Category: Class 11

Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 5 Cell Structure and Organization Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A)
Growth of cell wall during cell elongation takes place by ………….
(a) Apposition
(b) Intussusception
(c) Both a & b
(d) Superposition

Question (B)
Cell Membrane is composed of
(a) Proteins and cellulose
(b) Proteins and Phospholipid
(c) Proteins and carbohydrates
(d) Proteins, Phospholipid and some carbohydrates
Answer:
(d) Proteins, Phospholipid and some carbohydrates

Question (C)
Plasma membrane is Fluid structure due to presence of
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Lipid
(C) Glycoprotein
(D) Polysaccharide
Answer:
(B) Lipid

Question (D)
Cell Wall is present in
(a) Plant cell
(b) Prokaryotic cell
(c) Algal cell
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question (E)
Plasma membrane is
(a) Selectively permeable
(b) Permeable
(c) Impermeable
(d) Semipermeable
Answer:
(a) Selectively permeable

Question (F)
Mitochondria DNA is
(a) Naked
(b) Circular
(c) Double stranded
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question (G)
Which of the following set of organelles contain DNA?
(a) Mitochondria, Peroxysome
(b) Plasma membrane, ribosome
(c) Mitochondria, chloroplast
(d) Chloroplast, dictyosome
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria, chloroplast

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Plants have no circulatory system? Then how cells manage intercellular transport?
Answer:
1. Plant cells show presence of plasmodesmata which are cytoplasmic bridges between neighbouring cells.
2. This open channel through the cell wall connects the cytoplasm of adjacent plant cells and allows water, small solutes, and some larger molecules to pass between the cells.
In this way, though plants have no circulatory system, plant cells manage intercellular transport.

Question (B)
Is nucleolus covered by membrane?
Answer:
A nucleolus is specialized structure present in the nucleus which is not covered by the membrane.

Question (C)
Fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson replaced Sandwich model proposed by Danielli and Davson? Why?
Answer:

1. The Davson-Danielli model of the plasma membrane of a cell, was proposed in 1935 by Hugh Davson and James Danielli.
2. The model describes a phospholipid bilayer that lies between two layers of globular proteins.
3. This model was also known as a Tipo-protein sandwich’, as the lipid layer was sandwiched between two protein layers.
4. But through experimental studies membrane proteins were discovered to be insoluble in water (representing hydrophobic surfaces) and varied in size. Such type of proteins would not be able to form an even and continuous layer around the outer surface of a cell membrane.
5. In case of Fluid-mosaic model, the experimental evidence from research supports every major hypothesis proposed by Singer and Nicolson.

This hypothesis stated that membrane lipids are arranged in a bilayer; the lipid bilayer is fluid; proteins are suspended individually in the bilayer; and the arrangement of both membrane lipids and proteins is asymmetric. Therefore, Fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson replaced Sandwich model proposed by Danielli and Davson.

Question (D)
The RBC surface normally shows glycoprotein molecules. When determining blood group do they
play any role?
Answer:

1. Glycoproteins are protein molecules modified within the Golgi complex by having a short sugar chain (polysaccharide) attached to them.
2. The polysaccharide part of glycoproteins located on the surfaces of red blood cells acts as the antigen responsible for determining the blood group of an individual.
3. Different polysaccharide part of glycoproteins act as different type of antigens that determine the blood groups.
4. Four types of blood groups A, B, AB, and O are recognized on the basis of presence or absence of these antigens.

Question (E)
How cytoplasm differs from nucleoplasm in chemical composition?
Answer:

1. A thick liquid enclosed by cell membrane which surrounds the central nucleus in eukaryotes or nucleoid region in prokaryotes is known as cytoplasm.
2. The cytoplasm shows presence of minerals, sugars, amino acids, t-RNA, nucleotides, vitamins, proteins and enzymes.
3. The liquid or semiliquid substance within the nucleus is called the nucleoplasm.
4. Nucleoplasm shows presence of various substances like nucleic acid, protein molecules, minerals and salts.

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Distinguish between smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer:
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER):
1. Depending on cell type, it helps in synthesis of lipids for e.g. Steroid secreting cells of cortical region of adrenal gland, testes and ovaries.
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in detoxification in the liver and storage of calcium ions (muscle cells).

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER):

1. Rough ER is primarily involved in protein synthesis. For e.g. Pancreatic cells synthesize the protein insulin in the ER.
2. These proteins are secreted by ribosomes attached to rough ER and are called secretory proteins. These proteins get wrapped in membrane that buds off from transitional region of ER. Such membrane bound proteins depart from ER as transport vesicles.
3. Rough ER is also involved in formation of membrane for the cell.

The ER membrane grows in place by addition of membrane proteins and phospholipids to its own membrane. Portions of this expanded membrane are transferred to other components of endomembrane system.

Question (B)
Why do we call mitochondria as power house of cell? Explain in detail.
(Hint: Refer chapter Cellular Respiration.)
OR
Mitochondria are power house of the cell. Give reasons.
Answer:
a. Mitochondria possess oxysomes on its inner membrane. These oxysomes take active part in synthesis of ATP molecules.
b. During cellular respiration, ATP molecules are produced and get accumulated in the mitochondria. They play an important role in cellular activities.
c. only mitochondria can convert pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water during cell respiration. Therefore, mitochondria are called ‘power house of the cell’.

Question (C)
What are the types of plastids?
Answer:
1. Plastids are classified according to the pigments present in it. Three main types of plastids are – leucoplasts, chromoplasts and chloroplasts.
2. Leucoplasts do not contain any photosynthetic pigments they are of various shapes and sizes. These are meant for storage of nutrients:
a. Amyloplasts store starch.
b. Elaioplasts store oils.
c. Aleuroplasts store proteins.

3. Chromoplasts contain pigments like carotene and xanthophyll etc.
a. They impart yellow, orange or red colour to flowers and fruits.
b. These plastids are found in the coloured parts of flowers and fruits.

4. Chloroplasts are plastids containing green pigment chlorophyll along with other enzymes that help in production of sugar by photosynthesis. They are present in plants, algae and few protists like Euglena.

Question 4.
Label the diagrams and write down the details of concept in your words.


Answer:
A.

B.

C.

D.

Structure of chloroplast:

1. In plants, chloroplast is found mainly in mesophyll of leaf.
2. Chloroplast is lens shaped but it can also be oval, spherical, discoid or ribbon like.
3. A cell may contain single large chloroplast as in Chlamydomonas or there can be 20 to 40 chloroplasts per cell as seen in mesophyll cells.
4. Chloroplasts contain green pigment called chlorophyll along with other enzymes that help in production of sugar by photosynthesis.
5. Inner membrane of double membraned chloroplast is comparatively less permeable.
6. Inside the cavity of inner membrane, there is another set of membranous sacs called thylakoids.
7. Thylakoids are arranged in the form of stacks called grana (singular: granum).
8. The grana are connected to each other by means of membranous tubules called stroma lamellae.
9. Space outside thylakoids is filled with stroma.
10. The stroma and the space inside thylakoids contain various enzymes essential for photosynthesis.
11. Stroma of chloroplast contains DNA and ribosomes (70S).

Question 5.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:

Question 6.
Identify labels A, B, C in the given diagram. Explain how lysosomes perform intracellular and extracellular digestion.

Answer:
1. A: Food vacuole
B: Golgi complex
C: Lysosome

2. Intracellular digestion:
The intracellular digestion is brought about by autophagic vesicle or secondary lysosomes which contain foreign materials brought in by processes like phagocytosis. E.g. Food vacuole in amoeba or macrophages in human blood that engulf and destroy harmful microbes that enter the body.

3. Extracellular digestion:
Extracellular digestion is brought about by release of lysosomal enzymes outside the cell. E.g. acrosome, a cap like structure in human sperm is a modified lysosome which contain various enzymes like Hyaluronidase. These enzymes bring about fertilization by dissolving protective layers of ovum.

Question 7.
Identify each cell structures or organelle from its description below.

1. Manufactures ribosomes
2. Carries out photosynthesis
3. Manufactures ATP in animal and plant cells.
4. Selectively permeable.

Answer:

1. Nucleolus
2. Chloroplast
3. Mitochondria
4. Plasma membrane

Question 8.
Onion cells have no chloroplast. How can we tell they are plants?
Answer:

1. The bulb of an onion is a modified form of leaves.
2. While photosynthesis takes place in the leaves (present above the ground) of an onion containing chloroplast, the little glucose that is produced from this process is converted in to starch (starch granules) and stored in the bulb.
3. Starch act as reserved food material in plants.
4. Using an iodine solution, we can test for the presence of starch in onion cells. If starch is present, the iodine changes from brown to blue-black or purple. Hence, we can say that though onion cells have no chloroplast they are considered as plants.

Project/ Practical:

Question 1.
Observe the cells of onion root tip under microscope.
Answer:
The cells of onion root tip will show various stages of cell division when observed under micrscope.

Question 2.
Observe the cells from buccal epithelium stained with Giemsa under microscope.
Answer:
The following observations are made when cells from buccal epithelium stained with Giemsa:
1. Cheek cells are flat and irregular in shape.
2. These cells lack cell wall. A distinct blue nucleus can be observed on viewing the cells under the microscope after Geimsa staining.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 5 Cell Structure and Organization Intext Questions and Answers

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 44)

(i) Who observed cells under the microscope for the first time?
Answer:
Robert Hooke observed cells under the microscope for the first time.
[Note. Cell walls were first observed by Robert Hooke (1665) as he looked through a microscope at dead cells from the bark of an oak tree. But Anton van Leeuwenhoek was first to visualize living cells using a single-lens microscope of his own construction.]

(ii) Who made the first microscope?
Answer:
The first microscope was made by two Dutch spectacle makers Hans and Zacharias Janssen.
[Note: The Dutch scientist Anton van Leeuwenhoek made microscopes capable of magnifying single-celled organisms in a drop of pond water.]

Find Out (Textbook Page No. 44)

(i) How do a combination of lenses help in higher magnification?
Answer:
a. In a light microscope, visible light is passed through the specimen and then through two glass lenses.
b. The first lens focuses the magnified image of the object on the second lens, which magnifies it again and focuses it on the back of the eye.
c. The glass lenses bend (refract) the light in such a way that the image of the specimen is magnified.
In this way, a combination of lenses helps in higher magnification.

(ii) When do we use plane and concave mirror and diaphragm?
Answer:
a. Concave mirror is used when low-power objective lenses (useful for examining large specimens or many smaller specimens) or high-power objective lenses (useful for observing fine detail) are used, whereas plane mirror is used when oil immersion objective lens is used.
b. The amount of light passing on to the specimen from the condenser (which concentrates and controls the light that passes through the specimen) is regulated by using iris diaphragm.
c. Light is reduced by closing the diaphragm partially for use with dry objectives.
d. Oil immersion objectives require maximum light and this can be achieved by keeping the iris diaphragm fully open.

(iii) What is the difference between magnification and resolution?
Answer:
a. Magnification is the ratio of an object’s image size to its actual size.
b. Resolution is a measure of the clarity of the image; it is the minimum distance two points can be
separated and still be distinguished as separate points.

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 44)

(i) Why bacterial nucleus is said to be primitive?

(ii) Draw neat and labelled diagram of Prokaryotic cell.
Answer:
1. The DNA-containing central region of bacterial nucleus (prokaryotic cells) i.e. nucleoid, has no nuclear membrane separating it from the cytoplasm. Therefore, bacterial nucleus is said to be primitive.
2. Prokaryotic cell:

Find Out (Textbook Page No. 46)

Why do basal body of bacterial flagella considered as smallest motor in the world?
Answer:
1. The bacterial flagellum is an organelle for motility made up of three parts:
a. The basal body that spans the cell envelope and works as a rotary motor;
b. The helical fdament that acts as a propeller;
c. The hook that acts as a universal joint connecting these two to transmit motor torque to the propeller.
2. The motor i.e. basal body drives the rotation of the long, helical filamentous propeller at hundreds of hertz to produce thrust that allows bacteria to swim in liquid environments.
Therefore, basal body of bacterial flagella considered as smallest motor in the world.

Use your Brainpower (Textbook Page No. 46)

Describe major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Answer:

Use Your Brain Power! (Textbook Page No. 52)

Are mitochondria present in all eukaryotic cells?
Answer:
a. Mitochondria are found in nearly all eukaryotic cells, including plants, animals, fungi, and most unicellular eukaryotes.
b. Some of the cells have a single large mitochondrion, but frequently a cell has hundreds of mitochondria.
c. The number of mitochondria correlates with the cell’s level of metabolic activity. For e.g. cells that move or contract have proportionally more mitochondria than metabolically less active cells.
d. However, mature red blood cells in humans lack mitochondria.

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 54)

(i) Consider the following cells and comment about the position, shape and number of nuclei in a eukaryotic cell. Add more examples from your previous knowledge about cell and nucleus. Cuboidal epithelial cell, different types of blood corpuscles, skeletal muscle fibre, adipocyte.
Answer:

(ii) Why nucleus is considered as control unit of a cell?
Answer:
a. Nucleus contains the genetic material of an organism.
b. This genetic material is present in the form of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) which is responsible for synthesis of various proteins and enzymes.
c. These proteins and enzymes in turn regulate metabolic activities of the cells.
Therefore, nucleus is considered as control unit of a cell.

(iii) Can cells like Xylem or mature human RBCs called living?
Answer:
a. Xylem is a complex tissue consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres. From these components of xylem, tracheids are dead cells and xylem parenchyma is the only living tissue,
b. RBCs do not possess nuclei once they reach maturity as they have to accommodate haemoglobin in them. They do not require a nucleus to function as they do not reproduce but only serve as a vehicle for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.

(iv) What is a syncytium and coenocyte?
Answer:
Syncytium: It refers to mass of cells formed by fusion of multiple uninuclear cells and followed by dissolution of the cell membrane.
Coenocyte: It is a multinucleate cell resulted from multiple nuclear divisions without undergoing cytokinesis.

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 44)

How do onion peel cells and our body cells differ?
Answer:
1 – (a, b, d, e,f g)

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A)
Which of the following belongs to a minor phylum?
(a) Comb jelly
(b) Jellyfish
(c) Herdmania
(d) Salpa
Answer:
(a) Comb jelly

Question (B)
Select the animal having venous heart.
(a) Crocodile
(b) Salamander
(c) Rohu
(d) Toad
Answer:
(c) Rohu

Question (C)
In Ascaris, _______ .
(a) mesoglea is present
(b) endoderm is a discontinuous layer
(c) mesoderm is present in patches
(d) body cavity is absent
Answer:
(c) mesoderm is present in patches

Question (D)
Which of the following is INCORRECT in case of birds?
(a) Presence of teeth
(b) Presence of scales
(c) Nucleated RBCs
(d) Hollow bones
Answer:
(a) Presence of teeth

Question (E)
Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic of ________ .
(a) Dentalium
(b) Antedon
(c) Millipede
(d) Sea urchin
Answer:
(c) Millipede

2. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
Reptiles are known for having three chambered heart. Which animal shows a near four chambered condition in reptiles?
Answer:
Crocodiles have a four chambered heart.

Question (B)
The circulatory system has evolved from open to closed type in Animal Kingdom. Which Phylum can be called first to represent closed circulation?
Answer:
Phylum Annelida is the first phylum to represent closed circulation.

Question (C)
Pinna is part of external ear and it is found in mammals. Do Aves and Reptiles show external ear in any form?
Answer:
No, Aves and Reptiles do not show external ear in any form. They possess tympanum which represents the ear.

Question (D)
Fish and frog can respire in water. Can they respire through their skin? If yes, why do they have gills?
Answer:
1. Yes, fishes and frogs can respire through their skin.
2. The larval stage of frog i. e. tadpole respires through gills. During metamorphosis, tadpoles lose their gills and develop lungs.
3. Frogs do not have scales and breathe through their skin underwater.
4. Fishes respire primarily via gills. The body of fishes is covered with scales which limits cutaneous respiration in them.

Question (E)
Birds need to keep their body light to help in flying. Hence, they show presence of some organs only on one side. How their skeleton helps in reducing their weight?
Answer:

1. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
2. They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
3. Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
4. In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
5. Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Question (F)
Cnidarians and Ctenophorans are both diploblastic. Which other character do they have in common, which is not found in other phyla?
Answer:
Cnidarians and ctenophorans show tissue level of body organization. They have blind sac body plan and radially symmetrical body.

Question (G)
Crab and Snail both have a protective covering. Is it made up of the same material?
Answer:
No, the protective covering is not made up of same material in crab and snail. The protective covering of crabs is made up of chitin and that of snails is made up of calcium carbonate.

Question (H)
Sponge and sea star show calcareous protective material. Do they belong to the same Phylum?
Answer:
No, they do not belong to same phylum. Sponges belong to phylum Porifera and sea star belongs to phylum Echinodermata.
1. Adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larval forms are bilaterally symmetrical.
2. Larvae of echinoderms are free-swimming.

Question (I)
Fish and snake both have scales. How do these scales differ from each other?
Answer:
Fishes have dermal scales covering the body surface whereas snakes have epidermal scales or scutes.

Question (J)
Lower Phyla like Arthropods and Cnidarians show metamorphosis. Is it also found in any class of Phylum Chordata?
Answer:
Yes, it is also found in class Amphibia of phylum Chordata.

Question 3.
Draw neat labelled diagram.
A. Sycon
B. Aurelia
C. Amphioxus
D. Catla
E. Balanoglossus
F. Scolidon
Answer:
A. Sycon

B. Aurelia

C. Amphioxus

D. Catla

E. Balanoglossus

F. Scolidon

Question 4.
Match the following.

Answer:

5. Identify the animals given in pictures and write features of its phylum/class.

Question 1.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Comb jelly (Red midwater Comb jelly) and it belongs to phylum Ctenophora.

Question 2.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Eel and it belongs to phylum Chordata.

Question 3.

Answer:
The given organism in the given picture is Dolphin and it belongs to class Mammalia.

Question 4.

Answer:
The given organism is Snake and it belongs to class Reptilia

Question 5.

Answer:
The given organism is Sea urchin and belongs to phylum Echinodermata.

Question 6.

Answer:
The given organism is flying lizard and belongs to class Reptilia.

Question 7.

Answer:
The organism is Herdmania and belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Urochordata).

Question 8.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Nautilus and it belongs to phylum Mollusca.

Question 9.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Amphioxus and it belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Cephalochordata).

6. Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Question 1.
Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Answer:
Fig i. represents asymmetry
Fig ii. represents radial symmetry
Fig iii. represents bilateral symmetry

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study different animals in kingdom Animalia and prepare the chart with detail scientific information.
Answer:
Phylum Porifera (Pori = Pores: feron = bearing): Members of the phylum Porifera are also called sponges. Characteristic features of the phylum:

1. Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine but few species are found in fresh water.
2. Forms: They are sedentary animals (attached to substratum or rock).
3. Body shape: They have asymmetrical body. Body of these animals consists of many cells with minimal
   division of labour among cells. Hence, their body is considered as a colony of different types of cells.
4. Body surface: Their body bears minute pores called ‘ostia’ through which water enters the spongocoel (body cavity). Water leaves the body through a large opening called ‘osculum’. Beating of flagella creates water current.
5. Circulation: Water is circulated in the body through the ‘canal system’. When the water enters the body of poriferans, cells absorb the food, exchange respiratory gases and release excretory products.
6. Digestive system: The body cavity of sponges (spongocoel) is lined by unique type of flagellated cells called choanocytes or collar cells for digestion.
7. Endoskeleton: The body of sponges consists of calcareous / siliceous spicules and proteinaceous ‘spongin fibres’.
8. Reproduction: Sponges reproduce asexually as well as sexually. Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation and gemmule formation. Sexual reproduction is by formation of gametes. Fertilization is internal and development is indirect through larval stage.
9. Sponges have great power of regeneration.
   e.g. Scypha, Euspongia (Bath sponge), Euplectella (Venus’ flower basket).

Characteristics of members belonging to phylum Cnidaria:

1. Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine and few of them are fresh – water forms.
2. Forms: They are sessile or free swimming.
3. Cnidoblasts: Presence of cnidoblasts or stinging cells are present on the tentacles for anchorage, offence and defence.
4. Body Symmetry: They have radially symmetrical body.
5. Germ layer: They are diploblastic.
6. Body cavity: Cnidarians have a central cavity called coelenteron or gastrovascular cavity, which helps in digestion and circulation. They have blind-sac body plan i.e., single pore opening to the exterior in the digestive system.
7. Body form: Members of this phylum exhibit two body forms. The cylindrical form, known as polyp e.g. Hydra and the umbrella – like form (.Aurelia – jelly fish) is known as medusa.
8. Digestion: They have extracellular and intracellular digestion.
9. Reproduction: Cnidarians reproduce asexually and sexually.

Asexual reproduction takes place by budding and regeneration. Sexual reproduction takes place gamete formation. They exhibit metagenesis i.e. alternation of polypoid generation with medusoid generation. Polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyps sexually, e.g. Obelia
e.g. Hydra, Aurelia (Jellyfish), Physalia (Portuguese man-of-war), Adamsia (Sea anemone), Diploria (Brain coral), Gorgonia (sea fan).

The members of this phylum are commonly known as comb jellies and sea walnuts. They are also known as acnidarians as they lack cnidoblasts. The phylum is considered as one of the minor phyla as it is represented by very few members.

Salient features of phylum Ctenophora:

1. Habitat: They are exclusively marine.
2. Forms: They are free swimming animals.
3. Germ layers: Members of this phylum are diploblastic.
4. Body Symmetry: They are radially symmetrical.
5. Body plan: The animals of this phylum show blind-sac body plan.
6. Body organization: They show tissue level organization.
7. Locomotion: It is earned out by eight rows of ciliated comb plates.
8. Bioluminescence: It is the characteristic feature of the members of this phylum.
9. Digestion: It is extracellular and intracellular.
10. Reproduction: Reproduction is sexual with indirect development.
11. Colloblasts: These sticky cells are used to capture prey, e.g. Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana

11th Biology Digest Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 29)

(i) What is the basis for classification?
Answer:
Grades of organization, body symmetry, body cavity, germ layers and segmentation form the basis for classification.

(ii) Who proposed Five kingdom classification system?
Answer:
Robert Whittaker proposed the five kingdom system of classification.

(iii) What is the need and importance of classification?
Answer:
Need and importance for classification:
a. Classification facilitates the identification of animals with great accuracy.
b. The study of animals becomes convenient.
c. It helps in understanding the relationship of animals with other living organisms.
d. It helps to understand the habitat of each animal along with its role in nature.
e. By studying few animals from a group, we can gain a better understanding about the entire group.
f. It helps in understanding different adaptations shown by animals.
g. It gives an idea about evolution of animals.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 29)

Discuss the criteria of classification.
Answer:
1. The given diagrams represents the number of germ layers and body symmetry used as criteria for animal classification.
2. Number of germ layers:
(a) When an organism shows only two germ layers, they are called diploblastic animals. In this case, the outer ectoderm is separated from the inner endoderm by a non-living substance called mesoglea.
(b) When an organism shows three germinal layers, they are called triploblastic animals. The three layers are namely – outer ectoderm, middle mesoderm and inner endoderm.
3. Body symmetry:
Body symmetry implies to the similarity in shape, size and number of parts on the opposite sides of a median line when body is divided into two halves by an imaginary line along different plane. Animals may be asymmetrical, radially symmetrical or bilaterally symmetrical.
(a) Asymmetrical animals:
An animal is said to be asymmetrical when its body cannot be divided into two identical halves in any plane.
(b) Radially symmetrical animals:
In certain animals, body can be cut or divided into two similar halves in a number of planes wherein, all the cuts (planes) pass through the centre. This type of symmetry is called radial symmetry.
(c) Bilaterally symmetrical animals:
In this type, the body of the animal can be bisected or divided in two equal or identical halves by a single median or vertical plane.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 30)

Which are the larval stages of Porifera.
Answer:
Larval stages of Porifera:
Parenchymula – Flagellate larvae of calcinean sponges
Amphiblastula – Free swimming larval stage of Sycon and many other calcareous sponges. Rhagon— Larval stage which give rise to the leuconoid condition in demospongiae.
[Students are expected to find more information about the larval stages of Porifera on internet.]

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 31)

Information about coral reefs and sea fan.
Answer:
Coral reefs:

1. A coral reef is an underwater ecosystem characterized by reef building corals.
2. Coral reefs constitute 25% of all marine species on the planet.
3. They belong to phylum Cnidaria.
4. There are three main types of coral reefs – fringing, barrier and atoll. Coral reefs provide ecosystem services for tourism, fisheries and shoreline protection.
5. They cannot survive in high temperatures, thus due to climate change there is a sharp decline in their population.

Sea fan or Gorgonia:

1. It is a soft coral composed of numerous polyps – cylindrical, sessile (attached) forms that grow together in a flat, fan-like pattern.
2. It belongs to phylum Cnidaria.
3. It does not produce calcium carbonate skeletons.
[Students can find out more information about coral reefs and sea fan using internet ]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 32)

(i) State the parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke and Ascaris.
Answer:
Parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke:
a. Presence of hooks and suckers
b. Body covered with cuticle
c. Lacks digestive system
d. They are hermaphrodites

Parasitic adaptations in Ascaris:
a. Presence of muscular pharynx for sucking the food.
b. Body covered by tough, thick and resistant cuticle.
c. Secretes enzymes against the enzymes secreted by the host.
d. Respiration is anaerobic.
e. Reproductive system is highly developed.

(ii) Give example of free living platyhelminth.
Answer:
Planaria

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 33)

What are the merits and demerits of hermaphroditism?
Answer:
Hermaphroditism is the condition in which an organism possesses reproductive organs of both the sexes.

Merits of hermaphroditism:
a. Assured fertilization which reduces the risk of a species to become extinct due to unavailability of mating partner.
b. Energy required for searching out mating partner is conserved.
c. Frequency of mating is maximized.

Demerits of hermaphroditism:
a. More energy is required to maintain both the reproductive systems.
b. Limited gene diversity.
[Source: http://floydbiology. blogspot. com/2012/06/httpmattc-thinks. html]
[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Why are leeches used in Ayurveda?
Answer:
a. Leeches are used in blood purification therapy to treat many diseases as they suck impure blood from the affected site of the patient’s body.
b. The anticoagulant – hirudin present in saliva of leech, inhibits the coagulation of blood and makes blood thinner. This dissolves the clots found in vessels and facilitates the blood supply.

What is the role of earthworms in agriculture? What is vermicompost?
Answer:
Role of earthworms in agriculture:
a. Earthworms loosen the soil by burrowing deep into it, thus they help to aerate the soil.
b. This continuous digging of soil also helps the water to reach the roots quickly.
c. Earthworms can decompose the organic matter from the soil and convert it into rich manure.
d. This helps in increasing the fertility of soil which ultimately increases the crop production.
e. Earthworm castings are rich in nutrients which act as natural fertilizer.
Vermicompost:
Vermicompost is the product of vermicomposting. It is organic manure produced as vermicast by earthworm feeding on biological waste material and plant residues.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Explain the term metameric segmentation.
Answer:
In some animals, body consists of many segments arranged along the length of the body. When the external segmentation coincides with the internal segmentation, it is called as metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is called metamerism.

(ii) Give characteristics of Arthropoda.
Answer:
Arthropoda (Arthros: Joint, Podos: leg): Arthropoda forms the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. Characteristics of Arthropoda:
a. Habitat: Arthropods are omnipresent.
b. Forms: Solitary or colonial, most of them are free-living. Barnacles are sedentary. Few are parasitic and sanguivorous, (e.g. Female mosquito, bed bug.)
c. Body symmetry: Body is bilaterally symmetrical.
d. Germ layers: They are triploblastic.
e. Body cavity: Arthropods are eucoelomates.
f. Body plan: They show tube within tube body plan.
g. Level of body organization: They show organ system level of organization.
h. Special features: The members of this phylum have jointed appendages. Hence, they are known as arthropods. Some insects like honey bee, ants, termites, etc. exhibit polymorphism.
i. Exoskeleton: Body is covered by a tough, non – living chitinous exoskeleton. As the exoskeleton does not allow body growth, arthropods shed off their exoskeleton periodically during growth. This process is called moulting or ecdysis.
j. Body division: Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
k. Segmentation: Body shows metameric segmentation.
l. Digestion: Digestive system is complete and divided into foregut, midgut and hindgut.
m. Circulation: Circulatory system is of open type wherein, blood flows through body cavity called haemocoel.
n. Respiration: Respiration occurs through respiratory organs like gills, trachea, book lungs or book
gills.
o. Excretion: Excretion takes place by green glands, Malpighian tubules or coxal glands.
p. Nervous system: Nervous system consists of nerve ring and double, ventral ganglionated nerve cord.
q. Sense organs:Arthropods have well developed sense organs in the form of antennae, simple or compound eye and various receptors.
r. Sexual reproduction: Sexes are generally separate in arthropods with distinct sexual dimorphism.
s. Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silk worms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

(iii) Enlist the harmful Arthropods.
Answer:
Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silkworms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Why is phylum Arthropoda considered as most successful phylum?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda is considered as most successful phylum because of the following reasons:
a. Phylum Arthropoda is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. It includes various forms like lobsters, prawns, crabs, insects, millipedes, locust, honeybees, etc.
b. They are omnipresent (present everywhere). Arthropods show great variety of adaptations as their habitat varies from terrestrial to aquatic habitat.
c. Several others factors also contribute to the success of the phylum which includes:
1. The exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of tough chitinous exoskeleton. This enables them to survive on lands in almost all environment and is a great defense against predators.
2. They possess jointed appendages which allow complex movements.
3. They exhibit moulting or eedysis.
4. They have metamerically segmented body helping in movement around diverse environments.

(ii) What do we mean by parthenogenesis?
Answer:
Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization is known parthenogenesis. It is found in many non-vertebrates such as bees, rotifers and even some lizards and birds (turkey).

(iii) What do we mean by living fossil?
Answer:
A member of a living animal or plant species that is almost identical to species known from the fossil record (not the recent fossil record), i.e. they have changed very little over a long period.
[Source:https://www. encyclopedia, com/earth-and-environment/ecology-and- environmentalism/environmental-studies/living-fossil]

(iv) How the bees produce honey?
Answer:
a. Bees produce honey using the nectar of flowering plants. A bee sucks the nectar and stores it in a honey sac until it returns to the hive.
b. The nectar is then transferred to worker bees in the hive who suck the nectar from the honey sac through their proboscis. This nectar contains 70% water and 20% honey. Honeybees get rid of excess water by swallowing and regurgitating the nectar again and again. They also fan their wings over filled cells of honeycomb.

When most of the water has evaporated from the honeycomb, the bee seals the comb with a secretion of liquid from its abdomen which eventually hardens into beeswax. This is how the honey bees use nectar to produce a thick, sticky and sweet honey.

(v) What will happen if arthropods do not moult?
Answer:
a. Moulting or eedysis is a periodic shedding of the outer cuticle layer of body in arthropods.
b. The outer layer of body of arthropods is formed of tough, non-living chitinous substance.
c. If arthropods do not moult, they cannot grow and mature into adult forms

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

Why do Molluscs have shell?
Answer:
Molluscs are soft-bodied animals. Thus, the calcareous shell provides supports and protects the organisms from predators.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Give salient features of phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:
Salient features of phylum Echinodermata (Echinus – spines, derma – skin)

1. Habitat: These are exclusively marine.
2. Forms: Members of this phylum are solitary, sedentary or free-living and gregarious, benthic.
3. Body symmetry: These animals are radially symmetrical with pentamerous symmetry.
4. Shape: Members of Echinodermata are spherical, elongated or star-shaped.
5. Body: The endoskeleton is made up of calcareous ossicles. Spines are formed on the body. Hence, they are known as echinoderms. The body has two sides oral and aboral and lacks definite divisions. Mouth is ventrally present on oral surface and anus on aboral surface.
6. Water vascular system: Presence of water vascular system is the peculiar character of echinoderms. The madrepOrite is the opening of water vascular system through which water enters. Water vascular system is useful in locomotion, food capturing, respiration.
7. Digestion: Digestive system is complete.
8. Respiration: Peristomial gills, papillae, respiratory tree, etc. are used for respiration.
9. Circulatory and excretory systems: Absent in echinoderms.
10. Nervous system: Nervous system is simple with a nerve ring around the mouth and radial nerves in arms.
11. Reproduction and development: Sexes are separate (sometimes bisexual). Fertilization is external.
12. Development is indirect, i.e. through larval stages. They show high power of regeneration.

e.g. Sea lily (Antedon), Sea star (Asterias), Sea cucumber (Cucumaria), Brittle star (Ophiothrix), Sea urchin (Echinus).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)
Answer:
1. Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
2. It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
3. Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
4. Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Why Balanoglossus is considered as connecting link between Non-chordates and chordates?
Answer:
Balanoglossus belongs to phylum Hemiehordata. For Explanation:

1. Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
2. It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
3. Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
4. Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Compare and contrast between Non-Chordates and Chordates.

Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Herdmania is called a Chordate. Explain.
Answer:
1. Herdmania belongs to phylum Urochordata.
2. It is called a chordate as it shows the following features:
a. Presence of notochord at least in early embryonic life. (In Herdmania, notochord is present in the tail of the larval forms).
b. Presence of hollow, dorsal nerve chord, running throughout the length of the body.
c. Presence of pharyngeal gill slits.
d. Presence of post-anal tail.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Give characteristics of Petromyzon. Comment on its mode of nutrition.
Answer:
Characteristic features of class Cyclostomata (Cyclos: Circular, stoma-mouth) Lat/Grk

1. Members of class Cyclostomata are jaw-less and eel like organisms.
2. Their skin is devoid of scales, soft and smooth, containing unicellular mucus glands.
3. Median fms are present but paired fins are absent.
4. They are ectoparasites on fishes.
5. They have sucking circular mouth, without jaws.
6. Cranium and vertebral column are made up of cartilage.
7. Their digestive system lacks stomach.
8. Respiration occurs by 6 – 15 pairs of gill slits. Gills slits are without operculum.
9. Heart is two chambered with one auricle and one ventricle.
10. Gonad is single, large and without gonoduct.
11. Fertilization is external. They are anadromous as they migrate for spawning to fresh – water from marine habitat.
12. After spawning, they die within few days. Larvae metamorphosize and migrate to ocean.
    e.g Petromyzon (Lamprey), Myxine (Hagfish).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 38)

(i) What is the lateral line system?
Answer:
a. Lateral line system is the system with mechanoreceptors called neuromasts, for the detection of watei current.
b. These neuromasts are arranged in an interconnected network along the head and body.
c. Lateral line system also known as lateralis system.

(ii) Why Piscian heart is called a venous heart?
Answer:
a. Pisces have two-chambered heart. They have single and closed circulation.
b. Heart of Pisces receives blood only from veins and thus always shows presence of deoxygenated blood which it pumps directly to the gills for oxygenation.
Thus, the heart of Pisces is called a venous heart.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Amphibians do not have exoskeleton. Give reason.
Answer:
1. Amphibians live in both water and on land.
2. They perform cutaneous respiration (i. e. gaseous exchange across the skin or outer integument.) under water and when on land, they respire through lungs.
Thus, to facilitate cutaneous respiration, amphibians do not have exoskeleton.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Why are amphibians and reptilians called poikilotherms?
Answer:
Amphibians and reptilians are called poikilotherms as they cannot maintain a constant body temperature. Their body temperature changes according to the change in surrounding temperature.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

Give adaptations in Aves for flying.
Answer:

1. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
2. They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
3. Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
4. In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
5. Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

(i) Aves and mammals are homeotherms. Give reason.
Answer:
a. Aves and mammals can generate heat to maintain their body temperature.
b. They keep their body temperature constant, irrespective of fluctuations in environmental temperature. Thus, Aves and mammals are homeotherms.

(ii) How mammals differ from other groups of animals?
Answer:
Features of class Mammalia (mammae: breasts, nipple):

1. Special feature: Presence of mammary glands (milk-producing glands) for the nourishment of young ones. Mammary glands are modified sweat glands.
2. Habitat: Mammals are omnipresent (present everywhere). These are mostly terrestrial, some are aquatic and few are aerial and arboreal (living on trees).
3. Locomotion: Limbs are the organs of locomotion and are modified for walking, climbing, burrowing, swimming, etc.
4. Body division: Body is differentiated into head, neck, trunk and tail. They have external ear (pinna).
5. Body temperature: Mammals are homeotherms or warm-blooded animals.
6. Exoskeleton: It is in the form of hair, fur, nails, hooves, horns, etc.
7. Skin: Skin is glandular and has sweat glands and sebaceous (oil) glands.
8. Mouth cavity: Mammals show heterodont dentition (various types of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars).
9. Circulation: Heart is ventral in position, four chambered with two auricles and two ventricles. RBCs are biconcave and enucleated (except camel). Blood is red in colour.
10. Respiration: Respiration takes place by lungs.
11. Nervous system: Brain is highly developed. Cerebrum shows a transverse band called corpus callosum.
12. Reproduction and development: Only few mammals are oviparous, e.g. Duck billed platypus. Some have pouches for development of immature young ones. These are called marsupials, e.g. Kangaroo. Most of the mammals are placental and viviparous.

Do yourself. (Textbook Page No. 41)

Observe different animals in your surrounding, write a detailed classification and write down the characteristics of animals in the following format.
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Which is the dominant phase in Pteridophytes?
(a) Capsule
(b) Gametophyte
(c) Sporophyte
(d) Embryo
Answer:
(c) Sporophyte

Question (B)
The tallest living gymnosperm among the following is
(a) Sequoia sempervirens
(b) Taxodium mucronatum
(c) Zamia pygmaea
(d) Ginkgo biloba
Answer:
(a) Sequoia sempervirens

Question (C)
In Bryophytes
(a) sporophyte and gametophyte generation are independent
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte
(c) gametophyte is dependent upon sporophyte
(d) inconspicuous gametophyte
Answer:
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte

Question (D)
A characteristic of Angiosperm is
(a) Collateral vascular bundles
(b) Radial vascular bundles
(c) Seed formation
(d) Double fertilization
Answer:
(d) Double fertilization

Question (E)
Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having
(a) Vessels in wood
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Siphonogamy
(d) Enclosed seed
Answer:
Both (a) Monocotyledons and (d) Enclosed seed

Question 2.
How you place the pea, jowar and fern at its proper systematic position? Draw a flow chart.
Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

Question 4.
Differentiate between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae based on the following characters:
a. Type of roots
b. Venation in the leaves
c. Symmetry of flower
Answer:

Characters Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae
1. Type of roots Tap roots Fibrous roots
2. V enation in the leaves Reticulate venation Parallel venation
3. Symmetry of flower Tetramerous or Pentamerous symmetry Trimerous symmetry

5. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
We observe that land becomes barren soon after monsoon. But in the next monsoon it flourishes again with varieties we observed in season earlier. How you think it takes place?
Answer:

1. After monsoon, plants like mosses (bryophytes), ferns (pteridophytes), small herbaceous plants, etc become dry, due to which land becomes barren.
2. However, spores of bryophytes, pteridophytes and seeds of herbaceous plants, grass remain in barren land.
3. During next monsoon, these spores and seeds germinate due to availability of water and other favourable conditions.
4. Bryophytes and pteridophytes require water for reproduction. Hence they flourish during monsoon season.
5. Along with bryophytes and pteridophytes varieties of higher plants like grasses, some seasonal herbs or shrubs grow on barren land during monsoon due to favourable conditions.

Question (B)
Fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams. Why?
Answer:

1. Fern belongs to sub-kingdom Cryptogamae.
2. Cryptogams produce spores but do not produce seeds.
3. Also, in cryptogams the sex organs are concealed.
4. Phanerogams are seed producing plants and their sex organs are visible.
5. Hence, fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams.

Question (C)
Chlamydomonas is microscopic whereas Sargassum is macroscopic; both are algae. Which characters of these plants includes them in one group?
Answer:

1.  Both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum belong to division Thallophyta.
2. Members of Thallophyta range from unicellular (e.g. Chlamydomonas) to multicellular (e.g. Sargassum).
3. Both are aquatic plants containing photosynthetic pigments.
4. In both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum plant body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
5. The stored food is mainly in the form of starch and its other forms.
6. Cell wall is made up of cellulose and other components. Due to these characters, both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum are included in one group i.e. Thallophyta.

Question 6.
Girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time. Justify.
Answer:

1. Maize plant belongs to class monocotyledonae.
2. In monocotyledonous plants, vascular bundles are closed type.
3. Thus, cambium is absent between xylem and phloem, due to which secondary growth does not occur in these plants.
4. Increase in girth of a stem occurs by secondary growth. Thus, girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time.

Question 7.
Radha observed a plant in rainy season on the compound wall of her school. The plant did not have true roots but root like structures were present. Vascular tissue was absent. To which group the plant may belong?
Answer:
The plant observed by Radha belongs may belong to division Bryophyta, as it shows root like structures i.e. rhizoids and absence of vascular tissue.

8. Draw neat labelled diagrams

Question 1.
Draw neat and labelled diagram of:
(A) Spirogyra
(B) Chlamydomonas
Answer:

Question (C)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Funaria.
Answer:

Question (D)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Nephrolepis.
Answer:

[Note: Frond: Fern leaf, originating from rhizome. It consists of blade and petiole, Blade: Main part of the frond which is rich in chlorophyll]

Question (E)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Haplontic and Haplo-diplontic life cycle.
Answer:

Question 9.
Identify the plant groups on the basis of following features:
A. Seed producing plants
B. Spore producing plants
C. Plant body undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves
D. Plant needs water for fertilization
E. First vascular plants
Answer:
1. Phanerogams (Angiospermae and Gymnospermae)
2. Cryptogams (Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta)
3. Thallophyta, Bryophyta
4. Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta
5. Pteridophytes

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study the Nephrolepis plant in detail.
Answer:

1. Nephrolepis belongs to division pteridophyta.
2. They grow abundantly in cool, shady, moist places.
3. Roots are adventitious (fibrous) growing from the underground stem.
4. Leaves are well developed on the stem (Rhizome).
5. They show presence of well-developed conducting system for transportation of water and food.
6. They reproduce asexually by spores produced within sporangia, which are present in sori. These sori are located along the posterior surface of leaflets.
7. These plants have neither fruits nor flowers.
8. Some ferms are used as food, medicine or as ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Study the coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas in detail.
Answer:
1. Coralloid roots of Cycas:
Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae for nitrogen fixation.
Coralloid roots are coral-like, dichotomously branched and fleshy. They grow upward toward the surface of the soil. These roots arise from the lateral branches of normal roots.
2. Scale leaf of Cycas:
In Cycas leaves are dimorphic i.e. foliage leaves and scale leaves. Scale leaves are minute, membranous and brown. These are non- photosynthetic and provide protection to the stem apex.
3. Megasporophyll of Cycas:
Megasporophylls are usually arranged in compact structures called female cones or female strobili. Megasporophyll contains megasporangia (ovule) which produce megaspores.
[Students are expected to collect more information about coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas.]

Question 10.
Observe the following diagram. Correct it and write the information in your words.

Answer:

1. The given figure indicates alternation of generation.
2. The life cycle of a plant includes two generations, sporophytic (diploid = 2n) and gametophytic (haploid = n)
3. Some special diploid cells of sporophyte divide by meiosis to produce haploid cells.
4. These haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametophyte.
5. On maturation, gametophyte produces male and female gametes which fuse during fertilization and produce diploid zygote.
6. Diploid zygote divides by mitosis and forms diploid sporophyte.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Why do we call plants as producers on land?
Answer:
Plants can prepare their own food by the process of photosynthesis. Hence, they are called as producers on land.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

What are differences between sub-kingdoms cryptogamae and Phanerogamae?
Answer:

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 19)

Collect different water samples of fresh water. Mount them on a glass slide and observe under a compound microscope. Try to identify the organisms which are visible under it.
Answer:
Micro-organisms like Paramoecium, Amoeba, blue-green algae, unicellular algae, filamentous algae can be observed under compound microscope.
[Students are expected to observe different water samples of fresh water under compound microscope and identify the organisms.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Give salient features of algae.
Answer:
Algae belongs to division Thallophyta.
Salient features of algae:
1. Habitat: Algae are mostly aquatic, few grow on other plants as epiphytes and some grow symbiotically. Some algae are epizoic i.e. growing or living non-parasitically on the exterior of living organisms.
Aquatic algae grow in marine or fresh water. Most of them are free-living while some are symbiotic.

2. Structure: Plant body is thalloid i.e. undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves. They may be small, unicellular, microscopic like Cblorella (non-motile), Chlamydomonas (motile). They can be multicellular, unbranched, filamentous like Spirogyra or branched and filamentous like Chara. Sargassum is a huge macroscopic sea weed which measures more than 60 meters in length.

3. Cell wall: The algal cell wall contains either polysaccharides like cellulose / glucose or a variety of proteins or both.
Reserve food material: Reserve food is in the form of starch and its other forms.

4. Photosynthetic pigments: Photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll – a, chlorophyll – b, chlorophyll – c, chlorophyll – d, carotenes, xanthophylls, phycobilins are found in algae.

5. Reproduction: Reproduction takes place by vegetative, asexual and sexual method.

6. Life cycle: The life cycle shows phenomenon of alternation of generation, dominant haploid and reduced diploid phases.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)

Write different pigments found in algae.
Answer:
Various types of photosynthetic pigments are found in algae.
1. Chlorophyll-a (Essential photosynthetic pigment) is present in all groups of algae.
2. The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Name the accessory pigments of algae.
Answer:
The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Differentiate between Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No.21)

Enlist examples of Chlorophyceae and Rhodophvceae.
Answer:
1. Examples of Chlorophyceae:
Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Char a, Volvox, Ulothrix, etc.
2. Examples of Rhodophyceae:
Chondrus, Batrachospermum, Porphyra, Gelidium, Gracillaria, Polysiphonia, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Different forms of green, red, brown and blue green algae.
Answer:
1. Forms of green algae:
Unicellular motile: e.g. Chlamydomonas Unicellular non-motile: E.g. Chlorella Colonial forms: e.g. Volvox Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra

2. Forms of red algae:
The red thalli of most of the red algae are multicellular, macroscopic, e.g. Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphonia, etc. .

3. Forms of brown algae:
Simple, branched and filamentous: Sargassum, Fucus, Ectocarpus Profusely branched: Laminaria, Dictyota, Kelps (Seaweed)

4. Forms of blue-green algae:
Unicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater or marine water or terrestrial algae.
[Note: Blue-green algae are cyanobacteria which are photosynthetic autotrophs.]
[Students are expected to collect more information from internet.]

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)
Enlist the forms of filamentous algae.
Answer: The forms of filamentous algae:
1. Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara, Ectocarpus, Dictyota, etc.
2. Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Economic importance of algae.
Answer:
(a) Many species of algae are used as food. For e.g. Chlorella (rich in cell proteins hence used as food supplement, even by space travelers), Sargassum, Laminaria, Porphyra, etc.
(b) Alginic acid is produced commercially from Kelps.
(c) Hydrocolloids like algin and carrageen are obtained from brown algae and red algae respectively.
(d) ‘Agar’ which is used as solidifying agent in tissue culture is obtained from red algae like Gelidium and Gracilaria.
(e) Brown algae like sea weeds are used a fodder for sheep, goat, etc.
[Students are expected to collect more information about the economic importance of algae.]
(f) Role of algae in environment.
Answer:
(a) Being photosynthetic, algae help in increasing the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment.
(b) Algae are primary producers of energy rich compounds which forms the basis of food cycles in aquatic animals.
[Students are expected to find out more information about the role of algae in environment on internet.]

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Differentiate between Thallophytes and Bryophytes.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Why Bryophyta are called amphibians of Plant Kingdom?
Answer:
Members of Bryophyta are mostly terrestrial plants which depend on water for fertilization and completion of their life cycle. Hence, they are called ‘amphibians of Plant Kingdom’.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 21)

You may have seen Funaria plant in rainy season. Why is it called amphibious plant?
Answer:
Funaria belongs to division Bryophyta.
It is a terrestrial plant but requires water for fertilization and completion of its life cycle. Hence, it is called as an amphibious plant.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

You may have seen the various plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds but they have well developed root, stem and leaves. Discuss.
Answer:
1. The plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds, but have true roots, stem and leaves belong to division Pteridophyta.
2. These plants are cryptogams as they do not produce seeds and flowers.
3. They have primitive conducting system.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams – Justify.
Answer:
1. The reproductive organs of pteridophytes are hidden.
2. Pteridophytes do not produce flowers, fruits and seeds. They reproduce asexually by forming spores and sexually by forming gametes, hence they belong to Cryptogamae.
3. These plants possess a primitive conducting system. Thus, conduction of water and food occurs through vascular tissue.
Hence, Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Give one example of aquatic and xerophytic Pteridophytes.
Answer:
Habitat: Pteridophytes grow in moist and shady places, e.g. Ferns, Horsetail. Some are aquatic (Azolla, Marsilea), xerophytic (Equisetum) and epiphytic (Lycopodium).

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Give any two examples of Pteridophyta.
Answer:
Nephrolepis, Selaginella, Azolla, Marsilea, Equisetum, Lycopodium, Psilotum, Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

Give general characters of Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:
1. General characters of Gymnosperms:
(a) Types: Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen, shrubs or woody trees.
(b) Vascular tissues: They are vascular plants having xylem with tracheids and phloem with sieve cells.
(c) Flower: These are primitive group of flowering plants producing naked seeds.
(d) Body: The plant body is sporophyte. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
(e) Roots: The root system is tap root type. In some gymnosperms, the roots form symbiotic association with other life forms. Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae and roots of Pinus show association with endophytic fungi called mycorrhizae.
(f) Stem: In gymnosperms, stem is mostly erect, aerial, solid and cylindrical. Secondary growth is seen in Gymnosperms due to the presence of cambium. In Cycas it is usually unbranched, while in conifers it is branched, (e.g. Pinus, Cedrus).
(g) Leaves: The leaves are dimorphic. The foliage leaves are green, simple needle like or pinnately compound, whereas scale leaves are small, membranous and brown.
(h) Spores: Spores are produced by microsporophyll (Male) and megasporophyll (Female).

(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Observe all garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna and compare them. Note similarities and dissimilarities among them.
Answer:
1. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following similarities can be observed:
Plant body is divided into root, stem and leaves.
2. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following dissimilarities can be observed:
(a) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus seeds are not enclosed within a fruit, whereas in Sunflower and Canna seeds are enclosed within a fruit.
(b) Plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus show cones bearing microsporophylls and megasporophylls, whereas sunflower and Canna plant bear flowers.
(c) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus green, simple needle like or pinnately compound foliage leaves and brown, membranous scaly leaves can be observed, whereas in Sunflower, Canna green foliage leaves can be observed.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What are the salient features of angiosperms?
Answer:
(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What is double fertilization?
Answer:
(a) Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.
(b) In this process one male gamete fuses with egg cell and another male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus, to form an embryo and endosperm respectively.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

Explain in brief the two classes of Angiosperms? Draw and label one example of each class.
Answer:
Two classes of Angiosperms are Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
а. Dicotyledonae:

1. These plants have two cotyledons in their embryo.
2. They have a tap root system and the stem is branched.
3. Leaves show reticulate venation.
4. Flowers show tetramerous or pentamerous symmetry.
5. Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type.
6. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
7. In dicots, secondary growth is commonly found. e. g. Helianthus annuus (Sunflower)

b. Monocotyledonae:

1. These plants have single cotyledon in their embryo.
2. They have adventitious root system and stem is rarely branched.
3. Leaves generally have sheathing leaf base and parallel venation.
4. Flowers show trimerous symmetry.
5. The vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type.
6. Cambium is absent between xylem and phloem.
7. In Monocots, except few plants secondary growth is absent, e.g. Zea mays (Maize)

Try This (Textbook Page No. 24)

Study the leaves of Hibiscus, Peepal, Canna, Grass and Tulsi. Classify them as Monocot and Dicot.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

(i) Distinguish between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
Answer:
Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.

(ii) Why do Dicots show secondary growth while Monocots don’t?
Answer:
(a) In dicots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
(b) Whereas in monocots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type. Thus, due to absence of cambium, secondary growth does not occur in majority of monocots.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Which differences did you notice between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms?
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

What is alternation of generations?
Answer:
The sporophytic and gametophytic generations generally occur alternately in the life cycle of a plant. This phenomenon is called alternation of generations.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

Which phase is dominant in the life cycle of Bryophyta and Pteridophyta?
Answer:
In the life cycle of Bryophyta, gametophyte is the dominant phase whereas in the life cycle of Pteridophyta, sporophyte is the dominant phase.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 2 Systematics of Living Organisms Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Which of the following shows single-stranded RNA and lacks protein coat?
(a) Bacteriophage
(b) Plant virus
(c) Viroid
(d) Animal virus
Answer:
(c) Viroid

Question (B)
Causative agent of red tide is ________ .
(a) Dinoflagellate
(b) Euglenoid
(c) Chrysophyte
(d) Lichen
Answer:
(A) Dinoflagellate

Question (C)
Select the odd one out for Heterotrophic bacteria.
(a) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
(b) Lactobacilli
(c) Methanogens
(d) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
(c) Methanogens or (d) Cyanobacteria

Question (D)
Paramoecium: Ciliated Protist :: Plasmodium: _______ .
(a) Amoeboid protozoan
(b) Ciliophora
(c) Flagellate protozoan
(d) Sporozoan
Answer:
(d) Sporozoan

2. Answer the following

Question (A)
What are the salient features of Monera?
Answer:
Salient features of Kingdom Monera:

1. Size: The organisms included in this kingdom are microscopic, unicellular and prokaryotic.
2. Occurrence: These are omnipresent. They are found in all types of environment which are not generally inhabited by other living beings.
3. Nucleus: These organisms do not have well-defined nucleus. DNA exists as a simple double-stranded circular single chromosome called as nucleoid. Apart from the nucleoid they often show presence of extrachromosomal DNA which is small circular called plasmids.
4. Cell wall: Cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan (also called murein) which is a polymer of sugars and amino acids.
5. Membrane-bound cell organelles: Membrane-bound cell organelles like mitochondria, chloroplast, endoplasmic reticulum are absent. Ribosomes are present, which are smaller in size (70S) than in eukaryotic cells.
6. Nutrition: Majority are heterotrophic, parasitic or saprophytic in nutrition. Few are autotrophic that can be either photoautotrophs or chemoautotrophs.
7. Reproduction: The mode of reproduction is asexual or with the help of binary fission or budding. Very rarely, sexual reproduction occurs by conjugation method.
8. Examples:
   Archaebacteria: e.g. Methanobacillus, Thiobacillus, etc.
   Eubacteria: e.g. Chlorobium, Chromatium, and Cyanobacteria e.g. Nostoc, Azotobacter, etc.

Question (B)
What will be the shape of a bacillus and coccus type of bacteria?
Answer:
The shape of bacillus type of bacteria is rod-shaped and coccus is spherical.

Question (C)
Why is binomial nomenclature important?
Answer:
Binomial nomenclature is important because:

1. The binomials are simple, meaningful and precise.
2. They are standard since they do not change from place to place.
3. These names avoid confusion and uncertainty created by local or vernacular names. The organisms are known by the same name throughout the world.
4. The binomials are easy to understand and remember.
5. It indicates phylogeny (evolutionary history) of organisms.
6. It helps to understand inter-relationship between organisms.

3. Write short notes

Question (A)
Write a note on useful and harmful bacteria.
Answer:
(i) Useful bacteria:
Most of the bacteria act as a decomposer. They breakdown large molecules in simple molecules or minerals. Examples of some useful bacteria:
Lactobacillus’. It helps in curdling of milk.
Azotobacter. It helps to fix nitrogen for plants.
Streptomyces: It is used in antibiotic production such as streptomycin.
Methanogens: These are used for production of methane (biogas) gas from dung.
Pseudomonas spp. and Alcanovorax borkumensis: These bacteria have the ability to destroy the pyridines and other chemicals. Hence, used to clear the oil spills.

(ii)Harmful bacteria:
This includes disease causing bacteria. They cause various diseases like typhoid, cholera, tuberculosis, tetanus, etc. Examples of some harmful bacteria:
Salmonella typhi: It is a causative organism of typhoid.
Vibrio cholerae: It causes cholera.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis’. It causes tuberculosis.
Clostridium tetani: It causes tetanus.
Clostridium spp.: It causes food poisoning.
Many forms of mycoplasma are pathogenic.
Agrobacterium , Erwinia, etc are the pathogenic bacteria causing plant diseases.
Animals and pets also suffer from bacterial infections caused by Brucella, Pastrurella, etc.

Question (B)
Write short note on five kingdom system.
Answer:
Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H. Whittaker in 1969. This system shows the phylogenetic relationship between the organisms.
The five kingdoms are:

1. Kingdom Monera
2. Kingdom Protista
3. Kingdom Plantae
4. Kingdom Fungi
5. Kingdom Animalia

Question (C)
Write short note on useful fungi.
Answer:
Economic importances of fungi are as follows:
1. Role of fungi in medicine:
(a) Antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium.
(b) Drugs like cyclosporine, immunosuppressant drugs, precursors of steroid hormones, etc are isolated from fungi.

2. Role of fungi in industries:
(a) Yeast is used in bread making. It causes dough to rise and make the bread light and spongy. It is also used in breweries or wine making industries. Sugars present in grapes are fermented by using yeast. This results in production of alcohol which is used for making wine.
(b) Lichen is a symbiotic association of algae and fungi are used in preparation of litmus paper which is used as acid-base indicator.

3. Role of fungi in food:
(a) Fungi like mushrooms are consumed as a food. These are rich source of protein.
(b) Fungi genus Penicillium helps in ripening of cheese.

4. Role of fungi as biocontrol agents:
(a) Fungi help to control growth of weeds.
(b) Pathogenic fungi like Fusarium sp., Phytophthorapalmivora, Alternaria crassa, etc act as mycoherbicides.

Question 4.
Complete tree diagram in detail.

Answer:

5. Draw neat labelled diagrams

Question (A)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Paramoecium.
Answer:
Characteristics:

1. It belongs to kingdom Protista. It is further classified as animal like protist.
2. It lacks cell wall.
3. It shows heterotrophic and holozoic nutrition.
4. It is a ciliated protozoan where locomotion is due to cilia.
5. It has gullet (a cavity) which opens on the cell surface.

Quesiton (B)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Euglena.
Answer:
Characteristics:
It belongs to kingdom Protista. It is further classified into euglenoids.

1. Dinoflagellates:

1. They are aquatic (mostly marine) and autotrophic (photosynthetic).
2. They have wide range of photosynthetic pigments which can be yellow, green, brown, blue and red.
3. The cell wall is made up of cellulosic stiff plates.
4. A pair of flagella is present, hence they are motile.
5. They are responsible for famous ‘red tide’. E.g. Gonyaulax. It makes sea appear red.

2. Euglenoids:

1. They lack cell wall but have a tough covering of proteinaceous pellicle.
2. Pellicle covering provides flexibility and contractibility to Euglena.
3. They possess two flagella, one short and other long.
4. They behave as heterotrophs in absence of light but possess pigments, similar to that of higher plants, for photosynthesis.

Question (C)
Draw a neat labelled diagram of TMV.
Answer:

Question 6.
Complete chart and explain in your word.

Answer:

Depending upon the host, viruses are classified into three types as:
1. Plant virus
2. Animal virus
3. Bacterial virus (Bacteriophage)

1. Plant virus:
(a) Generally, they are rod shaped or cylindrical with helical symmetry.
(b) Majority of plant viruses have RNA as their genetic material. (Exception: Cauliflower Mosaic Virus has double stranded DNA as genetic material)
(c) Plant viruses cause disease in plants, e.g. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV).

2. Animal virus:
(a) Generally, they are polyhedral in shape with radial symmetry.
(b) They have either DNA or RNA as genetic material.
(c) It causes disease to majority of animals including human beings, e.g. Influenza virus.

3. Bacteriophage:
(a) They have tadpole-like shape.
(b) They infect bacteria and hence are called as bacteriophage.
(c) Bacteriophages were discovered by Twort.
(d) Bacteriophages have double stranded DNA as the genetic material.
(e) Its body consists of head, collar and tail.

Question 7.
Identify the following diagram, label it and write detail information in your words.



Answer:
The given figure represents Bacteriophage.

A.

B.

c.

D.

E.

F.

Question 8.
The scientific name of sunflower is given below. Identify the correctly written name.
(A) Helianthus annus
(B) Helianthus Annus
(C) Helianthus annuus L.
(D) Helianthus annuus l.
Answer:
The correctly written scientific name of sunflower is Helianthus annuus L.

Question 9.
Match the following.

Answer:

Question 10.
Complete the following.
1. Plant-like Protista – [ ]
2. [ ] – Entamoeba

Practical /Project:

Question 1.
Make a group of students. Observe living organisms in your school/college campus and try to write their characters with respect to habit, habitat, mode of nutrition, growth- determinate or indeterminate, type of reproduction – vegetative reproduction, asexual reproduction, sexual reproduction. With the help of similarity and dissimilarity, try to classify organisms into different categories. Similar work should implement for animal group.
Answer:
The common living organisms observed near school/college are:
1. Plants
Habit: Herb, shrub, tree, etc.
Habitat: Terrestrial or aquatic
Mode of nutrition: Autotrophic
Growth: Indeterminate
Types of reproduction: Vegetative, asexual and sexual reproduction.

2. Animal e.g. dog, cats, cow, etc.
Habitat: Terrestrial
Mode of nutrition: Heterotrophs
Growth: Determinate
Types of reproduction: Only sexual reproduction

3. Birds e.g. Crow, sparrow, etc.
Habitat: Aviary (shows diverse habitat)
Mode of nutrition: Heterotrophs Growth: Determinate
Types of reproduction: Only sexual reproduction
[Note: Students are expected to collect more information about characteristics of living organisms and classify them into different categories]

Question 2.
Find out types of lichens and its economic importance.
Answer:
Types of lichens are:
1. Based on fungal components:
(a) Ascolichens:
In this category, the fungal partner belongs to Ascomycetes group of fungi.
(b) Basidiolichens:
Here, the fungal partner belongs to Basidiomycetes group of fungi.
(c) Deuterolichens:
In this category, the fungal partner belongs to Deuteromycetes group of fungi.

2. Based on their forms:
(a) Crustose lichen:
These lichens show crust-like growth.
These lichens grow on rocks and bark of the trees,
e. g. Graphis, Lecanora, Haematomma, etc.
(b) Foliose lichen:
These lichens grow on trees in the hilly regions.
The thallus is like a dry forked leaf,
e. g. Parmelia, Collema, Peltigera
(c) Fruticose lichen:
These lichens are seen on the branches of trees hanging down.
They are cylindrical, well branched and pendulous, with hair-like outgrowths,
e. g. Usnea, Cladonia, Alectoria, etc.

3. Economic importance of lichens:

(a) Lichen as food and fodder:
Many species of lichens are used as food by animals including man. Lichens contain a substance lichenin which is similar to carbohydrate making them edible. Parmelia is used in curry powder in India. Lichens like Cladonia, Citraria, Evernia, Parmelia are used as fodder as they form a favourite food for reindeers and cattles.

(b) Lichens in medicine:
Lichens contain usnic acid due to which they are used in medicines. Usnea and Cladonia species are used as an antibiotic against Gram positive bacteria.
Species like Lobaria, Citraria are useful in respiratory disease like T.B., Peltigera is useful in hydrophobia, Parmelia is used in treatment of epilepsy, whereas Usnea is used in urinary disease. Some lichens are also used in medicine due to their anticarcinogenic property.

(c) Industrial use of lichens:
1. Lichens are used in various dyes for colouring fabrics.
2. Species like Rocella and Lasallia are used in preparation of litmus paper which is acid-base indicator.
3. In Sweden and Russia, lichens are used for production of alcohol.
4. Orcein is a biological stain obtained from Orchrolechia androgyna and O. tortaria.
5. Some lichens are also used in tanning process in leather industry.
6. Evernia and Ramalina are the sources of essential oils which are used in preparation of soaps and other cosmetics.

(d) Other uses of lichens:
1. Lichens are used in cosmetics.
2. Some lichens like Everniaprunastri also known as oakmoss is used in making perfumes.
3. Lichen is also used as a preservative for beer.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 2 Systematics of Living Organisms Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

Enlist uses of taxonomy?
Answer:
Uses of taxonomy are as follows:

1. It is used to assign each organism an appropriate place in a systematic framework of classification.
2. It is used to group animals and plants by their characteristics and relationships.
3. It is used to classify organisms based upon their similarities and differences.
4. It is used for nomenclature of an organism. Assigning a name to an organism is essential for its identification without confusion throughout the scientific world.
5. It is used to serve as an instrument for identification of an organisms. A newly isolated organism can be placed to its nearest relative or can be identified as a new organism with unknown characteristics.
6. It becomes easier to understand the evolutionary trends in different groups of organisms.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

Which characters of organisms are visible characters?
Answer:
The visible characters of organisms include habit, colour, mode of respiration, growth, reproduction, etc.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

What is evolution?
Answer:

1. It is believed that the life originated on earth in its very simple form.
2. Constant struggle of the early living beings gave rise to more and more perfect forms of life.
3. This struggle and progress are evolution which led to formation of diverse life forms.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

What is DNA barcoding?
Answer:
DNA barcoding is a new method for identification of any species based on its DNA sequence, which is obtained from a tiny tissue sample of the organism under study.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 7)

Name the recent approaches in taxonomy.
Answer:
The recent approaches in taxonomy includes:

1. Morphological Approach
2. Embryological Approach
3. Ecological Approach
4. Behavioral Approach / Ethological Approach
5. Genetical Approach / Cytological Approach
6. Biochemical Approch
7. Numerical Taxonomy

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 9)

Make a flow chart showing taxonomic hierarchy.
Answer:
Kingdom → Sub-kingdom → Division / Phylum → Class → Cohort / Order → Family Genus → Species

Do Yourself (Textbook Page No. 16)

Complete the table (given on textbook Page No.16) through collecting information about sunflower, tiger with characteristic features.
(i) Sunflower:

(ii) Tiger:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 9)

Why horse and ass are considered to be two different species or animals?
Answer:
1. Species is a group of organisms that can interbreed under natural conditions to produce fertile offsprings.
2. Horse and ass (donkey) are considered to be two different species or animals, because they cannot interbreed under natural condition to produce fertile offspring.

Internet my friend: (Textbook Page No. 9)

(i) Collect the information about most recent system of classification of living organisms and Kingdom System of Classification, e.g. Search for APG system of classification for Plants.
Answer:
[Note: Students are expected to collect more information about most recent system of classification of living organisms and Kingdom System of Classification from internet on their own.]

(ii) Collect the information about classification systems for all types of organisms.
Answer:
[Note: Students are expected to collect more information about classification systems for all types of organisms from internet on their own.]

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 6)

What is Five Kingdom system of classification?
Answer:
Five kingdom system of classification was proposed by R.H. Whittaker in 1969. This system shows the phylogenetic relationship between the organisms.
The five kingdoms are:

1. Kingdom Monera
2. Kingdom Protista
3. Kingdom Plantae
4. Kingdom Fungi
5. Kingdom Animalia

Can you tell (Textbook Page No. 14)

Classify fungi into their types.
Answer:
Fungi are classified into four types on the basis of their structure, mode of spore formation and fruiting bodies as follows:
1. Phycomycetes:
Members of this class are commonly called as algal fungi.
These are consisting of aseptate coenocytic hyphae.
They grow well in moist and damp places on decaying organic matter as well as in aquatic habitats or as parasites on plants.
e.g. Mucor, Rhizopus (bread mold), Albugo (parasitic fungus on mustard).

2. Ascomycetes:
These are commonly called as sac fungi.
These are multicellular. Rarely they are unicellular (e.g. Yeast).
Hyphae are branched and septate.
They can be decomposers, parasites or coprophilous (grow on dung).
Some varieties of this class are consumed as delicacies such as morels and truffles.
Neurospora is useful in genetic and biochemical assays.
e.g. Aspergillus, Penicillium, Neurospora, Claviceps, Saccharomyces (unicellular ascomycetes).

3. Basidiomycetes:
These are commonly called as club fungi.
They have branched septate hyphae.
e.g. Agaricus (mushrooms), Ganoderma (bracket fungi), Ustilago (smuts), Puccinia (rusts), etc.

4. Deuteromycetes:
It is a group of fungi which are known to reproduce only asexually.
They are commonly called imperfect fungi.
They are mainly decomposers, while few are parasitic, e.g. Alternaria.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

Write a note on economic importance of fungi.
Answer:
Economic importances of fungi are as follows:
1. Role of fungi in medicine:
(a) Antibiotic penicillin is obtained from Penicillium.
(b) Drugs like cyclosporine, immunosuppressant drugs, precursors of steroid hormones, etc are isolated from fungi.

2. Role of fungi in industries:
(a) Yeast is used in bread making. It causes dough to rise and make the bread light and spongy. It is also used in breweries or wine making industries. Sugars present in grapes are fermented by using yeast. This results in production of alcohol which is used for making wine.
(b) Lichen is a symbiotic association of algae and fungi are used in preparation of litmus paper which is used as acid-base indicator.

3. Role of fungi in food:
(a) Fungi like mushrooms are consumed as a food. These are rich source of protein.
(b) Fungi genus Penicillium helps in ripening of cheese.

4. Role of fungi as biocontrol agents:
(a) Fungi help to control growth of weeds.
(b) Pathogenic fungi like Fusarium sp., Phytophthorapalmivora, Alternaria crassa, etc act as mycoherbicides.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

Why are fungi considered as heterotrophic organisms?
Answer:
In fungi, chloroplast is absent, thus they cannot synthesize their own food by photosynthesis. Fungi decompose the organic matter by breaking down with the help of enzymes from which they absorb nutrients. Thus, exhibiting heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

What are coenocytic hyphae?
Answer:
1. In filamentous fungi, body consists of mycelium which is formed by a network of hyphae.
2. When these hyphae are non-septate, multinucleated, they are known as coenocytic hyphae.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

(i) How are fungi different from plants?
Answer:
Fungi are different from plants because:
(a) They lack chloroplast hence, do not perform photosynthesis and are heterotrophic in nutrition. Whereas plants are autotrophic and prepare their own food by photosynthesis.
(b) They are separated from Plantae based on their saprophytic mode of nutrition.
(c) Fungi are decomposers of ecosystem whereas plants are producers of ecosystem.
(d) In fungi, cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose or chitin. Whereas in plants, cell wall is made up of cellulose and pectic compounds.

(ii) Have you seen any diseased plant in your farm?
Answer:
Yes, I have seen some diseased plants in our farm.
There are different pathogens like fungi, bacteria, viruses that cause diseases in plants.
The common plant diseases are:
(a) Leaf rust disease: It is caused by fungus Puccinia triticina. It is the most common rust disease of wheat.
(b) Blight disease in rice: It is caused by harmful bacteria Xanthomonas oryzae. It causes wilting of seedlings and yellowing and drying of leaves.
(c) Early blight of potato: It is caused by fungi Alternaria solani. It causes ‘bulls eye’ patterned leaf spots and tuber blight on potato.
(d) Crown gall disease: It is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens. This pathogen infects the plant and forms rough surfaced galls on stem and roots.
[Students are expected to write their observations about diseased plants found informs]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 14)

Complete the following table:
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 15)

Why are viruses called infectious nucleoproteins?
Answer:
1. Viruses are acellular, highly infectious and ultramicroscopic.
2. Viruses possess their own genetic material in the form of either DNA or RNA, but never both. The genetic material in viruses is covered by a protein coat (capsid), hence called nucleoprotein.
3. They do not show any activity outside the body of host but once they enter their specific host cell, they start multiplying within the living host cells.
4. Viruses lack their own metabolic machinery, they make use of the cellular machinery of the host i.e. ribosome for the synthesis of protein during their reproduction and therefore, they cause severe infection. Thus, they are called infectious nucleoproteins.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 15)

Describe genetic material in plant and animal viruses as well as in bacteriophages.
Answer:
The genetic material in different viruses is as given below:
1. Plant virus: (b) Majority of plant viruses have RNA as their genetic material. (Exception: Cauliflower Mosaic Virus has double-stranded DNA as genetic material)
2. Animal virus: (b) They have either DNA or RNA as genetic material.
3. Bacteriophage: (d) Bacteriophages have double-stranded DNA as the genetic material.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 15)

Differentiate between viruses and viroids.
Answer:

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 15)

In modern medicine, certain infectious neurological diseases were found to be transmitted by abnormally folded proteins. These proteins are called prions. The word prion comes from ‘proteinaceous infectious particle’, e.g. mad cow disease in cattle, Jacob’s disease in human.
Find more information about prions.
Answer:
Prions:
1. A prion is a misfolded form of a protein generally present in brain cells.
2. When the prion gets into a cell containing the normal form of the protein, the prion somehow converts normal protein molecules to the misfolded prion versions.
3. Several prions then aggregate into a complex that can convert other normal proteins to prions.
4. Prions can be transmitted through blood, surgical instruments and contaminated food.
5. Diseases caused by prions are Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy in cattles, Kuru and Creutzfeldt – Jakob disease in humans.
[Note: Students are expected to search for more information about Prions on internet]

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Living World Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 1 Living world Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 1 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Which is not a property of living beings?
(a) Metabolism
(b) Decay
(c) Growth
(d) Reproduction
Answer:
(b) Decay

Question (B)
A particular plant is strictly seasonal plant. Which one of the following is best suited if it is to be studied in the laboratory?
(a) Herbarium
(b) Museum
(c) Botanical garden
(d) Flower exhibition
Answer:
(a) Herbarium

Question (C)
A group of students found two cockroaches in the classroom. They had a debate whether they are alive or dead. Which life property will help them to do so?
(a) Metabolism
(b) Growth
(c) Irritability
(d) Reproduction
Answer:
(c) Irritability

Question 2.
Distinguish between botanical gardens, zoological parks and biodiversity parks with reference to characteristics.
Answer:

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Jijamata Udyan, the famous zoo in Mumbai has acclimatised Humboldt penguins. Why should penguins be acclimatised when kept at a place away from their natural habitat?
Answer:

1. Zoological park (zoo) is a type of ex-situ conservation in which wild animals are kept in captivity.
2. Humboldt penguins are native to South America and the surrounding environment differs significantly at Jijamata Udyan (zoo) in Mumbai.
3. In order to ensure that these penguins survive longer and are healthy they need to be acclimatised (adjust) to their new environment slowly.
4. If they are not acclimatised or the facilities in the zoo where the penguins are kept are not optimal/ suitable, they may develop abnormal stress and exhibit unusual behaviours due to it.
5. These penguins may also be more prone to contracting certain diseases, since they are suited to living in a particular climatic condition.
6. The enclosure of these penguins consists of water pool, air handling units and a chiller system to maintain temperatures between 12 – 14°C, where the penguins were kept for around 8 to 10 days to get acclimatised to their new environment before allowing any visitors inside the zoo.

Hence, Humboldt penguins need to be acclimatised to their new surroundings, when kept at a place away from their natural habitat.

Question (B)
Riya found a peculiar plant on her visit to Himachal Pradesh. What are the ways she can show it to her biology teacher and get information about it?
Answer:

1. Riya can press and mount the plant specimen on a herbarium sheet and preserve the dried plant material, until she returns back from her visit.
2. She can also write any available information regarding the collected specimen on the herbarium sheet, which can be useful for further studies with her biology teacher.
3. Various taxonomical aids can be useful to get information about this peculiar plant.

[Note: In order to conserve the local flora, Riya can collect photographs ofplant and describe it’s structure to her teacher.]

Question (c)
At Andaman, authorities do not allow tourists to collect shells from beaches. Why must it be so?
Answer:

1. Seashells are an important part of the coastal ecosystem and are crucial for the survival of various marine creatures.
2. They provide material for building nests of birds and also act as a substratum for attachment of algae, sea grass, sponges and various microbes.
3. Fishes use shells for hiding from predators, whereas hermit crabs use shells as temporary shelters.
4. Removal of seashells from seashores may also indirectly affect the rate of shoreline erosion.

Hence, in an attempt to protect the ecosystem, authorities in Andaman do not allow tourists to collect shells from beaches.

Question (D)
Why do we have greenhouse in botanical gardens?
Answer:

1. Greenhouse is a structure with suitable walls and a roof in which plants are grown under regulated climatic conditions.
2. Most botanical gardens exhibit ornamental plants which require stringent/ optimum climatic conditions for their growth and/or flowering.
3. The greenhouse associated with botanical gardens are also used to grow and propagate those plants that may not survive seasonal changes.

Question (E)
What do you understand from terms like in situ and ex situ conservation?
Answer:
1. In situ conservation: It includes conservation of species in their natural habitats. Grazing, cultivation and collection of products from the forests is banned in such areas. Legally protected areas include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.
2. Ex situ conservation: It includes conservation of species outside their natural habitats. Species are conserved in botanical gardens, culture collections and zoological parks.

4. Write short notes

Question (A)
Write a short note on role of human being in biodiversity conservation.
Answer:

1. Due to rapid increase in human population and industrialization, humans have over-utilized natural resources; leading to degradation of the environment and hence only humans can help conserve the ecosystem.
2. Humans are capable of conserving and improving the quality of nature and thus, can play a major role in biodiversity conservation.
3. In order to conserve biodiversity and its environmental resources, humans must use the resources rationally and avoid excessive degradation of environment.
4. Human beings are stakeholders of the environment and need to come together to overcome pollution and improve the environment quality in order to conserve biodiversity. E.g. Ban or limit on use of harmful products (plastic, chemicals, etc.) that are toxic to various birds, animals, etc.
5. Human beings also play a role in conservation of biodiversity by establishment of various sites for in situ (national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves) and ex situ (botanical gardens, culture collections and zoological parks) conservation.

Question (B)
Importance of botanical garden
Answer:
The importance of botanical gardens is as follows:

1. It is a place where there is an assemblage of living plants maintained for botanical teaching and research purpose.
2. Botanical gardens are important for their records of local flora.
3. Botanical gardens provide facilities for the collection of living plant materials for botanical studies.
4. Botanical gardens also supply seeds and material for botanical investigations.
5. The development of botanical gardens in any country is associated with its history of civilization, culture, heritage, science, art, literature and various other social and religious expressions.
6. Botanical gardens besides possessing an outdoor garden may contain herbaria, research laboratory, greenhouses and library.
7. Botanical gardens are not only important for botanical studies, but also to develop tourism in the country.

Question 5.
How can you, as an individual, prevent the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
As individuals, we can prevent loss of biodiversity in the following ways:

1. Increasing awareness about environmental issues. Making posters that provide more information about biodiversity conservation, to raise public awareness.
2. Increased support and/ or active participation in government policies and actions laid down for conservation of biodiversity.
3. Protect various plant and animal species in our surrounding.
4. Set up bird and bat houses wherever possible.
5. Prevent felling of trees especially native plants or trees in a particular area.
6. Reduce, recycle and reuse resources. Especially, reduce pollution and use of plastic bags and other materials that are potential threats for the environment.
7. Use environment friendly products, segregate and dispose garbage correctly.
8. Convince people about the importance of trees and the need to participate in tree plantation campaign.
9. Obey the rules that fall under Biodiversity Act.

[Students can use the given points as reference and mention additional preventive measures on their own.]

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Make a herbarium under the guidance of your teacher.
[Students are expected to perform the given activity by themselves under the guidance of their teacher.]

Question 2.
Find out information about any one sacred grove (Devrai) in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Sacred groves in Maharashtra are located in districts like Ahmednagar, Bhandara, Chandrapur, Jalgaon, Kolhapur, Nashik, Pune, Raigad, Ratnagiri, Sangli, Satara, Sindhudurg, Thane, Yavatmal.
[Source: Data as per C.P.R. Environment Education Centre, Chennai.]
e. g. Sacred grove of Parinche valley, Pune district of Maharashtra:

The Parinche valley region is comprised of the inaccessible rear part of the Purandhar fort and its surrounding valley region and is situated about 63 km to the southeast of Pune city and 18 km from Saswad town. The total area of the valley region is about 132 sq. km. Parinche is the biggest village and a nodal place in the valley. The majority (12) of the documented groves are located in the Kaldari and Pangare zones. The size of the sacred groves has however reduced due to various human related activities that have taken place in recent years.

The biggest sacred grove in the Parinche valley belongs to Buvasaheb of Tonapewadi and spreads over an area of 4.80 hectares. The forest types are unique to the groves. Presence of key species in the sacred groves varies from region to region. Two key tree species, i.e. Terminalia bellerica and Ficus spp., are present in these sacred groves which have almost disappeared from the surrounding areas.

Large buttressed trees are another important feature of well-preserved sacred groves. The presence of these tree species indicates the vegetation of the past and also the type of potential vegetation that can be regenerated in these regions.
[Source: Waghchaure, C. K., Tetali, P., Gunale, V. R., Antia, N. H., & Birdi, T. J. (2006). Sacred Groves of Parinche Valley of Pune District of Maharashtra, India and their Importance. Anthropology & Medicine, 13(1), 55-761
[Students can refer the given answer and search for more information about other sacred groves on their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 1 Living world Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Whether all organism are similar? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, all organisms are not similar.

1. Organisms on the earth exhibit great diversity.
2. Organisms are grouped as microbes, plants (autotrophs), animals (heterotrophs) and decomposers.
3. Different microbes and decomposers have various shapes and sizes.
4. Plants can be further classified on their shape, size, structure, mode of reproduction, etc. Plants also differ greatly based on the locations in which they are found, e.g. Snowy, desert, forest, aquatic, etc.
5. Even animals show a high degree of variation. They are classified as unicellular, multicellular, invertebrates, vertebrates, etc. Also, based on the environment in which they live, they are classified as terrestrial, aerial, aquatic and amphibians.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Whether all organisms prepare their own food?
Answer:
No, all organisms do not prepare their own food. Organisms that prepare their own food are known as autotrophs (e.g. Green plants, certain microbes). These organisms prepare their own food in the presence of sunlight, water and carbon dioxide.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No.01)

what is the difference between living and non-living things?
Answer:

Can we call? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Can we call reproduction as inclusive character of life?
Answer:
No, we cannot call reproduction as an inclusive character of life. Certain organisms like mules and worker bees do not reproduce and are still living. Thus, reproduction cannot be considered as an all inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Which feature can be considered as all-inclusive characteristic of life? Why?
Answer:
Metabolism can be considered as an all-inclusive (defining) feature of life since it is exhibited by all living organisms and does not take place in non-living things. Another all-inclusive characteristic of life is responsiveness or irritability. This is a unique property of living beings since all living beings are conscious of their surroundings.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 01)

(i) Can metabolic reactions demonstrated in a test tube (called ‘in vitro’ tests) be called living?
Answer:
(a) The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body is known as metabolism and no non-living object exhibits metabolism.
(b) However, metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the body in a test tube (cell-free medium).
(c) Thus, isolated metabolic reaction (s) outside the body of an organism, performed in a test tube is neither living nor non-living.
(d) Metabolic reactions occurring in vitro are living reactions but not living things.

(ii) Now a days patients are declared ‘brain dead’ and are on life support. They do not show any sign of self-consciousness. Are they living or non-living?
Answer:
The brain controls all life processes. Hence, when a patient is declared as ‘brain dead’, he does not carry out any of the inclusive defining characters of living things (e.g. metabolism, consciousness, etc.) and is completely dependent on machines. Since, such patients do not show any sign of self-consciousness, these patients cannot exactly be called as living.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 01)

How can we study large number of organisms at a glance?
Answer:
Systematic study of organisms with the help of taxonomical aids can be used to study a large number of organisms at a glance.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 03)

What are the essentials of a good herbarium?
Answer:
The essentials of a good herbarium are as follows:

1. It is essential to identify and label the collected specimen correctly.
2. Specimens should be stored in a dry place.
3. The plants are usually pressed and mounted on the sheet of paper known as herbarium sheets. Some plants are not suitable for pressing or mounting, like succulents, seeds, cones, etc. They need to be preserved in suitable liquid like formaldehyde, acetic alcohol, etc.
4. In order to preserve the specimen for longer durations, acid-free paper, special glues and inks must be used to mount the specimen so that the specimen does not deteriorate.
5. The specimens should be dried well before preparing a herbarium in order to prevent rotting of specimen.
6. It is also essential to record the date, place of collection along with detailed classification and highlighting with its ecological peculiarities, characters of the plant on a sheet.

Local names of plant specimens and name of the collector may be added. This information is given at lower right comer of sheet and is called ‘label’.

Why does the loss of biodiversity matter? (Textbook page no. 03)
Answer:

1. The loss of biodiversity is an moral and ethical issue.
2. Biodiversity helps to maintain stability in an ecosystem.
3. Humans share the environment with various other organisms and harm to these species can result in loss of biodiversity.
4. The loss of even one variety of organisms can affect the entire ecosystem. Hence, due to all these reasons, loss of biodiversity matters.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 04)

Human being is at key position in maintaining biodiversity of earth. Find out more information about the following.

(i) Laws to protect and conserve biodiversity in India.
Answer:
a. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
b. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
c. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
d. Environment Protection Act, 1986
[Students can find out more laws to protect and conserve Biodiversity in India]

(ii) Environmental effects of ambitious projects like connecting rivers or connecting cities by constructing roads.
Answer:
Connecting rivers or connecting cities by constructing roads have the following environmental effects:
(a) They form barriers to animals.
(b) Construction of roads requires cutting down of trees and results in large scale deforestation.
(c) They occupy large land resources resulting in loss of habitat of various species.
(d) It can alter the water flow pattern and damage many ecosystems.
(e) Increase in air, water, soil and noise pollution can disturb various animals and birds, thus affecting their behavioural pattern.

(iii) Did bauxite mining in Western Ghats affect critically endangered species like – Black panther, different Ceropegia spp., Eriocaulon spp. ?
Answer:
(a) The Western Ghats, is one of the global biodiversity hotspots and retains more than 30% of all plant, aquatic, reptile, amphibian and mammal species found in India.
(b) Recently, this ecologically sensitive region has been subjected to various developmental activities that have adversely affected the flora and fauna of the region.
(c) Bauxite mining is one such activity which has had significant negative impact on the local environment. To access bauxite ore deposits, the above-ground vegetation needs to be completely removed, causing large scale deforestation. The vegetation in the adjoining area is also affected due to dumping.
(d) The major threats of this activity include vegetation loss, forest fragmentation and biodiversity loss.
(e) Since most mines fall in Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ), it has seriously affected the flora and fauna of the Western Ghats.
(f) Black panthers have frequently been spotted at various locations in the Western Ghats and mining in these areas can seriously affect their health and numbers.
(g) Certain species of Ceropegia and Eriocaulon that are endemic in the area have been reported to be critically endangered.
[Source: Chandore A. (2015) Endemic and threatened flowering plants of Western Ghats with special reference to Konkan region of Maharashtra. Journal of Basic Sciences. 2 (21-25)]
Hence it is most likely that bauxite mining in Western Ghats has adversely affected the critically endangered species like – Black panther, different Ceropegia spp., Eriocaulon spp.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 02)

Collect information about Prof. Almeida, Prof. V. N. Naik, Dr. A. V. Sathe, Dr. P. G. Patwardhan with reference to their taxonomic work and biodiversity conservation.
Answer:
1. Prof. Almeida:
Prof. (Dr.) Marselin R. Almeida was a renowned Plant Taxonomist and Medicinal Plant Consultant of India. He was a curator at the Blatter Herbarium (Mumbai). He discovered four new species of pteridophytes from Bombay presidency. His work includes – Pteridophytes of Maharashtra and Flora of Mahabaleshwar. He has contributed to the Flora of Maharashtra, Sawantwadi and its adjoining areas along with Dr. S. M. Almeida.

2. Prof. V. N. Naik:
Prof. V. N. Naik is a renowned ‘Angiosperms Taxonomist’ of India. He completed the Flora of Marathwada. He has produced 15 Ph.D., 110 research articles and 6 books. His book on ‘Taxonomy of Angiosperms’ (Tata McGraw-Hill Education, 1984) is widely used throughout the world. He is currently a faculty of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Marathwada University, Aurangabad.

3. Dr. A. V. Sathe:
Collection and taxonomic studies of mushrooms in Maharashtra started around 1974. Prof. A.V. Sathe and his team were amongst the first to begin these studies. They recorded 75 species distributed in 43 genera. These species were collected from Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala. The collection of these species was documented in the form of a Monograph on Agaricales.
[Source: Borkar P., Doshi A., Navathe D. (2015) Mushroom diversity of Konkan region of Maharashtra, India. Journal of Threatened Taxa. 7(10): 7625-7640]

4. Dr. P. G. Patwardhan:
Dr. Patwardhan and his associates at the M.A.C.S. Research Institute, Pune-renamed as Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), Pune have performed detailed studies on lichens. His school is in possession of over 600 species of crustose lichens, obtained after intensive collection programmes. These specimens have been deposited in the Ajarekar Mycological Herbarium in the Department of Mycology and Plant Pathology at the M.A.C.S. Research Institute, Pune.
[Source:
http://lib.unipune.ac.in:8080/xmlui/bitstreamfhandle/l23456789/7451/07_introduction.pdf? sequence=7&is Allowedly]
[Students are expected to find more information on their own.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 03)

Why should we visit botanical gardens, museums and zoo?
Answer:

1. Botanical gardens, museums and zoos are taxonomical aids which can be used to study biodiversity.
2. Botanical gardens have a wide range of plant species that are protected and preserved which can be observed and studied.
3. Museums help gain information about various plants and animals that are preserved and may even be extinct. They act as reference hubs for biodiversity studies.
4. Zoos provide information about various animals.

They also harbour certain endangered animals and help us understand the role of biodiversity conservation. They can also be visited to study the food habits and behaviour of animals. Hence, we should visit botanical gardens, museums and zoos.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 03)

What is ‘ex-situ’and ‘in-situ’ conservation?
Answer:
1. In situ conservation: It includes conservation of species in their natural habitats. Grazing, cultivation and collection of products from the forests is banned in such areas. Legally protected areas include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.
2. Ex situ conservation: It includes conservation of species outside their natural habitats. Species are conserved in botanical gardens, culture collections and zoological parks.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 04)

(a) Collect information about botanical gardens, zoological parks and biodiversity hotspots in India.
Answer:
a. Botanical gardens in India:

b. Zoological Parks in India:

c. Biodiversity hotspots in India:

[Students are expected to use the given table as reference and collect more information on their own.]

(ii) Collect information of endemic flora and fauna of India.
Answer:
(a) Endemic flora:
Albizia sikharamensis (Mimosaceae), Argvreia arakuensis (Convolvulaceae), Arundinella setosa (Poaceae), Acacia diadenia (Mimosaceae), Citrus assamensis (Rutaceae), Magnolia bailloni (Magnoliaceae), etc.

(b) Endemic fauna:
Bare Bellied Hedgehog (Paraechinus nudiventris), Andaman Shrew (Crocidura andamanensis), Aruanchal Macaque (Macaca munzala), Car Nicobar Rat (Rattus palmarum), Peter’s Tube-nosed Bat (Harpiola grisea) etc.
[Source: http://faunaofindia.nic.in/PDFVolumes/spb/056/index.pdf]
[Students are expected to use the given sources and find more information on their own.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 16 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 16 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question A.
Oxidative Rancidity is …………….. reaction
a. addition
b. substitution
c. Free radical
d. combination
Answer:
c. Free radical

Question B.
Saponification is carried out by ……………..
a. oxidation
b. alkaline hydrolysis
c. polymerisation
d. Free radical formation
Answer:
b. alkaline hydrolysis

Question C.
Aspirin is chemically named as ……………..
a. Salicylic acid
b. acetyl salicylic acid
c. chloroxylenol
d. thymol
Answer:
b. acetyl salicylic acid

Question D.
Find odd one out from the following
a. dettol
b. chloroxylenol
c. paracetamol
d. trichlorophenol
Answer:
c. paracetamol

Question E.
Arsenic based antibiotic is
a. Azodye
b. prontosil
c. salvarsan
d. sulphapyridine
Answer:
c. salvarsan

Question F.
The chemical used to slow down the browning action of cut fruit is
a. SO₃
b. SO₂
c. H₂SO₄
d. Na₂CO₃
Answer:
b. SO₂

Question G.
The chemical is responsible for the rancid flavour of fats is
a. Butyric acid
b. Glycerol
c. Protein
d. Saturated fat
Answer:
a. Butyric acid

Question H.
Health benefits are obtained by consumption of
a. Saturated fats
b. trans fats
c. monounsaturated fats
d. all of these
Answer:
c. monounsaturated fats

2. Explain the following :

Question A.
Cooking makes food easy to digest.
Answer:

• During the cooking process, high polymers of carbohydrates or proteins are hydrolysed to smaller polymeric units.
• The uncooked food mixture is a heterogeneous suspension which becomes a colloidal matter on cooking.
• As a result, the constituent nutrient molecules present in cooked food are smaller in size and hence, easier to digest, than the uncooked food.

Hence, cooking makes food easy to digest.

Question B.
On cutting some fruits and vegetables turn brown.
Answer:
i. Cutting of fruits and vegetables damage the cells, resulting in release of chemicals.
ii. Depending on the pH of fruits/vegetables, polyphenols are released.
iii. Due to the action of an enzyme, these polyphenols react with oxygen present in the air and get oxidised to form quinones.

iv. Quinones further undergo reactions including polymerization, which results in the formation of brown coloured products called as tannins.
Thus, on cutting, some fruits and vegetables turn brown.

Question C.
Vitmin E is added to packed edible oil.
Answer:

• Vitamin E is a very effective natural antioxidant.
• The phenolic – OH group present in the structure of vitamin E is responsible for its antioxidant activity.
• Also, the long chain of saturated carbon atoms makes it fat soluble.

Therefore, when vitamin E is added to packed edible oil, it prevents the oxidative rancidity of the oil.

Question D.
Browning of cut apple can be prolonged by applying lemon juice.
Answer:

• Browning of cut apple is due to the oxidation of polyphenols at a particular pH to quinones, which further undergoes polymerization to form brown coloured tannins.
• This browning reaction can be prolonged or slowed down by using reducing agents or by changing the pH.
• Applying lemon juice (i.e., citric acid) on the cut apple, lowers the pH at the surface of the apple. This prevents the oxidation reaction. Thus, browning of cut apple can be prolonged by applying lemon juice.

Question E.
A diluted solution (4.8 % w/v) of 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is employed as antiseptic.
Answer:

• 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol (TCP) is more potent antiseptic than phenol.
• It has low corrosive effects as compared to phenol, if used in lower concentrations.

Hence, diluted solution (4.8% w/v) of 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is used as antiseptic.

Question F.
Turmeric powder can be used as antiseptic.
Answer:

• Turmeric powder contains an active ingredient called curcumin.
• Curcumin has antiseptic properties; thus, it is used for wound healing or applied on bruise.

Hence, turmeric powder can be used as antiseptic.

3. Identify the functional groups in the following molecule :

Answer:

4. Give two differences between the following

Question A.
Disinfectant and antiseptic
Answer:

Question B.
Soap and synthetic detergent
Answer:

Question C.
Saturated and unsaturated fats
Answer:

Question D.
Rice flour and cooked rice
Answer:

5. Match the pairs.

Answer:
A – e,
B – a,
C – d,
D – c

6. Name two drugs which reduce body pain.
Answer:
Aspirin and paracetamol are the two drugs that reduce body pain.

7. Explain with examples

Question A.
Antiseptics
Answer:
i. Antiseptics are used to sterilise surfaces of living tissue when the risk of infection is very high, such as during surgery or on wounds.
ii. Commonly used antiseptics include inorganics like iodine and boric acid or organics like iodoform and some phenolic compounds.

e.g.

• Tincture of iodine (2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture) and iodoform serve as powerful antiseptics and is used to apply on wounds.
• A dilute aqueous solution of boric acid is a weak antiseptic used for eyes.
• Various phenols are used as antiseptics. A dilute aqueous solution of phenol (carbolic acid) is used as antiseptic; however, phenol is found to be corrosive in nature. Many chloro derivatives of phenols are more potent antiseptics than the phenol itself. They can be used with much lower concentrations, which reduce their corrosive effects.
• Two of the most common phenol derivatives in use are trichlorophenol (TCP) and chloroxylenol (which is an active ingredient of antiseptic dettol).
• Thymol obtained from oil of thyme (a spice plant) has excellent non-toxic antiseptic properties.

Question B.
Disinfectant
Answer:

• Disinfectants are non-selective antimicrobials.
• They kill a wide range of microorganisms including bacteria.
• They are used on non-living surfaces for example, floors, instruments, sanitary ware, etc.
• Various phenols can be used as disinfectants.
  e.g. p-Chloro-o-benzyl phenol is used as a disinfectant in all-purpose cleaners.

Question C.
Cationic detergents
Answer:
Cationic detergents: These are quaternary ammonium salts having one long chain alkyl group.
e.g. Ethyltrimethylammonium bromide: [CH₃(CH₂)₁₅ – N⁺(CH₃)₃]Br^–

Question D.
Anionic detergents
Answer:
Anionic detergents: These are sodium salts of long chain alkyl sulphonic acids or long chain alkyl substituted benzene sulphonic acids.
e.g. Sodium lauryl sulphate: CH₃(CH₂)₁₀CH₃O\(\mathrm{SO}_{3}^{-}\)Na⁺

Question E.
Non-ionic detergents
Answer:
Nonionic detergents: These are ethers of polyethylene glycol with alkyl phenol or esters of polyethylene glycol with long chain fatty acid.
e.g. a. Nonionic detergent containing ether linkage:

b. Nonionic detergent containing ester linkage: CH₃(CH₂)₁₆ – COO(CH₂CH₂O)_nCH₂CH₂OH

8. Explain : mechnism of cleansing Action of soap with flow chart.
Answer:
The following flow chart shows mechanism of cleansing action of soap:

9. What is meant by broad spectrum antibiotic and narrow spectrum antibiotics?
Answer:
Antibiotics which are effective against wide range of bacteria are known as broad spectrum antibiotics, while antibiotics which are effective against one group of bacteria are known as narrow spectrum antibiotics.

10. Answer in one senetence

Question A.
Name the painkiller obtained from acetylation of salicyclic acid.
Answer:
Aspirin is the pain killer obtained from acetylation of salicylic acid.

Question B.
Name the class of drug often called as painkiller.
Answer:
Analgesics are the class of drug often called as painkiller.

Question C.
Who discovered penicillin?
Answer:
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin.

Question D.
Draw the structure of chloroxylenol and salvarsan.
Answer:
Structure of chloroxylenol:

Structure of salvarsan:

Question E.
Write molecular formula of Butylated hydroxy toulene.
Answer:
Molecular formula of butylated hydroxytoluene is C₁₅H₂₄O.

Question F.
What is the tincture of iodine ?
Answer:
Tincture of iodine is a 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture.

Question G.
Draw the structure of BHT.
Answer:

Question I.
Write a chemical equation for saponification.
Answer:

Question J.
Write the molecular formula and name of

Answer:
Molecular formula: C₉H₈O₄
Name: Aspirin

11. Answer the following

Question A.
Write two examples of the following.
a. Analgesics
c. Antiseptics
d. Antibiotics
e. Disinfectant
Answer:

Question B.
What do you understand by antioxidant ?
Answer:

• An antioxidant is a substance that delays the onset of oxidant or slows down the rate of oxidation of foodstuff.
• It is used to extend the shelf life of food.
• Antioxidants react with oxygen-containing free radicals and thereby prevent oxidative rancidity.
  e.g. Vitamin E is a very effective natural antioxidant.

Activity :

Collect information about different chemical compounds as per their applications in day-to-day life.
Answer:

[Note: Students can use the above information as reference and collect additional information on their own.]

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 261)

Question i.
What are the components of balanced diet?
Answer:
Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oil), vitamins, minerals and water are the components of balanced diet.

Question ii.
Why is food cooked? What is the difference in the physical states of uncooked and cooked food?
Answer:

• Food is cooked in order to make it easy to digest.
• Also, the raw or uncooked food may contain harmful microorganisms which may cause illness. Cooking of food at high temperature kills most of these microorganisms.
• Raw/uncooked food materials like dried pulses, vegetables, meat, etc. are hard and thus, not easily chewable while cooked food is soft and tender, therefore, easily chewable.

Question iii.
What are the chemicals that we come across in everyday life?
Answer:
Detergents, shampoos, medicines, various food flavours, food colours, etc. are different types of chemicals that we come across in everyday life.

Just think (Textbook Page No. 261)

Question i.
Why is food stored for a long time?
Answer:
Food (like various cereals, pulses, pickles) is stored for a long time to make it available in all seasons.

Question ii.
What methods are used for preservation of food?
Answer:
Various physical and chemical methods are used for preservations of food.

• Physical methods like, addition of heat, removal of heat, removal of water, irradiation, etc., are used in order to preserve food.
• Chemical methods like, addition of sugar, salt, vinegar, etc. are employed for preservation of food.

Question iii.
What is meant by quality of food?
Answer:
Food quality can be described in terms of parameters such as flavour, smell, texture, colour and microbial spoilage.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 263)

Question i.
How is Vanaspati ghee made?
Answer:
Vanaspati ghee is prepared by hydrogenation of oils. Hydrogen gas is passed through the oils at about 450 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form solid edible fats like vanaspati ghee.

Question ii.
What are the physical states of peanut oil, butter, animal fat, Vanaspati ghee at room temperature?
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 264)

Question 1.
When is an antipyretic drug used?
Answer:
An antipyretic drug is used to reduce fever (that is, it lowers body temperature when a fever is present).

Question 2.
What type of medicine is applied to a bruise?
Answer:
Antiseptic such as tincture of iodine is applied on a bruise in order to prevent the exposed living tissue from getting infected.

Question 3.
What is meant by a broad spectrum antibiotic?
Answer:
Antibiotics which are effective against wide range of bacteria are known as broad spectrum antibiotic.

Question 4.
What is the active principle ingredient of cinnamon bark?
Answer:
Cinnamaldehyde is the principle active ingredient of cinnamon bark.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 268)

Question i.
Can we use the same soap for bathing as well as cleaning utensils or washing clothes? Why?
Answer:
No, we cannot use the same soap for bathing as well as cleaning utensils or washing clothes due to the following reasons:

• Chemical composition of each type of soap or cleansing material is different.
• Nature, acidity, texture, reactivity towards water (i.e., hard water or soft water), reactivity towards microorganisms, stains are different for each type of soap.
• Depending on these qualities, soaps are classified and used accordingly.
  e.g. pH of soaps used for bathing purpose is different than that of the soap which is used for cleaning utensils.

Thus, we cannot use the same soap for bathing as well as cleaning utensils or washing clothes.

Question ii.
How will you differentiate between soaps and synthetic detergent using borewell water?
Answer:
Borewell water is hard water. Soaps and synthetic detergents react differently with hard water.

1. Soap: Soaps are insoluble in hard water. Borewell water (hard water) contains Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions. Soaps react with these ions to form insoluble magnesium and calcium salts of fatty acids. These salts precipitate out as gummy substance or form scum.
2. Synthetic detergents: Synthetic detergents can be used in hard water as well. They contain molecules (components) which form soluble calcium and magnesium salts.

Thus, soaps will form scum in borewell water but synthetic detergents will not.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Hydrocarbons Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 15 Hydrocarbons Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 15 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 15 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct options

Question A.
Which of the following compound has the highest boiling point?
a. n-pentane
b. iso-butane
c. butane
d. neopentane
Answer:
a. n-pentane

Question B.
Acidic hydrogen is present in :
a. acetylene
b. ethane
c. ethylene
d. dimethyl acetylene
Answer:
a. acetylene

Question C.
Identify ‘A’ in the following reaction:

a. KMnO₄/H⁺
b. alkaline KMnO₄
c. dil. H₂SO₄/1% HgSO₄
d. NaOH/H₂O₂
Answer:
a. KMnO₄/H⁺

Question D.
Major product of chlorination of ethyl benzene is :
a. m-chlorethyl benzene
b. p-chloroethyl benzene
c. chlorobenzene
d. o-chloroethylbenzene
Answer:
b. p-chloroethyl benzene

Question E.
1 – chloropropane on treatment with alc. KOH produces :
a. propane
b. propene
c. propyne
d. propyl alcohol
Answer:
b. propene

2. Name the following :

Question A.
The type of hydrocarbon that is used as lubricant.
Answer:
Waxes

Question B.
Alkene used in the manufacture of polythene bags.
Answer:
Ethene

Question C.
The hydrocarbon said to possess carcinogenic property.
Answer:
Benzene

Question D.
What are the main natural sources of alkane?
Answer:
Crude petroleum and natural gas.

Question E.
Arrange the three isomers of alkane with malecular formula C₅H₁₂ in increasing order of boiling points and write their IUPAC names.
Answer:
The three isomers of alkane with molecular formula C₅H₁₂ are as follows:

The increasing order of their boiling point is I > II > III.

Question F.
Write IUPAC names of the products obtained by the reaction of cold concentrated sulphuric acid followed by water with the following compounds.
a. propene
b. but-1-ene
Answer:
a. propene:

b. but-1-ene:

Question G.
Write the balanced chemical reaction for preparation of ethane from
a. Ethyl bromide
b. Ethyl magnesium iodide
Answer:
a. Preparation of ethane from ethyl bromide:

b. Preparation of ethane from ethyl magnesium iodide:

Question H.
How many monochlorination products are possible for
a. 2-methylpropane ?
b. 2-methylbutane ?
Draw their structures and write their IUPAC names.
Answer:
a. Possible monochlorination products for 2-methylpropane:

b. Possible monochlorination products for 2-methylbutane:

Question I.
Write all the possible products for pyrolysis of butane.
Answer:
Possible products for pyrolysis of butane are:

Question J.
Which of the following will exhibit geometical isomerism ?

Answer:
Compound (c) will exhibit geometrical isomerism.

Question K.
What is the action of following on ethyl iodide ?
a. alc. KOH
b. Zn, HCl
Answer:
a. Action of alc. KOH on ethyl iodide:

b. Action of Zn/HCl on ethyl iodide:

Question L.
An alkene ‘A’ an ozonolysis gives 2 moles of ethanal. Write the structure and IUPAC name of ‘A’.
Answer:
Structure of A: CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃
IUPAC name of A: But-2-ene

Question M.
Acetone and acetaldehyde are the ozonolysis products of an alkene. Write the structural formula of an alkene and give IUPAC name of it.
Answer:
The structural formula of alkene:

IUPAC name is 2-methylbut-2-ene.

Question N.
Write the reaction to convert
a. propene to n-propyl alcohol.
b. propene to isoproyl alcohol.
Answer:
a.

b.

Question O.
What is the action of following on but-2-ene ?
a. dil alkaline KMnO₄
b. acidic KMnO₄
Answer:
a. Action of dil. alkaline KMnO₄ on but-2-ene:

b. Action of acidic KMnO₄ on but-2-ene:

Question P.
Complete the following reaction sequence :

Answer:

Question Q.
Write the balanced chemical reactions to get benzene from
a. Sodium benzoate.
b. Phenol.
Answer:
a. Sodium benzoate:
When anhydrous sodium benzoate is heated with soda lime, it undergoes decarboxylation and gives benzene.

b. Phenol:
When vapours of phenol are passed over heated zinc dust, it undergoes reduction and gives benzene.

Question R.
Predict the possible products of the following reaction.
a. chlorination of nitrobenzene,
b. sulfonation of chlorobenzene,
c. bromination of phenol,
d. nitration of toluene.
Answer:
a. Nitro group is meta directing group. So, chlorination of nitrobenzene gives m-chloronitrobenzene.

b. Chloro group is ortho and para directing group. So, sulphonation of chlorobenzene gives p-chlorobenzene sulphonic acid and o- chlorobenzene sulphonic acid.

c. Phenolic -OH group is ortho and para directing group. So, bromination of phenol gives p-bromophenol and o-bromophenol.

d. Methyl group is ortho and para directing group. So, nitration of toluene gives p-nitrotoluene and o-nitrotoluene.

3. Identify the main product of the reaction

Answer:
a.

b.

c.

d.

4. Read the following reaction and answer the questions given below.

a. Write IUPAC name of the product.
b. State the rule that governs formation of this product.
Answer:
a. IUPAC name of the product: 1 -Bromo-2-methylpropane
b. Anti-Markownikov’s rule/Kharasch effect/peroxide effect: It states that, the addition of HBr to unsymmetrical alkene in the presence of organic peroxide (R-O-O-R) takes place in the opposite orientation to that suggested by Markovnikov’s rule.

5. Identify A, B, C in the following reaction sequence :

Answer:

6. Identify giving reason whether the following compounds are aromatic or not.

Answer:
A.

Compound is non-aromatic since it has 4π electrons and hence, does not obey Huckel rule of aromaticity.

B.

Compound is non-aromatic since it has 4π electrons and hence, does not obey Huckel rule of aromaticity.

C.

Compound is aromatic since it has 6π electrons and hence, obeys Huckel rule of aromaticity.

D.

Compound is aromatic since it has 6n electrons and hence, obeys Huckel rule of aromaticity.

7. Name two reagents used for acylation of benzene.
Answer:
The two reagents used for acylation of benzene are:
i. CH₃COCl (acetyl chloride) and anhydrous AlCl₃
ii. (CH₃CO)₂O (acetic anhydride) and anhydrous AlCl₃

8. Read the following reaction and answer the questions given below.

A. Write the name of the reaction.
B. Identify the electrophile in it.
C. How is this electrophile generated?
Answer:
A. The name of the reaction is Friedel-Craft’s alkylation reaction.
B. The electrophile in the reaction is ⁺CH₃.
C. The electrophile ⁺CH₃ is generated as follows:

Activity:

Prepare chart of hydrocarbons and note down the characteristics.
Answer:

Characteristics of hydrocarbons:

• They are chemical compounds that are formed from only hydrogen and carbon atoms.
• Both ‘C’ and ‘H’ share an electron pair forming covalent bonds.
• One of the special properties of carbon is its ability to form double and triple bonds (unsaturation). Saturated hydrocarbons are alkanes and cycloalkanes while the unsaturated hydrocarbons are the aromatics, alkenes and alkynes.
• All hydrocarbons are insoluble in water, their boiling point increases as the size of alkane increases.
• All hydrocarbons can reach complete oxidation.
• Hydrocarbons are mainly used as fuel for transport and industry.

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information on hydrocarbons on their own.]

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 15 Hydrocarbons Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 233)

Question i.
What are hydrocarbons?
Answer:
The compounds which contain carbon and hydrogen as the only elements are called hydrocarbons.

Question ii.
Write structural formulae of the following compounds: propane, ethyne, cyclobutane, ethene, benzene.
Answer:

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 233)

Question 1.
Why are alkanes called paraffins?
Answer:
i. Alkanes contain only carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen single covalent bonds.
ii. They are chemically less reactive and do not have much affinity for other chemicals.
Hence, they are called paraffins.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 233)

Question 1.
Collect information about hydrocarbon.
Answer:

• In organic chemistry, a hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of carbon and hydrogen as the only elements.
• They are examples of group 14 hydrides.
• Alkanes, cycloalkanes, aromatic hydrocarbons are different types of hydrocarbons.
• Most of the hydrocarbons found on earth occur naturally in crude oil.
• They mainly undergo substitution, addition or combustion reactions.
• Most hydrocarbons are flammable and toxic.
• They are the primary energy source in the form of combustible fuel source.

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information on their own]

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 234)

Question 1.
i. Write the structures of all the chain isomers of the saturated hydrocarbon containing six carbon atoms.
ii. Write IUPAC names of all the above structures.
Answer:
The structural formulae and names of all possible isomers having molecular formula C₆H₁₄ are as follows:

Note:
Alkanes and isomer number

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 235)

Question i.
What is a catalyst?
Answer:
A catalyst is a substance that can be added to a reaction to increase the reaction rate without getting consumed in the process.
e.g. Ni is used as a catalyst in the catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes or alkynes.

Question ii.
What is addition reaction?
Answer:
When a compound combines with another compound to form a product that contain all the atoms in both the reactants, it is called an addition reaction.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 235)

Question 1.
Transform the following word equation into balanced chemical equation and write at least 3 changes that occur at molecular level during this chemical change.
\(\text { 2-Methylpropene + Hydrogen } \stackrel{\text { catalyst }}{\longrightarrow} \text { Isobutane }\)
Answer:

Three changes which occur at molecular level include:
Step 1: Adsorption of reactants: Reactants (alkene and hydrogen) get adsorbed on the catalytic surface.
Step 2: Formation of a product: Hydrogen atoms are added across the double bond of 2-methylpropene which results in the formation of product isobutane.
Step 3: Desorption: Product formed on the catalytic surface is readily desorbed making catalytic surface available for other molecules.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 236)

Question 1.
Why are alkanes insoluble in water and readily soluble in organic solvents like chloroform or ether?
Answer:

• The solubility of any substance is governed by the principle of like dissolves like. This means polar compounds are soluble in polar solvents while nonpolar compounds are soluble in nonpolar solvents.
• Alkanes consist of C – C and C – H nonpolar covalent bonds and thus, they are nonpolar in nature, whereas water is a polar solvent.
• The dipole-dipole forces that exist between water molecules is much stronger than the forces of attraction between alkane and water molecules.

Hence, alkanes are insoluble in water and readily soluble in organic solvents like chloroform or ether.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 238)

Question 1.
What is the product which is poisonous and causes air pollution formed by incomplete combustion of alkane?
Answer:
When alkanes are subjected to incomplete combustion, it forms carbon monoxide and carbon (soot).
i. 2CH_4(g) + 3O_2(g) → 2CO_(g) + 4H₂O_(g)
ii. CH_4(g) + O_2(g) → C_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 238)

Question i.
What are alkenes?
Answer:
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing at least one carbon-carbon double bond.

Question ii.
Calculate the number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in 2-methylpropene.
Answer:

Question iii.
Write the structural formula of pent-2-ene.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 241)

Question i.
Explain by writing a reaction, the main product formed on heating 2-methylbutan-2-ol with concentrated sulphuric acid.
Answer:

Question ii.
Will the main product in the above reaction show geometrical isomerism?
Answer:
No, the major product, i.e., 2-methylbut-2-ene does not show geometrical (or cis-trans) isomerism.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 244)

Question 1.
Propan-1-ol and 2-methypropan-1-ol are not prepared by hydration method. Why?
Answer:
Propan-1-ol and 2-methylpropan-1-ol cannot be prepared by hydration of propene and 2-methylprop-1-ene because the addition reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule.

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 244)

Question 1.
On ozonolysis, an alkene forms the following carbonyl compounds. Draw the structure of unknown alkene from which these compounds are formed: HCHO and CH₃COCH₂CH₃
Answer:
The structure of alkene which produces a mixture of HCHO and CH₃COCH₂CH₃ on ozonolysis is

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 245)

Question 1.
Write the structure of monomer from which each of the following polymers are obtained.

Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 246)

Question i.
What are aliphatic hydrocarbons?
Answer:
Aliphatic hydrocarbons are hydrocarbons containing carbon and hydrogen joined together in straight chain or branched chain. They may be saturated (alkanes) or unsaturated (alkenes or alkynes).

Question ii.
Compare the proportion of carbon and hydrogen atoms in ethane, ethene and ethyne. Which compound is most unsaturated with hydrogen?
Answer:
Ethane
C : H = 2 : 6 = 1 : 3
Ethene
C : H = 2 : 4 = 1 : 2
Ethyne
C : H = 2 : 2 = 1 : 1
From the above proportion it is clear that ethyne with 1 : 1 ratio of C : H is most unsaturated with hydrogen (50%) as compared to ethane (25%) and ethene (33.33%).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 247)

Question 1.
Why is sodamide used in dehydrohalogenation of vicinal dihalides to remove HX from alkenyl halide in place of alcoholic KOH?
Answer:

• Sodamide (NaNH₂) is a strong base and hence, helps in complete conversion of alkenyl halide formed in the first step to form alkynes.
• The base (KOH or NaOH) used in first step gives alkynes in poor yield and hence, stronger bases such as NaNH₂ on KNH₂ are used in second step.

Use your brainpower! (Textbook Page No. 247)

Question 1.
Convert: 1-Bromobutane to hex-1-yne
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 248)

Question 1.
Alkanes and alkenes do not react with lithium amide. Give reason.
Answer:
i. The sp hybrid carbon atom in terminal alkynes is more electronegative than the sp² carbon in ethene or the sp³ carbon in ethane.
ii. Due to high electronegative character of carbon in terminal alkynes, hydrogen atom can be given away as proton (H⁺) to very strong base as shown in the reactions below.

iii. Further, since s-character decreases from sp to sp² to sp³ carbon atom, the relative acidity of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes is in the following order: H – C = C – H > H₂C = CH₂ > H₃C – CH₃
Hence, alkenes and alkanes do not react with lithium amide.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 248)

Question 1.
Arrange following hydrocarbons in the increasing order of acidic character: propane, propyne, propene.
Answer:
Propyne > propene > propane

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 249)

Question 1.
Convert: 3-Methylbut-l-yne into 3-methylbutan-2-one
Answer:

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 249)

Question i.
What are aromatic hydrocarbons?
Answer:
Benzene and all compounds that have structures and chemical properties resembling benzene are called as aromatic hydrocarbons.

Question ii.
What are benzenoid and non-benzenoid aromatics?
Answer:
Benzenoid aromatics are compounds having at least one benzene ring in the structure.
e.g. Benzene, naphthalene, anthracene, phenol, etc.,
Non-benzenoid aromatics are compounds that contain an aromatic ring, other than benzene. e.g. Tropone, etc.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 254)

Question 1.
What is decarboxylation?
Answer:
The reaction which involves removal of a carboxyl group (-COOH) in the form of carbon dioxide (CO₂) is known as decarboxylation reaction.
R – COOH → R – H + CO₂

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions

1. Answer the following :

Question A.
Write condensed formulae and bond line formulae for the following structures.

Answer:

Question B.
Write dash formulae for the following bond line formulae.

Answer:

Question C.
Write bond-line formulae and condensed formulae for the following compounds
a. 3-methyloctane
b. hept-2-ene
c. 2, 2, 4, 4- tetramethylpentane
d. octa-1,4-diene
e. methoxy ethane
Answer:

Question D.
Write the structural formulae for the following names and also write correct IUPAC names for them.
a. 5-ethyl-3-methylheptane
b. 2,4,5-trimethylthexane
c. 2,2,3-trimethylpentan-4-01
Answer:

Question E.
Identify more favourable resonance structure from the following. Justify.

Answer:
a.

Structure (I) will be more favourable resonance structure as structure (II) involves separation of opposite charges and the electronegative oxygen atom has a positive charge.

Both structures (I) and (II) involves separation of opposite charges, but structure (I) has a positive charge on the more electropositive ‘C’ and a negative charge on more electronegative ‘O’. Thus, structure (I) will be more favourable resonance structure.

Question F.
Find out all the functional groups present in the following polyfunctional compounds.
a. Dopamine a neurotransmitter that is deficient in Parkinson’s disease.

b. Thyroxine the principal thyroid hormone.

c. Penicillin G, a naturally occurring antibiotic

Answer:
i. Functional groups: Phenolic -OH group (Ar-OH) and primary amine (-NH₂) group are present in dopamine.
ii. Functional groups: Phenolic -OH group (Ar-OH), halide (-I), ether (Ar-O-Ar), primary amine (-NH₂) carboxylic acid (-COOH) groups are present in thyroxine.
iii. Functional groups: Secondary amide
,
carboxylic acid (-COOH), tertiary amide
,
thioether (R-S-R) groups are present in penicillin G.

Question G.
Find out the most stable species from the following. Justify.

Answer:
a. The most stable species from the given species is \(\left(\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{C}\right)_{3} \dot{\mathrm{C}}\) i.e., tert-butyl radical.
This is because it has greater number of alkyl groups attached to the C-atom having unpaired electron. More the number of the alkyl groups, the greater will be +1 inductive (electron releasing) effect, and thereby greater will be the stability of the free radical.

b. The most stable species from the given species is \(\mathrm{CBr}_{3}^{-}\).
This is because it contains 3 -Br atoms, which exhibits electron withdrawing inductive effect. Carbanions are stabilized by -I inductive (electron withdrawing) effect. Larger the number of -I groups attached to the negatively charged carbon atom, lower will be the electron density on the carbon atom and higher will be its stability.

c. The most stable species from the given species is \(\stackrel{+}{\mathbf{C}} \mathbf{H}_{3}\).
This because it does not contain Cl atom, which exhibits electron withdrawing inductive effect. Carbocations are destabilized by -I inductive (electron withdrawing) effect. When more number of-I groups are attached to the positively charged carbon atom, the positive charge on the carbon atom increases further, thus destabilizing the species. Hence, the species with no -I groups will be most stable.

Question H.
Identify the α-carbons in the following species and give the total number of α-hydrogen in each.

Answer:
a.

In structure (i), C-2 and C-4 are α-carbon atoms.
Hydrogen atoms(s) attached to α-C atoms is a α-H atom. Thus, structure (i) contains 4 α-H atoms.
b.

In structure (ii), carbon atoms adjacent to C-2 are α-carbon atoms (as shown in the structure).
Thus, structure (ii) contains 6 α-H atoms.

c.

C-3 carbon atom, that is, C-atom next to (H₂C=CH-) is a α-C atom.
Thus, structure (iii) contains 2 α-H atoms.

Question I.
Identify primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbon in the following compounds.

Answer:

2. Match the pairs

Answer:
i – d,
ii – c,
iii – a

3. What is meant by homologous series ? Write the first four members of homologous series that begins with
A. CH₃CHO
B. H-C≡C-H
Also write down their general molecular formula.
Answer:
Homologous series: A series of compounds of the same family in which each member has the same type of carbon skeleton and functional group, and differs from the next member by a constant difference of one methylene group (-CH₂-) in its molecular and structural formula is called as homologous series.
A. CH₃CHO :

Comparing these molecular formulae and assigning the number of carbon atoms as ‘n’, the following general formula is deduced: C_nH_2nO/C_nH_2n-1CHO (where n = 1, 2, 3, …).

B. H-C≡C-H :

Comparing these molecular formulae and assigning the number of carbon atoms as ‘n’, the following general formula is deduced: C_nH_2n-2 (where n = 2, 3,4,….).

4. Write IUPAC names of the following

Answer:

5. Find out the type of isomerism exhibited by the following pairs.


Answer:
A. Metamerism
B. Functional group isomerism
C. Tautomerism
D. Tautomerism

6. Draw resonance srtuctures of the following :

A. Phenol
B. Benzaldehyde
C. Buta-1,3-diene
D. Acetate ion
Answer:
A. Resonance structures for phenol:

B. Resonance structures of benzaldehyde:

C. Resonance structures of Buta-1,3-diene:

D. Resonance structures of acetate ion:

7. Distinguish :

Question A.
Inductive effect and resonance effect
Answer:
Inductive effect:

1. Presence of polar covalent bond is required.
2. The polarity is induced in adjacent carbon- carbon single (covalent) bond due to a presence of influencing group (more electronegative atom than carbon).
3. Depending on the nature of influencing group it is differentiated as +I effect and -I effect.
4. The direction of the arrow head denotes the direction of the permanent electron displacement.

Resonance effect:

1. Presence of conjugated n electron system or species having an atom carrying p orbital attached to a multiple bond is required.
2. The polarity is produced in the molecule by the interaction of conjugated π bonds (or that between π bond and p orbital on the adjacent atom).
3. Depending on the nature of influencing group it is differentiated as +R and -R effect.
4. The delocalisation of n electrons is denoted by using curved arrows.

Question B.
Electrophile and nucleophile
Answer:
Electrophile:

1. Electrophile is an electron deficient species.
2. It is attracted towards negative charge (electron seeking).
3. It attacks a nucleophilic centre in the substrate and brings about an electrophilic reaction
4. It is an electron pair acceptor. (Lewis acid)
5. It can be a positively charged ion or a neutral species having a vacant orbital.
   e.g. H⁺, Br , \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}\), BF₃, AlCl₃, etc.

Nucleophile:

• Nucleophile is an electron rich species.
• It is attracted towards positive charge (nucleus seeking).
• It attacks the electrophilic centre in the substrate and brings about a nucleophilic reaction.
• It is an electron pair donor. (Lewis base)
• It can be negatively charged ion or neutral species having at least one lone pair of electrons.
  

C. Carbocation and carbanion
Answer:
Carbocation:

• It is a species in which carbon carries a positive charge.
• Positively charged carbon is sp² hybridized.
• It is electron-deficient.
• e.g. tert-Butyl carbocation, (CH₃)₃C⁺

Carbanion:

• It is a species in which carbon carries a negative charge.
• Negatively charged carbon is sp³/sp² hybridized.
• It is electron-rich.
• e.g.Methyl carbanion,
  

D. Homolysis and heterolysis
Answer:

8. Write true or false. Correct the false stament
A. Homolytic fission involves unsymmetrical breaking of a covalent bond.
B. Heterolytic fission results in the formation of free radicals.
C. Free radicals are negatively charged species
D. Aniline is heterocyclic compound.
Answer:
A. False
Homolytic fission involves symmetrical breaking of a covalent bond.
B. False
Heterolytic fission results in the formation of charged ions like cation and anion.
C. False
Free radicals are electrically neutral/uncharged species.
D. False
Aniline is a homocyclic aromatic compound.

9. Phytane is naturally occuring alkane produced by the alga spirogyra and is a constituent of petroleum. The IUPAC name for phytane is 2, 6, 10, 14-tetramethyl hexadecane. Write zig-zag formula for phytane. How many primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbons are present in this molecule.
Answer:
Zig-zag formula of phytane (2,6,10,14-tetramethyl hexadecane) is as follows:

Dash formula to represent types of C-atom:

In phytane, six 1° C-atoms, ten 2° C-atoms, four 3° C-atoms are present. Phytane does not contain any quaternary carbon atom in its structure.

10. Observe the following structures and answer the questions given below.

a. What is the relation between (i) and (ii) ?
b. Write IUPAC name of (ii).
c. Draw the functional group isomer of (i).
Answer:
a. (a) and (b) are chain isomers of each other.
b. IUPAC name of structure (b) is 2-methylpropanal.
c. Functional group isomer of (a) is butanone.

11. Observe the following and answer the questions given below

a. Name the reactive intermediae produced
b. Indicate the movement of electrons by suitable arrow to produce this intermediate
c. Comment on stability of this intermediate produced.
Answer:
i. The reactive intermediates produced are methyl free radicals:

ii. Stability order of alkyl free radicals is: \(\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_{3}\) < 1° <2° <3°
Hence, \(\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_{3}\) produced in the above reaction is least stable and highly reactive.

12. An electronic displacement in a covalent bond is represented by following notation.

A. Identify the effect
B. Is the displacement of electrons in a covalent bond temporary or permanent.
Answer:
A. The electronic displacement represented above is inductive effect (-I effect).
B. Inductive effect is a permanent electronic effect as it depends on the electronegativity of the atoms. In the given example, the displacement of electrons is permanent as Cl is more electronegative than C.

13. Draw all the no-bond resonance structures of isopropyl carbocation.
Answer:

14. A covalent bond in tert-butyl bromide breaks in a suitable polat solvent to give ions.
A. Name the anion produced by this breaking of a covalent bond.
B. Indicate the type of bond breaking in this case.
C. Comment on geometry of the cation formed by such bond cleavage.
Answer:
A. The anion produced by breaking of the covalent C – Br bond is bromide

B. Heterolytic cleavage/fission takes place as charged ions are produced.
C. tert-Butyl carbocation formed in the given cleavage has trigonal planar geometry.

15. Choose correct options

A. Which of the following statements are true with respect to electronic displacement in covalent bond ?
a. Inductive effect operates through π bond
b. Resonance effect operates through σ bond
c. Inductive effect operates through σ bond
d. Resonance effect operates through π bond
i. a. and b
ii. a and c
iii. c and d
iv. b and c
Answer:
iii. c and d

B. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of …………. orbitals
a. σ – σ
b. σ – p
c. p – p
d. π – π
Answer:
b. σ – p

C. Which type of isomerism is possible in CH₃CHCHCH₃?
a. Position
b. Chain
c. Geometrical
d. Tautomerism
Answer:
a. Position

D. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

is ……………
a. hept-3-ene
b. 2-ethylpent-2-ene
c. hex-3-ene
d. 3-methylhex-3-ene
Answer:
d. 3-methylhex-3-ene

E. The geometry of a carbocation is …………
a. linear
b. planar
c. tetrahedral
d. octahedral
Answer:
b. planar

F. The homologous series of alcohols has general molecular formula ………..
a. C_nH_2n+1OH
b. C_nH_2n+2OH
c. C_nH_2n-2OH
d. C_nH_2nOH
Answer:
a. C_nH_2n+1OH

G. The delocaalization of electrons due to overlap between p-orbital and sigma bond is called …………….
a. Inductive effect
b. Electronic effect
c. Hyperconjugation
d. Resonance
Answer:
c. Hyperconjugation

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 14 Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 204)

Question i.
Which is the essential element in all organic compounds?
Answer:
Carbon is the essential element in all organic compounds.

Question ii.
What is the unique property of carbon that makes organic chemistry a separate branch of chemistry?
Answer:

• All organic compounds contain carbon.
• Carbon atoms show catenation property in which carbon atoms combine with other carbon atoms to form long chains and rings.
• Carbon atom can also form multiple bonds with other carbon atoms and with atoms of other elements.
• Due to this property of self-linking of carbon, a large number of organic compounds like proteins, DNA, sugar, oils, etc., are formed.

Thus, the unique property of catenation of carbon makes organic chemistry a separate branch of chemistry.

Question iii.
Which classes of organic compounds are often used in our daily diet?
Answer:
Carbohydrates (sugars), proteins (pulses), fats (edible plant and animal oil) and vitamins are the major classes of organic compounds often used in our daily diet.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 204)

Question 1.
Find out the structures of glucose, vanillin, camphor and paracetamol using internet. Mark the carbon atoms present in them. Assign the hybridization state to each of the carbon and oxygen atom. Identify sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in these molecules.
Answer:
i. Structure of glucose:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In glucose, only carbon at position C-1 is sp² hybridized. On the other hand, carbons at C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5 and C-6 positions are sp³ hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: Oxygen atom attached to C-1 is sp² hybridized, rest oxygen atoms attached to carbon at C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5 and C-6 are sp³ hybridized.
[Note: Here, the open chain structure of glucose is used to answer the given questions.]

ii. Structure of vanillin:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In vanillin, carbon atoms C-1 to C-7 are sp² hybridized. Only C-8 carbon is sp³ hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: Oxygen atom bonded to C-7 sp² hybridized whereas oxygen atom bonded to C-4 and C-8 are sp³ hybridized.

iii. Structure of camphor:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In camphor, all the carbons are sp³ hybridized except the carbonyl carbon which is sp² hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: The carbonyl oxygen is sp² hybridized.

iv. Structure of paracetamol:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In paracetamol, carbons present in the ring and carbon at C-7 position are sp² hybridized. Only C-8 carbon is sp³ hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: Oxygen atom attached to carbon at ,C-1 position is sp³ hybridized. Oxygen atom attached to carbon at C-7 position is sp² hybridized.

Question 2.
i. Draw the structural formula of ethane.
ii. Draw electron-dot structure of propane.
Ans:
i. Structural formula of ethane (C₂H₆) can be drawn as follows:

ii. Electron-dot structure of propane is given as,

Where ‘•’ represents valence electrons of carbon and hydrogen.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 205)

Complete the table:

Answer:

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 206)

Question 1.
Draw two Newman projection formulae and two Sawhorse formulae for the propane molecule.
Answer:
Structural formula of propane is:

Structural formula of propane:
i. Newman projection formulae for propane molecule can be given as:

ii. Sawhorse formula for propane molecule can be given as:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 208)

Question 1.
Consider the following reaction:
2CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH + 2Na → 2CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – ONa + H₂
Compare the structure of the substrate propanol with that of the product sodium propoxide. Which part of the substrate, the carbon skeleton or the OH group has undergone a change during the reaction?
Answer:
In above reaction, the -OH group of the substrate molecule has undergone a change. The H-atom of hydroxyl group (-OH) is replaced by sodium forming the product.

Activity: (Textbook Page No. 219)

Observe the structural formulae (a) and (b).
i. Find out their molecular formulae.
ii. What is the difference between them?
iii. What is the relation between the two compounds represented by these structural formulae?
Answer:
i. Molecular formula of both (a) and (b) are same i.e., C₃H₆O.
ii. Compound (a), has a ketone (-CO-) functional group (i.e., acetone) and compound (b) has an aldehyde (-CHO) functional group (i.e., propionaldehyde). Both the compounds have different functional groups.
iii. Compound (a) and (b) are isomers of each other.
[Note: Aldehydes and ketones are the functional group isomers of each other.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 222)

Question 1.
Some bond fissions are described in the following table. For each of them, show the movement of electron/s using curved arrow notation. Classify them as homolysis or heterolysis and identify the intermediate species produced as carbocation, carbanion or free radical.

Answer:

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 223)

i. What is meant by ‘reagent’?
ii. Identify the ‘reagent’, ‘substrate’, ‘product’ and ‘byproduct’ in the following reaction.
CH₃COCl + NH₃ → CH₃CONH₂ + HCl
Answer:
i. The reactant which reacts with a substrate to form corresponding products is known reagent.
ii.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 224)

i. How is covalent bond formed between two atoms?
ii. Consider two covalently bonded atoms Q and R where R is more electronegative than Q. Will these atoms share the electron pair equally between them?
iii. Represent the above polar covalent bond between Q and R using fractional charges δ⁺ and δ^–.
Answer:
i. A covalent bond is formed between two atoms by mutual sharing of electrons so as to complete their octets or duplets (in case of elements having only one shell).

ii. A covalent bond is formed between Q and R having different electronegativities, that is, R is more electronegative than Q. In such a case, the atom R with a higher value of electronegativity pulls the shared pair of electrons to a greater extent towards itself as compared to the atom Q with lower value of electronegativity. As a result of this, the shared pair of electrons will get shifted towards atom R. Thus, both the atoms Q and R will not share the electron pair equally between them.

iii. Polar covalent bond between Q and R can be represented as:
\(\mathrm{Q}^{\delta+}-\mathrm{R}^{\delta-}\)

Try this (Textbook Page No. 225)

i. Draw a bond line structure of benzene (C₆H₆).
ii. How many C – C and C = C bonds are there in this structure?
iii. Write down the expected values of the bond lengths of the carbon-carbon bonds in benzene (Refer chapter 5).
Answer:
i. Bond line structure of benzene:

ii. In benzene, there are three alternating C – C single bonds and C = C double bonds.
[Note: In benzene, there are six C – C sigma bonds and three C – C pi bonds.]
iii. The expected values of carbon-carbon bond lengths in benzene are:

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 225)

i. Write down two Lewis structures for ozone. (Refer chapter 5)
ii. How are these two Lewis structures related to each other?
iii. What are these two Lewis structures called?
Answer:
i. Lewis structures of ozone can be shown as follows:

ii. In these two Lewis structures, the position of the atoms is same but the position of pair of electrons (or formal charge) is different. These two Lewis structures are considered equivalent to each other.
iii. These two Lewis structures are called as resonating or contributing or canonical structures.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 229)

i. Basic principles of organic chemistry:
https://authors.library.caltech.edu/25034
ii. Collect information about isomerism.
Answer:
i. Students are expected to refer to the book provided in the above link to collect additional information on the basic principles of organic chemistry.

ii. https://www.compoundchem.com/2014/05/22/typesofisomerism/
chemdictionary.org/structural-isomers/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Structural_isomer
[Note: Students can use the above links as a reference and collect additional information about isomerism on their own.]

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 13 Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question A.
Identify nuclear fusion reaction

Answer:
Among the given options, reactions (i) and (ii) represent nuclear fusion reactions wherein lighter nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus.

Question B.
The missing particle from the nuclear reaction is

Answer:
(A) \({ }_{15}^{30} \mathrm{P}\)

Question C.
\({ }_{27}^{60} \mathrm{CO}\) decays with half-life of 5.27 years to produce \({ }_{28}^{60} \mathrm{Ni}\). What is the decay constant for such radioactive disintegration ?
a. 0.132 y^-1
b. 0.138
c. 29.6 y
d. 13.8%
Answer:
a. 0.132 y^-1

Question D.
The radioactive isotope used in the treatment of Leukemia is
a. ⁶⁰Co
b. ²²⁶Ra
c. ³²P
d. ¹³¹I
Answer:
c. ³²P

Question E.
The process by which nuclei having low masses are united to form nuclei with large masses is
a. chemical reaction
b. nuclear fission
c. nuclear fusion
d. chain reaction
Answer:
c. nuclear fusion

2. Explain

Question A.
On the basis of even-odd of protons and neutrons, what type of nuclides are most stable ?
Answer:

• Nuclides with even number of protons (Z) and even number of neutrons (N) are most stable.
• These nuclides tend to form proton-proton and neutron-neutron pairs.
• This impart stability to the nucleus.

Question B.
Explain in brief, nuclear fission.
Answer:
i. Nuclear fission: It is a process which involves splitting of the heavy nucleus of an atom into two nearly equal fragments accompanied by release of the large amount of energy.
e.g. Nuclear fission of ²³⁵U

ii. When a uranium nucleus absorbs neutron, it breaks into two lighter fragments and releases energy (heat), more neutrons, and other radiation. This can be given as,

iii. Characteristics of nuclear fission reactions:

• The mass of the fission products is less than the parent nucleus. A large amount of energy corresponding to the mass loss is released in each fission.
• When one uranium 235 nucleus undergoes fission, three neutrons are emitted, which subsequently disintegrate three more uranium nuclei and thereby produce nine neutrons. Such a chain continues by itself.
• In a very short time enormous amount of energy is liberated, which can be utilized for destructive or peaceful purposes.
• Energy released per fission is approximately 200 MeV.

Note:

• Each fission may lead to different products.
• There is no unique way for fission of ²³⁵U that produces Ba and Kr. There are 400 ways for fission of ²³⁵U leading to 800 fission products.
• Many of these fission products are radioactive which undergo spontaneous disintegrations giving rise to new elements in the periodic table.

Question C.
The nuclides with odd number of both protons and neutrons are the least stable. Why ?
Answer:

• The nuclides with odd number of both protons and neutrons are the least stable because, odd number of protons and neutrons results in the presence of two unpaired nucleons.
• These unpaired nucleons result in instability. Hence, such nuclides are the least stable.

Question D.
Referring the stabilty belt of stable nuclides, which nuclides are β^– and β⁺ emitters ? Why ?
Answer:

• Beta decay occurs when an unstable nucleus emits a beta particle and energy. A beta particle is either an electron or a positron. An electron is a negatively charged particle, and a positron is a positively charged electron (or anti-electron).
• When the beta particle is an electron, the decay is called beta-minus (β^–) decay. In beta-minus decay, a neutron breaks down to a proton and an electron, and the electron is emitted from the nucleus.
• When the beta particle is a positron, the decay is called beta-plus (β⁺) decay. In beta-plus decay, a proton breaks down to a neutron and a positron, and the positron is emitted from the nucleus.
• Thus, beta-minus decay occurs when a nucleus has too many neutrons relative to protons (i.e., N/Z > 1) and beta-plus decay occurs when a nucleus has too few neutrons relative to protons (i.e., N/Z < 1).
• By referring the stability belt of stable nuclides, nuclides with N/Z > 1 are to the left of the stability zone. Such nuclides are beta-minus emitters as they become stable when a neutron converts to a proton.
• Nuclides with N/Z < 1 are to the right of the stability zone. Such nuclides are beta-plus emitters as they become stable when a proton converts to a neutron.

Question E.
Explain with an example each nuclear transmutation and artifiacial radioactivity. What is the difference between them ?
Answer:
i. Nuclear transmutation: It involves transformation of a stable nucleus into another nucleus takes place which can be either stable or unstable.
ii. Artificial (induced) radioactivity: It is nuclear transmutation where the product nucleus is radioactive. The product nucleus decays spontaneously with emission of radiation and particles.

Step-I can be considered as nuclear transmutation as it produces a new nuclide \({ }_{7}^{13} \mathrm{~N}\).
However, the new nuclide is unstable (radioactive). Hence, step-I involves artificial (induced) radioactivity. Thus, in artificial transmutation, a stable element is collided with high speed particles to form another radioactive element.

Question F.
What is binding energy per nucleon ? Explain with the help of diagram how binding energy per nucleon affects nuclear stability ?
Answer:

i. Binding energy per nucleon (\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)), for nucleus containing (A) nucleons with binding energy (B.E.) is given as,
\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) = B.E./A
ii. Mean binding energy per nucleon (\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)) for the most stable isotopes as a function of mass number is shown above. This plot leads to the following inferences:
a. Light nuclides: (A < 30)
The peaks with A values in multiples of 4. For example, \({ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He},{ }_{6}^{12} \mathrm{C},{ }_{8}^{16} \mathrm{O}\) are more stable.
b. Medium mass nuclides: (30 < A < 90)
\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) increases typically from 8 MeV for A = 16 to nearly 8.3 MeV for A between 28 and 32 and it remains nearly constant 8.5 MeV beyond this and shows a broad maximum. The nuclides falling on the maximum are most stable which turns possess high values. ⁵⁶Fe with \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) value of 8.79 MeV is the most stable.
c. Heavy nuclides (A > 90)
\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) decreases from maximum 8.79 MeV to 7.7 MeV for A ≅ 210, 209Bi is the stable nuclide. Beyond this, all nuclides are radioactive (α-emitters).

Question G.
Explain with example α-decay.
Answer:
i. The emission of α-particle from the nuclei of an radioelement is called α-decay.
ii. The charge on an α-particle is +2 with a mass of 4 u.
It is identical with helium nucleus and hence an α-particle is designated as \({ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\).
iii. In the α-decay process, the parent nucleus \({ }_{\mathrm{z}}^{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{X}\) emits an α-particle and produces daughter nucleus Y. The parent nucleus thus loses two protons (charge +2) and two neutrons. The total mass lost is 4 u. The daughter nucleus will therefore, have mass 4 units less and charge 2 units less than its parent.
iv. General equation for α-decay process can be given as:

In α-decay process of radium, radon (daughter nuclei) is formed with loses of two protons (charge +2) and two neutrons. The total mass lost is 4 u.
Thus, radon has a mass of 4 units less and charge 2 units less than its parent radium.

Question H.
Energy produced in nuclear fusion is much larger than that produced in nuclear fission. Why is it difficult to use fusion to produce energy ?
Answer:

• Nuclear fusion involves the fusion of lighter nuclei to form a heavy nucleus which is accompanied by an enormous amount of energy (heat).
• Fusion reaction requires extremely high temperature typically of the order of 108 K.

Question I.
How does N/Z ratio affect the nuclear stability ? Explain with a suitable diagram.
Answer:

• When the graph of number of neutrons (N) against protons (Z) is drawn, and all the stable isotopes are plotted on it, there is quite a clear correlation between N and Z. This graph is shown in the adjacent figure.
• A large number of elements have several stable isotopes and hence, the curve appears as a belt or zone called stability zone. All stable nuclides fall with this zone and the nuclei that are to the left or to the right of the stability zone are unstable and exhibit radioactivity. Below the belt, a straight line which represents the ratio N/Z to be nearly unity (i.e., N = Z) is shown.
• For nuclei lighter than \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\), the straight line (N = Z) passes through the belt. The lighter nuclides are therefore stable (N/Z being 1).
• The N/Z ratio for the stable nuclides heavier than calcium gives a curved appearance to the belt with gradual increase of N/Z (> 1). The heavier nuclides therefore, need more number of neutrons than protons to attain stability. The heavier nuclides with increasing number of protons render large coulombic repulsions. With increased number of neutrons, the protons within the nuclei get more separated, which renders them stable.
• Thus, nuclear stability is linked to the number of nucleons (neutrons and protons). In general, the lighter stable nuclei have equal numbers of protons and neutrons while heavier stable nuclei have increasingly more neutrons than protons.

[Note: Atoms with unstable nuclei are radioactive (exhibit radioactivity). To become more stable, the nuclei undergo radioactive decay.]

Question J.
You are given a very old sample of wood. How will you determine its age ?
Answer:
The age of the wood sample can be determined by radiocarbon dating as ¹⁴C becomes a part of a plant due to the photosynthesis reaction (i.e., absorption of [¹⁴CO₂ + ¹²CO₂]).
i. The activity (N) of given wood sample and that of fresh sample of live plant (N₀) is measured, where, N₀ denotes the activity of the given sample at the time of death.
ii. The age of the given wood sample. can be determined by applying following Formulae:

Note: The oldest rock found so far in Northern Canada is 3.96 billion years old.

3. Answer the following question

Question A.
Give example of mirror nuclei.
Answer:
Example of mirror nuclei: \({ }_{1}^{3} \mathrm{H}\) and \({ }_{2}^{3} \mathrm{He}\)

Question B.
Balance the nuclear reaction:

Answer:

Question C.
Name the most stable nuclide known. Write two factors responsible for its stability.
Answer:
The most stable nuclide known is lead (\({ }_{82}^{208} \mathrm{~Pb}\)).
Two factors responsible for its stability are as follows:

• It is a nuclide with even number of both protons (Z) and neutrons (N).
• It has two magic numbers i.e., 82 (for protons) and 126 (for neutrons).

Question D.
Write relation between decay constant of a radioelement and its half life.
Answer:
Relation between decay constant of a radioelement and its half-life is given as, λ = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{t}_{1 / 2}}\)
Where, λ = Decay constant, t_1/2 = Half-life of a radioelement

Question E.
What is the difference between an α-particle and helium atom ?
Answer:

• Helium atom is composed of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (or 1 neutron) along with 2 electrons in the outer shell.
• On the other hand, α-particle constitutes 2 protons and 2 neutrons bound together to form a particle which is similar to helium (except presence of electrons).
• Helium is one of the inert gas which is stable (duplet complete) whereas α-particle is unstable and highly reactive.

Question F.
Write one point that differentiates nuclear reations from chemical reactions.
Answer:
Chemical reactions:

• Rearrangement of atoms by breaking and forming of chemical bonds.
• Different isotopes of an element have same behaviour.

Nuclear reactions:

• Elements or isotopes of one element are converted into another element in a nuclear reaction.
• Isotopes of an element behave differently.

Question G.
Write pairs of isotones and one pair of mirror nuclei from the following :

Answer:
Isotones: i. \({ }_{5}^{10} \mathrm{~B} \text { and }{ }_{6}^{11} \mathrm{C}\)
ii. \({ }_{13}^{27} \mathrm{Al} \text { and }{ }_{14}^{28} \mathrm{~S}\)
Mirror nuclei: Since there are no isobars the given set of nuclides does not contain a pair of mirror nuclei.

Question H.
Derive the relationship between half life and decay constant of a radioelement.
Answer:
Equation for the decay constant is given as,
λ = \(\frac{2.303}{t} \log _{10} \frac{\mathrm{N}_{0}}{\mathrm{~N}}\) …(i)
Where, λ = Decay constant
N = Number of nuclei (atoms) present at time t
At t = 0, N = N₀.
Hence, at t = t_1/2, N = N₀/2
Substitution of these values of N and t in equation (i) gives,

Question I.
Represent graphically log₁₀ (activity /dps) versus t/s. What is its slope ?
Answer:
Equation for a decay constant (λ) is given as,

Hence, instead if log₁₀N versus t, log₁₀ \(\left(\frac{-\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right)\) which is log₁₀ (activity) is plotted.
The graph of log₁₀ (activity/dps) versus t/s gives a straight line which can be represented as follows:

Question J.
Write two units of radioactivity. How are they interrelated ?
Answer:
The unit of radioactivity is curie (Ci).
1 Ci = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ dps
ii. Other unit of radioactivity is Becquerel (Bq).
1 Bq = 1 dps
Thus, 1 Ci = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ dps = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq

Question K.
Half life of ²⁴Na is 900 minutes. What is its decay constant?
Answer:

Question L.
Decay constant of ¹⁹⁷Hg is 0.017 h^-1. What is its half life ?
Answer:

Question M.
The total binding energy of ⁵⁸Ni is 508 MeV. What is its binding energy per nucleon ?
Answer:
Given: B.E. of ⁵⁸Ni = 508 MeV,
A = 58
To find: Binding energy per nucleon \(\bar{B}\)

Question N.
Atomic mass of \({ }_{16}^{32} \mathrm{~S}\) is 31.97 u. If masses of neutron and H atom are 1.0087 u and 1.0078 u respectively. What is the mass defect ?
Answer:
Given: m = 31.97 u, Z = 16, A = 32
m_n = 1.0087 u
m_H = 1.0078 u
To find: Δm
Formula: Δm = Zm_H + (A – Z)m_n – m
Calculation: Δm = Zm_H + (A – Z)m_n – m
= 16 × 1.0078 + (16 × 1.0087) – 31.97
= [16.1248 + 16.1392] – 31.97
= 0.294 u
Ans: The mass defect is 0.294 u.

Question O.
Write the fusion reactions occuring in the Sun and stars.
Answer:
Fusion reactions occurring in the Sun and stars are can be represented as,

Question P.
How many α and β – particles are emitted in the trasmutation
\({ }_{90}^{232} \mathrm{Th} \longrightarrow{ }_{82}^{208} \mathrm{~Pb}\)
Answer:
\({ }_{90}^{232} \mathrm{Th} \longrightarrow{ }_{82}^{208} \mathrm{~Pb}\)
The emission of one α-particle decreases the mass number by 4 whereas the emission of β-particles has no effect on mass number.
Net decrease in mass number = 232 – 208 = 24.
This decrease is only due to α-particles. Hence, number of α-particles emitted = \(\frac {24}{4}\) = 6
Now, the emission of one α-particle decrease the atomic number by 2 and one β-particle emission increases it by 1.
The net decrease in atomic number = 90 – 82 = 8
The emission of 6 α-particles causes decrease in atomic number by 12. However, the actual decrease is only 8. Thus, atomic number increases by 4. This increase is due to emission of 4 β-particles.
Thus, 6 α and 4 β-particles are emitted.

Question Q.
A produces B by α- emission. If B is in the group 16 of periodic table, what is the group of A ?
Answer:

When α-emission occurs, atomic number decreases by 2 and atomic mass number by 4.
Thus, if ‘B’ belongs to group 16 of periodic table, that means outermost orbit will contain 6 electrons.
Thus, ‘A’ will have 8 electrons in its valence shell and it will belong to group 18 of the periodic table.

Question R.
Find the number of α and β- particles emitted in the process
\({ }_{86}^{222} \mathrm{Rn} \longrightarrow{ }_{84}^{214} \mathrm{PO}\)
Answer:
The emission of one α-particle decreases the mass number by 4 whereas the emission of β-particles has no effect on mass number.
Net decrease in mass number = 222 – 214 = 8. This decrease is only due to α-particle. Hence, number of α-particle emitted = 8/4 = 2
Now, the emission of one α-particle decreases the atomic number by 2 and one β-particle emission increases it by 1.
The net decrease in atomic number = 86 – 84 = 2
The emission of 2 α-particles causes decrease in atomic number by 4. However, the actual decrease is only 2. It means atomic number increases by 2. This increase is due to emission of 2 β-particles.
Thus, 2 α and 2 β-particles are emitted.

[Note: The above question is modified to include the final decay product so as to determine the number of α-particles and β-particles emitted in the process. Here, the final decay product is assumed to be Po-214.]

4. Solve the problems

Question A.
Half life of ¹⁸F is 110 minutes. What fraction of ¹⁸F sample decays in 20 minutes ?
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 110 min
t = 20 min
To find: Fraction of ¹⁸F simple that decays


∴ Fraction of ¹⁸F sample that decays = 1 – 0.882 = 0.118
Ans: Fraction of ¹⁸F sample that decays in 20 minutes is 0.118.

Question B.
Half life of ³⁵S is 87.8 d. What percentage of ³⁵S sample remains after 180 d ?
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 87.8 d,
N₀ = 100,
t = 180 d
To find: % of ³⁵S that remains after 180 days

Question C.
Half life ⁶⁷Ga is 78 h. How long will it take to decay 12% of sample of Ga ?
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 78 h,
N₀ = 100,
N = 100 – 12 = 88
To find: t

Question D.
0.5 g Sample of ²⁰¹Tl decays to 0.0788 g in 8 days. What is its half life ?
Answer:
Given: N₀ = 0.5 g,
N = 0.0788 g,
t = 8 days
To find: t_1/2

Question E.
65% of ¹¹¹In sample decays in 4.2 d. What is its half life ?
Answer:
Given: N₀ = 100,
N = 100 – 65 = 35,
t = 4.2d
To find: t_1/2

Question F.
Calculate the binding energy per nucleon of \({ }_{36}^{84} \mathrm{Kr}\) whose atomic mass is 83.913 u. (Mass of neutron is 1.0087 u and that of H atom is 1.0078 u).
Answer:
Given: A = 84, Z = 36,
m = 83.913 u
m_n = 1.0087 u
m_H = 1.0078 u
To find: Binding energy per nucleon \((\bar{B})\)

Question G.
Calculate the energy in Mev released in the nuclear reaction
\({ }_{77}^{174} \mathrm{Ir} \longrightarrow{ }_{75}^{170} \mathrm{Re}+{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\)
Atomic masses : Ir = 173.97 u,
Re = 169.96 u and
He = 4.0026 u
Answer:
Given: m_Ir= 173.97 u
m_Re = 169.96 u
m_He = 4.0026 u
To find: Energy released
Formulae: i. Δm = (mass of ¹⁷⁴Ir) – (mass of ¹⁷⁰Re + mass of ⁴He)
ii. E = Δm × 931.4 MeV
Calculation:i. Δm = (mass of ¹⁷⁴Ir) – (mass of ¹⁷⁰Re + mass of ⁴He)
= 173.97 – (169.96 + 4.0026)
= 7.4 × 10^-3 u
ii. E = Δm × 931.4
= 7.4 × 10^-3 × 931.4
= 6.89236 MeV ≈ 6.892 MeV
Ans: The energy released in given nuclear reaction is 6.892 MeV.

Question H.
A 3/4 of the original amount of radioisotope decays in 60 minutes. What is its half life ?
Answer:

Question I.
How many – particles are emitted by 0.1 g of ²²⁶Ra in one year?
Answer:
Given: t = 1 y,
Amount of sample = 0.1 g
To find: Number of particles emitted

Activity = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = λN
= 4.28 × 10^-4 × 2.665 × 10²⁰ atoms
= 1.141 × 10¹⁷ particles/year
Ans: Particles emitted by 0.1 g of ²²⁶Ra in one year = 1.141 × 10¹⁷ particles/year.
[Note: The half-life of radium is 1620 years. In order to apply appropriate textual concept, we have used this value in calculation.]

Question J.
A sample of ³²P initially shows activity of one Curie. After 303 days the activity falls to 1.5× 10⁴ dps. What is the half life of ³²P ?
Answer:

Question K.
Half life of radon is 3.82 d. By what time would 99.9 % of radon will be decayed.
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 3.82 d,
N₀ = 100
N = 100 – 99.9 = 0.1
To find: t

Question L.
It has been found that the Sun’s mass loss is 4.34 × 10⁹ kg per second. How much energy per second would be radiated into space by the Sun ?
Answer:
Given: Sun’s mass loss = 4.34 × 10⁹ kg per second
To find: Energy radiated per second into space by Sun
calculation: Δm = 4.34 × 10⁹ kg per second
Now, 1.66 × 10^-27 kg = 1u
∴ Δm = \(\frac{4.34 \times 10^{9}}{1.66 \times 10^{-27}}\) u per second
= 2.614 × 10³⁶ u per second
Now, 1 u = 931.4 MeV
2.614 × 10³⁶ u per second = 2.614 × 10³⁶ × 931.4
= 2.435 × 10³⁹ MeV/s
Now, 1 MeV = 1.6022 × 10^-19 J and 1 eV = 1 × 10^-6 MeV
1 MeV = 1.6022 × 10^-13 J
= 1.6022 × 10^-16 LJ
E = 2.435 × 10³⁹ MeV/s × 1.6022 × 10^-16 kJ/MeV
= 3.901 × 10²³ kJ/s
Ans: Energy radiated per second into space by Sun is 3.901 × 10²³ kJ/s.

Question M.
A sample of old wood shows 7.0 dps/g. If the fresh sample of tree shows 16.0 dps/g, How old is the given sample of wood ? Half life of ¹⁴C 5730 y.
Answer:

Activity :

1. Discuss five applications of radioactivity for peaceful purpose.
Answer:

• Development in earth sciences: Like to understand various geographical changes occurring on earth.
• Development in space technology: To study nuclear reactions in stars which may lead to new discoveries.
• Development in medical sciences: Diagnosis and treatment of various diseases.
• Development in industries: As a potent source of electricity or a power generator.
• Development in agriculture: To study or monitor changes in soil like uptake of nutrients from the soil etc.

[Note: Students can use above points are reference to discuss topic in class].

2. Organize a trip to Bhabha Atomic Reasearch Centre, Mumbai to learn about nuclear reactor. This will have to be organized through your college.
Answer:
Students are expected to visit the place to understand more about nuclear reactors.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 13 Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page no. 190)

Question 1.
How small is the nucleus in comparison to the rest of the atom?
Answer:
The radius of nucleus is of the order of 10^-15 m whereas that of the outer sphere is of the order of 10^-10 m. The size of outer sphere, is 10⁵ times larger than the nucleus i.e., if we consider the atom of size of football stadium then its nucleus will be the size of a pea.

(Textbook Page no. 191)

Question 1.
Identify the following nuclides as: isotopes, isobars and isotones.

Answer:

(Textbook Page No. 194)

Question 1.
i. What do you understand by the term rate of decay and give its mathematical expression.
ii. Why is minus sign required in the expression of decay rate?
Answer:
i. Rate of decay of a radioelement denotes the number of nuclei of its atoms which decay in unit time. It is also called activity of radioelement.
Rate of decay at any time t can be expressed as follows:
Rate of decay (activity) = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
where, dN is the number of nuclei that decay within time interval dt.
ii. Minus sign in the expression indicates that the number of nuclei decreases with time. Therefore, dN is a negative quantity. But, the rate of decay is a positive quantity. The negative sign is introduced in the rate expression to make the rate positive.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 194)

Question 1.
Prepare a chart of comparative properties of the above three types of radiations.
Answer:

Just think (Textbook Page No. 195)

Question 1.
Does half-life increase, decrease or remain constant? Explain.
Answer:
Half-life of a particular radioelement remains constant at a given instant. A radioactive half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the original isotope to decay. It is related to decay constant by the expression: t_1/2 = 0.693 / λ

From the expression, it is evident that half-life of a radio isotope is dependent only on the decay constant and is independent of the initial amount of the radio isotope. Each successive half-life in which the amount of radio isotope decreases to its half value is the same.

Thus, half-life remains constant.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 198)

Question 1.
²⁴Mg and ²⁷Al, both undergo (α, n) reactions and the products are radioactive. These emit β particles having positive charge (called positrons). Write balanced nuclear reactions in both.
Answer:

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 198)

Question 1.
What is the critical mass of ²³⁵U?
Answer:
i. The critical mass is the minimum mass of uranium-235 required to achieve a self-sustaining fission chain reaction under stated conditions.
ii. The chain reaction in fission of U-235 becomes self-sustaining when the critical mass of uranium-235 is about 50 kilograms.

Activity (Textbook Page No. 200)

Question 1.
You have learnt in Std. 9th, medical, industrial and agricultural applications of radioisotopes. Write at least two applications each.
Answer:
i. The uses of radioactive isotopes in the field of medicine:
a. Polycythaemia: The red blood cell count increases in the disease polycythaemia. Phosphorus-32 is used in its treatment.
b. Bone cancer: Strontium-89, strontium-90, samarium-153 and radium-223 are used in the treatment of bone cancer.

ii. The uses of radioactive isotopes in the industrial field:
a. Luminescent paint and radioluminescence: The radioactive substances radium, promethium, tritium with some phosphorus are used to make certain objects visible in the dark.
e.g. Hands of a clock, krypton-85 is used in HID (High Intensity Discharge) lamps.
b. Use in ceramic articles:
1. Luminous colours are used to decorate ceramic tiles, utensils, plates, etc.
2. Uranium oxide was earlier used to colour ceramics.

iii. The uses of radioactive isotopes in the agriculture field:
a. The genes and chromosomes that give seeds its properties like fast growth, higher productivity, etc., can be modified by means of radiation.
b. Onions and potatoes are irradiated with gamma rays from cobalt-60 to prevent their sprouting.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question A.
The equilibrium, H₂O_(l) ⇌ H⁺_(aq) + OH^–_(aq) is
a. dynamic
b. static
c. physical
d. mechanical
Answer:
a. dynamic

Question B.
For the equilibrium, A ⇌ 2B + Heat, the number of ‘A’ molecules increases if
a. volume is increased
b. temperature is increased
c. catalyst is added
d. concentration of B is decreased
Answer:
b. temperature is increased

Question C.
For the equilibrium Cl_2(g) + 2NO_(g) ⇌ 2NOCl_(g) the concentration of NOCl will increase if the equilibrium is disturbed by ………..
a. adding Cl₂
b. removing NO
c. adding NOCl
d. removal of Cl₂
Answer:
a. adding Cl₂

Question D.
The relation between K_c and K_p for the reaction A_(g) + B_(g) ⇌ 2C_(g) + D_(g) is
a. K_c = K_p/RT
b. K_p = Kc²
c. K_c = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{Kp}}}\)
d. K_p/K_c = 1
Answer:
a. K_c = K_p/RT

Question E.
When volume of the equilibrium reaction C_(s) + H₂O_(g) ⇌ CO_(g) + H_2(g) is increased at constant temperature the equilibrium will
a. shift from left to right
b. shift from right to left
c. be unaltered
d. can not be predicted
Answer:
a. shift from left to right

2. Answer the following

Question A.
State Law of Mass action.
Answer:
Law of mass action: The law of mass action states that the rate of a chemical reaction at each instant is proportional to the product of concentrations of all the reactants.

Question B.
Write an expression for equilibrium constant with respect to concerntration.
Answer:
For a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium, aA + bB ⇌ cD + dD
Equilibrium constant (K_c) = \(\frac{[C]^{\mathrm{c}}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{d}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{a}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{b}}}\)

Question C.
Derive mathematically value of K_p for A_(g) + B_(g) ⇌ C_(g) + D_(g).
Answer:
When the concentrations of reactants and products in gaseous reactions are expressed in terms of their partial pressure, then the equilibrium constant is represented as K_p.
∴ For the reaction,
A_(g)+ B_(g) ⇌ C_(g) + D_(g)
the equilibrium constant (K_C) can be expressed using partial pressure as: K_p = \(\frac{P_{C} \times P_{D}}{P_{A} \times P_{B}}\)
Where P_A, P_B, P_C and P_D are equilibrium partial pressures of A, B, C and D respectively.

Question D.
Write expressions of K_C for following chemical reactions
i. 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2SO_3(g)
ii. N₂O_4(g) ⇌ 2NO_2(g)
Answer:
i. 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2SO_3(g)
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{2}\right]^{2}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}\)

ii. N₂O_4(g) ⇌ 2NO_2(g)
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{4}\right]}\)

Question E.
Mention various applications of equilibrium constant.
Answer:
Various applications of equilibrium constant:

• Prediction of the direction of the reaction
• To know the extent of the reaction
• To calculate equilibrium concentrations
• Link between chemical equilibrium and chemical kinetics

Question F.
How does the change of pressure affect the value of equilibrium constant ?
Answer:
The change of pressure does not affect the value of equilibrium constant.

Question J.
Differentiate irreversible and reversible reaction.
Answer:
Irreversible reaction:

1. Products are not converted back to reactants.
2. Reaction stops completely and almost goes to completion.
3. It can be carried out in an open or closed vessel.
4. It takes place only in one direction. It is represented by →
5. e.g. C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

Reversible reaction:

1. Products arc converted back to reactants.
2. Reaction appears to have stopped but does not undergo completion.
3. It is generally carried out in a closed vessel.
4. It takes place in both directions. It is represented by ⇌
5. e.g. N_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2NO_(g)

Question K.
Write suitable conditions of concentration, temperature and pressure used during manufacture of ammonia by Haber process.
Answer:
i. Concentration: Addition of H₂ or N₂ both favours forward reaction. This increases the yield of NH₃.
ii. Temperature: The formation NH₃ is exothermic. Hence, low temperature should favour the formation of NH₃. However, at low temperatures, the rate of reaction is small. At high temperatures, the reaction occurs rapidly but decomposition of NH₃ occurs. Hence, optimum temperature of about 773 K is used.
iii. Pressure: The forward reaction is favoured with high pressure as it proceeds with decrease in number of moles. At high pressure, the catalyst becomes inefficient. Therefore, optimum pressure needs to be used. The optimum pressure is about 250 atm.

Question L.
Relate the terms reversible reactions and dynamic equilibrium.
Answer:

• Reversible reactions are the reactions which do not go to completion and occur in both the directions simultaneously.
• If such a reaction is allowed to take place for a long time, so that the concentrations of the reactants and products do not vary with time, then the reaction will attain equilibrium.
• Since, both the forward and backward reactions continue to take place in opposite directions in the same speed, the equilibrium achieved is dynamic in nature.

Thus, if the reaction is not reversible then it cannot attain dynamic equilibrium.

Question M.
For the equilibrium.
\(\mathrm{BaSO}_{4(\mathrm{~s})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Ba}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}+\mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)
state the effect of
a. Addition of Ba²⁺ ion.
b. Removal of SO₄^2- ion
c. Addition of BaSO_4(s)
on the equilibrium.
Answer:
a. Addition of Ba²⁺ ion will favour the reverse reaction, (that is, equilibrium shifts from right to left). This increases the amount of BaSO₄.
b. Removal of \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\) ion will favour the forward reaction, (that is, equilibrium shifts from left to right). This decreases the amount of BaSO₄.
c. Addition of BaSO_4(s) will not affect the equilibrium as the equilibrium constant expression does not include pure solids.

3. Explain :

Question A.
Dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium with suitable example.
Answer:
Dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium:
i. Consider a chemical reaction: A ⇌ B.
K_c = [B]/[A]
At equilibrium, the ratio of concentration of the product to that of the concentration of the reactant is constant and this is equal to K_c.

ii. At this stage reaction takes place in both the directions with same speed although the reaction appears to have stopped. Thus, the chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature. Dynamic means moving and at a microscopic level, the system is in motion.

iii. For example, in the reaction between H₂ and I₂ to form HI, the colour of the reaction mixture becomes constant because the concentrations of H₂, I₂ and HI become constant at equilibrium.
H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI
Thus, when equilibrium is reached, the reaction appears to have stopped. However, this is not the case. The reaction is still going on in the forward and backward direction but the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction. Hence, chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature and not static.

Question B.
Relation between K_c and K_p.
Answer:
Consider a general reversible reaction:
aA_(g) + bB_(g) ⇌ cC_(g) + dD_(g)
The equilibrium constant (K_p) in terms of partial pressure is given by equation:
K_p = \(\frac{\left(P_{C}\right)^{c}\left(P_{D}\right)^{d}}{\left(P_{A}\right)^{a}\left(P_{B}\right)^{b}}\) …………(1)
For a mixture of ideal gases, the partial pressure of each component is directly proportional to its concentration at constant temperature.
For component A,
P_AV = n_ART
P_A = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × RT
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\) is molar concentration of A in mol dm^-3 V
∴ P_A = [A]RT where, [A] = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
Similarly, for other components, P_B = [B]RT, P_C = [C]RT, P_D = [D]RT
Now substituting equations for P_A, P_B, P_C, P_D in equation (1), we get

where Δn = (number of moles of gaseous products) – (number of moles of gaseous reactants) in the balanced chemical equation.
R = 0.08206 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
[Note: While calculating the value of K_p, pressure should be expressed in bar, because standard state of pressure is 1 bar. 1 pascal (Pa) = 1 N m^-2 and 1 bar = 10⁵ Pa]

Question C.
State and explain Le Chatelier’s principle with reference to
1. change in temperature
2. change in concerntration.
Answer:
Statement: When a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in any of the factors determining the equilibrium conditions of a system, system will respond in such a way as to minimize the effect of change.

1. Change in temperature:

• Consider the equilibrium reaction,
  PCl_5(g) ⇌ PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) + 92.5 kJ
• The forward reaction is exothermic. According to Le Chatelier’s principle an increase in temperature shifts the position of equilibrium to the left.
• The reverse reaction is endothermic. An endothermic reaction consumes heat. Therefore, the equilibrium must shift in the reverse direction to use up the added heat (heat energy converted to chemical energy).
• Thus, an increase in temperature favours formation of PCl₅ while a decrease in temperature favours decomposition of PCl₅.

2. Change in concentration:

• Consider reversible reaction representing production of ammonia (NH3).
  N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g) + Heat
• According to Le Chatelier’s principle, when H₂ or N₂ is added to equilibrium, the effect of addition of H₂ or N₂ or is reduced by shifting the equilibrium from left to right so that the added N₂ or H₂ is consumed.
• The forward reaction occurs to a large extent than the reverse reaction until the new equilibrium is established. As a result, the yield of NH₃ is increases.
• In general, if the concentration of one of the species in equilibrium mixture is increased, the position of equilibrium shifts in the opposite so as to reduce the concentration of this species. However, the equilibrium constant remains unchanged.

Question D.
a. Reversible reaction
b. Rate of reaction
Answer:
a. Reversible reaction:
i. Reactions which do not go to completion and occur in both the directions simultaneously are called reversible reactions.
ii. Reversible reactions proceed in both directions. The direction from reactants to products is the forward reaction, whereas the opposite reaction from products to reactants is called the reverse or backward reaction.
iii. A reversible reaction is denoted by drawing in between the reactants and product a double arrow, one pointing in the forward direction and other in the reverse direction (⇌ or ⇄).
ii. At high temperature in an open container, the CO₂ gas formed will escape away. Therefore, it is not possible to obtain back
e.g. a. H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
b. CH₃COOH_(aq) + H₂O_(l) ⇌ CH₃COO^–_(aq) + H₃O⁺_(aq)

b. Rate of reaction:
Rate of a chemical reaction:
i. The rate of a chemical reaction can be determined by measuring the extent to which the concentration of a reactant decreases in the given time interval, or extent to which the concentration of a product increases in the given time interval.
ii. Mathematically, the rate of reaction is expressed as:
Rate = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d}[\text { Reactant }]}{\mathrm{dT}}=\frac{\mathrm{d}[\text { Product }]}{\mathrm{dT}}\)
where, d[reactant] and d[product] are the small decrease or increase in concentration during the small time interval dT.

Question E.
What is the effect of adding chloride on the position of the equilibrium ?
AgCl_(s) ⇌ Ag⁺_(aq) + Cl^–_(aq)
Answer:
Addition of Cl ion will favour the reverse reaction, (that is, equilibrium shift from right to left) This increases the amount of AgCl.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
What are the types of the following changes?
Natural waterfall, spreading of smoke from burning incense stick, diffusion of fragrance of flowers.
Answer: Natural waterfall, spreading of smoke from burning incense stick and diffusion of fragrance of flowers are irreversible physical changes.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Dissolve 4 g cobalt chloride in 40 mL water. It forms a reddish pink solution. Add 60 mL concentrated HCl to this. It will turn blue. Take 5 mL of this solution in a test tube and place it in a beaker containing ice water mixture. The colour of solution will become pink. Place the same test tube in a beaker containing water at 90 °C. The colour of the solution turns blue.
Answer:
Inference: The colour change of the solution from pink to blue is caused by the chemical reaction. On changing the temperature, the direction of the reaction reverses. This indicates that the chemical reaction is reversible. This activity is an example of a reversible chemical reaction.
The reaction can be written as:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
What does violet colour of the solution in the activity mentioned in Q.2 indicate?
Answer:
In the reaction, the reactant \(\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{6}^{2+}\) is pink in colour and the product \(\mathrm{CoCl}_{4}^{2-}\) is blue in colour. When the solution contains both the reactant and product, the resulting solution will appear violet. This indicates that the reaction has attained equilibrium (that is, the reaction proceeds in both the direction with equal rates and is a reversible reaction).

(Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Calcium earbonate when heated strongly, decomposes to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
i. If this reaction is carried out in a closed container, what will we observe?
ii. Consider this reaction occurring in an open system or container, what will happen? Can we obtain back calcium carbonate?
Answer:
At high temperature in a closed container, we will find that after certain time, some calcium carbonate is present. If we continue the experiment over a longer period of time at the same temperature, the concentrations of calcium carbonate, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide remain unchanged. The reaction thus appears to have stopped and the system has attained the equilibrium. Actually, the reaction does not stop but proceeds in both the directions with equal rates. In other words, calcium carbonate decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide at a particular rate. Exactly at the same rate the calcium oxide and carbon dioxide recombine and form calcium carbonate. Thus, in closed container, reversible reaction occurs.

ii. At high temperature in an open container, the CO₂ gas formed will escape away. Therefore, it is not possible to obtain back calcium carbonate. Thus, in an open container, irreversible reaction occurs.
\(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(\mathrm{~s})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\)

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 175)

Question 1.
i. Equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body
ii. Refrigeration system in equilibrium
Answer:
i. Equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body:
Oxygen is transported in the body with the assistance of red blood cells. The red blood cells contain a pigment called haemoglobin. Each haemoglobin molecule binds four oxygen molecules to form oxyhaemoglobin. Thus, the oxygen molecules are carried to individual cells in the body tissue where they are released.

The binding of oxygen to haemoglobin is a reversible reaction.
Hb + 4O₂ ⇌ Hb.4O₂
When the oxygen concentration is high (in the lungs), haemoglobin and oxygen combine to form oxyhaemoglobin and the reaction achieves equilibrium. But, when the oxygen concentration is low (in the body tissue), the reverse reaction occurs, that is, oxyhaemoglobin dissociates to haemoglobin and oxygen.
Thus, an equilibrium exists in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the human body.

ii. Refrigeration system in equilibrium:
a. Refrigeration system works on the principle of thermal equilibrium i.e., when a cold body comes in contact with a hot body then the heat flows from hot body to cold body until both the bodies attain the same temperature.
b. In the same way, a liquid (called as refrigerant) passes through the various compartments in the refrigerator and eventually lowers the temperature inside the refrigerator. This cycle is briefly described below:
Refrigerant flows through the compressor, which raises the pressure of the refrigerant. Next, the refrigerant flows through the condenser, where it condenses from vapor form to liquid form, giving off heat in the process. The heat given off is what j makes the condenser “hot to the touch.” After the condenser, the refrigerant goes through the expansion valve, where it experiences a pressure drop. Finally, the refrigerant goes to the evaporator. The refrigerant draws heat from the evaporator which causes the refrigerant to vaporize. The evaporator draws heat from the region that is to be cooled. The vaporized refrigerant goes back to the compressor to restart the cycle. In each of the heat transfer process, equilibrium is achieved (that is, heat given off is equivalent to the cooling achieved.)

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information about equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body’ and ‘refrigeration system in equilibrium on their own.]

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
i. Place some iodine crystals in a closed vessel. Observe the change in colour intensity in it.
ii. What do you see in the flask after some time?
Answer:
i. The vessel gets slowly filled up with violet coloured vapour of iodine. After a certain time, the intensity of violet colour becomes stable.
ii. After sometime, both solid iodine and iodine vapour are present in the closed vessel. Iodine crystals will be seen deposited near the mouth of the flask and violet coloured vapour will be filled in the entire flask. It means solid iodine sublimes to give iodine vapour and the iodine vapour condenses to form solid iodine. The stable intensity of the colour indicates a state of equilibrium between solid and vapour iodine.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
i. Dissolve a given amount of sugar in minimum amount of water at room temperature.
ii. Increase the temperature and dissolve more amount of sugar in the same amount of water to make a thick sugar syrup solution.
iii. Cool the syrup to the room temperature.
Answer:
Observation: Sugar crystals separate out.
Inference: The sugar syrup solution prepared is a saturated solution. Therefore, additional amount of sugar cannot be dissolved in it at room temperature.
In a saturated solution, there exists dynamic equilibrium between the solute molecules in the solid state and in dissolved state.
Sugar_(aq) ⇌ Sugar_(s)
The rate of dissolution of sugar = The rate of crystallization of sugar.
However, when it is heated, additional amount of sugar can be dissolved in it. But when such a thick sugar syrup is cooled again to room temperature, sugar crystals separate out.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 177)

Question 1.
What is a saturated solution?
Answer:
A saturated solution is the solution when additional solute cannot be dissolved in it at the given temperature. The concentration of solute in a saturated solution depends on temperature.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 177)

Question 1.
Colourless N₂O₄ taken in a closed flask is converted to NO₂ (a reddish brown gas).

Answer:
Observation: Initially, the colourless gas (N₂O₄) turns to reddish brown (NO₂) gas. After sometime, the colour becomes lighter indicating the formation of N₂O₄ from NO₂.
Inference: This indicates that the reaction is reversible. In such reaction, the reactants combine to form the products and the products combine to give the reactants. As soon as the forward reaction produces any NO₂, the reverse reaction begins and NO₂, starts combining back to N₂O₄. At equilibrium, the concentrations of N₂O₄ and NO₂ remain unchanged and do not vary with time, because the rate of formation of NO₂ is equal to the rate of formation of N₂O₄.

[Note: For any reversible reaction in a closed system whenever the opposing reactions (forward and reaction) are occurring at different rates, the forward reaction will gradually become slower and the reverse reaction will become faster. Finally, the rates become equal and equilibrium is established.]

Discuss (Textbook Page No. 177)

i. Consider the following dissociation reaction:

The reaction is carried out in a closed vessel starting with hydrogen iodide.
ii. Now, let us start with hydrogen and iodine vapour in a closed container at a certain temperature.
H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
Answer:
i. Starting with hydrogen iodide:
Observations:
a. At first, there is an increase in the intensity of violet colour.
b. After certain time, the increase in the intensity of violet colour stops.
c. When contents in a closed vessel are analyzed at this stage, it is observed that reaction mixture contains the hydrogen iodide, hydrogen and iodine with their concentrations being constant over time.
Inference:
The rate of decomposition of HI becomes equal to the rate of combination of H₂ and I₂. At equilibrium, no net change is observed and both reactions continue to occur at equal rates.
Thus, the reaction represents chemical equilibrium.

ii. Starting with hydrogen and iodine:
Observations:
a. At first, there is a decrease in the intensity of violet colour.
b. After certain time, the decrease in the intensity of violet colour stops.
c. When contents in a closed vessel are analyzed at this stage, it is observed that reaction mixture contains hydrogen, iodine and hydrogen iodide with their concentrations being constant over time.
Inference:
The rate of combination of H₂ and I₂ becomes equal to the rate of decomposition of HI. The reaction attains chemical equilibrium.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 180)

Question 1.
Write ideal gas equation with significance of each term involved in it.
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is PV = nRT.
where, P = Pressure of the gas
V = Volume of the gas
n = Number of moles of the gas
R = universal gas constant
T = Absolute temperature of the gas

Just think. (Textbook page no. 181)

Question 1.
Two processes, which are taking place in opposite directions are in equilibrium. How to write equilibrium constant expersions for heterogeneous equilibrium?
Answer:
Equilibrium in a system having more than one phase is called heterogeneous equilibrium.
If ethanol is placed in a conical flask, liquid-vapour equilibrium is established.
C₂H₅OH_(l) ⇌ C₂H₅OH_(g)
For a given temperature,
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{OH}_{(g)}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{OH}_{(l)}\right]}\)
But [C₂H₅OH_(l)] = 1
∴ K_c = [C₂H₅OH_(g)]
Thus, at any given temperature, density is constant irrespective of the amount of liquid, and the term in the denominator is also constant.
ii. similarly, consider I_2(g) ⇌ I_2(g)
K_c = [I₂(g)]
iii. Thus, the expression for equilibrium constant does not contain the concentration of pure solids and pure liquids. That is because for any pure liquid and solid, the concentration is simply its density and this will not change no matter how much solid or liquid is used. Hence, the expression for heterogeneous equilibrium only uses the concentration of gases and dissolved substances (aq.). Solids are pure substances with unchanging concentrations and thus equilibria including solids are simplified.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Comment on the extent to which the forward reaction will proceed, from the magnitude of the equilibrium constant for the following reactions:
i. H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g), K_c = 20 at 550 K
ii. H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) ⇌ 2HCl_(g), K_c = 1018 at 550 K
Answer:
i. For the reaction, K_c = 20 at 550 K
If the value of K_c is the range of 10^-3 to 10³, the forward and reverse proceed to equal extents.
Hence, the given reaction will form appreciable concentrations of both reactants and the product at equilibrium.

ii. For the reaction, K_c = 10¹⁸ at 550 K
If the value of K_c >>> 10³, forward reaction is favoured.
Hence, the given reaction will proceed in the forward direction and will nearly go to completion.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
The value of Kc for the dissociation reaction:
H_2(g) ⇌ 2H_(g) is 1.2 × 10^-42 at 500 K.
Does the equilibrium mixture contain mainly hydrogen molecules or hydrogen atoms?
Answer:
When the value of K_c is very low (that is, K_c < 10^-3), then at equilibrium, only a small fraction of the reactants is converted into products.
For the given reaction, K_c <<< 10³ at 500 K.
Hence, the equilibrium mixture contains mainly hydrogen molecules.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Collect information about chemical equilibrium.
Answer:
https://www.chemguide.co.uk/physical/equilibria/introduction.html
[Note: Students can use the above link as reference and collect information about chemical equilibrium.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 188)

i. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system (Haber process), in which direction will the equilibrium shift to consume added NH₃ to reduce the effect of stress?
ii. In this process, out of the reactions (reverse and forward reaction), which reaction will occur to a greater extent?
iii. What will be the effect on yield of NH₃?
Answer:
i. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, the equilibrium will shift from right to left to consume added NH₃ to reduce the effect of stress.
ii. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, then reverse reaction will occur to greater extent.
iii. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, the equilibrium will shift in reverse direction and the yield of NH₃ will decrease.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 188)

i. Collect information about Haber process in chemical equilibrium.
ii. Youtube.Freescienceslessons: The Haber process
Answer:
i. https://www.chemguide.co.uk/physical/equilibria/haber.html
[Note: Students can use the above link as reference and collect information about chemical equilibrium involved in Haber process.]
ii. Students are expected to refer ‘The Haber process ’ on YouTube channel ‘Freescienceslessons’

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
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