

(x) After escaping Shivaji and his son fled to the Deccan disguised as sadhus.

Class 7 History Chapter 6 Conflict with the Mughals Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Killedar of the fort of Chakan was ____ (Vyankoji, Firangoji Narsala, Murarbaji Deshpande)
Answer:
Firangoji Narsala

Question 2.
Shaistakhan set up his camp at Lalmahal in ________ (Pune, Satara, Agra)
Answer:
Pune

Question 3.
The treaty of ______ was signed between Jaisingh and Shivaji. (Pune, Bengal, Purandar)
Answer:
Purandar

Question 4.
Shivaji helped Jaisingh against _______ (Adilshah, Aurangzeb, Qutubshah)
Answer:
Adilshah

Question 5.
The Mughals captured the fort of _________ (Jinji, Chakan, Raigad)
Answer:
Chakan

Question 6.
In the raid, ________ lost his fingers (Shaistakhan, Jaisingh, Afzalkhan)
Answer:
Shaistakhan

Question 7.
_______ was the Subhedar of Surat. (Dilerkhan, Inayat Khan, Shaistakhan)
Answer:
Inayat Khan

Question 8.
______died a heroic death, while defending the Purandar fort. (Firangoji Narsala, Raghunath Narayan, Murarbaji Deshpande)
Answer:
Murarbaji

Question 9.
Shivaji Maharaj passed away at Fort ______ on 3rd April, 1680. (Purandar, Chakan, Raigad)
Answer:
Raigad

Question 10.
______, a learned Pandit crowned Shivaji Maharaj on his first coronation. (Pandit Gagabhatt, Nischalpuri Gosavi, Firangoji Narsala)
Answer:
Gagabhatt

Question 11.
Shivaji Maharaj had his second coronation performed under the guidance of ______. (Krishnaji Anant Sabhasad, Nischalpuri Gosavi, Pandit Gagabhatt)
Answer:
Nischalpuri Gosavi

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Treaty of Purandar (2) Shivaji’s coronation (3) Karnataka campaign (4) Shivaji raided Lai Mahal	(a) April 1663 (b)  October 1677 (c) June, 1674 (d)  June 1651

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Mann	(a) A monument
(2) Hon	(b) Unit of measurement
(3) Shivrai	(c) a gold coin
(4) Samadhi	(d) a copper coin

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – a

Arrange in chronological order:

Question 1.
(i) Shivaji Maharaj’s campaign to the South
(ii) The treaty of Purandar
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj’s death in Raigad
(iv) Shivaji Maharaj’s coronation
Answer:
(i) The treaty of Purandar
(ii) Shivaji Maharaj’s coronation
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj’s campaign to the South
(iv) Shivaji Maharaj’s death in Raigad

Find the names from the chapter:

Question 1.
A learned Pandit who crowned Shivaji Maharaj at Raigad.
Answer:
Gagabhatt

Question 2.
This treaty was signed between Jaisingh and Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
The Treaty of Purandar

Question 3.
It was a rich city. Shivaji Maharaj raided it and obtained plenty of wealth.
Answer:
Surat

Question 4.
He took shelter in the southern part of Jinji.
Answer:
Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj.

Question 5.
It is a world famous library.
Answer:
The Saraswati Mahal

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Whom did Aurangzeb send to curb Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
Aurangzeb sent Jaisingh, an experienced and powerful Rajput Sardar against Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 2.
What were the terms of the ‘Treaty of Purandar’?
Answer:
According to the terms of the treaty, Shivaji Maharaj gave twenty-three of his forts along with adjoining territories yielding an annual revenue of four lakh hons. He also assured the Mughals, of help against Adilshah.

Question 3.
How did Aurangzeb treat Shivaji Maharaj at his Darbar in Agra?
Answer:
Aurangzeb did not treat Shivaji Maharaj with due honour at his court and gave vent to his anger.

Question 4.
When and where was Shivaji Maharaj coronated? Who crowned him?
Answer:
On 6th June, 1674, Gagabhatt a learned Pandit crowned Shivaji Maharaj at Raigad.

Question 5.
What was inscribed on the special coins minted on the occasion of the coronation?
Answer:
Shri Raja Shiva Chhatrapati was inscribed on . the special coins minted on the occasion of the coronation.

Question 6.
Which dictionary was prepared on the special occasion of coronation?
Answer:
A dictionary showing Sanskrit alternatives for Persian words was prepared. It is called ‘Rajya- vyavahara-kosha’.

Question 7.
What did Sabhasad, a chronicler, write about Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
Sabhasad wrote “It was no mean achievement for a Maratha King to become such a great Chhatrapati”.

Question 8.
What was the objective of Jaisingh’s invasion?
Answer:
The objective of Jaisingh’s invasion was to curb the increasing activities of Shivaji Maharaj and then to turn to Adilshahi.

Question 9.
Under whose guidance was the second coronation performed?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj’s second coronation was performed under the guidance of Nischalpuri Gosavi.

Question 10.
What was encouraged by rulers of Tanjavur?
Answer:
Rulers of Tanjavur encouraged art and learning.
The Saraswati Mahal Library in Tanjavur is world famous.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Shaistakhan suffered great humiliation.
Answer:
(i) Shaistakhan invaded Pune and set up his camp at Lai Mahal in Pune, where Shivaji Maharaj lived in his childhood.
(ii) His forces looted the people.
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj decided to raid Lai Mahal.
(iv) On the night of 5th April, 1663, along with his band of soldiers, Shivaji Maharaj raided Lai Mahal.
(v) In this raid, Shaistakhan lost his fingers hence suffered great humiliation.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj decided to attack/raid Surat.
Answer:
(i) Shivaji Maharaj wanted to teach the Mughals a lesson as Shaistakhan had ravaged large territories of the Swaraj.
(ii) Surat was a big trade centre and a port under Mughal control.
(iii) The British, Dutch and French laid their factories in Surat.
(iv) Maximum revenue was being generated by this city for the emperor.
(v) It was a rich city.
(vi) Maharaj marched to Surat.
(vii) The Subhedar of Surat could not put up any resistance.
(viii) Maharaj obtained plenty of wealth from Surat without bothering the common people.
(ix) This campaign was a stunning blow to Emperor Aurangzeb’s prestige.
(x) This campaign of Surat was completely successful.

Question 3.
Shivaji Maharaj raided Lai MahaL
Answer:
(i) Shaistakhan had set up his camp at Lai Mahal ,in Pune where Shivaji Maharaj had lived in his childhood.
(ii) Shaistakhan’s army looted the people in the Pune region for two years.
(iii) This had an adverse effect on the morale of people.
(iv) Therefore Shivaji Maharaj raided Lai Mahal.

Complete the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Settlements

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in short:

Human Settlements Std 7 Question 1.
Explain the various types of human settlements.
Answer:
(a) Scattered settlements:

• In scattered settlements, houses are few and far from each other.
• They are found in the areas of high relief, dense forests, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural lands.

(b) Nucleated settlements:

• These settlements are close to water sources like brooks, rivulets, rivers, lakes, reservoirs, etc.
• Fertile plains, transport hubs, mining centres and commercial centres often lead to the development of this type of settlement.

(c) Linear settlements:

• Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers sea coasts and in foothill regions.
• They are narrow in shape and spread along a straight line.

Human Settlements Std 7 Chapter 10 Question 2.
Difference between nucleated and scattered settlements.
Answer:

Nucleated Settlements	Scattered Settlements
(i) Houses are close together. (ii) These settlements are close to water sources. They are self dependent due to fertile plains, transport hubs, mining centres, defense, health, education and social factors. (iii) People from different castes, religions, races and ideologies live together in these settlements and hence they have a better social life.	(i) Houses are far away from each other. (ii) They depend on centrally located villages for their day to day requirements. Facilities and services in these settlements are not adequate. (iii) These settlements have limited population, so they do not have much social life.

7th Maharashtra Board Geography Solutions Question 3.
Explain in natural factors affecting the location of human settlements
Answer:
(a) The natural factors like physiography, land / soils, climate, water supply, river banks, etc. affect the location of human settlements.

(b) Low population & few houses are found in regions of high relief forests, grasslands, hot deserts, etc. whereas high population & nucleated settlements are found in region of fertile plains.

(c) Regions having adequate supply of water has high population & nucleated settlements. Water is essential for occupation of agriculture. Hence early civilizations developed near sources of water like rivers, lakes, reservoirs etc.

(d) In region of extreme climate scattered settlements are found due to difficult living condition whereas in region of favourable climate, nucleated or linear settlements are found.

Human Settlement Class 10 Question 4.
Explain how human settlements have evolved.
Answer:

• Human settlements have evolved in accordance with the natural conditions.
• Using the resources from his surroundings, man constructed houses and started living in them.
• Rural settlement is the first step towards a stable life in human history.
• Urban settlements have evolved through the expansion and growth of rural settlements.
• There are large scale correlations between rural and urban settlements
• Modernization, science and technology lead to transformation in both types of settlements.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Question 5.
Difference between a hamlet & a village
Answer:

Hamlet		Village
Size of population is small in a hamlet	(i)	Size of population is comparatively large in a village.
Most of people living in a hamlet are engaged a particular occupation which is dependent on locally available natural resource.	(ii)	People in a village are engaged in different occupations like agriculture, fishery, etc.
A hamlet is scattered settlement	(iii)	A village is majorly a nucleated settlement.

2. Identify the types of human settlements from the follwing statements:

Chapter 10 Human Settlements Notes Question 1.
Their money and time is saved by living on the farm.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Chapter 10 Human Settlements Question 2.
There is a lot of social life in this settlement.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements.

Human Settlement Class 7 Question 3.
Shops are located on both the sides of the road.
Answer:
Linear settlements.

Class 7th Geography Chapter 10 Question 4.
This settlement is found at the foothills of mountains or along the coast.
Answer:
Linear settlements.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Question 5.
Each house is located away from the other.
Answer:
Scattered settlement.

Grade 7 Geography Textbook Answers Question 6.
This settlement is good from security point of view.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements.

Question 7.
Having houses away from each other is good for health.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Question 8.
The houses are too close to each other.
Answer:
Nucleated settlement.

3. Study the diagram and identify the types of settlements:

Question 1.
Settlement ‘A’ has 5-6 houses and the place does not have other facilities.
Answer:
Scattered settlement.

Question 2.
‘B’ has a high school, a big market and a small theatre.
Answer:
Nucleated settlement.

Question 3.
‘C’ has houses, farmers, many shops and small industries.
Answer:
Linear settlement.

Question 4.
‘D’ has a natural harbour. Many industries have been established here.
Answer:
Linear settlement.

Question 5.
‘C’ is a settlement that has developed along the road side. Give two reasons of its location here.
Answer:
The reasons for settlement ‘C’ developing along the roadside are:

• It has direct & easy access to the main road which helps in easy movement of people & agricultural & industrial goods as houses, farms & small industries are found here.
• It is located at the foothill close to the main river.

ICT Activity :

With the help of the internet, find the image of your village/city. On that basis, write about the type and characteristics of your settlement.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Human Settlements InText Questions and Answers

Try this

Look at the following picture. Find suitable location for human settlement and show them in picture:

Question 1.
Why were the settlements shown at specific places? Why should they be located there? Why can’t they be located in other places?
Answer:
(i) Settlement A is located at a place which has direct access to main road as well as railway line which will help in easy movement of passenger as well as goods transport.
(ii) Settlement ‘B’ is located on plain land. Its location near a water body will be beneficial for agricultural purpose.
(iii) A large portion of the area shown in the picture is a region of uneven topography which is not favourable for human settlement

Can you tell?

Observe the pictures given in figures (a, b, c, d). Think and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What all can you see in the picture?
Answer:
(a) Rural: settlement small houses made of mud are seen with river flowing and farmland.
(b) City: Monorail, sky scrapers and lot of traffic with vehicles moving.
(c) Tribal hamlet: with sparse1 population.
(d) Town: Vehicles moving, vendors, shops and small houses.

Question 2.
What are the familiar features?
Answer:
All pictures show some type of human settlements.

Question 3.
Which picture shows sparse settlements?
Answer:
Tribal Hamlet shows sparse population.

Question 4.
Which picture shows agriculture?
Answer:
Rural settlement shows agriculture.

Question 5.
Which picture shows dense settlements?
Answer:
City shows dense settlement.

Question 6.
Which picture shows high rise building?
Answer:
City shows high rise building.

Question 7.
From the following, assign a suitable names for each of the pictures: Rural settlement, Tribal hamlet, Town, City.
Answer:
(a) Rural settlements
(b) City
(c) Tribal Hamlet
(d) Town.

Question 8.
Arrange the picture according to the level of development in the settlements?
Answer:
Tribal Hamlets, Rural Settlements, Towns, Cities.

Observe the Fig. and discuss the following questions:

Question 1.
What is the difference between the human settlement at ‘A’ and ‘B’ ?
Answer:
A is Nucleated settlement & ’B’ is a Linear settlement

Question 2.
What is the difference between the settlement at B’ and C ?
Answer:
B is Linear settlement & ‘C’ is a type of tribal hamlet.

Question 3.
Where do you find less than 2 houses?
Answer:
‘C’ is tribal hamlet having less than 2 houses.

Question 4.
In what type of settlement do you live?
Answer:
I stay in ‘A’ type of settlement. (Students may answer as per their settlement type)

Think about it: 

Question 1.
Think about the possible processes that take place during the growth and development of settlements. Make a list of such processes.
Answer:
(i) Human settlements rise in places with favourable geographic conditions – such a availability of water, conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

(ii) In such settlements the occupations are majorly based on natural resources. These are called rural settlements.

(iii) With the passage of time, other associated occupations in these settlements grow & people of surrounding areas migrate & settle there, this leading to increase in the population of such settlements.

(iv) The proportion of people engaged in primary occupation declines & the importance of secondary & tertiary occupations increases
leading to transformation of rural settlements into urban settlements.

(v) Over a period of time when the population & the necessary amenities increase on a large scale, the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Give it a try: 

Question 1.
Name the metropolitan cities of India.
Answer:
Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Pune, Ahmedabad, etc. are some of the metropolitian cities of India.

Question 2.
Identify the type of settlement where you live.
Answer:
Students are expected to answer this questions on their own.

Question 3.
Observe the photographs given below. Identify the type of settlements shown here and write about them.

Answer:
Fig. 1 is Urban settlement: Houses, schools shops are close to each other. Densely populated.
Fig. 2 is Linear settlement: Houses are built along the Mera Sakharkevda road in three to four rows.
Fig. 3 is a Scattered settlements: Houses are far from each other, sparse population, very little transport.
In Fig. 4 Linear settlements can be seen along the roads whereas scattered settlements also seen

Make friends with maps:

Observe Fig. and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Name some of the settlements shown in the map.
Answer:
Amalipada, Achalva, Sadadkua, Dumda, Pukhram, Rani Amba, Kumkua, Chapawadi, are some settlements shown in the map.

Question 2.
Which of the settlements in the map are in a scattered form?
Answer:
Pukhran, Achalva, Chapawadi and Sadadkua have scattered settlements.

Question 3.
How are the houses in the settlements along the roads arranged?
Answer:
Houses are arranged in a line on both sides of the roads. They are linear settlement.

Question 4.
In which settlements are the houses close together? What could be the reason behind this density?
Answer:
The houses in Sangarh are close together.
Reasons:

• Proximity to river
• Amenities like water pipeline, hospital, post office
• Easy access to transport routes like roads & railways which helps in easy movement of passengers & goods.

Question 5.
Can you now classify the settlements on the basis of these pattern?
Answer:

• Dunda, Sodadkua, Pukhran, etc. have scattered settlements
• Rani Amba is a linear settlement
• Songarh is a nucleated settlement.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 10 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Human settlements flourished at places with favorable ________ conditions.
Answer:
geographic

Question 2.
In the early settlements, the occupation of the people were dependent on the locally available ________ resources.
Answer:
natural

Question 3.
People along the sea coast are engaged in _______.
Answer:
fishing

Question 4.
Settlements have provided man with _______.
Answer:
stability

Question 5.
In ______ settlements, houses are few and far from each other.
Answer:
scattered²

Question 6.
Increase in the population of rural settlements is the beginning of _________.
Answer:
urbanization

Question 7.
____ settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts and foot hill regions, etc.
Answer:
Linear

Question 8.
In the deserts of Rajasthan we find _______ settlements.
Answer:
nucleated

Question 9.
_______ is the first step towards a stable life in human history.
Answer:
Rural settlement

Question 10.
Life in urban settlement is more _____.
Answer:
dynamic

Question 11.
_______ settlements have limited population as in small hamlets.
Answer:
Scattered

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
Human settlement flourished at places with favourable geographical conditions such as ______.
Answer:
availability of water, a conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

Question 2.
When rural area converts into urban area, the importance of secondary and tertiary occupations increases and _______.
Answer:
the proportion of people engaged in primary occupations decline

Question 3.
If the population and the necessary amenities increase on a large scale ______.
Answer:
the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Question 4.
Patterns of human settlements evolve in _______.
Answer:
accordance with the natural conditions

Question 5.
Increase in population of rural settlements is ______.
Answer:
is the beginning of urbanization

Question 6.
The day to day food requirement of the urban population is _______.
Answer:
fulfilled by rural settlements

Question 7.
In the deserts of Rajasthan we find _______.
Answer:
nucleated settlements near assured sources of water

Question 8.
Linear settlements are seen along _______.
Answer:
roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts and in foothill regions

Question 9.
There are large scale correlations _______.
Answer:
between rural and urban settlements

Question 10.
Urban settlements have evolved through _______.
Answer:
the expansion² and growth of rural settlements

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Limited population	(a) Linear settlements
(2) Tribal people	(b) Nucleated settlements
(3) Have better social life	(c) Scattered settlements
(4) On National or State highways	(d) Hamlets

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – b
4 – a

Identify the types of human settlements from the following statements:

Question 1.
These settlements are closer to nature, they are free from pollution.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Question 2.
Settlements found along the coastal tracts, major rivers and national or state highways.
Answer:
Linear settlements.

Question 3.
These settlements are found in fertile plains, transport hubs and mining centres, commercial centres.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements.

Question 4.
These settlements have limited population and inadequate facilities.
Answer:
Scattered settlements.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Where do human settlements flourish?
Answer:
Human settlements flourish at places with favourable geographic conditions – such as availability of water, a conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

Question 2.
What did forest dwellers or tribal people use for their livelihood?
Answer:
Forest dwellers or tribal people used forest produce for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Where do the farmer & his family live?
Answer:
They live in a house built in or near the fields.

Question 4.
Which settlements are called rural settlements?
Answer:
The settlements where the original occupation of the majority of the people are based on natural resources are called rural settlements.

Question 5.
Wnen do the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities?
Answer:
When the population and the necessary amenities increase on a large scale, the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Question 6.
Where do we find scattered settlements?
Answer:
Scattered settlements are found in the areas of high relief, dense forests, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural lands.

Question 7.
Where do we find nucleated settlements?
Answer:
Nucleated settlements are generally close to water sources like brooks, rivulets, rivers, lakes reservoirs, etc.

Question 8.
Where do we see Linear settlements?
Answer:
Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts, in foothill regions, etc.

Question 9.
What makes a city a metropolis?
Answer:
A metropolis is a large city or urban area, which is a significant economic, political and cultural center for a country or region and an important hub for regional or international connections, commerce and communications.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Where do human settlements flourish?
Answer:
Human settlements flourish at places with favourable geographic conditions – such as availability of water, a conducive climate, fertile land, etc.

Question 2.
What did forest dwellers or tribal people use for their livelihood?
Answer:
Forest dwellers or tribal people used forest produce for their livelihood.

Question 3.
Where do the farmer & his family live?
Answer:
They live in a house built in or near the fields.

Question 4.
Which settlements are called rural settlements?
Answer:
The settlements where the original occupation of the majority of the people are based on natural resources are called rural settlements.

Question 5.
When do the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities?
Answer:
When the population and the necessary amenities increase on a large scale, the urban areas grow into metropolitan cities.

Question 6.
Where do we find scattered settlements?
Answer:
Scattered settlements are found in the areas of high relief, dense forests, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural lands.

Question 7.
Where do we find nucleated settlements?
Answer:
Nucleated settlements are generally close to water sources like brooks, rivulets, rivers, lakes reservoirs, etc.

Question 8.
Where do we see Linear settlements?
Answer:
Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coasts, in foothill regions, etc.

Question 9.
What makes a city a metropolis?
Answer:
A metropolis is a large city or urban area, which is a significant economic, political and cultural center for a country or region and an important hub for regional or international connections, commerce and communications.

Answer in short:

Question 1.
Distinguish between Scattered Settlements & Linear Settlements.
Answer:

Scattered Settlements	Linear Settlements
(i) In scattered settlements houses are far away from each other. (ii) There settlements have limited population as in small hamlets. (iii) These settlements are found in the areas of high relief, dense forest, grasslands, hot deserts and extensive agricultural land	(i) In Linear settlements houses are spread along a straight line. (ii) These settlements have comparatively more population. (iii) These settlements grow along the coastal tracts, major rivers, national or state highways, railways in the foothill regions, etc.

Question 2.
Describe Linear Settlements.
Answer:

• Linear settlements are seen along roads, railways, rivers, sea coast and in foothill regions, etc.
• Houses in these settlements are along a straight line, in a row.
• As the settlement grows in the course of time, multiple lines emerge.
• Besides houses, some shops can also be seen.
• Such settlements are found along the coastal tracts, major rivers and national of state highways in our country.

Question 3.
What leads to transformation of rural settlement into urban settlement?
Answer:
(i) The settlements where the original occupations of the majority of the people are based on natural resources are called rural settlements. Agriculture, fishery, etc. are some of these occupation

(ii) With the passage of time other associated occupations also develop gradually in these rural settlement.

(iii) As a result people from surrounding areas migrate & settle there leading to an increase in rural population.

(iv) Houses are built & different facilities are developed for the growing population.

(v) Importance of secondary & tertiary occupations increases & the proportion of primary occupations declines.

This process leads to the transformation of rural settlement into urban settlements

Question 4.
Describe man’s future plans in terms of settlements.
Answer:

• Man started using resources from the surroundings.
• Man constructed houses and started living in them.
• They have even built sky-scrapers.
• In future, man is thinking of constructing colonies on other planets and their satellites too.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 English Solutions Chapter 4.3 The Red-Headed League Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 English Solutions Chapter 4.3 The Red-Headed League

Class 7 English Chapter 4.3 The Red-Headed League Textbook Questions and Answers

Part-I

1. Find and write the descriptions of different people given in this story.

Red Headed League Questions And Answers Question 1.
Find and write the descriptions of different people given in this story.
Answer:
Character Sketch:
a. Sherlock Holmes: A private detective and the story’s protagonist. His keen observations and ability to reason allowing him to solve puzzles that astonish everyone. Sometimes quiet and contemplative, other times bursting with energy, he uses methods that can confuse and frustrate others. He is somewhat a mystery, rarely letting his thoughts known until he has already solved the crime.

b. Dr. John Watson: Sherlock Holmes’ partner and the story’s narrator. Good natured, brave and down-to-earth, Watson is Sherlock Holmes’ sidekick, even though he rarely helps Holmes actually solve any mysteries and Watson often mirrors the reader’s own confusion.

c. Jabez Wilson: A London pawn-broker, Jabez Wilson is an average man whose only remarkable feature is his lock of fiery red hair. His slow and trusting nature prevented him from seeing anything suspicious about either Vincent Spaulding or the preposterous Red-headed League.

d. John Clay / Vincent Spaulding: A notorious criminal working at Jabez Wilson’s pawnshop under the name of Vincent Spaulding. He is evil and haughty. John Clay catches the attention of Sherlock Holmes in spite of his clever plot.

e. Duncan Ross: John Clay’s partner-in-crime. Duncan’s red hair prompts John Clay to devise the Red-headed League to lure Wilson out of his pawnshop for four hours everyday.

2. Present Mr. Wilson’s story as it would be shown in a comic strip.

The Red-Headed League Questions And Answers  Question 1.
Write what picture you will show in each frame along with the dialogues. Write the dialogue with the help of the story. Examples:

Answer:
Frame 1.
Mr. Wilson’s shop:
Spaulding to Wilson: Sir, why don’t you try for this job?

Frame 2.
Mr. Wilson’s shop:
Spaulding to Wilson : It is to help the red-heads.

Frame 3.
Mr. Wilson’s shop
Spaulding to Wilson: They are paying handsomely. It will be an additional income for you.

Frame 4.
Mr. Wilson’s shop:
Spaulding to Wilson: Sir, I will go along with you. Let’s give it a try.

Frame 5.
At Fleet Street:
Wilson to Spaulding: Just see! It is crowded with red-headed people. I don’t stand a chance.

Frame 6.
At Fleet Street:
Spaulding to Wilson: Sir, don’t be disheartened.

Frame 7.
At Fleet Street:
Spaulding to Wilson: Sir, stay by my side. I’ll push you into the office.

Frame 8.
At the office:
Wilson to Spaulding: At last, we are in the office, but there is no one except one man.

Frame 9.
At the office:
Spaulding to Wilson: Sir, you don’t worry. Just answer his questions confidently.

Frame 10.
Mr. Duncan Ross to Wilson:
I’m pleased with your confidence. I’m glad to announce that you have got the job.

Frame 11.
At Fleet Street:
Wilson to Ross: Thank you so much, Sir. I’m highly obliged.

Frame 12.
At the office:
Wilson to Ross: Sir, what am I supposed to do? How much will I be paid?

Frame 13.
At Fleet Street:
Ross to Wilson: You will have to copy the encylopedia Britannica. You will be paid four pounds a week. And: your timings will be from 10 am to 2 pm.

Frame 14.
At the office:
Wilson to Ross: Wonderful Sir, when do I start?

Frame 15.
At the office:
Ross to Wilson: Mr. Wilson, you begin from tomorrow.

Frame 16.
At the office:
Wilson to Ross: Sir, I will put my heart and soul into my job.
Ross to Wilson: You will have to begin with one letter A and go alphabetically.
Wilson to Ross: Ok, Sir.

Frame 17.
At Wilson’s shop:
Spaulding to Wilson: How is your job going?
Wilson to Spaulding: Well I am enjoying it. Mr. Ross is visiting the office every day. He is very much particular about my timings.

Frame 18.
At the office:
Ross to Wilson: How are you finding your work? This is your salary.
Wilson to Ross: Thank you, Sir.

Frame 19.
At Wilson’s office:
Spaulding to Wilson: How are you Sir and how is your job going?
Wilson to Spaulding: It’s been 8 weeks and 1 am really enjoying. Now Mr. Ross has stopped coming to the office.

Frame 20.
At Wilson’s shop:
Spaulding to Wilson: Good morning. What happened today? You did not go out?
Wilson to Spaulding: The office of the League is shut and locked. There is a note nailed on the door saying the League is dissolved.

Frame 21.
At Wilson’s shop:
Wilson to Spaulding: Do you know anything about the League?

Frame 22.
At Wilson’s shop:
Spaulding to Wilson: 1 am unaware about what happened.

Frame 23.
Wilson to himself:
I should find out more about the League. This is a mystery and I want to know why they played this prank upon me.

Frame 24.
Wilson to himself:
Sherlock Holmes will be the best person to solve this mystery. I will go to him.

3. Form groups of five. Discuss how you can complete the rest of the story without referring to Part II of the story.

The Red Headed League Questions And Answers  Question 1.
Form groups of five. Discuss how you can complete the rest of the story without referring to Part II of the story.
Answer:
Mr. Holmes and Watson try to think out why the League shut so abruptly. Holmes feels he should meet Wilson at home to ask some questions that were bothering him. When he reached Wilson’s house, he notices someone leaving the house. Mr. Holmes enquires about that person and understands that he was Wilson’s assistant. Mr. Holmes feels that he has seen the assistants face before.

Later, he checks on records and finds out that the assistant is none but a notorious criminal clay who was absconding. Mr. Holmes already had a sketch of Mr. Ross. On enquiring he came to know that Ross and Spaulding were very close. Mr. Holmes goes to Mr. Ross’ house and threatens him. Mr. Ross spills the beans, that he and Spaulding were going to rob Mr. Wilson the very next day. Mr. Holmes informs the police and both Spaulding and Ross are caught and put behind bars.

4. Language Study.

Modal auxiliary: You have read about main verbs and auxiliary verbs in Sid VI. You know that auxiliary verbs are helping verbs. Modal auxiliary verbs or modal verbs are also helping verbs. They are used with main verbs to show changes/modifications in the meaning of the main verb. They show possibility, ability, permission, intention, etc.
The modal auxiliaries are:

1. can, may, shall, will
2. could, might, should, would
3. must, ought to, used to, need, dare ………

Remember the following:

1. We do not use ‘to’ before a modal.
2. We do not add ‘-ed’ or ‘-Ing’ to a modal.
3. We can form questions and negative sentences using modals without using the auxiliaries be, have, or do.

Examples:

1. They can swim.
2. May I come In?
3. We shall sing.
4. Can he swim?
5. You may go.
6. She ought to play.
7. He cannot swim.
8. You must go.
9. They might come.

Frame simple sentences – statements, questions, requests. orders, permissions, etc. using the modals listed above.
Answer:

1. Take an umbrella. It may rain today.
2. You should not leave objects lying on the floor.
3. Drivers must stop when the traffic light is red.
4. Can you speak French?
5. I could not solve the problem.
6. May I ask you a question?
7. You may take a holiday today.
8. You should see a doctor.
9. I could run fast when I was young.
10. Can I go out?
11. You need not buy any vegetables.
12. Students shall not enter this room.
13. What should I do to get rid of this pain?

The Red Headed League Question Answer Part – II

1. Put the following events in proper order.

The Red-Headed League 7th Standard Question Answer  Question 1.
Holmes and others go to the bank.
Answer:
The bank received a lot of gold from the Bank of France.

Questions Answers Of Red Headed League Question 2.
Clay digs a tunnel.
Answer:
Clay digs a tunnel.

The Red Headed League Std 7  Question 3.
Ross closes the office of the ‘Red-headed League’.
Answer:
Ross closes the office of the ‘Red-headed League’.

The Red-Headed League 7th Standard Question 4.
Holmes catches the criminal Clay.
Answer:
Holmes visits the area around Mr. Wilson’s shop.

Std 7 English The Red Headed League  Question 5.
Clay and Ross enter the cellar to steal the gold.
Answer:
Holmes and others go to the bank.

The Red Headed League Questions And Answers  Question 6.
The bank received a lot of gold from the Bank of France.
Answer:
Clay and Ross enter the cellar to steal the gold.

The Red Headed League Question And Answer  Question 7.
Holmes visits the area around Mr. Wilson’s shop.
Answer:
Holmes catches the criminal Clay.

2. From the passage, find adverbs that end with ‘-ly’.

Question a.
From the passage, find adverbs that end with ‘-ly’. Find the adjective in each of the adverb
Answer:

 

Adverb	Adjective
frankly	frank
silently	Silent
carefully	careful
finally	final
suddenly	sudden
beautifully	beautiful

3. Discuss the following elements of a detective or mystery story.

Question a.
Discuss the following elements of a detective or mystery story.

1. a mystery
2. strange happenings
3. a smart detective who investigates the happenings
4. a crime/possibility of a crime
5. preventing the crime and catching the criminal.
6. characteristics of the victim
7. characteristics of the criminal
8. characteristics of the detective

Use the elements to prepare outlines of detective stories using your imagination. Write a story using any one of the outlines.
Answer:
Outline:

1. Disappearance of the ‘Will’.
2. Death of the head of the family.
3. Wife and two sons left behind.
4. ‘Will’ to be read before family members.
5. The elder brother in charge of the ‘Will’.
6. He makes excuses of misplacing the ‘Will’ and shows the photocopy of the ‘Will’.
7. The family lawyer insists on the original ‘Will’.
8. The elder brother keeps insisting on having lost the ‘Will’.
9. Mr. Karamchand, a clever and intelligent detective called.
10. The detective makes the necessary enquiries.
11. The elder brother, a gambler, a revelation.
12. The detective catches the elder brother in his own act.
13. The elder brother owns up.
14. The lawyer with the help of the detective prevents a big crime from being executed.

Caught in his own act:

The disappearance of the ‘Will’ was a mystery in the Patwardhan family. The disappearance of the ‘Will’ came to light when it had to be read by the family members after the death of senior Mr. Patwardhan. Mr. Patwardhan had left behind a lot of property and wealth. Mr. Patwardhan had left behind his wife and two sons. When the family lawyer enquired about the ‘Will’, Mrs Patwardhan said that she had given it to her elder son who had said that he would keep it safely. The younger son was unaware of the ‘Will’ made by his father.

When the lawyer of the family asked him if he had read his father’s ‘Will’, he realised what they were saying and asked his mother to show the ‘Will’, she said that it was with her elder son. When the elder son was asked about the ‘Will’, he started making excuses by saying he had misplaced the ‘Will’ and could not find it. The family lawyer insisted that the ‘Will’ be shown to the younger son.

The elder son brought a photocopy of the ‘Will’. The younger son and the family lawyer demanded the original ‘Will’. The elder son kept on making excuses and also said that the original ‘Will’ was lost. There was something in this situation which was a mystery. This is when the younger son hires a smart and intelligent detective, Mr. Karamchand. Mr. Karamchand makes a lot of enquiries and comes to know that the elder son was in the habit of gambling and was in a lot of debts.

Mr. Karamchand also came to know that the elder son was a very sweet talker and could twist and turn situations to his advantage. On the other hand, the younger brother was quite a simpleton who was happy with what he had, making it easier for the elder brother to manipulate him.

Their mother being quite old, had bouts of memory loss. This was another good reason for the elder son to do as he pleased. Mr. Karamchand, very cleverly got the truth out from the elder son. Mr. Karamchand informed the family lawyer, who in turn, demanded the original copy of the ‘Will’ from the elder son.

The lawyer also told him that it was a crime not to show the ‘Will’ to the family members. The elder brother showed the ‘Will’ to the younger brother. The younger brother read the ‘Will’ and handed it to the family lawyer without suspecting anything. The family lawyer went through the ‘Will’ and found out that the ‘Will’ had been tampered with. The dates and certain words were changed for the benefit of the elder brother.

After a lot of interrogation, the elder brother accepted the crime committed by him. The family lawyer rectified the changes made and now the younger brother got his share of property and wealth.

4. Use the following outline to develop a story as a group activity. Then write the story individually.

Question a.
Family returns home late at night ……………. hear conversation between thieves from inside the locked house ……………. family gets ready to counter …………….. attack …………… father opens the …………… door ……………. all enter ………….. no one is seen ……………… but T.V. is on detective serial midway.
Answer:
A Family Drama:
After attending the reception cum dinner of their close friend’s daughter, at the famous five star hotel ‘The Oberoi’, Mr. Pai and his family were returning home discussing the evening. Mr. and Mrs Pai along with their two children Suhani and Soham had attended the function. It was quite late at night, and to add to it, it began to rain making the surroundings dark and scary.

Mr. Pai drove the car cautiously and reached their colony safely. Mr. Pai parked the car while the others waited for him at the entrance of their building. It was still raining and the watchman was nowhere in sight. The common light in the building was not on. The way leading to their house was in darkness. Somehow they gropped their way to the second floor, where they lived. As they reached their house, Mr. Pai felt that he heard footsteps and whispering coming from inside their house. He asked his wife to listen carefully and she too agreed that there was whispering. The conversation indicated robbers searching for valuables. There was no light in their house.

Mr. Pai was an army officer. He asked his family members to stand behind him and he opened the main door very slowly. He could hear conversation and movements too. He slowly went towards the bedroom from where the conversation was coming. The door was closed.

He took out his revolver and pushed the door open quickly only to understand that the conversation was from the T.V. serial ‘Crime Patrol’. He then remembered that he had been watching T.V. before leaving home and had forgotten to switch it off. The other family members who had followed him gave a huge sigh of relief.

5. Language Study.

Synonyms, antonyms, homonyms: Synonyms are the words from the same language that have the same or more or less the same meaning.
Examples:

1. good – nice – pretty
2. shut – closed – sealed
3. intelligent – bright

Antonyms are words from the same language that have opposite meanings.
Examples :

1. strong – weak
2. right – wrong
3. hard – soft
4. up – down

Homonyms are words that are spelt and pronounced in the same way but
have different meaning.
Examples

1. round adjective. – round noun.
2. walk noun. – walk verb.

Start a collection of synonyms, antonyms and homonyms. Collect at least 50 each. Keep adding to your selection.
Answer:
Examples of Synonyms:

1. advice – help – guidance – aid
2. argument – dispute – squabble
3. aromatic – fragrant
4. backbone – spine
5. choosy – picky
6. constant – fixed
7. defective – faulty
8. enormous – huge – immense
9. famous – popular – renowned
10. fantastic – great – brilliant

Examples of Antonyms:

1. predator × prey
2. employer × employee
3. former × latter
4. exhale × inhale
5. natural × artificial

Examples of homonyms:

1. bark (n) – bark (y)
2. bow (n) – bow (y)
3. clear (adj) – clear (y)
4. current (adj) – current (n)
5. fair (adj) – fair (n)

Class 7 English Chapter 4.3 The Red-Headed League Additional Important Questions and Answers

Answer the following questions:

The Red-Headed League Questions And Answers Pdf  Question 1.
Who was well suited for the job?
Answer:
Mr. Wilson was well suited for the job.

The Red Headed League Answers  Question 2.
What would you suggest/advice Mr. Wilson to do in the given situation?
Answer:
The best thing to do when you know a crime is being committed or you are being cheated is to go to the lawful authority. I would suggest/ advice Mr. Wilson to go to the police and file a complaint against the people who had cheated him. It is better to do so rather than taking matters into your own hands and make the situation worse.

The Red-Headed League Book Back Answers Question 3.
What did Holmes want to see? Why?
Answer:
Holmes wanted to see the knees of Mr. Spaulding’s trousers. It was to see if thery were dirty.

The Red Headed League Class 7  Question 4.
Guess where Mr. Merryweather took the others.
Answer:
Mr. Merryweather led the others through an iron gate, down a narrow passage, that led through a dark, passage into a huge cellar, full of big boxes.

The Red Headed League 7th Standard Question 5.
How did Mr. Merryweather come to know about the crime?
Answer:
Mr. Merryweather got a hint of the crime from Mr. Sherlock Holmes.

The Red Headed League Class 8 Question Answer Question 6.
Why did Mr. Holmes think the criminals would act that night?
Answer:
Mr. Holmes had a strong feeling that the criminals would act that night because it was a Friday and the banks and offices would be closed for the weekend making the work of the criminals easier.

Question 7.
How did the criminals enter the cellar?
Answer:
The criminals had made a square gash on the wall which separated Mr. Wilson’s house and the bank’s cellar. They removed a broad stone which left a square hole enabling the criminals to enter into the cellar.

Question 8.
Who were the two criminals?
Answer:
The two criminals were none other than Mr. Vincent Spaulding alias Clay and Mr. Duncan Ross.

Question 9.
Why did Holmes become suspicious?
Answer:
Mr. Holmes became suspicious when he heard that Mr. Spaulding, Mr. Wilson’s assistant worked for only half the wages.

Question 10.
How did Holmes find out that the assistant was a criminal?
Answer:
Mr. Holmes used Mr. Wilson’s description of his assistant, made further enquiries and found out that Mr. Spaulding was none other than Clay, a criminal.

Question 11.
How did Mr. Holmes guess that Mr. Spaulding was digging a tunnel?
Answer:
Mr. Holmes suspected that Mr. Spaulding was digging a tunnel because when Mr. Spaulding Clay. answered the doorbell, the knees of his trousers were wrinkled and stained and this confirmed his suspicion.

Reading Skills, Vocabulary and Grammar

Question 1.
Simple Factual Questions:
Match the columns.

Columns ‘A’	Columns ‘B’
Mr. Hopkins	Representative of the Red-headed league
Mr. Wilson	American Millionaire
Vincent Spaulding	Pawnbroker
Mr. Duncan Ross	Assistant to Wilson

Answer:

Columns ‘A’	Columns ‘B’
Mr. Hopkins	American Millionaire
Mr. Wilson	Pawnbroker
Vincent Spaulding	Assistant to Wilson
Mr. Duncan Ross	Representative of the Red-headed league

Complex Factual Questions:

Question 1.
Why did Wilson like his assistant Spaulding?
Answer:
Wilson liked his assistant Spaulding as he was smart, efficient and worked for only half the normal wages.

Question 2.
Why was Fleet Street full of red-headed people?
Answer:
There was an advertisement in the newspaper calling red-headed people in person to apply for a job at the office of the league. As the office was on Fleet Street, it was full of red-headed people.

Question 3.
What did Mr. Wilson think looking at the crowd?
Answer:
Seeing the crowd of red-headed people on the street, Mr. Wilson lost all hope of getting the job. Hence he wanted to go back.

Question 4.
What happened when Mr. Duncan Ross saw Mr. Wilson?
Answer:
Mr. Duncan was very pleased to see Mr. Wilson and announced immediately that he was well situated for the job. He sent back all the other candidates.

Question 5.
Why did Mr. Wilson accept the job?
Answer:
Mr. Wilson accepted the job because the pay was not only very good but also Spaulding assured Mr. Wilson that he would look after Mr. Wilson’s business in his absence.

Vocabulary.

Question 1.
Make 4 words of minimum 4 letters from the given words.
1. advertisement
2. representative
Answer:
1. adverse, verse, meant, said
2. present, pretest, native, resent

Question 2.
Give nouns form.

1. smart
2. efficient
3. develop
4. sat
5. announce
6. explain.

Answer:

1. smartness
2. efficiency
3. development
4. seat
5. announcement
6. explanation

Grammar.

Question 1.
There was nothing in the office but a couple of chairs and a table. Remove negative.
Answer:
There were only a couple of chairs and a table in the office.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
Who do you think is smarter – Mr. Wilson or his assistant?
Answer:
I think Mr. Wilson’s assistant, Spaulding was smarter. It was he who showed the advertisement to Mr. Wilson and urged and encouraged him to apply for the job. Seeing the large number of people trying to get the job, Mr. Wilson wanted to go back but spaulding pushed through the crowed and took him inside the office and saw to it that he got the job.

Question 2.
Would you like to do such a job?
Answer:
I would not like to do such a meaningless mundane and uninteresting job. Jobs should be interesting, challenging and provide scope for further learning and application of different skills which is totally absent in the job taken up by Mr. Wilson.

Question 3.
Why would anyone want to copy an encyclopedia?
Answer:
No one in their right sense would copy an encyclopedia/ However, for reference in some study, students as well as teachers could copy down specific matter they need. In the same very, someone who is challenging some matter given or want to upgrade it can copy relevant portion of an encyclopedia.

Question 4.
What would we do today, if we needed copies of text from a big book?
Answer:
Today, one would just take a photocopy xerox. of the required material.

Question 5.
What is the difference between a dictionary and an encyclopedia?
Answer:
An encyclopedia is a set of books with a collection of information about various topics and subjects while a dictionary contains meanings of different words. Both are arranged in alphabetical order.

Question 6.
Suggest a few words that may appear under ‘A’ after ‘Archery’ in an encyclopedia.
Answer:
Words that may appear under ‘A’ after ‘Archery’ in an encyclopedia could be as follows: architect, aromatics, asparagus, assassinator, astrobiologist, astrophysical, etc.

Simple Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Complete the following.

1. And then suddenly the whole ……………
2. The rooms had been rented ……………
3. Holmes found Mr. Wilson’s story ……………
4. Small, stout, with ……………

Answer:

1. business came to an end.
2. under a false name
3. very unusual
4. no hair on his face

Complex Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Why was Mr. Wilson shocked?
Answer:
Mr. Wilson has been working for eight weeks and as usual when he reached the office at ten o’ clock, he found the door shut and locked. He found a little note nailed on, it which said that the Red-headed league was dissolved. This shocked him.

Question 2.
What did Mr. Wilson do next?
Answer:
Mr. Wilson enquired at the nearly offices, but no one knew anything about the league.

Question 3.
Why did Mr. Wilson go to Mr. Holmes?
Answer:
Mr. Wilson felt cheated when he suddenly lost his job with a good pay. He was curious to find out about the league and why they played a prank upon him. He had also heard about the ability of Mr. Holmes to solve mysteries.

Question 4.
How did Mr. Wilson describe his assistant?
Answer:
Mr. Wilson described his assistant as small, stout, with no hair an his face and had a white splash of acid on his forehead.

Question 5.
What kind of a man was Mr. Wilson?
Answer:
Mr. Wilson was a simpleton. He could be easily taken for a ride. He was hardworking and diligent.

Vocabulary.

Question 1.
Give one word for the following.

1. sincerely and tirelessly
2. A playful trick that causes no harm
3. Something which cannot be explained
4. happening quickly and unexpectedly
5. Solidly built

Answer:

1. diligently
2. prank
3. mystery
4. suddenly
5. stout

Question 2.
Frame a sentence of your own with ‘diligently’.
Answer:
We must always work diligently.

Grammar.

Question 1.
On Saturday I got my salary. (Identify the subject and predicate)
Answer:
Subject-I
Predicate – got my salary on Saturday

Question 2.
I had written Abbots, Archery etc. (Begin with ‘Abbots…’)
Answer:
Abbots, Archery etc. had been written by me.

Question 3.
He did not come at all. Add a question tag.
Answer:
He did not come at all, did he?

Question 4.
Mr. Wilson wrote diligently for four hours. (Identify the part of speech of the underlined words)
Answer:
diligently – adverb
four – adjective

Question 5.
He locked the door of the office. (End with ‘……. the office’)
Answer:
Didn’t he lock the door of the office?

Personal Response.

Question 1.
What would you advice Mr. Wilson to do in the given situation?
Answer:
I feel Mr. Wilson made the right decision to take the help of Mr. Holmes about whom he had heard a lot.

Simple Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Complete the following.

1. Mr. Holmes asked ……………
2. The offices and banks will be ……………
3. We followed him down a ……………
4. We are in the cellar of the city branch of ……………

Answer:

1. the way to the Strand
2. closed for the weekend
3. narrow passage
4. one of the main banks of London

Complex Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Tell the name of the young man who opened the door to Mr. Holmes.
Answer:
The young man who opened the door to Mr. Holmes was his assistant Mr. Vincent Spaulding.

Question 2.
What announcement did Mr. Holmes make?
Answer:
Mr. Holmes announced that they were going to hunt one of the smartest criminals in London.

Vocabulary.

Question 1.
Provide suitable adjective to the nouns given below.

1. weekend
2. banker
3. road
4. passage

Answer:

1. long weekend
2. successful banker
3. busy road
4. interesting passage

Grammar.

Question 1.
We went to the square were Mr. Wilson had his shop. (Change into future tense.)
Answer:
We will go to the square where Mr. Wilson has his shop.

Question 2.
We followed him down a narrow passage. (Rewrite the sentence beginning…. He was followed….)
Answer:
He was followed by us down a narrow passage.

Personal Response.

Question 1.
Why did the criminals take interest in the cellar?
Answer:
Mr. Merryweather’s banks had borrowed a huge quantity of gold from the Bank of France and the boxes in the cellar were full of gold. Hence the criminals were interested in the cellar.

Complex Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Was Clay successful in using his revolver? Why?
Answer:
No, Clay was not successful in using his revolver because Mr. Holmes at once hit him on his wrist and the revolver fell on the floor.

Question 2.
Who came out of the square hole?
Answer:
Mr. Spaulding and Mr. Ross came out of the square hole.

Grammar.

Question 1.
A boyish face emerged. (Pick out the adjective)
Answer:
boyish

Question 2.
He had a companion with him. (Add a question tag)
Answer:
He had a companion with him, didn’t he?

Personal Response.

Question 1.
Who tried to get away? Do you think he was able to escape? Why?
Answer:
Mr. Duncan Ross tried to get away. But, he was not successful in escaping because there were three men waiting for him at the other end.

Simple Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Say if the statements are true or false.

1. Dr. Watson foiled one of the cunning attempts at bank robbery.
2. Using the tunnel they entered the bank.
3. The assistant working for half the wages made Mr. Holmes suspicious.

Answer:

1. False. It was’t Dr. Watson, if was Holmes,
2. False
3. True

Complex Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Why did Mr. Merryweather thank Mr. Holmes?
Answer:
Mr. Merryweather thanked Mr. Holmes as he had foiled one of the most cunning attempts at banks robbery.

Question 2.
What was strange about the advertisement?
Answer:
The advertisement and the peculiar job was purly to get Mr. Wilson away from his shop for some hours every day.

Question 3.
Why did clay and his companion dig the underground tunnel?
Answer:
Clay and his companion dug the underground tunnel to enter the bank and steal the gold without breaking open the doors of the bank.

Question 4.
What confirmed Mr. Holmes’ suspicion?
Answer:
When clay answered the bell, the knees of his trousers were wrinkled and stained, this confirmed his suspicion that he was digging.

Question 5.
“You reasoned it out beautifully!” Express it differently.
Answer:
You solved the puzzle very logically.
or
You connected the dots beautifully.

Vocabulary.

Question 1.
Averbs forms of.

1. thank
2. grateful
3. obvious
4. suspicious
5. admiration

Answer:

1. thankfully
2. gratefully
3. obviously
4. suspiciously
5. admirably

Grammar.

Question 1.
Pick four adjectives from the passage.
Answer:
cunning, cleaver, suspicious, beautifully

Personal Response.

Question 1.
Explain the trick of the ‘Red-headed League’. How was it related to Mr. Wilson’s hair?
Answer:
The ‘Red-headed League’ was a clever idea of Mr. Spaulding and Mr. Ross, to keep away Mr. Wilson from his own home for some time during the day so that they could dig a tunnel from Mr. Wilson’s house to the bank in the hope of stealing the gold from the bank without breaking open the doors of the bank. The ‘Red-headed League’ was no way connected to Mr. Wilson’s hair. It was just a way to get Mr. Wilson to apply for the job.

Language Study.

Question 1.
Complete the exercise by filling in with the right modals.

1. You …………… be late again, (mustn’t / needn’t)
2. You …………… do it now; you can finish it later. (mustn’t / needn’t)
3. I think you ……………….. see a doctor, (should / can)
4. …………… you help me? (May / Will)
5. Students ……………… arrive to class on time, (can / must)
6. I ……………. eat or I’ll faint, (ought to / would)

Answer:

1. mustn’t
2. needn’t
3. should
4. Will
5. must
6. ought to

Question 2.

1. The ……………. (fare/fair) in the village was breathtaking. Fill in with the correct homophone.
2. Mohan won a ……………. (meddle / medal) in the swimming competition. Fill in with the correct homophone.
3. When it …………….(rains/reins), it pours. Fill with the correct word.
4. We were early but they were ……………. (Fill in with the antonym of the underlined word)
5. I (heard / herd) that the assistant worked for half the wages. (Cross out the wrong word)
6. They planned to steal the gold. (Frame a ‘Wh’ question so as to get the underlined words as the answer)

Answer:

1. fair
2. medal
3. rains
4. late
5. herd

Formative Assessment.

Question 1.
What do you have to do when you are told to ‘apply in person’ ?
Answer:

1. i. Before applying for a job in person, it’s necessary to check out who is hiring.
2. ii. Take time to research the employers before applying for jobs in person.
3. iii. You have to know what you need to take when you go there.
4. iv. The information youll need to complete a job application.
5. v. How to prepare for, on the spot interview.
6. vi. These points will guide you to provide all the information you need to apply in person, make a good impression and successfully get hired.

Question 2.
Find samples of ‘classified ads’ from an English newspaper. Where will the advertisement given here be seen in the classifieds?
Answer:
Samples of classified ads from The Times of India:

The advertisement given in the story will be seen in ‘Situations Vacant’ or ‘Part Time Jobs’.

Question 3.
Find out how photographs were developed in those days.
Answer:
Louis Daguerre was the inventor of the first practical process of photography.
Steps followed:

1. Fix the image on a sheet of silver plate.
2. Polish silver plate and coat it in iodine.
3. Put plate in camera and expose it for a few minutes.
4. Once image is painted by light, the plate is put into a solution of silver chloride.
5. This process will create an image that would last a long time and will not get exposed to light.
6. Students should find out more methods of photography.

The Red-Headed League Summary in English

This story is filled with mystery and suspense which keeps the reader wanting to know more. It is about a pawn-broker named Mr. Wilson, who goes to Sherlock Holmes and Watson and tells them about a strange business with a red-haired man. He tells them how his assistant encouraged him to apply for the job which he got. He worked for eight weeks. Suddenly the office closed without any notice. Holmes’ detective mind finds something fishy about the happenings as narrated by Mr. Wilson. The story ends with Mr. Wilson’s assistant Mr. Spaulding being a criminal, and he along with his friend Mr. Ross had planned to rob gold from a bank, through an underground tunnel dug out from Wilson’s house to the bank. However, Sherlock Holmes foiled their plan and put them behind bars.

Introduction:

The lesson The Red-Headed League’ is one of the 56 Sherlock Holmes’ short stories written by Sir Arthur Conan Doyle. It involves mystery and suspense.

Glossary:

1. fiery (adj) – glowing
2. pawn-broker (n) – a person who lends money on interest against things of value
3. efficient (adj) – able to work well and produce good results
4. assured (v) – guaranteed
5. diligently (adv) – carefully, sincerely
6. bade (v) – to tell
7. dissolved (v) – disbanded (here) it means the organization was closed down.
8. league (n) – an association or a formal group of people.
9. prank (n)- playful trick that causes no harm.
10. foiled (v) – laid waste, prevented
11. splash (n) – sound made by something hitting the surface of some liquid.
12. Strand (n) – a famous place in London
13. cellar (n) – a room used for storage under a building
14. take the criminals by surprise (phr) – catch then when they least expect it.
15. object (v) – purpose, reason
16. stopped all the holes (phr) – closed all the routes by which criminal may escape/run away
17. seized by the collar (phr) – hold by the neck
18. Frank (adj) – honest and outspoken
19. gash (n) – a long deep cut
20. attempt (v) – to endeavour to do, to try

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option:

The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 1.
Aurangzeb was annoyed by his bravery.
(a) Shahajada Akbar
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
(c) Chhatrapati Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj

The Maratha War Of Independence Question Answer Question 2.
These decamped with the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s tent.
(a) Santaji and Dhanaji
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan
(c) Khando Ballal and Rupaji Bhosale
Answer:
(b) Santaji Ghorpade and Vithoji Chavan

Std 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
He fought very bravely in the Goa battle.
(a) Yesaji Kank
(b) Nemaji Shinde
(c) Pralhad Niraji
Answer:
(a) Yesaji Kank

2. Find in the text in the lesson and write answers:

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 1.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj return halfway from the Janjira campaign? ‘
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against the Siddi of Janjira in 1682 CE.
(b) The Marathas laid siege to Siddi’s Dandarajpuri and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
(c) But on the other hand, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj. Hence Sambhaji Maharaj returned halfway from the Janjira campaign to protect/defend his kingdom.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Question 2.
Why did Sambhaji Maharaj decide to teach a lesson to the Portuguese?
Answer:
The Portuguese of Goa joined hands with the Emperor against Sambhaji Maharaj so ) the Maharaj decided to teach a lesson to the Portuguese.

The Maratha War Of Independence Question 3.
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj left the responsibility of protecting Swaraj to whom?
Answer:
While going to Jinji, Rajaram Maharaj had assigned the duty to protect Swaraj to Ramchandrapant, Amatya, Shankaraji, Narayan Sachiv, Santaji Ghorpade and Dhanaji Jadhav.

9 The Maratha War Of Independence Class 7 Question 4.
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s Valour in which words?
Answer:
Devdatta has described Maharani Tarabai’s valour in his Marathi poem:

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Aurangzeb turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Qutubshahi Kingdom.
Answer:
(a) Aurangzeb was not able to succeed his campaign against the Marathas.
(b) Therefore he suspended the campaign and turned his aim towards Adilshahi and Kutubshahi states.

Question 2.
After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, the Marathas intensified their war with the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj was brutally put to death by Aurangzeb.
(b) The Marathas took inspiration from his sacrifice and intensified their fight against the Mughals.

Question 3.
It was decided that the Raigad fort should be fought under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.
Answer:
(a) Zulfikarkhan put Raigad under siege.
(b) Rajaram Maharaj and his wife Maharani Tarabai, Sambhaji Maharaj’s wife, Maharani Yesubai and his son Shahu were in Raigad.
(c) It was very risky for all members of the royal family to stay at one place.
(d) It was decided that Rajaram should escape from Raigad and the fight to defend Raigad would continue under the leadership of Maharani Yesubai.

Activity:

Show Goa, Bijapur, Golconda, Jinji, Ahmadabad and Ahmednagar on a map of India.

Class 7 History Chapter 9 The Maratha War of Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Akbar sought shelter with –
(a) Sambhaji Maharaj
(b) Mukarrab Khan
(c) Rajaram Maharaj
Answer:
Sambhaji Maharaj

Question 2.
Aurangzeb died in 1707 at –
(a) Kolhapur
(b) Janjira
(c) Ahmadnagar
Answer:
Ahmadnagar

Arrange the events chronologically:

• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.

Answer:

• Aurangzeb descended to the South.
• Sambhaji Maharaj was put to death.
• Rajaram Maharaj escaped from Raigad fort.
• Maharani Yesubai and Shahu put under arrest.
• Aurangzeb died at Ahmadnagar.

Write the meaning of:

Question 1.
Artillery
Answer:
The army unit that uses big guns with big barrels.

Question 2.
Killedar / Kiledar
Answer:
In charge of the fort.

Question 3.
Guerilla tactics
Answer:
The use of surprise raids hit and run by the army and repetitive attacks on the enemy.

Find from the text and write the answers:

Question 1.
Who took away the golden pinnacle from the Emperor’s own tent?
Answer:
(a) Santaji Ghorpade
(b) Vithoji Chavan

Question 2.
Name the faithful Sardars of Raj aram Maharaj who joined him in the Jinji campaign.
Answer:
(a) Pralhad Niraji
(b) Khando Ballal
(c) Rupaji Bhosale.

Question 3.
What was Tarabai’s warfare method called?
Answer:
Tarabai’s warfare method was called ‘Safe deposit locker system’.

Question 4.
How did Aurangzeb entice many Maratha Sardars on his side?
Answer:
Aurangzeb enticed many Maratha Sardars on his side by giving them watans and jagirs.

Question 5.
Why was it decided that Rajaram Maharaj should escape from Raigad and go to Jinji?
Answer:
(a) The Jinji fort was far off in the south and was invincible.
(b) It was not an easy task for the Mughals to capture this fort.
Hence Rajaram escaped from Raigad and went to Jinji.

Question 6.
How does Khafikhan describe Maharani Tarabai?
Answer:
Khafikhan described Maharani Tarabai in the following words “She is intelligent and wise. She became very famous for her management of army and administration even during the rule of her husband”.

Question 7.
When was the sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end seen?
Answer:
It was when trusted Sardars like Krishnaji Sawant, Khanderao Dabhada, Dhanaji Jadhav and Nemaji Shinde started the battles on various fronts against the Mughals outside Maharashtra which gave a sign of the tilting of the balance to the other end.

Find out and write:

Question 1.
They were in the forefront to invade Mughal territories.
Answer:
Santaji and Dhanaji

Question 2.
He died in March 1700.
Answer:
Rajaram Maharaj

Question 3.
He rebelled against his father and sought shelter with Sambhaji Maharaj.
Answer:
Prince Akbar

Question 4.
The Incharge of the Kolhapur province.
Answer:
Mukarrabkhan

Question 5.
The Great Maratha soldier of whom the Mughal soldiers were scared of.
Answer:
Dhanaji

Question 6.
The Historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai described Rajaram Maharaj as.
Answer:
‘Sthirbuddhi’ (Level Headed)

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.
Answer:

• Sambhaji Maharaj started a campaign against Siddi in 1682 CE.
• His army laid a siege to Dandarajpuri fort and battered the fort of Janjira with the artillery.
• But at the same time, the Mughal army invaded Swaraj.
• Sambhaji Maharaj had to abandon the Janjira campaign and turn back.

Question 2.
Noted historian Riyasatkar G.S. Sardesai has described Rajaram Maharaj by using the adjective ‘Sthirbuddhi’. (Level Headed)
Answer:

• Rajaram Maharaj was thoughtful and kind- hearted.
• He brought together all the capable people in the Maratha empire.
• He united them and thus created a new enthusiasm amongst them.
• After the death of Sambhaji Maharaj, he fought against Aurangzeb for 11 years with great courage and tenacity.
• Rajaram Maharaj’s greatest achievement is that he protected Swaraj in those extremely difficult times.

Question 3.
The Eighteenth century is known as the Maratha Century.
Answer:

• After the death of Aurangzeb, not only did the Marathas filled the vacuum in the political arena, but also lead the political affairs.
• They ruled over Delhi’s throne and almost all parts of Hindustan and also protected it.
• Due to sequence of events, the 18th century is known as the ‘Maratha Century’.

Complete the following flow chart:

The lineage of the Bhosale family.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

	Village (Mauja)	Kasba	Pargana
What it means	………	………….	………….
Officers	……………..	……………..	……………..
Example	………..	…………..	…………….

Answer:

	Village (Mauja)	Kasba	Pargana
What it means	A small village	A big village	Group of Villages
Officers	Patil Kulkarni	The Shete The Mahajan	The Deshmukh TheDeshpande
Example	Bavdhan	Wai Kasba of Wai Pargana	The Pune Paragana

2. Write the meaning:

Maharashtra Before The Time Of Shivaji Maharaj Question Answer Question 1.
Budruk
Answer:
(i) ‘Badruk’ is a suffix added to the name of the village, which indicated that the village was independent.
(ii) The original town was called Budruk.
(iii) Example: Vadgaon Budruk.

Maharashtra Before Shivaji Question 2.
Baluta
Answer:
(i) A share of the agricultural produce paid by peasants to the artisans for their services to the villagers.
(ii) This share was known as Baluta.

Maharashtra Before The Times Of Shivaji Maharaj Question 3.
Vatan
Answer:
Vatan is an Arabic word. In Maharashtra it is used to refer to hereditary land to which the holder does not have to pay revenue.

3. Find out and write:

Maharashtra Before Shivaji Maharaj Question 1.
People from Africa who had settled along the Konkan coastline –
Answer:
Siddi

Maharashtra Before Shivaji Question Answer Question 2.
The author of ‘Amrutanubhav’ –
Answer:
Sant Dnyaneshwar

Maharashtra Before Shivaji, Question And Answer Question 3.
The place where Sant Tukaram belonged to –
Answer:
Dehu near Pune

Question 4.
He composed Bharuds –
Answer:
Sant Eknath

Question 5.
He explained the importance of physical fitness
Answer:
Sant Ramdas

Question 6.
Women Sants –
Answer:
Sant Soyrabai, Sant Nirmalabai, Sant Muktabai, Sant Janabai

4. Write about these personalities and their work in your own words:

Question 1.
Sant Namdeo
Answer:

• Sant Namdeo was a great saint of the Varkari movement.
• He awakened the sense of equality in men and women belonging to all castes through the medium of his excellent Keertan.
• His abhanga compositions are well-known.
• He travelled to Punjab and propagated his thoughts.
• His compositions are included in the ‘Guru Grant Sahib’ of the Sikhs.
• He propagated the message of Bhagwat religion (from village to village) in all quarters.

Question 2.
Sant Dnyaneshwar
Answer:

• Sant Dnyaneshwar wrote the ‘Bhavartha- deepika’ or ‘Dnyaneshwari’.
• He also composed Amrutanubhav.
• He showed a simple way of worship and conduct which the common people could follow easily.
• His ‘Pasayadaan in Dnyaneshwari uplifts the mind.

Question 3.
Sant Eknath
Answer:

• His compositions include abhanga, gavalana, bharud, etc.
• He had stated the Bhagvat Dharma in detail in a simple manner.
• His abhangas show the warmth of devotion.
• He presented people’s life in Bhavarth Ramayana.
• He believed that the Marathi language was inferior to no other language.

Question 4.
Sant Tukaram
Answer:

• Sant Tukaram belonged to Dehu near Pune.
• His compositions or abhangas are very pleasing and lucid, reaching the greatest poetic heights.
• His ‘Gatha’ is a precious treasure of the Marathi language.
• He freed many poor families from the bonds of loan.
• He criticized the prevalent hypocrisy and superstitions in the society.

5. Why were droughts a great calamity for the people?
Answer:
The droughts were a great calamity for the people because:

• The prices of food grain had risen.
• There was a severe scarcity of food grains.
• Entire families were destroyed.
• There was no fodder for cattle.
• Water became scarce.
• Cattle and farm animals died.
• Agriculture was completely ruined.
• All financial transactions came to a standstill.

Activities

1. Plan how you will help a Varkari Dindi.
2. Dress up as Sants and present their compositions.

Class 7 History Chapter 4 Maharashtra before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
______ was made up of many villages. (Mauja, Kasba, Pargana)
Answer:
Pargana

Question 2.
The chief of the village was the ______ (Patil, Kulkarni, Mahajan)
Answer:
Patil

Question 3.
The ______ was the chief of Patils in Pargana. (Deshpande, Deshmukh, Kulkarni)
Answer:
Deshmukh

Question 4.
The compositions of _______ are included in the ‘Guru Granth Sahib’ of Sikhs. (Sant Namdeo, Sant Eknath, Sant Tukaram)
Answer:
Sant Namdeo

Question 5.
__________ was the main occupation of people. (Fishing, Pottery, Agriculture)
Answer:
Agriculture

Question 6.
Pune was a big Pargana consisting of ______ villages. (64,290,40)
Answer:
290

Question 7.
‘Amrutanubhav’ was composed by _______ . (Sant Eknath, Sant Namdeo, Sant Dnyaneshwar)
Answer:
Sant Dnyaneshwar

Question 8.
A great famine occured in Maharashtra in ________ CE. (1630,1635,1648)
Answer:
1630

Question 9.
The Mahajan maintained the accounts of the _______. (Kasba, Peth, Mauja)
Answer:
Peth

Question 10.
________ is a precious treasure of the Marathilanguage. (Gatha, Abhanga, Keertans)
Answer:
Gatha

Question 11.
The headquarters of a pargana was called _______. (Peth, Kasba, Mauja)
Answer:
Kasba

Question 12.
Sant Dnyaneshwar’s _______ in Dnyaneshwari uplifts the mind. (Pasayadaan, Gaulana, Gatha)
Answer:
Pasayadaan

Question 13.
________ was at the centre of the Sant movement. (Pandharpur, Dehu, Peth)
Answer:
Pandharpur

Question 14.
________ criticized the hypocrisy and superstition in the society in very strong terms. (Sant Tukaram, Sant Dnyaneshwar, Sant Eknath)
Answer:
Sant Tukaram

Question 15.
______officers were the link between the people and the government. (Mahajan, Watandar, Kasba)
Answer:
Watandar

Question 16.
A ______ was a big village and the headquarters of the Pargana. (Kasba, Mauja, Peth)
Answer:
Kasba

Question 17.
Chakan Pargana had _______ villages and Shirwal had only ______ villages.
(64, 40, 290)
Answer:
64, 40

Question 18.
Sant _______ composed abhanga, gavalana, bharud, etc. (Eknath, Namdeo, Dnyaneshwar)
Answer:
Eknath

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Deshmukh (2) The Deshpande (3) The Kulkarni (4) The Patil	(a)   Maintained peace in the village. (b)     Maintained record of the revenue. (c)   Chief of the Kulkarnis. (d)  Chief of the Patils.

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Mauja	(a) A big village
(2) Kasba	(b) A small village
(3) Pargana	(c) A market
(4) Peth	(d) Many villages together

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Sant Namdeo	(a) He composed the ‘Amrutanubhav’.
(2) Sant Dnyaneshwar	(b) He built a memorial to Sant Chokhamela at Pandharpur.
(3) Sant Eknath	(c) His Gatha is a precious treasure of Marathi language.
(4) Sant Tukaram	(d) He believed that the Marathi language was inferior to no other language.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Find out and write:

Question 1.
The headquarters of a Pargana –
Answer:
Kasha

Question 2.
Watandars of the Peth –
Answer:
The Shete and the Mahajan

Question 3.
A peth established in the name of Shivaji Maharaj –
Answer:
Shivapur

Question 4.
He was from Jamb in Marathwada –
Answer:
Ramdas Swami

Explain the meanings of:

Question 1.
Abhanga
Answer:
Abhanga is a form of devotional poetry sung in praise of the Hindu God.

Question 2.
Dnyaneshwari
Answer:
Dnyaneshwari is the first book to describe the translation of Bhagavad Gita from Sanskrit to Marathi.

Question 3.
Kasba
Answer:
A Kasba was like a big village. It was usually the headquarters of a Pargana. For e.g. Wai kasba of Wai parganas were the headquarter of those Parganas.

Question 4.
Watandar Officers
Answer:
Watandar officers were the link between the people and the government.

Answer the following question in one sentence:

Question 1.
What work did Sant Dnyaneshwar compose?
Answer:
Sant Dnyaneshwar composed Bhavartha-deepika or Dnyaneshwari and Amrutanubhav.

Question 2.
How were the compositions or abhangas of Sant Tukaram?
Answer:
The compositions or abhangas of Sant Tukaram were very pleasing and lucid thereby reaching the greatest poetic heights.

Question 3.
Who were the disciples of Sant Tukaram?
Answer:
Sant Tukaram’s disciples were of different castes and creeds.

Question 4.
Name a few associates of Sant Tukaram.
Answer:
The associates of Sant Tukaram included Navji Mali, Gavnarshet Wani, Shivba Kasar, Santaji Jagnade, Mahadajipant Kulkami and Bahinabai Siurkar.

Question 5.
What was the duty of the Patil in the village?
Answer:
The duty of the Patil was to settle any disputes and maintain peace.

Question 6.
What was Baluta?
Answer:
The peasants gave a share of their agricultural produce to the artisans for their services to the village community. This share was known as Baluta.

Question 7.
Who were the Deshmukhs and Deshpandes?
Answer:
The Deshmukhs and the Deshpandes were the Watandar officers of the Pargana. The Deshmukh was the chief of Patils and the Deshpande was the chief of Kulkamis in the Pargana.

Question 8.
Who were called ‘Topikar’?
Answer:
The Portuguese, the British, the French and the Dutch who had come from Europe were facing intense rivalry during the period. There was stiff competition amongst them to capture the market for trade. These different people from Europe on the basis of their customary headgear were called ‘Topikar’.

Question 9.
Which European powers had a stiff competition amongst them to capture the markets for trade in Maharashtra?
Answer:
The Portuguese, Dutch, British and the French had a stiff competition amongst them to capture the markets for trade in Maharashtra.

Question 10.
Which social evils greatly influenced society in the times before Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
Blind beliefs and rituals greatly influenced society in the times before Shivaji Maharaj.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Who were the Watandars and how did they misuse their power?
Answer:
(i) Watandars were the officers. They were the link between the people and the government.
(ii) At the time of invasion from the enemy or drought, they represented the grievance to the government.
(iii) Sometimes, watandars collected more money from the people and did not send it to the government in time.
(iv) So, the people suffered harassment.

Question 2.
Contribution of the Sants:
Answer:
(i) Sants gave the message of equality and taught humanity.
(ii) They preached that people should live together in harmony, unity and love.
(iii) They created self confidence, amongst the people of Maharashtra.
(iv) They taught the true meaning of religion.
(v) They showed the path of devotion by living amongst the people and sharing their joys and sorrow.

Let’s Discuss:

Collect more information about the Pandharpur Vari and discuss the following topic.
Question 1.
In which month do the Varkaris go on the vari?
Answer:
On Ashadhi Ekadashi, that is in the month of July.

Question 2.
How is the vari planned?
Answer:
(i) The whole group is divided into sub group called as Dindi.
(ii) Each Dindi has 100 to 500 members.
(iii) The Palkhi is at the centre of the vari and the Dindi are ahead.
(iv) The time table of vari route is published in advance and followed.
(v) All the details are given before, the locations, breaks including lunch, rest, night stay location etc.
(vi) Every dindi has one truck or vehicle to carry luggage and food material.
(vii) The tents are set up and food is prepared before the dindi arrives at the location.
(viii) The dindi’s even decides the sequences of the Abhang to be sung.
(ix) The Doctors also devote 21 days in the Vari and take care of the members health.
In this way the Vari is well planned in advance.

Question 3.
Plan how you will help a Varkari Dindi
Answer:
(i) Arranging drinking water on the route for the Varkaris.
(ii) I will make a list of the things which needs to be arranged and then make the necessary arrangements accordingly.

Question 4.
A few lines said by the Sants have been given in Marathi in this chapter. Try to find their meaning by taking the help of your teacher, parents, internet, books, etc.
Answer:
(i) Translation: Dance to the time of Keertans. Light the lamps of knowledge in the world.
Meaning: Sant Namdeo asks to spread knowledge in the world through Keertans.

(ii) Translation: Sanskrit language is made by God Then is Prakrit made by thieves?
Meaning: The scriptures were in Sanskrit and only priests could read scriptures in Pre-Shivaji’s times. Sant Eknath said that all languages were languages of God.

(iii) Translation: The one who calls the tormented and unhappy people as their own, Only he is a true saint. There is God only there.
Meaning: Sant Tukaram says that a true saint calls the weak and tormented people as their own. And God resides only at such places.

(iv) Translation: Gather wealth by ideal actions, spend it seriously
Meaning: Sant Tukaram says that a person should not earn by wrong methods and should not spend wealth carelessly.

(v) Translation: Tukaram says only he is a saint who shares sorrows of the world.
Meaning: Sant Tukaram says that only a person who reduces the sorrow from this world is a true saint.

(vi) Translation: Onions, raddish, vegetables, There resides my God.
Meaning: Sant Sawata says in these lines that God resides in all things in life including farm work.

(vii) Translation: Gather all the Marathas, Propagate Maharashtra religion.
Meaning: Ramdas Swami asks the Maratha people to be united and spread their culture.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write the related word:

Religious Synthesis Class 7 Questions And Answers  Question 1.
Shri Basaveshwar : Karnataka
Meerabai : ……………………. .
Answer:
Mewad

Religious Synthesis Class 7  Question 2.
Ramananda : North India
Chaitanya Maha Prabhu : …………… .
Answer:
Bengal

Question 3.
Shri Chakradhar : ………………. .
Shankaradeva : ………………… .
Answer:
(a) Mahanubhav Panth
(b) Bhakti Movement

2. Make a chart to show the people and works related to

Bhakti movement
Mahanubhav Panth
Sikhism
Answer:

S.no	movements		People		Contribution
(1)	Bhakti Movement	(a)	Ramanuja and other Acharyas	(a)	Strengthened the base of Bhakti movement in South India.
		(b)	Sant Ramanand	(b)	Strengthened Bhakti movement in North India.
		(c)	Sant Kabir	(c)	He did not believe in rituals. For him truth
					was God. Preached equality and wanted to bring about Hindu and Muslim unity. He criticised orthodox people in strong terms.
		(d)	Chaitanya Mahaprabhu	(d)	Underlined the importance of Krishnabhakti. Due to his teachings people joined the Bhakti movement transcending the boundaries of caste and creed.
		(e)	Shankaradeva	(e)	Spread Bhakti movement in Assam.
		(f)	Narsi Mehta	(f)	Vajshnawa Sant from Gujarat, he gave the message of equality.
		(g)	Sant Mirabai	(g)	Stressed on the importance of devotion to Krishna and gave the message of devotion, tolerance and humanity.
		(h)	Sant Rohidas	(h)	Gave the message of equality and humanity.
		(i)	Basaveshwar	(i)	Spread the lingayat stream of thought. He opposed caste system and emphasised on dignity of labour.
		(j)	Pamp, Purandardasa and others.	(j)	Composed devotional verses in Kannada.
(2)	Mahanubhav Panth	(a)	Chakradhar Swami	(a)	Preached devotion to Krishna Supported equality Preached in Marathi leading to the development of the Marathi language.
(3)	Sikhism	(a)	Guru Nanak	(a)	(1)  The founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of Sikhs. He attempted to bring about religious synthesis and aimed to achieve Hindu-Muslim unity. (2) Emphasized on equality and chaste behaviour. (3) Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth Guru of the Sikhs.

3. Write about it in your own words.

Question 1.
Sant Kabir became a renowned sant in the Bhakti movement.
Answer:

• Sant Kabir opposed rituals. He did not attach any importance to places of pilgrimage, Vratas or idol worship.
• He believed that truth was God.
• He believed in equality opposed differences based on caste, creed, sect and religion.
• He advocated Hindu and Muslim unity and strongly criticised the extremely orthodox people belonging to both Hindu and Muslim religion.
• The impact of Sant Basaveshwar’s work on society.
• Shri Basaveshwar from Karnataka spread the lingayat stream of thought. He preached in Kannada, the language of the people.
• He opposed caste system and stressed on the value of Dignity of Labour.
• Encouraged by his teachings, men and women belonging to all castes began to participate in the religious discussions.
• His followers composed their work in Marathi also.
• His work had a great impact on the society.

4. Complete the following names.

Question 1.
G _ _ _ G _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 2.
S _ _ _ _ S _
Answer:
Surdasa

Question 3.
G _ _ _ N _ _ _ _
Answer:
Guru Nanak

Question 4.
M _ _ m _ _ _ _ _ _ m _
Answer:
Manmath Swami

Question 5.
M _ _ _ _ _ _ _ i
Answer:
Mirabai

Question 6.
R _ _ _ n _ n _
Answer:
Ramanand

Question 7.
K _ _ i _
Answer:
Kabir

Question 8.
P _ _ p
Answer:
Pamp

Activity

Obtain a devotional song in the tradition of Sufi music and present it in a cultural programme.

Class 7 History Chapter 3 Religious Synthesis Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Bhakti movement used the common people’s language instead of _____ (Hindi, Prakrit, Sanskrit)
Answer:
Sanskrit

Question 2.
It is believed that the Bhakti movement originated in ________. (South India, North India, North-East)
Answer:
South India

Question 3.
The _______ were devotees of Shiva. (Alawars, Naynars, Mahanubhav Panth Sect)
Answer:
Naynars

Question 4.
The Alawars were devotees of _______ .(Krishna, Shiva, Vishnu)
Answer:
Vishnu

Question 5.
In _______ , Chaitanya Mahaprabhu underlined the importance of Krishnabhakti. (Bengal, Assam, Gujarat)
Answer:
Bengal

Question 6.
Narsi Mehta was renowned Vaishnawa Sant in _________ (Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan)
Answer:
Gujarat

Question 7.
Belonging to the royal family of Mewad, Sant Mirabai stressed on the importance devotion to ______ (Vishnu, Krishna, Shiva)
Answer:
Krishna

Question 8.
In _______, Basaveshwar spread the lingayat stream of thought. (Karnataka, Punjab, Maharashtra)
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 9.
In the ,______ Chakradhar Swami founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra. (thirteenth century, fifteenth century, seventeenth century)
Answer:
thirteenth century

Question 10.
______ was the founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of the Sikhs. (Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Nanak

Question 11.
The _______ saints believed that God is full of love and the only way to reach him is through devotion. (Sufi, Sikhism, Bhakti)
Answer:
Sufi

Question 12.
_______ music has made valuable contribution to Indian Music. (Carnatic, Classical, Sufi)
Answer:
Carnatic

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Surdasa	(a) Verses of Krishnabhakti
(2) Sant Raskhan	(b) Ramcharita Manasa
(3) Sant Tulsidas	(c) Paramarahasya
(4) Manmath Swami	(d) Sursagar

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c

Write the related word:

Question 1.
Shri Basaveshwar: Karnataka
Sant Narsi Mehta: ________.
Answer:
Gujarat

Question 2.
Guru Nanak: The First Guru
Guru Gobind Singh: ______.
Answer:
Tenth Guru

Name the following:

Question 1.
Practices which’were greatly emphasized in Indian religious life initially.
Answer:
(a) Rituals
(b) Brahmadnyan

Question 2.
The path of devotion which facilitated religious synthesis.
Answer:
Bhakti Marg

Question 3.
The two Bhakti movements which emerged in South India.
Answer:
(a) The Naynar Bhakti Movement
(b) The Alawar Bhakti Movement

Question 4.
Values preached by the Bhakti Movement.
Answer:
(a) Love of God
(b) Humanity
(c) Compassion
(d) Mercy

Question 5.
He and other Acharyas strengthened the base of the Bhakti movement in South India.
Answer:
Ramanuja

Question 6.
One who strengthened the Bhakti movement in North India.
Answer:
Sant Ramanand

Question 7.
Well-known Sant in the Bhakti movement who did not attach any importance to places of pilgrimage, Vratas or idol worship.
Answer:
Sant Kabir

Question 8.
In Bengal due to his teachings, people joined the Bhakti movement by transcending the boundaries of caste and creed.
Answer:
Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

Question 9.
He spread the Bhakti movement in Assam.
Answer:
Shankaradeva

Question 10.
Renowned Vaishnawa Sant in Gujarat who is known as the first poet of the Gujarati language.
Answer:
Narsi Mehta

Question 11.
From the Royal family of Mewad, her devotional verses give the message of devotion, tolerance and humanity.
Answer:
SantMirabai

Question 12.
In Karnataka he spread the lingayat stream of thought.
Answer:
Shri Basaveshwar

Question 13.
Shri Basaveshwar conveyed his teachings in Kannada through this medium.
Answer:
Vachana literature

Question 14.
Any two Great Sants of Karnataka
Answer:
(a) Pamp
(b) Purandardasa

Question 15.
In the thirteenth century he founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Chakradhar Swami

Question 16.
The Guru of Chakradhar Swami.
Answer:
Shri Govind Prabhu

Question 17.
The founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Nanak

Question 18.
The followers of Guru Nanak.
Answer:
Sikhs

Question 19.
The Holy Book of the Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib also known as ‘Aadigrantha’.

Question 20.
Tenth Guru of the Sikhs.
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 21.
The sect in Islam which believes that God is full of love and the only way to reach him is through love and devotion.
Answer:
Sufi Sect

Question 22.
Two great Sufi Saints.
Answer:
(a) Khwaja Moinuddin Chisfi
(b) Shaikh Nijamuddin Avaliya

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the important characteristic of the Indian society?
Answer:
Diversity in language and religion is an important characteristic of the Indian society.

Question 2.
Write about the efforts which have a significant place in bringing about religious synthesis in social life.
Answer:
Among the other efforts, the Bhakti movement, Sikhism and the Sufi Sect have a significant place in bringing about religious synthesis.

Question 3.
What did the different streams of thought that arose in different parts of India emphasise upon?
Answer:
The different streams of thought that arose in different parts of India emphasised upon harmony between different sects and religions along with devotion to God.

Question 4.
How did the Bhakti movement help in the development of regional languages?
Answer:
The Bhakti movement used the common people’s language instead of Sanskrit and this helped in the development of regional languages.

Question 5.
What did Ramanuja and other Acharyas tell the people?
Answer:
Ramanuja and other Acharyas told the people that God is for all and that God does not discriminate.

Question 6.
What was the impact of the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu from Bengal?
Answer:
Due to the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, people joined the Bhakti movement transcending the boundaries of caste and creed.

Question 7.
Which value did Shri Basaveshwar stress on and what is his well-known saying?
Answer:
Basaveshwar stressed on the value of Dignity of Labour and his well-known saying is ‘Kayakave Kailas’ which means ‘Work is Kailas’ (Work is worship).

Question 8.
Who founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra? When?
Answer:
Chakradhar Swami founded the ‘Mahanubhav Panth’ in Maharashtra in the thirteenth century.

Question 9.
How did Chakradhar Swami contribute to the development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Chakradhar Swami preferred to preach in Marathi instead of Sanskrit and this led to the development of the Marathi language.

Question 10.
What did the teachings of Guru Nanak aim at?
Answer:
The teachings of Guru Nanak aimed at achieving Hindu-Muslim unity.

Question 11.
What does ‘Aadigrantha’ the Holy Book of the Sikhs include?
Answer:
The ‘Aadigrantha’ the Holy Book of the Sikhs includes compositions by Guru Nanak, Sant Namdeo, Sant Kabir and other sants.

Question 12.
What does the Sikhs regard as their Guru? Why?
Answer:
After Guru Gobind Singh, Sikhs regard ‘Guru Granth Sahib’ as their Guru as per the orders of Guru Gobind Singh.

Question 13.
What did the Sufi saints believe in?
Answer:
The Sufi saints believed that God is full of love and the only way to reach him is through love and devotion.

Question 14.
What are the main teachings of the Sufi > Saints?
Answer:
The main teachings of the Sufi Saints are love for all living beings, meditation and simple living.

Question 15.
What did the teachings of the Sufi Saints lead to?
Answer:
The teachings of Sufi Saints led to unity in the Hindu and Muslim communities.

Write about it in your own words:

Question 1.
Guru Nanak’s thoughts on religious equality.
Answer:

• Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism and the first Guru of Sikhs. He worked towards religious synthesis.
• Having visited the holy places of both Hindus and Muslims, he realised that the feeling of devotion is common in all religion.
• He emphasised on equality and chaste behaviour and aimed to achieve Hindu- Muslim unity through his teachings.

Question 2.
The Sufi sect.
Answer:

• The Sufi sect is an Islamic sect which believes that God is full of love and can be reached only through love and devotion.
• Their main teachings are love for all living beings, meditation and simple living.
• The teachings of Sufi Saints led to unity in the Hindu and Muslim communities.
• Sufi music has made valuable contribution to Indian music.

Complete the following diagram:

Question 1.

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 English Solutions Chapter 3.4 The Brook Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 English Solutions Chapter 3.4 The Brook

Class 7 English Chapter 3.4 The Brook Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Read the poem aloud with proper pace and rhythm.

2. Find the meaning of the following words.

1. ridges: Long narrow hill to or range (mountain bridges.
2. brimming: full of the margin/over followed. Full of water up to the to pledge.
3. eddying: spiral movement of water.
4. babble: meaningless talking/sound made when ones talk loudly
5. fallow: wasteland/left land
6. trout: A big freshwater fish
7. netted: Form of a net.

3. Answer the following.

The Brook Question Answers Class 7 Question 1.
Who is the speaker in this poem?
Answer:
The brook is the speaker in this poem.

The Brook Poem Class 7 Question 2.
Which lines are repeated in the poem? What do they mean?
Answer:
The lines ‘For men may come and men may go, But I go on forever’ are repeated. They mean that nature is immortal whereas we are mortal. Men are born and will die but nature is eternal.

3.4 The Brook Question 3.
Where does the brook join the river?
Answer:
The brook joins the river near Philip’s farm.

The Brook Poem Class 7 Solutions Question 4.
Mention the various places that the brook flows past.
Answer:
The brook flows past the dwellings of coot and hern, the ferns, a town, villages, valleys, hills, ridges, several bridges and Philip’s farm.

English Brook Class 7 Solutions Question 5.
Often the brook speaks of itself as if it is human. For example, ‘I bicker down a valley’. Find two other examples of the human activities of the brook.
Answer:
1. I slip, I slide, I gloom, I glance.
2. I murmur under moon and stars.

4. Spot and write any three alliterative phrases or sentences from the poem.

The Brook Poem Std 7 Question Answer Question 1.
Spot and write any three alliterative phrases or sentences from the poem. (Alliterative phrases/sentences are those in which the same sound is repeated.)
Answer:
1. I slip, I slide, I gloom, I glance.
Sound of ‘s’ and ‘g’ is repeated.
2. I bubble into eddying bays.
I babble on the pebble.
Sound of ‘b’ is repeated.
3. By many a field and fallow.
Sound of ’f’ is repeated.

5. List the prepositions you find in this poem.

The Brook Poem Question And Answers Class 7 Question 5.
List the prepositions you find in this poem.
Answer:
from, among, to, in, with, etc.

6. List the phrases which have the expression ‘many a…’.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 English Solutions Question 6.
List the phrases which have the expression ‘many a…’.
Answer:
many a curve, many a fairy foreland, many a silvery water break.

7. The poet uses words to create pictures or ‘images’ in the reader’s mind.

3.4 The Brook Question Answer Question 7.
The poet uses words to create pictures or ‘images’ in the reader’s mind. For example, ‘And sparkle out among the fern’. Write down other lines that create images or pictures in your mind. (Any 3)
Answer:

1. By twenty thorpes, a little town An half a hundred bridges.
2. By thirty hills I hurry down, or slip between the ridges.
3. I make the netted sunbeam dance Against my sandy shallows.

8. Write a short autobiography of a brook.

The Brook Class 7 Question 8.
Write a short autobiography of a brook. (20 to 30 lines)
Answer:

Autobiography of a Brook

I took origin among the mountains and glaciers in the lap of a slopy snowy terrain as a bubbly ever youthful brook. Many others joined me making me look bigger. I express my happiness by dancing and jumping as I flow down the valley. I am ever so glad to help birds and animals to quench their thirst. The trees in the valley are so grateful to me that they honour me by showering flowers upon me.

As I reach the plains, I slow down. My calm within and outside, inspires many great poets to offer their literary best. I am obstructed by many boulders, but I do not stop. I find my way by flowing around them. By the time I meet the big river, many small rivulets have formed from me. But now, their number is decreasing,.

I hear that the rains are often scanty. If this goes on, I might not exist at all in the future. I have served mankind for as long as I know. I plead with you all to plant more trees and preserve and protect nature for our mutual well being. Help us to survive and continue to serve you.

9. Which other things in nature can say.

The Brook Poem Std 7 Question 9.
Which other things in nature can say – ‘For men may come and men may go, But I go on forever.’?
Answer:
The sun, stars, clouds, moon, wind, space are things in nature that can say the given lines.

10. Use the internet, your school library or other sources for the following activities.

The Brook Poem Question And Answers Question 10.
Use the internet, your school library or other sources for the following activities.
1. Try to find other nature poem.
Answer:

Class 7 English Chapter 3.4 The Brook Additional Important Questions and Answers

Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What does the chattering sound of the brook seem like?
Answer:
The chattering sound of the brook seems like musical sounds.

Question 2.
Why does the bank fret?
Answer:
The bank frets because the brook changes its shape quite often by curving.

Question 3.
The brook mentions exact numbers of hills, villages and bridges. What does it mean?
Answer:
The brook mentions exact numbers to maintain the rhythm of the poem. It actually means that it flows past several hills, villages and bridges.

Question 4.
What do we learn from the brook?
Answer:
The brook teaches us to be cheerful and enjoy what we do. It also teaches us that we should never stop when we come across obstacles. With grit and patience, we should overcome these obstacles and achieve our goals.

Reading Skills, Vocabulary and Grammar.

Simple Factual Questions.

Question 1.
What do the following do?
Answer:

• blossom – sail
• swallow – skim
• sunbeam – dance

Complex Factual Questions.

Question 1.
Name the marine beings mentioned in the poem?
Answer:
The poet mentions fishes such as trout and grayling and also the swallow bird.

Question 2.
Which words of movement does this part of the extract mention?
Answer:
The extract mentions many words of movement such as travel, go, slip, slide, flow sail, loiter.

Poetic device.

Question 1.
Pick out an example of Antithesis.
Answer:
I wind about, and in and out.

Question 2.
State the rhyme scheme used in the second last stanza.
Answer:
Rhyme scheme – abab.

Question 3.
What according to you is the tone/mood of the poem? Why?
Answer:
The mood/tone of the poem is cheerful as it traces the journey of a happy brook right from its origin to its mouth. There is a hint of music in lines that helps us visualize the flow of the brook.

State and explain the figures of speech.

Question 1.
I come from haunts of coot and hem.
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ’h’ is repeated in ’haunts’ and ’hern’ in a pleasant manner.

Question 2.
I make a sudden sally.
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ’s’ is repeated in ’sudden’ and ’sally’ for a better poetic effect.

Question 3.
To bicker down a valley.
Answer:
Personification – the brook has been given the human quality of ’bickering’.

Question 4.
By thirty hills I hurry down.
Answer:
Inversion: the prose order has been changed. The correct word order is ’I hurry down by thirty hills’.
Alliteration: the sound of ‘h’ repeated in hills and hurry for poetic effect.

Question 5.
By twenty thorpes, a little town An half a hundred bridges.
Answer:
Hyperbole – the statement is exaggerated for a poetic effect.

Question 6.
Till last by Philip’s farm I flow
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ’f is repeated in ’farm’ and ’flow’ for a better poetic effect and also the word Philip as it has an ’f sound.

Question 7.
I chatter over stony ways
Answer:
Personification – the brook has been given the human quality of ’chattering’.

Question 8.
With many a curve my banks I fret
Answer:
Inversion – the word order has been changed. The correct word order is T fret my banks with many a curve’.

Question 9.
With willow-weed and mallow
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ‘w’ is repeated in the world ‘with’, ‘willow’ and ‘weed’.

Question 10.
I chatter, chatter as I flow
Answer:
Repetition – the word ‘chatter’ is repeated for a poetic effect.

Question 11.
I wind about and in and out
Answer:
Antithesis – two opposite words ‘in’ and ‘out’ are used in the same line for a better poetic effect.

Question 12.
And here and there a lusty trout
Answer:
Antithesis – two words of opposite meaning ‘here’ and ‘there’ are used in the same line for poetic effect.

Question 13.
And here and there a foamy flake
Answer:
Alliteration – the sound of ‘f is repeated in ‘foamy’ and ‘flake’ for a better poetic effect.

Question 14.
For men may come and men may go
Answer:
1. Antithesis: two words it opposite meaning ‘come’ and ‘go’ are used in the same line for a better poetic effect.
2. Repetition: the word ‘men’ is repeated for a better poetic effect.

Question 15.
I make the netted sunbeam dance
Answer:
Personification – sunbeam is given the human quality of ‘dancing’.

Question 16.
I linger by my shingly bars;
I loiter round my cresses
Answer:
Personification – the brook is given the human quality of ‘lingering’ and ‘loitering’.

The Brook Summary in English

The narrator of the poem, The Brook, takes us along its course. It narrates that it begins from the places often visited by birds. It makes noise while coming down the valley. The sunlight makes the brook’s water sparkle as it flows among the ferns and through several villages. Finally it passes by Philip’s farm and joins the overflowing river. It creates a lot of bubbles and noise while swirling around an obstacle.

The brook says that it makes a lot of turns and etches out a path full of curves. Passing by many ups and downs, the brook carries blossoms on its way. A lot of fishes accompany it. Moving through different curves, the brook clashes and creates silvery water break. At the base of the brook, there are golden coloured stones. The reflection of the sunlight on the moving waters of the brook makes it seems as if the sun beams are dancing. At night under the moon and the stars, it murmurs through thorny bushes. Avoiding the obstacles, it finally flows into the river.

Introduction:

The poem ‘The Brook’ by Lord Tennyson or Alfred Lord Tennyson traces the journey of a brook from its origin to its mouth. Though very simple, the poem conveys a very deep message in a very subtle manner. The refrain in the poem ‘But I go on forever’ tells us that nature is eternal whereas we are emphemeral or short lived. We may come and go but nature stays forever.

Glossary:

1. haunt (n) – a place that one visits often, where one spends a lot of time
2. coot and hem (n) – water birds
3. sally (n) – a quick journey like an entrance to fairy land
4. bicker (v) – run noisily
5. ridges (n) – a long, narrow mountain range
6. thorpes (n) – old English word for a village
7. brimming (adj) – be full to the point of overflowing
8. sharpes and trebles (n) – musical sounds
9. eddying (adj) – move in a circular motion.
10. babble (v) – to make murmuring sound of on the bottom. water flowing over stones
11. fret (v) – wear out, gnaw
12. fallow (n) – uncultivated land
13. fairy foreland (n) – a scenic place that looks
14. willow-weed (n) – a type of plant
15. mallow (n) – a plant with purple flowers
16. lusty (adj) – healthy and strong
17. front (n) – a freshwater fish
18. flake (n)- small, flat piece of something
19. water break (n) – a place in a brook where the surface of the water is broken by irregularities on the bottom.
20. grayling – a freshwater fish with a long fin.
21. gravel (n) – pounded stones
22. skimming swallows (n) – swallows that touch the brook lightly and quickly as they or stones. fly over it.
23. shallows – an area of the brook where the water is not very deep.
24. brambly (adj) – full of prickly shrubs.
25. wildernesses (n) – an uncultivated region
26. shingly (adj) – full of small, rounded pebbles
27. bars (n) – barrier, obstacle
28. cresses (n) – small plants
29. trout (n) – freshwater fish of salmon family

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the statements using correct options:

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Class 7 Question 1.
The apparent movement of the sun means that ________.
(a) the sun revolves around the earth in a year.
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.
(c) the earth keeps on changing its position.
Answer:
(b) it appears that the sun moves to the north or south in a year.

How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
If the axis of the earth were not tilted ________.
(a) the earth would not have rotated around , itself.
(b) the earth would have revolved around the sun with greater velocity.
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.
Answer:
(c) different parallels on the earth would have experienced the same climate throughout the year.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
21sl June and 22nd December are solstice days, that is ________.
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.
(b) the Dakshinayan of the sun takes place between 21st June and 22nd December.
(c) the Uttarayan of the earth takes place between 22nd December and 21st June.
Answer:
(a) the sun starts its southward journey from Tropic of Cancer on 21st June and Northward journey from Tropic of Capricon on 22nd December.

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Class 7 Answers Question 4.
The revolution of the earth around the Sun and the tilt of the axis of the earth together are responsible for the ______.
(a) summer, rainy season, retreat of monsoon, winter.
(b) summer, winter and spring.
(c) summer and winter.
Answer:
(c) summer and winter.

2. Answer the following questions:

How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Questions And Answers Question 1.
What leads to the occurrence of seasons?
Answer:
(i) Seasons occur due to the revolution of the earth.
(ii) Seasons also occur due to the tilt of the earth’s axis of rotation.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Question 2.
What is the duration of the day on equinox?
Answer:
(i) The circle of illumination divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.
(ii) Everywhere on the earth, the night time and day time are of equal duration. This condition is called equinox.
(iii) Thus, the duration of the day will be twelve hours on equinox.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Why is the effect of the seasons not experienced in the equatorial region?
Answer:
(i) Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes & solstices
(i) The equatorial region receives perpendicular sunray almost throughout the year.
(ii) Hence the climate of that region does not change at all in the year.
(iii) Hence the effect of the seasons is not experienced in the equatorial region.

How Seasons Occur – Part 1 Questions And Answers Question 4.
Why is the sun visible for more than 24 hours during Dakshinayan in the region between the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole?
Answer:
(i) Sunrays are never perpendicular on any of the parallels between Tropic of Cancer & the North pole or between Tropic of Capricorn & the South pole.
(ii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March (Dakshinayan) the region between Antarctic circle and the south faces the sun. The whole of Antarctic Circle falls within the zone of illumination.
(iii) So the sun is visible in the sky for more than 24 hours.

Geography Class 7 How Seasons Occur – Part 2 Question 5.
Why are penguins not found at the North Pole?
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.
(ii) Penguins are native to south pole. Penguins have adapted to the natural conditions prevailing in the Antarctic regions of the south pole.
(iii) Besides predators like polar bears roam within the Arctic Circle. Hence penguins are found at the South pole & not at the North pole.

3. Rewrite the following statements after correcting them:

Question 1.
The earth’s velocity varies according to the period of revolution.
Answer:
The earth’s velocity varies due to the rotation of the earth.

Question 2.
If we observe from the northern hemisphere we see the apparent movement of the sun.
Answer:
We see the apparent movement of the sun from both the northern & southern hemispheres.

Question 3.
The dates of equinox change every year.
Answer:
The dates of equinox does not change every year. They vary by a day or so.

Question 4.
North Canada experiences summer from September to March.
Answer:
North Canada experience winter from September to March.

Question 5.
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has winter.
Answer:
When it is summer in South Africa, Australia has summer.

Question 6.
Duration of daytime is less on the vernal and autumnal equinoxes.
Answer:
On the vernal (spring) equinox and autumnal equinox, day and night time are of the same duration.

4. Spot the error in the diagram given below:

Answer:
Spring Equinox – 21st March
Summer Solstice – 21st June
Winter Solstice – 22nd December

5. Draw a diagram showing the cycle of seasons in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:

ICT Question :

Question 1.
Using the internet sites or a calendar, find and note the duration of the day for specific dates between 22nd March and 23rd September. Calculate the duration of the nights too. Using this information draw a compound bar graph.
Question 2.
Draw a diagram of aphelion and perihelion positions of the earth on the computer.

Activity:

Using the internet, collect pictorial information of any four migratory birds/animals.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell:

Figure shows the position of the earth with its tilted axis on 21st June and 22nd December. It also shows its illuminated and dark positions. Observe the figure and answer the following.

Question 1.
In fig ‘A which pole is receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is receiving sunlight in Fig ‘A’

Question 2.
In fig ‘B’ which pole is not receiving sunlight?
Answer:
North Pole is not receiving sunlight in Fig. ‘B’

Question 3.
Which hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere has the longest daytime on 21st June.

Question 4.
Which hemisphere will have the longest night on 22nd December?
Answer:
Northern hemisphere will have the largest night in 22nd December.

Question 5.
On which date will the Tropic of Cancer receive perpendicular sunrays?
Answer:
The Tropic of Cancer will receive perpendicular sunrays on 21st June.

Question 6.
Considering the position of the north pole, which season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September?
Answer:
Summer season will prevail in the northern hemisphere from 22nd March to 23rd September.

Question 7.
The cricket matches in Australia are generally in summer, when does Australia have summer?
Answer:
Summer season prevails in Australia from 23rd September to 21st March.

Question 8.
In which period is the ‘midnight sun’ observable in Norway? Which season will there be at that time?
Answer:
Midnight sun is observable in Norway from 21st March to 23rd September. It will be summer in Norway that time.

Question 9.
At what time will the midnight sun be visible at the “Bharati Research Station” of India at Antarctica? What will be the season there at that time?
Answer:
The midnight sun will be visible at Bharati Research Station of India at Antarctica from 23rd September to 21st March. It will be summer season there.

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
The summer capital of Jammu & Kashmir is Srinagar while the winter capital is Jammu. What could be the reason?
Answer:
(i) Jammu is located in the southern part of the state of Jammu & Kashmir whereas Srinagar is located to its north.

(ii) Also Jammu is located at an altitude of 350m whereas Srinagar is located at an altitude of approximately 1500m.

(iii) So Jammu has higher temperature in summer as compared to Srinagar. As Srinagar has pleasant climate in summer, it acts as summer capital of the state.

(iv) As winters are not very cold in Jammu & it is early accessible, it acts as a winter capital of the state.

Question 2.
While India & England are located in the same hemisphere why are the cricket matches in these two countries arranged in different months?
Answer:
(i) As India is a tropical country summers temperature are very high. England on the other hand falls in the temperate zone which has mild summers. Hence, England is suitable for cricket matches in summer.

(ii) As England lies in the temperate zone it her very cold winters. India on the other hand has mild winters as it is a tropical country. Thus India is suitable for cricket matches in winters. Hence, although India & England are located in the same hemisphere, due to latitudinal differences, the cricket matches in these two countries are arranged in different months.

Question 3.
On 21st March and 23rd September, daytime and night time are same all over the earth. But why do some parts experience summer and some winter on the these days?
Answer:
(i) If the earth’s axis were not tilted, the same climatic conditions would have prevailed on each of the different parallels throughout the year.

(ii) The seasons would not have occurred. It is due to the tilt of the earth’s axis that some parts of the earth experience summer and some winter on these days.

Question 4.
Mention any two countries in the world where one needs woollen clothing in the month of May. Also mention their latitudinal positions.
Answer:
South Africa is on 23°S latitude.
Iceland is on 65°N latitude.

Question 5.
On equinox days, the two poles experience either sunrise or sunset. On which pole will it be sunrise on 21st March?
Answer:
Sunrise will be experienced on the North pole.

Think about it:

Question 1.
In which direction will the location of sunrise and sunset appear to move after 22nd of December?
Answer:
On 22nd December the sun reaches the southernmost position as seen from the earth. The sun seems to stand still at the Tropic of Capricon and then reverses its direction. The sun appears to move northwards after 22nd December.

Observe Fig of textbook page 47 carefully & answer:

Question 2.
positioned relative to the sun on the dates given in the figure?
Answer:
(i) The northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun in the period between 21st March is 23rd September. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences summer season.

(ii) It is tilted away from the sun in the period between 23rd September to 21st March. Hence, northern hemisphere experiences winter season.

Question 3.
Which season will you experience in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December?
Answer:
We will experience Winter season in the northern hemisphere around 22nd December.

Question 4.
What would be the season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June?
Answer:
It will be Summer season in the northern hemisphere around 21st June.

Question 5.
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere which season will it be in opposite hemisphere?
Answer:
If it is winter in the northern hemisphere, the southern hemisphere will experience summer season.

Question 6.
At any given point of time why are the season in the northern and southern hemisphere different?
Answer:
(i) Regardless of the time of the year, the northern and southern hemisphere experience opposite seasons.

(ii) In the period from 21st March to 23rd September the northern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight because this hemisphere faces the sun.

(iii) In the period from 23rd September to 21st March the southern hemisphere is exposed to more direct sunlight.

(iv) It is the tilt of the Earth that causes the difference in the seasons.

Question 7.
What effects do the seasons have on the biodiversity in India? Write briefly about it:
Answer:
(i) The living world on the earth is affected by the cycle of seasons.

(ii) Change in seasons cause immense biodiversity loss, affecting both individual species and their ecosystem that support economic growth and human well being.

(iii) Greater frequency and severity of heat waves and extreme weather is a threat to the survival of mankind and animals too.

(iv) Floral and animal activity variation depends on seasonal temperature variation with different species flowering at specific times before or after monsoon seasons.

(v) Any change in rainfall pattern poses a threat to agriculture.

Give it a try:

Question 1.
Regarding daytime & the cycle of season, what conditions would have prevailed at the following place, if the earth’s axis were not tilled? (Canada, Tasmania, Nigeria, West Indies, Peru, Borneo)
Answer:

• Effect on day & night time: If the earth’s axis were not titled the duration of day time & night time would have been equal throughout the year.
• Effect on seasons: There would be no seasonal change on the earth.
• Canada and Tasmania would experience winter throughout the year as they are located near the poles.
• West Indies, Peru, Nigeria, Borneo would experience summer throughout the year as they are located near the equator.

Can you tell:

Discuss the activity you have been carrying out since June (Refer ch. 1) make use of the observation tables for the months of June, September & December.

Question 1.
In which month the duration of the day was around 12 hours?
Answer:
The duration of the day was around 12 hours in the month of September.

Question 2.
What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
The duration of day is 12 hours in the month of September because both the hemispheres of the earth are at equal distance from the sun & the equator receives perpendicular rays of the sun.

Question 3.
Bring out the differences between the duration of daytime in the months of June, September & December.
Answer:
The duration of day is around 13 hours in the month of June. It decreases to around 12 hours in the month of September. It is around 11 hours in the month of December.

Question 4.
What could be the reason for the change in the shadow of the stick?
Answer:
There is a change in the shadow of the stick because there is a change in position of the sunrise & sunset.

Question 5.
What did you observe about the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset?
Answer:
(i) After 21st June the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted southwards.
(ii) After 22nd December the position of the sun at the horizon at the time of sunrise & sunset shifted north wards.

Question 6.
Which of the following factors could be related with the change in the position of the shadow of the stick & the difference in the duration of daytime?
(i) Rotation of the earth
(ii) Distance between the earth & the sun
(iii) Revolution of the earth.
(iv) The axis of the earth.
Answer:
(i) Revolution of the earth
(ii) The axis of the earth.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 8 How Seasons Occur Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The position of the sun at sunrise, appears to change on the ______ everyday.
Answer:
horizon

Question 2.
_______ occurs only with reference to the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
Seasons

Question 3.
The path of the revolution of the earth around the sun is ______.
Answer:
elliptical

Question 4.
As the earth revolves around the sun, its perpendicular rays fall on the _____ twice a year.
Answer:
equator

Question 5.
In the northern hemisphere prevails from 21st March to 21st June, while ______ prevails from 23rd September to 22nd December.
Answer:
spring, autumn

Question 6.
________ is the longest day and has the shortest night in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
21st June

Question 7.
_____ marks the longest day and the shortest night in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
22nd December

Question 8.
On the _____ the duration of day and night is the same throughout the year.
Answer:
equator

Question 9.
The occurrence of seasons one after the other leads to the ______.
Answer:
cycle of seasons

Question 10.
Agricultural seasons also depend on the local ________ conditions.
Answer:
climatic

Question 11.
Continuous, occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to additional _______ besides summer and winter.
Answer:
season

Question 12.
On _____ and ______ day time and night time are same all over the earth.
Answer:
21st March, 23rd September

Question 13.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the south is called _______.
Answer:
Dakshinayan

Question 14.
The period in which the position of the rising sun keeps moving towards the north is called _______.
Answer:
Uttarayan

Question 15.
In the northern hemisphere 23rd September is called ____ equinox.
Answer:
Autumnal

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called ________.
Answer:
the apparent movement of the sun

Question 2.
Seasons occur only with reference to _______.
Answer:
the northern and the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to _______.
Answer:
the rotation of the earth

Question 4.
The annual apparent movement of the sun is related to ______.
Answer:
the revolution of the earth and the tilt of earth’s axis

Question 5.
In the first week of July, the earth is at _______.
Answer:
the farthest point from the sun.

Question 6.
The circle of illumination1 divides ______.
Answer:
all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 7.
In the northern hemisphere, spring prevails ______.
Answer:
from 21st March to 21st June.

Question 8.
In the northern hemisphere, autumn prevails ______.
Answer:
from 23rd September to 22nd December.

Question 9.
Only on 21st June and 22nd December, the sun rays become _____.
Answer:
perpendicular on the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricon respectively

Question 10.
Seasons have been decided on the basis of _________.
Answer:
the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices

Question 11.
The living world on the earth is affected by ________.
Answer:
the cycle of seasons.

Question 12.
Continuous occurrence of rain in a specific period gives rise to _____.
Answer:
an additional season besides summer and winter.

Complete the statements using the correct options:

Question 1.
In the course of one year, Arctic tern has to travel in search of food.
(a) around 50,000 km.
(b) around 70,000 km.
(c) around 90,000 km.
Answer:
(b) around 70,000 km.

Question 2.
Due to severe winter and lack of food, Siberian cranes from the cold northern regions visit India travelling around
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.
(b) 10 to 12 thousand kilometers.
(c) 12 to 14 thousand kilometers.
Answer:
(a) 8 to 10 thousand kilometers.

Question 3.
The two Poles experience either sunrise or sunset on
(a) Solstice days.
(b) Equinox days.
(c) Dakshinayan.
Answer:
(b) Equinox days.

Question 4.
The diurnal apparent movement of the sun is related to
(a) the revolution of the earth.
(b) rotation of the earth.
(c) tilt of the earth’s axis.
Answer:
(b) rotation of the earth

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the apparent movement of the sun?
Answer:
The movement of the sun towards the north or south in a year is called the apparent movement of the sun.

Question 2.
What is Equinox?
Answer:
On 21st March and 23rd September, the north pole and the south pole are at the same distance from the earth due to which the daytime & night time are of equal duration every where on earth. This is called Equinox.

Question 3.
How have seasons been decided?
Answer:
Seasons have been decided on the basis of the duration of sunlight, equinoxes and solstices.

Question 4.
Name the four seasons of Europe and North America.
Answer:
The four seasons in Europe and North America are summer, autumn, winter and spring.

Question 5.
Which living creatures are found in the Antarctic region?
Answer:
Birds like penguins, fish like seal and animals like walruses are found in the Antarctic region.

Question 6.
Which animals are found in the polar region of the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
In the polar region of the northern hemisphere animals like reindeer, polar bears, Arctic foxes, etc are found.

Question 7.
What are the factors that influence the seasons?
Answer:
The changes in the atmosphere, vapour in the air, the wind and the precipitation influence the seasons.

Question 8.
What do you mean by Dakshinayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 21st June to 22nd December) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the south is called as Dakshinayan.

Question 9.
What is Uttarayan?
Answer:
The period in which (from 22nd December to 21st June) the position of the rising sun keeps on moving towards the north is called as Uttarayan.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is called perihelion position of the earth?
Answer:

• As the earth moves in an ellipse, its distance from the sun does not remain the same.
•  It is at its minimum distance in the first week of January.
• This is called the perihelion position of the earth.

Question 2.
What is called aphelion position of the earth.
Answer:

• In the first week of July, the earth is at the farthest point from the sun.
• This is called the aphelion position.

Question 3.
What is called circle of illumination?
Answer:

• The illuminated and dark portions of all the parallels including the equator is called circle of illumination.
• It divides all the parallels from the north pole to the south pole equally.

Question 4.
What are Solstice days?
Answer:

• Solstice days are the days when the earth’s tilt towards the sun is at its maximum.
• On 21st June the northern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun and the Tropic of Cancer starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• On 22nd December the Southern hemisphere is tilted towards the sun & the Tropic of Capricorn starts receiving perpendicular rays of the sun.
• These two days are called solstice days.

Question 5.
Draw the diagram showing the Aphelion and perihelion position:
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Give examples of 3 plants that have:

Question a.
Spiny fruits
Answer:
Jack fruit, Pineapple, Lychee (litchi), Datura

Question b.
Spiny stem
Answer:
Cactus, Wild rose, Catclaw acacia, Silk, Cotton

Question c.
Red flowers
Answer:
Rose, Dahlia, Hibiscus, Tulips,

Question d.
Yellow flowers
Answer:
Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower, Daisy

Question e.
Leaves which close at night
Answer:
Mimosa plant, Tallwood, Prayer plant, Gulmohar

Question f.
Single seeded fruits
Answer:
Mango, Lychee, Jamun

Question g.
Many seeded fruits
Answer:
Custard apple, Papaya, Watermelon.

2. Observe any one flower and its various parts and describe it in your own words.

Question a.
Answer:

A flower has following parts:
1. Pedicel: (a) Flower may have a long or a short stalk called pedicel, (b) One end of the pedicel is attached to the stem, (c) The other end of the pedicel is expanded and swollen. It is called the receptacle, (d) Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the receptacle.
2. Calyx: In the bud condition, the petals are covered by leaf like parts called sepals which are green in colour. They form the calyx.
3. Corolla: This is made up of colourful parts called petals.
4. Androecium: (a) This is the male reproductive part of the flower, (b) It consists of stamens, (c) Each stamen is made up of anther and filament.
5. Gynoecium: (a) This is the female reproductive part of the flower, (b) This is made up of carpels, (c) A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.

3. What are the similarities and differences between?

Question a.
Jowar and Moong
Differences:

Jowar	Moong
i. It has fibrous root.	i. It has tap root.
ii. It is a monocotyledonous seed.	ii. It is a dicotyledonous seed.
iii. It is a rabi crop.	iii. It is a kharif crop

Similarities:
Jowar and Moong both are angiosperms.

Question b.
Onion and Coriander
Differences:

Onion	Coriander
i. It is a biennial plant.	i. It is an annual plant.
ii. It has monocoty­ledonous seed.	ii. It has dicotyledonous seeds.
iii. It has fibrous root.	iii. It has tap root but later on changes to fibrous root system.

Similarities:

1. Both are used in cooking.
2. Both are edible.
3. Both belongs to kingdom plantae.

Question c.
Leaves of banana and Leaves of mango
Answer:

Leaves of banana	Leaves of mango
i. It has parallel venation.	i. It has reticulate venation.
ii.  It is very large in size.	ii. It is small in size.
iii. It is a monocotyledonous plant.	iii. It is a dicotyledonous plant.

Question d.
Coconut tree and Jowar stalk plant
Answer:
Differences:

Coconut tree	Jowar stalk plant
i. It is tall and has a thick stem	i. It is small and has a thin stem.
ii. It has strong root system.	ii. It has weak root system.
iii. Each and every part of tree is useful.	iii. Only seeds are useful.

Similarities:

1. Both are from same kingdom plantae.
2. Both are autotrophic.
3. Both are monocotyledonous plants.

4. Explain the following images in your own words.

Question a.

Answer:

1. Diagram A is of maize seed. It is a monocotyledonous seed and does not divide into two equal parts. The plant has fibrous root system.
2. Diagram B is of bean seed. It is a dicotyledonous seed and it divides into two equal parts. The plant has tap root system.

5. Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.

Question a.
Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.
Answer:
The functions of various parts of a plant are as below.
1. Root: (a) Fixation: It anchors the plant body to the soil, so helps in fixation, (b) Absorption: It absorbs water and nutrients from the soil, so helps in absorption, (c) Conduction: The root translocates water and mineral salts into the stem. (d) Storage: A certain amount of food is stored in the root which is utilized as it grows.
(e) Preventing soil erosion: It helps to bind the soil particles and prevent them from being blown away by wind or water.
2. Stem: (a) It supports and holds leaves, flower and fruits, (b) The stem conducts the water and minerals from roots to leaves and fruits, (c) It stores the food.
3. Leaves: (a) It synthesizes food for the plant, (b) Stomata, the tiny openings in the leaf help in gaseous exchange and are responsible for the process of transpiration.
4. Flower: It helps in pollination.
5. Fruit: (a) It protects the seed, (b) It helps in seed dispersal.
6. Seed: A new plant develops from it.

6. Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.

Question a.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
leaves with smooth surface, leaves with rough surface, fleshy leaf, spines on leaf.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Ci/cas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

7. Find the plant parts.

Question a.

Answer:

ROOT, ROOT CAP, ROOT HAIR, BUD, PETALS, STEM, RADICLE, FLOWER, LEAF, VEIN, CALYX, NODE, OVUM.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Activity:

Sketch various types of leaves in Paintbrush on the computer and save the sketches in a folder of your own name.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Important Questions and Answers

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Fill in the blanks:

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
The part that grows from inside the seed towards the soil is called the …………….. .
Answer:
radicle

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Question 2.
The part that grows above the soil from the seed is called the …………….. .
Answer:
plumule

Plants Structure And Function Question And Answer Question 3.
The part of the plant growing below the soil from radicle for support is called …………….. .
Answer:
root

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Exercise Question 4.
The …………….. protects the root-tip from injuries.
Answer:
root cap

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Question 5.
Roots bearing hair like processes near the root tips are called …………….. .
Answer:
root hairs

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Question 6.
Thread-like or fibre like roots arising from the stem are called ……………. .
fibrous roots

Question 7.
The stem grows above the soil from the …………….. of the sprouting seed.
Answer:
plumule

Question 8.
Leaves come out at the …………….. .
Answer:
nodes

Question 9.
The part of the stem between two nodes is called …………….. .
Answer:
inter node

Question 10.
The tip or the apical end of the stem is called a …………….. .
Answer:
bud

Question 11.
The broad, spread out part of the leaf is called the …………….. or …………….. .
Answer:
leaf blade, lamina

Question 12.
The tip of the leaf is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf apex

Question 13.
Leaves of some plants have a stalk called a …………….. .
Answer:
petiole

Question 14.
The portion of the leaf attached to the stem is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf base

Question 15.
Small leaf like structures near the leaf base is called …………….. .
Answer:
stipides

Question 16.
Flowers may have a long or a short stalk called …………….. .
Answer:
pedicel

Question 17.
One end of the pedicel is attached to the …………….. .
Answer:
stem

Question 18.
…………….. is a male reproductive organ of the flower.
Answer:
Androecium

Question 19.
…………….. is a female reproductive organ of the
Answer:
gynoecium

Question 20.
Androecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
stamens

Question 21.
Gynoecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
carpels

Question 22.
Seeds which get divided into two equal parts are called …………….. seeds.
Answer:
dicotyledonous

Question 23.
Seeds which do not divide into two equal parts are …………….. called seeds.
Answer:
monocotyledonous

Question 24.
Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the …………….. .
Answer:
receptacle

Question 25.
Sepals are …………….. in colour.
Answer:
green.

Match the columns:

Question  1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Peepal	a. carpels
2. Maize	b. stamen
3. Androecium	c. parallel venation
4. Gynoecium	d. reticulate venation

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Peepal	d. reticulate venation
2. Maize	c. parallel venation
3. Androecium	b. stamen
4. Gynoecium	a. carpels

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column B’
1. Tap roots	a. stem
2. Fibrous roots	b. root
3. Radicle	c. monocotyledonous plants
4. Plumule	d. dicotyledonous plants

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column B’
1. Tap roots	d. dicotyledonous plants
2. Fibrous roots	c. monocotyledonous plants
3. Radicle	b. root
4. Plumule	a. stem

Question 3.

Column A’	Column B’
1. Leaf-tip	a. petiole
2. Edge of leaf blade	b. leaf margin
3. Portion of leaf attached to stem	c. lamina
4. Stalk of leaf	d. leaf apex
	e. leaf base

Answer:

Column A’	Column B’
1. Leaf-tip	d. leaf apex
2. Edge of leaf blade	b. leaf margin
3. Portion of leaf attached to stem	e. leaf base
4. Stalk of leaf	a. petiole

Say whether True or False Correct and rewrite the false statements:

Question 1.
Stem grows from radicle.
Answer:
False. Stem grows from the Plumule

Question 2.
Leaf margins may be entire, dentate or lobed.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The leaf blade of leaves in some plants is divided into many small parts called leaflets.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Maize plant has reticulate venation.
Answer:
False. Maize plant has parallel venation

Question 5.
A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
A stamen is made up of nodes and internodes.
Answer:
False. A stamen is made up of anther filament

Question 7.
The ovary develops into a fruit.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Fertilized ovules form the seeds.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
A mango fruit contains many seeds.
Answer:
False. A mango fruit contains only one seed

Question 10.
A fruit like cashew have seed outside the fruit.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Leaves of some plants do not have a petiole.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The peepal leaf has parallel venation.
Answer:
False. It has reticulate venation.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Pea, Moong, maize, groundnut
Answer:
Maize – Its seed is monocotyledonous, while others have dicotyledonous seeds.

Question 2.
Cashew, apple, mango, chikoo
Answer:
Cashew – Its seed is outside the fruit, others have internal seeds.

Question 3.
Stigma, anther, style, ovary
Answer:
Anther – It is a part of androecium, while others are a part of gynoecium.

Question 4.
Petiole, vein, calyx, apex
Answer:
Calyx – It is a part of flower, whereas others are parts of leaf.

Question 5.
Aerial, stilt, runner, lobed
Answer:
Lobed – It is a type of leaf margin, while others are types of modified roots.

Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen fixing bacteria.

Question 2.
What are called prop roots?
Answer:
Roots emerging from the trunk and branches of a banyan tree grow towards the soil. These roots are called prop roots.

Question 3.
What is called reticulate venation?
Answer:

1. A leaf is divided into two equal parts by a single mid-vein which lies along the midline of the leaf blade.
2. Secondary veins arise from the mid-vein. They are branched and form a network or reticulum. Such a type of venation is called reticulate venation.

Question 4.
What is called parallel venation?
Answer:
In a leaf all the veins are parallel, running from the leaf base to the leaf apex. Such a venation is called parallel venation.

Question 5.
What is pollination?
Answer:
After maturity, anthers burst and the pollen grains which are released fall on the stigma. This process is called pollination.

Question 6.
Why are the underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato thick, fleshy and swollen? Which parts of the plant are they?
Answer:
The underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato are thick, fleshy and swollen because they store food in the form of starch. These are the root part of the plant.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Tap roots and fibrous roots.
Answer:

Tap roots	Fibrous roots
1. Roots of some plants produce secondary roots that grow obliquely and spread far and wide in the soil. This type of root is called a tap root.	1. Thread like or fibre roots arising from the stem are called fibrous roots.
2. It is found in dicotyledonous plant.	2.  It is found in monocotyle-donous plant.

Question 2.
Dicotyledonous seeds and monocotyledonous seeds.
Answer:

Dicotyledonous seeds	Monocotyledonous seeds
1. Seeds which get divided into two equal parts are called dicotyledonous seeds.	1. Seeds which do not divide into two equal parts are called monocotyledonous seeds.
2. Dicotyledonous seeded plants have tap root system.	2. Monocotyledonous seeded plants have fibrous root system.

Draw neat and labelled diagram for the following:

Question 1.
Tap root
Answer:

Question 2.
Parts of a leaf.
Answer:

Question 3.
Parts of stem
Answer:

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Cycas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

Use your brainpower!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What would have happened if plants like tamarind, banyan and mango had fibrous roots?
Answer:
If plants like banyan, mango, tamarind had fibrous roots they would get uprooted and fall even with a little strong wind as the roots would not be able to support and anchor the trees firmly.

Question 2.
What will happen if the root-tip is injured?
Answer:

1. Root cap helps the root to grow downward It protects the sensitive part of the root and eases the movement of the root through the soil.
2. Injury of the root tip causes the root to grow randomly and it also may lead to injury of the sensitive part of the root.

Question 3.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Question 4.
Of what use to a plant are the insects flitting about around its flowers?
Answer:

1. The insects try to suck the nectar from the flowers and in that process the pollen grains stick to their legs.
2. When they sit on another flower the pollen grain stick to the stigma and the pollination takes place. Thus, these insects help in the pollination.

Observe the figure and answer the questions given.

1.

Question a.
What is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The picture shows the arrangement of leaves on the stem.

Question b.
What arrangement is shown in (A), (B), and (C)?
Answer:
(A) Alternate (B) Opposite (C) Whorled

2.

Question a.
Lable parts 1 to 6.
Answer:

1. Gynoecium or carpel
2. Corolla
3. Androecium (Stamen)
4. Ovary
5. Corolla
6. Pedicel

Question b.
Name the female reproductive part.
Answer:
Gynoecium

Question c.
Name the colourful part of the flower.
Answer:
Corolla

Question d.
Which part develops into fruit?
Answer:
Ovary

Question e.
Which pa pollination?
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of flower is called pollination.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Classify according to food-type.
Tiger, cow, vulture, bacteria, deer, goat, human, fungus, lion, sparrow, buffalo, frog, cockroach, tick.
Answer:

• Carnivores: tiger, Lion
• Herbivores: cow, deer, goat, buffalo
• Scavengers: vulture
• Decomposers: fungus, bacteria
• Granivores: sparrow
• Insectivores: frog Parasitic: tick
• Omnivores: human, cockroach

2. Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Match the pairs.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Question Answer Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Parasitic plant	a. Mushroom
2. Parasitic plant	b. Lichen
3. Saprophytic plant	c. Drosera
4. Symbiotic plant	d. Cuscuta

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Parasitic plant	d. Cuscuta
2. Parasitic plant	c. Drosera
3. Saprophytic plant	a. Mushroom
4. Symbiotic plant	b. Lichen

3. Answer the following questions in your words. 

Question a.
Why do living organisms need nutrition?
Answer:
Living organisms need nutrition due to the following: (a) To supply the energy required for doing work, (b) For growth and development of the body, (c) To replace the damaged cells and repair tissues, (d) To fight diseases.

Question b.
Explain the process of production of food in plants.
Answer:
1. Green plants can produce their own food. With the help of sunlight and chlorophyll, plants make their own food in their leaves, using water and nutrients from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air.

2. This process is called as photosynthesis. In this process plants give out oxygen and take in carbon dioxide.

Question c.
What is meant by parasitic plants? Name their different types with examples of each.
Answer:
The plants that grow on the body of other plants to obtain food are called as parasitic plants.

There are two types of parasitic plants:

• Holoparasites: e.g. Rafflesiaceae
• Hemiparasites: e.g. Loranthaceae

Question d.
Explain the various steps of nutrition in animals.
Answer:
Steps of nutrition in animals are as follows:

1. Ingestion: Food is taken into the body.
2. Digestion: Conversion of food into simple soluble forms.
3. Absorption: Transfer of soluble food to the blood.
4. Assimilation: Utilization of absorbed food by cells and tissues for energy production, growth and repair.
5. Egestion: Removal of waste products and undigested food from body.

Question e.
Name some unicellular organisms in which all life processes take place within their unicellular body.
Answer:
Unicellular organisms like amoeba, euglena, paramoecium in which all life processes take place within their unicellular body.

4. Give reasons.

Question a.

Insectivorous plants are attractively coloured.
Answer:

1. Insectivorous plants generally grow in soil or water deficient in nitrogen compounds.
2. The plant body of the Drosera burmanii has a flower like appearance. It grows close to the ground. Even its leaves are attractively pink or red in colour with hairs at the margin.
3. Droplets of a sticky substances found on tips of the hairs attract insects.
4. These plants consume insects to fulfill their need for nitrogen. To attract the insects these plants are attractively coloured.

Question b.
Butterflies have a long tube-like proboscis.
Answer:
Holozoic mode of nutrition means the feeding of solid and liquid food by animals. Butterflies live on nectar from flowers. Therefore to suck the nectar from flowers, they have a long tube-like structure called proboscis.

5. Prepare and complete the flowchart according to type of nutrition.

Question a.
Prepare and complete the flowchart according to type of nutrition.

Answer:

6. Think and answer.

Question a.
We prepare a variety of foodstuffs and dishes at home. Are we then autotrophic organisms?
Answer:

1. We prepare a variety of foodstuffs and dishes at home but we are not autotrophic organisms.
2. In autotrophic organisms they have chlorophyll in their body and food is prepared here with help of sunlight, water and CO₂ for the organisms.
3. But the food which we prepare at home is not generated in our body.

Question b.
Which organisms are greater in number – autotrophs or heterotrophs? Why?
Answer:

1. Autotrophs have chlorophyll in the cell and here the organic food is prepared using sunlight, water and CO₂.
2. They do not depend on any other organism for survival.
3. But the heterotrophs depend on autotrophs and other organisms for survival. Hence autotrophs are more in number than heterotrophs.

Question c.
The number of heterotrophs found in desert regions is smaller. However, they are found in greater numbers in the sea. Why is this so?
Answer:

1. In desert region due to scarcity of water and excess heat, very few cactus are found as autotrophs compared to sea. As autotrophs are less, number of heterotrophs dependent on autotrophs are smaller.
2. Whereas in sea due to greater numbers of autotrophs, greater number of heterotrophs are found.

Question d.
What damage or harm do ectoparasitic and endoparasitic animals cause?
Answer:

1. Ectoparasitic animals suck the blood of the animal on which it remains and endoparasitic animals get readymade food from the body of animal in which it remain.
2. This way both the parasites make the animal weak by sucking their blood or by eating prepared food from them.

Question e.
Why is plant food not produced in any other parts of the plant except the green ones?
Answer:
Plant food is not produced in any other parts of the plant except the green ones because only green part contains chlorophyll and chlorophyll is very necessary for the production of food.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Project:

Question 1.
Many heterotrophic organisms live on one and the same plant. Observe one such plant in your neighborhood and find out about the heterotrophs that depend upon it for their food. Observe and make flotes about other organisms that use these heterotrophs as their food.

Question 2.
Prepare a Power point presentation on the topic ‘Nutrition in Living Organisms’.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Important Questions and Answers

Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Fill in the blanks.

Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Question 1.
Leaves have microscopic openings called ……………. .
Answer:
Stomata

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Question 2.
In the process of photosynthesis plants take in ……………. and ……………. gas is given out.
Answer:
Carbondioxide, oxygen

Question 3.
The ……………. transports minerals and water from roots to all aerial parts of the plant.
Answer:
xylem

Question 4.
The ……………. transports the food from the leaves to other parts of the plant.
Answer:
phloem

Question 5.
Plants produce ……………. by the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Carbohydrates

Question 6.
……………. are made from carbon, hydrogen, oxygen.
Answer:
Carbohydrates

Question 7.
……………. are made from carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
proteins

Question 8.
……………. plants contain rhizobium micro-organisms.
Answer:
leguminous

Question 9.
Micro-organisms like ……………. are present in soil.
Answer:
azotobacter

Question 10.
Lichen is of a symbiosis between ……………. and ……………. .
Answer:
algae, fungi

Question 11.
The scientist ……………. identified Drosera plant in Sri Lanka in 1737.
Answer:
Johannes Burman

Question 12.
Fungi like mushroom and yeast are ……………. .
Answer:
saprophytes

Question 13.
Removal of waste products and undigested food from the body is called …………….
Answer:
Egestion

Question 14.
Amoeba moves with the help of ……………. .
Answer:
pseudopodia

Question 15.
Butterflies suck food with a tube like ……………. .
Answer:
proboscis

Question 16.
The ……………. or ……………. is an ant eating animal found in India.
Answer:
bobcat, udmanjar

Question 17.
Seed eating animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
granivores

Question 18.
Fruit eating animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
frugivores

Question 19.
Animals that obtain their food from both plants and animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
Omnivores

Question 20.
Roundworms are known as ……………. .
Answer:
endoparasites

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Endoparasite	a. Vulture
2. Ectoparasite	b. Human
3. Seed eating animals	c. Tapeworm
4. Fruit eating animals	d. Bed bug
5. Scavenger	e. granivores
6. Omnivore	f. frugivores

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Endoparasite	c. Tapeworm
2. Ectoparasite	d. Bed bug
3. Seed eating animals	e. granivores
4. Fruit eating animals	f. frugivores
5. Scavenger	a. Vulture
6. Omnivore	b. Human

Say whether true or false, correct and rewrite the false statements.

Question 1.
Bed bug is an example of endoparasitic nutrition.
Answer:
False, Bed bug is an example of ectoparasitic nutrition

Question 2.
Spider shows saprozoic nutrition.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The anteater is found in India.
Answer:
False. The anteater is found in Central and South America

Question 4.
Yellowing of leaves occur due to deficiency of iron.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Mushroom is used in making bread.
Answer:
False. Yeast is used in making bread

Question 6.
Cuscuta is completely a parasitic plant.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The nitrogen dioxide dissolves in rainwater and is converted into nitric acid.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Micro-organism Rhizobium is found in soil.
Answer:
False. Micro-organism Azotobacter is found in soil.

Question 9.
Fixation of nitrogen occurs by biological and atmospheric methods.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
The chloroplasts present in the leaves contain chlorophyll.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
Decomposers obtain their food from living organisms.
Answer:
False, They obtain their food by decomposing the dead bodies of organisms or other materials

Question 12.
Carbondixode is given out during the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
False, Oxygen is given out during the process of photosynthesis

Question 13.
Phloem transports the food from leaves to other parts of the plant.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Carbohydrates are made up of carbon, hydrogen oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
False, Protein are made up of carbon, hydrogen, Oxygen and nitrogen.

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
Micro-organisms like Rhizobium are useful.
Answer:

1. Rhizobium micro-organisms are useful because plants cannot take gaseous nitrogen from air.
2. These micro-organisms absorb atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into its nitrate, a compound which is useful for plant.

Question 2.
Lichen is an example of a symbiotic nutrition.
Answer:
Lichen is a symbiosis between algae and fungi in which fungi provides water, minerals, as well as shelter to algae and in return the algae Master Key General Science (Std. 7), provide food to the fungi. So Lichen, is an example of symbiotic nutrition.

Question 3.
Drosera burmanii is an insectivorous plant.
Answer:
Drosera burmanii grows in a soil which has nitrogen deficiency. It feeds upon insects to obtain nitrogen, so it is an insectivorous plant.

Question 4.
Human is an omnivore.
Answer:
Humans obtain their food from both, plants and animals so human is an omnivore.

Question 5.
Tapeworm is an endoparasite.
Answer:
Tapeworm lives inside the body of other animals and obtain its food. So tapeworm is an endoparasite.

Question 6.
Decomposers are important for the ecosystem
Answer:
Decomposers feed on dead and decaying matter and therefore indirectly clean the ecosystem. If decomposers were not there then nutrients would not be able to return back and get recycled. Therefore decomposers are very important for the ecosystem.

Question 7.
Cuscuta is a total parasite while Loranthus is a partial parasite.
Answer:
Cuscuta is a nongreen yellow thread-like plant completely dependent on the host plant, loranthus is a partial parasitic because it can prepare its own food and it only takes water and minerals from the host plant.

Answer the following in your own words:

Question 1.

Classify the types of nutrients.
Answer:
There are two types of nutrients.

1. Nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins and fats are required in large quantity. These are macro-nutrients.
2. Minerals and vitamins are required in very small quantity. They are called micro-nutrients.

Question 2.
Explain the types of nutrition.
Answer:
There are two types of nutrition.

1. Some organisms can produce their own food and thus nourish themselves. This is called autotrophic nutrition.
2. Some organisms depend on other organisms, plants and animals for their food. This is called heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 3.
Write differences between xylem and phloem.
Answer:

xylem	Phloem
1.  The xylem transports minerals and water from the root to all aerial parts of the plant.	1. The phloem transports the food (glucose) from the leaves to other parts of the plant where it is either consumed or stored.

Question 4.
What is chemosynthesis? Which plants produce their food by chemosynthesis?
Answer:

1. Chemosynthesis is the biological conversion of one or more carbon-containing molecules and nutrients into organic matter.
2. It uses the oxidation of inorganic compounds or methane as a source of energy rather than sunlight.
3. Sulphur bacteria and nitrosomonas produce their food by chemosynthesis.

Question 5.
Name the micro-organisms which help in biological fixation of nitrogen. How?
Answer:
Two different types of micro-organisms can bring about biological nitrogen fixation.

1. Root-nodules of leguminous plants contain the micro-organism rhizobium. These micro-organisms absorb atmospheric nitrogen and convert if into its nitrate, a compound.
2. Micro-organisms like azotobacter are’present in soil. They also convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates.

Question 6.
What is symbiotic nutrition? Give one example of it.
Answer:

1. Two or more than two different types of plant live together to fulfill their needs of nutrition, protection, support etc. with each other’s help. This type of nutrition is called symbiotic nutrition.
2. e.g. Lichen is an example of symbiosis between algae and fungi.

Question 7.
Write about Drosera burmanii.
Answer:

1. It is art insectivorous plant.
2. The scientist Johannes Burman identified this plant in Sri Lanka in 1737. Hence, the plant is named after him.
3. It grows close to the ground.
4. Its leaves are attractively pink or red in colour with hairs at the margin.
5. Droplets of a sticky substance found at the tips of the hairs attract insects.
6. It grows in a place where deficiency of nitrogen in the soil. To get nitrogen for its growth, it eats insects.

Question 8.
What are called saprophytic plants? Give Examples.
Answer:
Plants which obtain the food from dead and decaying bodies of other organisms are called saprophytic plants e.g. Yeast and mushrooms.

Question 9.
Classify the animals according to the type of food they eat.
microbes, vulture, monkey, tiger, lion, goat, cow, buffalo, crow, hyena, human, chimpanzee
Answer:

• Herbivores: goat, cow, buffalo.
• Carnivores: tiger, lion
• Omnivores: monkey, human, chimpanzee
• Scavengers: vulture, crow, hyena
• Decomposers: microbes

Explain the terms:

1. Herbivores: Animals that depend on plants only for their food are called Herbivores.
2. Carnivores: Animals that depend on other animals for their food are called Carnivores.
3. Granivores: Animals that eat grains (seed) are called Granivores.
4. Frugivores: Animals that eat fruits are called frugivores.
5. Omnivores: Animals that obtain their food from both plants and animals are called omnivores.
6. Scavengers: Animals that obtain their food from dead bodies of animals are called Scavengers.
7. Decomposers: Microbes which obtain their food by decomposing the dead bodies of organisms or other materials are called decomposers.
8. Ectoparasitic nutrition: Some animals live on the body surface of other animals and obtain their food by sucking their blood. This is called ectoparasitic nutrition.
9. Endoparasitic nutrition: Some animals live inside the body of other animals and obtain their food. This is called endoparasitic nutrition.
10. Symbiotic nutrition: In some cases, two or more than two different types of plants live together to fulfill their needs of nutrition, protection, support etc. with each other’s help. This type of nutrition is called symbiotic nutrition.

Write the role of different nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium,magnesium, Iron, manganese and zinc and effects of their deficiency on plants.

Question 1.
Write the role of different nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, magnesium, Iron, manganese and zinc and effects of their deficiency on plants.
Answer:
Role of nutrients and effects of their deficiency on plants:

Nutrients	Function	Effects of deficiency
Nitrogen	Important components of proteins, chlorophyll and cytoplasm.	Retarded/stunted growth, yellowing of leaves.
Phosphorus	Conversion of light energy into chemical energy.	Early leaf-fail, late flowering, slow growth of roots.
Potassium	Necessary for metabolic activities.	Weak stem, wilting of leaves, failure to produce carbohydrates.
Magnesium	Production of chlorophyll	Slow/retarded growth, yellowing of leaves.
Iron	Production of chlorophyll	Yellowing of leaves
Manganese	Production of main plant hormones	Retarded growth, spotted leaves
Zinc	Production of hormones and their intermediates	Retarded growth, yellowing of leaves

Can you tell?

Answer the following question: 

Question 1.
How does ingestion occur in unicellular animals like amoeba?
Answer:

1. Amoeba does not have organs like hands and mouth.
2. It is a unicellular animal. It can take in food through any part of the surface of its unicellular body.
3. It surrounds the food particle from all sides to take it into the cell.
4. After that it digests the food with the help of different enzymes.
5. Undigested food is left behind as the amoeba moves further with the help of pseudopodia.
6. In unicellular animals like amoeba, euglena, paramoecium,. etc. all the steps of nutrition occur within their unicellular body.

Question 2.
How do plants produce their own food?
Answer:
Green plants produce their own food with the help of sunlight, chlorophyll, water, nutrients from soil and carbon dioxide from the air. This process is called as photosynthesis

Use your brain power!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write the uses of yeast and mushrooms.
Answer:
Yeast is used in fermentation processes and making bread.
Mushrooms are a rich source of vitamins and iron.

Question 2.i
Which part of the loranthus plant carries out photosynthesis?
Answer:
Leaves of the loranthus plant carries out photosynthesis.

Question 2.ii
From where do they obtain minerals and water?
Answer:
They obtain water and minerals from the xylem and phloem of the other host plant.

Question 2.iii
Why is loranthus known as a partially parasitic plant?
Answer:
Loranthus is known as partially parasitic plant because it does photosynthesis with the help of leaves but only for water and minerals it depends on other plants.

Question 3.
Why does the pitcher plant feed on insects even though it produces food by photosynthesis?
Answer:
Pitcher plants grow in a place where soil has deficiency of nitrogen compounds so to fulfill the need of nitrogen they feed on insects.

Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

Question a.
Name the process shown in the picture.
Answer:
The process shown is photosynthesis.

Question b.
Which type of plants use the above process for their nutrition?
Answer:
Autotrophic plants (green plants) use the above process for their nutrition.

Question c.
What is the pigment in the leaf that helps in the above process?
Answer:
Chlorophyll

Question d.
Give the chemical equation of the above process?
Answer:

Question e.
What is the importance of this process to living things?
Answer:
Photosynthesis helps the plants to prepare their own food and also store it in their plant bodies. Animals depend upon this stored food for their nutrition.
During photosynthesis, oxygen is given out which is important for all living organisms for respiration.

Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

Question a.
What is shown in the picture?
Answer:
Roots of leguminous plants having root nodules.

Question b.
What is the importance of these types of plants?
Answer:
These types of plants help to provide nitrogen to the soil.

Question c.
What is the process called?
Answer:
Biological Nitrogen fixation

Question d.
Explain the process.
Answer:
Root nodules of leguminous plants contain Rhizobium micro-organisms. These micro¬organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates. Thus the soil becomes rich in nitrogen.