Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.1 Animals

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.1 Animals Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 2.1 Animals

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.1 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Get into pairs and attempt the following :
“The more I learn about people, the more I like my dog.”- Mark Twain. – Discuss with your partner what Mark Twain means from the above quote.

Write in your own words
…………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………..
Answer:
‘The more I learn about people, the more I like my dog. – Mark Twain.

Ely the above quote, Mark Twain means that his dog has certain qualities which he finds lacking in human beings. Each day, as he comes across different people and learns more about human nature, the feeling grows within him that humans possess many disagreeable qualities that do not help in improving relationships. As a result, he begins to love his dog more than human beings.

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Question 2.
Put the following attributes/abilities given below in the proper circles.
(a) self-control
(b) communicates
(c) love and care
(d) cooks
(e) good manners
(f) has 3600 vision
(g) shows gratitude
(h) lives for more than 150 years
(i) swims
(j) learns computing
(k) worships god
(l) sleeps in standing position
(m) stands up immediately after birth
(n) brings up children
(o) belongs to various species
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.1 Animals 1
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.1 Animals 2

Question 3.
At times, especially when you are frustrated, you wish you were an animal/ a bird/ a fish/ a butterfly and not a human being.

Say which of the above you would choose to transform to and give 3 or 4 reasons for your choice.
I wish I could be a ………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………….
Answer:
When I am frustrated, I wish I could be a bird, so I could fly away from the cause of frustration. At such times, I would like to be far from the noise and crowd on earth and sail in silence across the sky. I would prefer to concentrate on my own thoughts and regain my peace, and the best place for that would be the vast open sky. Flapping my wings would keep me active and busy and help me forget about my worries.

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Question 4.
We come across many animals in our vicinity. We have also read about different animals in books. Make a list of all animals that fall under various categories. One is given for you.

Amphibians Mammals Wild Animals Aquatic Animals Pet Animals
frog cow lion octopus cat

Answer:

Amphibians Mammals Wild Animals Aquatic Animals Pet Animals
frog cow lion octopus cat
toad bat tiger crocodile dog
salamander squirrel bear alligator guinea pig
caecilian mongoose wolf hippopotamus gold fish
cheetah turtle
leopard
monkey

Animals Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
(A) Match the words given in table A with their meanings in table B.

No (A) Words (B) Meaning
(i) whine (a) an offense against the religious or moral law
(ii) sin (b) complain in an annoying way
(iii) evince (c) craze
(iv) mania (d) failing to take proper care
(v) negligent (e) show

Answer:

No (A) Words (B) Meanings
(i) whine (b) complain in an annoying way
(ii) sin (a) an offense against the religious or moral law
(iii) evince (e) show
(iv) mania (c) mental illness
(v) negligent (d) failing to take proper care

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(B) Find adjectives from the poem which refer to positive and negative thinking

Positive Negative
1……………………………. 1…………………………….
2……………………………. 2…………………………….
3……………………………. 3…………………………….

Answer:

Positive Negative
(1) placid (1) dissatisfied
(2) self-contained (2) demented
(3) unhappy

Question 2.
Complete the following.
(a) The poet wishes he could ……………………………….
(b) Animals do not complain about ……………………………….
(c) Animals do not merely discuss ……………………………….
(d) Animals are not crazy about ……………………………….
Answer:
(a) The poet wishes he could turn and live with animals.
(b) Animals do not complain about their condition.
(c) Animals do not merely discuss their duty to God.
(d) Animals are not crazy about owning things.

Question 3.
State whether the following statements are true or false.
(a) Animals are self-reliant. ……………………………….
(b) Animals quarrel for their possessions. ……………………………….
(c) Animals do not worship other animals. ……………………………….
(d) Humans have given up many good qualities. ……………………………….
(e) Animals suffer humiliation. ……………………………….
(f) The poet has retained all his natural virtues. ……………………………….
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True
(d) True
(e) False
(f) False

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Question 4.
With the help of the poem find the differences between animals and human beings.

Human beings Animals
Always complain about their condition Never complain about anything
………………………………….
………………………………….
………………………………….
………………………………….

Answer:

Human Beings Animals
Always complain about their condition. Never complain about their condition.
Spend sleepless nights regretting their sins. Don’t regret their sins at all.
Sicken others by discussing their duty to God. Do not discuss their duty to God.
Always dissatisfied. Always contented.
Crazy about acquiring possessions. Never interested in owning things.
Worship other human beings. Never worship anyone of their kind.
Always unhappy about earthly matters. Unconcerned about earthly matters.

Question 5.
Read the text again, and complete the web, highlighting the good values/habits which we can learn from animals.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 2.1 Animals 3

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Question 6.
Find outlines from the poem that are examples of the following Figures of Speech.

Figures of Speech Lines
Repetition …………………………
Alliteration …………………………
Hyperbole …………………………

Answer:

Figures of Speech Lines
Repetition I stand and look at them long and long They do not sweat and whine …
They do not he awake …
They do not make …
Not one is dissatisfied, not one is demented …
Alliteration Not one is dissatisfied, not one is demented …
… they evince them plainly in their possession.
Hyperbole … Not one is respectable or unhappy over the whole earth.

Question 7.
Identify the Figures of Speech in the following lines.
(a) I stand and look at them long and long.
………………………………………………………………..

(b) They do not sweat and whine about their condition.
………………………………………………………………..

(c) They do not make me sick discussing their duty to God.
………………………………………………………………..

(d) …… not one is demented with the mania of owning things.
………………………………………………………………..

(e) They bring me tokens of myself.
………………………………………………………………..

(f) No one is respectable or unhappy over the whole earth.
………………………………………………………………..
Answer:
(a) Repetition
(b) Tautology
(c) Alliteration
(d) Hyperbole
(e) Paradox
(f) Hyperbole

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Question 8.
Read the poem again and write an appreciation of the poem in a paragraph format with the help of given points. (Refer to page no. 5)
Answer:
Point Format
(for understanding)
The title of the poem : Animals’
The poet : Walt Whitman
Rhyme scheme : free verse (no rhyme scheme)
Figures of speech : Repetition, Alliteration. Tautology, Hyperbole, etc.
The theme/central idea : Animals are better than humans.

Paragraph Format
The poem ‘Animals’ has been penned by Walt Whitman.

The poet has broken away from the conventional use of a rhyme scheme and has written the poem in free verse.

The chief figure of speech used in the poem is Repetition. Lines such as ‘They do not sweat …’. ‘They do not lie awake …’. ‘They do not make me sick …’ make a strong impact, expressing the qualities that humans should possess, but do not. The other figures of speech are Alliteration, Tautology, Hyperbole, etc.

The central idea of the poem is that animals today are better than humans

Question 9.
Divide the class into two groups. One group should offer points in favor of (views) and the other against (counterviews) the topic ‘Life of an animal is better than that of a human being.’

Later use the points to express your own views/counterviews in paragraph format in your notebook.
Answer:
Point Format

View Counterview
Animals are placid and self-contained. Animals cannot improve their lot in life.
Animals do not try to set targets or achieve goals. Humans do. By setting targets, goals are achieved.
Animals do not complain about their condition. It is only by complaining that one comes to know how things can be improved.
Animals are self-satisfied with their condition, whatever it be. Humans continuously try to improve their living conditions.
Animals do not worship other things or animals or persons as gods. Animals have no idea about God. Humans acknowledge a divine Creator.
Animals do not worry about possessions or earthly matters. Animals have no care about the future of this planet. Humans do.

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Question 10.
What craze do animals never display?
Answer:
Animals never display the craze of owning things.

Question 11.
What could have happened to the tokens of the poet’s self?
Answer:
The tokens of the poet’s self might have been lost from the time man resorted to manipulating nature and considered himself apart from it.

Question 12.
What does the poet mean by ‘They bring me tokens of myself?
Answer:
By ‘They bring me tokens of myself the poet means that animals possess and express visible signs of qualities such as innocence and simplicity that he himself (i.e. all human beings) must have possessed.

Question 13.
Give one example of a Rhetorical Question from the poem. Explain.
Answer:
Did I pass that way huge times ago and negligently drop them?
The poet uses a question to assert that we human beings unmindfully discarded the good qualities that we possessed somewhere along the line.

Maharashtra Board 10th Class Maths Part 1 Problem Set 6 Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Maths Solutions covers the Problem Set 6 Algebra 10th Class Maths Part 1 Answers Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics.

Problem Set 6 Algebra 10th Std Maths Part 1 Answers Chapter 6 Statistics

10th Geometry Problem Set 6 Question 1.
Find the correct answer from the alternatives given.

i. The persons of O – blood group are 40%. The classification of persons based on blood groups is to be shown by a pie diagram. What should be the measures of angle for the persons of O – blood group?
(A) 114°
(B) 140°
(C) 104°
(D) 144°
Answer:
Measure of the central angle = \(\frac { 40 }{ 100 } \) × 360° = 144°
(D)

ii. Different expenditures incurred on the construction of a building were shown by a pie diagram. The expenditure of ₹ 45,000 on cement was shown by a sector of central angle of 75°. What was the total expenditure of the construction?
(A) 2,16,000
(B) 3,60,000
(C) 4,50,000
(D) 7,50,000
Answer:
Measure of the central angle = \(\frac{\text { Expenditure of cement }}{\text { Total expenditure }} \times 360^{\circ}\)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 1
(A)

iii. Cumulative frequencies in a grouped frequency table are useful to find.
(A) Mean
(B) Median
(C) Mode
(D) All of these
Answer:
(B)

iv. The formula to find mean from a grouped frequency table is \(\overline{\mathrm{X}}=\mathrm{A}+\frac{\sum f_{i} u_{i}}{\sum f_{i}} \times g\)
in the formula ui = _________.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 2
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 3
(C)

v.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 4
The median of the distances covered per litre shown in the above data is in the group
(A) 12 – 14
(B) 14 – 16
(C) 16 – 18
(D) 18 – 20
Answer:
(C)

vi.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 5
The above data is to be shown by a frequency polygon. The coordinates of the points to show number of students in the class 4 – 6 are.
(A) (4, 8)
(B) (3,5)
(C) (5,8)
(D) (8,4)
Answer:
Class mark = 5
Frequency = 8
∴ Co-ordinates of the point = (5, 8)
(C)

Statistics Problem Set 6 Question 2.
The following table shows the income of farmers in a grape season. Find the mean of their income.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 6
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 7
∴ The mean of the income of the farmers is ₹ 52,500.

Statistics Problem Set Question 3.
The loans sanctioned by a bank for construction of farm ponds are shown in the following table. Find the mean of the loans.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 8
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 9
∴ The mean of the loans given by the bank is ₹ 65,400.

Question 4.
The weekly wages of 120 workers in a factory are shown in the following frequency distribution table. Find the mean of the weekly wages.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 10
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 11
∴ The mean of the weekly wages of the workers is ₹ 4250.

Problem Set 6 Algebra Class 9 Question 5.
The following frequency distribution table shows the amount of aid given to 50 flood affected families. Find the mean of the amount of aid.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 12
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 13
∴ The mean of the amount of aid given to families is ₹ 72,400.
[Note: The above problems are solved using direct method. Students can solve these problems by using other method.]

Problem Set 6 Algebra Class 10 Question 6.
The distances covered by 250 public transport buses in a day is shown in the following frequency distribution table. Find the median of the distances.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 14
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 15
Cumulative frequency which is just greater than (or equal) to 125 is 180.
∴ The median class is 220 – 230.
Now, L = 220, f = 80, cf = 100, h = 10
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 16
∴ The median of the distances is 223.13 km (approx.).

Algebra 10th Class Problem Set 6 Question 7.
The prices of different articles and demand for them is shown in the following frequency distribution table. Find the median of the prices.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 17
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 18
Cumulative frequency which is just greater than (or equal) to 200 is 240.
∴ The median class is 20 – 40.
Now,L = 20, f = 100,cf = 140, h = 20
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 19
∴ The median of the prices of different articles is ₹ 32.

10th Algebra Problem Set 6 Question 8.
The following frequency table shows the demand for a sweet and the number of customers. Find the mode of demand of sweet.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 20
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 21
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 22
∴ The mode of the demand of sweet is 397.06 grams.

Question 9.
Draw a histogram for the following frequency distribution.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 23
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 24

Question 10.
In a handloom factory different workers take different periods of time to weave a saree. The number of workers and their required periods are given below. Present the information by a frequency polygon.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 25
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 26 Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 27

Problem Set 6 Question 11.
The time required for students to do a science experiment and the number of students is shown in the following grouped frequency distribution table. Show the information by a histogram and also by a frequency polygon.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 28
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 29 Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 30

Question 12.
Draw a frequency polygon for the following grouped frequency distribution table.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 31
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 32
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 34

Question 13.
The following table shows the average rainfall in 150 towns. Show the information by a frequency polygon.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 35
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 36
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 33

Question 14.
Observe the given pie diagram. It shows the percentages of number of vehicles passing a signal in a town between 8 am and 10 am.
i. Find the central angle for each type of vehicle.
ii. If the number of two-wheelers is 1200, find the number of all vehicles.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 37
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 38
∴ The total number of vehicles is 3000.

Problem Set 6 Geometry Class 10 Question 15.
The following table shows causes of noise pollution. Show it by a pie diagram.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 39
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 40

Question 16.
A survey of students was made to know which game they like. The data obtained in the survey is
presented in the given pie diagram. If the total number of students are 1000,
i. how many students like cricket?
ii. how many students like football?
iii. how many students prefer other games?
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 41
Solution:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 42
∴ 225 students like cricket.

ii. Central angle for football (θ) = 63°
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 43
∴ 175 students like football.

iii. Central angle for other games (θ) = 72°
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 44
∴ 200 students like other games.

Question 17.
Medical check up of 180 women was conducted in a health centre in a village. 50 of them were short of hemoglobin, 10 suffered from cataract and 25 had respiratory disorders. The remaining women were healthy. Show the information by a pie diagram.
Solution:
Total number of women = 180
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 45

Question 18.
On an environment day, students in a school planted 120 trees under plantation project. The information regarding the project is shown in the following table. Show it by a pie diagram.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 46
Solution:
Total number of trees planted = 120
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Statistics Problem Set 6 47

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No Human settlements in the Ganga river basin Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i) Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin. (i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii) Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement. (ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii) The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries. (iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 1

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 2

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 11
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 12
Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No Amentity Available in Villages Available in Cities
(1) Petrol Pump
(2) Theatre
(3) Weekly Market
(4) Primary Health Centre
(5) Police Outpost
(6) Art Gallery
(7) Gram Panchayat
(8) Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)
(9) Primary School
(10) Senior School
(11) College
(12) Shop
(13) Multi-speciality Hospital
(14) Metro station
(15) Bus station
(16) University

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 9
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 10
Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 3
Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 4
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 5

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No. Urban population percentage category States /UTs falling in the category
(1) 0-20 Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2) 21-40 Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3) 41-60 Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4) 61-80 Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5) 81 -100 Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 6
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 7

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 3
Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 11

  • Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlements
  • Types: Urban
  •  Density : High population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 12

  • Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Types: Rural
  • Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 9

  • Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlement
  • Types: Urban
  • Density : High population density.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 10

  • Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Type : Rural
  • Density: Low population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 8
Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 11

  • Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlements
  • Types: Urban
  •  Density : High population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 12

  • Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Types: Rural
  • Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 9

  • Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
  • Pattern : Nucleated settlement
  • Types: Urban
  • Density : High population density.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements 10

  • Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
  • Pattern : Dispersed settlements
  • Type : Rural
  • Density: Low population density

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Most urbanised state in India (a) Sao Paulo
(2) Most urbanised state in Brazil (b) Goa
(3) Least urbanised state in India (c) Mato Grosso
(4) Least urbanised (d) Himachal Pradesh
state in Brazil (e) Delhi
(f) Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word.

Question a.
India’s per capita income is less than Brazil due to _______.
(a) low national income
(b) massive population
(c) big family size
(d) low foodgrain production
Answer:
(b) massive population

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question b.
The economy of Brazil is mainly dependent on ______ the activities.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(c) tertiary

Question c.
The economics of India and Brazil are of the _____ type
(a) undeveloped
(b) developed
(c) developing
(d) highly developed
Answer:
(c) developing

2. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why has mining not developed in the western part of Brazil?
Answer:
(i) Most of the western part of Brazil is covered by the thick dense equatorial rainforests of the Amazon Basin.
(ii) Inaccessibility, poor transport links, unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall are the main barriers for mining in this part.
(iii) Moreover, lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources is the other factor which has led to limitations in mining in the western part of Brazil.
(iv) Therefore, mining is not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question b.
What are the similarities and differences in the fishing activities in Brazil and India.
Answer:
Similarities:

  • In Brazil and India fishing activity is developed near the coastal areas.
  • In both the countries, marine fishing is well- developed.

Differences:

  • In India, fresh water fishing is practised, whereas in Brazil due to unfavourable conditions, fresh water fishing is not developed.
  • The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current, off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground. In India such currents do not come together but due to other favourable conditions fishing has been developed.
  • Major fishes of Brazil are swordfish, shrimp, lobsters and sardines.
  • Major fishes of India are mackerel, bombay duck, prawns, horse mackerels, clupeids, silver bellies and sardines.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

3. Give reasons:

Question a.
Per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.
Answer:

  • India occupies 2.4% land area of the world and supports 17.5% of the world’s total population.
  • Brazil occupies 5.6% of land area of the world and supports only 2.75% of the world’s total population.
  • Average density of population in India is about 382 persons per sq. km. while average density of population in Brazil is around 23 persons per sq. km.
  • Thus Brazil’s population is lesser than India, but it occupies a larger land area than India.
  • So, the per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.

Question b.
There is mixed economy in Brazil and India.
Answer:

  • In a mixed economy there is a co-existence of public sector and private sector.
  • In Brazil, sectors like health, banking, telecommunications, railways and airways are owned and managed by both public and private sectors.
  • In India railways is largely a public sector whereas all the other sectors are owned and managed by both private and public sectors.
  • So it is said that there is a mixed economy in Brazil and India.

4. Study the following graph and analyse in short.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 1
Answer:
(i) This is a compound bar graph showing the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sectors to the national income of India and Brazil.
(ii) It also shows the percentage of population engaged in these sectors.
(iii) The contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to India’s national income is about 17%, 26% and 57% respectively.
(iv) Whereas the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to Brazil’s national income is about 5%, 28% and 67% respectively.
(v) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of India is about 49% 24% and 27% respectively.
(vi) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of Brazil is about 10%, 19% and 71% respectively.
(vii) Thus it is understood clearly from the graph that Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Intext Questions and Answers

Give It a Try

Read the following graph and answer the following questions:
Gross National Incomes (GNI) from 1960 to 2016 (in million US. $)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 12

Question 1.
Which country’s national income was the highest in 2016 and how much was it?
Answer:
USA’s national income was highest in 2016. It was approx. U.S. $ 18000 million.

Question 2.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 1980?
Answer:
Brazil had a higher national income in 1980, as compared to India.

Question 3.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 2016?
Answer:
Comparing India and Brazil, India had a higher national income.in 2016.

Question 4.
Tell the difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016 is approximately US $ 300 million. (India : $ 2000 million – Brazil: $ 1700 million)

Question 5.
Name the developing and developed economies based on the graph?
Answer:
India and Brazil are developing economies and the USA is a developed economy.

Question 6.
Calculate the difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries , in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries in 2016 was nearly U.S. $ 16500 million.
(US: $18500 million – India, Brazil: $ 2000 million)

Try this

Question 1.
A table regarding the ownership of various sectors in both the countries is given. Like Brazil, fill the details regarding India and complete the table.
Answer:

S.No India Sector Brazil
(1) Private and Public both Banking Private and public both
(2) Largely Public Railways Private and public both
(3) Largely Private Little Public Airways Private and public both
(4) Private and Public both Electricity production Largely public
(5) Private and Public both Iron and Steel Industry Largely public
(6) Private and Public both Health Private and public both
(7) Largely Private and Public Education Largely public, little private
(8) Largely Private and little Public Telecomm­ unications Private and public both

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Let’s Recall

Question 1.
Classify the following activities by ticking ( ✓ ) in the respective column
Answer:

S.No Activities Primary Secondary Tertiary
(1) Television Broadcasting
(2) Bee-keeping
(3) Coir and Rope making
(4) Jaggery – making
(5) Producing blades of the plough
(6) Construction
(7) Extracting Iron Ore
(8) Automobile Production
(9) Rice Production
(10) Teaching
(11) Driving buses
(12) Providing lodging and boarding facilities

Question 2.
Name the warm and cold ocean currents near the Brazilian coast.
Answer:
Warm ocean current: Brazil current Cold ocean current: Falkland current

Question 3.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

Export, Import and Balance of Trade (Value in US $)
India Brazil
Year Exports Imports Exports Imports
2009-10 178751.4 288372.9 152994.7 127647.3
2010-11 251136 369770 197356.4 180458.8
2011-12 304623.53 489181.3 256038.7 226243.4
2012-13 214099.8, 361271.9 242579.8 223749.1

Question (1).
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between the value of a nation’s exports and imports for a certain period.

Question (2).
Tell the types of balance of trades.
Answer:
There are three types of balance of trade they are as follows:

  • Unfavourable balance of trade: The value of imports is more than the value of exports.
  • Favourable balance of trade: The value of exports is more than the value of imports.
  •  Balanced trade: The value of exports and imports is almost the same.

Question (3).
In which country do export exceed the imports in all the years?
Answer:
In Brazil, export exceeds the import in all the years.

Question (4).
Brazil’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
Brazil has a ‘favourable balance of trade’ or ‘surplus trade’.

Question (5).
India’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
India has an ‘unfavourable balance of trade’ or ’trade deficit’.

Question 4.
With the help of the pie chart given in Fig. , mention what is the contribution of secondary activities in Brazil’s GDP is.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 2
Answer:
The secondary activities contribute 27.5% in Brazil’s GDP.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look at the pie-charts carefully and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 2

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question (1).
Which country has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities?
Answer:
India has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities (48.8%).

Question (2).
In which country is the contribution of tertiary sector greater in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of tertiary sector is greater in Brazil’s GDP (67%).

Question (3).
In which country is the share of secondary activities more in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of secondary activities is more in Brazil’s GDP (27.5%).

Question (4).
Can we say that Brazil is an agrarian economy like India? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.
(ii) This is because 71% of its population is engaged in the tertiary sector and it contributes 67% in GDP.

Question 2.
Use the following table and make a polyline graph with the help of computer

Country Name/Year 1960 1980 2000 2016
Brazil 240 2010 3060 8840
India 90 280 450 1680
USA 3250 14230 37470 56280

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 3
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 4

Question 3.
Observe the map of Mining and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 29
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 30

Question (1)
Prepare a table of mining products and regions of production in Brazil.
Answer:

Mining products Regions of production in Brazil
Manganese North, east
Bauxite Coastal region
Iron-Ore Central, south-east
Coal South

Question (2)
In which part of Brazil has mining activity not developed? What could be the reasons?
Answer:
Mining activity has not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question (3)
Considering the availability of resources, where has the development of industries occurred?
Answer:
Considering the availability of resources development has occurred mainly in the coastal regions of north-east and south-east of Brazil.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 4.
Observe the map of Fishing and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 29
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 30

Question (1)
Can you give two reasons for concentration of fishing near the south-eastern coast of Brazil?
Answer:
Fishing is done on a large scale near the south-eastern coast of Brazil as it is the region where the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current meet making the conditions favourable for it to develop as a good fishing ground.

Question (2)
Inland fishing is not developed in Brazil though there are large number of rivers in Brazil. Can you think of a reason?
Answer:
(i) The Amazon River Basin is very vast with a dense growth of equatorial forests, making it largely inaccessible.
(ii) The methods of inland fishing followed are quite traditional and primitive.
These are some of the reasons why inland fishing is not developed in Brazil, though there are large number of rivers.

Question 5.
Observe the logos given and answer the questions.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 13

Question (1)
Identify the industries with which they are associated.
Answer:
(i) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation – Oil and natural gas exploration and production .
(ii) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) – Steel production.
(iii) Aarey – Dairy and dairy products.
(iv) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) – Electric locomotive manufacturing.
(v) Maharashtra Agro Industries Development Corporation (Limited) MAIDC – Production of pesticides, fertilizers, animal feed, agro-engineering (introducing new kinds of farm implements, sale and repair of tractors, harvesters etc.) and processing food (like jams, jellies and sauces).
(vi) Khadi and Village industries Commission
(KVIC)-Establishment and development of khadi and village Industries in rural areas.
(vii) Central Silk Board (CSB) – Silk production.
(viii) Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) Chemical and fertilizer production

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question (2)
Which raw material is used for these industries. Classify them accordingly.
Answer:

Classification Industries Raw materials
Agro-based industries Maharashtra Agro-industries Development Corporation Ltd. Seeds, raw materials required for the production of pesticides, fertilisers
Khadiand Village Industries Commission Cotton, silk and wool
Animal product – based industries Aarey Milk
Central Silk . Board (CSB) Silk
Minerals and metal-based industries Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) Crude oil and natural gas
Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) Iron ore and coal
Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) Iron and steel and aluminium
Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) Chemicals and different minerals

Question (3)
From which part of India do they get these raw materials? Discuss and write.
Answer:
(i) Iron ore, coal, limestone etc.: Chhota Nagpur plateau area of Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra etc.
(ii) Natural Gas: Krishna-Godavari Basin.
Mumbai High, in Arabian Sea.
(iii) Mineral Oil: Mumbai High in Arabian sea, Digboi in Assam, Ankleshwar in Gujarat.
(iv) Milk: Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Gujarat etc.
(v) Cotton: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh.
(vi) Silk: Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir.

Think about It

Question 1.
Which type of occupations gives a boost to the development of a country’s economy?
Answer:
Secondary and tertiary occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Make Friends With Maps

Look at the map given in Fig. The major primary occupations in Brazil are shown here. Discuss the following points and write your observations.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 29
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 30

Question 1.
In which part of Brazil is coffee mainly produced?
Answer:
Coffee is mainly produced in the South and South-east part of Brazil.

Question 2.
Which food crops are mainly produced in Brazil?
Answer:
Rice, soyabean and corn are the food crops mainly produced in Brazil.

Question 3.
Can you relate the production of these crops with the climate there?
Answer:

  • Brazil has a wide range of climatic variation.
  • Rice requires hot and humid climate with heavy rainfall. So it is grown in the coastal region.
  • Corn grows well in the central parts of Brazil, because the climate there is hot and dry.

Question 4.
Where are the rubber plantations concentrated?
Answer:
The rubber plantations are concentrated in the north western part in the Amazon River Basin area.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 5.
Complete the table.
Answer:

Types of crops Crops Areas of Prodution
Food crops Corn / Maize Central
Rice coastal region
Cash crops Coffee South east
Sugarcane Central, East
Cocoa East
Rubber North
Soyabean South
Fruits and Vegetables Bananas coastal region.
Oranges East, Central

Note : Areas of the production Each one has a different area. Difficult to point out one area for all the varieties of cash crops, food crops and rice.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
If Rajasthan does not have a coastal area, then how does it produce salt?
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan does not have a coastline, but it still produces salt because of the Sambhar Lake, which is India’s largest inland salt lake.
(ii) Salt is produced on a large scale here due to high proportion of salt in Sambhar Lake and high rate evaporation.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Indo-Brazil ties: Answer the following.

Question (1)
What does BRICS stand for?
Answer:
BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question (2)
When was it established?
Answer:
BRIC was established in June 2006. South Africa was inducted in 2010. Then it became BRICS.

Question (3)
What are the objectives of this bloc?
Answer:
The main objectives of BRICS are:

  • To achieve regional development.
  • To act as a bridge between developed and developing countries by providing financial assistance and support in various infrastructure projects.

Question (4)
The countries of which continent are not a member of this bloc?
Answer:
The countries of North America and Australia are not a member of this bloc.

Question (5)
In which continents do the member countries lie?
Answer:
The member countries lie in the continents of Europe, South America, Africa and Asia.

Question 2.
Study the graphs and answer the following questions on
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 22

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question (1)
In which years did the value of exports to Brazil exceed the imports from Brazil?
Answer:
In the years 2008, 2010, 2011, 2013, 2014 and 2015 the value of exports to Brazil have exceeded the imports from Brazil.

Question (2)
In which year was trade with Brazil the most favourable of all?
Answer:
Trade with Brazil was most favourable in the year 2013.

Question (3)
Comment upon the Balance of Trade in the year 2013.
Answer:
(i) The value of Balance of Trade between India and Brazil was maximum in the year 2013.
(ii) Also, the Balance of Trade was in India’s favour.

Question (4)
From which year the value of exports to Brazil have exeeded the value of import from Brazil?
Answer:
From 2010 to 2015 (except 2012).

Question (5)
Write a note on the trade between Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Trade between India and Brazil has not been consistent.
(ii) Most of the time the trade has been favourable for India, with exports more than imports.
(iii) In 2015, India-Brazil trade has shown a downfall with both imports and exports at an all-time low.

Question (6)
In which year was the value of exports to Brazil the maximum?
Answer:
The value of exports to Brazil was the maximum in 2014.

Give It A Try

Question 1.
The following images are related to agricultural activities. Identify and write whether they are practised in Brazil or India.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 9
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 21
Answer:
(i) In the first image, coffee plantation is seen. It is found mainly in Brazil. In India, coffee plantation are seen in the South Indian states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(ii) The second image is of the Tea plantation. It is mainly found in India, in Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

(iii) In the third image, shifting agriculture is seen. It is also called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture. In this method, the land under forests is cleared by cutting and burning. On this patch of land, subsistence type of agriculture is practised for the next few years.

Once this patch of land loses fertility; another patch of land is brought under shifting cultivation. It is mainly practiced in Brazil and in some parts of India.

In the fourth image, paddy cultivation is seen and it is mainly practiced in India where there is heavy sufficient and irrigation rainfall.

Try This

Question 1.
Show the distribution of crops like wheat, jowar, rice, cotton, sugarcane, tea, jute, coffee and rubber, apple in the outline map of India using symbols. Name the map.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 11

Find Out

Question 1.
Obtain information regarding pisciculture in India with the help of internet and reference books and write a note.
Answer:

  • Breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. It is also called fish farming.
  • Fishes are raised in tanks or enclosures for commercial reasons.
  • Pisciculture in India is increasing rapidly due to the increasing demand for fish and fish products.
  • Indian climate is suitable for practising pisciculture. Wide variety of fish species are raised in the fish farms, e.g. salmon, carp, catfish.
  • Due to availability of abundant labour and water sources like lakes, ponds, rivers, etc, pisciculture has become easier.
  • Employment opportunities are created due to pisciculture.
  • Banks offer loans for those interested in this business.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India has a/an ________ national income as Compared to Brazil.
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal
(d) very low
Answer:
(a) higher

Question 2.
In Brazil, ______ is the main occupation of the people living in the highlands and coastal areas.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) animal rearing
(d) sericulture
Answer:
(a) agriculture

Question 3.
The main cereal crops grown in Brazil are ______ and maize.
(a) wheat
(b) barley
(c) oat
(d) rice
Answer:
(d) rice

Question 4.
Production of maize is largely concentrated in the _____ part of Brazil.
(a) western
(b) northern
(c) southern
(d) central
Answer:
(d) central

Question 5.
Brazil is the largest exporter of coffee and ______ in the world.
(a) rubber
(b) cocoa
(c) soyabean
(d) maize
Answer:
(c) soyabean

Question 6.
The major states growing coffee are _______ and Sao Paulo.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Minas Gerais
(c) Para
(d) Parana
Answer:
(b) Minas Gerais

Question 7.
Coffee farms are called _____ in Brazil
(a) para
(b) fazendas
(c) Cerrado
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(b) fazendas

Question 8.
Cattle, sheep and goats are reared in the _____ of the South of Brazil.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Parana River basin
(c) Savannah grasslands
(d) Coastal areas
Answer:
(c) Savannah grasslands

Question 9.
The eastern part of Brazil is rich in various types of _____.
(a) crops
(b) animals
(c) minerals
(d) forests
Answer:
(c) minerals

Question 10.
Inaccessibility, lack of knowledge of ________ potential reserves, dense forests are factors which have led to limitation in in the interior parts of Brazil.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) agro- forestry
(d) fishing
Answer:
(b) mining

Question 11.
Due to the increasing demand in the country, mining has developed well in the ______ region of Brazil.
(a) coastal
(b) highland
(c) mountainous
(d) equatorial forest
Answer:
(b) highland

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 12.
Brazil has a sea coast of around 7,400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the ____ coast.
(a) South Atlantic
(b) North Atlantic
(c) South Pacific
(d) North Pacific
Answer:
(a) South Atlantic

Question 13.
The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-east Brazil make it a good ______.
(a) fishing ground
(b) offshore oil rig
(c) ocean transport route
(d) fishermen’s settlement
Answer:
(a) fishing ground

Question 14.
Traditionally, in Brazil, fishing has been carried on by small groups of individual fishermen using _____ techniques and equipment.
(a) scientific
(b) modern
(c) primitive
(d) latest
Answer:
(c) primitive

Question 15.
The fish resources of the _____ river are not exploited much and fishing only takes place on a small scale.
(a) Parana
(b) Sao Francisco
(c) Paraguay
(d) Amazon
Answer:
(d) Amazon

Question 16.
Around 60% of land in India is under ________.
(a) cultivation
(b) industries
(c) forestry
(d) mining
Answer:
(a) cultivation

Question 17.
Indian agriculture is mainly _______ type.
(a) commercial
(b) mechanized
(c) subsistence
(d) extensive
Answer:
(c) subsistence

Question 18.
In the coastal areas of India, ______ forms an important part of the diet of many people.
(a) wheat
(b) fish
(c) lobsters
(d) millets
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 19.
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellies are important varieties of ________
(a) crops
(b) fish
(c) millets
(d) cereals
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 20.
Among the freshwater varieties of fish, _______ is a major one.
(a) Sardines
(b) Mackerel
(c) Bombay Duck
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)
Answer:
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)

Question 21.
In India, the _____ plateau is a big store house of minerals.
(a) Malwa
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Baghelkhand
(d) Chhota Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Chhota Nagpur

Question 22.
Coal is mined in ____ in Chhattisgarh and in eastern Maharashtra.
(a) Korba
(b) Cuddapah
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(a) Korba

Question 23.
Mineral oil wells are found in _____ in Assam.
(a) Korba
(b) Koyali
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(c) Digboi

Question 24.
Reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered at the mouth of the river _______.
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:
(c) Godavari

Question 25.
Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in ______.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Andhra Pradesh

Question 26.
Traditionally, the poorest part of Brazil is the ______.
(a) north-east
(b) south
(c) north-west
(d) central
Answer:
(a) north-east

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 27.
The north-eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a very high concentration of _____ industries.
(a) chemical
(b) metallurgical
(c) canning
(d) fruit processing
Answer:
(b) metallurgical

Question 28.
The coastal belt of _______ has a heavy concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 29.
Many refineries are situated close to the petroleum producing areas whereas Mathura and _______ refineries are in the interior, away from the oil producing areas.
(a) Digboi
(b) Bongaigaon
(c) Barauni
(d) Koyali
Answer:
(c) Barauni

Question 30.
Among the minerals, Brazil mainly exports _____.
(a) coal
(b) gold
(c) iron ore
(d) manganese
Answer:
(c) iron ore

Question 31.
The main trading partner of Brazil among the Gulf countries is _______.
(a) Bahrain
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Kuwait
(d) Iran
Answer:
(b) Saudi Arabia

Question 32.
India’s major trading partners from the continent of Europe are the UK and _______.
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Greece
Answer:
(c) Germany

Match the columns:

Question 1.

S.No Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1)  Rice and maize (a) Commercial crops of Brazil
(2)  Tea and mangoes (b) Cereal crops of Brazil
(3)  Cotton and jute (c) India’s imports
(4) Coffee, cocoa, rubber,soyabean (d)      India’s exports
(e)      India’s cash crops

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – e

Question 2.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Kachchh (a) Kerala
(2) Coromandal coast (b) North east India
(3) Malabar coast (c) Near Maharashtra
(4) Mumbai High (d) South east India
(e) Western coast

Answer:
1 – e
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c

Question 3.

Column ‘A’ Column ’B’ Column ‘C’
(1) Coal (a) Digboi (i) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Mineral oil well (b) Coastal belt (ii) Chhattisgarh
(3) Stones (c) Korba (iii) Kaveri
(4) Mineral oil and Natural gas (d) River mouth (iv) Assam
(5) Coir and copra (e) Cuddapah (v) Godavari
(f) Estuary (vi) Kerala

Answer:
1 – c – ii
2 – a – iv
3 – e – i
4 – d – v
5 – b – vi

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 4.

Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
(1) Coir, copra and fish canning (a) Mathura
(2) Salt (b) Gujarat
(3) Oil refineries (c) Kerala
(4) Stones (d) Barauni
(e) Andhra Pradesh

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which currency is mainly used for international trade?
Answer:
US dollar is the currency which is mainly used for international trade.

Question 2.
Name the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Information technology, pharmaceuticals, energy, agro-business, mining, engineering, automobiles, etc. are the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.

Question 3.
Name the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Automobiles, information technology, mining, energy, bio-fuel, footwear, etc. are the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested capital.

Question 4.
Which type of occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy ?
Answer:
Tertiary occupation give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Factors making it possible for growing a variety of crops in Brazil.
Answer:
Favourable climate and topography.

Question 2.
The main cereal crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Rice and maize

Question 3.
The production of this cereal crop is largely concentrated in the central part of Brazil.
Answer:
Maize.

Question 4.
The major commercial crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Coffee, cocoa, rubber, soyabean and sugarcane.

Question 5.
The largest exporter of coffee and soyabean in the world.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 6.
The major coffee-growing states of Brazil.
Answer:
Minas Gerais and Sao Paulo.

Question 7.
Fruits are grown in Brazil.
Answer:
Bananas, pineapples, oranges and other citrus fruits.

Question 8.
The region in Brazil where cattle, sheep and goats are reared.
Answer:
Savannah grasslands in the south.

Question 9.
Two factors that have led to limitations in mining in the interior parts of Brazil.
Answer:

  • Inaccessibility due to dense forests
  • Lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 10.
The warm current in the eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Brazil current.

Question 11.
The cold current off the south-eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Falkland current.

Question 12.
The main catches of the fishermen in Brazil.
Answer:
Swordfish, shrimp, lobsters, sardines, etc.

Question 13.
Major food crops produced in India.
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, sorghum and millets.

Question 14.
Crops grown in plantation in India.
Answer:
Tea, coffee and rubber.

Question 15.
Major cash crops grown in India.
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton and jute.

Question 16.
Main type of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Subsistence.

Question 17.
Maj or fish varieties found in the western coastal region of India.
Answer:
Sardines, mackerel, bombay duck and prawns.

Question 18.
The important varieties of fish on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellied carp.

Question 19.
The major freshwater fish variety in India.
Answer:
Silver bellied carp (chopda).

Question 20.
Places where coal is mined in India.
Answer:
Korba in Chhattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra

Question 21.
Places where mineral oil wells are found in India.
Answer:
(i) Digboi in Assam
(ii) Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra
(iii) Kalol and Koyali in Gujarat.

Question 22.
The name of the river mouth, where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.
Answer:
River Godavari.

Question 23.
The state where stones like marble are found.
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 24.
The place/state where stones like Cuddapah are found.
Answer:
Cuddappah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 25.
The states in which fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in the coastal areas in India.
Answer:
Kerala, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 26.
States of India where metallic minerals are found.
Answer: Jharkhand, Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh, parts of Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 27.
The agro-based industries in India which are heavily concentrated in the raw material- producing areas.
Answer:
Cotton, jute and sugar.

Question 28.
The forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
Paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac.

Question 29.
Industries found in the coastal belt of Kerala in India.
Answer:
Coir, copra and fish canning.

Question 30.
Refineries in India situated close to the petroleum-producing areas.
Answer:
Koyali, Digboi, Noonmati and Bongaigaon.

Question 31.
Refineries in India located away from the coast and oil-producing areas.
Answer:
Mathura and Barauni.

Question 32.
Major salt-producing states in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Brazil’s export items.
Answer:
Iron ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas.

Question 34.
Brazil’s import items.
Answer:
Machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants.

Question 35.
Major trading partners of Brazil.
Answer:
Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy and Argentina, Saudi Arabia.

Question 36.
India’s export items.
Answer:
Tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather & leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles etc.

Question 37.
India’s import items.
Answer:
Petroleum, machines, pearls and precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc.

Question 38.
India’s major trading partners.
Answer:
The USA, The UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
The Indian companies’ investment in Brazil and Brazil’s investment in India.
Answer:

Indian investment in Brazil Brazilian investment in India
(i) Indian companies have invested a lot of capital in Brazil.
(ii) e.g. IT, pharmaceuticals, energy, agri-business, mining, engineering and auto sectors.
(i) Brazilian companies investment in India is smaller.(ii)  e.g. automobiles, IT, mining, energy, biofuels, footwear sectors in India.

Question 2.
Brazil-International Trade and India-International Trade
Answer:

Brazil-International Trade India-International Trade
(i) Major exports of Brazil are iron-ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas.
(ii) Major imports of Brazil are machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants.
(iii) Major trading partners of Brazil are Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy, Argentina, India and Saudi Arabia.
(i) Major exports of India are tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather and leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles.
(ii) Major imports of India are petroleum, machines, pearls, precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc.
(iii) Major trading partners of India are the USA, the UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Question 3.
US Economy and India-Brazil Economies.
Answer:

US Economy India-Brazil Economy
(i) The US economy is a developed economy.
(ii) National income and per capita income of US is far ahead of Brazil and India.
(iii) The US has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.
(i) India and Brazil are developing economies.
(ii) National income and per capita income of India and Brazil is low.
(iii)India and Brazil have just about started progressing in the fields of technology, education and industry.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Mark the following on the outline map:

Question 1.
On the given Political map of Brazil, show the following details (Draw index).

  1. Major coffee producing areas of Brazil.
  2. The cold and warm ocean current near the Brazilian coast.
  3. Important fishing areas in the Northern coast.
  4. Important fishing areas in the Eastern coast.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 23
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 24

Question 2.
Indicate the following on a map of India.

  1. The plateau region rich in minerals.
  2. Region where coal is mined.
  3. State where marble is found.
  4. Cudappah stones are found in this state.
  5. The state whose coastal belt has a concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
  6. Major salt producing state.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 25
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 26

Question 3.
Locate the following regions on the map of India.

  1. Mineral oil wells.
  2. Oil refineries close to petroleum producing areas.
  3. Oil refineries in the interiors.
  4. The mouth of the river where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.

Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 27
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations 28

Give Geographical Reasons:

Question 1.
Unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.
Answer:

  • Around 60% of land in India is under cultivation.
  • Agriculture has been a long standing activity here with a large chunk of population engaged in it.
  • The enormous expanse of level plains, rich soils, high percentage of cultivable land, wide climatic variety, long growing season, etc. provide a strong base for agriculture in India.
  • So, unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Question 2.
Fishing plays an important role in the economy of India.
Answer:

  • India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
  • India is one of the largest producer of fish, both marine and inland.
  • Marine fishing accounts for about 40% of the total annual fish production and the remaining 60% is by freshwater fishing.
  • Fisheries help in augmenting food supply, generating employment, raising nutritional level and earning foreign exchange.
  • Fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in all the coastal states.
  • Thus, fishing plays a significant role in the economy of the country.

Question 3.
The distribution of industries in India is highly uneven.
Answer:
The distribution of industries is India in highly uneven due to the following reasons:

  • Uneven distribution of the necessary raw materials and power resources.
  • There is concentration of enterprises, financial resources and other necessary conditions in large towns.

Question 4.
The North Eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries.
Answer:
The north eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries because:

  • Chattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal are rich in minerals.
  • Large quantities of coal deposits, an important raw material in metallurgical industries is available.
  • There are availability of refractory materials, cheap power from the Damodar Valley Corporation and a number of thermal power projects.
  • There is availability of cheap labour in and around this region.

Question 5.
USA is a developed country.
Answer:
The United States is a developed country because:

  • This country has less but a well-educated population.
  • It has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.
  • USA has a very high national income and per capita income.

Question 6.
Brazil is a good fishing ground.
Answer:
Brazil is a good fishing ground because :

  • Brazil has a sea coast of around 7400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the South Atlantic coast.
  • The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Mining in India:
Answer:
(i) The Chhota Nagpur plateau in India is a big storehouse of different minerals. Mining is the main occupation of the people.
(ii) Coal is mined in Korba in Chattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra.
(iii) Mineral oil wells are found in Digboi in
Assam, Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra, Kalol, Koyali in Gujarat.
(iv) Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
Industries in Brazil:
Answer:
(i) Major industries of Brazil are iron and steel, automobile assembling, petroleum processing, chemical production and cement making.
(ii) Technologically based industries have been the most dynamic in recent years.
(iii) Food-processing industries, cotton textiles, silk and woollen industries have developed well.
(iv) Most large industries are concentrated in the south and south-east of Brazil.

Question 3.
Agro-based and forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
(i) Agro-based industries: The agro-based industries including cotton, jute and sugar are heavily concentrated in the raw material producing areas.
(ii) Forest-based industries: The forest based industries including paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac are increasingly finding mostly found in the forest areas of various states.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 2

Question 1.
Complete the following chart.

Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction. 1. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
2. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
2. Male and female parent are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only. 3. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
4. __________________________________________
____________________________________________
4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc. 5. __________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________
_____________________________________________

Answer:

Asexual reproduction Sexual reproduction
1. Reproduction that occurs with the help of somatic cells is called asexual reproduction. 1. Reproduction that occurs due to fertilization of gametes is called sexual reproduction.
2. For asexual reproduction only one parent is necessary. 2. Male and female parents are necessary for sexual reproduction.
3. This reproduction occurs with the help of mitosis only. 3. This reproduction occurs with the help of both mitosis and meiosis.
4. New individual formed by this method is genetically identical with parents. 4. New individual formed by this method is genetically different from parents.
5. Asexual reproduction occurs in different individuals by various methods like binary fission, multiple fission, budding, fragmentation, regeneration, vegetative propagation, spore production, etc. 5. Sexual reproduction occurs in two steps: First formation of haploid gametes by meiosis and then fertilization of these haploid gametes to form diploid zygote. There are no subtypes in the sexual reproduction.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks.
a. In humans, sperm production occurs in the organ …………
(a) prostate gland
(b) testis
(c) ovaries
(d) Cowper’s gland
Answer:
(b) testis

b. In humans, …………. chromosome is responsible for maleness.
(a) X
(b) Y
(c) Z
(d) O
Answer:
(b) Y

c. In male and female reproductive system of human, …………. gland is same.
Answer:
There is no similar gland in male and female reproductive system. There may be some homologies but there is no similarity.

d. Implantation of embryo occurs in …………
(a) ovaries
(b) fallopian duct
(c) uterus
(d) vagina
Answer:
(c) uterus

e. …………type of reproduction occurs without fusion of gametes.
(a) Asexual
(b) sexual
(c) Fertilization
(d) Gamete formation
Answer:
(a) Asexual

f. Body breaks up into several fragments and each fragment begins to live as a new individual.
This is ………. type of reproduction.
(a) regeneration
(b) fragmentation
(c) binary fission
(d) budding
Answer:
(b) fragmentation

g. Pollen grains are formed by division in locules of anthers.
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) amitosis
(d) binary
Answer:
(a) meiosis

Question 3.
Complete the paragraph with the help of words given in the bracket:
(Luteinizing hormone, endometrium of uterus, follicle stimulating hormone, estrogen, progesterone, corpus luteum)
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of ………….. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of ………….., fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and …………….. is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes ……………. and ………. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of ……….. are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.
Answer:
Growth of follicles present in the ovary occurs under the effect of follicle stimulating hormone. This follicle secretes estrogen. Ovarian follicle along with oocyte grows/regenerates under the effect of estrogen. Under the effect of Luteinizing hormone, fully grown up follicle bursts, ovulation occurs and corpus luteum is formed from remaining part of follicle. It secretes estrogen and progesterone. Under the effect of these hormones, glands of endometrium of uterus are activated and it becomes ready for implantation.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 4.
Answer the following questions short.
a. Explain with examples types of asexual reproduction in unicellular organism.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 1
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 2
There are different methods of asexual reproduction in different unicellular animals.
(1) Binary fission: The process in which the parent cell divides to form two similar daughter cells
is binary fission. It takes place either by mitosis or amitosis. When there are favourable conditions and abundant food supply then the organisms undergo binary fission. Prokaryotes, Protists and eukaryotic 5 cell-organelle like mitochondria and chloroplasts perform binary fission.

Based on axis of fission there are three subtypes of binary fission.
(a) Simple binary fission: The plane of division is not definite, it can be in any direction due to lack of specific shape as in Amoeba.
(b) Transverse binary fission: The plane of J division is transverse, as in Paramoecium.
(c) Longitudinal binary fission: The plane of division is in length-wise direction as in Euglena.

(2) Multiple fission:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 3
During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food, multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

(3) Budding in yeast:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 4
Yeast is unicellular fungus that performs budding. The parent cell produces two daughter nuclei by mitotic division. This results in a small bulgingbud on the surface of parent cell. One daughter nucleus enters the bud. It then grows and upon becoming big it separates from the parent cell to have independent life as new yeast cell.

b. Explain the concept of IVF.
Answer:
(1) IVF means In Vitro Fertilization (IVF)
(2) This is the technique in the modern medical field where childless couples can be blessed by their own child.
(3) IVF technique is used for childless couples who are faced with problems such as less sperm count, obstacles in oviduct, etc.
(4) The IVF technique is done by removing the oocyte from the mother and artificially fertilizing by the sperms collected from father. This fertilization is done in a test-tube. Thus it is also called test tube baby. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of real mother or a surrogate mother at appropriate time.

c. Which precautions will you follow to maintain the reproductive health?
Answer:
About reproductive health one should have scientific and authentic information. The cleanliness of body is very essential but keeping the mind clean is also important to maintain good reproductive health. One should be careful about sexual relationships. These things should not be experimented in young age. Mistakes committed like these can change the sexual health forever. The cleanliness and hygiene during menstruation, the cleanliness of genitals and other private parts are the aspects of personal hygiene. When living in a society, one should always be away from cross-infections of venereal type.

d. What is menstrual cycle? Describe it in brief.
Answer:

  • Menstrual cycle is the events of cyclic changes that takes place with the interval of 28 to 30 days in mature woman.
  • Hormones from pituitary, FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) and LH (Luteinizing Hormone) and hormones from ovary, estrogen and progesterone control the menstrual cycle.
  • Due to influence of FSH, the ovarian follicle grows along with the oocyte that is present in it.
  • This growing follicle produces estrogen.
  • Under the influence of estrogen, the uterine inner layer called endometrium grows or regenerates. In the meantime the development of follicle is completed.
  • LH from pituitary stimulates the bursting of ovarian follicle and releases the mature oocyte out of the follicle and the ovarian wall. This process is called ovulation.
  • The empty ovarian follicle after the ovulation becomes corpus luteum. Corpus luteum produces hormone progesterone.
  • Under the influence of progesterone, the glands from uterine endometrium start secreting. The oocyte if fertilized is implanted over this endometrium.
  • If oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus luteum becomes a degenerate body called corpus albicans. The corpus albicans cannot secrete estrogen and progesterone.
  • Due to lack of these hormones, the endometrial layer of the uterus collapses. The tissue debris, along with unfertilized egg is given out through the vagina as menstrual flow. This results in bleeding for about 5 days.
  • If woman is not pregnant, then this menstrual cycle keeps on repeating with regularity.

Question 5.
In case of sexual reproduction, newborn show similarities about characters. Explain this statement with suitable examples.
Answer:
(1) Sexual reproduction occurs due to two different gametes. One male gamete is from father while the other female gamete is from mother.
(2) Both the gametes are produced by meiosis.
(3) When the gametes unite it is called process of fertilization which produces diploid zygote.
(4) Due to the chromosomes of parents, their DNA pass to the next generation through such fertilization. Therefore, the characters of newborn show similarities with parents.

Question 6.
Sketch the labelled diagrams.
a. Human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 5

b. Human female reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 6

c. Flower with its reproductive organs.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 7

d. Menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 8

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 7.
Give the names.
a. Hormones related with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Follicle stimulating hormone and ICSH or Luteinizing hormone secreted by pituitary gland, testosterone secreted by testis.

b. Hormones secreted by ovary of female reproductive system.
Answer:
Estrogen and progesterone.

c. Types of twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins, Siamese twins and Dizygotic twins.

d. Any two sexual diseases.
Answer:
Gonorrhea and Syphilis.

e. Methods of family planning.
Answer:
Copper T, condoms, oral contraceptive pills.

Question 8.
Gender of child is determined by the male? partner of couple. Explain with reasons whether this statement is true or false.
(OR)
“A couple shall have a male child or female child totally depends upon husband”. Prove truthfulness of this statement with scientific reason.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 9
Sex determination in Human being
(1) The statement Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple is true.
(2) It is clearly seen from the diagram that there are two types of sperms produced by males. One sperm has a X chromosome while the other has a Y chromosome, apart from autosomes. The mother on the other hand has all X bearing oocytes. Thus the sperm that fertilizes the oocyte decides the sex of the child.
(3) If X bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, daughter is born and when Y bearing sperm fertilizes the oocyte, son is born.
(4) Thus father or male partner is responsible for the determination of the sex.

Question 9.
Explain asexual reproduction in plants.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 10

  • Vegetative propagation is the method of asexual reproduction in plants.
  • It takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.
  • Potato, suran (Amorphophallus) and other tubes propagate with the help of ‘eyes’ which are buds. These eyes are present on the stem tubers.
  • In case of plants like sugarcane and grasses, buds present on nodes perform vegetative propagation.
  • Plants like Bryophyllum performs vegetative propagation with the help of buds present on leaf margin.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 10.
Modern techniques like surrogate mother, sperm bank and IVF technique will help the human beings. Justify this statement.
OR
Despite various diagnostic tests, a couple could not have a child. In this situation, which remedies will you suggest? (July 2019)
Answer:
(1) Some couples want a child but they are not able to bear one due to various problems either in mother or in father. In such cases modern techniques such as IVF, surrogacy and sperm bank are useful in conceiving a child.

(2) These methods are as follows:
(i) Surrogacy: In woman if there is problem regarding the implantation of embryo in uterus, then help of another women is taken. This women is called surrogate mother.

Oocyte from real mother is taken out and fertilized with sperms collected from her husband. These gametes are fertilized outside in a test-tube and then the fertilized zygote is implanted in the surrogate mother.

(ii) In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is done when there are problems like less sperm count or obstacles in oviduct. In IVF, fertilization is done in the test-tube. The embryo formed is implanted in uterus of woman for further growth.

(iii) Sperm bank: If man has problems with the sperm production, then the sperms are collected from the sperm bank. Sperm bank is the place where the donor’s donate the sperms and such sperms are kept stored. The donor’s identity is kept secret and he should also be physically and medically fit person.

Question 11.
Explain sexual reproduction in plants.
(OR)
Explain double fertilization in plants.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 11

  • Plants reproduce sexually with the help of flowers.
  • Androecium and gynoecium are male and female parts of the flowers respectively.
  • In the carpel, the ovule undergoes meiosis and forms embryo sac.
  • A haploid egg cell and two haploid polar nuclei are present in each embryo sac.
  • The pollen grains from the anther reach the stigma of flower by the process of pollination. They germinate here on the stigma.
  • As a result of germination, long pollen tube and two male gametes are formed.
  • The pollen tube travels through the style of flower and the male gametes present in the pollen tube are transferred till the embryo sac in ovary. Upon reaching there, tip of the pollen tube bursts releasing two male gametes in embryo sac.
  • One male gamete unites with the egg cell and forms zygote. While other male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming the endosperm.
  • Because there are two nuclei participating in this process, therefore it is called double fertilization.
  • After fertilization ovule develops into seed and ovary forms a fruit. When the seed again gets favourable conditions, it can produce a new plant.

Activities: (Do it your self)

Question 1.
Collect the official data about present and a decade old population of various Asian countries and plot a graph of that data. With the help of it, draw your conclusions about demographic changes.

Question 2.
With the help of your teacher, compose and present a road show to increase the awareness about prenatal gender detection and gender bias.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
Which are the important life processes in living organisms?
Answer:
The important life processes in living organisms are respiration, circulation, nutrition, excretion, sensation and response through nervous system.

Question 2.
Which life processes are essential for production of energy required by body?
Answer:
The oxidation of nutrients that are absorbed in body is done because of oxygen supplied to cells by respiratory and circulatory system. This helps in liberation of energy. Thus respiration, circulation and nutrition are the life processes that are essential for production of energy required by body.

Question 3.
Which are main types of cell division? What are the differences?
Answer:
The main types of cell division are mitosis and meiosis. In mitosis, the chromosome number remains the same. 2 daughter cells are obtained from one cell. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. From one cell, four daughter cells are obtained.

Question 4.
What is the role of chromosomes in cell division?
Answer:
Due to chromosomes, the DNA from parental cells enter into daughter cells. The hereditary, characters are transmitted to next generation by cell division.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
What do we mean by maintenance of species?
Answer:
Maintenance of species means a species undertakes successful reproduction and produces individuals of its own kind. This keeps the species existing on the earth.

Question 2.
Whether the new organism is genetically exactly similar to earlier one that has produced it?
Answer:
No. The new organism produced from the old one is not genetically exactly similar to the parents. In meiotic cell division there is crossing over in the homologous chromosomes. This produces genetic recombination. Thus the new organism is different from the earlier one. However, if the reproduction is of asexual type, then the young one is exactly similar to the parents.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Who determines whether the two organisms of a species will be exactly similar or not?
Answer:
The type of reproduction, whether it is asexual or sexual, the type of crossing over, the extent of genetic recombination, etc. determine the similarity among the parent organisms and their, offspring. Based on this genetic recombination the two organisms of a species do not show exact similarity. However, in case of monozygotic twins there is exact similarity. In asexual reproduction to there is similarity.

Question 4.
What is the relationship between the cell division and formation of new organism of same species by earlier existing organism?
Answer:
In the process of reproduction, there is division of chromosomes. Due to cell division, the gametes are formed. The union of gametes produce new offspring. In sexual reproduction, all these processes take place due to cell division. In asexual reproduction too there is cell division. Growth of new organism also occurs due to cell division.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 26)

Question 1.
What would have been happened if the male and female gametes had been diploid?
Answer:
Diploid (2n) gametes if united, they will form 4n, i.e. tetraploid variety. Such zygote will show severe abnormality. The chromosome number will not be maintained.

Question 2.
What would have been happened if any of the cells in nature had not been divided by meiosis?
Answer:
If meiosis does not happen the gametes produced will be diploid. This will create abnormality.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 28)

Question 1.
Which different hormones control the functions of human reproductive system through chemical coordination?
Answer:
Pituitary gland secretes FSH and LH. LH is known as ICSH in males, as its function in the male body is different. From the gonads of male and female, hormones are secreted which are essential for male and female reproductive functions respectively. These hormones are testosterone secreted from testis in males and estrogen and progesterone secreted from the ovaries in females. Testosterone is essential for masculinity as well as for sperm production while female hormones are essential for changes in the female body leading to motherhood.

Question 2.
Which hormones are responsible for changes in human body occurring during onset of sexual maturity?
Answer:
Testosterone in male body and estrogen in female body are responsible for maturity onset changes in human body.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Why has the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys?
Answer:
The full growth of female body is not completed till the age of 18. Till 18 years of age the physical and emotional maturity is not attained. Therefore, she is not suitable for marriage, sexual relationship and pregnancy. Similarly, boy attains complete growth only the age of 21. Therefore, to keep individuals and their progeny safe and healthy the Government of India enacted the law to fix the minimum age of marriage as 18 in girls and 21 in boys.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 31)

Question 1.
Which hormone is released from pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed?
Answer:
The hormone oxytocin is released from the posterior pituitary of mother once the foetal development is completed.

Question 2.
Under the effect of that hormone, which organ of the female reproductive system starts to contract and thereby birth process (parturition) is facilitated?
Answer:
Due to oxytocin, uterus contracts involuntarily and the baby is expelled out. Thus initiation of birth process is possible due to contractions of uterus.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 24)

Question 1.
Does the parent cell exist after asexual reproduction-fission?
Answer:
In fission, the parent cell divides into two. This nucleus and cytoplasm, both are divided. Thus, parent cell does not exist any longer, it is converted into new cells.

Choose the correct alternative and write that alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Pranav and Pritee are twins in your class. They belong to ……….. twins type.
(a) monozygotic
(b) dizyotic
(c) siamese
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) dizyotic

Question 2.
Longitudinal binary fission is seen in …………..
(a) Paramoecium
(b) Euglena
(c) Amoeba
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(b) Euglena

Question 3.
Yeast cell performs asexual reproduction by ……………..
(a) fragmentation
(b) budding
(c) binary fission
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(b) budding

Question 4.
Carrot and raddish undergoes …………. with the help of their roots.
(a) vegetative propagation
(b) fragmentation
(c) budding
(d) regeneration
Answer:
(a) vegetative propagation

Question 5.
Androecium and gynoecium are ……….. whorl of the flower.
(a) accessory
(b) essential
(c) external
(d) internal
Answer:
(b) essential

Question 6.
Flowers without stalk are called ……….. flowers.
(a) stalkless
(b) sessile
(c) incomplete
(d) complete
Answer:
(b) sessile

Question 7.
………….. on the inner surface of fallopian ducts (oviducts) push the egg towards uterus.
(a) Cilia
(b) Tentacles
(c) Flagella
(d) Fibres
Answer:
(a) Cilia

Question 8.
Pregnant mother supplies nourishment to her foetus through …………..
(a) breasts
(b) uterus
(c) placenta
(d) ovaries
Answer:
(c) placenta

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 9.
The length of a sperm is about …………. micrometers.
(a) 400
(b) 5
(c) 60
(d) 600 (July ’19)
Answer:
(c) 60

Question 10.
Vegetative propagation is performed with the help of ……….. in sweet potato.
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaf
(d) flower
Answer:
(a) root

Question 11.
Which of the following is not a unisexual flower?
(a) Coconut
(b) Papaya
(c) Gulmohar
(d) Maize
Answer:
(c) Gulmohar

Write whether the following statements are true or false, with the suitable reason:

Question 1.
Absence of genetic recombination is an advantage whereas fast process is drawback of asexual reproductive method.
Answer:
False. (Absence of genetic recombination is a drawback whereas fast process is advantage of asexual reproductive method.)

Question 2.
Prokaryotes show fission which occurs either by mitosis or amitosis.
Answer:
True. (Prokaryotes show fission by both the methods, i.e. mitosis and amitosis.)

Question 3.
During favourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.
Answer:
False. (During unfavourable conditions multiple fission is performed by amoeba.)

Question 4.
Any encysted Amoeba or any other protist is called ‘Cyst’.
Answer:
True. (Cyst is the tough capsule like structure which keeps the protists dormant inside it. This helps the organisms to tide over unfavourable conditions.)

Question 5.
If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into only large and few fragments, then only each fragment develops into new Sycon.
Answer:
False. (If the body of Sycon breaks up accidentally into many fragments, each fragment develops into new Sycon. Because the capacity to regenerate is very strong in poriferan Sycon, even a small piece of parent Sycon can give rise to entire new individual.)

Question 6.
Pollen tube reaches the zygote via style.
Answer:
False. (Pollen tube reaches the embryo sac via style. Later, double fertilization takes place and the zygote and endosperm are formed.)

Question 7.
There is glucose sugar in the semen.
Answer:
False. (There is fructose sugar in the semen. Glucose is not present in semen.)

Question 8.
Out of 2 – 4 million ova, approximately only 400 oocytes are released up to the age of menopause.
Answer:
True. (During the reproductive span of the woman, from menarche to menopause only one oocyte per one month is released in the span of 30 to 35 years.)

Question 9.
If the oocyte is fertilized, secretion of estrogen and progesterone stops completely.
Answer:
False. (If the oocyte is not fertilized, there is no need of corpus luteum which secretes progesterone. In absence of conception, the progesterone is not needed, thus corpus luteum degenerates and forms corpus albicans.)

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 10.
During menstruation there is need of rest along with special personal hygiene.
Answer:
True. (During phase of menstruation there is pain and bleeding in woman. Her body is also susceptible for infections. There is weakness and hence she needs rest along with special personal hygiene.)

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Circulation, Excretion, Sensation, Reproduction.
Answer:
Reproduction. (All others are processes necessary for survival of the individual.)

Question 2.
Budding in hydra, Regeneration, Binary fission, Fragmentation
Answer:
Binary fission. (All others are processes of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms.)

Question 3.
Carrot, Radish, Potato, Sweet potato.
Answer:
Potato. (All others are edible roots.)

Question 4.
Vas eferens, vas deferens, prostate gland, epididymis.
Answer:
Prostate gland. (All others are duct systems in male reproductive system.)

Question 5.
Prostate gland, Bartholin’s gland, Cowper’s gland, Epididymis.
Answer:
Bartholin’s glands. (All others are parts of male reproductive system.)

Question 6.
Stigma, style, pollen, ovary.
Answer:
Pollen. (All others are parts of gynoecium.)

Identify the correlation between the first two words and suggest the suitable words in the fourth place:

Question 1.
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : ………….
Answer:
Amoeba : Fission : : Hydra : Budding

Question 2.
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : ………… (July ‘19)
Answer:
Transverse binary fission : Paramoecium : : Longitudinal binary fission : Euglena

Question 3.
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : ………….
Answer:
Calyx : Sepals : : Corolla : Petals

Question 4.
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : ………..
Answer:
Accessory whorls : Calyx and corolla : : Essential whorls : Androecium and gynoeciuin

Question 5.
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : ………….
Answer:
Bisexual flower : Hibiscus : : Unisexual flower : Papaya

Question 6.
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : ………….
Answer:
FSH : Development of qocyte : : LH : Ovulation

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Define the following/Give meanings of the following:

Question 1.
Budding in yeast.
Answer:
Budding in yeast: Budding is the asexual reproductive process in which a! small bulge or bud appears on the surface of parent cell as seen in unicellular yeast.

Question 2.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:
Budding in hydra: Budding in hydra is asexual reproductive process in which an outgrowth is formed by repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall called bud.

Question 3.
Regeneration.
Answer:
Regeneration: Regeneration is the asexual reproduction in Planaria in which the body is broken up into two parts and resulting each part regenerates remaining part of the body.

Question 4.
Fragmentation.
Answer:
Fragmentation: Fragmentation is the asexual type of reproduction in which the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. Each fragment can start living independently.

Question 5.
Vegetative propagation.
Answer:
Vegetative propagation: Vegetative propagation is a type of asexual reproduction in plants that takes place with the help of vegetative parts like root, stem, leaf and bud.

Question 6.
Fertilization.
Answer:
Fertilization: The process by which two haploid gametes unite to form a diploid zygote is called fertilization.

Question 7.
Pedicel.
Answer:
Pedicel: The stalk of the flower which is for the support is called pedicel.

Question 8.
Pollination.
Answer:
Pollination: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma is called pollination.

Question 9.
Self-Pollination.
Answer:
Self-Pollination: Pollination involving only one flower or two flowers borne on same plant is called self-pollination.

Question 10.
Cross-Pollination.
Answer:
Cross-Pollination: Pollination involving two flowers borne on two plants of same species is cross-pollination.

Question 11.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Endosperm: Endosperm is the nourishing substance formed by the union of second male gamete with two polar nuclei at the time of fertilization in plants.

Question 12.
Embryo sac.
Answer:
Embryo sac: There are many ovules in the ovary, the structure formed in each of the ovule by meiosis is called embryo sac.

Question 13.
Menopause.
Answer:
Menopause: Stoppage of functioning of female reproductive system due to lack of synthesis of hormones due to advancing age is called menopause.

Question 14.
Placenta.
Answer:
Placenta: An organ developed in the uterus of the pregnant mother, through which the embryo is given nourishment is called placenta.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 15.
Menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle: The repetitive changes at the interval of every 28-30 days in female reproductive system that take place after puberty, form menstrual cycle.

Question 16.
Corpus luteum.
Answer:
Corpus luteum: Corpus luteum is the secondary structure that is formed from empty ovarian follicle after ovulation. This corpus luteum produces progesterone and thereby maintains pregnancy.

Question 17.
Corpus albicans.
Answer:
Corpus albicans: Corpus albicans is the degenerate body which is formed from corpus luteum, if the ovum is not fertilized.

Question 18.
Ovulation.
Answer:
Ovulation: Bursting of mature ovarian follicle under the influence of hormones to release the oocyte is called ovulation.

Question 19.
IVF.
Answer:
IVF: In Vitro Fertilization is the technique in which fertilization is brought about outside the female body but in the test-tube and the embryo is implanted in uterus of woman.

Question 20.
Sperm bank.
Answer:
Sperm bank: Sperm bank is the place where semen donated by the desired men is collected after their thorough physical and medical check-up and stored at sub-zero temperatures in sterile conditions.

Name the following/Give the names:

Question 1.
Different glands associated with male reproductive system.
Answer:
Seminal vesicles, Prostate gland, Cowper’s or bulbourethral glands.

Question 2.
Agents of pollination.
Answer:
Biotic: Insects, birds, few animals.
Abiotic: Water and wind.

Question 3.
Components of semen.
Answer:
Secretion of prostate gland seminal vesicles and Cowper’s glands along with sperms.

Question 4.
Two accessory whorls in flower.
Answer:
Calyx and corolla.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 5.
Two essential whorls in flower.
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium.

Question 6.
The modern techniques in reproduction.
Answer:
In Vitro Fertilization, Surrogate mother, Sperm bank.

Question 7.
Symptoms of gonorrhea.
Answer:
Painful and burning sensation during urination, oozing of pus through penis and vagina, inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

Question 8.
Symptoms of syphilis.
Answer:
Occurrence of chancre (patches) on various parts of body including genitals, rash, fever, inflammation of joints, alopecia, etc.

Write the functions of the following organs:

Question 1.
Sporangium.
Answer:
Storing the spores and releasing them by bursting.

Question 2.
Calyx.
Answer:
Protection of inner whorls of the flower.

Question 3.
Corolla.
Answer:
Attracting insects for pollination. Protecting inner whorls.

Question 4.
Androecium.
Answer:
Production of pollen grains, the male gametes of flower.

Question 5.
Gynoecium.
Answer:
Production of female gametes of flower. Participating in production of fruits.

Question 6.
Endosperm.
Answer:
Nourishment of the growing embryo.

Question 7.
Testis.
Answer:
Production of sperms and male hormone-testosterone.

Question 8.
Scrotum.
Answer:
Protection and temperature control of testis.

Question 9.
Seminal vesicles.
Answer:
Secretion of seminal fluid which forms major portion of semen. Nourishment of sperms.

Question 10.
Penis.
Answer:
Transferring of sperms to vagina at the time of intercourse. Release of urine at the time of urination.

Question 11.
Ovary.
Answer:
Production of oocytes and female hormones – estrogen and progesterone.

Question 12.
Uterus.
Answer:
Growth and development of foetus during pregnancy. Helping in parturition (childbirth) by contractions.

Question 13.
Fallopian tubes/ducts.
Answer:
Transporting the released oocyte after ovulation to the uterus. Providing space for fertilization of oocyte by sperm. Conception is possible only when sperm and oocyte meet in the fallopian tube.

Question 14.
Vagina.
Answer:
Passage for copulation/intercourse. Birth canal. Passage for menstrual flow.

Question 15.
Placenta.
Answer:
Supplying nourishment to the growing foetus.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Binary fission and Multiple fission.
Answer:
Binary fission:

  1. Two new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
  2. The division of nucleus and cytoplasm takes place initially.
  3. The axis of division can be transverse, longitudinal or any one axis as it is in simple binary fission.
  4. Formation of protective cyst does not take place.
  5. Binary fission can be done during favourable period.

Multiple fission:

  1. Many new individuals are formed from one old individual at one time.
  2. Only nucleus divides initially followed by division of cytoplasm.
  3. There is no exact axis for the fission.
  4. Protective covering is formed around dividing amoebulae which is called cyst.
  5. Multiple fission takes place only at the time of unfavourable period.

Question 2.
Human male and Human female reproduction system.
Answer:
Human male reproductive system:

  1. Testis are essential organs which are located outside the abdomen in the scrotal sacs.
  2. There is common urethra through which urine and semen, are passed out.
  3. Reproductive system of male continues to work even in old age.
  4. Sperms or male gametes are produced by meiosis in the testis.
  5. Sperms are produced in millions at one time.
  6. Three accessory glands are associated with the male reproductive system.
  7. Testis secrete testosterone which is essential male hormone.

Human female reproductive system:

  1. Ovaries are essential organs which are located along with all other organs inside the lower abdomen.
  2. Urethra and vagina are two separate openings that open to outside.
  3. Reproductive system works only till menopause.
  4. Oocytes or ova are produced by meiosis in the ovaries.
  5. Only single oocyte is produced per month.
  6. Only one gland is associated with female reproductive system.
  7. Ovaries produce estrogen and progesterone which are essential female hormones.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Monozygotic twins and Dizygotic twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins:

  1. Two children developing from only one zygote are called monozygotic twins.
  2. Monozygotic twins develop from same oocyte.
  3. Gender of both the twins is same.
  4. The monozygotic twins are genetically exactly alike.

Dizygotic twins:

  1. Two children developing from two different zygotes are called dizygotic twins.
  2. Dizygotic twins develop from two different oocytes.
  3. Gender of both the twins can be same or can be different.
  4. The dizygotic twins are genetically not exactly alike.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.
Answer:

  • In sexual reproduction, the haploid male and female gametes are united to form diploid zygote.
  • The zygote thus carries chromosomes of both parents which are transferred via male and female gametes.
  • While producing gametes, there is meiosis in which genetic recombination takes place.
  • Therefore, the individual developed by sexual reproduction always carry recombined genes of both the parents.

Question 2.
Flower is the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plant.
Answer:

  • Flower produces male and female gametes.
  • For this purpose there are essential whorls of androecium and gynoecium.
  • The double fertilization also takes place in flower.
  • Therefore, flower is called the structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants.

Question 3.
Fertilization in plants is called double fertilization.
Answer:

  • After pollination the pollen grains drop on the sticky stigma of the flower.
  • They germinate here producing two male gametes and a long pollen tube.
  • The male gametes travel through the pollen tube till they reach the embryo sac.
  • Here the male gametes are released by bursting the pollen tube. One male gamete unites with the egg cell to form zygote while the second male gamete unites with two polar nuclei forming endosperm.
  • In this way because two nuclei participate in the fertilization process, therefore it is called double fertilization.

Question 4.
By the age of 45 – 50 women gets menopause.
Answer:

  • By the age of 45-50, the secretion of hormones which control the functioning of the reproductive system is reduced gradually and then it stops.
  • This causes end of menstrual cycle. This results into menopause.

Question 5.
Older mothers have greater chance of conceiving abnormal children.
Answer:

  • In older women the menopausal age approaches.
  • The oocytes, released from ovaries during this phase are not normal.
  • Their meiotic cell division is abnormal and thus oocyte becomes abnormal too.
  • If such abnormal oocytes are fertilized, the baby is born with many genetic problems, e.g. Down’s syndrome or Turner’s syndrome.

Question 6.
Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.
Answer:

  • There is severe population explosion in India. It has almost reached to 121 crores.
  • This results into unemployment, decreasing per capita income and increasing loan, stress on natural resources, etc.
  • Only by controlling population, the quality of life can be restored.
  • Therefore, Indians should follow family planning for controlling the population.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
How does reproduction take place in fungus Mucor?
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 12

  • Mucor reproduces asexually by spore formation.
  • It has filamentous body that possess sporangia.
  • When the spores are formed, the sporangia burst. The spores are released which settle down at suitable Places.
  • They germinate in moist and warm place forming a new fungal colony.

Question 2.
What is the type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram below? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 13
Type of asexual reproduction shown in the diagram above is fragmentation in Spirogyra.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 3.
Describe the structure of a flower.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 14
Answer:
(1) The structural unit of sexual reproduction in plants is flower. There are total four floral whorls. Of these, two are accessory floral whorls while two are essential floral whorls.
(2) Calyx and corolla are accessory whorls. They are protective in nature.
(3) Members of calyx are known as sepals. They are usually green in colour. They protect the inner whorls.
(4) The members of corolla are called petals. They can be of different colours.
(5) Androecium and gynoecium are essential whorls as they participate in sexual reproduction.
(6) The male whorl androecium is made up of stamens. Each stamen has a filament with anther located at the upper end. In the anther there are four locules. Inside the locules the meiosis takes place forming pollen grains. During suitable time, the pollen grains are released from anther lobes.
(7) Gynoecium is made up of carpels, either in separate form or are united. Each carpel is formed of ovary at the basal end hollow ‘style’ and the stigma at the tip of style. There are one or many ovules inside the ovary.
(8) In bisexual flowers both androecium and gynoecium are located in the same flower, e.g. Hibiscus.
(9) In unisexual flowers, androecium is present in male flowers and gynoecium is present in the female flowers, e.g. Papaya.

Question 4.
Describe the human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 15
In human male reproductive system, the reproductive organs are as follows:

  • Testes, different types of duct systems and glands.
  • Testes are in pair. Each testis lies in the scrotum which lies outside to abdominal cavity.
  • Testes -consist of numerous seminiferous tubules. The germinal epithelium of seminiferous tubules form sperms by undergoing meiosis.
  • These sperm cells are immature.
  • They are pushed gradually through various duct systems till the penis.
  • This path is as follows:
    Rete testis → vas efferentia → epididymis → vasa deferentia → Ejaculatory duct → urethra
  • As the sperms are travelling, they gradually become mature. They are made capable to perform process of fertilization.
  • Seminal vesicles (in pairs), Single prostate gland and a pair of Cowper’s glands secrete their secretions. These secretions and the sperms together form semen.
  • This semen is deposited in the vagina with help of penis.

Question 5.
Describe the human female reproductive system.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 16

  • All the organs of the human female reproductive system are located inside the lower abdomen.
  • There are pair of ovaries, pair of fallopian ducts and a single median uterus.
  • The uterus opens out by vagina. In vaginal walls there are Bartholin’s glands.
  • The urethra in female body is separate and not a common passage as in male body.
  • The free end of fallopian duct is funnel-like having an opening in the centre. The oocyte released from the ovary due to ovulation is picked up by this funnel.
  • The other end of fallopian duct opens into uterus. There are cilia on inner surface of oviduct. With the help of the cilia the oocyte is pushed to the uterus through the fallopian duct.
  • The fertilization of oocyte can take place only in the middle’part of the fallopian duct.
  • The lower end of uterus opens into vagina. The contractions of uterus help in the process of parturition.
  • Vagina is the birth canal as well as copulatory passage. It is also a passage for menstrual flow.

Question 6.
What problems cause infertility in couple?
Answer:

  • In woman if there are problems like irregularity in menstrual cycle, difficulties in oocyte production or implantation in uterus, obstacles in the oviduct, etc.
  • In man if there are no sperms in the semen, slow movement of sperms, or anomalies in the sperms then he becomes sterile.
  • But now with the help of advanced medical techniques these problems can be overcome and a childless couple can be parents.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) In our country, there seems to be lack of awareness regarding reproductive health. Why?
(b) Write the symptoms of disease gonorrhea.
(c) What precautions will you take to maintain reproductive health?
Answer:
(a) There is lack of awareness about reproductive health among majority of people of our country. This is due to social customs, traditions, illiteracy, social taboo and shyness.

(b) Symptoms of gonorrhea are as follows:

  1. Painful burning during urination.
  2. Oozing of pus through penis or vagina.
  3. Inflammation of urinary tract, anus, throat, eyes, etc.

(c) Precautions to maintain reproductive health are cleanliness and personal hygiene. Guarding against any sexual infections.

Question 8.
If a piece of bread is kept in a container in moist place for 2-3 days, (1) What will you see? (2) Write scientific name and a character of the organism you may observe.
Answer:
(1) If a piece of bread is kept in moist container we can see growth of fungus on it.
(2) Fungi belonging to species Mucor is seen. It has filamentous body and sporangia. Sporangia burst open to spread spores. It has saprophytic mode of nutrition as it devoid of chlorophyll.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Multiple fission.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 17
During unfavourable conditions when there is lack of food. multiple fission is shown by amoeba. Amoeba forms protective covering and becomes encysted. Inside the cyst, amoeba undergoes repeated nuclear division. This is followed by cytoplasmic divisions. Many amoebulae are formed which remain dormant inside the cyst. When favourable conditions reappear, they come out by breaking the cyst.

Question 2.
Regeneration.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 18
In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body, the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Plarfaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 3.
Seed germination.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 19
Seed germination is the process in which the seed develops into a new plantlet. In the plants, after fertilization the ovule develops into seed and ovary turns into fruit. Seeds fallen on the ground due to bursting of the fruits start germinating. Only under favourable conditions in the soil, this germination takes place. The zygote present inside the seed uses food stored in endosperm of seed and hence develops further to produce a new plantlet.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 4.
Budding in hydra.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 20
In multicellular organisms asexual reproduction by budding is shown by hydra. In fully grown Hydra, at specific part of its body there is development of bud.

This development is only during favourable period. The bud is an outgrowth developed due to repeated divisions of regenerative cells of body wall. It grows up gradually to form a small hydra. Parent hydra’s dermal layers and digestive cavity are in continuity with those of the budding hydra. It receives all the nutrition from parent hydra.When the budding hydra grows sufficiently, it detaches from parent hydra. Then it leads an independent life.

Question 5.
Fragmantation.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 21
Fragmentation is one of the type of asexual reproduction in multicellular organisms. During fragmentation, the body of parent organism breaks up into many fragments. All the resulting fragments start to develop as an independent new organism. In alga Spirogyra, and sponge like Sycon asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation. Spirogyra grow up very fast and break up into many small fragments when there are favourable conditions. Each newly formed fragment lives independently as a new Spirogyra. Similarly the body of Sycon if accidentally broken into many fragments, develops into new Sycon from each old fragment.

Question 6.
Monozygotic twins.
Answer:
The twins developed from a single embryo are called monozygotic twins. If within 8 days of zygote formation i.e. in early embryonic development cells of that embryo divide into two groups. Each one develop as two separate embryos forming two monozygotic twins. Monozygotic twins are genetically exactly similar to each other. The gender of the twins is also same.

The Siamese twins develop from monozygotic twins, if the embryonic cells are divided into two groups 8 days after the zygote formation. These are conjoined twins where some parts of body are joined to each other. Also some organs are common in Siamese twins.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

Reproduction is the process by which the living species continues its existence. Lower organisms carry out asexual reproduction while higher plants and animals always show sexual reproduction. Plants reproduce asexually by methods such as fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation. For sexual reproduction they form gametes. In animal kingdom, budding, fission of different types and parthenogenesis are some of the methods that do not require both the sexes. Though regeneration also forms new individual, it is not considered to be a reproductive process because, basically it is a repair process. The ability to regenerate is lost in higher phyla. In human beings | it is restricted only to wound healing. Sexual reproduction is also undergoing lots of experimentation such as cloning which may make females capable of producing their own baby without intervention of any male.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
How do living species continue their existence?
Answer:
Through the process of reproduction, living species continue their existence.

Question 2.
Which are asexual methods of reproduction in kingdom Animalia?
Answer:
Fission, budding and parthenogenesis are the asexual methods of reproduction in Kingdom Animalia.

Question 3.
Why is regeneration not true method of reproduction?
Answer:
Regeneration is the repair process than a reproductive process. It is not done with the intention of producing offspring, but is for healing or repairing the lost part.

Question 4.
What are methods of reproduction in plants?
Answer:
Plants reproduce by asexual as well as sexual methods. Asexual reproduction is by fragmentation, vegetative propagation, budding, spore formation, while by formation of gametes, sexual reproduction is done.

Question 5.
What is the modern method of reproduction aimed at in higher organisms?
Answer:
Cloning is the modern method of reproduction by which production of young one can be aimed at.

Diagram-based Questions:

Question 1.
Observe the figure 3.18 and answer the questions below: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 22
(a) What does the figure 3.18 indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates the menstrual cycle in human female.

(b) Which human organs are involved in this process?
Answer:
The ovary and uterus are primarily involved in this process. But the pituitary gland also controls this cycle.

(c) Which hormones take part in this process?
Answer:
Following hormones regulate this menstrual cycle.
Pituitary hormones: Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH).
Ovarian hormones: Estrogen and progesterone.

(d) What is the periodicity for these changes?
Answer:
The menstrual cycle shows repetitive changes every 28 to 30 days.

(e) The body of woman undergoing this process is impure, she should remain away from other people. What is your opinion about this statement? Give justification for your opinion.
Answer:
A menstruating woman is not at all with impure body. It is a natural process in which the endometrium of the uterus is sloughed off and repaired.

She should get enough rest and nutrition during this period. It is painful period in which there is a possibility of infections. Therefore, she should take ! hygienic care and rest till the bleeding persists. But blind faith and superstition to keep her away from others should not be followed.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Question 2.
Observe the diagram (Fig. 3.19) of menstrual cycle and answer the following questions:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 23
(1) What is the period of menstruation?
Answer:
1 to 5 days is the period of menstruation.

(2) On which day does ovulation occur during menstrual cycle?
Answer:
Ovulation occurs on 14th or 15th day.

(3) During which period is corpus luteum active during menstrual cycle? Which hormones are secreted by corpus luteum ?
Answer:
Corpus luteum is active till the 28th day of menstrual cycle. During this time if there is no union of sperm and ovum, then corpus luteum degenerates. Corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone.

(4) In menstrual cycle which reproductive organs undergo changes?
Answer:
Ovary and uterus undergo changes during menstrual cycle.

(5) Which period is said to be period of regeneration of endometrium?
Answer:
In menstrual cycle, days 5 to 14 are period of regeneration of endometrium.

(6) Which period is said to be period of secretions of glands in endometrium?
Answer:
Period of secretions of glands in endometrium is 15 to 28 days.

Question 3.
Observe the following picture and describe the type of reproduction shown in.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 24
Answer:
In developed animals like wall lizard the process of regeneration is used to restore the lost parts like tail or limbs. As the reproductive system is one of the fullfledged system in the body. the process of regeneration cannot be called type of reproduction.

But some primitive organisms such as Planaria use this method for procreation. Planaria breaks up its body into two parts. Each part has the ability to develop the lost part by process of regeneration. This forms two new Planaria.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions: (March 2019)
(a) “Gender of child is determined by the male partner of couple.” Draw a diagram explaining the above statement.
Answer:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 25

(b) Prepare a slogan for campaign against female foeticide.
Answer:

  • Save the girl child.
  • Daughters give lot of joy, it is not only the boy.

(c) In the following figure, explain how new fungal colonies of mucor are formed:
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 26
Answer:
Mucor is a fungus having filamentous body. The filaments bear sporangia. Mature sporangia burst and release spores. Spores germinate to form new hyphae upon getting favourable moist and warm place.

(d) Identify and state the type of reproduction represented in the above figure.
Ans. The spore formation is asexual type of reproduction seen in Mucor.

Question 5.
Write the type of asexual reproduction shown in the figure.
Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2, 27
Answer:
The figure shows budding in yeast. Budding is the type of asexual reproduction.

Experiments:
(Try this: Text Book Pages 23 and 24)

(1) Observation of Paramoecia.
(2) Observation of yeast.
(3) Study of Hibiscus.
[For detailed information on practicals, refer to Vikas Science and Technology Experiment Book: Standard X]

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 3 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part - 2

Projects:

Project 1.
Use of ICT. (Textbook page no. 27)
Make an video album of pollination and show it in the class.

Project 2.
Internet is my friend. (Textbook page no. 33)
You may have read that sometimes a woman may deliver more than two offspring at a time. Collect more information from internet about reasons for such incidences.

Project 3.
Get information. (Textbook page no. 34)
Visit a public health centre nearby your place and collect the information through an interview of health officer about meaning and various methods of family planning.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Textbook Solutions Answers Guide

Balbharati Solutions for Class 10 Digest Answers Maharashtra State Board

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 10th Std Textbook Solutions Answers Digest

Maharashtra State Board Textbook Solutions

Maharashtra Board 10th Class Maths Part 1 Practice Set 5.3 Solutions Chapter 5 Probability

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Maths Solutions covers the Practice Set 5.3 Algebra 10th Class Maths Part 1 Answers Solutions Chapter 5 Probability.

Practice Set 5.3 Algebra 10th Std Maths Part 1 Answers Chapter 5 Probability

Question 1.
Write sample space ‘S’ and number of sample points n(S) for each of the following experiments. Also write events A, B, C in the set form and write n(A), n(B), n(C).

i. One die is rolled,
Event A: Even number on the upper face.
Event B: Odd number on the upper face.
Event C: Prime number on the upper face.

ii. Two dice are rolled simultaneously,
Event A: The sum of the digits on upper faces is a multiple of 6.
Event B: The sum of the digits on the upper faces is minimum 10.
Event C: The same digit on both the upper faces.

iii. Three coins are tossed simultaneously.
Condition for event A: To get at least two heads.
Condition for event B: To get no head.
Condition for event C: To get head on the second coin.

iv. Two digit numbers are formed using digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 without repetition of the digits.
Condition for event A: The number formed is even.
Condition for event B: The number is divisible by 3.
Condition for event C: The number formed is greater than 50.

v. From three men and two women, environment committee of two persons is to be formed.
Condition for event A: There must be at least one woman member.
Condition for event B: One man, one woman committee to be formed.
Condition for event C: There should not be a woman member.

vi. One coin and one die are thrown simultaneously.
Condition for event A: To get head and an odd number.
Condition for event B: To get a head or tail and an even number.
Condition for event C: Number on the upper face is greater than 7 and tail on the coin.
Solution:
i. Sample space (S) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
∴ n(S) = 6
Condition for event A: Even number on the upper face.
∴ A = {2,4,6}
∴ n(A) = 3
Condition for event B: Odd number on the upper face.
∴ B = {1, 3, 5}
∴ n(B) = 3
Condition for event C: Prime number on the upper face.
∴ C = {2, 3, 5}
∴ n(C) = 3

ii. Sample space,
S = {(1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (1,6),
(2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6),
(3,1), (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6),
(4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6),
(5,1), (5,2), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5), (5,6),
(6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)}
∴ n(S) = 36
Condition for event A: The sum of the digits on the upper faces is a multiple of 6.
A = {(1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 2), (5, 1), (6, 6)}
∴ n(A) = 6

Condition for event B: The sum of the digits on the upper faces is minimum 10.
B = {(4, 6), (5, 5), (5, 6), (6, 4), (6, 5), (6, 6)}
∴ n(B) = 6

Condition for event C: The same digit on both the upper faces.
C = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
∴ n(C) = 6

iii. Sample space,
S = {HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT}
∴ n(S) = 8

Condition for event A: To get at least two heads.
∴ A = {HHT, HTH, THH, HHH}
∴ n(A) = 4

Condition for event B: To get no head.
∴ B = {TTT}
∴ n(B) = 1

Condition for event C: To get head on the second coin.
∴ C = {HHH, HHT, THH, THT}
∴ n(C) = 4

iv. Sample space (S) = {10, 12, 13, 14, 15,
20, 21, 23, 24, 25,
30, 31, 32, 34, 35,
40, 41, 42, 43,
45, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54}
∴ n(S) = 25
Condition for event A: The number formed is even
∴ A = {10, 12, 14, 20, 24, 30, 32, 34, 40, 42, 50, 52, 54)
∴ n(A) = 13
Condition for event B: The number formed is divisible by 3.
∴ B = {12, 15, 21, 24, 30, 42, 45, 51, 54}
∴ n(B) = 9
Condition for event C: The number formed is greater than 50.
∴ C = {51,52, 53,54}
∴ n(C) = 4

v. Let the three men be M1, M2, M3 and the two women be W1, W2.
Out of these men and women, a environment committee of two persons is to be formed.
∴ Sample space,
S = {M1M2, M1M3, M1W1, M1W2, M2M3, M2W1, M2W2, M3W1, M3W2, W1W2}
∴ n(S) = 10
Condition for event A: There must be at least one woman member.
∴ A = {M1W1, M1W2, M2W1, M2W2, M3W1, M3W2, W1W2}
∴ n(A) = 7
Condition for event B: One man, one woman committee to be formed.
∴ B = {M1W1, M1W2, M2W1, M2W2, M3W2, M3W2}
∴ n(B) = 6
Condition for event C: There should not be a woman member.
∴ C = {M1M2, M1M3, M2M3}
∴ n(C) = 3

vi. Sample space,
S = {(H, 1), (H, 2), (H, 3), (H, 4), (H, 5), (H, 6), (T, 1), (T, 2), (T, 3), (T, 4), (T, 5), (T, 6)}
∴ n(S) = 12
Condition for event A: To get head and an odd number.
∴ A = {(H, 1), (H, 3), (H, 5)}
∴ n(A) = 3
Condition for event B: To get a head or tail and an even number.
∴ B = {(H, 2), (H, 4), (H, 6), (T, 2), (T, 4), (T, 6)}
∴ n(B) = 6
Condition for event C: Number on the upper face is greater than 7 and tail on the coin.
The greatest number on the upper face of a die is 6.
∴ Event C is an impossible event.
∴ C = { }
∴ n(C) = 0