Category: Class 10

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 4 Social and Political Movements

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) ………………………….. is the main demand of farmers movement.
(a) Right to cultivate on the forest land
(b) To get the right price for agricultural product
(c) Protection of consumers
(d) Building of dams
Answer:
(b) To get the right price for agricultural products

(2) To increase agricultural production and become self-sufficient with regard to food grains ………………………….. was initiated.
(a) Water revolution
(b) Green revolution
(c) Industrial revolution
(d) White revolution
Answer:
(b) Green revolution

Question 2.
Explain the concepts.
(1) Tribal movement
Answer:

• Tribal community was always dependent on forest wealth for their living.
• The British had prohibited the tribals from making use of forest wealth to earn their livelihõod
• Kolam, Gond, Santhal, Koli, Bhilla, Munda Tribals of different parts of India revolted against the British.
• Even after independence their problem to earn a livelihood is not solved. Their right on the forest land, to gather forest products and to cultivate on forest land is not yet recognised.

Therefore, for these demands, Tribal Movement is active in many parts.

(2) Labour movement
Answer:

• Industries in public and private sector like textile mills, railway companies started in India in the latter part of the nineteenth century.
• Due to industrialisction, a large number’ of labour force came into existence.
• Thiš led to lot of labour issues. In 1920, All India Trade Union. Congress was established to solve their problems.
• Many unions were formed after independence. The Trade Union Movement was very effective from 1960 tifi 1980s.
• After 1980s trade union movement lost its momentum and slowly disintegrated. Globalization gave a final blow to the movement.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) Explain the activities/role/functions of environmental movement.
Answer:
(i) Role : The environment movement rias played a key role in –

• Creating public awareness about the importance of balance in environment through television, newspapers, and other mediums.
• Opposing developmental projects with environmental concerns.

(ii) Functions : The function of the environment movement is to make efforts silently or rigorously to protect natural areas through afforestation, recycling or pollution control. Forest department and the pollution board are actively involved and extend support by making stringent laws to book the culprits.

(iii) Activities : Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement:

• Environmental degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also in the world.
• The issues of degradation was discussed at. Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
• Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appiko movement ana Vanmahatsov.

(2) Explain the nature of farmers movement in India.
Answer:

1. The Indian farmers organised themselves in pre-independence era to fight against the anti-agricultural policies of the colonial British rulers.
2. The farmers were inspired by the thoughts of Mahatma Phule, Justice Ranade and Mahatma Gandhi. They organised satyagraha against revenue collection in Bardoli and Champaranya.
3. Farmers’ movement slowed down because of tenancy laws under land reforms. Green revolution failed to improve conditions of the poor farmers.
4. Farmers’ movement gained momentum with demands like, appropriate price for agricultural products, debt relief and debt cancellation after recommendations from Swaminathan Commission.

(3) For which reforms were the women’s movement in the pre-independence period fighting?
Answer:
In the pre-independence period women’s movement were working for the following reforms :

• Eliminating injustice against women.
• To put an end to the exploitation of women and help them lead a respectful and dignified life.
• They should be able to participate actively in social life.
• To end the practices like Sati, child marriage, polygamy and bring about reforms such as widow remarriage and women’s education.

Question 4.
State wheather the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Movements are important in a democracy.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• People organise themselves and start a movement to solve social issues.
• Leaders and activists provide all the information regarding those issues to the government.
• The government takes, notice of the problems because of the movement.
• Some movements aim at opposing some policies of the government and certain decisions. This is the most recognised method of protest in democracy.

Hence, movements have great importance in democracy

(2) Movements do not need a strong leadership.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• The success of any movement depends on leadership. The movement remains active because of the strong leader.
• The decisions regarding the objective of the movement, programme of action, strategy of agitation are decided and taken by the leader.
• Firm leadership has a wide reach. They can get public support making the movement very effective. So, the need of a strong leadership is utmost essential.

(3) Consumer movement came into existence.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The consumers faced different problems because of changing economy and social system.
• Adulteration increased the cost of products and faulty weights and measures are some of the problems faced by the consumers.
• To protect the consumers from such frauds the Consumer Protection Act was passed in 1986.
• The Consumer Protection movement was started to create awareness among the consumers about their rights and their safety.

Project
(1) Collect the news in the newspapers about various activities of social movements.
(2) Write a report on movements in your area which are working to resolve general problems.
(3) Prepare a format of a complaint you will submit under consumer protection act if you are cheated in purchase of vegetables or grains
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences :
(a) In …………………., movements have more importance.
(a) socialist rule
(b) dictatorship
(c) democracy
(d) communist rule
Answer:
(c) democracy

(b) In democracy, Right to …………………. is considered an important right.
(a) rehabilitate
(b) pursue questions
(c) behave with control and responsibility
(d) protest
Answer:
(d) protest

(c) is the objective of Green Revolution.
(a) To stop degradation of environment
(b) Protection of the forests
(c) Increase in agricultural output
(d) To stop the felling of trees.
Answer:
(c) Increase in agricultural output.

(d) The trade union movement in India has background of ………………… .
(a) freedom struggle
(b) globalisation
(c) prestigious past
(d) industrialisation
Answer:
(d) industrialisation

(e) In 1899, …………………. workers called for a strike.
(a) railway
(b) mill
(c) handloom
(d) rice mill
Answer:
(a) railway

(f) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana had brought about …………………. in Rajasthan.
(a) White Revolution
(b) Water Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Consumer Revolution
Answer:
(b) Water Revolution

(g) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is known as the …………………. of India.
(a) Farmer man
(b) environment affectionate
(c) Man of the Millennium
(d) Waterman
Answer:
(d) Waterman

(h) Tribals in Bihar revolted against the British under the leadership of ………………… .
(a) Rajendrasinh Rana
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Umaji Naik
(d) Kajarsingh
Answer:
(b) Birsa Munda.

(i) Swadeshi movement is an important …………………. movement.
(a) political
(b) social
(c) economic
(d) cultural
Answer:
(c) economic

(j) …………………. is one of the problems faced by consumers.
(a) Cancellation
(b) Malnutrition
(c) Adulteration
(d) Transportation
Answer:
(c) Adulteration

(k) The main demand of the farmer’s movement was to accept suggestions of the …………………. Commission.
(a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Verghese Kurien
(c) Swaminathan
(d) Kothari
Answer:
(c) Swaminathan

(l) In 1986, …………………. Act came into force.
(a) Consumer Protection
(b) Women Empowerment
(c) Child Marriage
(d) Environment Protection
Answer:
(a) Consumer Protection

(m) The post-1980 movements are called ………………… .
(a) New
(b) Neo-social
(c) Broad
(d) Globalisation
Answer:
(b) Neo-social

(n) …………………. was established in 1920.
(a) Farmer’s Organization
(b) Bhartiya Kisan Union
(c) All India Trade Union Congress
(d) All India Kisan Sabha
Answer:
(d) All India Trade Union Congress.

Question 6.
Explain the following statements by giving reasons :
(a) Political parties can concentrate on one particular issue.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• Political parties contest elections to solve problems of common people.
• Parties have to take into consideration all matters from public cleanliness to roads to space research. They have to have a national perspective and take decisions.
• Political parties should have programmes for the development of all the sections of society like youth, senior citizens, businessmen, women, farmers and labourers.
• This – means that political parties cannot concentrate on just one particular issue.

(b) People’s active participation is expected in the movement.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• A. movement is started to solve issues of public interest.
• People offer support to the movements which are related to their cause or a particular issue.
• Deciding upon the issues of the people a programme is decided and a group is formed.

(c) Dr. Rajendrasinh Rana is called the Waterman of India.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• Dr. Rajendrashinh Rana built thousands of ‘Johads’ in Rajasthan.
• He revived many rivers in the desert region of Rajasthan.
• He formed an organisation – “Tarun Bharat Sangh” which built eleven thousand Johads to harvest water. .
• He started a campaign for Water conservation, revival of rivers, forest conservation and wildlife conservation.
• He worked continuously for this cause for 31 years building 11 thousand johads bringing about water revolution in Rajasthan. Therefore, is called the Waterman of India.

Question 7.
Explain the concept :
(a) Movement:
Answer:

1. When people organise themselves to resolve a certain issue it is called a movement.
2. Movements increase the participation of people in social life.
3. Movements are for public welfare and to solve issues. The aim of any movement is not only to pressurize the government but also to oppose its decision or policies.
4. A movement is started for different reasons like religious, social, cúltural, protection of the environment, ill practices and traditions.

(b) Public Interest Litigation:
Answer:

1. A litigation is filed if an individual or group feels that fundamental rights which are enshrined in the Constitution are undermined by the government.
2. To safeguard human rights, citizens can file a litigation in High Court or Supreme Court. Such a litigation is known as Public Interest Litigation.
3. Public Interest Litigation is filed for problems such as pollution, government avoiding public works and for social problems such as violence, discrimination and ostracising someone.
4. It is the most effective way of seeking justice.

(c) Environment Movement :
Answer:

• Different activities are conducted to promote the environment movement in India.
• Environment degradation has become a serious issue not only in India but also all over the world.
• The issues of degradation were discussed at Rio-de-Janeiro, Paris and Kyoto Conferences.
• Even in India many movements are active for conservation of the environment like the Chipko movement, Appika movement and Vanmahatsov.

Question 8.
(A) Complete the graphical representation :

(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(4)

Answer:

(B) Explain the events in Trade Union Movement:

Answer:

Question 9.
Answer the following questions in brief:
(a) Explain the features of a movement.
Answer:

• A movement is a collective action which has active participation or support of the people.
• People take up a particular issue and organise themselves.
• A movement requires strong leadership. A strong leader makes the movement effective.
• If people feel connected to the issue, then they extend their support to the movement.

(b) What are the demands of Trade Union Movement?
Answer:
The Trade Uniin Movement makes demands regarding following issues :

• Contract labour and unstable employment..
• financial insecurity and unfavourable conditions at workplace.
• Unlimited working hours and health hazards.
• No protection of labour laws.

(c) How did the objectives of women’s movement change after independence?
Answer:

1. In the pre-independence era the aim of the women’s movement was to put an end to the unjust practices against women and end their exploitation.
2. After independence, the aim of their movement changed because they realised that though the Constitution had given equal rights both to men and women in practice they were never considered equal.
3. The objective of the women’s movement was to achieve freedom in real sense, i.e. they should be treated as human beings and should get equal rights and to live a dignified life.

(d) Which issues were taken up by the women’s movement after independence?
Answer:
Many issues were taken up by the women’s movement for welfare of the women after independence. Some are:

• Health and education of women
• financial independence
• Social security
• To be treated as human beings and have a status and prestige.

(e) Which issues are handled through movements?
Answer:
Movements arise out of public issues, which could be social, political, economic and religious.

1. To protect the rights of the citizens like voting, freedom and for similar issues, political movements are organised.
2. financial security, minimum wages, employment, insistence on an indigenous product are the reasons for economic movement.
3. Social and religious movements are organized to eliminate ill practices like untouchability, entry of women in temples,’ discrimination and social issues.
4. Movements are organised to raise voice against injustice done to a particular region, language and for issues like cleanliness, environment and movements for development like Green revolution and White resolution.

(f) Which movements started in India are actively working for rehabilitation of the displaced and to secure their livelihood?
Answer:
People who got displaced started this movement for different reasons. Some movements lasted for short time while some lasted long.

• “Narmada Bachao Andolan” was a popular movement.
• People living in Maharashtra and Gujarat continued it for 28 years.
• People in the Sindhudurg district who got displaced due to the Talamba dam started movement for rehabilitation. It lasted for 32 years.
• Farmers who got displaced because of Pune-Nagpur highway or for the planned Purandar airport launched movements on a large scale. Such movements are going on all over India.

(g) Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers?
Answer:
The government has started the following policies for the welfare of the farmers and landless labourers :

• National agriculture policy
• Crop insurance scheme (FASAL Bima Yojana)
• Jalyukt Shivar
• Indira Gandhi Niradhar (old), landless, destitute women farm labour scheme.
• Neem Coated Urea.
• Name the policies started by the government for the welfare of farmers and landless labourers.

(h) Name the movements started by Mahatma Gandhi, Mahatma Phule, Sant Gadge Maharaj and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:

• Mahatma Phule laid the foundation of the movement for education of women and social equality.
• To stop the practice of widow tonsure he called for a strike of barbers in Mumbai.
• Mahatma Gandhi adopted the technique of satyagraha and started the movement for farmers in Champaranya and Kheda.
• He also started the Non-cooperation Movement and Civil Disobedience Movement..
• Sant Gadge Maharaj started the cleanliness campaign.
• Dr. Babashaeb Ambedkar launched satyagraha to allow untouchables to use water from a public tank in Mahad..
• He also led the movement in Nashik for Dalits so that they could get entry into the Kalaram temple.

(i) All movements have ideologies. (Discuss : Textbook page 92)
Answer:

• Even though movements are launched for social welfare there is always an ideology behind every movement.
• The scope of movements against child marriage or dowry prohibition is not limited to oppose the social evil practice but have wider aim of social reformation.
• The movements started against female foeticide ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhav’, violence against women and to empower women had objectives to achieve equal social status for women and their protection.
• Movements like cleanliness campaign, Chipko Andolan, Save Trees aim not only at environment protection but also aim at saving humanity.
• These movements have faith in democratic values like equality and brotherhood and humanity. This shows all movements have ideologies.
• Generally the movements are devoted to one particular issue but have an ideology behind them.
• For example movements against child marriage, dowry believe in values of democracy, women empowerment and social equality.
• Sometimes some movements gradually get transformed into political parties.

Question 10.
Give your opinion :
(a) Do you think, if all the movements co-ordinate with each other, the result will be more effective?
Answer:

• Our society has witnessed many movements from pre-independence times.
• If all these movements co-ordinate with each other they will be definitely, effective.
• With each other’s cooperation they can work together to find the root cause of the problem and also find a solution.
• The manpower will not get divided. The work will get divided and that would save time and energy to a great extent.
• The movement will be more effective.

(a) On which issues does the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement in India insist? (Discuss : Textbook page 93)
Answer:
People migrate for various reasons within the country. They create lot of problems in their newly adopted homeland which give rise to the ‘Sons of the Soil’ movement. The main reasons for the movement are :

• Sons of the Soil, i.e. local people lose out on employment opportunities.
• They are deprived of their jobs.
• Their land is confiscated.
• Housing becomes expensive.
• The migrants pose a threat to the language and culture of local people.
• Sons of the Soil lose economic monopoly as well as political influence.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 2 Life Processes in Living Organisms Part – 1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks and explain the statements.
a. After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, ……….. number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.

b. At the end of glycolysis, ……………… molecules are obtained.
Answer:
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.

c. Genetic recombination occurs in ………… phase of prophuse of meiosis-I.
Answer:
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.

d. All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in …………. phase of mitosis.
Answer:
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equutorial plane of cell in metaphase phase of mitosis.

e. For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
For formation of plasma membrane, …………… molecules are necessary.

f. Our muscle cells perform ……………… type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.

Question 2.
Write definitions.
a. Nutrition.
Answer:
Nutrition: The process of taking nutrients in the body and utilizing them by an organism is known as nutrition.

b. Nutrients.
Answer:
Nutrients: The substances like carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals etc. which are components of the food are called nutrients.

c. Proteins.
Answer:
Proteins: Protein is a macromolecule which is formed by many amino acids which are joined by peptide bonds.

d. Cellular respiration.
Answer:
Cellular respiration: Oxidation of glucose and other food components which takes place inside the cell in presence or absence of oxygen, is known as cellular respiration.

e. Aerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration: Cellular respiration taking place in presence of oxygen is known as aerobic respiration.

f. Glycolysis.
Answer:
Glycolysis: The process occurring in the cell where a molecule of glucose is oxidized in step by step process forming two molecules of each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water, is called glycolysis.

Question 3.
Distinguish between
a. Glycolysis and TCA cycle
Answer:
Glycolysis:

• The process of glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• In glycolysis, one molecule of glucose is oxidized step-by-step to produce two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water.
• Glycolysis can take place in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
• The first step in cellular respiration is glycolysis where glucose is converted into pyruvate.
• Two molecules of pyruvate are obtained in glycolysis.
• Two molecules of ATP are used up in glycolysis.
• Four molecules of ATP are produced in glycolysis.
• CO2 is not produced during glycolysis.

TCA cycle:

• TCA cycle takes place in mitochondria.
  In TCA cycle, molecule of acetyl-co-A is completely oxidized and in the process CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP is produced.
• TCA cycle takes place only during aerobic respiration.
• The second step in cellular respiration is TCA cycle.
• Pyruvate is converted into CO₂ and H₂O during TCA cycle.
• ATP molecules are not used up in TCA cycle.
• Two molecules of ATP are produced in TCA cycle.
• CO₂ is produced in TCA cycle.

b. Mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:
Mitosis:

• In mitosis the chromosome number does not change. Diploid cells remain diploid, without change.
• One cell gives rise to two daughter cells in mitosis.
• Karyokinesis of mitosis has four stages, viz. prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
• Prophase of mitosis is not lengthy.
• Genetic recombination does not happen in mitosis as there is no crossing over.
• Mitosis is essential for growth and development.
• Mitosis takes place both in somatic cells and germinal cells.

meiosis:

• In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to half. The diploid cells become haploid.
• One cell gives rise to four daughter cells in meiosis.
• Meiosis has two major stages, viz. meiosis-I and meiosis-II. Each is further subdivided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.
• Prophase of meiosis-I is very lengthy.
• Genetic recombination takes place in homologous chromosomes as there is crossing over during prophase-I.
• Meiosis is essential for formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
• Meiosis takes place in only germinal cells. It does not take place in somatic cells.

c. Aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Aerobic respiration:

• Oxygen is required for aerobic respiration.
• Aerobic respiration takes place in nucleus as well as in cytoplasm.
• At the end of aerobic respiration CO₂ and H₂O is formed.
• Energy is produced in large amount in aerobic respiration.
• Glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic respiration.
• 38 molecules of ATP are formed during aerobic respiration.
• Chemical reaction:
  C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6H₂O + 6 CO₂ + 686 Kcal

Anaerobic respiration:

• Oxygen is not required for anaerobic respiration.
• Anaerobic respiration occurs only in the cytoplasm.
• At the end of anaerobic respiration CO₂ and C₂H₅OH are formed.
• Energy is produced in lesser amount in anaerobic respiration.
• Glucose is incompletely oxidized in anaerobic respiration.
• 2 molecules of ATP are formed during anaerobic respiration.
• Chemical reaction:
  C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2 C₂H₅OH + 2 CO₂ + 50 Kcal

Question 4.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.
Answer:

1. When glucose is completely oxidized in aerobic cellular respiration, it produces 38 molecules of ATP.
2. In cellular respiration, three processes take place one after the other, these are glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain reactions.
3. In absence of oxygen only glycolysis can occur but further two reactions will not take place.
4. If glycolysis occurs in absence of oxygen, it produces alcohol.
5. By anaerobic glycolysis only two molecules of ATP are produced.
6. This results in less energy supply to the body. Therefore, oxygen is necessary for complete oxidation of glucose.

b. Fibres are one of the important nutrients. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

1. Fibres are indigestible substance.
2. They are thrown out along with other useless and undigested matter.
3. This aids in egestion. Some fibres also help in digestion of other substances.
4. Green leafy vegetables, fruits, cereals, etc. are considered as important in diet as they supply nutritious fibres.
5. Thus, fibres are considered as one of the important nutrients.

c. Cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.
Answer:

1. Cell division is very essential for all the living organisms.
2. The growth and development is possible only due to cell division.
3. The emaciated body can be restored only through the cell division which adds new cells.
4. Offspring is produced only through the cell division that take place in parents.
5. In asexual reproduction, mitosis helps to give rise to new generation.
6. In sexual reproduction, meiosis helps to form haploid gametes.
7. All such functions show that cell division is one of the important properties of cells and organisms.

d. Sometimes, higher plants and animals too perform anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

1. When there is deficiency of oxygen in the surrounding, the aerobic respiration is not possible.
2. In such case, to survive, higher plants switch over to anaerobic respiration.
3. In some animal tissues in case of oxygen deficiency cells perform anaerobic respiration.

e. Krebs cycle is also known as citric acid cycle.
Answer:

1. Sir Hans Kreb proposed this cycle and hence it is called Krebs cycle.
2. These are series of cyclic chain reactions which begins with acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules which act with molecules of oxaloacetic acid.
3. The reactions are catalysed with the help of specific enzymes.
4. The first molecule formed in this reaction is called citric acid. Therefore, Krebs cycle is also called citric acid cycle.

Question 5.
Answer in detail.
a. Explain the glycolysis in detail.
Answer:

• Carbohydrates are converted to glucose after the process of digestion is completed. The oxidation of glucose for releasing energy is called glycolysis which takes place in cytoplasm.
• Glycolysis can occur in presence of oxygen or without oxygen too. The first type of glycolysis takes place in aerobic respiration and the second type is in anaerobic respiration.
• In aerobic respiration, there is step-wise oxidation of glucose molecule forming two molecules each of pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water.
• Later the pyruvic acid formed in this process is converted into molecules of Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with two molecules of NADH₂ and two molecules of CO₂.
• During anaerobic respiration along with glycolysis there is fermentation too. This is incomplete oxidation of glucose and thus it results in formation of lesser energy.
• The process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Parnas. Therefore, in their honour, glycolysis is also called as Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway (EMP pathway). For the discovery they had performed experiments on muscles.

b. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the mitosis in detail.
Answer:
(1) There are two stages of mitosis. These are
(a) Karyokinesis or nuclear division and
(b) Cytokinesis or cytoplasmic division. Karyokinesis takes place in further four phases, viz prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase.



(a) Karyokinesis:
(i) Prophase: During prophase, condensation of chromosomes starts. The thin and thread like chromosomes start thickening. They are seen with their pair of sister chromatids. In animal cells the centrioles are seen to duplicate and move to opposite poles of the cell. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.

(ii) Metaphase: Chromosomes complete their condensation and each one is seen with its sister chromatids. The chromosomes are seen in equatorial plane of the cell. The spindle fibres are formed from polar region, where centrioles are present, and they attach themselves to the centromere of each chromosome. Nuclear membrane now disappears completely.

(iii) Anaphase: The centromeres of the chromosomes now divide forming two daughter chromosomes. The spindle fibres pull apart the chromosomes from equatorial region to the opposite poles. Chromosomes moving to the poles appear like bunch of bananas. One set of chromosomes reach each pole by the end of the anaphase.

(iv) Telophase: Telophase is reverse of events that occurred in prophase. The thickened chromosomes decondense. They again assume the thin and thread like appearance. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus appear again. The spindle fibres are completely lost. The cell looks as if it has two nuclei in one cytoplasm.

(b) Cytokinesis: In animal cells a notch develops in the middle of the cell. This notch goes on deepening down and later the cytoplasm divides into two. In plant cells, cell plate formation takes place and then cytokinesis takes place.

c. With the help of suitable diagrams, explain the five stages of prophase-I of meiosis.
Answer:



Prophase-I: Prophase – I of meiosis is much longer phase of the meiosis.
It is subdivided into 5 substages, namely leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, and diakinesis.
(1) Leptotene: Initially the chromosomes start condensation and they become compact during leptotene.

(2) Zygotene: In zygotene, homologous chromosomes start pairing. This pairing is called synapsis. The structure called synaptonemal complex develops to hold chromosomes in place during this pairing. Each chromosome’s chromatid arm divides and forms structure called bivalent or tetrad.

(3) Pachytene: During pachytene stage, crossing over of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place. Genetic recombination is produced due to such exchange. The homologous chromosomes still remain paired together at the sites of crossing over.

(4) Diplotene: During diplotene, synaptonemal complex dissolves and the homologous chromosomes of the bivalents separate except at the point of crossing over. Thus, it looks like X-shaped structures called the chiasmata.

(5) Diakinesis: The last phase of prophase is for termination of chiasmata. The spindle fibres originate, and the cross-over homologous chromosomes are now separated. The nucleQlus disappears, and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

d. How do all the life processes contribute to the growth and development of the body?
Answer:

1. Different systems work in co-ordination with each other in the body of the living organisms. In human body the homoeostasis is very advanced.
2. Digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, excretory system, nervous system and all the external and internal organs in the bodywork independently but in coordination with each other.
3. The digested and absorbed nutrients of the food are transported to various cells with the help of circulatory system due to pumping of the heart. Simultaneously, the oxygen absorbed in the blood by lungs is also transported to each cell by RBCs.
4. Mitochondria in every cell brings about oxidation of nutrients and produce energy required for all of these functions.
5. The control is exercised by the nervous system on all these actions. This keeps the organism alive and helps in growth and development of the same.

e. Explain the Krebs cycle with reaction.
Answer:

• Krebs cycle was proposed by Sir Hans Kreb. This cycle is named after him. It is also called tricarboxylic acid cycle or citric acid cycle.
• The acetyl-coenzyme-A molecules enter the mitochondria located in the cytoplasm.
• They participate in the chemical reactions taking place in Krebs cycle.
• In the cyclic chemical reactions, acetyl- coenzyme-A is completely oxidised
• It yields molecules of CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP upon complete oxidation.

Question 5.
How energy is formed from oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins?
Correct the dagram below.

Answer:
(1) First of all the dietary carbohydrates are digested in the digestive system with the help of various enzymes and converted into glucose. Similarly, proteins are converted into amino acids and fats are broken down into fatty aid and glycerol (alcohol).

(2) Oxidation of carbohydrates takes place during cellular respiration. Glucose is oxidized by three steps during aerobic respiration, viz. glycolysis, tricarboxylic acid cycle or Krebs cycle and electron transfer chain.

(3) From one molecule of glucose two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water are formed during glycolysis. Pyruvic acid which is formed in this process is converted into Acetyl-Coenzyme-A along with release of two molecules each of NADH₂ and CO₂.

(4) In the next step, i.e. in TCA cycle, molecules of Acetyl-Co-A enter the mitochondria and a cyclic chain of reactions take place. Acetyl part of Acetyl- Co-A is completely oxidized through this cyclical process. The molecules CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ are released in this process.

(5) In third step, i.e. in ETC reaction, NADH₂ and FADH₂ formed during first two steps are used for obtaining ATP molecules. 3 molecules of ATP are obtained from each NADH₂ molecule and 2 molecules of ATP from each FADH₂.

(6) Thus, one molecule of glucose upon complete oxidation in presence of oxygen yields 38 molecules of ATP. This is how from carbohydrates, energy is obtained.

(7) If carbohydrates are insufficient in diet, then proteins or lipids are used for energy production. Fatty acids derived from fats and amino acids derived from proteins are converted into Acetyl- Co-A. Acetyl-Co-A once again can yield energy through TCA cycle.

Corrected diagram:

Project:
With the help of information collected from internet, prepare the slides of various stages of mitosis and observe under the compound microscope.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 12)

Question 1.
How are the food stuffs and their nutrient contents useful for body?
Answer:
The food stuffs are digested and converted into soluble nutrients. These nutrients are carried by blood to every cell of the body. The oxygen inhaled at the time of respiration is also carried to every cell. In the body cells, this oxygen carries out oxidation of nutrients and thus energy is produced. The energy helps the body to carry out all its functions. The nutrients help in the growth and development of the body.

Question 2.
What is the importance of balanced diet for body?
Answer:
Balanced diet has carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals in the right proportion. Each nutrient carries a specific important function. In balanced diet all these nutrients are in right proportion. Since balanced diet is required for energy and nutrition, it is very important to maintain our health.

Question 3.
Which different functions are performed by muscles in body?
Answer:
There are three 4ypes of muscles in our body. The voluntary muscles bring about all the movements according to our will. Involuntary muscles bring about all vital activities of the body. The visceral organs are under the control of involuntary muscles. The cardiac muscles control the movements of heart. Carbohydrates and proteins are stored in muscles.

Question 4.
What is the importance of digestive juices in digestive system?
Answer:
Digestive juice contains different enzymes. Enzymes act as catalysts and bring about the chemical reactions at faster pace. The digestive juices of stomach make pH of digestive tract acidic while that of intestinal juice make it alkaline.

Question 5.
Which system is in action for removal of waste materials produced in human body?
Answer:
Excretory system helps in the removal of nitrogenous waste materials produced in the human body.

Question 6.
What is the role of circulatory system in energy production?
Answer:
Due to circulatory system, glucose from digestive system and oxygen from respiratory system is transported to every cell. Red blood cells carry the oxygen as the blood is pumped by the heart. In every cell with the help of oxygen, glucose molecules yield the energy by the process of oxidation.

Question 7.
How are the various processes occurring in the human body controlled? In how many ways?
Answer:
The nervous system and the endocrine system brings about control by nervous and chemical coordination in the body. Due to such coordination different functions of the body are carried out in sequential and controlled manner.

Use your barain power:

Question 1.
Many players are seen consuming some food stuffs during breaks of the game. Why may be the players consuming these food stuffs? (Text Book Page No. 12)
Answer:

1. Players require energy in greater amount.
2. They perspire heavily at the time of game or sport which results in the loss of water and electrolytes from their body.
3. This may affect their performance in sport. To prevent such unfavourable effect, they are given, juices or drinks.
4. This helps them to restore the balance of water and electrolytes in their body. It also gives enhanced energy required for the performance.

Question 2.
Many times, we experience dryness in mouth. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

1. In our body there is 65-70% water. This proportion is always maintained.
2. Sometimes we lose lots of water either through perspiration or due to unavailability of water for a long time. In such situations, we experience dryness in our mouth.
3. Dryness is a natural feeling which creates urge in us to drink water, thereby the proportion of water in the body is brought back to its normal levels.

Question 3.
Oral rehydration solution (Salt-sugar- water) is frequently given to persons experiencing loose motions. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

1. Loose motions cause lot of loss of water from the body.
2. This may result in dehydration. This can be lethal if ignored.
3. Especially in case of young children this is a very serious fatal problem.
4. Thus, to bring back the normal proportion of water and electrolytes, oral rehydration solution or ORS is given to the patient who suffers from loose motions.

Question 4.
We sweat during summer and heavy exercise. (Text Book Page No. 17)
Answer:

1. During summer, the environmental temperatures are high.
2. This causes rise in our body temperature. Exercising also cause rise in the temperature. But since we can regulate our body temperature to a constant level, the sweat, glands g6t automatically stimulated.
3. This induces perspiration.
4. The sweat evaporates and causes fall in the body temperature. Thus, for regulation of body temperature, we sweat during summer or even after heavy exercise.

Question 5.
What do you mean by diploid (2n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

• The cells in which chromosome number is double are known as diploid cells.
• Male and female gametes unite together in the process of fertilization. Their chromosomes mix together in the zygote, therefore, the chromosome number is always diploid.
• E.g. Diploid chromosome no. in human beings is 46. We hate 46 chromosomes in each of our body cells.

Question 6.
What do you mean by haploid (n) cell? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

• The cells with only one set of chromosomes is known as haploid cell.
• At the time of sexual reproduction, there is meiosis. In meiosis chromosome number of the parental germ cells are reduced to half. Therefore, gametes are haploid.
• The haploid chromosome number (n) in human beings is 23.
• Sperm and ovum both are haploid carrying 23 chromosomes each.

Question 7.
What do you mean by homologous chromosomes? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

• Every species has definite number of chromosome pairs in their diploid cells.
• In every pair, the two chromosomes are alike in shape, type and genes located over them.
• Such chromosomes are called homologous chromosomes.
• E.g. In human diploid cell, pair of chromosome no. 1 shows chromosome no. 1 from mother and chromosome no. 1 from father. These two chromosomes are homologous to each other.

Question 8.
Whether the gametes are diploid or haploid? Why? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
The cells that give rise to gametes are diploid (2n). But by meiosis they give rise to gametes which are haploid (n). Two haploid gametes undergo fertilization and the zygote formed becomes once again diploid (2n).

Question 9.
How are the haploid cells formed? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:
Diploid cells undergo meiosis, which is a reduction division. In this way haploid cells are formed.

Question 10.
What is the importance of haploid cells? (Text Book Page No. 20)
Answer:

1. The gametes that take part in the sexual reproduction should be haploid.
2. Otherwise the chromosome number will not be maintained at constancy. E.g. Parents have 2n = 46 chromosomes in their cells.
3. If meiosis does not take place in them, the gametes formed will also contain 46 chromosomes.
4. The resultant offspring will have 46 + 46 = 92 chromosomes.
5. Such skewed number will produce large scale abnormalities.
6. But due to meiosis, the gametes formed are haploid and thus the chromosome number is maintained constant for every species. Gametes are haploid cells, this is the most important fact.

Internet is my friend. (Text Book Page No. 17)

Collect information.
(a) What are symptoms of diseases like night blindness, rickets, beriberi, neuritis, pellagra, anaemia, scurvy?
Answer:

Disease	Symptoms
Night blindness	Near sightedness, or blurred vision when looking at faraway objects Cataracts, or clouding of the eye’s lens. Inability to see in dark. Sometimes blindness.
Rickets	Weak and soft bones Stunted growth In severe cases, skeletal deformities.
Beriberi	Decreased muscle function, particularly in the lower legs. Tingling or loss of feeling in the feet and hands. Pain Mental confusion, difficulty in speaking Vomiting Involuntary eye movement, paralysis.
Neuritis	Numbness in hands and feet Tingling sensation, sharp, jabbing, throbbing, freezing or burning pain. Extreme sensitivity to touch. Lack of coordination and falling.
Pellagra	Delusions or mental confusion. Diarrhoea and nausea Inflammed mucous membrane. Scaly skin sores.
Anaemia	Fatigue and loss of energy Unusually rapid heartbeat, particularly with exercise Shortness of breath and headache, particularly with exercise Difficulty in concentrating Dizziness, Pale skin Leg cramps, Insomnia
Scurvy	Anaemia, debility, exhaustion, Spontaneous bleeding Pain in the limbs, and especially the legs, swelling in some parts of the body Ulceration of the gums and loss of teeth.

(b) What do you mean by coenzymes?
Answer:
Co-enzyme is a non-protein compound that is necessary for the functioning of an enzyme. It is bound to the enzyme as a catalyst. This increases the rate of reaction. Co-enzymes always act along the enzymes. They cannot work independently. But the same molecule of coenzyme can be used again and again.

Many co-enzymes are vitamins or derived from vitamins. When vitamin intake is too low, then an organism also lacks the co-enzymes that catalyse reactions. Water-soluble vitamins, which include all B complex vitamins and vitamin C, lead to the production of co-enzymes. Two of the most important and widespread vitamin-derived coenzymes are Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) and co-enzyme A.

(c) Find the full forms of FAD, FMN, NAD, NADP.
Answer:

FAD	Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide
FMN	Flavin Mono Nucleotide
NAD	Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide
NADP	Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate

(d) How much quantity of each vitamin is required every day?
Answer:

Vitamin	Daily requirement
A	700 and 900 μ grams
B Complex	100 mg/day for adults.
C	75 mg
D	5 μg
E	10 mg
K	80 μg

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
The process of glycolysis occurs in ……….
(a) cytoplasm
(b) mitochondria
(c) nucleus
(d) cell membrane
Answer:
The process of glycolysis occurs in cytoplasm.

Question 2.
ATP is called ………. of the cell.
(a) energy currency
(b) combustion fuel
(c) storage of glucose
(d) protein depot
Answer:
ATP is called protein depot of the cell.

Question 3.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of ………….
(a) sugar
(b) glucose
(c) glycogen
(d) protein
Answer:
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.

Question 4.
Chemically vitamin B₂ is ………….
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Nicotinamide
(c) Cyanacobalomine
(d) Pantothetic acid
Answer:
Chemically vitamin B₂ is Riboflavin

Question 5.
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of ………… division. (March 2019)
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) budding
(d) cloning
Answer:
Somatic and stem cells undergo type of mitosis division.

Question 6.
We get ……….. energy from carbohydrates.
(a) 9 kcal/gm
(b) 9 cal/gm
(c) 4 cal/gm
(d) 4 kcal/gm
Answer:
We get 4 cal/gm energy from carbohydrates.

Question 7.
Which of the following vitamins is necessary for synthesis of NADH₂?
(a) Vitamin B₂
(b) Vitamin B₃
(c) Vitamin
(d) Vitamin K
Answer:
(b) Vitamin B₃

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of respiration at the body level.
Answer:
False. (Glucose is oxidized step by step in the cells during the process of cellular respiration.)

Question 2.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is oxidized in three steps.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Glycolysis is also called Embden-Meyerhof-Paarnas pathway.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Molecules of pyruvic acid formed in this glycolysis are converted into molecules of acetyl-co-enzyme A.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Excess of ATP molecules obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.
Answer:
False. (Excess of ammo acids obtained from proteins are not stored in the body.)

Question 6.
Proteins of animal origin are called ‘first class’ proteins.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is heart disease.
Answer:
False. (The disease related with the deficient synthesis of insulin is diabetes.)

Match the columns:

Protein	Part of the body (July 2019)
(1) Haemoglobin	(a) muscles
(2) Ossein	(b) skin
	(c) bones
	(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Haemoglobin – blood
(2) Ossein – bones.

Protein	Part of the body
(1) Keratin	(a) muscles
(2) Myosin	(b) skin
	(c) bones
	(d) blood

Answer:
(1) Keratin – skin
(2) Myosin – muscles.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Progesterone, Estrogen, Testosterone, Insulin
Answer:
Insulin. (All the others are hormones produced with the help of fatty acids.)

Question 2.
Actin, Ossein, Myosin, Melanin
Answer:
Melanin. (All the others are proteins concerned with locomotion of the body.)

Question 3.
Lipids, Carbohydrates, Fatty acids, Proteins
Answer:
Fatty acids. (All the others are food constituents; fatty acid is soluble nutrient.)

Question 4.
Alcohol, Vinegar, Pyruvic acid, Lactic acid.
Answer:
Pyruvic acid. (All the others are chemical substances formed by the process of fermentation.)

Question 5.
Tricarboxylic acid cycle, Citric acid cycle, Krebs cycle, EMP pathway.
Answer:
EMP pathway. (All the other terms are synonymous to each other.)

Considering the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair by using a word or group of words:

Question 1.
Process that occurs in the cytoplasm : Glycolysis :: Process that occurs in the mitochondria ………
Answer:
Krebs cycle

Question 2.
Skin : Keratin :: Blood : …………
Answer:
Haemoglobin

Question 3.
Energy obtained from protein : 4 kcal :: Energy obtained from fats / lipids : …………
Answer:
9 Kcal

Question 4.
Breakdown of glucose molecule : Glycolysis :: Formation of glucose from proteins : …………….
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis

Question 5.
Condensation of chromosomes : Prophase :: Formation of spindle fibres : …………
Answer:
Metaphase

Question 6.
Division of nucleus : Karyokinesis :: Division of cytoplasm :: ………..
Answer:
Cytokinesis.

Write definitions:

Question 1.
Gluconeogenesis.
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis: Formation of glucose through non-carbohydrate sources such a protein is called gluconeogenesis.

Question 2.
Fermentation.
Answer:
Fermentation: Conversion of pyruvic acid produced in the process of glycolysis into other organic acids or alcohol with the help of some enzymes is called fermentation.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Products formed after complete oxidation of acetyl part present in the molecule of acetyl-coenzyme-A.
Answer:
Molecules of CO₂, H₂O, NADH₂, FADH₂ and ATP.

Question 2.
Place where electron transfer chain reaction take place.
Answer:
Mitochondria present in the cytoplasm of the cell.

Question 3.
Two co-enzymes involved in cellular respiration.
Answer:
NAD → Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide and FAD Flavin Adenine Dinucleotide.

Question 4.
Scientist who discovered the TCA cycle.
Answer:
Sir Hans Krebs.

Question 5.
Steps of anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation.

Question 6.
Most abundantly found protein nature.
Answer:
An enzyme RUBISCO present in plant chloroplasts.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
We feel exhausted after exercising.
Answer:

• When we undertake constant exercises, there may be shortage of oxygen for the cells.
• Therefore, our muscles and other tissues perform anaerobic respiration in such condition.
• In this process, lactic acid is formed.
• Molecules of ATP produced in oxidation of food are also much less.
• Thus, there is less energy in the body and accumulation of lactic acid too. All this brings about a feeling of exhaustion.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write the forms to which the following food materials are converted after digestion:
(a) Milk (b) Potato (c) Oil (d) Chapati.
Answer:
(a) Milk: Proteins (casein) are converted into amino acids. Lactose sugar is converted into glucose. Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(b) Potato: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.
(c) Oil: Lipids are converted into fatty acids and glycerol.
(d) Chapati: Carbohydrates (starch) are converted into glucose.

Question 2.
On which two levels does respiration take place in living organisms?
Answer:

1. In organism respiration takes place at two levels, viz. Body level and Cellular level.
2. Respiration at body level: The exchange of respiratory gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide between body and surrounding is called respiration at body level.
3. Cellular respiration: Oxidation of nutrients inside the cell with or without oxygen is called cellular respiration.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions: (July 2019)
(a) Write main types of vitamins.
Answer:
A, B, C, D, E and K are main types of vitamins.

(b) Name water soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Water soluble vitamins are B and C.

(c) Name fat soluble vitamins.
Answer:
Fat soluble vitamins are A, D, E and K.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Why some living organisms have to perform anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Some bacteria and lower organisms do not live in the presence of oxygen. In order to survive, they have to perform anaerobic respiration. Sometimes, muscle cells and erythrocytes also perform anaerobic respiration when there is lack of enough oxygen.

(b) Give two examples of such living organisms.
Answer:
Yeast and bacteria.

(c) What are the two steps of anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
Glycolysis and fermentation are the two steps of anaerobic respiration.

Question 5.
Which is the energy currency of the cell? Explain it in detail.
Answer:

• ATP or Adenosine triphosphate is the ‘energy currency’ of the cell.
• Chemical composition of ATP is as follows: it is a triphosphate molecule having adenosine ribonucleoside. The nitrogenous compound-adenine, pentose sugar-ribose and three phosphate groups are present in ATP.
• In this energy-rich molecule the energy remains trapped in the bonds by which phosphate groups are attached to each other.
• ATP molecules are stored in the cells. As per the need, energy is derived by breaking the phosphate bond of ATP.
• During cellular respiration, the oxidation of glucose yields 38 molecules of ATP. Whenever required they are consumed to liberate energy.

Question 6.
How is energy obtained during starvation or hunger?
Answer:

• Due to starvation or hunger, there is less supply of nutrients and energy to the body. In such condition, the stored carbohydrates in the body also deplete.
• In such condition, fats and proteins present in the body are utilized.
• Fats or lipids are converted into fatty acids and proteins are broken down to amino acids.
• Fatty acids and amino acids both are converted to acetyl-coenzyme-A.
• Acetyl-coenzyme-A can undergo series of cyclic reactions and oxidised to liberate energy in the form of ATP molecules.

Question 7.
Why glycolysis is also called EMP pathway?
Answer:
Process of glycolysis was discovered by Gustav Embden, Otto Meyerhof, and Jacob Pamas along with their colleagues. They performed experiments on muscles to understand glycolysis. Hence, in their honour, glycolysis is also edited Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas pathway or EMP pathway.

Question 8.
How are proteins obtained? What are the components of the proteins?
Answer:

• Protein, is a macromolecule which is formed by amino acids.
• When digestion of protein takes place, it forms different amino acids. These amino acids are transported to each cell by blood circulation.
• By protein synthesis, these amino acids are again used to make different kinds of proteins which our body needs.
• Animal proteins are said to be ‘first class proteins’ as they contain good quality amino acids.
• 4 Kcal/gm energy is obtained from the proteins.

Question 9.
Where and in which forms the amino acids formed after digestion of food are used in the body?
Answer:
(1) After digestion of proteins, amino acids are formed. These amino acids are used to synthesise proteins in different forms. e.g.

• In blood-Haemoglobin and antibodies are formed.
• In skin – Melanin and keratin are formed.
• In bones – Ossein is formed.
• In pancreas-Insulin and trypsin are synthesized.
• Pituitary and all other glands produce hormones by utilising amino acids.
• In muscles – Actin and myosin are formed.
• In all the cells, plasma membrane is formed by proteins. All enzymes are also synthesised using the amino acids.

Question 10.
What are fatty acids? What are the different uses of fatty acids ?
Answer:
(1) The fatty acids are components of the lipids. When lipids are digested, it forms fatty acids and alcohol (glycerol).
(2) There are certain chemical bonds between fatty acids and alcohol.
(3) Fatty acids are very essential for the health.
(4) After digestion, fatty acids are absorbed into the blood and transported to the cells.
(5) Different types of cells produce their own substances from these fatty acids.
E.g. (a) Plasma membrane is produced from phospholipids.
(b) Hormones like testosterone, progesterone, estrogen, aldosterone are produced from fatty acids.
(c) The axonal coverings around the neurons are also made from fatty acids.

Give explanations for the following statements:

Question 1.
After complete oxidation of a glucose molecules, 38 number of ATP molecules are formed.
Answer:
I. Glycolysis: No. of ATP molecules formed = 4
No. of ATP molecules used = 2
II. Krebs cycle : No. of ATP molecules formed = 2
III. ETC Reaction :
NADH₂: 10 NAD₂ x 3 ATP = 30 ATP
FADH₂ : 2 FADH₂ x 2 ATP = 4 ATP
Total ATP molecules produced = (4+2+34)
= 40 ATP
ATP molecules used = 2 ATP
Therefore, total ATP molecules = 38 ATP

Question 2.
At the end of glycolysis, pyruvate molecules are obtained.
Answer:
The process of glycolysis takes place m the cytoplasm of the cell. One molecule of glucose is gradually oxidized step by step forming two molecules of each pyruvic acid, ATP, NADH₂ and water. Of these, pyruvate or pyruvic acid takes part in the further reactions.

Question 3.
Genetic recombination occurs in pachytene phase of prophase of meiosis-I.
Answer:
In prophase of meiosis I there are total 5 stages. Of these in pachytene the process of crossing over takes place between homologous chromosomes as chromosomes come near each other forming synapsis.

Question 4.
All chromosomes are arranged parallel to equatorial plane of cell in metaphase of mitosis.
Answer:
In mitosis, the metaphase is the stage when dividing chromosomes lie on the equatorial plane of the cell. They are later pulled by the spindle fibres to the opposite poles.

Question 5.
For formation of plasma membrane, phospholipid molecules are necessary.
Answer:
Upon the digestion of fats, fatty acids and glycerol are formed. The fatty acids can be converted into phospholipid which are essential molecules for development of plasma membrane.

Question 6.
Our muscle cells perform anaerobic type of respiration during exercise.
Answer:
When the proportion of oxygen is less, then the cells switch over to anaerobic respiration. When we are exercising there is increased demand of oxygen for muscle cells. If this is not fulfilled, they perform anaerobic respiration during exercise.

Question 7.
Excess of carbohydrates are stored in liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.
Answer:
The carbohydrates which are not used to produce energy cannot be stored in the body in the form of glucose. This glucose is therefore converted into complex compound called glycogen. Glycogen is stored in muscles and liver.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(gamete, crossing over, haploid, Meiosis-II, meiosis-I, diploid)
……….. is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in ……… undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four ……….. daughter cells are formed. Process of …………… production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one ……….. cell. During this cell division, ………… occurs between, the homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
Meiosis-II is just like mitosis. In this stage, the two haploid daughter cells formed in meiosis-I undergo division by separation of recombined sister chromatids and four haploid daughter cells are formed. Process of gamete production and spore formation occurs by meiosis. In this type of cell division, four haploid (n) daughter cells are formed from one diploid cell. During this cell division, crossing over occurs between the homologous chromosomes.

Question 2.
(external, inhalation, alveolar, breathing, respiration, exhalation)
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called …………. Inhalation and exhalation is called …….. When ……….. is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO₂ is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through ……….. membrane. This is called ………….. respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.
Answer:
Release of energy from the assimilated food is called respiration. Inhalation and exhalation is called breathing. When inhalation is done, air enters the lungs. The oxygen from this air enters the blood while carbon dioxide from the blood exits from the blood. Through exhalation, CO₂ is given out. This gaseous exchange occurs through alveolar membrane. This is called external respiration. The RBCs carry oxygen to every cell.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

1. Dietary fibre — found mainly in fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes — is probably best known for its ability to prevent or relieve constipation. But foods containing fibre can provide other health benefits as well, such as helping to maintain a healthy weight and lowering your risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer. Dietary fibre, also known as roughage or bulk, includes the parts of plant foods your body can’t digest or absorb. Unlike other food components, such as fats, proteins or carbohydrates — which your body breaks down and absorbs — fibre isn’t digested by your body. Instead, it passes relatively intact through your stomach, small intestine and colon and out of your body.

Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
Which food items provide rich fibre content?
Answer:
Fruits, vegetables, whole grains and legumes give rich amount of dietary fibre.

Question 2.
Enlist the advantages of fibres in diet.
Answer:
Fibres help to relieve constipation and help in maintaining a healthy weight and lowering risk of diabetes, heart disease and some types of cancer.

Question 3.
Are fibres digested in the body?
Answer:
No, fibres are not digested in the body but are passed on without any alteration.

Question 4.
Which is the path through which fibres pass in the digestive tract?
Answer:
Fibres pass through stomach, small intestine and colon.

Question 5.
What is a roughage?
Answer:
Roughage is the fibre content of the food which consists of plant matter which cannot be digested by the human enzymes, hence form undigested bulk matter in the faeces.

2. The substances formed by specific chemical bond between fatty acids and alcohol are called lipids. Digestion of lipids consumed by us is nothing but their conversion into fatty acids and alcohol. Fatty acids are absorbed and distributed everywhere within the body. From those fatty acids, different cells produce various substances necessary to themselves. Ex. the molecules called phospholipids which are essential for producing plasma membrane are formed from fatty acids. Besides, fatty acids are used for producing hormones like progesterone, estrogen, testosterone, aldosterone, etc. and the covering around the axons of nerve cells. We get 9 Kcal of energy per gram of lipids. Excess of lipids are stored in adipose connective tissue in the body.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
Define lipids.
Answer:
Lipids are molecules formed of fatty acids and glycerol (alcohol) which have specific bonds between them.

Question 2.
What happens to fats that are eaten in excess?
Answer:
When excess of fats are eaten, they are stored in adipose connective tissue.

Question 3.
Which hormones regulating reproductive functions are produced from fatty acids?
Answer:
Progesterone, estrogen and testosterone are the reproductive hormones produced from fatty acids.

Question 4.
How is plasma membrane of the cells formed?
Answer:
The digested fats are absorbed in the form of fatty acids. These are converted back to phospholipids from which plasma membrane of cells is formed.

Question 5.
What happens to lipids when their digestion is completed? How much energy do they provide?
Answer:
After complete digestion of lipids they are converted to fatty acids and glycerol. 1 gm of lipid provides 9 kcal of energy.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Draw a neat diagram of the structure of chromosome and label the parts:
(a) Centromere (b) p-arm (March 2019)
Answer:

Question 2.
Sketch and label the diagram to show ATP – the energy currency of the cell.
Answer:

Question 3.
Mitochondria and Krebs cycle:
Answer:

(a) Which co-enzymes are shown in the diagram?
Answer:
The co-enzymes NADH₂ and FADH₂ are shown in the above diagram.

(b) Which chemical reaction takes place in the mitochondria? Which molecules are produced in this reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction that takes place in the mitochondria is called Electronic Transport Chain reaction. The molecules of H₂O, carbon dioxide and energy in the form of ATP are produced in this reaction.

Question 4.
Observe the diagrams 2.8 and 2.9 given on the Textbook page no. 19 and answer the following questions.


(a) Which peculiarity do you observe in the figure of Metaphase-I of meiosis ?
Answer:
The chromosomes are seen lying on the equatorial plane in the metaphase-I of meiosis.

(b) What is the important difference between Telophase-I and Telophase-II of meiosis?
Answer:
In figure of Telophase-I the diploid chromosomes are seen in two daughter cells. In Telophase-II four daughter cells are seen with haploid chromosomes in them.

(c) Which figure shows phenomena of crossing over?
Answer:
The third figure of Prophase-I shows phenomena of crossing over.

Question 5.
Label the diagram below? Which phase of cell division is seen in the above diagram?
Answer:
The above figure shows Telophase-II of Meiosis-II.

Question 6.
Observe and label the diagram: (Text Book Page No. 13)
Answer:

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Complete the following chart and state which process of energy production it represents: (March 2019)

Answer:
The chart shows process of energy production through aerobic respiration of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
(Answers to the blanks in chart are given in bold.)

Project:

Project 1.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Collect videos and photographs of different life processes in living organisms. Prepare a presentation and present it on the occasion of science exhibition.

Project 2.
Books are my friend: (Text Book Page No. 20)
Read different Encyclopaedias of technical terms in biology and anatomy and other reference books.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 1 Heredity and Evolution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 1 Heredity and Evolution

Question 1.
Complete the following diagram.

Answer:

Question 2.
Read the following statements and justify same in your own words with the help of suituble examples.
a. Human evolution began approximately 7 crore years ago.
Answer:

• Approximately around 7 crore years back the ice age began on the earth. In such conditions, dinosaurs became extinct. The evolution and diversity of mammals started during this time. Due to change in climate the forest cover also declined rapidly.
• Ancestors of monkey-like animals were Lemur like animals which evolved during this time period.
• The tails of these monkey-like creatures started vanishing very gradually around 4 crore years ago.
• The body and brain both increased in volume forming first ape like animals. The monkey like ancestors gave rise to two evolutionary links to apes and human like animals.
• Later, the human evolution took place by changes in the brain volume, the ability to walk upright, excessive use of hand for manipulations.
• This journey of human evolution began 7 crore years ago. But the true wise and intelligent man arose around 50,000 years ago.

b. Geographical and reproductive isolation of organisms gradually leads to speciation.
Answer:

• Every species survives in specific geographical conditions. The requirements of food and habitat, is specific for each species. Their reproductive ability and period is also different.
• Therefore, the individuals from one species cannot reproduce with individuals from other species.
• When they are separated by a distance or geographical barriers they are said to be isolated geographically.
• When they cannot reproduce with each other, they are said to be isolated reproductively.
• The ancestor species of both these subspecies may be the same but due to isolation over a very long-time duration, there is genetic variation between the two. Therefore, the isolation leads to speciation.

c. Study of fossils is an important aspect of study of evolution.
Answer:
Answer:

• Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
• Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
• The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
• Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the past.
• Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
• The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
• In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

d. There is evidences of fatal Science among chordates.
[Please read the above question as: Among different chordates there are embryological evidences.]
Answer:

• Very young embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals show quite similar structure in the early stages.
• As the further growth takes place, they acquire different patterns.
• The initial similarity between the vertebrate embryos is an evidence that during evolution, there was a common ancestor for all the vertebrate classes.
• This is called embryological evidence for vertebrate evolution.

Question 3.
complete the statements by choosing correct options from bracket.
(Genes, Mutation, Translocation, Transcription, Gradual development, Appendix)
a. The causality behind the sudden changes was understood due to ………… principle of Hugo de Vries.
Answer:
Mutation

b. The proof for the fact that protein synthesis occurs through ……….. was given by George Beadle and Edward Tatum.
Answer:
Genes

c. Transfer of information from molecule of DNA to mRNA is called as …………… process.
Answer:
Transcription

d. Evolution means ………….
Answer:
Gradual development

e. Vestigial organ ……….. present in human body is proof of evolution.
Answer:
Appendix

Question 4.
Write short notes based upon the information known to you.
a. Lamarckism.
Answer:
(1) Lamarckism consists of two theories which were proposed by Jean Baptiste Lamarck. These are as follows: (a) Use and disuse of the organs (b) Inheritance of acquired characters.
(2) In theory of use and disuse of organs, Lamarck says : The characters of organs develop because specific activities that the organisms perform. If such organ is not used it gets degenerated. Thus the morphological changes take place due to activities or inactivity of a particular organism.
(3) To emphasise this theory, he quoted following examples. Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long. Similarly blacksmith has strong arms due to constant work. Flightless ostrich and emu did not fly and hence their wings became useless. Aquatic birds like swan and duck made their feet suitable for swimming by living in water. Snake lost limbs as it tried burrowing mode.
(4) Such acquired characters are passed from one parental generation to the offspring. This is called inheritance of acquired characters.
(5) The theory of inheritance of acquired characters is not accepted as such transmission of acquired character does not take place. Only genetic characters are transmitted.

b. Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
Answer:

• Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection after making many observations on different specimens. He published a concept ‘Survival of the fittest’.
• Darwin explains this concept as follows: All the organisms reproduce prolifically. Therefore, there is always a competition for food, mate, etc. Only adaptations for sustaining this struggle.
• Natural selection plays important role by selecting only those organisms which are fit to live. Those that do not have better adaptations, perish. Selected sustaining organisms then perform reproduction and form new species in a very long period of time.
• Darwin published his views in the book titled ‘Origin of Species’.

c. Embryology.
Answer:

• Embryology is the study of developing embryos.
• These embryos in their initial stages are very similar to each other.
• These similarities decrease later in the development.
• This similarity in initial stages indicate that these vertebrates have originated from a common ancestor.
• In evolutionary science, comparative study of embryos of various vertebrates provide evidence for evolution.

d. Evolution.
Answer:

• The sequential changes in the groups of living organisms that take place very gradually is called evolution.
• Evolution is also described as the formation of new species due to natural selection.
• The process of evolution takes millions of years for development and speciation of different organisms.
• Changes in stars and planets in space and the changes in biosphere occurring on the Earth are all included under study of evolution.
• Due to evolution organisms become fit, biodiversity is increased, and new species are created.
• Different scientists have put forth theories to explain the process of evolution. Among these Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection and speciation is accepted worldwide.

e. Connecting link.
Answer:
Some living organisms possess some characters in them which are the distinctive features of different groups or phyla. Such individuals connect these two groups by sharing the characters of both and hence they are known as connective links.

Examples: (1) Peripatus: Peripatus is the connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. It shows characters of both animal phyla. Like annelid worm, it shows segmented body, thin cuticle and parapodia. Like an arthropod, it shows open circulatory system and tracheal system for respiration.
(2) Duck Billed platypus: This is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals. Like reptiles it lays eggs but like mammals it has mammary glands and hairy skin.
(3) Lung fish: Lung fish is a connecting link between fishes and amphibians. Though a fish, it shows lungs for respiration as in amphibian animals.
(4) Connecting links indicate the direction and hierarchy of evolution.

Question 5.
Define heredity. Explain the mechanism of hereditary changes.
Answer:
(1) Heredity: Heredity is the process by which the biological characters from parental generation are transmitted to the next generation through genes.

(2) The mechanism of hereditary changes:

• Mutation: Sudden change in the parental DNA can cause mutations. This results into changes in the hereditary characters.
• At the time of meiosis, the crossing over takes place. This creates new recombination of the genetic information. Therefore, the haploid gametes produced carry changed hereditary characters.

Question 6.
Define vestigial organs. Write names of some vestigial organs in human body and write the names of those animals in whom same organs are functional.
Answer:

• Vestigial organs are degenerated or underdeveloped organs of organisms which do not perform any function.
• According to the principle of natural selection, such organs are on the verge of disappearance. But it takes many millions of years for its complete vanishing.
• The vestigial organs in one animal may be of use but to other kind of the animal as they still perform regular functions.
• Appendix is vestigial for humans, it does not perform any function but in ruminant animals it is concerned with digestion.
• Ear muscles are vestigial for us but in monkeys and cattle they are functional.
• Names of vestigial organs in human body-Appendix, tail-bone or coccyx, wisdom teeth and body hair.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions.
a. How are the hereditary changes responsible for evolution?
Answer:
Hereditary characters are transmitted from parental generation to the offspring. These characters are maintained through inheritance. But the genes which are beneficial for the organisms in helping them to adapt to the environment are transmitted to the next generations in a greater proportion. This happens due to natural selection.

The process of evolution happens at a very slow pace. The favourable genes are preserved in the species as they bring about better survival of the individuals. Such individual reproduces more efficiently and evolve. The individuals with unfavourable genes are not selected by nature and are thus removed from the population through natural death. The fuel for evolution is thus truly supplied by the hereditary changes.

b. Explain the process of formation of complex proteins.
Answer:
The proteins are synthesised in following steps, viz. transcription, translation and translocation. Protein synthesis takes place according to the sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule with the help of RNA molecules. This is known as central dogma of protein synthesis.

1. Transcription: In the process of transcription, mRNA is produced as per the nucleotide sequence on the DNA. For this the two strands DNA are separated. Only one strand participates in the formation of mRNA. The sequence of nucleotides which is complementary to that of present on DNA is copied on mRNA. Instead of thymine present in DNA, uracil is added on the mRNA. Transcription takes place in nucleus but the mRNA leaves nucleus, carries the genetic code and enters the cytoplasm. This genetic code is always in triplet form arid hence is known as triplet codon. The code for each amino acid always consists of three nucleotides.

2. Translation: Each mRNA may carry thousands of codons. But each codon is specific for only one amino acid. The tRNA molecule brings the required amino acid as per the code present on mRNA. There is anticodon on each tRNA which is complementary to the codon on mRNA. This process is known as translation.

3. Translocation: In translocation, the ribosome keeps on moving from one end of mRNA molecule to other end by distance of one triplet codon. While this process is taking place, rRNA, helps in joining the amino acids together by peptide bonds. The peptide chains later come together to form complex protein molecules.

c. Explain the theory of evolution and mention the proof supporting it.
Answer:
1. Theory of evolution:

• According to the theory of evolution, first living material was in the form of protoplasm which was formed in ocean.
• Gradually, it gave rise to unicellular organisms. Changes took place in these unicellular organisms which made them evolve into larger and more complex organisms.
• All evolutionary changes were very slow and gradual taking about 300 crore years to happen.
• Different types of organisms were developed as the changes and development that occurred in living organisms wefts all round and multi-dimensional.
• Hence, this overall process of evolution is called organizational and progressive.
• Variety of plants and animals developed from the ancestors having different structural and functional organization during the process of evolution.

2. Proof here means evidences of evolution.
These evidences are as follows:

• Morphological evidences
• Anatomical evidences
• Vestigial organs
• Palaentological evidences
• Connecting links
• Embryological evidences.

d. Explain with suitable examples importance of anatomical evidences in evolution. (July 2019)
Answer:

• There are similarities in the structure and anatomy of different animal groups. E.g. human hand, forelimb of bull, patagium of bat and flipper of whale are all similar in their internal anatomy. There is similarity in the bones and joints of all these specimens.
• External morphology does not show any similarity. Use of each of the organ is also different in different animals. Structurally, they may not be related.
• However, the similarities in the anatomy is an evidence that they may have a common ancestor.
• In this way, the anatomical evidence throws light on the process of evolution.

e. Define fossil. Explain importance of fossils as proof of evolution.
Answer:

• Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
• Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
• The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
• Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
• Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
• The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
• In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

f. Write evolutionary history of modern man.
Answer:
(1) Ancestors of humans developed from animals which resembled lemur like animals.
(2) Around seven crore years ago, monkey-like animals evolved from some of these lemur like animals.
(3) Then after about 4 crore years ago, in Africa the tails of these monkey like creatures very gradually disappeared.
(4) Simultaneously, there was enlargement in their body and brain volume too. The hands also improved and were provided with opposable thumb. In this way, ape-like animals were evolved.
(5) These ape-like animals independently gave rise to two lines of evolution, one giving rise to apes like gibbon and orangutan in the South and North-East Asia and gorilla and chimpanzee which stayed in Africa around 2.5 crores of years ago.
(6) The other line of evolution gave rise to human like animals around 2 crore years ago.
(7) The climate became dry and this resulted into reduction of forest cover. This made arboreal apes to descend on the land and start terrestrial mode.
(8) Due to this, there were changes in the pefvic
girdle and vertebral column. The hands were also freed from locomotion and thus they became more manipulative.
(9) Later, journey of hominoid species started from around 2 crores years ago. The first record of human like animal is ‘Ramapithecus’ ape from East Africa.
(10) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon are the important steps in human evolution.
(11) Neanderthal man was said to be the first wise man. The increasing growth of brain made man more and more intelligent and thinking animal.
(12) Later, more than biological evolution, it was cultural evolution, when man started agriculture, animal , rearing. There was development of civilizations, arts and science etc. About 200 years ago there were industrial inventions and thus man now rules the earth.

Project:

Project 1.
Make a presentation on human evolution using various computer softwares and arrange a group disscussion over it in the class room.

Project 2.
Read the book – ‘Pruthvivur Manus Uparcich’ written by Late Dr. Sureshchandra Nadkarni and note your opinion on evolution.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 1)

Question 1.
Which component of the cellular nucleus of living organisms carries hereditary characters?
Answer:
The chromosomes made up of nucleic acids and proteins, present in the nucleus of the cell are the components that carry hereditary characters in living organisms.

Question 2.
What do we call the process of transfer of physical and mental characters from parents to the progeny?
Answer:
The process of transfer of physical and mental characters from parents to the progeny is called inheritance or heredity.

Question 3.
Which are the components of the DNA molecule?
Answer:
DNA molecule is made up of two helical strands consisting of deoxyribose sugar, phosphoric acid and pairs of nitrogenous bases. These three together is called a nucleotide.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Darwin has published a book titled …………..
(a) Natural selection
(b) Mutation
(c) Fall of a sparrow
(d) Origin of species
Answer:
(d) Origin of species

Question 2.
The …………. man evolved about 50 thousand years ago.
(a) Cro Magnon
(b) Neanderthal
(c) Java man
(d) Ramapithecus
Answer:
(a) Cro Magnon

Question 3.
About 10 thousand years ago, ………….. started to practise agriculture.
(a) Gorilla
(b) wise man
(c) Ramapithecus
(d) Australopithecus
Answer:
(b) wise man

Question 4.
………………. can be considered as the first example of wise-man.
(a) Australopithecus
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Cro Magnon
(d) Neanderthal man
Answer:
(d) Neanderthal man

Question 5.
………. is a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. (March 2019)
(a) Duck-billed platypus
(b) Peripatus
(c) Lung fish
(d) Whale
Answer:
(b) Peripatus

Question 6.
………… years ago human brain was sufficiently evolved to call him wise man.
(a) 50,000
(b) 30,000
(c) 20,000
(d) 10,000
Answer:
(a) 50,000

Question 7.
The process by which the gene in the nucleotide suddenly changes its position is called ………. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) translation
(b) translocation
(c) mutation
(d) transcription
Answer:
(c) mutation

Question 8.
…………. is not the vestigial organ in the human body. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) appendix
(b) Coccyx
(c) Canine
(d) Wisdom teeth
Answer:
(c) Canine

Write whether the following statements are true or false with proper justification for your answer:

Question 1.
It takes thousands of years for a useful structure to disappear.
Answer:
False. (The useful structures of the body do not disappear. The functioning of the body is easier due to such organs. It takes thousands of years for a functionless organ to disappear.)

Question 2.
Dr. Har Govind Khorana was awarded Nobel prize for his invention and publication in the journal Radio carbon.
Answer:
False. (Willard Libby was awarded Nobel prize for his invention and publication in the journal Radio carbon.)

Question 3.
Mesozoic era was dominated by variety of mammals.
Answer:
False. (Mesozoic era dominated by variety of reptiles.)

Question 4.
It seems that invertebrates have been slowly originated from vertebrates.
Answer:
False. (Vertebrates have been slowly originated from invertebrates in course of evolution. The primitive type of organisms always give rise to complex life forms. The invertebrates from Palaeozoic era gradually gave rise to vertebrates.)

Question 5.
The decaying process of C-12 occurs continuously from the dead remains of living organisms.
Answer:
False. (The decaying process of C-14 occurs continuously from the dead remains of living organisms. C-12 is not radioactive and hence it does not show decaying process.)

Question 6.
The theory of natural selection which mentions ‘Survival of fittest’ is given by Lamarck.
Answer:
False. (The theory of natural selection which mentions ‘Survival of fittest’ is given by Darwin.)

Question 7.
Changes acquired during life time are transferred to next generation.
Answer:
False. (Changes acquired during life time are not heritable. They are not transferred to next generation. Only the genes are transferred to the next generation.)

Question 8.
Each species grows in specific geographical conditions and has specific food, habitat, reproductive ability and period.
Answer:
True. (Each species has specifically evolved characters due to evolution and speciation.)

Question 9.
Humans walking with upright posture were confined to Africa only during prehistoric period.
Answer:
False. (Humans walking upright existed in Africa and China, Indonesia of Asian continent too.)

Question 10.
Industrial society was established about 200 years ago.
Answer:
True. (After the development and specialization of human brain, he started indulging in science and technology. Before; this period the idea of industrialization was not existing.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Scientist	Discovery
(1) Johann Gregor Mendel	(a) Chromosomes of grasshopper
(2) Hugo de Vries	(b) DNA is genetic material
	(c) Pioneer of the modern genetics
	(d) Mutational theory

Answer:
(1) Johann Gregor Mendel – Pioneer of the modern genetics.
(2) Hugo de Vries – Mutational theory.

Question 2.

Scientist	Discovery
(1) Walter, Sutton	(a) Chromosomes of grasshopper
(2) Mclyn McCarthy	(b) DNA is genetic material
	(c) Pioneer of the modern genetics
	(d) Mutational theory

Answer:
(1) Walter, Sutton – Chromosomes of grasshopper.
(2) Mclyn McCarthy – DNA is genetic material.

Question 3.

Evidences of evolution	Examples
(1) Morphological evidences	(a) Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus
(2) Anatomical evidences	(b) Remnants and impressions
	(c) Human hand and fore limb of bull
	(d) Shape and venation of leaf

Answer:
(1) Morphological evidences – Shape and venation of leaf.
(2) Anatomical evidences – Human hand and fore limb of bull.

Question 4.

Evidences of evolution	Examples
(1) Palaeontological evidences	(a) Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus
(2) Connecting links	(b) Remnants and impressions
	(c) Coccyx and wisdom tooth
	(d) Human hand and fore limb of cat

Answer:
(1) Palaeontological evidences – Remnants and impressions.
(2) Connecting links – Duck billed Platypus and Peripatus.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Transcription, Translation, Translocation, Mutation
Answer:
Mutation. (All others are stages of protein synthesis.)

Question 2.
Bones of the hands, structure of nostrils, position of eyes, structure of ear pinnae
Answer:
Bones of the hands. (All the others are morphological evidences.)

Question 3.
Venation, Shape of seeds, Leaf petiole, Leaf shape
Answer:
Shape of seeds. (All the others are morphological evidences in plants.)

Question 4.
Human hand, wing of cockroach, forelimb of bull, flipper of whale
Answer:
Wing of cockroach. (All others are anatomical evidences, they are homologous organs.)

Identify the correlation between the first two words and suggest the suitable words in the fourth place:

Question 1.
mRNA : Transcription :: tRNA :…………
Answer:
Translation

Question 2.
Peripatus : Connecting link :: Appendix :……….
Answer:
Vestigial organs

Question 3.
Open circulatory system : Arthropods :: Thin cuticle and parapodia :………..
Answer:
Annelida

Question 4.
Between Annelida and Arthropoda : Peripatus ::……….: Lungfish
Answer:
Pisces/Fish and Amphibia

Question 5.
Theory of natural selection : Charles Robert Darwin :: Theory of inheritance of acquired characters :…………
Answer:
Jean Baptiste Lamarck

Question 6.
Survival of fittest : Darwin :: Acquired characters :……….
Answer:
Lamark

Question 7.
Wisdom teeth : Vestigial organs :: Lungfish :………..
Answer:
Connecting link.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Heredity.
Answer:
The transfer of biological characters from one generation to another through genes is called heredity.

Question 2.
Transcription.
Answer:

Question 3.
Translation.
Answer:
The process of bringing tRNA possessing anticodon that is complementary to the codon on mRNA for protein synthesis is called translation.

Question 4.
Translocation.
Answer:
The process of movement of the ribosome from one end of mRNA to other end by the distance of one triplet codon is called translocation.

Question 5.
Mutation.
Answer:
Sudden and drastic change that occurs in the genetic material is called mutation.

Question 6.
Species.
Answer:
The group of organisms that cap produce fertile individuals through natural reproduction is called a species.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Three Scientists who proved that except viruses, all living organisms have DNA as genetic material.
Answer:
Oswald Avery, Mclyn McCarthy and Colin MacLeod.

Question 2.
Genetic disorder caused due to mutation:
Answer:
Sickle cell anaemia.

Question 3.
Fish that can breathe with help of lungs:
Answer:
Lung fish.

Question 4.
Vestigial organs in human beings:
Answer:
Appendix, tail-bone or coccyx, wisdom teeth and body hair.

Question 5.
Important stages in the journey of human evolution:
Answer:

• Animals like Lemur
• Egyptopithecus
• Dryopithecus
• Ramapithecus
• Australopithecus
• Skilled Human
• Homo erectus i.e. Man with erect posture
• Neanderthal man
• Cro-Magnon man.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Transcription and Translation.
Answer:
Transcription:

1. In the process of transcription, the sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule is copied
   and carried to the cytoplasm by mRNA.
2. The process of transcription takes place in nucleus.
3. During transcription, RNA is produced from DNA.
4. Only mRNA takes part in transcription.

Translation:

1. In the process of translation, the specific amino acids are picked up according to the codons brought by mRNA.
2. The process of translation takes place in ribosomes located in cytoplasm.
3. During translation, proteins are produced with the help of RNA.
4. mRNA, tRNA and rRNA take part in translation.

Question 2.
Ape and Human.
Answer:
Ape:

1. Brain of the apes is smaller in size.
2. Ape cannot walk upright.
3. Ape is less intelligent as compared to human.
4. Apes are arboreal in their habitat and they spend more time on the trees.
5. The forelimbs of ape are longer than the hind limbs.

Human:

1. Brain of humans is larger in size.
2. Humans can walk upright.
3. Human is considered to be the most intelligent animal.
4. Humans are terrestrial in their habitat. They cannot stay on the trees.
5. The forelimbs of humans are shorter than the hind limbs.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Some of the characters of parents are seen in their offspring.
Answer:

• The parental genes are transferred to their progeny through male and female gametes.
• These genes carry hereditary characters.
• Since they are transmitted from the parents to their offspring, one can see the parental characters in their offspring.

Question 2.
Darwin’s work on evolution has been a milestone.
Answer:
(1) Darwin has proposed two very important theories of evolution, viz. Theory of natural selection and Theory of origin of species.
(2) The evolution has taken place on the earth for last many crores of years.
(3) The exact nature and process of these evolutionary changes become clear after studying Darwinism. (4) The observations made by Darwin at that time are now tested according to the modern development in science and are found to be correct. Thus, his work is said to be a milestone.

Question 3.
Peripatus is said to be a connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda.
Answer:

• Peripatus shows segmented body, thin cuticle, and parapodia-like organs.
• These characters are typical of Annelids.
• Similarly, it also shows tracheal respiration and open circulatory system which is a characteristic feature of Arthropods.
• Since Peripatus shares both these characters, it is said to be a connecting link between j Annelida and Arthropoda.

Question 4.
Vertebrates have been slowly originated from invertebrates.
Answer:

• When the carbon dating method was used to assess the age of fossils, it was understood that invertebrates were present on the earth much before the vertebrates.
• The fossils of invertebrates are present in lower layers of earth’s strata.
• They were seen in Palaeozoic era of geological time period. Vertebrates dominated during Coenozoic era.
• Their fossils are seen in the upper strata of the earth’s crust.
• The structural complexity also increased in vertebrates. All these facts indicate that Vertebrates have slowly originated from invertebrates.

Question 5.
During human evolution the hands became available for use.
Answer:

• During human evolution, the climate of earth started becoming dry.
• This resulted in loss of forest cover.
• The apes which were arboreal on the trees thus descended and started walking on land.
• The lumbar bones underwent change and the apes started walking upright on the grasslands.
• The vertebral column also underwent change. Due to upright posture the forelimbs were freed from locomotion.
• The legs started bearing the weight of the body and the hands became available for use.

Read the following statements and justify the same in your own words with the help of suitable examples:

Question 1.
Geographical and reproductive isolation of organisms gradually leads to speciation.
Answer:

• Every species survives in specific geographical conditions. The requirements of food and habitat, is specific for each species. Their reproductive ability and period is also different.
• Therefore, the individuals from one species cannot reproduce with individuals from other species.
• When they are separated by a distance or geographical barriers they are said to be isolated geographically.
• When they cannot reproduce with each other, they are said to be isolated reproductively.
• The ancestor species of both these subspecies may be the same but due to isolation over a very long-time duration, there is genetic variation between the two. Therefore, the isolation leads to speciation.

Question 2.
Study of fossils is an important aspect of study of evolution.
Answer:
(1) Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
(2) Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
(3) The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
(4) Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
(5) Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
(6) The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
(7) In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

Question 3.
There is evidences of fatal Science among chordates.
[Please read the above question as: Among different chordates there are embryological evidences.]
Answer:

• Very young embryos of fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals show quite similar structure in the early stages.
• As the further growth takes place, they acquire different patterns.
• The initial similarity between the vertebrate embryos is an evidence that during evolution, there was a common ancestor for all the vertebrate classes.
• This is called embryological evidence for vertebrate evolution.

Question 4.
Human evolution began approximately 7 crore years ago.
Answer:

• Approximately around 7 crore years back the ice age began on the earth. In such conditions, dinosaurs became extinct. The evolution and diversity of mammals started during this time. Due to change in climate the forest cover also declined rapidly.
• Ancestors of monkey-like animals were Lemur like animals which evolved during this time period.
• The tails of these monkey-like creatures started vanishing very gradually around 4 crore years ago.
• The body and brain both increased in volume forming first ape like animals. The monkey like ancestors gave rise to two evolutionary links to apes and human like animals.
• Later, the human evolution took place by changes in the brain volume, the ability to walk upright, excessive use of hand for manipulations.
• This journey of human evolution began 7 crore years ago. But the true wise and intelligent man arose around 50,000 years ago.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Answer the following questions: (March 2019)
(a) What do you mean by central dogma?
Answer:
Information about protein synthesis is present in DNA. As per this information, proteins are produced by DNA through RNA molecules. This is called central dogma.

(b) What is transcription?
Answer:
The process of synthesis of mRNA as per the nucleotide sequence present in DNA is called transcription. The nucleotide sequence on mRNA is complimentary to that of the single DNA strand used in synthesis. Instead of thymine, mRNA possesses uracil.

(c) What is meant by triplet codon?
Answer:
The code for each amino acids always consists of three nucleotides which is known as triplet codon.

Question 2.
Which animal is called a connecting link between Reptiles and Mammals? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Duck billed platypus is called a connecting link between Reptiles and Mammals.

Question 3.
In which way is science of heredity useful these days?
Answer:
The science of heredity is useful in the following ways:

• For diagnosis of hereditary disorders.
• For treatment of hereditary disorders
• For prevention of hereditary disorders
• For production of hybrid varieties of animals and plants
• For using microbes in the industrial processes.

Question 4.
What is meant by carbon dating method?
Answer:
(1) Carbon dating method is technique used for determining the age of fossils.
(2) After the death of the organisms, their consumption of carbon stops. But right from that moment the decaying process of C-14 occurs continuously.
(3) This results in change in the ratio between C-14 and C-12. C-12 is not radioactive as C-14.
(4) Thus the time passed since the death of a plant or animal is calculated by measuring the radioactivity of C-14 and ratio of C-14 to C-12 present in their body.
(5) The points noted during carbon dating are:

• The period after the organism has been dead.
• The activity of C-14 in the dead organism.
• Ratio between C-14 and C-12.

Question 5.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Describe briefly the Darwin’s theory of natural selection.
Answer:
Charles Darwin (1809-1882) proposed the theory of natural selection.
Theory of natural selection: ‘The survival of fittest’, i.e., organisms which are fit for survival, evolve while those that are not, perish. The natural selection thus acts to produce new species.

(b) What were the objections raised against Darwinism?
Answer:
Objections raised against Darwinism:

1. There are other factors too for evolution and just not the Natural Selection.
2. Arrival of useful and useless modifications were not explained by Darwin, though he said about the survival of the fittest.
3. He has not given any explanation about slow changes and abrupt changes occurring during evolution.

(c) Which book was published by Darwin to explain this theory? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Charles Darwin wrote the book ‘Origin of Species’.

Question 6.
What were the objections raised against Darwinism?
Answer:
Some of the main objections raised against Darwinism are as follows:

• There are other factors too for evolution and just not the Natural Selection.
• Arrival of useful and useless modifications were not explained by Darwin, though he said about the survival of the fittest.
• He has not given any explanation about slow changes and abrupt changes occurring during evolution.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions:
(a) Explain in brief-Lamarck’s principle of ‘use or disuse of organs’.
Answer:
The theory of use and disuse of organs says that the morphological characters of organism develop because of specific activities that the organisms perform. If some organ is not used it gets degenerated. If excessively, used, it develops. Thus, the morphological changes take place due to activities or non-working of a particular body parts in an organism.

(b) Give two examples.
Answer:
Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long. Similarly, blacksmith has strong arms due to constant work. The flightless ostrich and emu did not fly and hence their wings became useless. Aquatic birds like swan and duck made their feet suitable for swimming by living in water. Snake lost limbs as it tried burrowing mode.

(c) What are acquired characters?
Answer:
Acquired characters are those characters which are obtained during the life time by any organism and passed on to next generations.

Write short notes:
(OR)
Write short notes based upon the information known to you:

Question 1.
Theory of evolution.
Answer:

• According to the theory of evolution, first living material was in the form of protoplasm which was formed in ocean.
• Gradually, it gave rise to unicellular organisms. Changes took place in these unicellular organisms which made them evolve into larger and more complex organisms.
• All evolutionary changes were very slow and gradual taking about 300 crore years to happen.
• Different types of organisms were developed as the changes and development that occurred in living organisms was all round and multi-dimensional.
• Hence, this overall process of evolution is called organizational and progressive.
• Variety of plants and animals developed from the ancestors having different structural and functional organization during the process of evolution.

By choosing appropriate words given in the bracket, complete the paragraph:

Question 1.
(translation, anticodon, tRNA, mRNA, amino acids, triplet codon, transcription, DNA)
The …….. formed in nucleus comes in cytoplasm. It brings in the coded message from DNA. The message contains the codes for amino acids. The code for each amino acid consists of three nucleotides. It is called as ‘………..’. Each mRNA is made up of thousands of triplet codons. As per the message on mRNA, ……… are supplied by the ………. For this purpose, tRNA has ‘…………’ having complementary sequence to the codon on mRNA. This is called ‘………..’.
Answer:
The mRNA formed in nucleus comes in cytoplasm. It brings in the coded message from DNA. The message contains the codes for amino acids. The code for each amino acid consists of three nucleotides. It is called as ‘triplet codon’. Each mRNA is made up of thousands of triplet codons. As per the message on mRNA, amino acids are supplied by the tRNA. For this purpose, tRNA has ‘anticodon’ having complementary sequence to the codon on mRNA. This is called ‘translation’.

Question 2.
(Cultural, agriculture, fire, brain, Cro-Magnon, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal)
Evolution of upright man continued in the direction of developing its ………. for the period of about 1 lakh years and meanwhile he discovered the ………. Brain of man, 50 thousand years ago had been sufficiently evolved to the extent that it could be considered as member of the species ………… Neanderthal man can be considered as the first example of wise-man. The ……….. man evolved about 50 thousand years ago and afterwards, this evolution had been faster than the earlier. About 10 thousand years ago, wise-man started to practise the ………. It started to rear the cattle-herds and established the cities. ………..development took place later.
Answer:
Evolution of upright man continued in the direction of developing its brain for the period of about 1 lakh years and meanwhile he discovered the fire. Brain of man 50 thousand years ago had been sufficiently evolved to the extent that it could be considered as member of the species Homo sapiens. Neanderthal man can be considered as the first example of wise-man. The Cro-Magnon man eyolved about 50 thousand years ago and afterwards, this evolution had been faster than the earlier. About 10 thousand years ago, wise-man started-to practise the agriculture. It started to rear the cattle-herds and established the cities. Cultural development took place later.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:

With the help of RNA, the genes present in the form of DNA participate in the functioning of cell and thereby control the structure and functioning of the body. Information about protein synthesis is stored in the DNA and synthesis of appropriate proteins as per requirement is necessary for body. These proteins are synthesized by DNA through the RNA. This is called ‘Central Dogma’. mRNA is produced as per the sequence of nucleotides on DNA. Only one of the two strands of DNA is used in this process. The sequence of nucleotides in mRNA being produced is always complementary to the DNA strand used for synthesis. Besides, there is uracil in RNA instead of thymine of DNA. This process of RNA synthesis is called ‘transcription’.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
Which part of the cell control the structure and functioning of the body?
Answer:
Genes present in the form of DNA along with RNA control the structure and functioning of the body.

Question 2.
How is a specific protein synthesised in the cell?
Answer:
The information of protein synthesis is stored in the DNA which is utilised as per the requirement of the body. Later the proteins are synthesised by DNA through the RNA.

Question3.
What is the similarity between mRNA and DNA?
Answer:
The sequence of nucleotides on DNA is copied on mRNA. The nucleotide sequence on mRNA is thus complementary to DNA.

Question 4.
Give one difference between RNA and DNA.
Answer:
RNA has uracil instead of thymine which is present in DNA.

Question 5.
Define central dogma.
Answer:
Central dogma is the concept that proteins are synthesised by DNA through the RNA.

Diagram-based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the figure 1.3 of transcription given on page 9 in this chapter and answer the following questions:

(1) What is the sequence of nucleotides present on one strand of the DNA?
Answer:
A T G C A A T T

(2) According to the above sequence on DNA, what will be the transcribed sequence on the mRNA molecule?
Answer:
U A C G U U A A

(3) Which enzyme is taking part in the above process of transcription?
Answer:
RNA polymerase takes part in the process of transcription.

Question 2.
Observe the figure 1.5 of translation and translocation, given on page 9 this chapter and answer the following questions:

(1) Which is the initiation codon? Where is it present?
Answer:
AUG is the initiation codon, which is present on the mRNA.

(2) What are the types of RNA present inside the ribosome? Which triplet codon is present on it?
Answer:
There are two molecules of tRNA present inside the ribosome. The triplet codons present on them are UAC and AAG respectively.

(3) Which genetic code is present on mRNA that is leaving the nucleus? What must be the sequence on the DNA to have such code on mRNA?
Answer:
The mRNA that leaves the nucleus has genetic code: A U G U U C A A A
The genetic code on DNA therefore should be as follows: T A C A A G T T T

Question 3.
Observe the figure 1.6 given on page 10 from this chapter. Answer the following question based on your observations:

What is the significance of this figure from the viewpoint of evolution? Explain in brief.
Answer:
In the figure, the process of mutation is shown. The original nucleotide sequence of TGC is replaced by new mutated sequence GAT. The change in the nucleotide sequence will change the DNA.

This will result in the change in genes and then changing the hereditary characters. Due to such change in genes, the evolution proceeds. The mutation so formed can be minor or major. The greater the impact of the change, the evolution takes place rapidly. The mutation thereby produce recombinations leading to diversity.

Question 4.
Observe the picture and answer the following questions:

(1) Which evidence of evolution is shown in the picture?
Answer:
Embryological evidences of evolution are shown in this picture.

(2) What can be proven with this proof?
Answer:
The similarities in the initial embryonic stages of different vertebrates shows that there was a common origin of all of them. Thus embryological evidences prove that there was common vertebrate ancestor.

(3) Give one more example of evidence of evolution.
Answer:
Palaeontological evidences such as vestigial organs and connecting links are another examples of evolutionary evidences.

Question 5.
Which concept/theory do you remember after seeing this picture of Giraffes? Describe it in brief.

Answer:

• The picture is based on the Lamarck’s principle of ‘use and disuse of organs’.
• The morphological characters of organism develop because of specific activities that the organisms perform.
• If some organ is not used it gets degenerated. If excessively used, it develops further.
• Thus, the morphological changes take place due to activities or non-working of a particular body parts in an organism. Due to constant extension of neck to eat foliage from the top of the trees, giraffe’s neck became long.

Activity-based Questions:

Try this: (Text Book Page No. 4)

Observe the above images and note the similarities between given animal images and plant images.
Answer:
The above pictures of the animals show similarities such as structure of mouth, position of eyes, structure of nostrils and ear pinnae and body fur. In pictures of plants there are similarities in characters like leaf shape, leaf venation, leaf petiole, etc.
These above morphological evidences show that there may be a common ancestor for all of the species shown.

Observe and Discuss:

Question 1.
Observe the pictures given below. (Text Book Page No. 5)

Answer:
(1) Fossils offer palaeontological evidence for the evolutionary process.
(2) Due to some natural calamities the organisms get buried during ancient times.
(3) The impressions and remnants of such organisms remain preserved underground. The hot lava also traps some organisms or their impressions. All such formations form fossils.
(4) Study of fossils help the researcher to understand the characteristics of the organisms that existed in the.past.
(5) Carbon dating method also helps in finding out exact age of the fossil. According to the structure of earth’s crust the fossils are obtained at specific depths.
(6) The oldest ones are obtained at the depth while the relatively recent ones occupy the upper surface. Thus fossils of invertebrates were seen in very old Palaeozoic era. Later were seen fossils of Pisces, Amphibia and Reptilia. The Mesozoic era was dominated by reptiles while Coenozoic era showed presence of mammals.
(7) In this way, study of fossils unfold the evolutionary secrets.

Question 2.
Observe the pictures given and discuss the characters observed. (Text Book Page No. 6)

Answer:
Some living organisms possess some characters in them which are the distinctive features of different groups or phyla. Such individuals connect these two groups by sharing the characters of both and hence they are known as connective links.

Examples: (1) Peripatus: Peripatus is the connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda. It shows characters of both animal phyla. Like annelid worm, it shows segmented body, thin cuticle and parapodia. Like an arthropod, it shows open circulatory system and tracheal system for respiration.
(2) Duck Billed platypus: This is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals. Like reptiles it lays eggs but like mammals it has mammary glands and hairy skin.
(3) Lung fish: Lung fish is a connecting link between fishes and amphibians. Though a fish, it shows lungs for respiration as in amphibian animals.
(4) Connecting links indicate the direction and hierarchy of evolution.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Internet is my friend: (Text Book Page No. 3)
Collect the information from the internet about Big-Bang theory related with the formation of stars and planets and present it in your class.

Project 2.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 4)
Collect the information of geological dating and present it in the classroom.

Project 3.
Use of ICT: (Text Book Page No. 5)
Find how the vestigial organs in certain animals are functional in others. Present the information in your class and send it to others.

Project 4.
Internet is my friend: (Text Book Page No. 8)
Collect the pictures and information of various species of monkeys from internet.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 4 Environmental management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 4 Environmental management

Question 1.
Reorganize the following food chain. Describe the ecosystem to which it belongs.
Grasshopper – Snake – Paddy field – Eagle – Frog.
Answer:

• Correct food chain: Paddy field → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle.
• Such food chain is seen in the terrestrial ecosystem. There are many biotic factors in the terrestrial ecosystem, such as insects, birds, mammals etc.
• The above example mentions about paddy field, so it must be in vicinity of coastal lands. There is water logging in the paddy fields. Therefore, it offers a habitat to the frogs.
• In the above example, paddy fields are producers in the ecosystem. The primary consumer is grasshopper. Secondary consumer is frog, tertiary consumer is snake and the apex consumer is eagle. On every trophic level the bacteria, fungi and some scavenging worms can act as the decomposers.
• In this ecosystem. the solar energy is transferred from the paddy crops to eagle in a step wise food
  chain.

Question 2.
Explain the statement – ‘We have got this Earth planet on lease from our future generations and not as an ancestral property from our ancestors.’
Answer:

• The earth was inhabited by older generations before us. We have replaced them.
• But during their life time, they have created hazardous impact on the earth. The industrialization, the quest for more and more natural resources, wars fought, the construction activities such as dams, roads and bridges, extensive deforestation, etc. were their thoughtless activities.
• All these activities were for development of mankind. But most of them have destroyed the delicate balance between the producers and different levels of consumers.
• Due to ever increasing population of human beings there is shortage of food, clothing and shelter. To procure these basic needs, we have exploited many natural resources causing destruction of the earth’s natural ecosystem.
• Now it is our turn to protect the earth as on the same planet the next generations have to survive. We have to hand over the ecosystems of the earth which are in perfect balance to the new generations.
• The future generations need a good quality of air, water and land along with all other living organisms.
• Due to problems like climate change, global warming, pollution, droughts, etc. the environment is impacted, thus in order to keep sustainability of earth, we have to remember that the earth has not been obtained only as ancestral property but we have to save it for future generations.

Question 3.
Write short notes.
a. Environmental conservation.
Answer:
Due to natural and man-made causes, there are many environmental problems on the earth. These problems affect the existence of various living organisms. In order to save these organisms and maintain the environmental balance, there is need for environmental conservation. If this is not done then there will not be any quality of life for the resident humans. For environmental conservation, the Government has formulated acts and rules. UN has established UNEP for the conservation programs.

The people’s participation in the conservation movement is essential. From school age, the environmental values are inculcated in the young minds. Conservation of environment is the social responsibility of everyone. Judicial use of natural resources conservation also way of environmental conservation.

b. Chipko Movement of Bishnoi.
Answer:
Chipko Movement of Bishnoi or Bishnoi Andolan:
Khejarli or Khejadli is a village in Rajasthan, where Bishnoi community is located. The name of the town is derived from Khejri trees.

The first event of Chipko Movement took place in Khejadli village in 1730 AD. In this village 363 Bishnois, led by Amrita Devi sacrificed their lives for protecting the trees of Khejri trees, which trees are considered as sacred by Bishnoi.

Amrita Devi said, “if a tree is saved even at the cost of one’s head, it’s worth it”. She was killed with the axes that were brought to chop off the trees. The three young daughters Asu, Ratna and Bhagubai also sacrificed their lives for trees.

83 Bishnoi villages came together and villagers sacrificed their lives after hearing about Amrita Devi’s sacrifice. Three hundred and sixty-three Bishnois were killed as they opposed the king. After realizing the mistake, the king ordered stoppage of the felling of trees. Honouring the courage of the Bishnoi community, the ruler of Jodhpur, Maharaja Abhay Singh, apologized. He issued a royal decree to protect trees and wild life.

Chipko movement of 20th century in Uttar Pradesh also followed the same pattern of embracing the trees and saving them from cutting.

c. Biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity means the diverse life forms that inhabit any area. Biodiversity is seen due to variety of life forms and different ecosystems that lodge these organisms. In nature there is biodiversity on the three different levels, viz. genetic diversity, species diversity and ecosystem diversity. This means that there is diversity in the individuals belonging to the same specips due to genetic reasons, there is diversity among the different species of organisms and there is also a diversity in the ecosystems that are present in any region.

Due to development of mankind, the biodiversity is threatened. There are special efforts taken to restore the lost and threatened biodiversity. Some of these are establishing sanctuaries, National Parks, biodiversity hotspots and reserves etc. Certain endangered species are protected by carrying out conservation projects.

d. Sacred Groves.
Answer:
Sacred grove is the green patch of the forest which is conserved by local people in the name of God. It does not belong to forest department. It is like a sanctuary that is conserved by the common people and tribals in the area. It is rich in the biodiversity.

It is conserved as there is a faith that God or deity reside in the sacred grove. Hence in local language, they are known as Deorai. Due to this reason, people do not fell the trees. Also hunting of any wild life is not done here. More than 13000 sacred groves have been reported in India. Most of these are in Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala. Also, in remaining parts of India sacred groves are reported. Role of sacred grove is tremendous in conserving the biodiversity.

e. Disaster and its management.
Answer:

• To save human life from disasters. To help them for moving away from the place of disasters by rapid action.
• To supply essential commodities to the affected people. This helps to reduce the gravity of disaster. People are given grains, water and clothes and other basic necessities under this objective.
• To bring back the conditions of affected people to normalcy.
• To rehabilitate the affected and displaced victims.
• To think and execute the protective measures in order to develop capability to face the disasters in
  future.

Question 4.
How will you justify that overcoming the pollution is a powerful way of environmental management?
(OR)
“Solving the problem of pollution is an effective way of environmental management.” Justify the statement.
Answer:
1. Pollution is created only due to human activities. Air, water, soil, noise, radiation, thermal, light, plastic are different types of pollution.
2. All types of pollution affect environment and particularly threatening the survival of living organisms.
3. Pollution must be controlled in order to have good quality of the environment. E.g. When plastic is thrown anywhere, it causes pollution of the land, it clogs the rain water drains, it affects feeding of the animals. Plastic pollution can be completely stopped by us through proper management of plastic waste. By recycling or reusing, we can overcome the plastic pollution. This would be a powerful way of environmental management.
4. Similarly, when we reduce pollution of different types, we automatically help to regain the environmental health.

Question 5.
Which projects will you run in relation to environmental conservatioh? How?
(OR)
Write six strategies implemented by you for conservation of the environment.
Answer:
Initially, assessment of the environmental problems will be done. The nature and severity of these problems will be understood by detailed study of the same. Then the projects can be undertaken to combat these problems.

1. Tree plantation is one such easier project that can be undertaken to conserve environment. The further nurturing of the tree will also be our responsibility. While selecting the tree, the local and sturdy varieties will be selected. Such trees can survive in polluted environment too and even under the pressure of urbanization.

2. Solid waste management is another very important project that should be undertaken by every society, colony or school. Segregation of waste into dry and wet types and then its proper disposal will be taught to all the people in the neighbouring area.

3. To ban the plastic and make people aware about harmful effects of plastic is another very significant project.

4. Fossil fuels are non-renewable and polluting. Therefore, their use should be reduced as far as possible. Therefore, using bicycle, or walking down for shorter distances or using public transport systems are the better alternatives. The awareness drive about these facts will be taken up as a project.

5. To take care of stray animals, provide shelter, feeding endangered birds like sparrows and allowing them to survive with our support is also one of the essential act to conserve other species.

6. Attempts will be made for bringing awareness among minds of everyone. Such small acts can bring about major shift in the attitude of the people. This will certainly help in the environmental conservation.

Question 6.
Answer the following:
a. Write the factors affecting environment.
Answer:

• The biotic and abiotic- factors affect the environment. Among abiotic factors, the physical and chemical factors can alter the conditions of the environment.
• Abiotic factors are either natural or man-made.
• The various interrelationships between different living organisms can also affect environment.
• The natural disasters such as earthquake, forest fires, cyclones, cloud bursting, drought, etc. change the environment.
• The human activities such as deforestation, urbanisation, constructions etc. cause permanent damage to the ecosystems. Due to man-made impact, there can be large scale changes in the environment.

b. Human beings have important place in environment.
Answer:

• Man came last on the earth during evolution of animals. But due to his intelligence, imagination, critical thinking and memory, he made progress in all fields.
• By virtue of these qualities he became the supreme.
• All the natural resources on the earth were very rapidly exploited by man.
• Under the pretext of technology and. development he made degradation of almost all¬natural ecosystems.
• He never obeys the rules of nature.
• Phenomena like pollution, urbanization, industrialization and deforestation are exclusively his creations.
• Hunting and poaching other animals were his contribution to the extinction of many other animals.
• Except man no other organism on the earth can change the ecosystems in such a drastic way. Therefore, it is rightly said that human beings have important place in environment.

c. Write the types and examples of biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is documented on the following three levels, viz. genetic diversity, species diversity and ecosystem diversity.
1. Genetic Diversity: Diversity seen among the organisms of same species due to genetic differences is called genetic diversity. E.g. The individual human beings are different from each other. No two animals or plants are exactly alike.

2. Species Diversity: The difference between the different species is the species diversity, e.g. All the species of plants, animals and microbes which are seen in any natural environment.

3. Ecosystem Diversity: In one region there may be different ecosystems, such diversity in the ecosystems is called ecosystem diversity. Ecosystems are natural or artificial. Every region shows different types of ecosystems such as aquatic, terrestrial, desert or forest ecosystems. Each ecosystem has its own habitats with resident flora and fauna.

d. How the biodiversity can be conserved?
Answer:
Biodiversity can be conserved by the following ways:

• Protection of the rare species of plants and animals.
• Creating habitats for the animals and plants by establishing National Parkland Sanctuaries.
• Declaration of bioreserves, the areas which are protected through conservation.
• Conservation projects for protecting special species.
• Conservation of all flora and fauna.
• Strict observance of the acts and rules.
• Use of traditional knowledge and maintaining record of traditional knowledge.

e. What do we learn from the story of Jadav Molai Payeng? (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Jadav Molai Payeng is a common man who was just a simple forest worker. But he has conscience about plants and tree plantations. He single-handedly planted thousands of trees. He converted a barren patch of land into forest which is spread over 1360 acres. For these plantations he continuously worked.

He has shown that a single determined person, can establish a new forest! We understand the values of
hard work, sincerity and devotion to the nature through the story of Jadav Molai Payeng. Even a common man can contribute a lot for the conservation and protection of the environment by learning the story of Payeng.

f. Write the names of biodiversity hot spots.
Answer:

• In entire world, 34 highly sensitive biodiversity spots are reported.
• These hotspots occupied 15.7% area of the Earth.
• However, currently about 86% of the sensitive areas are already destroyed.
• Now about 2.3% area of the Earth still has such sensitive biodiversity spots.
• There are 1,50,000 plant species which are about 50% of the species in the world.
• In India, out of 135 species of animals, 85 species are found in the jungles of eastern region.
• There are about 1,500 endemic plant species in Western Ghats.
• About 50,000 plants species out of the total plants in the world are said to be endemic.

g. Which are the reasons for endangering the many species of plants and animals? How can we save those diversity?
Answer:

• The animals and plants species are endangered majorly due to man-made causes.
• Some natural disasters like earthquakes, climate change, forest fires, drought and cyclones also affect the living organisms due to lack of food and water.
• In man-made causes, hunting and poaching are the main reasons.
• Also animal-human conflicts occur due to invasion of human settlements into the habitats of wild animals.
• Construction of dams, roads, and colonies destroy the habitats of wild life.
• Industrialization, urbanization and population explosion of humans are putting severe pressure on all the existing biodiversity.
• In order to save and protect the biodiversity, many scientists and naturalists come together. A stretch of land is protected by declaring it as the sanctuary or a national park by the Government. Even the locals can protect it as a sacred grove.
• Various acts and rules have been formulated to protect the organisms. The violators of such rules are punished accordingly.

Question 7.
What are the meanings of the following symbols? Write your role accordingly. (July ’19; Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(OR)
What do these symbols indicate? Explain your opinion about those symbols.

Answer:
1. The first symbol is for giving the message, “Reduce, reuse and recycle”. This is important mantra for the utilization of natural resources.
The second symbol gives the message about ‘Save water’.
The third symbol advocates the use of solar energy.

2. These symbols inculcate the importance of being eco-friendly. The first symbol is essential to maintain the natural resources by reusing and recycling them. As far as possible, one should reduce the excessive use of resources by preventing consumerism.

3. Water problems persist in many major cities and villages. In villages it results in drought like conditions. It also reflects into loss of agricultural produce. Therefore, the message about saving water or to make judicious use of water should be spread far and wide.

4. The solar energy is the renewable energy option which is very easily available in country like India. By using solar energy, we can replace the polluting and exhaustible fuels. Thereby, pollution will also be reduced.

Due to such symbols, important messages about environment conservation reach, us and we can change ourselves into more eeofriendly persons.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Make a presentation on pollution of Gangci and Yamuna Rivers and effects of air pollution on Taimuhal.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 36)

Question 1.
What is ecosystem? Which are its different components?
Answer:
In any environment, there are biotic and abiotic components. There are interactions among these components. All such interactions make an ecosystem.

The different components in the ecosystem are as follows:
Abiotic components : Air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, humidity, etc.
Biotic components: All the types of living organisms, like bacteria, fungi, plants and animals.

Question 2.
Which are the types of consumers? What are the criteria for their classification?
Answer:
Primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers or apex consumers are the different types of consumers. These types are according to the trophic level to which they belong.

Question 3.
What may be the relationship between lake and birds on tree?
Answer:
The birds on the tree depend on the aquatic organisms in the lake for their feeding. Birds stay on the trees which are in the vicinity of the lake, so that it is easier for them to capture fishes, frogs, etc. They must also be using the same lake water for drinking.

Question 4.
What is difference between food chain and food web?
Answer:
In every ecosystem, there are always interactions between producers, consumers and decomposers. This sequence of feeding interactions is called food chain. In every food chain there are links between four to five trophic levels constituting the producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, tertiary consumers, etc. The links of food chain are in linear sequence. But food web is a complex network of many small food chains. In fact, food web is the collection of many small food chains. Thus, when many food chains are interwoven, they form food web.

Think and Answer! (Text Book Page No. 36)

Question 1.
Write the name and category of each of the component shown in picture.
Answer:
By utilizing the solar energy, the green plants perform photosynthesis. Thus, they are producers of the food chain. This food is consumed by the grasshopper. Thus, it is primary consumer. Frog is secondary consumer as its diet consists of insects like grasshopper. Snake is tertiary consumer as it feeds on frogs, while the hawk is apex consumer as it can kill the snake and feed on it. Last picture in the food chain is of fungi which are acting as decomposers. Few bacteria are shown in the picture, act on all the levels and bring about decomposition.

Question 2.
What is necessary to convert this picture into food web? Why?
Answer:
If this food chain has to be converted into a food web, there should be interactions between the different components. Any living organism can be prey to different predators. Moreover, a predator can also be a prey for other. Frog eats different insects. The same frog can be either eaten by snake or by hawk.

Use your brain power. (Text Book Page No. 40)

Question 1.
Why is it said that pollution control is important?
Answer:
The quantity of pollutants and severity of their effects on the ecosystem have to be taken into consideration constantly. The different methods of pollution control have to be used for checking the hazardous effects of pollution on the living organisms. Especially the impact of pollution on health of human beings is assessed from time to time.

The young children and senior citizens are affected to greater extent by the pollution. If the air and water required for the survival of the people is affected, then exercising the pollution control is to be done immediately. Thus, it is said that pollution control is important.

Enlist and discuss (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Find the meaning of given symbols in relation to environment conservation. Make a list of other such symbols.
A.
Answer:
This symbol tells us to keep our wastes carefully. The garbage should not be strewn anywhere. But it should be properly managed. Waste if managed properly can be a wealth.
B.
Answer:
This symbol tells us to save electricity. If electricity is carefully used, we can save our natural resources. This message is given through this picture.
C.
Answer:
Use of bicycle means use of green energy. By riding on a bicycle we save on fuel and use our own muscular energy. It is the best eeofriendly, non polluting vehicle.

Observe and fill the information: (Text Book Page No. 8)

Question 1.
Observe the environment around you. Complete the following flow chart.

Answer:

Complete the Chart: (Text Book Page No. 39)

Question 1.
We have studied the air pollution, water pollution and soil pollution in detail in earlier classes. Based on that, complete the following chart.

Answer:

Complete the Chart: (Text Book Page No. 40)

Question 1.
Now a day, we are observing the environmental degradation everywhere. Complete the flow chart given besides with the help of environment.

Answer:

(Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Where are such sacred groves in Maharashtra? Make a list and visit with your teachers.
Answer:
Sacred groves: Sacred groves form an important landscape feature in the deforested hill ranges of the Western Ghats. The felling of timber and the killing of animals in sacred groves is not allowed by the locals. It is considered as taboo.

In Maharashtra, sacred groves are found in tribal as well as non-tribal areas. The sacred groves in the western part are called Devrai or Devrahati, which means the abode of the gods. In eastern parts it is called Devegudi by the madiya tribal people.

In Maharashtra 2820 Devrais have been documented. Maruti, Vaghoba, Vira, Bhiroba, Khandoba and Shirkai are some deities to which sacred groves are dedicated.

In the sacred groves, the most commonly found plant species are Portia tree, Casuarina, Silk cotton tree, Indian laurel, Indian Elm, Bead tree, Indian butter tree, Turmeric and Japanese ginger. In Maharashtra, sacred groves are maximum in district of Sindhudurg, (More than 1500 out of total 2820) followed by Ratnagiri, then Pune and in district of Satara.

Choose the correct alternative and write that alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Paddy fields are frequently attacked by
(a) goats
(b) birds
(c) grasshoppers
(d) monkeys
Answer:
(c) grasshoppers

Question 2.
Basic functional unit to study the ecology is termed as ……………
(a) environment
(b) niche
(c) ecosystem
(d) food chain
Answer:
(c) ecosystem

Question 3.
As per ……….. trading of rare animals has been completely banned.
(a) clause 48A
(b) clause 49B
(c) clause 49A
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) clause 49A

Question 4.
(4) The jungle in Kokilamukh of Jorhat district of Assam is well known as ………….
(a) Molai jungle
(b) Rhino jungle
(c) Rhino forest
(d) Payang jungle
Answer:
(a) Molai jungle

Question 5.
Maintaining record of ………. knowledge is very necessary.
(a) modern
(b) mythical
(c) vedic
(d) traditional
Answer:
(d) traditional

Question 6.
………… is world’s largest organization engaged in environmental activities.
(a) Greenpeace
(b) Hariyali
(c) B. N. H. S.
(d) I. I. T.
Answer:
(a) Greenpeace

Question 7.
……….. sanctuary of West Bengal is reserved for tigers.
(a) Gir
(b) Sunderban
(c) Molai
(d) Corbett
Answer:
(b) Sunderban

Question 8.
World Biodiversity Day is celebrated on ……… every year.
(a) 22nd April
(b) 5th June
(c) 16th September
(d) 22nd May
Answer:
(d) 22nd May

Question 9.
Out of the total plant species in the entire world, 50,000 are ……………
(a) extinct
(b) endangered
(c) endemic
(d) rare
Answer:
(c) endemic

Question 10.
Giant squirrel is an ………… species.
(a) indeterminate
(b) rare
(c) endemic
(d) endangered
Answer:
(a) indeterminate

Question 11.
In a food chain, autotrophic plants are present at the ……….. level. (March 2019)
(a) tertiary nutrition
(b) secondary nutrition
(c) producer
(d) apex
Answer:
(c) producer

Question 12.
……….. from Manas sanctuary in Assam is under threat. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
(a) one horned rhino
(b) Lion
(c) Musk deer
(d) Giant squirrel/Shekru
Answer:
(a) one horned rhino

Write whether the following statements are true or false, giving suitable explanation for the same:

Question 1.
Only abiotic factors play very important role in the ecosystem.
Answer:
False. (Both abiotic and biotic factors play very important role in the ecosystem. Only abiotic factors will not decide the working of an ecosystem.)

Question 2.
Paddy fields are frequently attacked by frogs.
Answer:
False. (Paddy fields are frequently attacked by grasshoppers. Frogs feed on grasshoppers and control the population of these insects that cause destruction of the crops.)

Question 3.
Environmental pollution is necessary and acceptable change in the surrounding environment.
Answer:
False. (Environmental pollution is never acceptable. It is always harmful to the entire ecosystem and thus never necessary.)

Question 4.
X-rays and radiations from atomic energy plants are natural radiations.
Answer:
False. (X-rays are not present in natural radiations. Infra-red and ultra-violet rays are present in natural radiations.)

Question 5.
The person breaching the Environmental Conservation Act is entitled for either one year imprisonment or fine up to ₹ 5 lakh.
Answer:
False. (The person breaching the Environmental conservation Act is fined upto ₹ 1 lakh. He is also entitled to imprisonment for five years.)

Question 6.
Many people come together to establish arnew forest but a single person, if determined can destroy the entire forest!
Answer:
False. (When anything constructive has to be done even a single man can start such action. In case of ‘Molai jungle’, this statement holds true. But when destructive actions are done, many people come together and cause damage.)

Question 7.
There are clusters of thick forests only in Western Ghats of India.
Answer:
False. (Entire India is rich in biodiversity. Just not in Western Ghats but in entire India one can observe the clusters of thick forests and this is mainly due to suitable tropical climate.)

Question 8.
86 highly sensitive biodiversity spots are reported all over the world.
Answer:
False. (As per the latest information and available data, there are 34 highly sensitive biodiversity spots.)

Question 9.
Flow of nutrients in an ecosystem is unidirectional.
Answer:
False. (Flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional. Flow of nutrients is cyclic.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Physical, chemical and biological factors together form	(a) Biodiversity
(2) The science of interactions between biotic and abiotic factors	(b) Ecosystem
	(c) Ecology
	(d) Environment

Answer:
(1) Physical, chemical and biological factors together form – Environment.
(2) The science of interactions between biotic and abiotic factors – Ecology.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
(1) Basic functional unit in the environment	(a) Biodiversity
(2) Different types of living organisms	(b) Ecosystem
	(c) Ecology
	(d) Environment

Answer:
(1) Basic functional unit in the environment – Ecosystem.
(2) Different types of living organisms – Biodiversity.

Question 3.

Rules/Act	Year
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule	(a) 1980
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule	(b) 2011
	(c) 1998
	(d) 2000

Answer:
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule – 2000.
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule – 1998.

Question 4.

Rules/Act	Year
(1) Forest Conservation Act	(a) 1980
(2) Environmental Conservation Act	(b) 1986
	(c) 2011
	(d) 2000

Answer:
(1) Forest Conservation Act – 1980.
(2) Environmental Conservation Act – 1986.

Question 5.

Species	Examples
(1) Endangered	(a) Red panda, Musk deer.
(2) Rare	(b) Tiger, Lion.
	(c) Lion tailed monkey, lesser florican.
	(d) Monkey, squirrel

Answer:
(1) Endangered Species – Lion tailed monkey, lesser florican.
(2) Rare Species – Red panda, Musk deer.

Question 6.

Species	Examples
(1) Vulnerable	(a) Giant squirrel (Shekhru)
(2) Indeterminate	(b) Red panda, Musk deer
	(c) Tiger, Lion
	(d) Lesser florican, sparrow

Answer:
(1) Vulnerable Species – Tiger, Lion.
(2) Indeterminate Species – Giant squirrel (Shekhru).

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Ash, Carbon dioxide, Lead, Asbestos
Answer:
Carbon dioxide. (All others are solid particulate pollutants.)

Question 2.
Manas sanctuary, Sunderbans sanctuary, The Western Ghats, Tadoba National Park
Answer:
Tadoba National Park. (All others are endangered heritage places of India.)

Question 3.
Lion tailed monkey, White rats, Musk deer, Tiger
Answer:
White rats. (All others are species that are threatened.)

Question 4.
Conservation, Regulation, Pollution, Prohibition
Answer:
Pollution. (All others are ways of environmental protection.)

Question 5.
IPCC, UNEP, IUCN, BNHS
Answer:
BNHS. (All others are international organizations. BNHS is Bombay Natural History Society.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Rare species : Musk deer : : ………… : Lesser florican.
Answer:
Endangered species

Question 2.
Red panda : Rare species : : Giant Squirrel : …………
Answer:
Indeterminate species

Question 3.
Nitrogen, Oxygen : Gaseous cycle : : Soil and Rocks : …………
Answer:
Sedimentary cycle

Question 4.
Manas : One horned Rhino : : Gir : ………..
Answer:
Asiatic lion

Question 5.
Mumbai : Bombay Natural History Society : : TehriGarhwal : ………….
Answer:
Chipko centre.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Answer the following questions:
If frog population in paddy field declines all of a sudden,
(a) What will be the effect on paddy crop?
Answer:
If the population of frog declines, then there will be rise in the population of grasshoppers. The paddy fields will hence be infested with insect pests.

(b) Number of which consumers will decline and which will increase?
Answer:
The food chain if altered, results in imbalance in the ecosystem. ‘Paddy → Grasshoppers → Frog → Snake’, this food chain is natural. When by any reason there is dec1ine in the number of frogs, thus secondary consumer will also decline. Due to this decline, snake which is at tertiary consumer level will also decline. Theprimary consumers i.e. grasshoppers will increase as there is now no check on their population. Due to increase in their population the paddy production will be reduced. Due to reduced number of snakes, rats and other rodents from neighbouring areas would also rise, which are also secondary consumers.

(c) Name the Indian states where paddy is cultivated on a large scale.
Answer:
West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Assam and Maharashtra.

Question 2.
What is radioactive pollution? What are its effects?
Answer:
(1) The radiations emitted either through the natural sources or through man-made sources cause radioactive pollution.
(2) The natural radiations is in the form of ultra violet and infrared radiations.
(3) Artificial or man-made radiations are X-rays and radiations from atomic energy plants.
(4) All radiations are highly hazardous for the living organisms. The impact of radiation is also for a very long time.
(5) It has brought about major accidental mishaps at Chernobyl, Windscale, qpd Three Miles Island. These disasters have affected thousands of people.
(6) Some other effects of radiations are as follows – (i) Due to higher radiations of X-rays, cancerous ulceration occurs, (ii) Radiations destroy the body tissues, (iii) Radiations cause mutations and thus genetic changes occur, (iv) There is adverse effect on the vision.

Question 3.
Give one word for “The forest conserved in the name of God.” (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
Deorai.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Certain scavenging caterpillars, termites and insects found in the dung are important.
Answer:

• Scavenging caterpillars and insects are decomposers. They seem to be Worthless due to filthy surrounding in which they thrive.
• But they carry out most important task of decomposition of complex organic substances into simple inorganic elements.
• This recycling is possible only due to decomposers.
• If they are not present, there will be huge accumulation of garbage. Therefore, these living organisms are important.

Question 2.
Destroying trees is to destroy everything.
Answer:

• When a single huge tree is felled many living organisms which are dependent on it, are exterminated.
• Many insects, fungi, birds, etc. lose their habitat.
• Trees take up carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and release oxygen. These natural cycles are also hindered due to loss of trees.
• Due to trees there is shade, cooler atmosphere and increase in the rainfall. When such trees are destroyed all the components in the ecosystem are destroyed too.

Question 3.
There is no definite information about indeterminate species.
Answer:

• Indeterminate species do not have substantial information about them.
• The organisms belonging to such species appear to be endangered due to their some behavioural habits.
• They are shy and do not come in open so that they can be observed keenly.
• For example, animals like Giant squirrel also do not provide such information.

Question 4.
Tigers from Sunderbans and Rhinos from Manas are under threat.
Answer:

• Manas is in the area-of Assam where there are many dams and Indiscriminate use of water.
• This area is also flood affected. Therefore, rhinos are under threat.
• In Sunderbans, there are also problems such as deforestation, dams, excessive fishing, and dug out trenches.
• All of these cause dangers to the tiger population.

Question 5.
There are clusters of thick forests in the Western Ghats of India.
Answer:

• There are many sacred groves in the region of Western Ghats of India.
• These forests are not conserved by Government Forest Departments but are cared for by the local people, in the name of God.
• Due to such faith in the people, the forests are conserved like sanctuaries.
• Such many clusters are in Western Ghats of Maharashtra.

Question 6.
We can see biodiversity on three levels.
Answer:

1. There is biodiversity in the living organisms belonging to the same genus.
2. This diversity is due to different heredity pattern. This is called genetic biodiversity.
3. The organisms occupying the same area and belonging to the same species also show diversity due to different species. This is species biodiversity.
4. The organisms occupying different ecosystems also show differences, which is called ecosystem biodiversity. Therefore, we observe biodiversity on three different levels.

Questions based on diagrams:

Question 1.
What is shown in the picture? Write name and trophic level of each component.

Answer:
In this picture, food chain having rive trophic levels is shown.
(1) Trophic level 1 = Producers : Green plant.
(2) Trophic level 2 = Primary consumer (Herbivore): Grasshopper.
(3) Trophic level 3 = Secondary consumer (Carnivore): Bird.
(4) Trophic level 4 = Tertiary consumer (Carnivore) : Snake.
(5) Trophic level 5 = Top or Apex consumer (Carnivore) : Owl.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of following symbols A and B and C.
A.

Answer:
The symbol show types of green energy such as solar energy and wind energy. It also expresses that people
should use such sources of energy for their use.

B.

Answer:
This symbol is giving the message “Save water”. Sustainable use of water is necessary for our future.

C.

answer:
The symbols of WWF and BNHS are shown here. BNHS stands for Bombay Natural History Society. This institute works for the conservation and documentation of flora and fauna.

WWF means World Wild Life Fund. Also known as World Wide Life Fund. This International Institute is looking after the welfare of wildlife through different conservation projects. WWF symbol shows Panda while BNHS symbol has Giant Hornbill.

Question 3.
(a) Identify the following symbols and state their significance: (March 2019)

Answer:
(i) This symbol is giving the message “Save water”. Sustainable use of water is necessary for our future.
(ii) Use of bicycle means use of green energy. By riding on a bicycle we save on fuel and use our own muscular energy. It is the best ecofriendly, non polluting vehicle.

(b) How can biodiversity be conserved?
Answer:
Biodiversity can be conserved by the following ways:

• Protection of the rare species of plants and animals.
• Creating habitats for the animals and plants by establishing National Park and Sanctuaries.
• Declaration of bio reserves, the areas which are protected through conservation.
• Conservation projects for protecting special species.
• Conservation of all flora and fauna.
• Strict observance of the acts and rules.
• Use of traditional knowledge and maintaining record of traditional knowledge.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Questions based on the charts.
Complete the flow chart: (July 2019)

Answer:

Question 2.
Collect more information about locations of these hotspots present in the world. (Textbook page no. 44)
Answer:
Students should collect this information.

Question 3.
Where are such sacred groves in Maharashtra? Make a list and visit with your teachers. (Textbook page no. 43)
Answer:
Sacred groves: Sacred groves form an important landscape feature in the deforested hill ranges of the Western Ghats. The felling of timber and the killing of animals in sacred groves is not allowed by the locals. It is considered as taboo.

In Maharashtra, sacred groves are found in tribal as well as non-tribal areas. The sacred groves in the western part are called Devrai or Devrahati, which means the abode of the gods. In eastern parts it is called Devegudi by the madiya tribal people.

In Maharashtra 2820 Devrais have been documented. Maruti, Vaghoba, Vira, Bhiroba, Khandoba and Shirkai are some deities to which sacred groves are dedicated.

In the sacred groves, the most commonly found plant species are Portia tree, Casuarina, Silk cotton tree, Indian laurel, Indian Elm, Bead tree, Indian butter tree, Turmeric and Japanese ginger. In Maharashtra, sacred groves are maximum in district of Sindhudurg, (More than 1500 out of total 2820) followed by Ratnagiri, then Pune and in district of Satara.

Projects: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
Let’s Discuss: (Text Book Page No. 41)
Collect the information about Chipko Movement and discuss between two groups of your class about its importance in present situation.

Project 2.
Collect more information on the organization of Greenpeace. (Text Book Page No. 43)
Answer:
Students are expected to write this answer to this question.

Project 3.
There should be positive attitude of human being towards the environment for welfare of entire living world. For this purpose, following roles are important. You can be a conservator, organizer, guide, plant-friend, etc. Describe about the role you wish to perform and your plans for that role. (Text Book Page No. 42)

Project 4.
Survey the plants and animals in your area. Maintain a record about their characteristics. (Text Book Page No. 45)
Answer:
Students can conduct such surveys with the help of elders.

Project 5.
Internet is my friend! (Collect the information Textbook page no. 41)
(1) Sound Pollution (Control and Prevention) Rule, 2000.
(2) Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 1998.
(3) E-waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 2011.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 9 Heritage Management

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Lovre Museum has in its collection the much-acclaimed painting of …………..…….. by Leonardo da Vinci.
(a) Napoleon
(b) Mona Lisa
(c) Hans Sloan
(d) George II
Answer:
(b) Mona Lisa

(2) …………..…….. at Kolkata is the first museum in India.
(a) Government Museum
(b) National Museum
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(d) Indian Museum
Answer:
(d) Indian Museum

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University – Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University – Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University – Gwalior
Answer:
(1) Wrong Pair: Maharaja Sayajirao University – Delhi

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets, leaflets, posters, etc.
Answer:

• Libraries preserve and conserve old’ books and artefacts discovered during excavation.
• If these documents and artefacts are not exhibited then they are kept in archives.
• All the historical sources are our assets and they should reach the people.
• Libraries not only preserve these documents but also carry out research, to know the authenticity.

In order to make the historical events, personalities, and historical research known to the people, archives and libraries publish research journals, informative pamphlets and leaflets.

(2) Only trained persons, who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.
Answer:

1. While conducting historical research, one has to do the different tasks carefully like collecting sources, preserving, exhibiting, etc.
2. The skill required for every task is different. The procedure followed for each task is different as well as the preliminary preparations.
3. It is essential to know about precautions to be taken.
4. Hence only trained persons who are duly qualified can take up the tasks involved in the work of conservation and preservation.

Question 3.
Write notes:
(1) Sthalakosh
Answer:

• History does not shape itself in oblivion. It takes place at some place.
• Geographic information is essential to study history.
• Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.
• Siddheshwarshastri Chitrav wrote Prachin Bharatiya Sthalkosh. It gives us information on various places mentioned in Vedic literature, Kautiliya’s Arthashastra, Panini’s Grammar, Ramayana.
• Mahabharata and also in Buddhist Jain Greek, Chinese and Persian literature.
• Sthalakosh gives us information on ancient cities and history of those cities. It serves as an important written source of history.

(2) Vishwakosh
Answer:

• The first Chief Minister of Maharashtra, Shri Yashwantrao Chavan, established the ‘Maharashtra Rajya Sahitya Samskruti Mandal.
• The objective of making Vishwakosh was to develop and enhance Marathi language and literature.
• Tarkteerth Lakshmanshastri Joshi was appointed as the chief editor. 20 volumes of Vishwakosh are published till date.
• Marathi Vishwakosh contains knowledge about all possible subjects which exist in the world. It has important entries about history.

(3) Samdnya Kosh
Answer:

1. While studying any subject we come across many new words. If their exact meaning is not understood, it can create a lot of confusion.
2. Terms in history like colonialism, imperialism, liberalisation, globalisation, socialism, communism need explanation and clarity. In order to avoid such confusions, this kosh is prepared.
3. In Samdnya Kosh, all subject related concepts are collected and explained. Information on what led to the development of concepts is provided.
4. Samdnya Kosh is very helpful for research students, teachers of history as well as common people.

(4) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
Answer:

• The Saraswati Mahal Granthalay was built in 16-17th century in Tanjavur, Tamil Nadu during the reign of Nayak Dynasty.
• In 1675, Maharaj Vyankojiraje Bhosale conquered ‘ Thanjavur and established his independent rule. He and his successors contributed to the expansion of this library. ‘
• Sarfojiraje Bhosale contributed the most in expanding and enriching the library. Because of his contribution, to honour him, the library was renamed as ‘The Thanjavur Maharaj Sarfoji’s Saraswati Mahal Library’.

Question 4.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) Why is library management important?
Answer:
Library is not just about a collection of books but managing it is equally important.

• Readers can easily get the books they want if the library is properly organised.
• The location of the book should be easily traced. It saves the time and efforts of readers as well as the librarian.
• Preservation and conservation of books is done effectively with proper management. It prolongs life of books and causes less damage.
• If the management is well acquainted, they will have good collection that will make available good quality books to reader.
• Instead of collecting books on one subject there should be variety in the collection so as to cater of different readers who are very selective in their choices.
• Facilities like proper catalogues, indexes, computerised systems and modern facilities are provided by effective management of library.
• If the management is creative it will organise exhibitions, advertise, have seasonal offers for vacations, conduct competitions to increase membership.

(2) Which tasks are important in archives management?
Answer:
The following tasks are important in archives’ management:

• Important documents to be preserved and care should be taken that document with important contents are preserved in their original condition. Confidentiality of important papers should be maintained.
• To classify the documents by preparing indexes and to create accurate systems of retrieval of documents.
• Documents from the archives are supposed to be very reliable.
• Therefore, it is important to safeguard the papers from humidity, fungus and other environmental factors.
• It is important to remain updated with latest technology in archive management.
• Computerise/Digitalse all systems. To make use of information technology in managing libraries and archives.
• To establish regional and local archives*.
• To preserve national, cultural and historical heritage.
• To create a hasslefree system.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart.

Answer:

Project
Obtain information about the important libraries in Maharashtra. Visit the library in your vicinity and learn about its functioning.

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) Documents and artefacts which are not exhibited are kept in …………………… .
(a) Museum
(b) Library
(c) Archives
(d) Government office
Answer:
(c) Archives

(b) ……………………. was the 16th century artist who worked under the patronage of French King Francis I.
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci
(b) Michaelangelo
(c) Raphael
(d) Dante
Answer:
(a) Leonardo-da-Vinci

(c) The collection in ……………………. increased to a great extent because of the antiquities brought by Napoleon Bonaparte.
(a) National Museum of Natural History
(b) British Museum
(c) Louvre Museum
(d) The Calico Museum
Answer:
(c) Louvre Museum.

(d) ……………………., a natural scientist handed over about 71 thousand objects in his collection to the British Museum.
(a) Sir Hans Sloan
(b) King George II
(c) Napoleon Bonaparte
(d) King Francis I
Answer:
(a) Sir Hans Sloan

(e) The Museum of Natural History which 8 houses more than 12 crore specimens of fossils is in ……………………. .
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) USA.
Answer:
(d) USA

(f) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastu-sangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of ……………………. .
(a) King George I
(b) Queen Elizabeth
(c) Prince Charles
(d) Prince of Wales
Answer:
(c) Prince of Wales

(g) The building of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay is built in ……………………. style.
(a) Mughal
(b) Indo-Greek
(c) Indo-Gothic
(d) Indo-Persian
Answer:
(c) Indo-Gothic

(h) ……………………. is given status of Grade I heritage building in Mumbai.
(a) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Jehangir Art Gallery
Answer:
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.

(i) The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal, the ……………………….. Emperor in Mesopotamia is one of the earliest libraries in the world.
(a) Hispanic
(b) Assyrian
(c) Mongol
(d) Akkadian
Answer:
(b) Assyrian

(j) The ……………………….. in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu was built in 16th-17th century during the times of Nayak dynasty.
(a) Vyankojiraje Bhosale
(b) Sarfojiraje Bhosale
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay
(d) Vidya Niketan
Answer:
(c) Saraswati Mahal Granthalay

(k) The first official archives of India, the ……………………….. was established in 1891 C.E. in Kolkata.
(a) National Archive
(b) Federal Record of Nation
(c) Archive National
(d) Imperial Record Department
Answer:
(d) Imperial Record Department

(l) There are about five crore Modi documents related to Maratha history in the Pune branch which are referred as ………………………. .
(a) Peshwa Daftar
(b) Bhosale Daftar
(c) British Daftar
(d) Maratha Daftar
Answer:
(a) Peshwa Daftar

(m) ……………………….. prepared during the reign of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj is considered as an important encyclopaedia.
(a) Bharatiya Vyavahar Kosh
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh
(c) Vyavaharik Kosh
(d) Bharatiya Prachin Charitrakosh
Answer:
(b) Rajavyavaharkosh.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Maharaj Sayajirao University	Delhi
(2) Banaras Hindu University	Varanasi
(3) Aligarh Muslim University	Aligarh
(4) Jivaji University	Gwalior

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Maharaj Sayajirao University – Delhi.

(2)

(1) Sangeetshastrakar va Kalavant Yancha Itiha£	Lakshman Dattatray Joshi
(2) Krantikarakancha Charitrakosh	S. R. Date
(3) Svantantryasainik Charitrakosh	N. R. Phatak
(4) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh	Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh – Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

(3)

(1) Bharatvarshiya Charitrakosh	Siddeshwar Shastri Chitral
(2) Marathi Vishwakosh	Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole
(3) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh	Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi
(4) Maharashtriya Dnyankosh	Shridhar Vyankatesh Ketkar

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Marathi Vishwakosh – Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole

(4)

(1) Sthanapothi	Muni Vyas
(2) Index of Marathi Periodicals	S. G. Date
(3) First Encyclopaedia of Natural History	Denis Diderot
(4) Asiatic Society of Bengal	First museum in India

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Encyclopaedia of Natural History – Denis Diderot

Question 8.
Complete the following concept chart:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the concept :

(a) Archives:
Answer:

1. An archive is a place where documents with important content in their original conditions are preserved in a scientific manner.
2. Artefacts and documents which are not exhibited in museums or libraries but have historical importance are kept in archives.
3. Archives provide documents to the § government, research students and local public when required. Technically, the management of archives is akin to library management.
4. The documents in the archives are preserved in their original condition and hence no changes can be made to it. Documents from archives are very reliable.

(b) Encyclopaedia:
Answer:

1. Encyclopaedia can be defined as a systematic compilation of words with meaning, information or knowledge on various topics.
2. A specific method is adopted to compile the information or to organise the available knowledge. g
3. Accuracy, meticulousness, objectivity, standardised format of presentation and updated information are the special features of good encyclopaedia.
4. The objective of making an encyclopaedia is to make the available knowledge easily accessible to the readers.

(c) Dictionaries:
Answer:

• A type of encyclopaedia giving word meaning arranged in alphabetical order is a Dictionary.
• Dictionaries help the readers to know meaning of the words and enrich their vocabulary.
• Dictionaries have word meanings, synonyms and etymology.
• Dictionaries are of various type like comprehensive dictionaries, dictionaries of terminology, etymology, thesaurus and dictionaries of idioms and proverbs.

(d) Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh):
Answer:

• Comprehensive Encyclopaedia (Vishwakosh) means a book which has information on all subjects known, i.e. all subjects under the sun.
• Vishwakosh is an important medium” of documenting and disseminating information.
• The information is included in encyclopaedia after thorough research and study.
• (a) There are two types of encydopaedias – one that includes all subjects like ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’, Maharashtriya Dnyankosh, Marathi Vishvakosh.
  (b) The other type of encyclopaedia includes comprehensive information on one chosen subject, e.g. Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh, ‘Vyayam Dnyankosh1.

(e) Index:
Answer:

• Index means a list.
• Index is at the end of a book which includes alphabetical lists of individuals, subjects, key words, reference books, etc.
• As the list is in alphabetical order, the reader finds it easy to access required information.
• The index of Marathi periodicals prepared by S. G. Date and index of ‘Marathyancha Itihasachi Sadhane1 is well-known.

(f) Charitrakosh (Encyclopaedia of Biographies):
Answer:

1. Charitrakosh contained biographies of individuals who lived in a particular period and their work which inspired and motivated all the people in the society.
2. Charitrakosh enables the researcher and scholars to know about the historic period, with regard to social structure and social life.
3. Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh written by Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole is the earliest encyclopaedia of this kind.

(g) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

• It contains the description of Indian history, geography, religions, sects, culture, traditions, beliefs, ethnic and lingual groups residing in our country.
• Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh throws light on, people living in a particular region, festivals and their culture.
• Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of this Kosh.
• Chakradhar Swami, of Mahanubav sect, visited many villages and details of those villages were noted by Muni Vyas.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Louvre Museum:
Answer:

• The Louvre Museum in Paris was established in the 18th century.
• It has antiquities collected by the royal family of France.
• The world famous painting of Mona Lisa by Leonardo-Da-Vinci is kept in this museum.
• The antiquities brought back by Napoleon Bonaparte on his return from conquests are exhibited in this museum.
• Presently, the museum has more than 3 lakh and 80 thousand artefacts.

(b) British Museum:
Answer:

• The British Museum was established in the 18th century in London.
• It has a collection of 71 thousand objects given by natural scientist Sir Hans Sloan to King George. II.
• Several books, pictures, specimens of preserved plants are included in it.
• The ancient objects and artefacts which the Britishers have collected from their colonies are exhibited in this museum.
• At present, it has about 80 lakh objects in its collection.

(c) National Museum of Natural History:
Answer:

• The National Museum of Natural History was established in Washington DC in 1846.
• The Smithsonian Institute managed the museum from its inception. This is a museum of natural history.
• Remains of animals, plants, organisms and thousands of specimens of fossils are kept in it.
• It also has human fossils, minerals, rocks, shells, artefacts. All together it has a collection of more than 12 crore (120 million).

(d) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay:
Answer:

1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay was built to commemorate the visit of Prince of Wales to India. Some influential residents in Mumbai decided to establish a museum in 1904.
2. The foundation of the building was laid on 2nd November 1905 and the construction was completed in 1922. The museum was named as ‘Prince of Wales of Western India’. In 1998 C.E. it was renamed as ‘Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay.’
3. The museum building is constructed in Indo-Gothic style and has been awarded the status of Grade I heritage building.
4. The museum has about 50 thousand antiquities which are divided into three categories, viz.. Arts, Archaeology and Natural History.

(e) Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh:
Answer:

• Raghunath Bhaskar Godbole wrote Bharatvarshiya Prachin Aitihasik Kosh.
• It is the first dictionary of Biography in Indian regional language.
• We get information on Manu and many ancient personalities from Mahabharat.
• We come to know about legendary people who lived in Bharatvarsha and were renowned.
• Information about their women, their sons, religions, lands, capitals, mountains and rivers.
• Which flowed in their land their entire history is given in this encyclopaedia.

(f) Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh:
Answer:

• Pandit Mahadevshastri Joshi edited and published 10 volumes of Bharatiya Samskruti Kosh.
• He wrote about Indian history, geography, about people speaking different languages and how they created history.
• Detailed information on culture of India and festivals, geography, traditions, ideas, is taken into consideration.

Therefore these koshs are useful for readers and research scholars.

Question 11.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible.
Answer:
Encyclopaedias symbolise the richness and vast gamut of words a language has.

• It fulfils the curiosity of readers and solves the confusion of a layman.
• Encyclopaedias inspire to carry out more research as one gets information, knowledge and references.
• Encyclopaedias provide complete information and knowledge to researchers and students which enriches their previous knowledge.
• Encyclopaedias represent intellectual and cultural development of a society.
• Many languages in India and the world are rich and resourceful and hence encyclopaedias should be created in as many languages as possible to raise intellectual level of society.

(b) Encyclopaedia and history are related.
Answer:

• Encyclopaedias contain information about personalities, events and ancient cultures.
• In order to gather information it is essential to take the help of history,
• The common factors between an encyclopaedia and history are objectivity and authenticity.
• Research scholars of history need to refer to encyclopaedias to find information on events, personalities, concept, places, etc. as encyclopaedias are created with the help of history. Hence encyclopaedia and history are related.

(c) Improved versions of Encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.
Answer:

1. Encyclopaedia is a systematic compilation of information or knowledge on various topics ranging from people, places and events to concepts, word meanings, etc.
2. With the passage of time the spectrum of knowledge has widened.
3. With the advent of new technology new words are added. Latest or updated information, knowledge, concepts enrich the language.
4. The references of the past events change in context of the new research. If all these changes are not incorporated in the encyclopaedias, they will become outdated.

Therefore, encyclopaedia or supplements to original editions need to be published.

Question 12.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) What are the ways to preserve and conserve oral resources?
Answer:

• Folk songs ancl folk tales are collected and compiled.
• Collected material is classified. It is interpreted and analysed after compilation.
• The result of research conducted is then published.

(b) What steps are taken to preserve written sources?
Answer:
Written sources have great importance in the writing of history. To preserve written sources we need –

• To collect old books, historical books, pictures, photographs, copper plates, manuscripts and official records and edit them.
• To decide upon the historical values of collected documents.
• To exhibit the selected documents.
• To publish edited documents and research reports.
• To complete necessary chemical and mechanical process of cleaning for conserving and preserving the documents.

(c) What methods should be followed while studying material source?
Answer:
The following methods should be followed by research scholars while studying material source:

• To collect the artefacts and classify them according to their historical date and type and prepare indexes.
• To arrange exhibitions of selected artefacts or their replicas.
• To write and publish research articles about artefacts.
• To complete required mechanical and chemical processes of cleaning for conservation and preservation of the collected documents.

(d) Write about the earliest libraries in the world.
Answer:
Libraries were established in different parts of the world in ancient times:

• The Royal Library of Ashurbanipal is the earliest library dating back to the 7th century B.C.E. in Mesopotamia. The library was owned by the Assyrian emperor.
• A library was discovered at Alexandria in Egypt which was built in 4th century C.E.
• The library at Takshashila university in 5th century B.C.E. – 5th century C.E. as it was a noted centre of learning.

(e) Write about format of Encyclopaedias.
Answer:
Format of Encyclopaedias:

• Encyclopaedias are made according to selected subjects; therefore encyclopaedias are classified according to the subjects.
• Encyclopaedias are framed according to alphabetical order or as per the order of topics.
• They provide the exact meaning of words and give information on concepts.
• The type of order is kept according to the convenience of the readers. An index is provided at the end of the encyclopaedia for this purpose.

(f) Write about Encyclopaedic Literature.
Answer:

• It appears similar to an encyclopaedia but differs in composition.
• Information and scholarly articles on all possible aspects of a subject is covered.
• Experts are called to write on different topics which are compiled to create encyclopaedia
• ‘Maharashtra Jeevan’ Volume I and II; ‘Shahar Pune’ Volume I and II; Yearbook like Manorama, etc. are the examples of Encyclpaedic Literature.

(g) Give information on early encyclopaedias made in the west.
Answer:

• The process of making encyclopaedias started in before 1st century C.E. in the west. Pliny wrote the first encyclopaedia on natural history between 23 C.E.-79 C.E.
• In the 8th and 9th century, encyclopaedias were written in England, France and in Arab countries.
• French Philosopher Denis Diderot wrote Encyclopaedia in the 18th century C.E.
• The important milestone in this process was ‘Encyclopaedia Britannica’ published in 1767 C.E.
• Wikipedia is considered equivalent to encyclopaedia. The information given in this encyclopaedia is highly reliable and updated.

(h) Write about ancient Indian encyclopaedias.
Answer:

• In the 7th century C.E., Nighantu, a dictionary (information on ancient medicine) in Sanskrit language was written. Dictionaries like Dhatupath were written.
• In tjie medieval times, encyclopaedic text was composed by Mahanubhav sect.
• Amarsimha wrote a thesaurus in Sanskrit ‘Amarkosha’.
• Raghunath Pandit prepared Rajavyavaharkosh as directed by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 13.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Which factors influence Encyclopaedia?
Answer:
The influence of national policies, ethical values and ideals, philosophy and traditions is seen in an encyclopaedia.

(b) What is the common factor between history and encyclopaedia?
Answer:
History and encyclopaedia both are objective.

(c) Explain the statement: Encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.
Answer:

• The knowledge in all the spheres of society is made accessible to everyone is the major reason behind making an encyclopaedia.
• What inspires people to create encyclopaedias is the instinct to gain knowledge and spread it.
• Encyclopaedias reflect the collective intellect and creativity of society.
• One develops a sense of pride after knowing about nation’s progress through it.

Hence encyclopaedias are looked upon as outstanding achievements of a society.

Question 14.
Give elaborate answers to the following: (3 marks each)

(a) What kind of training is required to study written sources?
Answer:
While studying and handling written sources the following training is required:

• The students should have knowledge of scripts like Brahmi, Modi, Persian and their development.
• They should know ways to obtain information about the social organisations and traditions.
• They should know about the literature and writing style in past societies.
• They should have basic knowledge about administrative systems, dynasties and cultures of the past.
• They should study prevalent schools of painting and sculpture.
• They should be able to collect information on types of paper, know about ink and colour of ancient document and ways to handle.
• They should be well acquainted with properties of stones and metals used for inscriptions.
• Articles published earlier on case study should be read.
• They should know the chemicals and equipment used in various processes of cleaning and preserving the documents.
• Modern know-how of approaches of managing exhibitions in museums, galleries and information technology.

(b) What kind of training is required to study material sources?
Answer:
Student should have following knowledge to study material resource:

• They should have basic knowledge of archaeological method and theory.
• They should be acquainted with the history of ancient civilisations.
• They should have knowledge of various techniques of excavation.
• Stones, minerals and clay used to make artefacts and their characteristics to be studied.
• They should be well-acquainted with the sources of the material used and their chemical properties.
• They should also know about various styles of making artefacts and development in their making process.
• They should have the knowledge and skills of making replicas of artefacts and fossils.
• They should read research papers previously published on his case study.
• They should acquire information about the approaches of arranging exhibitions and administrations.
• They should know about the equipment and chemicals necessary for the cleaning of artefacts.
• They should be able to write research reports and articles.

(c) Write information about museums in India.
Answer:

• ‘Indian Museum’ established by the Asiatic Society of Bengal in Kolkata was the first museum in India in 1814.
• The ‘Government Museum’ established in Chennai in 1851 C.E. was the second museum in India. The National Museum was established in Delhi in 1949.
• The foundation of the Prince of Wales Museum was laid in Mumbai in 1905. Its construction was completed in 1922. It was renamed as Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Vastusangrahalay in 1998 C.E.
• At present, there are many museums in various states of India.
• Many museums are connected to libraries and archives. Some are connected to Universities.
• Such museums offer courses in Museology also.

(d) Give information on “National Archives of India.
Answer:

• The first official archive of India was established m Kolkata in 1891 C.E. as the ‘Imperial Record Department’.
• It was moved to Delhi in 1911 C.E.
• In 1998 C.E. it was made accessible to the public by the then President of India K.R. Narayanan.
• It was renamed as ‘National Archive’ (National Archive of India). Archives come under the Ministry of Culture of the Indian Government.
• This archive has papers, maps, books and micro films preserved in chronological order since 1748.
• Records in English, Arabic, Hindi, Persian, Sanskrit, Devanagari and Modi languages are preserved.
• Papers kept in archives are classified into public, oriental, manuscripts and private papers.
• The National Archives of India is the largest in Asia and technologically advanced.

(e) Explain the statement: A nation should have museums and libraries.
Answer:
Museums and libraries mirror the history of the country and that is the reason they are very valuable for a nation.

• Museums and Libraries make it easy for the research scholar to write history.
• Historical events and life stories of important people reach the masses.
• People get an idea about past social, political and cultural conditions.
• A visit to museums increases one’s interest.
• A change in a prejudiced view about history is seen.
• Information on animals, microorganisms, birds and elements of nature.
• Museums contribute to the process of gaining and dissemination of knowledge.
• Ancient historical sources are preserved.
• Tourism is promoted.
• It creates opportunities for employment.

Hence it can be said that it is important for a nation to have museums and libraries as they both are symbols of nation’s progress and glory.

Memory Map

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) When people come together and participate in electoral process, to acquire political power, such organisations are called ………………………….. .
(a) Government
(b) Society
(c) Political parties
(d) Social organisations
Answer:
(c) Political parties

(2) National Conference is a party in ………………………….. this region.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Justice Party- a non-Brahmin movement was transformed into ………………………….. Political Party.
(a) Assam Gan Parishad
(b) Shivsena
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam
(d) Jammu and Kashmir National Conference
Answer:
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Political parties act as a link between government and people.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The political parties convey the demands and complaints of the people to the government.
• Information about various government policies and schemes are conveyed to the people by the political parties.
• People’s reaction to the policies and their expectations are conveyed to the government too by the parties. In this way, political parties act as a link between government and the people.

(2) Political parties are social organisations.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• People who have similar views come together voluntarily and form a party, so it can be said that political parties are an integral part of our society.
• The political parties try to solve the problems of the people.
• Some political parties represent the role of a particular community in society, its ideology and work to achieve it. Hence it can be said that political parties are social organizations.

(3) Coalition politics leads to instability.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• As no single party got majority after the elections held in 1989, coalition government came to power at the centre and many states.
• Parties had to set aside their policies and programmes and concentrate on a common agenda to run the government.
• Both Congress Party and the Bharatiya Janata Party made an experiment of establishing a coalition government.
• The National Democratic Alliance formed by BJP and its partners and the Democratic Front government formed by Congress and its partners ruled at the centre and state level effectively.

Therefore, the belief that the coalition government brings instability was proved wrong.

(4) Shiromani Akali Dal is a national party.
Answer:
The above statement is False.
The Election Commission of India recognises a political party as National or Regional party on the basis of specific criteria namely:

• The number of seats secured in Parliament and Legislative Assembly or percentage of votes secured.
• Shiromani Akali Dal does not meet the criteria listed above.
• As its influence is limited to the state of Punjab and not in any other state.
• The Election Commission has given recognition to it as regional party.

Question 3.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Regionalism
Answer:

• India is a vast country with great physical diversity. People belonging to different regions have their own language, culture and traditions.
• Along with the physical diversity, we find diversity in literature, education, history and movements.
• Each one feels an affinity for his language, traditions and history of social reforms. This gives rise to linguistic identity.
• This affinity towards all the above-mentioned aspects develops into identity consciousness and gives rise to excessive regional pride.
• People start giving preference only to the development of their language and region.
• This is known as Regionalism.

(2) National Parties
Answer:
A party which functions at the national level is known as National Party.

1. The Election Commission has laid certain criteria for a party to get recognised as a Political party. The political party should secure at least f 6% valid votes in four or more states in the earlier Lok Sabha. OR
2. State Assembly elections and minimum four members should be elected in the Lok Sabha from any state or states in the earlier elections. OR
3. The candidates of a party should be elected from a minimum three states or should be elected from a minimum 2% constituencies of the total Lok Sabha constituencies. OR
4. It is important to get recognition as a state party in at least four states.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) What are the major characteristics of political parties?
Answer:
The main features of political parties are as follows:

• Political parties aim at securing power by contesting elections.
• Every political party has some ideology.
• Every party has an agenda. It is based on the party’s ideology.
• The party that gets majority seats in election forms the government and the one that does not secure the majority act as opposition parties.
• Political parties are a link between the people and the government and work to gain the support of the people.

(2) What changes have taken place in the nature of political parties in India?
Answer:
The following changes were seen in the party system in India:

• Indian- National Congress was the only dominant party in states and at the centre after independence.
• All other parties came together and formed a coalition in 1977 and defeated the Congress.
• For the first time in history, the two-party system got importance over one-party system.
• The one-party system came to an end after the 1989 elections.
• Regional parties got importance and the coalition government was formed at the centre and in the states.

Project
(1) In a map of Maharashtra, point out the Loksabha constituency that includes the names of your parents.
(2) In a map of India, point out the places where national political parties have their influence.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) The party which fails to secure majority is known as ………………………. party.
(a) Ruling
(b) Opposition
(c) Independent
(c) Coalition
Answer:
(b) Opposition

(b) ‘Bharatiya Janata Party’ which was formed in 1980 after a split with ………………………. a component of Janata Party.
(a) Jan Sangh
(b) Lok Dal
(c) Independent party
(b) Janata Dal
Answer:
(a) Jan Sangh.

(c) Social support received by a political party is called ………………………. .
(a) Democracy
(b) People’s rule
(c) Mass base
(d) Public relation
Answer:
(c) Mass base

(d) Promotion of the Marathi language is the objective of the ………………………. .
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(b) Shiromani Akali Dal
(c) Shiv Sena
(d) Assam Gana Parishad
Answer:
(c) Shiv Sena

(e) There are ………………………. recognised parties in India.
(a) five
(b) seven
(c) nine
(d) six
Answer:
(b) seven

(f) The main objective of the political party is to capture ………………………. and retain it.
(a) publicity
(b) victory
(c) power
(d) information
Answer:
(c) power

(g) The ideology of the Communist Party of India is based on ………………………. Philosophy.
(a) Capitalist
(b) Marxist
(c) Democracy
(d) Imperialist
Answer:
(b) Marxist

(h) Shiromani Akali Dal is a prominent regional party in ………………………. state.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Punjab
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 6.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer:

(a) Political parties do not need support of the people.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• To secure power is the main aim of political parties.
• Political parties have to implement various policies and programmes for the welfare of people and to gain the support of the people.
• The party which solves the issues related to the welfare of the people get support.
• Without the support of the people they can never get a mandate.

Hence, all political parties require support of the people.

(b) The Communist Party of India was split.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The Communist Party of- India was established in 1925. The Communist Parties follow Marxist ideology.
• In 1962, due to differences in the leadership a rift was created in the party.
• The main reason for the split was about which political line to follow.

(c) Sometimes the sentiments of regionalism gets strengthened in the country.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

1. A country like India has diversity of government language, region and culture. This diversity creates affinity towards a region.
2. This affinity gives rise to excessive regional S pride and initiating movements to save it. The significance of such movements is claimed to be for preserving culture.
3. Asserting to be rightful claimant of material resources, job opportunities and development of the region these movements strengthen the regional pride.
4. Thus, this excessive regional pride turns morbid taking the form of regionalism.

(d) Regional parties have no influence on National Politics.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• No single party got majority in the elections to Lok Sabha held in 1989.
• The national parties formed coalition government at the centre taking help of regional parties.
• As regional parties share power at the centre they have influence on national politics.

Question 7.
Explain the concept:
(a) Regional Parties:
Answer:

1. The groups having a proud feeling about the different identity of their region and who compete to capture power to bring about regional development are ‘Regional Parties’.
2. The influence of such parties are limited to their region. They give importance to regional problems. Development of one’s own region is the prime objective of these parties.
3. Sometimes they demand for independent state or autonomy. They influence the national politics because of their dominance in the region.
4. They have passed through various phases, from separatism to autonomy and have then merged with mainstream national politics.

(b) Political Party:
Answer:

1. A Political Party is a kind of social organisation of like-minded people. The main aim of any political party is to contest election and secure power.
2. The stand taken by various political parties on issues becomes their political ideology.
3. In democracy, political parties are at the centre of all political activities. They are a link that connects common people, democracy, representation and elections.
4. The party that secures a majority becomes the ruling party and the rest are known as the. opposition.

Question 8.
Write short note:
(a) Party System:
Answer:

1. If one party remains in power in a country for a long period and no other party has any kind of influence the party system it is called ‘One- Party System’.
2. When there are two equally strong parties which alternatively come to power. It is called ‘Two-Party System’.
3. In a country where many political parties exist and compete with each other to capture power and have more or less influence in different states is called ‘Multi-Party System’.
4. Democracy develops in Multi-Party System.

(b) Indian National Congress:
Answer:

• The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.
• The party represented the hopes and aspirations of Indians and led the freedom struggle.
• Groups having diverse ideologies became part of the Congress to fight for freedom.
• It believes in democratic socialism, social equality and international peace.
• After independence, the Congress Party was a dominant party for almost four decades and ruled at the centre and in the states.

(c) Communist Party of India:
Answer:

• The Communist Party of India was established in 1925. The Communist Party follows the Marxist ideology.
• The party aims at working to protect the interests of workers and labourers.
• The main objective of this party is to oppose capitalism and protect the interests of workers.
• The party split due to ideological differences in 1964. Those who walked out of the party formed Communist Party (Marxist).

(d) Nationalist Congress Party:
Answer:

• Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) is the splinter or breakaway party from the Congress Party.
• It considers the values like democracy, equality and secularism important.
• It became part of United Progressive Alliance (UPA) and came to power in Maharashtra.
• It was in power in Maharashtra from 1999 to 2014 and at the centre from 2004 to 2014.

(e) Trinamool Congress:
Answer:

• All India Trinamool Congress was established in 1998.
• The Election Commission of India gave it recognition in 2016.
• Democracy, Secularism and protection of the weaker sections of the society are some of the policies of the party.
• Presently (April 2019), this party is in power in the state of West Bengal.

(f) Shiv Sena:
Answer:

1. The Shiv Sena was founded in 1966.
2. The main objective of the party was to fight for the cause of Marathi-speaking people and preservation of Marathi language.
3. They resisted the people from other regions.
4. In 1995, it became the ruling party with BJP in Maharashtra and its strategic tie-up with BJP helped it to enter national politics.
5. It was in power at the centre with BJP from 1998 to 2004. Again it has shared power with the BJP at the centre and state since 2014.

(g) Shiromani Akali Dal:
Answer:

• Shiromani Akali Dal was formed in 1920.
• It is a dominating party in Punjab.
• It gives preference to nurture religious and for the regional pride.
• The party has retained power in Punjab for many years.

(h) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam:
Answer:

• Justice party, a non-Brahmin movement, started in 1920. In 1944, it transformed into a political party called Dravid Kazhagam.
• In 1949, a group within the party got split and formed Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK).
• The party works for the protection of Tamil identity.
• This party implemented many policies for welfare of the people and therefore has support from all the sections of society.
• Another group separated from it in 1972 and formed All India Dravid Munnetra Kazhagham.
• It remained in power for a long time in Tamil Nadu and for sometime at the centre.

Question 9.
Do as directed
(a) Complete the concept map:

Answer:

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(b) Complete the Time-line writing the name of the party or the year of establishment:

Answer:

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in brief:

(a) What is called “mass base”?
Answer:

• Every political party is formed with some ideology.
• Political parties take a certain stand towards public issues.
• Their ideology and their stand towards public issues are conveyed to the people through various programmes.
• If the people agree with their role and ideology, they get the support of the people.
• Such social support received by a political – party is called ‘mass base’.

(b) Write about the policies of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
The policies of the Indian National: Congress are as follows:

• Equal rights for the minorities and weaker sections of society.
• Secularism, all-round development and social welfare are its objectives.
• Introduction of socialist democracy.
• Belief in values like international peace and social equality.

(c) Explain the role of Bharatiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in 1980 with the following objectives:

• To preserve Indian culture and traditions.
• To create a strong and rich India.
• To give importance to economic reforms for development of India.

(d) Write about the policies of Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
Communist Party of India (Marxist) was formed in 1964 with the following objectives:

• The party advocates socialism, secularism and democracy.
• The main policy of the party is to work for the welfare of farmers, landless labourers and workers.
• The party opposes imperialism.

(e) Why was Bahujan Samaj Party formed?
Answer:
The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in 1984 to achieve the following objectives:

• To bring socialist ideology into practice.
• To secure power for ‘majority’ comprising of scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
• To give power in the hands of ‘majority’.

(f) What do the regional parties give preference for?
Answer:
The regional parties give preference to the following issues:

• Importance should be given to regional issues and bring about development.
• Regional issues should be handled* at regional level.
• The power rests in the hands of regional people. ‘
• People living in that region should get preference in administration and jobs. .

(g) What changes are seen in the nature and role of regional parties?
Answer:
The role of regional parties changed over period of time. The changes are as follows:

• After independence, regional identity gave rise to separatists movements and demands were put up by regional parties for separate state.
• They wanted to break away from the Indian union and form a separate state.
• The demands of the regional parties changed gradually and these parties started asking for autonomy.
• In the later period, for the development of their region and people the parties demanded representation of their people in the state and central government.
• Regional parties in the north eastern region also started demanding more autonomy after split up.
• The journey of the regional parties began with a split up and then a demand for autonomy going on to share power in federation and then entry into mainstream national politics.

(h) What are the objectives of Assam Gana Parishad?
Answer:
Assam Gana Parishad was formed in 1985 with the following objectives:

• To preserve the uniqueness of Assam’s culture, language and social identity.
• To make efforts for economical development of Assam.
• To resolve problems of displaced people.

(i) What are the criteria for a regional party to get recognition?
Answer:

• In the last general .elections to the State Assembly, the party should not secure less than 6% of the total number of valid votes polled.
• At least 2 members to be elected to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
• 3% seats of the total seats of Legislative Assembly or at least 3 seats in Legislative Assembly.

(j) What work is done by political parties?
Answer:
The following work is done by political parties:

• To propagate policies and programmes of the party and contest elections.
• They implement various policies when they come to power.
• If they fail to secure power, they act as opposition party and try to gain support of the people.
• They communicate the demands and complaints of the people to the government and the policies and programmes of the government to the people.

Question 11.
Give your opinion:

(a) Imagine you are opposition party leader and you have observed that the ruling party has not done good work in the field of health. What will you do as a leader of opposition?
Answer:
As opposition leader, I will do the following to make the government realise its negligence in the health field:

• I will question the government in Parliament and point out their shortcomings and ask about the prolonged projects.
• I will create awareness among the people by writing articles in newspapers.
• I will give interviews,on radio and television and criticize the government.
• I will organise rallies and meetings to sensitize among the people.

(b) Think and write
What has to be done to bring partyless democracy in modern times?
Answer:

• The recognition of all the parties should be cancelled. ‘
• People should be given the right to make decisions.
• In order to improve the decision-making power, people should be educated on political issues.
• To improve the moral character of the people who want to take the leadership.
• To initiate direct democracy and prepare the people for the same.
• Stress should be given for decentralization.
• Mahatma Gandhi, Vinoba Bhave and Jayprakash Narayan put forth the idea of partyless democracy.
• What has to be done to bring such democracy in modern times?

Question 12.
What do you understand by the following news in newspapers? Explain in brief.

(a) Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
Answer:

• The ruling party did not undertake any work for the welfare of farmers. Therefore all the opposition parties decided to trap the government on this issue.
• The opposition parties have kept aside their differences and come together for this cause.
• It is the duty of the opposition party to question the negligence of the government.
• This news makes us aware of the line of action taken by the opposition.
• Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
• Ruling party organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.

(b) Ruling party has organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.
Answer:

• Political parties adopt different ways to popularise their party and influence the people.
• As the means of communication are limited in rural areas they organise the Yatra.
• It shows the efforts of the government to understand problems of people in rural areas.
• It is essential to have dialogue with people to know their problems and opinions.
• As the initiative is taken by the government, people will develop faith in government.
• The news conveys to us that the ruling party is carrying out its duties properly.
• The faith in government becomes profound when people feel that government is sensitive towards them.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 8 Tourism and History

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) Thomas Cook established a travel agency selling ……………………….. .
(a) handicrafts
(b) toys
(c) food items
(d) tourist tickets
Answer:
(d) tourist tickets

(2) Bhilar is known as the ‘Village of ……………………….. .
(a) books
(b) plants
(c) mangoes
(d) forts
Answer:
(a) Books

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Matheran – Hill Station
(2) Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur – Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta – World Heritage
Answer:
(2) Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 2.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably.
Answer:

• It has become easier to travel because of the easy availability of a number of options like railway, marine and air services.
• Marine has linked the coastal regions. Aviation has brought the entire world closer.
• The economic liberalisation policy of the Indian government has made the travel more easy.
• People travel for studies, relaxation, sightseeing and professional assignments (meetings, etc.), also for shooting films. Therefore, there has been a considerable increase in the number of people travelling back and forth from India.

(2) It is important to take a few primary precautions in order to preserve the historical heritage sites.
Answer:
India has rich natural and cultural heritage. In order to preserve the historical sites following precautionary measures should be taken.

• Avoid vandalising or defacing the heritage monuments and sites.
• To refrain from activities like writing on the wall or carving on the trees.
• Ancient monuments should not be painted in garish colours.
• Lack of good amenities in the precints of the heritage sites causes filthiness. Proper amenities should be provided.
• Heritage monuments like forts and other monuments are testimonies of our glorious past and they serve as guide for future generations.

Therefore, they should be preserved..

Question 3.
Write short notes :
(1) Tradition of Travelling
Answer:

• The tradition of traveffing from one corner to another is not new.
• It existed in India since ancient times.
• In stone age, man was constantly on the move in search of food but that was just wandering not travelling.
• India has got a rich tradition of travelling.
• People go for local fairs, temple fairs, festivals and pilgrimage which comes under cultural tourism.
• People travelled long distance for education and trade.
• Many students visited Nalanda, Takshshila universities in the past.
• As travelling is a natural instinct in man, the tradition of travelling for various reasons is prevalent since ancient times.

(2) Marco Polo
Answer:

• Marco Polo was born in a business family in the Italian city of Venice in 1254 CE.
• He was the first European traveller to reach China taking the silk route.
• His travelogue introduced Asia, especially China to Europe.
• He wrote about the rich flora and fauna, social life, information on culture and trade system in Asia.
• His writings initiated trade between Europe and Asia.

(3) Agro-tourism
Answer:
Visit to agricultural centres and agricultural universities comes under agro-tourism.

1. In recent times lot of research is conducted in the agricultural field. Many new agricultural universities and research centres are formed in India.
2. Projects are undertaken to inform farmers about suitable soil for their crops, organic manures, earthworm compost, etc. Sikkim state is the first organic state of India.
3. Though it receives less rainfall, Israel has made a lot of development in agricultural sector. To obtain information on novel techniques in farming and on projects started, students and city people travel to places.
4. As urban population has very little exposure to rural life and agriculture, agro-tourism is developing rapidly.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in detail.
(1) What are the crucial issues in the development of tourism?
Answer:
In modern times, tourism is not limited to being a job-oriented profession but it also contributes to the nation’s development.

• Safety of the tourists and secure transport facilities should be given utmost preference.
• Availability of good accommodation and amenities of reasonably good standard should be made available.
• Good washroom facilities oq, the travel routes and at tourists sites should be provided.
• Pamphlets, guides, maps should be made available to the tourists, preferably in their own language.
• It would be helpful if taxi drivers are trained to converse in more than one languages.
• They can also be trained as tourist guides.
• Attention should be given towards the needs of specially challenged people.

(2) In what way tourism becomes a major source of their livelihood?
Answer:
In the following ways development takes place at local level because of tourism:

•  Local markets are developed in the vicinity of a tourist site.
• There is considerable increase in purchase and sales of goods liked by tourists.
• Production and sale of ethnic handicraft goods increase eventually leading to the development of these industries.
• Economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
• Increase in demand of locally processed food, hotel services, accommodation and in shops leads to development of these services.
• Local transport, travel agents, guides are in demand. Hence more and more employment opportunities are generated.

(3) What would you do to develop the surroundings of your village /town to help the growth of tourism?
Answer:
It is important to have an understanding of our surroundings. For that some ground work is essential.

1. Historical monuments and temples should be conserved and preserved. Boards having information on them should be put up around the city. We need to pay attention towards cleanliness.
2. Beaches should be clean as clean beaches always attract tourists.
3. Tourists are interested to see projects like earthworm composts, zero waste and working of solar power projects. If such projects are installed they become centre of major tourist attraction.
4. Similarly, tourists are interested to see local art, culture, cottage and handicraft industry. They are enthusiastic to buy locally made handicrafts as souvenirs. I feel if there is economical, geographical, cultural and educational development in our surroundings it will definitely boost tourism.

Question 5.
Complete the following Concept chart:

Answer:

Question 6.
Give elaborate answers to the following.
(1) What are the professional fields associated with tourism?
Answer:
The following fields are related to tourism:

• Hotels, lodging and boarding services.
• Shops selling food items and catering services, etc.
• A reviväl or boost to Handicraft and Cottage industiy resulting in economic well-being of the skilled craftsmen.
• Demand for industries affiliated to hotel industry like Dairy industry.
• Agro industry which supplies vegetables, fruits, fish and meat increases.
• Transport services which are required by tourists such as bus, autorickshaw and taxi, increase in numbers.
• Travel agents, photographers, guides, etc. and other professions related to tourism get a boost.

(2) Describe any three types of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has been classified into many types, three important types of them are:
(1) Historical Tourism:

• Tourism and history are inseparable.
• The number of people visiting historical places are increasing day by day.
• Tours are arranged to see forts, battlefields which narrate stories of valour of our ancestors and monuments made by them.
• Tourists visit memorials of freedom fighters, forts built by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, palaces built by kings.
• Important places related to the Indian war of independence in 1857, and ashrams of Mahatma Gandhi and Vinoba Bhave.

Thus, this type of historical tourism is popular all around the world.

(2) Geographic Tourism:
Sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles, sanctuaries, lakes formed because of meteor impact, waterfalls, form wealth of a nation. People enjoy nature and feel a natural attraction towards it. People around the world visit 8 such places out of curiosity or for leisure.

(3) International Tourism:

• International tourism is on the rise in modern times because of availability of transport facility.
• International tourism is on the rise because people travel for various reasons like international literary conferences, world summits, meetings, business deals, site seeing and visit to religious places.
• International seminars and conferences are held.
• Film festivals are arranged. Such events promote international tourism.

Project
Explain the need to preserve the heritage sites. What measures are required to achieve it? Discuss.

Question 7.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The Chinese monk …………………….. travelled in India in 630 C.E.
(a) Hiuen Tsang
(b) Yuan Shwcmg
(c) Fa-Hien
(d) Ho Chi Minh
Answer:
(b) Yuan Shwang

(b) The number of people travelling back and forth from India has increased considerably because of …………………….. .
(a) India’s first war of Independence
(b) India’s independence
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) Good railway services
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

(c) …………………….. used to arrange hiking tours in Maharashtra to explore the sights closely linked to Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.
(a) N.S. Incim dar
(b) Ranjit Desai
(c) Vishnubhcrt Godse
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar
Answer:
(d) Gopal Neelkanth Dandekar.

(d) In order to provide good’ amenities on the pilgrim routes like Chardham Yatras and Bara Jyotirlings …………………….. has spent from her personal funds.
(a) Queen Lakshmibcri
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar
(c) Nanasaheb Peshwa
(d) Vshunbhat Godse
Answer:
(b) Ahilyabai Holkar

(e) A visit to …………………….. at Nighoj in Maharashtra is geographic tourism.
(a) palace
(b) fort
(c) ranjankhalage
(d) temple
Answer:
(c) ranjankhalage

(f) …………………….. has conducted experiments of advanced technology in agriculture.
(a) Egypt
(b) Jordan
(c) Italy
(d) Israel
Answer:
(d) Israel

(g) Travelling to attend events like Maharashtra Kesari is known as ……………………. .
(a) Geographic Tourism
(b) Health Tourism
(c) Agro Tourism
(d) Sports Tourism
Answer:
(d) Sports Tourism

(h) …………………….. successfully circumnavigated Europe.
(a) Marco Polo
(b) Thomas Cook
(c) Benjamin of Tudela
(d) Gerardus Mercator
Answer:
(b) Thomas Cook.

Question 8.
Identify the wrong pair in the following, and write it:
(1)

(1) Matheran	Hill Station
(2) Tadoba	Rock-cut Caves
(3) Kolhapur	Pilgrim Centre
(4) Ajanta	World Heritage

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

(2)

(1) First Cartographer who made world map	Thomas Cook
(2) First European discoverer	Benjamin of Tudela
(3) Italian traveller who introduced China to Europe	Marco Polo
(4) Traveller who travelled extensively in Islamic world	Ibn Batuta

Answer:
Wrong Pair: First Cartographer who made world map – Thomas Cook

(3)

Place	Popular for
(1)  Lonar (2)  Jayakwadi (3)  Gharapuri (4)  Jantar Mantar	Lake Hill Station Rock-cut Caves Observatory

Answer:
Wrong Pair Jayakwadi – Hill Station

(4)

(1) Gharapuri (Elephanta)	Cave
(2) Pandharpur	Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar	Dam
(4) Panchgani	Hill station

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Sagareshwar – Dam

(5)

(1) Chikhaldara	Hill station
(2) Tuljapur	Pilgrim centre
(3) Sagareshwar	Sanctuary
(4) Tadoba	Rock-cut Caves

Answer:
Wrong Pair: Tadoba – Rock-cut Caves

Question 9.
Do as directed:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

Question 10.
Explain the concept:
(1) Tourism:
Answer:

1. Visiting places in distant regions with a specific purpose is known as Tourism.
2. Tourism can also be defined as going for local fairs, festivals, pilgrimage, entertainment, leisure, historical or places of natural beauty. Man has a natural instinct to travel.
3. Travelling is an old tradition which has undergone changes with time. In modern times, tourism has changed in its nature and form.
4. Tourism expands from the local to the international level. As tourism develops it opens the doors of development for a country.

(2) Religious Tourism:
Answer:

1. When people travel individually or in groups on a pilgrimage, it is known as Religious Tourism. Religious seminars, pilgrimages, religious festivals and travel on occasions to bathe in holy rivers come under religious tourism.
2. Gautam Buddha and Buddhist monks travelled to preach Buddhism and give discourses on Dhama. In the same way, Shankarachaya had travelled to spread Hinduism. St. Francis Xavier along with his followers travelled all over India to preach Christianity.
3. People in Maharashtra walk on foot to reach Pandharpur, Shirdi and many holy places to pay their obeisance.
4. Guru Nanak, Saint Namdev, Samarth Ramdas, as well as Yuan Shwang who came from China in 630 CE to study Buddhism in India, travelled extensively in India.

(3) Heritage Walk:
Answer:

1. Heritage walk . involves physical walking in the area-and observing the historical sites. People go for heritage walks to see historical palaces, forts and old temples.
2. The first hand experience we get is inspirational in forming an emotional connect and a long lasting impression. .
3. Many enthusiastic organisations held such heritage walks in city of Ahmadabad, Mumbai and Pune to enable the people to get glimpses of history.

(4) Cultural tourism:
Answer:

• India has rich tradition of folk arts. Festivals are arranged to promote such art forms.
• Travelling to see such festivals comes under Cultural tourism.
• Visiting historical places to get a glimpse of local culture is also cultural tourism.
• It also involves visiting reputed educational institutions and understand their traditions as well as travelling to see festivals and celebrations in different parts of the country.
• Travelling to participate in various music- dance festivals as audience is also part of cultural tourism.

Question 11.
Write short notes:
(a) Benjamin of Tudela:
Answer:

• Benjamin of Tudela is known to be the first traveller in the world. He was born in Spain.
• He travelled through Asia, Europe and Africa in between 1159-1173 C.E.
• He visited France, Germany, Italy, Greece, Syria, Arabia, Egypt, Iraq and Persia. He even visited India and China.
• He noted down his experiences and observations about people and their living style in his diaries.
• He made accurate observations about the social life in the medieval period.

Hence, his accounts are authentic and are studied by scholars studying the medieval period.

(b) Ibn Batuta:
Answer:

1. Ibn Batuta was born on 25th February, 1304 in present Morocco. He was a great 14th century traveller who travelled for 30 years. His travel accounts enabled people an insight into the Islamic world.
2. Having made’ the resolution of not taking the same route again, he travelled to South and East Africa, South and East Europe, Middle and South east Asia in the Indian subcontinent.
3. His writings are helpful for those who study medieval history and social life.
4. In his book Batuta said,’ “Travelling – it leaves you speechless, then turns you into storyteller.”

(c) Gerardus Mercator:
Answer:

• Gerardus Mercator of 16th century was the first Dutch cartographer.
• He was the first one to make a world map and globe of the earth. He made large and small maps which could be hung on a wall.
• Mercator used the word Atlas’ for the first time. He made scientific and astronomical instruments.
• His maps gave momentum to navigation around the world.

Question 12.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Maza Pravas is an important source of history.
Answer:

1. Vishnubhat Godse in his travelogue wrote about his journey to Ayodhya and back to Maharashtra.
2. He published a book, called ‘Maza Pravas’ in which he gave an eye witness account of the events which unfolded during the Indian War of Independence in 1857.
3. He gave full detailed descriptions about various incident during that period, especially on the life of the Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai.
4. His writings give us an idea about the nature of the Marathi language in the 18th century.
   Therefore, it is considered as an important source of history.

(4) Tourism can provide a source of livelihood.
Answer:

1. Tourists visit religious, historical and places of natural beauty. Job opportunities develop to meet the requirements of the tourists.
2. Guides are required to provide information about the place. Photographers take photos of the tourists wearing local costumes. Suppliers of such dresses are required.
3. Horse carts, cabs and other means of transport are required Which gives scope for transport business. Tourists buy local handicrafts. Hence the local handicraft and cottage industry gets promoted.
4. Hotel industry gets boosted. In short, the markets near the tourist centre develop. So, tourism can be a source of livelihood for local people.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in 20 – 25 words:

(a) Write about the work of Thomas Cook.
Answer:

• Thomas Cook started group tours on commercial basis in the latter half of the 19th century.
• He took 600 people from Leicester to Loughborough by railway.
• Later, he successfully organised a round trip of Europe.
• He opened a travel agency and sold tourists tickets. He organised affordable tours and easy travel.

Thus, his ventures opened the doors for the development of modem tourism.

(b) What are the benefits of religious tourism?
Answer:
The following are the benefits of religious tourism:

• People staying in different parts of the world come together.
• They develop ties as they share the sgme* faith and also feeling of unity develops.
• Religious places get importance and many social welfare projects are undertaken.
• As these places develop, the local business develops leading to improvement in the standard of living of the local people.

(c) Write information on the tourists places in Maharashtra.
Answer:

Caves	Ajanta and Ellora caves, Verul, Bhaje, Kanheri caves
Temples	Pandharpur, Shirdi, Jejuri, Shegaon, Tuljapur, Kolhapur, Nashik, Paithan, Dehu, Alandi, Haji Malang, Mount Mary’s Church.
Hill stations	Mahabaleshwar, Panchgani, Chikhaldara, Matheran, Lonavala, Khandala.
Dams	Koynanagar, Jayakwadi, Bhatghar, Chandoli, Panshet, Bhandara, Khadakwasla.
Sanctuaries	Dajipur Tadoba, Karnala.
Historical places	Raigad, Simhgad, Sindhudurg, Vijaydurg, Palace of Kolhapur, Janjeera, Memorials.

(d) What is Sports Tourism?
Answer:

1. Sports tourism developed in the 20th century. It involves travelling either to participate in a sporting event or to watch the event.
2. Various sports events are organised at local and state level for different inter school competitions. National level Sports Competitions are also held. International cricket, hockey and football tournaments are held at regular intervals.
3. Wimbledon, French Open, Australian Open and US Open lawn tennis tournaments are held. Every four years, Olympics and Asian Games are held in the country which is the host. Events like the Himalayan car rally at the national level and Maharashtra Kesari at the state level are held.
4. Travelling to participate in these events as players, coaches, umpires, referees, organisers or to attend them as spectators come under sports tourism.

Question 14.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:
(a) Complete the graphical presentation:

Answer:

(b) What types of books are there in the Village of Books?
Answer:
In the Village of Books, we find books of old and new authors and saints, ranging from biographies, autobiographies, fiction, poetry literature by women, literature on sports and literature for kids. as Village of

(c) Why is Bhilar village known as Village of Books?
Answer:

• Each household in this village maintains a library of its own.
• Tourists enjoy reading these books.
• Maharashtra Government has kept these books in every household so that it becomes easy for the tourists to take and read.
• It is done with a view to accelerate the ‘Reading Culture’ movement to enjoy Marcrthi literature.

Hence, the village is known as ‘Village of Books’.

Question 15.
Give elaborate answers to the following:

(a) Explain the benefits of increasing tourism.
Answer:
Tourism not only benefits an individual but also a country.

• Tourism is an industry which has potential to generate maximum employment.
• New markets are created leading to the development of tourist sites.
• Urbanisation takes place giving rise to new colonies.
• The country earns foreign exchange.
• Handicraft and cottage industry gets a boost.
• Visiting different sites, meeting people speaking different languages and knowing different cultures increases tolerance and peace.
• We get information when we visit places of historical importance and natural beauty. It widens our perspective.
• When we visit historical places we come to know about the glorious past which gives us inspiration to build a bright future.
• It emphasises the need that we have to take care of our heritage.
• Tourism gives us a feeling of personal and collective fulfillment.

(b) Explain the purpose of tourism.
Answer:
Tourism has several purposes and inspiration behind it. They are as follows:

• To see historical monuments forts and cities discovered during excavations. To visit centres promoting ancient art and craft, museums.
• To visit different pilgrim centres, sea beaches, mountain ranges, valleys, snow-capped peaks, pristine jungles.
• To visit special plateaus like Kas plateau, museums, lakes formed because of meteoric impact and valleys of flowers.
• Places of natural beauty gives us enjoyment and experiences which connects us to nature.
• To visit different industrial sites.
• To see medicinal plants and avail of ayurvedic therapies.
• To visit places to see agricultural projects, visit to see agricultural research centres and making of compost pits.
• To travel to watch sports events which comes under sports tourism. To be. part of dance-music, festival or watch as audience, which is cultural tourism.
• People also visit places to attend film festivals, witness the making of movies, science seminars, international conferences, book exhibitions and literary events.

In short, the purpose of tourism differs from person to person. It is explored as per individual interest.

(c) What measures should be taken to conserve historical monuments?
Answer:
Historical monuments and ancient historical sources constitute our cultural heritage. The following measures should be taken to conserve them:

• Seepage of water in forts and in rock-cut caves should be stopped. Creepers which grow on forts should be uprooted.
• Damages due to humidity and heat should be stopped with proper measures.
• To take precautions to avoid deterioration of monuments near the sea because of salt.
• Hygiene should be maintained at tourist sites.
• One should be fined for writing names, carving or defacing the monument in ary manner.
• Government should take measures to avoid the monuments getting vandalised.
• Awareness should be created among the people about the need to preserve monuments.
• Along with government, people and private sectors should contribute to raise funds for the preservation of projects.

(d) Distinguish between Local tourism and International tourism.
Answer:

Local/Interstate Tourism	International Tourism
1. Travelling within our country is local tourism.	1. Crossing border and going overseas means international tourism.
2. There is no need to seek the government’s permission or paperwork.	2. Visa is required to travel to a foreign country. Visa is not granted unless we complete all paperwork. It is essential to keep documeñts with us.
3. Local tourism is hassle-free as the land is known to us.	3. Having no acquaintances with the people or land can create challenges.
4. No need for currency exchange	4. Currency exchange is required.
5. We can make changes in the itinerary to suit our convenience.	5. Fixed itinerary has to be followed. We cannot make any changes to it.
6. Language, mostly, is not an obstacle. We can communicate in our mother tongue or in the national language.	6. Language can be an obstacle. One should know the language of that country if one wants to interact with locals or at least be well versed in English.
7. We can extend our stay if we desire to.	7. Our stay in a foreign country cannot be extended. It has a fixed time duration as long as permission is granted.

(e) What facilities should be made available to the tourists?
Answer:
The following facilities should be provided to tourists:
Facilities for tourists:

• Safe and secured transport facilities, translators and guides.
• Ensure safety of the tourists.
• Good and clean hotels and eateries. Clean drinking water at various places of visit.
• Good washrooms on the travel routes and at tourists sites.
• Care should be taken that tourists do not endure physical or mental distress.
• Tourists should not be cheated when they make purchases.

(f) How would you behave with the tourists if you are the local person at a tourist site?
Answer:
Tourists visit any tourist site having faith in the local people:

• I will behave well with the tourists. I will extend my cooperation.
• I will inform them about the tourist places , known to me, which things they can buy and where.
• I will be careful that they face no problems.

(g) What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/ town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
The following job opportunities were created in the surroundings of my town because of growing tourism:

• The number of tourist guides, porters increased.
• More services of autorickshaw, taxi, horse-to ride, horse carts, etc. were provided.
• New hotels and shops selling food items came up in vicinity.
• Juice and cold drink centres were started.
• Milk, vegetables and tea stalls were set up.
• New shops selling handicraft and local things opened.
• What kind of new occupations were introduced in the surroundings of your village/town because of growing tourism?
• What difference could be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?

(h) What difference can be observed in the lifestyle of people in the surroundings of your village-town because of growing tourism?
Answer:
Tourism improves standard of living of the people:

• Small towns transform into urban cities.
• Standard of living improves to great extent.
• Modern housing colonies come up in place of small houses.
• Different types of business as prosper.
• Artists get promoted which helps in sale of their artefacts.
• Number of two-wheelers and four-wheelers increase.
• I have observed these changes in the surroundings of my town.

Memory Map

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Textbook Solutions Unit 4.3 World Heritage

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 4.3 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Pair up with your partner and answer the following questions.
(a) Do you like to travel?
(b) Where have you traveled?
(c) Have you heard about the wonders of the world?
(d) Have you heard about UNESCO?
(e) What does UNESCO stand for?
(f) What is meant by Heritage?
(g) Do you know of any Heritage building in your own city?
Answer:
(a) yes, no, sometimes, etc.
(b) Discuss the places, the mode of travel, the sights, etc.
(c) Yes, I have.
(d) Yes, I have, but not much.
(e) UNESCO stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
(f) Heritage is something that is valued and preserved because of its historical/cultural/natural importance
(g) Students can find out the heritage buildings in their own towns/cities.

Question 2.
Your teacher will explain the ‘Heritage Cycle’.
→ By understanding (cultural heritage) people value it.
→ By valuing it people want to care for it.
→ By caring for it, it will help people enjoy it.
→ From enjoying it, comes a thirst to understand.
→ By understanding it …………………

Question 3.
Do you know the difference between :
(a) World Heritage
(b) Cultural Heritage
Refer to a dictionary/encyclopedia/reference book/the internet to get the detailed meaning.
Answer:
(a) World heritage means a global heritage that belongs to everyone.
(b) Cultural heritage is the legacy of physical artifacts and intangible attributes of society that are inherited from past generations, maintained in the present and preserved for the benefit of futurft generations. Cultural heritage includes tangible culture (such as buildings, monuments, landscapes, books, works of art, and artifacts), intangible culture (such as folklore, traditions, language, and knowledge), and natural heritage (including culturally significant landscapes, etc.)

Question 4.
With the help of your partner complete the information in the table.

Tourist spot	Favourite	Why?
Park
Mountain
Beach
Sea
Forest
Countryside/Rural site

Question 5.
Heritage Sites – Rank these with your partner. Put the best at the top.

• Great Barrier Reef
• Mount Fuji
• Grand Canyon
• The Pyramids
• Panda Sanctuaries
• Machu Picchu
• Vatican City
• Great Wall of China

World Heritage Class 10 English Workshop Questions and Answers Maharashtra Board

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.
(a) What do heritage sites in the world include?
Answer:
A World Heritage Site should have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity.

(b) What kind of sites are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme?
Answer:
Sites which have significant cultural or natural importance to humanity are protected and maintained by the International World Heritage Programme. They may include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They can also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(c) How many world Heritage sites were there around the world?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites include forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities. They cari also be a combination of cultural and natural areas.

(d) What is the role of World Heritage Committees?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

(e) What is the texture of World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The tenure of the World Heritage Committee is six years.

(f) What are our duties towards preservation/conservation of any historical site?
Answer:
We should see that the historical sites are not in any danger due to pollution, tourism, uncontrolled urbanization, etc. Whenever we visit the site we must maintain the cleanliness and purity of the place. We must obey whatever orders and guidelines are put in place by the authorities. We should motivate others to do so too.

(g) Why should we preserve the World Heritage Sites?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites promote tourism. They are a part of the culture of the world, a part of the past. It is essential to preserve the past in order to learn from it. Natural beauty too should be preserved so that everyone today and in future can enjoy it. Hence, we should preserve World Heritage Sites.

(h) What is the role of World Heritage Sites in developing tourism in any country?
Answer:
World Heritage Sites are those that are significant culturally and naturally. People are interested in seeing such sites and learning the history behind them; hence they are a major tourist attraction, and they draw tourists to a country, boosting the country’s revenue.

Question 2.
Complete the following.

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1959	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1965	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1968	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………
1972	…………………………………………………	…………………………………………………

Answer:

Year	Establishment	Role
1954	Egypt starts plans to build Aswan High Dam	Started the momentum for the protection of cultural and natural heritage sites around the world.
1959	International campaign by UNESCO to protect temples and artifacts likely to be destroyed by Aswan High Dam; a draft convention initiated for the same	Protection of natural and cultural sites around the world
1965	A White House Conference in the US called for a World Heritage Trust’.	To protect not only the historic and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.
1968	The International Union for Conservation of Nature	Development of goals similar to those of the White House Conference
1972	Convention concerning the protection of World Cultural and Natural Heritage adopted by UNESCO’s General Conference.	To protect not only Are histone and cultural sites but also the significant natural and scenic sites around the world.

Question 3.
Complete the following by giving reasons why World Heritage Sites are in danger.

Answer:

Question 4.
Choose the correct alternative and complete the given sentences.
(a) Mount Huangshan is situated in …………………………. .
(i) Japan
(ii) China
(iii) Philippines
Answer:
(ii) China

(b) The famous dam situated in Egypt on River Nile is …………………………. .
(i) Buzwaa High Dam
(ii) Rizwa High Dam
(iii) Aswan High Dam
Answer:
(iii) Aswan High Dam

(c) The conference based on Human Environment was held at …………………………. .
(i) Athens, Greece
(ii) Mascow, Russia
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden
Answer:
(iii) Stockholm, Sweden

(d) The highest number of world Heritage Sites are located in …………………………. .
(i) France
(ii) Italy
(iii) Germany
Answer:
(ii) Italy

(e) …………………………. can delete/exclude a site from World Heritage list.
(i) World Heritage Committee
(ii) World Peace Committee
(iii) World Health Committee.
Answer:
(i) World Heritage Committee

(f) The tenure of World Heritage Committee is …………………………. years.
(i) Four
(ii) Five
(iii) Six.
Answer:
(iii) Six.

Question 5.
Match the pairs to define different roles of the World Heritage Sites.

	A		B
(i)	Identify cultural and natural sites	a	green, local based, stable and decent jobs.
(ii)	Identify sites of	b	of outstanding universal value across countries.
(iii)	Identify sites that represent	c	preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(iv)	UNESCO seeks to	d	tourism.
(v)	World Heritage Sites should have	e	an asset for economic development and investment.
(vi)	World Heritage Sites should	f	protect these sites.
(vii)	World Heritage Sites serve as	g	best examples of world’s cultural and/or natural heritage.
(viii)	World Heritage Sites should ensure	h	special importance for everyone.
(ix)	It should at large develop	i	relevant development plan policies.

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Identify cultural and natural sites	(a) green, local based, stable and decent.
(2) Identify sites of	(b) of outstanding universal values across countries.
(3) Identify sites that represent	(c) preserve outstanding sites and natural resources.
(4) UNESCO seeks to	(d) tourism.
(5) World Heritage Sites should have	(e) an asset for economic development and investment.
(6) World Heritage should	(f) protect these sites.
(7) World Heritage Sites serve as	(g) best examples of world’s cultural and or natural heritage.
(8) World Heritage Site should ensure	(h) special importance for everyone.
(9) It should at large develop	(i) relevant development plan policies.

Question 6.
Look at the words and their meanings. Choose the correct alternative.
(a) determine :
(i) think over
(ii) decide
(iii) ask for
(iv) look over
Answer:
(ii) decide

(b) monument :
(i) statue
(ii) pillar
(iii) memorial
(iv) fort
Answer:
(iii) memorial

(c) significant:
(i) clever
(ii) effective
(iii) systematic
(iv) important
Answer:
(iv) important

(d) disaster:
(i) problem
(ii) incident
(iii) calamity
(iv) accident
Answer:
(iii) calamity

Question 7.
Find from the text minimum 8 words related to cultural heritage and make a word register. Arrange them in alphabetical order.
Cultural heritage: Abu Simbel Temples, artifacts, buildings, cilles, Histqric Center of Vienna, Machu Picchu, monuments, Mount Huangshan, Sydney Opera House.

Question 8.
Complete the following information from the text.

Answer:
(a) Preservation of any historical site (Duties):
(i) International World Heritage Programme
(ii) UNESCO World Heritage Committee.

(b) Preserving World Heritage Sites (Reasons) :
(i) They have significant cultural and natira Importance to humanity.
(ii) They promote tourism.

(C) Promoting tourism (Role) :
(i) They attract tourists.
(ii) They help one to understand the history of a place.

Question 9.
Write a report on any tourist place/historical place/World Heritage Site you recently visited using the points given below.
(i) Title
(ii) Place/Location
(iii) Background/History
(iv) Features/Specialities
(v) Security policies
(vi) Sign boards and discipline
(vii) Overall scenario.
Answer:
Ajanta – A Masterpiece In Rock
– Rani Iyer
Mumbai, 12 February: The Ajanta Caves, situated in the Deccan in Maharashtra and about 110 km from Aurangabad, are a UNESCO World Heritage Site. A visit to the place reveals a large slice of history.

These rock – cut cave temples and monasteries of Buddhists date back to around 2nd century BCE. Since they were in the jungles, cut into a mountainside, the external world did not know about them for a long time. They were discovered only in the 19th century, The caves include paintings and rock – cut sculptures described as among the finest surviving examples of ancient Indian art. The paintings are expressive and present emotion through gesture, pose and form, According to UNESCO, these are masterpieces of Buddhist religious art that influenced the Indian art I that followed.

Two new visitor centers provide extensive information about the heritage site using audiovisual media. Local staff is employed for security purposes. Though photography is allowed at certain places, with fees for the use of a camera, use of tripods and flash is prohibited. Signboards and brochures/leaflets provide information about the care to be taken to preserve this UNESCO protected heritage site. “The caves are now being looked after by a private company under the Indian government’s ‘Adopt a Heritage Site’ program,” said a senior official.

Question 10.
(A) Use ‘not only but also’ in the following sentences.
(a) UNESCO and the International Council on monuments initiated a draft convention to create an international organisation responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The state parties are responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(c) Opera House in Australia and the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can also be a combination of both cultural and natural areas.
Answer:
(a) Not only UNESCO but also the International Council on Monuments and Sites initiated a draft convention to create an international organization responsible for protecting cultural heritage.
(b) The State Parties are responsible for not only identifying but also nominating new sites.
(c) Not only the Opera House in Australia but also the Historic Center of Vienna in Austria are cultural sites of World Heritage.
(d) World Heritage Sites can be a combination of not only cultural but also natural areas.

(B) Rewrite the following sentences replacing ‘as soon as’ by ‘No sooner than’
(Note : The phrase, ‘No sooner’ must always be followed by an auxiliary (helping verb).)
For example : As soon as he came, they all gave an applause.
No sooner did he come, than they all gave an applause.

(a) As soon as the Bill is passed, it will become an Act.
(b) As soon as the thief escaped, the family informed the police.
(c) As soon as you have finished, you can submit your answer- papers.
(d) As soon as they can manage, they should change their house.
(e) As soon as the bell rings, the School Assembly will start.
Answer:
(a) No sooner is the Bill passed, than it will become an Act.
(b) No sooner did the thief escape, than the family informed the police.
(c) No sooner do you finish, than you can submit your answer papers.
(d) No sooner can they manage, than they should change their house.
(e) No sooner does the bell ring, than the School Assembly will start.

Question 11.
Identify whether the following sentences are Simple (One Subject + One Predicate or Complex (One Main Clause + One or more Dependent Clauses) or Compound (Combination of 2 or more Independent/ Co-ordinate Clauses).
(1) They vary in type but they include forests, monuments etc.
(2) The mountain is significant because of its characteristics.
(3) To protect the temples and artefacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign.
(4) If the site meets with this criteria, it can be inscribed on the World Heritage List.
(5) There are 890 World Heritage Sites that are located in 148 countries.
(6) The project cost about US $ 80 million and $ 40 million came from 50 different countries.
Answer:
(1) Compound
(2) Simple
(3) Simple
(4) Complex
(5) Complex
(6) Compound

Question 12.
Following are the ways to preserve ‘World Heritage Sites.’ Transfer these points into a small paragraph. Suggest a title.

• Practical conservation of posterity
• Human/animal trespassing to be prohibited
• Monitored/controlled/restricted access
• Threat of local administrative negligence to be removed

Answer:
Ways to Preserve World Heritage Sites
World Heritage Sites need to be preserved for posterity. The future generations must know about their history and culture. For this purpose, steps have to be taken to preserve these sites. First and foremost, trespassing by either humans or animals should be strictly prohibited. Access to these sites for tourists, vendors, officials and the general public should be restricted or monitored carefully. Another important step is to keep a check on the local administration of the site, so that negligence in the performance of the duties at this level is ruled out.

Question 13.
Read the points given in column ‘A’ specifying Dos towards prevention of any historical site. Write Don’ts in column ‘B’ specifying things that should not be done.

	Dos	Don’ts
(i)	Obey rules and regulations.
(ii)	Maintain discipline and order.
(iii)	Maintain cleanliness.
(iv)	Use dustbins and garbage bags.
(v)	Observe silence.
(vi)	Maintain environmental safety.
(vii)	Protect our country’s heritage.

Answer:

Dos	Don’ts
1. Obey rules and regulations.	1. Don’t dirty the surroundings.
2. Maintain discipline and order.	2. Don’t write on the walls/trees.
3. Maintain cleanliness.	3. Don’t pluck flowers/ destroy plants.
4. Use dustbins and garbage bags.	4. Don’t smoke/ drink alcohol.
5. Observe silence.	5. Don’t play loud music or make a loud noise.
6. Maintain environmental safety.	6. Don’t defecate in the open.
7. Protect our country’s heritage.	7. Don’t trespass.

Question 14.
Complete the following flow chart by choosing the option given below to show how any site of any country can become a World Heritage Site.

Options :
1. Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
2. Name of the site is inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.
3. Inclusion of the name of site for the nomination in a tentative list after an inventory in country or State.
4. Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
5. A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Answer:
Step 1 : Inclusion of the name of the site for nomination in a tentative list after inventory in country or state.
Step 2 : Inclusion of the name of site from tentative list to the nomination file.
Step 3 : A review of the included file by the advisory bodies.
Step 4 : Decision of the World Heritage Committee after review of the nominated file.
Step 5 : Name of the site inscribed on the World Heritage List after meeting the criteria.

Question 15.
Projects :
(a) Make a list of sites from our State which are included in the World Heritage Sites. Try to visit one of them. Write the importance of this World Heritage Site. Also write your impression of it in your notebook.

(b) Write a ‘tourism leaflet’ on any one of the following :
(i) Your home town
(ii) A historical place
(iii) A place of natural beauty
(iv) A place of pilgrimage

→ Make use of the following points :
(i) How to reach there?
(ii) Accommodation facilities
(iii) What to see and visit?/Attractions of the place
(iv) Places of interest nearby
(v) Best time to visit
(vi) Shopping Attractions
Add your own points.
Answer:
MATHERAN: ‘UNSPOILT NATURE’
(1) How to get there:
(a) By train: From Mumbai or Pune to Neral Junction.. From Neral to Matheran by narrow – gauge train that depart at fixed times.
(b) By road: Shared taxis or minibuses from Neral to MTDC Holiday Camp. Cars and other vehicles not allowed beyond a certain point.
(2) Accommodation facilities: Plenty of hotels offering full or half board. MTDC Tourist Camp provides dorm – beds at affordable rates. The ‘camp’ is near the Dasturi car park. You can eat at one of the many thali joints along MG Road.
(3) Best Time of the year to visit: All the year round except the rainy season.
(4) What to see: Viewpoints such as Porcupine, Louisa and Echo have the finest views. On a clear day, one can see Mumbai lying afar from ‘Hart Point’; perpendicular cliffs plunge into steep ravines; monkeys and squirrels.
(5) Shopping Attractions: Locally made chappals, home – made chocolates and chikkis, caps and other items for campers; walking sticks.
(6) Special features: Greenery, nature at its best, trekking, horse riding; good for a day’s group picnic.

(c) Vocabulary Extension – Choose several words from the text. Use a dictionary or internet to build up more associations/collocations of each word.
Answer:
(1) Associations:

(2) Collocations:

(d) World Heritage Sites – Make a poster about World Heritage Sites, specifying some details and specialties about each of them.

(e) Letter – Write a letter to an expert on the environment. Ask him/her five questions about your concern/doubts about World Heritage sites. Give him/her three ideas on how to protect them.
Answer:
Amit Awte
102, Riddhi Vihar
R.N. Road
Aurangabad – 431 001,
12th November, 2020

To
Mr. Avinash Ranade
‘Nisarg’
Shastri Marg
Aurangabad – 431 002.
Sub: Protection of World Heritage Sites

Sir
It was with great interest that I read in our local newspaper about your interest in the protection of World Heritage Sites. I would like to ask you a few questions which have haunted me for some time.

They are:
(1) Does India have enough experts to restore the damage done to our sites by nature/visitors etc.?
(2) Is there enough security to protect the sites from vandalism?
(3) Can there be a restriction on the number of visitors to the sites?
(4) Are the funds allocated to the preservation of the sites by the World Heritage Committee sufficient?
(5) Is there enough information about the sites on tourist websites/ Internet?

I would like to give some suggestions. Can we not impose a limit on the number of tourists visiting these places? We can also have sessions on how to maintain cleanliness and prevent vandalism. Stiff fines must be imposed on all those who break the rules.

I hope to receive a reply from you, as I am also very concerned about the preservation of our heritage sites.

Yours faithfully,
Amit Awte

(f) Article – Write an article for a magazine about the World Heritage sites at risk. Include imaginary interviews with people who are trying to save them. Read your article in front of your class.

Question 16.
The project of dismantling and moving the temples in the valley to higher ground cost $80 million.
(i) $40 million
(ii) $50 million
(iii) $80 million.
Answer:
(iii) $80 million.

Question 17.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(1) A World Heritage Site should have significant …………………
(2) World Heritage Sites include ……………………..
(3) They can also be a ……………………..
(4) The convention concerning the protection of  Cultural Natural Herttage was adopted by ……………………
Answer:
(1) cultural or natural importance to humanity.
(2) combination of cultural and natural areas.
(3) forests, lakes, monuments, buildings and cities.
(4) UNESCO’s General Conference on November 16, 1972.

Question 18.
(a) UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959.
Answer:
In 1954, Egypt started plans to build the Aswan High Dam. The initial plans for the dam’s construction would have flooded the valley containing the Abu Simbel Temples and scores of ancient Egyptian artifacts. To protect the temples and artifacts, UNESCO launched an international campaign in 1959, that called for the dismantling and movement of the temples to higher ground.

(b) A White House Conference in the United States called for a ‘World Heritage Trust’.
Answer:
A White House Conference in the United States called for a World Heritage Trust’ to protect the world’s historic and cultural sites as well as the significant natural and scenic sites.

(c) convention:
(i) typical
(ii) agreement
(iii) old – fashioned
(iv) persuade
Answer:
(d) agreement

Question 19.
Pick out 4 adjectives from the passage ending with the suffix ‘ – al’.
Answer:
1. educational,
2. cultural,
3. natural,
4. historical.

Question 20.
The World Heritage Committee meets once a year.
(i) once a year
(ii) twice a year
(iii) three times a year
Answer:
(i) once a year

Question 21.
A nominated site has to be first included in a Tentative List.
(i) World Heritage List
(ii) Nomination File
(iii) Tentative List
Answer:
(iii) Tentative List

Question 22.
Explain what the World Heritage Committee is responsible for.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee is the main group responsible for establishing which sites will be listed as UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Question 23.
Who makes recommendations to the World Heritage Committee?
Answer:
The recommendations to the World Heritage Committee are made by two Advisory Bodies, the International Council on Monuments and Sites and the World Conservation Union.

Question 24.
(1) Choose the correct noun forms from those given in the brackets:
(1) inscribed (inscription/inscribtion)
(2) responsible (responsive/responsibility)
(3) nominated (nominative/nomination)
(4) included (inclusion/inclution)
Answer:
(1) inscription
(2) responsibility
(3) nomination
(4) inclusion.

Question 25.
Complete the following by choosing the correct nouns from the box:
Bodies Parties List File
(1) Tentative ……………….
(2) Nomination ……………….
(3) Advisory ……………….
(4) State ……………….
Answer:
(1) Tentative List
(2) Nomination File
(3) Advisory Bodies
(4) State Parties.

Question 26.
World Heritage Committee can delete/exclude a site from the World Heritage List
(a) World Heritage Committee
(b) World Peace Committee
(c) World Health Committee
Answer:
(a) World Heritage Committee

Question 27.
There are 890 World Heritage Sites around the World.
(a) 689
(b) 890
(c) 36
Answer:
(b) 890

Question 28.
36 – sites have been included from India.
(a) 176
(b) 44
(c) 36
Answer:
(c) 36

Question 29.
Match the places with the countries:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(a) Vienna
(2) Historic Center	(b) Peru
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(c) Australia
(4) Machu Pichhu	(d) United States

Answer:

‘A’	‘B’
(1) Sydney Opera House	(c) Australia
(2) Historic Center	(a) Vienna
(3) Grand Canyon National Park	(d) United States
(4) Machu Pichhu	(b) Peru

Question 30.
Complete the following:
(1) Peru’s Machu Picchu is an example of a ………………….
(2) The World Heritage Committee can choose to delete a site from the list if ……………….
Answer:
(1) mixed site, both cultural as well as natural.
(2) the site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List.

Question 31.
Explain the role of the World Heritage Committee.
Answer:
The World Heritage Committee allocates resources from the World Heritage Fund to a World Heritage Site which is in danger due to any reason or in need of protection or restoration. If a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to originally be included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.

Question 32.
Choose the correct meanings:
(a) allocate:
(i) allow
(ii) distribute
(iii) catch
(iv) understand
Answer:
(b) distribute

Question 33.
Fill in the blanks with the correct words from the passage: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
(a) Many small towns of the previous century have become crowded cities now due to rapid ………………..
(b) We should be well – prepared for …………….. problems like global warming.
Answer:
(a) urbanization.
(b) environmental

Question 34.
(1) Pick out a gerund from the lesson and use – it in your own sentence.
(2) Find out five hidden words from the given word: international
(3) Use the following phrase in your own sentence: a corhbination of
(4) Spot the error/errors and rewrite the correct sentence: The State Parties is then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Identify the type of sentence: Get out of my way.
(6) Punctuate: if however a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the world heritage list the world heritage committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) From the following verbs, pick out the verb which forms its present and past participle by doubling the last letter. run, lose, trip, quit
(8) Arrange the following words in alphabetical order: Sydney, Vienna, Austria, Peru, Australia, Egypt, China
Answer:
(1) protecting: We should think of various ways of protecting our environment.
(2) internatIonal : natIonal, nation, train, trail, trial.
(3) The rainbow is a combination of seven colours.
(4) The State Parties are then responsible for identifying and nominating new sites.
(5) Imperative sentence.
(6) If however, a site loses the characteristics which allowed for it to be originally included on the World Heritage List, the World Heritage Committee can choose to delete the site from the list.
(7) trip : tripped, trIpping.
(8) Australia, Austria, China, Egypt, Peru, Sydney, Vienna

Question 35.
(1) Use the following word and its homophone in two separate sentences : rain
(2) UNESCO launched an International campaign In 1959. (Rewrite beginning ‘An lnternattonal…..)
(3) DIfferent plans are put Into place. (Rewrite using the future perfect tense of the verb.)
Answer:
(1) (i) There was light rain yesterday evening near my house.
(ii) In the past, a cõuntry progressed dutlng the reign of good kings.
(2) An international campaign was launched by UNESCO in 1959.
(3) Different plans will have been put into place.

Question 36.
(1) Italy has the highest number of World Heritage Sites. (Rewrite using the comparative form.)
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year to review these recommendations. (Rewrite as a compound sentence.)
Answer:
(1) Italy has a higher number of World Heritage Sites than any other country.
(2) The World Heritage Committee meets once a year and (it) reviews these recommendations.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 1 Chapter 3 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the bracket and explain the statement giving reasons :
(Oxidation, displacement, electrolysis, reduction, zinc, copper, double diplacement, decomposition)

a. To prevent rusting, a laver of ……… metal is applied on iron sheets.
Answer:
To prevent rusting, a layer of zinc metal is applied on iron sheets.
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. Due to corrosion of an iron a deposit of reddish substance (Fe₂O₃.H₂O) is formed on it. This substance is called rust. To prevent corrosion, a layer of zinc metal (galvanisation) is applied on iron sheets.

b. The conversion or ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is …….. reaction.
Answer:
The conversion of ferrous sulphate to ferric sulphate is an oxidation reaction.
When ferric ion is formed. from ferrous ion, the positive charge is increased by one unit. while this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron. A process in which a metal or its ion loses one or more electrons is called an oxidation.
2FeSO₄ → Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Fe₂ + SO₄^2- → 2Fe³⁺ + SO₄^2-

c. When electric current is passed through acidulated water …….. of water takes place.
Answer:
when electric current is passed through acidulated water decomposition of water takes place. In this reaction. hydrogen and oxygen gas are formed.

This decomposition takes place with the help of an electric current, it is also called electrolytic decomposition.

d. Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO₄ to an aqueous solution of BaCl₂ is an example of ……… reaction.
Answer:
Addition of an aqueous solution of ZnSO₄ to an aqueous solution or BaCl₂ is an example or double displacement reaction.

Barium chloride reacts with zinc sulphate to form a white precipitate of barium sulphate. white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba⁺⁺ and SO₄^— between the reactants.

Question 2.
a. What is the reaction called when oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously? Explain with one example.
Answer:
The reaction which involves simultaneous oxidation and reduction is called an oxidation-reduction or redox reaction.
In a redox reaction, one reactant gets oxidised while the other gets reduced during a reaction.
Redox reaction = Reduction + Oxidation

In redox reaction, the reductant is oxidized by the oxidant and the oxidant is reduced by the
reductant.
Example:CuO_(s) + H_2(g) → Cu_(s) + H₂O
In this reaction, oxygen is removed from copper oxide therefore it is a reduction of CuO, while hydrogen accepts oxygen to form water that means oxidation of hydrogen takes place. Thus oxidation and reduction reactions occur simultaneously.

Other examples of redox reactions:

b. How can the rate of the chemical reaction, namely, decomposition of hydrogen peroxide be increased?
Answer:
At room temperature, the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen takes place slowly. However, the same reaction occurs at a faster rate on adding manganese dioxide (MnO₂),
powder in it.

c. Explain the term reactant product giving examples.
Answer:

1. The substance which undergoes bond breaking while taking part in a chemical reaction is called reactant.
2. The substance formed as a result of a chemical reaction by formation of new bonds is called product.
3. Example: In a chemical reaction, the formation of carbon dioxide gas takes place by combustion of coal in air. In this reaction, coal (carbon) and oxygen (from air) are the reactants while carbon dioxide is the product.

d. Explain the types of reactions with reference to oxygen and hydrogen. Illustrate with examples.
Answer:
With reference to oxygen and hydrogen, there are two types of reaction

1. Oxidation reaction
2. Reduction reaction.

1. Oxidation reaction:
Examples:
(1) When carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

(2) When sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.

(3) Acidified potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇ / H₂SO₄) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.

2. Reduction reaction:
Examples:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is
formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.

(2) when hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.

e. Explain the similarity and difference in two events, namely adding NaOH to water and adding CaO to water.
Answer:
Similarity : Both NaOH and CaO, when dissolved separately in water, solid NaOH dissolves releasing heat, resulting in rise in temperature. This reaction is exothermic reaction. When solid CaO dissolves in water, Ca(OH)₂ is formed, large amount of heat is evolved. This reaction is also exothermic reaction. Both reactions are combination reactions and single product is obtained.
NaOH_(s) + H₂O → NaOH_(aq) + Heat
CaO_(s) + H₂O → Ca(OH)_2(aq) + Heat
Difference:

1. Aqueous solution of NaOH is considered as a strong alkali.
2. Aqueous solution of Ca(OH)₂ is considered as a weak alkali.

Question 3.
Explain the following terms with examples.
a. Endothermic reaction
Answer:
Endothermic reaction: The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic
reaction.
when KNO_3(s) dissolves in water, there is absorption of heat during the reaction and the temperature of the solution falls.
KNO_2(s) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq)

b. Combination reaction
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.
Examples:
1. The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.

2. Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.

3. Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.

c. Balanced equation
Answer:
In a chemical reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number or atoms of those elements in the product, such an equation is called a balanced equation.
Example: AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO₃
In the above reaction, the number of atoms of the elements in the reactants is same as the number of atoms of elements in the products.

d. Displacement reaction
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by the formation of its own ions is called displacement reaction.

When zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place of Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.

4. Give scientific reason:
a. When the gas formed on heating lime stone is passed through freshly prepared lime water, the lime water turns milky.
Answer:
when lime stone is heated, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are formed. This carbon dioxide gas is passed through freshly prepared lime water, insoluble calcium carbonate and water are formed. In this reaction, lime water turns milky.

b. It takes time for pieces of Shahabud tile to disappear in HCl, but its powder disappears rapidly.
Answer:
The rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. The smaller the size of the reactants particles, the more is their total surface area and the faster is the rate of reaction.

In the reaction of dil. HCl with pieces of Shahabad tile, CO₂ effervescence is formed amid the tile disappears slowly. On the other hand. CO₂ effervescence forms at faster rate with Shahabad tile powder and it disappears rapidly.

c. While preparing dilute sulphuric acid from concentrated sulphuric acid in the laboratory, the concentrated sulphuric acid is added slowly to water with constant stirring.
Answer:
(1) The preparation of dilute sulphuric acid falls in the category of extreme exothermic process.

(2) During the preparation of dilute sulphuric acid. large amount of water is taken in a glass container which is surrounded by ice. Cool it for twenty minutes, Now small quantity of conc. H₂SO₄ is added slowly with stirring. Therefore, only a small amount of heat is liberated at a time. In this way dilute sulphuric acid is prepared.

(3) On the other hand, in the process of dilution or conc. sulphuric acid with water, very large amount of heat is liberated. As a result, water gets evaported instantaneously, if it is poured in to conc. H₂SO₄ which may cause an accident.

d. It is recommended to use air tight container for storing oil for long time.
Answer:

1. If edible oil is allowed to stand for a long time, it undergoes air oxidation, it becomes rancid and its smell and taste changes.
2. Rancidity in the rood stuff cooked in oil or ghee is prevented by using antioxidants. The process of oxidation reaction of food stuff can also be slowed down by storing it in air tight container.

Question 5.
Observe the following picture a write down the chemical reaction with explanation.

Answer:
The rusting of iron is an oxidation process. The rust on iron does not form by a simple reaction between oxygen and iron surface. The rust is formed by an electrochemical reaction. Fe oxidises to Fe₂O₃. H₂O on one part of iron surface while oxygen gets reduced to H₂O on another part or surface, Different regions on the surface of iron become anode and cathode.
(1) Fe is oxidised to Fe²⁺ in the anode region.
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
(2) O₂ is reduced to form water in the cathode region.
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) + 4e— → 2H₂O_(l)

When Fe²⁺ ions migrate from the anode region they react with water and futher get oxidised to form Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe³⁺ ions. It is called rust. It collects on the
surface.
2Fe³⁺ _(aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → Fe₂O₃. H₂O_(s) + 6H⁺ _(aq)…
Because of various components in the atmosphere, oxidation of metals takes place, consequently resulting in their damage. This is called ‘corrosion’. Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is formed on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Question 6.
Identify from the following reactions the reactants that undergo oxidation and reduction.
a. Fe + S → FeS
Answer:
Fe + S → FeS
In this reaction, Iron (Fe) undergoes oxidation
and sulphur. (S) undergoes reduction.

b. 2Ag₂O → 4Ag + O₂↑
Answer:
2Ag₂O → 4Ag + O₂↑
In this reaction, reduction of Ag₂O takes place.

c. 2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
Answer:
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
In this reaction, oxidation of Mg takes place.

d. NiO + H₂ → Ni + H₂O
Answer:
NiO + H₂ → Ni + H₂O
In this reaction, reduction of NiO takes place and oxidation of H₂ takes place.

Question 7.
Balance the following equation stepwise.
a. H₂S₂O_7(l) + H₂O_(l) → H₂SO_4(l)
Answer:
Step 1: Rewrite the given equation as it is
H₂S₂O7_(l) + H₂O_(l) → H₂SO_4(l)
Step 2: write the number or atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactant (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
H	4	2
S	2	1
O	8	4

Step 3: To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms we use 2 as the coemficient or factor in the product.

Element	Number of atoms in reactant (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
H	4	2 × 2
S	2	1 × 2
O	8	4 × 2
Total	14	14

Now the equation becomes H₂S₂O₇ + H₂O → 2H₂SO₄
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H₂S₂O₇ + H₂O → 2H₂SO₄
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
H₂S₂O_7(l) + H₂O_(l) → 2H₂SO_4(l)

b. SO_2(g) + H₂S_(aq) → S_(s) + H₂O_(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
SO_2(g) + H₂S_(aq) → S_(s) + H₂O_(l)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
S	2	1
O	2	1
H	2	2

The number of hydrogen atoms on both sides of the equation is same, therefore, equalise the number of sulphur atoms and oxygen atoms.

Step 3: To balance the number of sulphur atoms:

Number of atoms of sulphur	In reactants		In products
	S2O	H2S	(S)
Initially	1	1	1
To balance	1	1	1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product, now the equation becomes
SO₂ + H₂S → 2S + H₂O

Step 4:
To equalise the number of oxygen atoms in the unbalanced equation.

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants (SO2)	In products H2O
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	1 × 2

To equalise the number of sulphur atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product i.e. H₂O, now the unbalanced equation becomes
SO₂ + H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O

Step 5:
To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms in unbalanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants (H2S)	In products (H2O)
Initially	2	4
To balance	2 × 2	4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the reactant i.e, H₂S, now the unbalanced equation become
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 2S + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of sulphur atoms in the product. Now equalise the sulphur atoms, the balanced equation becomes,
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 3S + 2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of reactants and products.
SO_2(g) + 2H₂S_(aq) → 3S_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)

c. Ag_(s) + HCl_(l) → AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ag_(s) + HCl_(l) → AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑

Step 2:
write the number of atoms or each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants (left side)	Number of atoms in products (right side)
Ag	1	1
H	1	2
Cl	1	1

The number of silver and chlorine atoms on both sides of the equation are same, therefore, equalise the number of hydrogen atoms.

Step 3:
To balance the number of hydrogen atoms.

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants HCl	In products H2
Initially	1	2
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product HCl, now the unbalanced equation become
Ag_(s) + 2HCl → AgCl + H₂

Step 4:
To balance the number of chlorine atoms:

Number of atoms of chlorine	In reactants (2HCl)	In products (AgCl)
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	2 ×1

To equalise the number of chlorine atoms, we use 2 as the factor in the product AgCl. now the unbalanced equation becomes
Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Now count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation, there are less number of silver atoms in the reactant. Now equalise the silver atoms, the balanced equation becomes
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Now indicate the physical states of the reactunts and products
2Ag_(s) + 2HCl_(l) → 2AgCl ↓ + H₂ ↑

d. H₂SO_4(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + H₂O_(l)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
H₂SO_4(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Na	1	2
S	1	1
O	5	5
H	3	2

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, sodium.

Step 3:
To balance the number of sodium atoms:

Number of atoms of sodium	In reactants	In products
To begin with	1 (in NaOH)	2 (in Na2SO4)
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of sodium atoms, we use 2 as the factor of NaOH in the reactants. Now, the partly balanced equation becomes as follows
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	(in H2SO4) 2 (in NaOH)	2 (in H2O)
To balance	4	2 × 2

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the factor or H₂O in the products. The equation then becomes
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
H₂SO₄ + 2NaOH → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
H₂SO_4(aq) + 2NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + 2H₂O_(l)

Question 8.
Identify the endothermic and exothermic reaction.
a. HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

b. \(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}(\mathrm{s})+3 \mathrm{O}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

c. CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

d. \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3}(\mathrm{s}) \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}(\mathrm{s})+\mathrm{CO}_{2} \uparrow\)
Answer:
Exothermic reaction.

Question 9.
Match the column in the following table:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq)	H2CO3(aq)	Displacement
2 AgCl(s)	FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)	Combination
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)	BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq)	Decomposition
H2O(l) + CO2(g)	2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)	Double displacement

Answer:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
BaCl2(aq) + ZnSO4(aq)	BaSO4↓ + ZnCl2(aq)	Double displacement
2 AgCl(s)	2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)	Decomposition
CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s)	FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)	Displacement
H2O(l) + CO2(g)	H2CO3(aq)	Combination

Project:
Do it your self:
1. Prepare aqueous solutions or various solid salts available in the laboratory. Observe what happens when aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide is added to these. Prepare a chart of double displacement reactions based on these observation.

2. Observe and note the physical and chemical changes experienced in various incidents in your day to day 1ife.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No.16)

Question 1.
what are the types of molecules of elements and compounds?
Answer:
Elements are divided into three classes i.e. metals, nonmetals and metalloids. When two or more elements combine chemically in a fixed proportion by weight, a compound is formed. The properties of a compound are altogether different from those of the constitutional elements.

Question 2.
what is meant by valency of element?
Answer:
The number of electrons that an atom of an element gives away or takes up while forming an ionic bond, is called the valency or that element.

Question 3.
What is the requirement for writing molecular formulae of different compounds?
How are the molecular formulae of the compounds written?
Answer:
while writing the molecular formulae of different compounds, the symbol of the radicals and their valence should be known.
The number of the ions is written as subscript on the right of the symbol or the ion. By cross multiplication of valenceies chemical formula is obtained.

Find out (Text Book Page No. 44)
Question1.
How are the blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils cleaned?
Answer:
The blackened silver utensils and patinated (greenish) brass utensils are cleaned using baking soda, vinegar and lemon mix.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
SO₂ + 2H₂S → 3S + 2H₂O
Answer:
Reactants : SO_2(g), 2H₂S_(g)
Products : 3S_(s), 2H₂O_(l).

Question 2.
write down the physical states of reactants and products in the reaction
2Ag + 2HCl → 2AgCl + H₂
Answer:
Reactants: 2Ag_(s), 2HCl_(l)
Products: 2AgCl ↓, H₂ ↑

Question 3.
Identify the reactants and products of the following equation.

Answer:
Reactants: vegetable oil, H₂(g)
Product: Vanaspathi ghee

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 42)

Question 1.
Which is the oxidant used for purification of drinking water?
Answer:
The chlorine based oxidants are used in the purification of drinking water.

Question 2.
Why is potassium permanganate used during cleaning water tanks?
Answer:
Potassium permanganate is an oxidising agent. It oxidises dissolved iron, manganese and hydrogen sulphide into solid particles that are filtered out of the water tank. It is used to control iron bacteria growth in tank.

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
what is the type of this reaction, in which Vanaspathi ghee is formed from vegetable oil?
Answer:

In the preparation of vanaspathi ghee from vegetable oil hydrogen gas is used. This process is known as hydrogenation. This is reduction reaction.

Find out (Text Book page No. 33)

What are the other uses of silver nitrate in every day life?
Answer:
Silver nitrate is used in the voters-ink. It is used as reactant in the laboratory. Silver nitrate is used to prevent infection in wounds and skin burns.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 35)

Question 1.
N_2(g) + H_2(g) ⇌ NH_3(g)
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
N_2(g) + H_2(g) ⇌ NH_3(g)

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of equations

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
N	2	1
H	2	3

Step 3:
In the given equation. NH₃ is a compound and it contains hydrogen element. On the left hand side there are two H atoms and on the right side 3H atoms. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms	In reactants	In products
Initially	2	3
To balance	3 × 2	2 × 3

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 3 as the factor in the reactant and 2 as the factor in the products. Now the equation becomes
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g)

Question 2.
Calcium chloride + Sulphuric acid → Calcium sulphate + Hydrogen chloride.
Answer:
Step 1:
Write the chemical equation from the given word equation.
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + HCl

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced on both sides of equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Ca	1	1
Cl	2	1
H	2	1
S	1	1
O	4	4

Step 3:
In the given equation H₂SO₄ is a compound and it contains hygrogen element. On the left hand side there are two hydrogen atoms and on the right side one hydrogen atom. Equalise H atoms on both sides.

Hydrogen atoms	In reactants (H2SO4)	In products (HCl)
Initially	2	1
To balance	2	2  × 1

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms we use 2 as the factor in the product so that the number of H atoms on both sides are equal. Therefore, the equation becomes
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + 2 HCl
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal hence, the balanced equation is
CaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + 2 HCl
Now, indicate the physical state of the reactants and products.
CaCl_2(s) + H₂SO_4(l) → CaSO_4(s) + HCl_(l)

Can you tell? (Text Book Page No. 39)

Take into account the time required for following processes. Classify them into two groups and give titles to the groups.
(1) Cooking gas starts burning on ignition.
(2) Iron article undergoes rusting.
(3) Erosion of rocks takes place to form soil.
(4) Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
(5) Effervescence is formed on adding baking soda into a test tube containing dilute acid.
(6) A white precipitate is formed on adding dilute sulphuric acid to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
The above processes are classified into two groups (a) slow speed reactions (b) fast speed reactions.
Slow speed reactions: (2), (3) and (4).
Fast speed reactions: (1),(5) and (6).

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
Some more examples of redox reaction are as follows. Identify the reductants and oxidants from them.
(1) 2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S↓ + 2H₂O
(2) MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂↑
Answer:
Oxidants: SO₂, MnO₂
Reductants: H₂S, HCl

Question 2.
If oxidation means losing electrons, what is meant by reduction.
Answer:
Reduction means gaining one or more electrons.

Question 3.
Write the reaction of formation of Fe²⁺ by reduction Fe³⁺ by making use of the symbol (e^–).
Answer:
Fe³⁺ + e^– → Fe²⁺ (reduction)

Think about it (Text Book Page No. 43)

Question 1.
The luster of the surface of the aluminium utensils in the house is lost after a few days. Why does this happen?
Answer:
The aluminium utensils when kept in the house for a few days, oxidation of aluminium takes place, a thin laver aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) is deposited on the surface. Hence, aluminium utensils lose their lustre in a few days.

Question 3.
How many products are formed in each of the above reactions?
Answer:
A single product is formed in each of the above reaction.

Use your brain power! (Text Book Page No. 39)

Question 1.
What is the difference in the process of dissolution and a chemical reaction.
Answer:
In the process of dissolution, new substance is not necessarily formed. Whereas in a chemical reaction a new substance is definitely formed.

Question 2.
Does a new substance form when a solute dissolves in a solvent?
Answer:
It is not necessary that a new substance is always formed.

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and……..are formed.
Answer:
Organic waste is decomposed by micro-organism and as a result manure and bio gas are formed.

Question 2.
……….is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.
Answer:
Alcohol is formed on mixing yeast in glucose solution under proper condition.

Question 3.
The chemical reaction during which H_2(g) is lost is termed as………
Answer:
The chemical reaction during which H_2(g) s lost is termed as oxidation.

Question 4.
Corrosion can be prevented by using………
Answer:
Corrosion can be prevented by using antirust solution.

Question 5.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called………..reactions.
Answer:
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.

Question 6.
The chemical formula of rust is………
Answer:
The chemical formula of rust is Fe₂O₃.H₂O.

Question 7.
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called………reaction.
Answer:
A reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction.

Question 8.
The process of rusting or iron is………process.
Answer:
The process of rusting of iron is oxidation process.

Question 9.
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become ……….
Answer:
when oil and fats are oxidised or even allowed to stand in air for a long time, they become rancid.

Question 10.
……… are used to prevent oxidation of food.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food.

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a………reaction.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is passed through water. The reaction is a combination reaction.

Question 12.
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a………..reaction.
Answer:
Calcium carbonate is heated. The reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 13.
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO₄ solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Zinc strip is dipped in a CuSO₄ solution. The reaction is a displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a……….reaction.
Answer:
Silver nitrate solution is added to NaCl solution. The reaction is a double displacement reaction.

Question 15.
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as……….
Answer:
The slow process of decay or destruction of a metal due to effect of air, moisture and acids on it is known as corrosion.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The reaction of iron nail with copper sulphate solution is………reaction. (March 2019)
(a) double displacement
(b) displacement
(c) combination
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(b) displacement

Question 2.
Reddish brown deposit formed on iron nails kept in a solution of copper sulphate is
(a) Cu₂O
(b) Cu
(c) CuO
(d) CuS
Answer:
(b) Cu

Question 3.
The reaction CuSO_4(aq) + Zn_(s) → ZnSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) is a……..reaction.
(a) displacement
(b) double displacement
(c) decomposition
(d) combination
Answer:
(a) displacement

Question 4.
………is a combination reaction.
(a) Cu + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂
(b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl
(c) \(2 \mathrm{HgO} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}+\mathrm{O}_{2}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
Answer:
(b) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

Question 5.
………..a decomposition reaction.
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)
(b) H₂O + CO₂ → H₂CO₃
(c) CaS + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂S
(d) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Answer:
(a) \(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}+\mathrm{CO}_{2}\)

Question 6.
In a chemical equation the……….are written on the left hand side.
(a) products
(b) reactants
(c) catalysts
(d) elements
Answer:
(b) reactants

Question 7.
The Δ sign written above the arrow indicates………..of the reaction.
(a) reactant
(b) product
(c) heat
(d) direction of the reaction
Answer:
(c) heat

Question 8.
The reaction KNO_3(S) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq) is a/an……….reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 9.
The reaction NaOH_(S) + H₂O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) is a/an……..reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) oxidation
(d) reduction
Answer:
(a) exothermic

Question 10.
A solution of Al₂(SO₄)₃ in water is……….
(a) blue
(b) pink
(c) green
(d) colourless
Answer:
(d) colourless

Question 11.
Carbon dioxide………..
(a) turns lime water milky
(b) is odourless
(c) is colourless
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Answer:
(d) All the three (a), (b) and (c) are correct

Question 12.
……….is the correct set up to pass CO₂ through lime water.

Answer:
Correct set up D.

Question 13.
when……..is passed through fresh lime water, it turns milky.
(a) H₂
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) SO₂
Answer:
(c) CO₂

Question 14.
Magnesium reacts with con. HCl to form………..salt.
(a) copper chloride
(b) ferrous chloride
(c) calcium chloride
(d) magnesium chloride
Answer:
(d) magnesium chloride

Question 15.
Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid. The reaction is a reaction.
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) double decomposition
Answer:
(c) displacement

Question 16.
In a double displacement reaction,………… (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
(a) ions remain at rest
(b) ions get liberated
(c) ions are exchanged
(d) ions are not created
Answer:
(c) ions are exchanged

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Rusting of iron is a fast reaction.
Answer:
False. (Rusting of iron is a slow reaction.)

Question 2.
Milk is set into curd is a chemical change.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The reaction between salt and water is an example of exothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (The reaction between salt and water is an example of endothermic reaction.)

Question 4.
The speed of a chemical reaction depends on the catalyst used in the chemical reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The simple form of representation of a chemical reaction in words is known as word reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing the symbol of oxygen.
Answer:
False. (Nascent oxygen is always denoted by showing symbol of oxygen [0] in square brackets.)

Question 7.
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation or food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
When oils and fats are allowed to stand for a long time, they become rancid.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The chemical formula of rust is Fe₃O₄ .xH₂O.
Answer:
False. (The chemical formula or rust is Fe₂O₃ .xH₂O.)

Question 10.
Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an endothermic reaction.
Answer:
False. (Glucose combines with oxygen in our body and provides energy. The reaction is an exothermic reaction.)

Question 11.
Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are reduction reactions.
Answer:
False. (Chemical reactions in which reactants gain oxygen are oxidation reactions.)

Question 12.
CuSO_4(aq) + Znl_(s) → ZnlSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s) is an example of decomposition reaction.
Answer:
False. (It is an example of displacement reaction.)

Question 13.
The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called endothermic reactions.
Answer:
False. (The chemical reactions in which heat is liberated are called exothermic reactions.)

Question 14.
The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow pointing upwards.
Answer:
False. (The product or insoluble solid in chemical reaction is indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing downwards.)

Question 15.
The rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
The digestion of food is a chemical decomposition process.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a slow reaction.
Answer:
False (The reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid is a fast reaction.)

Question 18.
When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes into calcium oxide and oxygen gas.
Answer:
False (when calcium carbonate is heated. it decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide gas.

Question 19.
The rate of a chemical reaction changes in presence of catalyst.
Answer:
True.

Question 20.
Chlorines is an oxidant.
Answer:
True.

Taking into consideration the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair. (OR) Complete the following:

Question 1.
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O Combination reaction :: 2HgO → 2Hg + O₂ :……….
Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Question 2.
NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl : Combination reaction :: Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu :……..
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 3.
2C₂H₅OH + 2Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂ : Oxidation :: CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O :……….
Answer:
Reduction

Question 4.
CuCl₂ + 2KI → CuI₂ + 2KCl : Double displacement :: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ :……….
Answer:
Displacement reaction

Question 5.

Answer:
Combination reaction

Question 6.
CuI₂ : Brown :: AgCl :……….
Answer:
White.

Match the column in the following table:

Question 1.

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S	NaCl + H2O	Oxidation
CuSO4 + Zn	2CuO	Neutralization
2Cu + O2	ZnSO4 + Cu	Displacement
HCl + NaOH	FeS	Combination

Answer:

Reactants	products	Type of chemical reaction
Fe + S	FeS	Combination
CuSO4 + Zn	ZnSO4 + Cu	Displacement
2Cu + O2	2CuO	Oxidation
HCl + NaOH	NaCl + H2O	Neutralization

Rewrite the second column so as to match the item from first column or Match the following:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
1. Reduction	(a) Type of a chemical reaction
2. Oxidation	(b) Combination with hydrogen
3. Double displacement	(c) Losing hydrogen
4. Displacement	(d) Exchange of ions

Answer:
(1) Reduction – Combination with hydrogen
(2) Oxidation – Losing hydrogen
(3) Double displacement – Exchange of ions
(4) Displacement – Type of chemical reaction.

Question 2.

Column I	Column II
1. Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time	(a) Slow  reaction
2. NaOH dissolves in water	(b) Rancid
3. Zinc is added to CuSO4 solution	(c) Exothermic reaction
4. Rusting of water	(d) Colourless Solution

Answer:
(1) Oils and fats are allowed to stand in air for a long time – Rancid
(2) NaOH dissolves in water – Exothermic reaction
(3) Zinc is added to CuSO₂ solution – Colourless solution
(4) Rusting of iron – Slow reaction.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) Combination reaction – 2Cu +O₄ → 2CuO
(2) Double displacement reaction – AgNO₃ + NaCl → AgCl ↓ + NaNO₃
(3) Decomposition reaction – \(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{g})}\)
(4) Displacement reaction – Zn+ 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑

Classify each of the following reactions as combination, decomposition, displacement or double displacement reactions:

Answer:
Combination reaction

Answer:
Decomposition reaction

Answer:
Displacement reaction

Answer:
double displacement reaction

Answer:
Combination reaction

Answer:
double displacement reaction

Name the following:

Question 1.
The product formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.
Answer:
Carbon is formed in the thermal decomposition of sugar.

Question 2.
The gas evolved when sorghum metal reacts with ethanol.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H₂) gas is evolved when sodium metal reacts with ethanol.

Question 3.
The precipitate formed when barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphate.
Answer:
When barium sulphide reacts with zinc sulphide, a precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
\(\mathrm{BaS}+\mathrm{ZnSO}_{4} \longrightarrow \underset{\text { precipitate }}{\mathrm{BaSO}_{4}}+\mathrm{ZnS}\)

Question 4.
The reducing agent used for the reduction of copper oxide.
Answer:
Hydrogen is used for the reduction of copper oxide.

Question 5.
The catalyst used to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
Answer:
Manganese dioxide (MnO₂) is used as a catalyst to accelerate the rate of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.

Question 6.
which oxidising agent is used to oxidise ferrous sulphate.
Answer:
Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is used as an oxidising agent to oxidise ferrous sulphate.

Question 7.
The product formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Acetic acid is formed in the oxidation of ethyl alcohol.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
what is meant by a chemical equation?
Answer:
The simple representation or a chemical reaction in a condensed form with the help of chemical formulae is called a chemical equation.

Question 2.
what is meant by a word equation?
Answer:
The simple form or representation or a chemical reaction in words is known as word equation.

Question 3.
what happens in a combination reaction?
Answer:
A single compound (product) is formed from two or more substances during a combination reaction.

Question 4.
what happens in a displacement reaction?
Answer:
In a displacement reaction. a more reactive element displaces another element, having less reactivity, from its compound.

Question 5.
what happens in a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
A single substance is broken down and two or more substances are formed during a decomposition reaction.

Question 6.
what happens in a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
A precipitate is formed by exchange of ions between the reactants during a double displacement reaction.

Question 7.
IdentIry the type of following reaction:
\(\mathrm{C}_{12} \mathrm{H}_{22} \mathrm{O}_{11} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 12 \mathrm{C}+11 \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\) (Practice Activity Sheet – 2)
Answer:
The above reaction is a decomposition reaction.

Question 8.
what happens in an endothermic reaction?
Answer:
In an endothermic reaction, the reactants absorb heat to form products.

Question 9.
State the use of antioxidants in food containing fats and oils.
Answer:
Antioxidants are used to prevent oxidation of food containing fats and oils.

Question 10.
What are edible oils?
Answer:
Edible oils are compounds of alcohols and organic acids (carboxylic acids). The compounds formed are known as esters of carboxylic acids.

Question 11.
Is rancidity a phenomenon of oxidation or reduction?
Answer:
Rancidity is a phenomenon of oxidation.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do you understand by a physical change?
OR
Define physical change.
Answer:
The change in which only the physical state of a substance is changed; no new substance is formed. This change is temporary. During this change the composition of the substance does not change.

Question 2.
Explain giving two examples or physical change.
Answer:
(1) Conversion of ice into water is a physical change. On heating, ice melts into water. when the water is cooled, it freezes into ice. Thus, we get ice from water by a simple method and no new substance is formed. Hence, conversion of ice into water is a physical change.

(2) Magnetization of iron nail is a physical change. An iron nail magnetized by induction loses its magnetism as soon as it is detached from the magnet which induces magnetism in it. An iron nail magnetized by some other methods can also be demagnetized by simple means such as hammering or heating it. Thus, the magnetization of an iron nail can be easily reversed to get original nail. Hence, it is a physical change.

Question 3.
what do you understand by a chemical change?
OR
Define Chemical change.
Answer:
The change in which a substance or substances are converted into a new substance or substances, possessing properties altogether different from the original ones, is called a chemcial change. During this change, the original substance cannot be recovered by any simple means. This change is permanent.

Question 4.
Explain giving two examples of chemical change.
Answer:
(1) When carbon is burnt, carbon dioxide is formed. In this process carbon combines with oxygen, therefore carbon and oxygen are reactants, while curbon dioxide is a product. This change is permanent.
\(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)

(2) When a magnesium wire is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed. We cannot obtain magnesium from magnesium oxide by simple methods. Properties of magnesium oxide are altogether different from those of magnesium. A new substance MgO is formed in the reaction. Hence, this change is a chemical change.
\(\begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{Mg} \\
\text { Magnesium }
\end{array}+\mathrm{O}_{2} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} \begin{array}{c}
2 \mathrm{MgO} \\
\text { Magnesium oxide }
\end{array}\)

Question 5.
What is meant by a chemical reaction?
Answer:
A process in which some substances undergo bond breaking and are transformed into new substances by formation of new bonds is called a chemical reaction.

Question 6.
What is the importance of a chemical equation?
Answer:

1. Reactants are converted into products.
2. Mass is conserved.
3. Atoms are conserved.
4. The properties and compositions of the products of a chemical reaction are different from those of its reactants.
5. Generally, energy is either absorbed or evolved.

Question 7.
What are the conventions used in writing a chemical equation?
Answer:
Conventions used in writing a chemical equation:
(1) The reactants are written on the left hand side (LHS), while the products are written on the right hand side (RHS).

(2) Whenever there are two or more reactants, a plus sign (+) is written between each two of them. Similarly, if there are two or more products, a plus sign is written between each two of them.

(3) Reactant side and product side are connected with an arrow (→) pointing from reactants to products. The arrow represents the direction of the reaction. Heat is to be given from outside to the reaction, it is indicated by the sign Δ written above the arrow.

(4) The conditions like temperature, pressure, catalyst, etc., are mentioned above the arrow (→) pointing towards the product side.

(5) The physical states of the reactants and products are also mentioned in a chemical equation. The notations g, l, s, and aq are written in brackets as a subscript along with the symbols / formulae of reactants and products. The symbols g, l, s, and aq stand for gaseous, 1iquid. solid and aqueous respectively.

If the product is gaseous, instead of (g) it can be indicated by an arrow ↑ pointing upwards. If the product formed is insoluble solid, then instead of (s) it can be indicated by an arrow ↓ pointing downwards.

(6) Special information or names of reactants/products are written below their formulae.

Write the balanced equations for the following reactions:

Question 1.
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + H₂O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + H₂O

Step 2:
write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
Ba	1	1
Br	1	2
O	2	1
H	3	2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 [in Ba(OH)2]	1 (in H2O)
To balance	2	1 × 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of H₂O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation become as follows
Ba(OH)₂ + HBr → BaBr₂ + 2H₂O

Step 4:
Now, balance the number of hydrogen atoms.
In the partly balanced equation:

Number of atoms of hydrogen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 [in Ba(OH)2] 1 (in HBr)	4 (in 2H2O)
To balance	1 × 2 + 2	4

To equalise the number of hydrogen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of HBr in the reactants. Now, the equation becomes
Ba(OH)₂ + 2HBr → BaBr₂ + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms or each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both
sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
Ba(OH)₂ + 2HBr → BaBr₂ +2H₂O
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and products.
Ba(OH)_2(aq) + 2HBr_(aq) → BaBr_2(aq) +2H₂O_(l)

Question 2.
KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + HCN
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + HCN

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element or group in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
K	1	2
CN (group)	1	1
O	4	4
H	2	1
S	1	1

The number of oxygen atoms involved in different compounds on both sides (reactants and products) are equal. Therefore, balance the number of atoms of the second element, potassium.

Step 3:
To balance K atoms:

Number of atoms of Potassium	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 (KCN)	2 (in K2SO4)
To balance	1 × 2	2

To equalise the number of potassium atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of KCN in the reactants.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
2KCN + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2HCN
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is
2KCN + H₂SO₄ → KgSO₄ + 2HCN
Now indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
2KCN_(aq) + H₂SO_4(aq) → K₂SO_4(aq) + 2HCN_(g)

Question 3.
CH₄ + O₂ → 4CO₂ + H₂O
Answer:
Step 1:
Rewrite the given equation as it is
CH₄ + O₂ → 4CO₂ + H₂O

Step 2:
Write the number of atoms of each element in the unbalanced equation on both sides of the equation.

Element	Number of atoms in reactants	Number of atoms in products
C	1	1
O	2	3
H	4	2

Step 3:
To balance the number of oxygen atoms:

Number of atoms of oxygen	In reactants	In products
To begin with	2 (in O2)	1 (in H2O) 2 (in CO2)
To balance	2 × 2	1 × 2 + 2

To equalise the number of oxygen atoms, we use 2 as the coefficient of O₂ in the reactants and 2 as the coefficient of H₂O in the product.
Now, the partly balanced equation becomes
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
Now, count the atoms of each element on both sides of the equation. The number of atoms on both sides are equal. Hence, the balanced equation is,
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
Now, indicate the physical states of the reactants and the products.
CH_4(g) + 2O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
what are the different types of chemical reaction?
Answer:
Types of chemical reaction

1. Combination reaction
2. Decomposition reaction
3. Displacement reaction
4. Double displacement reaction.

Question 2.
What is meant by a combination reaction?
OR
Define: combination reaction.
Answer:
When two or more reactants combine in a reaction to form a single product, it is called a combination reaction.

Question 3.
Give two examples of combination reaction.
Answer:
Examples of combination reaction :
(1) The ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas to form the salt in gaseous state, immediately it condenses at room temperature and gets transformed into the solid state.

(2) Magnesium burns in air to form white powder of magnesium oxide as a single product.

(3) Iron reacts with sulphur to form iron sulphide.

Question 4.
What Is meant by a decomposition reaction?
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which two or more products are formed from a single reactant is called decomposition reaction.

Question 5.
what is meant by a thermal decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by heating it to a high temperature is called thermal decomposition.

Question 6.
What is meant by a electrolytic decomposition?
Answer:
The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 7.
Give two examples of thermal decomposition.
Answer:
(1) At high temperature, calcium carbonate decomposes into calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

(2) At high temperature sugar decomposes into black mass of carbon and water vapour.

Question 8.
Give an example of electrolytic decomposition.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidified water, it is electrolysed giving hydrogen
and oxygen.

Question 9.
Study the following reaction and answer the questions asked.

(a) State the type of reaction.
(b) Define this reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 1)
Answer:
(a) The type of reaction is electrolytic decomposition reaction.
(b) The reaction in which a compound is decomposed by passing an electric current through its solution or molten mass is called an electrolytic decomposition.

Question 10.
what is meant by a displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Question 11.
Give an example of displacement reaction.
Answer:
when zinc granules are added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the zinc ions formed from zinc atoms take the place or Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive zinc displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate.

Question 12.
Observe the reaction and answer the following questions.
CuSO_4(aq) + Fe_(s) → FeSO_4(aq) + Cu_(s)
(a) Identify and write the type of chemical reaction.
(b) write the definition of above reaction. (Practice Activity Sheet – 3)
Answer:
(a) When iron powder is added to the blue coloured copper sulphate solution, the iron ions formed from iron atoms take the place or Cu²⁺ ions in CuSO₄, and copper atoms, formed from Cu²⁺ ions comes out i.e. the more reactive iron displaces the less reactive Cu from copper sulphate. Therefore this reaction is a displacement reaction.

(b) The reaction in which the place of the ion of a less reactive element in a compound is taken by another more reactive element by formation of its own ions, is called displacement reaction.

Question 13.
what is meant by a double displacement reaction?
Answer:
The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.

Question 14.
Give two examples of double displacement reaction.
Answer:
(1) Solutions of sodium chloride and silver nitrate react with each other forming a precipitate of silver chloride and a solution of sodium nitrate.

White precipitate of AgCl is formed by exchange of ions Ag⁺ and Cl^– between the reactants.

(2) Barium suiphide reacts with zinc sulphate to form zinc sulphide and a white precipitate of barium sulphate.

white precipitate is formed by exchange of ions Ba⁺⁺ and SO₄^— between the reactants.

Question 15.
Write down what you understand from the following chemical reaction:
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl ↓ + NaNO_3(aq)
Answer:
(i) The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
(ii) AgNO₃ and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO₃ are the products.
(iii) The reactants and the product NaNO₃ are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 16.
Study the following chemical reaction and answer the questions given below:
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl_(s)↓ + NaNO_3(aq)
(i) Identiry and write the type of chemical reaction.
(ii) write the definition of above type of chemical reaction.
(iii) Write the names of reactants and products of above reaction. (March 2019)
Answer:
(i) The type of chemical reaction: Double displacement reaction.
(ii) The reaction in which the ions in the reactants are exchanged to form a precipitate is called double displacement reaction.
(iii)

1. The above reaction is a double displacement reaction.
2. AgNO₃ and NaCl are the reactants while AgCl and NaNO₃ are the products.
3. The reactants and the product NaNO₃ are in aqueous state. The product AgCl is formed in the form of precipitate.

Question 17.
When sodium chromate solution is mixed with barium sulphate solution, a precipitate is formed.
(i) What is the colour of the precipitate formed?
(ii) Name the precipitate.
(iii) What is the type of chemical reaction?
Answer:
(i) The colour of the precipitate is yellow.
(ii) The yellow precipitate formed is barium chromate.
(iii) The type of chemical reaction is double displacement.

Question 18.
Explain the term Exothermic reaction.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction : The process in which heat is given out is called an exothermic reaction.
When NaOH_(s) dissolves in water, there is evolution of heat leading to a rise in temperature.
NOH_(s) + H₃O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) + Heat

Question 19.
State whether the following reactions are exothermic or endothermic:
(i) 3CaO. Al₂O_3(s) + 6H₂O_(l) → 3CaO. Al₂O₃. 6H₂O_(s) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(ii) 2CaSO₄. H₂O + 3H₂O → 2CaSO₄. 2H₂O + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(iii) KNO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l) + Heat → KNO_3(aq)
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(iv) NaOH_(s) + H₂O_(l) → NaOH_(aq) + Heat
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(v) Transformation of ice into water.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(vi) Water turns into ice.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

(vii) Cooking of food.
Answer:
Endothermic reaction

(viii) Burning candle.
Answer:
Exothermic reaction

Question 20.
What do you mean by slow speed reaction?
OR
Define: Slow speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.

Question 21.
What do you mean by fast speed reaction?
OR
Define: Fast speed reaction.
Answer:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e. occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.

Question 22.
Give two examples of slow speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.

This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.

Question 23.
Give two examples of fast speed reactions.
Answer:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH_2(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.
NaCl_(aq) + AgNO_3(aq) → NaNO_3(aq) + AgCl ↓
This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Question 24.
Write a short note on slow speed and fast speed reactions.
Answer:
Slow speed reaction:
The reaction which requires long time for completion i.e. occurs slowly is called slow speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) it decomposes slowly into potassium chloride and oxygen gas.

This reaction requires long time for completion, therefore it is slow speed reaction.

(2) Rusting of iron is a slow speed reaction. In this reaction iron reacts with oxygen from air to form iron oxide.

This reaction requires long time for completion.

Fast speed reaction:
The reaction which is completed in short time i.e., occurs rapidly is called fast speed reaction.
Examples:
(1) The reaction between sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a neutralization reaction and it is fast speed reaction.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
This neutralizaton reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast speed reaction.

(2) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solution to form white precipitate of silver chloride (NaCl) and sodium nitrate.

This reaction is completed in short time, therefore it is fast reaction.

Question 25.
State the factors which affect the speed (or rate) of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors which affect the rate of a reaction are

1. Nature of the reactants.
2. Size of the particles of the reactants.
3. Concentration of the reactants.
4. Temperature of the reaction.
5. Catalyst.

Question 26.
How does the rate of reaction depend on the nature of the reactants? Illustrate with suitable example.
Answer:
(1) when the reactant combines with two or more other reactants then the rate of a chemical reaction depends on the nature of the reactants.

(2) Both Al and Zn reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid, H₂ gas is liberated and water soluble salts of these metals are formed. However, aluminium metal reacts faster with dil. HCl as compared to zinc metal.

(3) Al is more reactive than Zn. Therefore, the rate of reaction of Al with hydrochloric acid is higher than that of Zn. Hence, the nature of the reactant affect the rate of a reaction.

Question 27.
How does the rate of a reaction depend on the size of the particles of reactants?
Answer:
(1) In the reaction of dil. HCl and Shahabad tile, CO₂ effervescence is formed slowly. On the other hand, C₂ effervescence forms at faster speed with the powder of Shahabad tile.

(2) The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction depends upon the size of the particles of the reactants taking part in the reaction. Smaller the size of the reactant particles taking part in a reaction faster will be the rate of reaètion.

Question 28.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the concentration of the reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) A chemical reaction takes place due to collisions of the reactant molecules. Higher the concentrations of the reactants more will be the frequency of collisions and faster wifi be the rate of the reaction.

(2) In the reaction of dil. HCl and CaCO₃, CaCO₃ disappears slowly and CO₂ also liberates slowly. On the other hand the reaction with concentrated HCl takes place rapidly and CaCO₃ disappears fast.

(3) Concentrated acid reacts faster than dilute acid, that means the rate of a reaction is proportional to the concentration of reactants.

Slow reaction:
CaCO₃ + dli.2HCl → CaCl₂ + CO₂ + H₂O
Fast reaction:

Question 29.
How does the rate of a reaction depend upon the temperature of reactants? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(i) (1) When the temperature of the reactants is increased, the reactant molecules start moving with more velocity and their kinetic energy increases. As a result, the number collisions increases. Hence, the rate of chemical reaction increases.

(2) Lime stone on heating decomposes to give CO₂, which turns 1ime water milky. On the other hand, the lime water does not turn milky before heating the lime stone: because of the zero rate of reaction. The above observation indicates that the rate of a reaction increases on increasing the temperature.

(ii) Solid CaCO₃ does not decompose at room temperature when heated, it decomposes to give CaO and CO₂ that means the rise in temperature increases the rate of reaction. CaCO₃ room temperature No chemical reaction.

Question 30.
How does the rate if a reaction depend upon the catalyst? Give suitable example.
Answer:
(1) The substance in whose presence the rate of a chemical reaction changes, without causing any chemical change to it is called a catalyst.

(2) On heating potassium chlorate (KClO₃) decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen slowly.
\(2 \mathrm{KClO}_{3} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{KCl}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2}\)
The rate of the above reaction neither increases by reducing the particle size nor by increasing the reaction temperature. However in the presence of manganese dioxide, KClO₃ decomposes at a comparatively lower temperature and oxygen is produced more briskly. No chemical change takes place in MnO₂ in this reaction. It acts as catalyst.

Question 31.
State the Importance of rate in a chemical reaction.
Answer:

1. The use of strong acid and strong base in a chemical reaction increases the rate of reaction.
2. In a chemical reaction, if the smaller size of the reactant particles, the concentrated solution, high temperature and use of catalyst increases the rate of chemical reaction.
3. The rate of chemical reaction is important with respect to environment.
4. If the rate of chemimal reaction is fast it is profitable for the chemical factories.
5. The ozone layer in the earth’s atmosphere protects the life of earth from the ultraviolet radiation of the sun. The process of depletion or maintenance of this layer depends upon the rate of production or destruction of ozone molecules.

Question 32.
Define Oxidation reaction.
Answer:
Oxidation: The chemical reaction in which a reactant combines with oxygen or loses hydrogen to form the product is called oxidation reaction.

Question 33.
Give examples of oxidation.
Answer:
(1) when carbon burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide. In this reaction carbon accepts oxygen, therefore, this is an oxidation reaction.
C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

(2) when sodium reacts with ethyl alcohol, sodium ethoxide and hydrogen gas is formed. In this reaction, hydrogen is removed from ethyl alcohol, therefore this is an oxidation reaction.

(3) Acidified potassium dichromate: (K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄) oxidises ethly alcohol to acetic acid.

Question 34.
What do you mean by oxidant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about an oxidation reaction by making oxygen available are called oxidants or oxidizing agents.

1. In the combustion of carbon, oxygen is an oxidant.
2. In the oxidation of ethly alcohol, potassium dichromate is used as oxidant.

Question 35.
Name the various oxidants. How nascent oxygen is liberated from these oxidants?
Answer:
K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄, KMnO₄/H₂SO₄ are the commonly used chemical oxidants. Hydrogen peroxide (H₂O₂) is used as a mild oxidant. Ozone (O₃) is also a chemical oxidant. Nascent oxygen is generated by chemical oxidants and it is used for the oxidation reaction.
O₃ → O₂ + [O].
H₂O₂ → H₂O + [O]
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 4H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + 4H₂O + 3[O]
2KMnO₄ + 3H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 3H₂O + 5[O]
Nascent oxygen is a state prior to the formation of the O₂ molecule. It is the reactive form of oxygen and is represented by the symbol as [O]

Question 36.
Acidified potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is a chemical oxidant and explain, how acidified potassium permanganate oxidise ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄). Accordingly write a new definition of oxidation and reduction.
Answer:
Acidified KMnO4 oxidises ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄) to ferric sulphate Fe₂(SO₄)₃ and in addition to above K₂SO₄ and MnSO₄ by-products are formed.
2KMnO₄ + 10 FeSO₄ → 8H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 5Fe₂(SO₄)₃ + 8H₂O
2FeSO₄ → Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Ionic reaction :
2Fe₂ + 2SO₄²⁺ → 2Fe³⁺ + 3SO₂^2-
Net Ionic equation Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺ + e^–
When ferric ion is formed from ferrous ion the positive change is increased by one unit. While this happens the rerrous ion loses one electron.

When metal or its ion loses electron, it is called an oxidation and gain of electron is called reduction.

Question 37.
Define reduction reaction.
Answer:
The chemical reaction in which a reactant gains hydrogen and loses oxygen to form the product is called the reduction reaction.

Question 38.
Give two examples of reduction.
Answer:
(1) When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.
In this reaction an oxygen atom removed from CuO to form copper, hence, this is reduction.

(2) When hydrogen gas is passed over red hot coke, methane is obtained.
Here, hydrogen is added to coke (carbon). Hence, this is reduction.

Question 39.
What do you mean by reductant? Explain with suitable example.
Answer:
The chemical substances which bring about reduction by making hydrogen available are called reductant. In the preparation of methane from carbon, hydrogen is a reductant.

Question 40.
What are redox reactions? Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions:
(1) 2H₂S_2(g) + SO_2(g) → 3S_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)
(2) CuO_(s) + H_2(g) → CU_(s) + H₂O_(l)

Answer:
When oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously in a given chemical reaction, it is known as a redox reaction.
(1)

H₂S is oxidised and SO₂ is reduced.

(2)

CuO is reduced and H₂ is oxidised.

(3)

(1) Oxidation: H₂S, H₂O and HCl.
(2) Reduction: SO₂, CuO and MnO₂

Question 41.
Observe the following reaction and answer the questions given below:
BaSO₄ + 4C → BaS + 4CO
(1) what type of reaction is it? Justify.
(2) Give one more example.
Answer:
(1) This is a redox reaction. In this reaction the reduction of BaSO4 and oxidation of carbon take place simultaneously.

(2) Example
CuO+H₂ → Cu + H₂O
2H₂S + SO₂ → 3S + 2H₂O

Question 42.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation of metals due to various components of atmosphere is known as corrosion.
Iron rusts and a reddish coloured layer is collected on it. This is corrosion of iron.

Question 43.
How does rusting of iron occur?
Answer:
Iron when exposed to moist air forms a reddish layer of hydrated ferric oxide.

Question 44.
How can corrosion be prevented?
Answer:

1. Corrosion damages buildings, bridges, automobiles, ships, iron railings and other articles made of iron.
2. It can be prevented by using an anti-rust solution, coating the surface by a paint, processes like galvanising and electroplating with other metals.

Question 45.
What is corrosion? Do gold ornaments corrode? Justify.
Answer:
The slow process of decay or oxidation or metal due to the effect of air, moisture and acids on
it is known as corrosion.
(1) Gold is a noble metal. There is no effect or moist air or action of acid on it at any temperature.
(2) Pure gold is a very soft metal. it breaks and gets bent easily. Hence, in gold ornaments, gold is alloyed with other metals 1ike copper or silver in appropriate proportion to make it hard and resistant to corrosion. Hence gold ornaments do not get corroded.

Question 46.
Complete the process of iron rusting by filling the blanks. Suggest a way to prohibit the process.
The iron rust is formed due to reaction. Different regions on iron surface become anode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
Reaction on cathode region:
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) +………→ 2H₂O_(l)
when Fe²⁺ ions migrate from anode region they react with……..to fomm Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hytirated oxide is formed from……….ions. It is called rust.
2Fe³⁺ _(aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → +………+ 6H⁺ _(aq)
A way to prevent rusting………..
(Practice Activity Sheer – 2)
Answer:
The iron rust is formed due to electrochemical reaction. Different regions on iron surface become unode and cathode.
Reaction on anode region:
Fe_(s) → Fe²⁺ _(aq) + 2e^–
Reaction on cathode region:
O_2(g) + 4H⁺ _(aq) + 4e^– → 2H₂O_(l)
when Fe²⁺ ions migrate from anode region they react with water to form Fe³⁺ ions.
A reddish coloured hydrated oxide is formed from Fe³⁺ ions. It is called rust.
2Fe³⁺ (aq) + 4H₂O_(l) → + Fe₂O₃. H₂O_(s) + 6H⁺_(aq)
A way to prevent rusting by colouring with acrylic paints, Zn plating, galvanizing, anodizing, alloying, etc.

Question 17.
Deifne: Rancidity.
Answer:
When oil or fat or left over cooking oil for making food stuff undergoes oxidation ir stored for a long time and it is found to have foul odour called rancidity.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Combination reaction and Decomposition reaction.

Combination reaction	Decomposition reaction
1. In a combination re­action, two or more reactants take part in the chemical reaction.	1. In a decomposition reaction there is only one reactant in the chemical reaction.
1. In the combination reaction, only one product is formed.	2. In a decomposition reaction, two or more products are formed.

Question 2.
Oxidation and reduction
Answer:

Oxidation	Reduction
1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain oxygen or lose hydrogen is called oxidation.	1. The chemical reaction in which reactants gain hydrogen or lose oxygen is called reduction.
2. A reducing agent undergoes oxidation.	2. An oxidising agent undergoes reduction.

Question 3.
Exothermic and Endothermic reaction.
Answer:

Exothermic reaction	Endothermic reaction
1. The reaction in which heat is evolved is called an exothermic reaction.	1. The reaction in which heat is absorbed is called an endothermic reaction.
2. The evolution of heat leads to a rise in the temperature of the solution.	2. The absorption of heat leads to a fall in the temperature of the solution.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.
Answer:

• Grills of doors and windows are made from iron. Iron has a tendency to undergo corrosion.
• Paint does not allow air or moisture to come in contact with iron surface.
  Therefore, to prevent rusting of iron. grills of doors and windows are always painted before they are used.

Question 2.
Physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.
Answer:
(1) while writing a chemical equation, gaseous, 1iquid and solid states are symbolised as (g), (l) and (s) respectively.

(2) This is done to make it more informative and to emphasise that those reactions occur in that manner only under those conditions. Hence, physical states of reactants and products are mentioned while writing a chemical equation.

Question 3.
Iron articles rust readily whereas steel which is also mainly made of iron does not undergo corrosion.
Answer:
(1) Iron articles rust readily as iron reacts with oxygen and moisture of air to convert into its hydroxide and oxide (Fe₂O₃. x H₂O), while steel is an alloy of iron, carbon and chromium.

(2) The properties of an alloy are different from the properties of its constituents. The added metals increase its resistance to corrosion. It is more durable and clean.

Question 4.
Concentrated hydrochloric acid reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate than dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:

1. The rate of a reaction increases with the concentration of the reactant.
2. As concentrated hydrochloric acid contains more number of HCl molecules than those in an equal volume of dilute HCl, concentrated HCl reacts more vigorously with calcium carbonate.

Question 5.
Zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H₂SO₄ than does granulated zinc of the Same mass.
Answer:
(1) In a reaction. the rate of the reaction depends upon the particle size of the solid reactant as the reaction takes place on the surface only. Smaller the particles are, the more will be their total surface area and faster will be the rate of the reaction.
(2) Hence, zinc powder reacts much faster with dil. H₂SO₄ than does granulated zinc.

Question 6.
When copper articles exposed to air for a long time, gets corroded.
Answer:
Copper oxidises to form black coloured laver of copper oxide. when copper oxide combines with carbon dioxide from air, copper loses its lustre due to formation of greenish layer of copper carbonate on its surface. Thus, copper articles exposed to air for a long time get corroded.

Question 7.
When silver vessels exposed to air turns blackish after sometime.
Answer:
On exposure to air, silver vessels turns blackish after sometime. This is because of the layer of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) formed by the reaction or silver with hydrogen suphide in air.

Explain the following reactions giving their balanced chemical equations:

Question 1.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is heated at high temperature it decomposes to form quicklime and carbon dioxide gas.

Question 2.
Copper reacts with dil. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with dil. nitric acid, nitric oxide gas is formed.

Question 3.
Copper reacts with conc. nitric acid.
Answer:
When copper reacts with conc. nitric acid, reddish coloured poisonous nitrogen dioxide gas is formed.

Question 4.
Ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas.
Answer:
When ammonia gas reacts with hydrogen chloride gas, it forms the salt ammonium chloride in gaseous state, but immediately it got transformed into the solid state.

Question 5.
Magnesium strip is burnt in air.
Answer:
When magnesium strip is burnt in air, a white powder of magnesium oxide is formed.

Question 6.
Calcium oxide is mixed with water.
Answer:
When calcium oxide (slaked lime) is mixed with water, calcium hydroxide is formed with evolution of large amount of heat.

Question 7.
Sugar is heated.
Answer:
When sugar is heated, it decomposes to form carbon (black substance).

Question 8.
Electric current is passed through acidulated water.
Answer:
When an electric current is passed through acidulated water, it decomposes into hydrogen and
oxygen gas.

Question 9.
Zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When zinc powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive zinc displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate solution. The colourless zinc sulphate is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 10.
Iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When iron powder is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive iron displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless ferrous sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 11.
Lead is added to copper sulphate solution.
Answer:
When lead is added to copper sulphate solution, more reactive lead displaces less reactive copper from copper sulphate. The colourless lead sulphate solution is formed with evolution of heat.

Question 12.
Potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution.
Answer:
When potassium chromate solution is added to barium sulphate solution, yellow precipitate of barium chromate is formed.

Question 13.
Calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution.
Answer:
When calcium chloride solution is added to sodium carbonate solution, white precipitate of calcium carbonate is formed.

Question 14.
Sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution.
Answer:
When sodium chloride solution is mixed with silver nitrate solution, white precipitate or silver chloride is formed.

Question 15.
Dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution.
Answer:
When dilute sulphuric acid is added to barium chloride solution, white precipitate of barium sulphate is rormed.

Question 16.
Calcium carbonate (Lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When calcium carbonate (lime stone) is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid, carbon dioxide gas is formed.

Question 17.
Aluminium is treated with dil. hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When aluminium is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.

Question 18.
Magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
When magnesium is treated with hydrochloric acid, hydrogen gas is liberated.

Question 19.
Hydrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO₂).
Answer:
When hvdrogen peroxide is decomposed in the presence of manganese dioxide (MnO₂), water and oxygen are formed.

Question 20.
Ethyl alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dlchromate.
Answer:
When ethly alcohol is treated with acidified potassium dichromate, acetic acid is formed. This is oxidation reaction.

Question 21.
Hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide.
Answer:
When hydrogen gas is passed over black copper oxide, a reddish coloured layer of copper is formed.