Category: Class 11

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Maths Solutions Pdf Chapter 5 Straight Line Ex 5.1 Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Straight Line Ex 5.1

Question 1.
If A(1, 3) and B(2, 1) are points, find the equation of the locus of point P such that PA = PB.
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be any point on the required locus.
Given, A(1, 3), B(2, 1) and
PA = PB
∴ PA² = PB²
∴ (x – 1)² + ( y – 3)² = (x – 2)² + (y – 1)²
∴ x² – 2x + 1 + y² – 6y + 9 = x² – 4x + 4 + y² – 2y + 1
-2x – 6y + 10 = -4x – 2y + 5
∴ 2x – 4y + 5 = 0
∴ The required equation of locus is 2x – 4y + 5 = 0.

Question 2.
A(- 5,2) and B(4,1). Find the equation of the locus of point P, which is equidistant from A and B.
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be any point on the required locus.
P is equidistant from A(- 5, 2) and B(4, 1).
∴ PA = PB
∴ PA² = PB²
∴ (x + 5)² + (y – 2)² = (x – 4)² + (y – 1)²
∴ x² + 10x + 25 + y² — 4y + 4
= x² – 8x + 16 + y² – 2y + 1
∴ 10x – 4y + 29 = -8x – 2y + 17
∴ 18x – 2y + 12 = 0
∴ 9x – y + 6 = 0
The required equation of locus is 9x -y + 6 = 0.

Question 3.
If A(2, 0) and B(0, 3) are two points, find the equation of the locus of point P such that AP = 2BP.
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be any point on the required locus.
Given, A(2, 0), B(0, 3) and AP = 2BP
∴ AP² = 4BP²
∴ (x – 2)² + (y – 0)² = 4[(x – 0)² + (y – 3)²]
∴ x² – 4x + 4 + y² = 4(x² + y² – 6y + 9)
x² – 4x + 4 + y² = 4x² + 4y² – 24y + 36
∴ 3x² + 3 y² + 4x – 24y + 32 = 0
∴ The required equation of locus is
3x² + 3y² + 4x – 24y + 32 = 0.
[Note: Answer given in the textbook , is
‘3x² + 3y² + 4x + 24y + 32 = O’.
However, as per our calculation it is ‘3x² + 3y² + 4x – 24y + 32 = 0’.]

Question 4.
If A(4,1) and B(5,4), find the equation of the locus of point P such that PA² = 3PB².
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be any point on the required locus. Given, A(4,1), B(5,4) and PA2 = 3PB2
∴ (x – 4)2 + (y – 1)2 = 3[(x – 5)² + (y – 4)²]
∴ x² – 8x + 16 + y² – 2y + 1 = 3(x² – 10x + 25 + y² – 8y + 16)
∴ x² – 8x + y² – 2y + 17 = 3x² -30x + 75 + 3y² – 24y + 48
∴ 2x² + 2y² – 22x – 22y + 106 = 0
∴ x² + y² – 11x – 11y + 53 = 0
∴ The required equation of locus is
x² + y² – 11x – 11y + 53 = 0.

Question 5.
A(2, 4) and B(5, 8), find the equation of the
locus of point P such that PA² – PB² = 13.
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be any point on the required locus. Given, A(2,4), B(5, 8) and PA²-PB² = 13
∴ [(x -2)² + (y – 4)²] – [(x -5)² + (y- 8)²] = 13
∴ (x² – 4x + 4 + y² – 8y + 16) – (x² – 10x + 25 + y² – 16y + 64) =13
∴ x² – 4x+ y² – 8y + 20 – x² + 10x – y² + 16y – 89 = 13
∴ 6x + 8y- 69 = 13
∴ 6x + 8y – 82 = 0
∴ 3x + 4y – 41 = 0
∴ The required equation of locus is 3x + 4y- 41 = 0.

Question 6.
A(1, 6) and B(3, 5), find the equation of the locus of point P such that segment AB subtends right angle at P. (∠APB = 90°)
Solution:
Let P(x, y) be any point on the required locus. Given,
A(l, 6) and B(3, 5),
∠APB = 90°
∴ ΔAPB is a right angled triangle,
By Pythagoras theorem,

AP² + PB² = AB² P (x,y)
∴ [(x – 1)² + (y – 6)²] + [(x – 3)² + (y – 5)²] = (1 – 3)² + (6 -5)²
∴ x² — 2x + 1 + y² — 12y + 36 + x² – 6x + 9 + y² – 10y + 25 = 4 + 1
∴ 2x² + 2y² – 8x – 22y + 66 = 0
∴ x² + y² – 4x – 11y + 33 = 0
∴ The required equation of locus is x² + y² – 4x – 11y + 33 = 0.
[Note: Answer given in the textbook is
‘3x² + 4y² – 4x – 11y + 33 = 0’.
However, as per our calculation it is ‘x² + y² – 4x – 11y + 33 = O

Question 7.
If the origin is shifted to the point 0′(2, 3), the axes remaining parallel to the original axes, find the new co-ordinates of the points
i. A(1, 3) ii. B(2,5)
Solution:
Origin is shifted to (2, 3) = (h, k)
Let the new co-ordinates be (X, Y).
x = X + handy = Y + k
x = X + 2 andy = Y + 3 …(i)

i. Given, A(x, y) = A( 1, 3)
x = X + 2 andy = Y + 3 …[From(i)]
∴ 1 = X + 2 and 3 = Y + 3 X = – 1 and Y = 0
∴ The new co-ordinates of point A are (- 1,0).

ii. Given, B(x, y) = B(2, 5)
x = X + 2 and y = Y + 3 …[From(i)]
∴ 2 = X + 2 and 5 = Y + 3
∴ X = 0 and Y = 2
∴ The new co-ordinates of point B are (0, 2).

Question 8.
If the origin is shifted to the point O'(1, 3), the axes remaining parallel to the original axes, find the old co-ordinates of the points
i. C(5,4) ii. D(3,3)
Solution:
Origin is shifted to (1,3) = (h, k)
Let the new co-ordinates be (X, Y).
x = X + h andy = Y + k
∴ x = X+1 andy = Y + 3 …(i)

i. Given, C(X, Y) = C(5, 4)
x = X +1 andy = Y + 3 …[From(i)]
∴ x = 5 + 1 = 6 andy = 4 + 3 = 7
∴ The old co-ordinates of point C are (6, 7).

ii. Given, D(X, Y) = D(3, 3)
x = X + 1 andy = Y + 3 …[From(i)]
∴ x = 3 + 1 = 4 and y = 3 + 3 = 6
∴ The old co-ordinates of point D are (4, 6).

Question 9.
If the co-ordinates A(5, 14) change to B(8, 3) by shift of origin, find the co-ordinates of the point, where the origin is shifted.
Solution:
Let the origin be shifted to (h, k).
Given, A(x, y) = A(5,14), B(X, Y) = B(8, 3)
Since x = X + h andy = Y + k,
5 = 8 + hand 14 = 3 + k ,
∴ h = – 3 and k = 11
The co-ordinates of the point, where the origin is shifted are (- 3, 11).

Question 10.
Obtain the new equations of the following loci if the origin is shifted to the point 0′(2,2), the direction of axes remaining the same:
i. 3x-y + 2 = 0
11. x²+y²-3x = 7
iii. xy – 2x – 2y + 4 = 0
iv. y² – 4x – 4y + 12 = 0
Solution:
Given, (h,k) = (2,2)
Let (X, Y) be the new co-ordinates of the point (x,y).
∴ x = X + handy = Y + k
∴ x = X + 2 andy = Y + 2
i. Substituting the values of x and y in the equation 3x -y + 2 = 0, we get
3(X + 2) – (Y + 2) + 2 = 0
∴ 3X + 6-Y-2 + 2 = 0
∴ 3 X – Y + 6 = 0, which is the new equation of locus.

ii. Substituting the values of x and y in the equation
x² + y² – 3x = 7, we get
(X + 2)² + (Y + 2)² – 3(X + 2) = 7
∴ X² + 4X + 4 + Y² + 4Y + 4 – 3X – 6 = 7
∴ X² + Y² + X + 4Y – 5 = 0, which is the new
equation of locus.

iii; Substituting the values of x and y in the equation xy – 2x – 2y + 4 = 0, we get
(X + 2) (Y + 2) – 2(X + 2) – 2(Y + 2) + 4 = 0
∴ XY + 2X + 2Y + 4 – 2X – 4-2Y- 4 + 4 = 0
∴ XY = 0, which is the new equation of locus.

iv. Substituting the values of x and y in the equation y² – 4x – 4y + 12 = 0, we get
(Y + 2)² – 4(X + 2) – 4(Y + 2) + 12 = 0
∴ Y² + 4Y + 4 – 4X – 8 – 4Y -8 + 12 = 0
∴ Y² – 4X = 0, which is the new equation of locus.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solution Book Pdf Chapter 9 Commercial Mathematics Miscellaneous Exercise 9 Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solutions Chapter 9 Commercial Mathematics Miscellaneous Exercise 9

Question 1.
A man buys a house for ₹ 10 lakh and rents it. He puts 10% of the annual rent aside for repairs, pays ₹ 1,000 as annual taxes, and realizes 8% on his investment thereafter. Find the annual rent of the house.
Solution:
Let ₹ ‘x’ be the annual rent of the house.
The man keeps 10% of the annual rent aside for repairs.
i.e., \(\frac{10}{100}\) × x or ₹ \(\frac{x}{10}\) aside tor repairs.
In addition, he pays ₹ 1000 as annual taxes.
After incurring these expenses he is left with an amount which is 8% of his investment for the house.

∴ The annual rent of the house is ₹ 90,000.

Question 2.
Rose got 30% of the maximum marks in an examination and failed by 10 marks. However, Lily who appeared for the same examination got 40% of the total marks and got 15 marks more than the passing marks. What were the passing marks in the examination?
Solution:
Let maximum marks be x
Rose scored 30% of maximum marks
i.e. Rose scored \(\frac{30}{100}\)x
Rose failed by 10 marks
∴ passing marks = \(\frac{30}{100}\)x + 10 …..(i)
Lily scored 40% of maximum marks
i.e. Lily scored \(\frac{40}{100}\)x
Lily scored 15 marks more than passing marks
∴ passing marks = \(\frac{40}{100}\)x – 15 ……(ii)
equating (i) and (ii),
\(\frac{30x}{100}\) + 10 = \(\frac{40x}{100}\) – 15
∴ 10 + 15 = \(\frac{40 x-30 x}{100}\)
∴ 10x = (25)(100)
∴ x = 250
From (i), passing marks = \(\frac{30}{100}\)(250) + 10
= 75 + 10
= 85
∴ Passing marks for the examination were 85.

Question 3.
Ankita’s Salary was reduced by 50%. Again the reduced salary was increased by 50%. Find loss in terms of percentage.
Solution:
Let Ankita’s initial salary be ₹ ‘x’.
Her salary was reduced by 50%.
∴ Ankita’s salary after reduction = x(1 – \(\frac{50}{100}\))
= x(1 – \(\frac{1}{2}\))
= \(\frac{x}{2}\)
Ankita’s reduced salary was then increased by 50%
∴ Ankita’s final salary after the increase

∴ Loss in Ankita’s salary after the decrease and increase = x – \(\frac{3 x}{4}\) = \(\frac{x}{4}\)

∴ Ankita lost 25% of her salary.

Question 4.
By selling 300 lunch boxes, a shopkeeper gains the selling price of 100 lunch boxes. Find his gain percent.
Solution:
Let ₹ x be the selling price (S.P.) of one lunch box.
∴ S.P. of 300 lunch boxes = 300x
and S.P. of 100 lunch boxes = 100x
Gain = 100x ……[given]
C.P. of 300 lunch boxes = S.P. – Gain
= 300x – 100x
= 200x

∴ The shopkeeper’s gain percentage is 50%.

Question 5.
A salesman sold an article at a loss of 10%. If the selling price has been increased by ₹ 80, there would have been a gain of 10%. What was the cost of the article?
Solution:
Let ₹ x be the cost price of the article.
S.P. of the article = x – \(\frac{10}{100}\)x = \(\frac{9x}{100}\) …….(i)
Given that, S.P. increased by ₹ 80 would have given 10% gain

∴ The cost price of the article is ₹ 400

Question 6.
Find the single discount equivalent to a series discount of 10%, 20%, and 15%.
Solution:
Let the marked price be ₹ 100
After 1st discount the price = 100(1 – \(\frac{10}{100}\)) = 90
After 2nd discount the price = 90(1 – \(\frac{20}{100}\)) = 72
After 3rd discount the price = 72(1 – \(\frac{15}{100}\)) = 61.2
∴ The selling price after 3 discounts is ₹ 61.2.
∴ Single equivalent discount = marked price – selling price
= 100 – 61.2
= ₹ 38.8
∴ The single equivalent discount is ₹ 38.8 on ₹ 100.
i.e. The single equivalent discount is 38.8%.

Question 7.
Reshma put an amount at simple interest at a certain rate for 3 years. Had it been put at 2% higher rate, she would have received ₹ 360 more. Find the sum.
Solution:
Let P and R represent the principal amount and rate of interest p.a. respectively.
Given duration = T = 3 years
Simple interest = \(\frac{\mathrm{PRT}}{100}=\frac{3 \mathrm{PR}}{100}\)
Given that, had the amount been kept at 2% more, then the gain would have been ₹ 360 more.

∴ The sum of money is ₹ 6,000.

Question 8.
The compound interest on ₹ 30000 at 7% p.a. is ₹ 4347. What is the period in years?
Solution:
Given that,
Principal (P) = ₹ 30,000
Rate of interest (R) = 7% p.a.
Compound interest = ₹ 4,347
Amount after compound interest

= \(\left(\frac{107}{100}\right)^{2}\)
= (1.07)²
∴ T = 2
∴ Amount is invested for 2 years.

Question 9.
The value of the machine depreciates at the rate of 15% p.a. It was purchased 2 years ago. Its present value is ₹ 7,225. What was the purchase price of the machine?
Solution:
Given,
Rate of depreciation = r = 15%
Number of years = n = 2 years
Present value of machine = P.V. = ₹ 7,225
The purchase price (V) of the machine can be found using

∴ The purchase price of the machine was ₹ 10,000/-.

Question 10.
A tree increases annually by \(\frac{1}{8}\) of its height. By how much will it increase after 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) years. If its length today is 8 m?
Solution:
The height of the tree today is 8m.
The height of the tree increases by \(\frac{1}{8}\)th of its height every year.
At the end of 1st year, height of the tree will be = 8 + \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 8 = 9 m
And, at the end of the 2nd year, height of the tree will be = 9 + \(\frac{1}{8}\) × 9
= 9(1 + \(\frac{1}{8}\))
= 9 × \(\frac{9}{8}\)
= \(\frac{81}{8}\)
After six more months, the height of the tree will be

∴ Increase in the height of the tree after 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) years = 10.75 – 8 = 2.75 m.

Question 11.
A building worth ₹ 1,21,000 is constructed on land worth ₹ 81,000. After how many years will the value of both be the same if land appreciates at 10% p.a and buildings depreciate at 10% p.a.
Solution:
Given,
Value of the building = V.B. = ₹ 1,21,000
Value of land = V.L. = ₹ 81,000/-
Rate of appreciation of land = rate of depreciation of building = r = 10%.
For the value of building and land to be the same.

∴ n = 2 years.
∴ After two years value of the building and land will be the same.

Question 12.
Varun invested 25%, 30%, and 20% of his savings in buying shares of three different companies, ‘A’, ‘B’, and ‘C’ which declared dividends, 10%, 12%, and 15% respectively. If his total income on account of dividends is ₹ 6,370/-, find the amount he invested in buying shares of company ‘B’.
Solution:
Let ‘T’ be Varan’s total savings.
∴ Investment of Varan in:
Company A = 25% of T = \(\frac{25}{100}\) × T = \(\frac{T}{4}\),
Company B = 30% of T = \(\frac{30}{100}\) × T = \(\frac{3T}{10}\),
Company C = 20% of T = \(\frac{20}{100}\) × T = \(\frac{T}{5}\)
Company A, B and C declared dividends 10%, 12% and 15% respectively.
∴ Dividend from company A = 10% of \(\frac{T}{4}\)

∴ Varan invested ₹ 21,000 in company B.

Question 13.
Find the annual dividend received from ₹ 25,000, 8% stock at ₹ 108.
Solution:
Amount invested = ₹ 25,000
Dividend = 8%
Assuming face value F.V. as ₹ 100
Annual income per share = \(\frac{\text { Dividend }}{100} \times \text { Face value }\)
= \(\frac{8}{100}\) × 100
= ₹ 8
Market value of the share M.V. = ₹ 108

Annual dividend on amount invested = Rate of return × amount invested
= \(\frac{7.4}{100}\) × 25,000
= ₹ 1850
∴ Annual dividend of ₹ 1,850 is received from 8% stock at ₹ 108.
Alternate approach
Assuming ₹ 25,000 as the total face value of all the shares.
Since the dividend is 8%,
Annual dividend = \(\frac{8}{100}\) × 25,000 = ₹ 2,000

Question 14.
A, B, and C enter into a partnership. A invests 3 times as much as B invests and B invests two-thirds of what ‘C’ invests. At the end of the year, the profit earned is ₹ 8,800. What is the share of ‘B’?
Solution:
Let ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ be the amounts invested by A, B and C respectively.
Given that, A invests 3 times as much as B and B invests two third of what ‘C’ invests.
∴ a = 3b and b = \(\frac{2}{3}\)c
∴ \(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{3}{1}\) and \(\frac{b}{c}=\frac{2}{3}\)
or \(\frac{a}{b}=\frac{6}{2}\) and \(\frac{b}{c}=\frac{2}{3}\)
∴ a : b = 6 : 2 and b : c = 2 : 3
∴ a : b : c = 6 : 2 : 3
Given that profit earned = ₹ 8800
∴ Share of ‘B’ in profit = \(\frac{2}{11}\) × 8800 = ₹ 1600
∴ B’share in profit is ₹ 1600.

Question 15.
The ratio of investment of two partners Santa and Banta is 11 : 12 and the ratio of their profits is 2 : 3. If Santa invested the money for 8 months, then for how much time did Banta his money?
Solution:
Let ‘x’ be the time in months for which Banta invested his money
Santa and Banta invested their money in the ratio 11 : 12.
Santa invested his money for 8 months and the ratio of their profits is 2 : 3.
∴ 11 × 8 : 12 × x = 2 : 3
∴ \(\frac{88}{12 x}=\frac{2}{3}\)
∴ x = \(\frac{88 \times 3}{2 \times 12}\)
∴ x = 11
∴ Banta invested his money for 11 months.

Question 16.
Akash, Sameer, and Sid took a house on rent for one year for ₹ 16,236. They stayed together for 4 months and then Sid left the house. After 5 more months, Sameer also left the house. How much rent should each pay?
Solution:
Let ‘R’ be the rent per month to be paid to the landlord.
Given that, Sid left the house after 4 months
∴ Rent paid by Sid = \(\frac{R}{3}\) × 4 = \(\frac{4R}{3}\)
Sameer left the house after another 5 months,
∴ Rent paid by Sameer = \(\frac{R}{2}\) × 5 + \(\frac{R}{3}\) × 4
= R(\(\frac{5}{2}+\frac{4}{3}\))
= \(\frac{23R}{6}\)
Akash stayed in the house for the entire year.
∴ Rent paid by Akash = 3R + \(\frac{R}{2}\) × 5 + \(\frac{R}{3}\) × 4
= R(3 + \(\frac{5}{2}+\frac{4}{3}\))
= \(\frac{41R}{6}\)
∴ The rent paid by the three of them, over that period of one year must be in the proportion.
\(\frac{41 \mathrm{R}}{6}: \frac{23 \mathrm{R}}{6}: \frac{4 \mathrm{R}}{3}\)
i.e. in the proportion
41 : 23 : 8 …..(multiplying throughout by \(\frac{6}{R}\))
Let x be the constant of proportionality.
Rent to be paid by Akash = ₹ 41x
Rent to be paid by Sameer = ₹ 23x
and rent to be paid by Sid = ₹ 8x
The total rent for the house was ₹ 16236.
∴ 41x + 23x + 8x = ₹ 16236
∴ 72x = 16236
∴ x = 225.5
∴ Akash should pay 41x = 41 × 225.5 = ₹ 9245.5
Sameer should pay 23x = 23 × 225.5 = ₹ 5186.5
and Sid should pay 8x = 8 × 225.5 = ₹ 1804

Question 17.
Ashwin Auto Automobiles sold 10 motorcycles. Total sales amount was ₹ 6,80,000. 18% GST is applicable. Calculate how much CGST and SGST the firm has to pay.
Solution:
Given, total sales amount for Ashwin Automobiles was ₹ 6,80,000.
18% GST is applicable.
∴ GST payable = 18% of 6,80,000
= \(\frac{18}{100}\) × 6,80,000
= ₹ 1,22,400
Now CGST = SGST = 9%
= \(\frac{\text { GST payable }}{2}\)
= \(\frac{1,22,400}{2}\)
= ₹ 61,200
∴ CGST = SGST = ₹ 61,200

Question 18.
‘Sweet 16’ A ready made garments shop for Women’s garments, purchased stock for ₹ 4,00,000 and sold that stock for ₹ 5,50,000 (12% GST is applicable) Find,
(i) Input Tax Credit
(ii) CGST and SGST paid by the firm.
Solution:
Given that, stock purchased by ‘Sweet 16’ was worth ₹ 4,00,000
GST applicable is 12%.
∴ Input tax = 12% of 4,00,000
= \(\frac{12}{100}\) × 4,00,000
= ₹ 48,000
∴ Input tax Credit (ITC) = ₹ 48,000
The garment stock was sold for ₹ 5,50,000
Output tax = 12% of 5,50,000
= \(\frac{12}{100}\) × 5,50,000
= ₹ 66,000
∴ GST payable = output tax – ITC
= 66,000 – 48,000
= ₹ 18,000
∴ CGST = SGST = \(\frac{\text { GST payable }}{2}\) = ₹ 9,000

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solution Book Pdf Chapter 8 Linear Inequations Ex 8.2 Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Linear Inequations Ex 8.2

Question 1.
Solve the following inequations graphically in a two-dimensional plane
(i) x ≤ -4
Solution:
Given, inequation is x ≤ -4
∴ corresponding equation is x = -4
It is a line parallel to Y-axis passing through the point A(-4, 0)
Origin test:
Substituting x = 0 in inequation, we get
0 ≤ -4 which is false.
∴ Points on the origin side of the line do not satisfy the inequation.
So the points on the non-origin side of the line and points on the line satisfy the inequation
∴ all the points on the line and left of it satisfy the given inequation.
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

(ii) y ≥ 3
Solution:
Given, inequation is y ≥ 3
∴ corresponding equation is y = 3
It is a line parallel to X-axis passing through point A(0, 3)
Origin test:
Substituting y = 0 in inequation, we get
0 ≥ 3 which is false.
∴ Points on the origin side of the line do not satisfy the inequation
∴ Points on the non-origin side of the line satisfy the inequation.
∴ all the points on the line and above it satisfy the given inequation.
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

(iii) y ≤ -2x
Solution:
Given, inequation is y ≤ -2x
∴ corresponding equation is y = -2x
It is a line passing through origin O(0, 0).
To draw the line, we need one more point.
To find another point on the line, we can take any value of x,
say, x = 2.
∴ substituting x = 2 in y = -2x, we get
y = -2(2)
∴ y = -4
∴ another point on the line is A(2, -4)
Now, the origin test is not possible as the origin lies on the line y = -2x
So, choose a point which does not lie on the line say, (2, 1)
∴ substituting x = 2, y = 1 in inequation, we get
1 ≤ -2(2)
∴ 1 ≤ -4 which is false.
∴ the points on the side of the line y = -2x, where (2, 1) lies do not satisfy the inequation.
∴ all the points on the line y = -2x and on the opposite side of the line where (2, 1) lies, satisfy the inequation
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

(iv) y – 5x ≥ 0
Solution:
Given, inequation is y – 5x ≥ 0
∴ corresponding equation is y – 5x = 0
It is a line passing through the point O(0, 0)
To draw the line, we need one more point.
To find another point on the line,
we can take any value of x, say, x = 1.
Substituting x = 1 in y – 5x = 0, we get
y – 5(1) = 0
∴ y = 5
∴ Another point on the line is A(1, 5)
Now origin test is not possible as the origin lies on the line y = 5x
∴ choose a point that does not lie on the line, say (3, 2).
∴ substituting x = 3, y = 2 in inequation, we get
2 – 5(3) ≥ 0
∴ 2 – 10 ≥ 0
∴ -8 ≥ 0 which is false.
∴ the points on the side of line y = 5x where (3, 1) lies do not satisfy the inequation.
∴ the points on the line y = 5x and on the opposite of the line where (3, 2) lies, satisfy the inequation.
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

(v) x – y ≥ 0
Solution:
Given, inequation is x – y ≥ 0
∴ Corresponding equation is x – y = 0
It is a line passing through origin O(0, 0)
To draw the line we need one more point.
To find another point on the line, we can take any value of x,
Say, x = 2.
∴ substituting x = 2 in x – y = 0, we get
2 – y = 0
∴ y = 2
∴ another point on the line is A(2, 2)
Now origin test is not possible as the origin lies on the line y = x
∴ choose a point which not lie on the line say (3, 1)
∴ substituting x = 3, y = 1 in inequation, we get
3 – 1 ≥ 0
∴ 2 ≥ 0 which is true.
∴ all the points on line x – y = 0 and the points on the side where (3, 1) lies satisfy the inequation
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

(vi) 2x – y ≤ -2
Solution:
Given, inequation is 2x – y ≤ -2
∴ corresponding equation is 2x – y = -2
∴ \(\frac{2 x}{-2}-\frac{y}{-2}=\frac{-2}{-2}\)
∴ \(\frac{x}{-1}+\frac{y}{2}=1\)
∴ intersection of line with X-axis is A(-1, 0),
intersection of line with Y-axis is B(0, 2)
Origin test:
Substituting x = 0, y = 0 in the given inequation, we get
2(0) – (0) ≤ -2
∴ 0 ≤ -2
which is false.
∴ Points on the origin side of the line do not satisfy the inequation.
∴ Points on the non-origin side of the line satisfy the inequation
∴ all the points on the line and above it satisfy the given inequation.
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

(vii) 4x + 5y ≤ 40
Solution:
Given, inequation is 4x + 5y ≤ 40
∴ Corresponding equation is 4x + 5y = 40
∴ \(\frac{4 x}{40}+\frac{5 y}{40}=\frac{40}{40}\)
∴ \(\frac{x}{10}+\frac{y}{8}=1\)
∴ Intersection of line with X-axis is A(10, 0)
Intersection of line with Y-axis is B(0, 8)
Origin test:
Substituting x = 0, y = 0 in the inequation, we get
4(0) + 5(0) ≤ 40
∴ 0 ≤ 40 which is true.
∴ all the points on the origin side of the line and points on the line satisfy the given inequation.
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

(viii) \(\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) x+\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) y\) ≤ 1
Solution:
Given, inequation is \(\left(\frac{1}{4}\right) x+\left(\frac{1}{2}\right) y\) ≤ 1
∴ corresponding equation is \(\frac{x}{4}+\frac{y}{2}\) = 1
∴ intersection of line with X-axis is A(4, 0),
intersection of line with Y-axis is B(0, 2)
Origin test:
Substituting x = 0, y = 0 in the given inequation, we get
\(\frac{1}{4}(0)+\frac{1}{2}(0)\) ≤ 1
∴ 0 ≤ 1 which is true.
∴ all the points on the origin side of the line and points on the line satisfy the given inequation.
The shaded portion represents the solution set.

Question 2.
Mr. Rajesh has ₹ 1,800 to spend on fruits for the meeting. Grapes cost ₹ 150 per kg. and peaches cost ₹ 200 per kg. Formulate and solve it graphically.
Solution:
Let x and y be the number of kgs. of grapes and peaches bought.
The cost of grapes is ₹ 150/- per kg, cost of peaches is ₹ 200/- per kg.
∴ cost of v kg of grapes is ₹ 150x
and the cost of y kg of peaches is ₹ 200y.
Mr. Rajesh has ₹ 1800 to spend on fruits.
∴ the total cost of grapes and peaches must be less than or equal to ₹ 1800.
∴ required inequation is 150x + 200y ≤ 1800
i.e., 3x + 4y ≤ 36 ……(i)
Since the number of kg of grapes and peaches can not be negative
∴ x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
Now, corresponding equation is 3x + 4y = 36
∴ \(\frac{3 x}{36}+\frac{4 y}{36}=\frac{36}{36}\)
∴ \(\frac{x}{12}+\frac{y}{9}=1\)
∴ the intersection of the line with the X-axis is A(12, 0)
the intersection of the line with the Y-axis is B(0, 9)
Origin test:
Substituting x = 0, y = 0 in inequation, we get
3(0) + 4(0) ≤ 36
∴ 0 ≤ 36 which is true.
∴ all the points on the origin side of the line and points on the line satisfy the inequation.
Also, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
∴ the solution set is the points on the sides of the triangle OAB and in the interior of ∆OAB.
∴ the shaded portion represents the solution set.

Question 3.
The Diet of the sick person must contain at least 4000 units of vitamin. Each unit of food F₁ contains 200 units of vitamin, whereas each unit of food F₂ contains 100 units of vitamins. Write an inequation to fulfill a sick person’s requirements and represent the solution set graphically.
Solution:
Let the diet of the sick person contain, x units of food F₁ and y units of food F₂.
Since each unit of food F₁ contains 200 units of vitamins.
∴ x units of food F₁ contain 200x units of vitamins.
Also, each unit of food F₂ contains 100 units of vitamins.
y units of food F₂ contain 100y units of vitamins.
Now, Diet for a sick person must contain at least 4000 units of vitamins.
∴ he must take food F₁ and F₂ in such away that total vitamins must be greater than or equal to 4000.
∴ required inequation is 200x + 100y ≥ 4000
i.e., 2x + y ≥ 40
Also x and y cannot be negative.
∴ x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
Corresponding equation is 2x + y = 40
∴ \(\frac{2 x}{40}+\frac{y}{40}=\frac{40}{40}\)
∴ \(\frac{x}{20}+\frac{y}{40}=1\)
∴ intersection of line with X-axis is A(20, 0)
intersection of line with Y-axis is B(0, 40)
Origin test:
Substituting x = 0, y = 0 in inequation, we get
2(0) + (0) ≥ 40
∴ 0 ≥ 40 which is false
∴ all the points on the non origin side of the line and points on the line satisfy the inequation.
Also, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0
∴ the solution set is as shown in the figure.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solution Book Pdf Chapter 8 Linear Inequations Ex 8.1 Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Linear Inequations Ex 8.1

Question 1.
Write the inequations that represent the interval and state whether the interval is bounded or unbounded:
(i) [-4, \(\frac{7}{3}\)]
Solution:
[-4, \(\frac{7}{3}\)]
Here, x takes values between -4 and \(\frac{7}{3}\) including -4 and \(\frac{7}{3}\)
∴ the required inequation is -4 ≤ x ≤ \(\frac{7}{3}\)
∴ it is a bounded (closed) interval.

(ii) (0, 0.9]
Solution:
(0, 0.9]
Here, x takes values between 0 and 0.9, including 0.9 and excluding 0.
∴ the required inequation is 0 < x ≤ 0.9
∴ it is a bounded (semi-right closed) interval.

(iii) (-∞, ∞)
Solution:
(-∞, ∞)
Here, x takes values between -∞ and ∞
∴ the required inequation is -∞ < x < ∞
∴ it is an unbounded (open) interval.

(iv) [5, ∞)
Solution:
[5, ∞)
Here, x takes values between 5 and ∞ including 5.
∴ the required inequation is 5 ≤ x < ∞
∴ it is an unbounded (semi-left closed) interval.

(v) (-11, -2)
Solution:
(-11, -2)
Here, x takes values between -11 and -2
∴ the required inequation is -11 < x < -2
∴ it is a bounded (open) interval.

(vi) (-∞, 3)
Solution:
(-∞, 3)
Here, x takes values between -∞ and 3
∴ the required inequation is -∞ < x < 3
∴ it is an unbounded (open) interval.

Question 2.
Solve the following inequations
(i) 3x – 36 > 0
Solution:
3x – 36 > 0
Adding 36 both sides, we get
3x – 36 + 36 > 0 + 36
∴ 3x > 36
Dividing both sides by 3, we get
\(\frac{3 x}{3}>\frac{36}{3}\)
∴ x > 12
∴ x takes all real values more than 12
∴ Solution set = (12, ∞)

(ii) 7x – 25 ≤ -4
Solution:
7x – 25 ≤ -4
Adding 25 on both sides, we get
7x – 25 + 25 ≤ -4 + 25
∴ 7x ≤ 21
Dividing both sides by 7, we get
x ≤ 3
∴ x takes all real values less or equal to 3.
∴ Solution Set = (-∞, 3]

(iii) 0 < \(\frac{x-5}{4}\) < 3
Solution:
0 < \(\frac{x-5}{4}\) < 3
0 < x – 5 < 12
Adding 5 on both sides, we get
5 < x < 17
x takes all real values between 5 and 17.
∴ Solution set = (5, 17)

(iv) |7x – 4| < 10
Solution:
|7x – 4| < 10
-10 < 7x – 4 < 10 …….[|x| < k is same as -k < x < k]
Adding 4 on both sides, we get
-6 < 7x < 14
Dividing both sides by 7, we get
\(-\frac{6}{7}<x<\frac{14}{7}\)
∴ \(-\frac{6}{7}\) < x < 2
∴ x takes all real values between \(-\frac{6}{7}\) and 2.
∴ Solution set = (\(-\frac{6}{7}\), 2)

Question 3.
Sketch the graph which represents the solution set for the following inequations:
(i) x > 5
Solution:
x > 5
Here, x takes all real values that are greater than 5.
∴ Solution set represents the unbounded (open) interval (5, ∞)
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

(ii) x ≥ 5
Solution:
x ≥ 5
Here, x takes all real values that are greater than or equal to 5
∴ Solution set represents the unbounded (semi-left closed) interval [5, ∞)
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

(iii) x < 3
Solution:
x < 3
Here, x takes all real values that are less than 3.
∴ Solution set represents the unbounded (open) interval (-∞, 3)
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

(iv) x ≤ 3
Solution:
x ≤ 3
Here, x takes all real values less than and including 3
∴ Solution set represents the unbounded (semi-right closed) interval (-∞, 3]
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

(v) -4 < x < 3
Solution:
-4 < x < 3
Here, x takes all real values between -4 and 3.
∴ Solution set represents the bounded (open) interval (-4, 3)
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

(vi) -2 ≤ x < 2.5
Solution:
-2 ≤ x < 2.5
Here, x takes all values between -2 and 2.5 including -2.
∴ Solution set represents the bounded (semi-left closed) interval [-2, 2.5)
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows.

(vii) -3 ≤ x ≤ 1
Solution:
-3 ≤ x ≤ 1
Here, x takes all real values between -3 and 1 including -3 and 1
∴ Solution set represents the bounded (closed) interval [-3, 1]
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

(viii) |x| < 4
Solution:
|x| < 4 ⇒ -4 < x < 4
Here, x takes all real values between -4 and 4.
∴ Solution set represents bounded (open) interval (-4, 4)
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

(ix) |x| ≥ 3.5
Solution:
|x| ≥ 3.5 ⇒ x ≥ 3.5 or x ≤ -3.5
Here, x takes values greater than or equal to 3.5 or it takes values less than or equal to -3.5
∴ Solution set represents the unbounded (semi-left closed) interval [3.5, ∞) or the unbounded (semi-right closed) interval (-∞, -3.5]
∴ x ∈ (-∞, -3.5] ∪ [3.5, ∞)
∴ the required graph of the solution set is as follows:

Question 4.
Solve the inequations:
(i) 5x + 7 > 4 – 2x
Solution:
5x + 7 > 4 – 2x
Adding 2x on both sides, we get
7x + 7 > 4
Subtracting 7 from both sides, we get
7x > -3
Dividing by 7 on both sides, we get
∴ x > \(-\frac{3}{7}\)
i.e., x takes all real values greater than \(-\frac{3}{7}\)
∴ the solution set is (\(-\frac{3}{7}\), ∞)

(ii) 3x + 1 ≥ 6x – 4
Solution:
3x + 1 ≥ 6x – 4
Subtracting 3x from both sides, we get
1 ≥ 3x – 4
Adding 4 on both sides, we get
5 ≥ 3x
Dividing by 3 on both sides, we get
\(\frac{5}{3}\) ≥ x
i.e., x ≤ \(\frac{5}{3}\)
i.e., x takes all real values less than or equal to \(\frac{5}{3}\).
∴ the solution set is (-∞, \(\frac{5}{3}\)]

(iii) 4 – 2x < 3(3 – x)
Solution:
4 – 2x < 3(3 – x)
∴ 4 – 2x < 9 – 3x
Adding 3x on both sides, we get
4 + x < 9
Subtracting 4 from both sides, we get
x < 5
i.e., x takes all real values less than 5
∴ the solution set is (-∞, 5)

(iv) \(\frac{3}{4}\)x – 6 ≤ x – 7
Solution:
\(\frac{3}{4}\)x – 6 ≤ x – 7
Multiplying by 4 on both sides, we get
3x – 24 ≤ 4x – 28
Subtracting 3x from both sides, we get
-24 ≤ x – 28
Adding 28 on both the sides, we get
∴ 4 ≤ x i.e., x ≥ 4
i.e., x takes all real values greater or equal to 4.
∴ the solution set is [4, ∞)

(v) -8 ≤ -(3x – 5) < 13
Solution:
-8 < -(3x – 5) < 13 Multiplying by -1 throughout (so inequality sign changes) 8 ≥ 3x – 5 > -13
i.e., -13 < 3x – 5 ≤ 8
Adding 5 on both the sides, we get
-8 < 3x ≤ 13
Dividing, by 3 on both sides, we get
∴ \(-\frac{8}{3}\) < x ≤ \(\frac{13}{3}\)
i.e., x takes all real values between \(-\frac{8}{3}\) and \(\frac{13}{3}\) including \(\frac{13}{3}\).
∴ the solution set is \(\left(-\frac{8}{3}, \frac{13}{3}\right]\)

(vi) -1 < 3 – \(\frac{x}{5}\) ≤ 1
Solution:
-1 < 3 – \(\frac{x}{5}\) ≤ 1
Subtracting 3 from both sides, we get
-4 < –\(\frac{x}{5}\) < -2 Multiplying by -1 throughout (so inequality sign changes) ∴ 4 > \(\frac{x}{5}\) > 2
i.e., 2 < \(\frac{x}{5}\) < 4
Multiplying by 5 on both sides, we get
10 < x < 20
i.e., x takes all real values between 10 and 20.
∴ the solution set is (10, 20)

(vii) 2|4 – 5x| ≥ 9
Solution:
2|4 – 5x | ≥ 9
∴ |4 – 5x| ≥ \(\frac{9}{2}\)
∴ 4 – 5x ≥ \(\frac{9}{2}\) or 4 – 5x ≤ –\(\frac{9}{2}\) ……[|x| ≥ a implies x ≤ -a or x ≥ a]
Subtracting 4 from both sides, we get
-5x ≥ \(\frac{1}{2}\) or -5x ≤ \(\frac{-17}{2}\)
Divide by -5 (so inequality sign changes)
∴ x ≤ \(-\frac{1}{10}\) or x ≥ \(\frac{17}{10}\)
∴ x takes all real values less than or equal to \(-\frac{1}{10}\)
or it takes all real values greater or equal to \(\frac{17}{10}\).
∴ the solution set is (-∞, \(-\frac{1}{10}\)] or [\(\frac{17}{10}\), ∞)

(viii) |2x + 7| ≤ 25
Solution:
|2x + 7| < 25
∴ -25 ≤ 2x + 7 ≤ 25 …..[|x| ≤ a implies -a ≤ x ≤ a]
Subtracting 7 from both sides, we get
-32 ≤ 2x ≤ 18
Dividing by 2 on both sides, we get
-16 ≤ x ≤ 9
∴ x can take all real values between -16 and 9 including -16 and 9.
∴ the solution set is [-16, 9]

(ix) 2|x + 3| > 1
Solution:
2|x + 3| > 1
Dividing by 2 on both sides, we get
|x + 3| > \(\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ x + 3 < –\(\frac{1}{2}\) or x + 3 > \(\frac{1}{2}\) …..[|x| > a implies x < -a or x > a]
Subtracting 3 from both sides, we get
x < – 3 – \(\frac{1}{2}\) or x > -3 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)
∴ x < \(\frac{-7}{2}\) or x > \(\frac{-5}{2}\)
∴ x can take all real values less \(\frac{-7}{2}\) or it can take values greater than \(\frac{-5}{2}\).
∴ Solution set is (-∞, \(\frac{-7}{2}\)) ∪ (\(\frac{-7}{2}\), ∞)

(x) \(\frac{x+5}{x-3}\) < 0
Solution:
\(\frac{x+5}{x-3}\) < 0
Since \(\frac{a}{b}\) < 0, when a > 0 and b < 0 or a < 0 and b > 0
∴ either x + 5 > 0 and x – 3 < 0
or x + 5 < 0 and x – 3 > 0
Case I:
x + 5 > 0 and x – 3 < 0 ∴ x > -5 and x < 3
∴ -5 < x < 3
∴ solution set = (-5, 3)
Case II:
x + 5 < 0 and x – 3 > 0
∴ x < -5 and x > 3
which is not possible
∴ solution set = Φ
∴ solution set of the given inequation is (-5, 3)

(xi) \(\frac{x-2}{x+5}\) > 0
Solution:
\(\frac{x-2}{x+5}\) > 0
Since \(\frac{a}{b}\) > 0,
when a > 0 and b > 0 or a < 0 and b < 0 b
∴ either x – 2 > 0 and x + 5 > 0
or x – 2 < 0 and x + 5 < 0 Case I: x – 2 > 0 and x + 5 > 0
∴ x > 2 and x > -5
∴ x > 2
∴ solution set = (2, ∞)
Case II:
x – 2 < 0 and x + 5 < 0
∴ x < 2 and x < -5
∴ x < -5
∴ solution set = (-∞, -5)
∴ the solution set of the given inequation is (-∞, -5) ∪ (2, ∞)

Question 5.
Rajiv obtained 70 and 75 marks in the first two unit tests. Find the minimum marks he should get in the third test to have an average of at least 60 marks.
Solution:
Let x₁, x₂, x₃ denote the marks in 1st, 2nd and 3rd unit test respectively. Then
\(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}+x_{3}}{3}\) ≥ 60
∴ \(\frac{70+75+x_{3}}{3}\) ≥ 60
∴ 145 + x₃ ≥ 3(60)
Subtracting 145 from both sides, we get
x₃ ≥ 180 – 145
∴ x₃ ≥ 35
Rajiv must obtain a minimum of 35 marks to maintain an average of at least 60 marks.

Question 6.
To receive Grade ‘A’ in a course, one must obtain an average of 90 marks or more in five examinations (each of 100 marks). If Sunita’s marks in the first four examinations are 87, 92, 94, and 95, find the minimum marks that Sunita must obtain in the fifth examination to get a grade ‘A’ in the course.
Solution:
Let x₁, x₂, x₃, x₄, x₅ denote the marks in five examinations. Then
\(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}+x_{3}+x_{4}+x_{5}}{5}\) ≥ 90
∴ \(\frac{87+92+94+95+x_{5}}{5}\) ≥ 90
∴ 368 + x₅ ≥ 450
Subtracting 368 from both sides, we get
∴ x₅ ≥ 82
Sunita must obtain a minimum of 82 marks in the 5th examination to get a grade of A.

Question 7.
Find all pairs of consecutive odd positive integers, both of which are smaller than 10 such that their sum is more than 11.
Solution:
Let two consecutive positive integers be 2n – 1, 2n + 1 where n ≥ 1 ∈ Z,
Given that 2n – 1 < 10 and 2n + 1 < 10
∴ 2n < 11 and 2n < 9
∴ 2n < 9
∴ n < \(\frac{9}{2}\) …..(i) Also, (2n – 1) + (2n + 1) > 11
∴ 4n > 11
∴ n > \(\frac{11}{4}\) …….(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
\(\frac{11}{4}<n<\frac{9}{2}\) Since, n is an integer,
∴ n = 3, 4
n = 3 gives 2n – 1 = 5, 2n + 1 = 7
and n = 4 gives 2n – 1 = 7, 2n + 1 = 9
∴ The pairs of positive consecutive integers are (5, 7) and (7, 9).

Question 8.
Find all pairs of consecutive even positive integers, both of which are larger than 5 such that their sum is less than 23.
Solution:
Let 2n, 2n + 2 be two positive consecutive integers where n ≥ 1 ∈ Z.
Given that 2n > 5 and 2n + 2 > 5
∴ n > \(\frac{5}{2}\) and 2n > 3
∴ n > \(\frac{5}{2}\) and n > \(\frac{3}{2}\)
∴ n > \(\frac{5}{2}\) ……(i)
Also (2n) + (2n + 2) < 23
∴ 4n + 2 < 23
∴ 4n < 21
∴ n < \(\frac{21}{4}\) ……(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
\(\frac{5}{2}<n<\frac{21}{4}\) and n is an integer.
∴ n = 3, 4, 5
n = 3 gives 2n = 6, 2n + 2 = 8
n = 4 gives 2n = 8, 2n + 2 = 10
n = 5 gives 2n = 10, 2n + 2 = 12
∴ The pairs of positive even consecutive integers are (6, 8) (8, 10), (10, 12)

Question 9.
The longest side of a triangle is twice the shortest side and the third side is 2 cm longer than the shortest side. If the perimeter of the triangle is more than 166 cm then find the minimum integer length of the shortest side.
Solution:
Let the shortest side be x.
Then longest side length = 2x
and third side length = x + 2
Perimeter = x + 2x + x + 2 = 4x +2
Given, perimeter > 166
∴ 4x + 2 > 166
∴ 4x > 164
∴ x > 41
∴ Minimum integer length of shortest side is 42 cm.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 13 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 13 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System

1. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
The EM wave emitted by the Sun and responsible for heating the Earth’s atmosphere due to the greenhouse effect is
(A) Infra-red radiation
(B) X-ray
(C) Microwave
(D) Visible light
Answer:
(A) Infra-red radiation

Question 2.
Earth’s atmosphere is richest in
(A) UV
(B) IR
(C) X-ray
(D) Microwaves
Answer:
(B) IR

Question 3.
How does the frequency of a beam of ultraviolet light change when it travels from air into glass?
(A) depends on the values of p and e
(B) increases
(C) decreases
(D) remains same
Answer:
(D) remains same

Question 4.
The direction of EM wave is given by
(A) \(\bar{E}\) × \(\bar{B}\)
(B) \(\bar{E}\).\(\bar{B}\)
(C) along \(\bar{E}\)
(D) along \(\bar{B}\)
Answer:
(A) \(\bar{E}\) × \(\bar{B}\)

Question 5.
The maximum distance upto which TV transmission from a TV tower of height h can be received is proportional to
(A) h½
(B) h
(C) h^3/2
(D) h²
Answer:
(A) h½

Question 6.
The waves used by artificial satellites for communication purposes are
(A) Microwave
(B) AM radio waves
(C) FM radio waves
(D) X-rays
Answer:
(A) Microwave

Question 7.
If a TV telecast is to cover a radius of 640 km, what should be the height of transmitting antenna?
(A) 32000 m
(B) 53000 m
(C) 42000 m
(D) 55000 m
Answer:
(A) 32000 m

2. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
State two characteristics of an EM wave.
Answer:
i. The electric and magnetic fields, \(\vec{E}\) and \(\vec{B}\) are always perpendicular to each other and also to the direction of propagation of the EM wave. Thus, the EM waves are transverse waves.

ii. The cross product (\(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)) gives the direction in which the EM wave travels. (\(\vec{E}\) × \(\vec{B}\)) also gives the energy carried by EM wave.

Question 2.
Why are microwaves used in radar?
Answer:
Microwaves are used in radar systems for identifying the location of distant objects like ships, aeroplanes etc.

Question 3.
What are EM waves?
Answer:
Waves that are caused by the acceleration of charged particles and consist of electric and magnetic fields vibrating sinusoidally at right angles to each other and to the direction of propagation are called EM waves or EM radiation.

Question 4.
How are EM waves produced?
Answer:

1. According to quantum theory, an electron, while orbiting around the nucleus in a stable orbit does not emit EM radiation even though it undergoes acceleration.
2. It will emit an EM radiation only when it falls from an orbit of higher energy to one of lower energy.
3. EM waves (such as X-rays) are produced when fast moving electrons hit a target of high atomic number (such as molybdenum, copper, etc.).
4. An electric charge at rest has an electric field in the region around it but has no magnetic field.
5. When the charge moves, it produces both electric and magnetic fields.
6. If the charge moves with a constant velocity, the magnetic field will not change with time and hence, it cannot produce an EM wave.
7. But if the charge is accelerated, both the magnetic and electric fields change with space and time and an EM wave is produced.
8. Thus, an oscillating charge emits an EM wave which has the same frequency as that of the oscillation of the charge.

Question 5.
Can we produce a pure electric or magnetic wave in space? Why?
Answer:
No.
In vacuum, an electric field cannot directly induce another electric field so a “pure” electric field wave cannot exist and same can be said for a “pure” magnetic wave.

Question 6.
Does an ordinary electric lamp emit EM waves?
Answer:
Yes, ordinary electric lamp emits EM waves.

Question 7.
Why light waves travel in vacuum whereas sound wave cannot?
Answer:
Light waves are electromagnetic waves which can travel in vacuum whereas sound waves travel due to the vibration of particles of medium. Without any particles present (like in a vacuum) no vibrations can be produced. Hence, the sound wave cannot travel through the vacuum.

Question 8.
What are ultraviolet rays? Give two uses.
Answer:
Production:

1. Ultraviolet rays can be produced by the mercury vapour lamp, electric spark and carbon arc lamp.
2. They can also be obtained by striking electrical discharge in hydrogen and xenon gas tubes.
3. The Sun is the most important natural source of ultraviolet rays, most of which are absorbed by the ozone layer in the Earth’s atmosphere.

Uses:

1. Ultraviolet rays destroy germs and bacteria and hence they are used for sterilizing surgical instruments and for purification of water.
2. Used in burglar alarms and security systems.
3. Used to distinguish real and fake gems.

Question 9.
What are radio waves? Give its two uses.
Answer:

1. Radio waves are produced by accelerated motion of charges in a conducting wire. The frequency of waves produced by the circuit depends upon the magnitudes of the inductance and the capacitance.
2. Thus, by choosing suitable values of the inductance and the capacitance, radio waves of desired frequency can be produced.

Uses:

1. Radio waves are used for wireless communication purpose.
2. They are used for radio broadcasting and transmission of TV signals.
3. Cellular phones use radio waves to transmit voice communication in the ultra high frequency (UHF) band.

Question 10.
Name the most harmful radiation entering the Earth’s atmosphere from the outer space.
Answer:
Ultraviolet radiation.

Question 11.
Give reasons for the following:
i. Long distance radio broadcast uses short wave bands.
ii. Satellites are used for long distance TV transmission.
Answer:
i. Long distance radio broadcast uses short wave bands because electromagnetic waves only in the frequency range of short wave bands only are reflected by the ionosphere.

ii. a. It is necessary to use satellites for long distance TV transmissions because television signals are of high frequencies and high energies. Thus, these signals are not reflected by the ionosphere.
b. Hence, satellites are helpful in long distance TV transmission.

Question 12.
Name the three basic units of any communication system.
Answer:
Three basic (essential) elements of every communication system are transmitter, communication channel and receiver.

Question 13.
What is a carrier wave?
Answer:
The high frequency waves on which the signals to be transmitted are superimposed are called carrier waves.

Question 14.
Why high frequency carrier waves are used for transmission of audio signals?
Answer:
An audio signal has low frequency (<20 kHz) and low frequency signals cannot be transmitted over large distances. Because of this, a high frequency carrier waves are used for transmission.

Question 15.
What is modulation?
Answer:
The signals in communication system (e.g. music, speech etc.) are low frequency signals and cannot be transmitted over large distances. In order to transmit the signal to large distances, it is superimposed on a high frequency wave (called carrier wave). This process is called modulation.

Question 16.
What is meant by amplitude modulation?
Answer:
When the amplitude of carrier wave is varied in accordance with the modulating signal, the process is called amplitude modulation.

Question 17.
What is meant by noise?
Answer:

1. A random unwanted signal is called noise.
2. The source generating the noise may be located inside or outside the system.
3. Efforts should be made to minimize the noise level in a communication system.

Question 18.
What is meant by bandwidth?
Answer:
The bandwidth of an electronic circuit is the range of frequencies over which it operates efficiently.

Question 19.
What is demodulation?
Answer:
The process of regaining signal from a modulated wave is called demodulation. This is the reverse process of modulation.

Question 20.
What type of modulation is required for television broadcast?
Answer:
Amplitude modulation is required for television broadcast.

Question 21.
How does the effective power radiated by an antenna vary with wavelength?
Answer:

1. To transmit a signal, an antenna or an aerial is needed.
2. Power radiated from a linear antenna of length l is, P ∝ (\(\frac {l}{λ}\))²
   where, λ is the wavelength of the signal.

Question 22.
Why should broadcasting programs use different frequencies?
Answer:
If broadcasting programs run on same frequency, then the information carried by these waves will get mixed up with each other. Hence, different broadcasting programs should run on different frequencies.

Question 23.
Explain the necessity of a carrier wave in communication.
Answer:

1. Without a carrier wave, the input signals could be carried by very low frequency electromagnetic waves but it will need quite a bit of amplification in order to transmit those very low frequencies.
2. The input signals themselves do not have much power and need a fairly large antenna in order to transmit the information.
3. Hence, it is necessary to impose the input signal on carrier wave as it requires less power in order to transmit the information.

Question 24.
Why does amplitude modulation give noisy reception?
Answer:
i. In amplitude modulation, carrier is varied in accordance with the message signal.

ii. The higher the amplitude, the greater is magnitude of the signal. So even if due to any reason, the magnitude of the signal changes, it will lead to variation in the amplitude of the signal. So its easy for noise to disturb the amplitude modulated signal.

Question 25.
Explain why is modulation needed.
Answer:
Modulation helps in avoiding mixing up of signals from different transmitters as different carrier wave frequencies can be allotted to different transmitters. Without the use of these waves, the audio signals, if transmitted directly by different transmitters, would get mixed up.

3. Solve the numerical problem.

Question 1.
Calculate the frequency in MHz of a radio wave of wavelength 250 m. Remember that the speed of all EM waves in vacuum is 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s.
Answer:
Given: λ = 250 m, c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
To find: Frequency (v)
Formula: c = v⁸
Calculation: From formula,
v = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{250}\) = 1.2 × 10⁶ Hz
= 1.2 MHz

Question 2.
Calculate the wavelength in nm of an X-ray wave of frequency 2.0 × 10¹⁸ Hz.
Solution:
Given: c = 3 × 10⁸, v = 2 × 10¹⁸ Hz
To find: Wavelength (λ)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation. From formula,
λ = \(\frac {c}{v}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{2×10^{18}}\) = 1.5 × 10^-10
= 0.15 nm

Question 3.
The speed of light is 3 × 10⁸ m/s. Calculate the frequency of red light of wavelength of 6.5 × 10^-7 m.
Answer:
Given: c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s, λ = 6.5 × 10^-7 m
To find: Frequency (v)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation: From formula,
v = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{6.5×10^{-7}}\) = 4.6 × 10¹⁴ Hz

Question 4.
Calculate the wavelength of a microwave of frequency 8.0 GHz.
Answer:
Given: v = 8 GHz = 8 × 10⁹ Hz,
c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s
To find: Wavelength (λ)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation: From formula,
λ = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{8×10^9}\) = 3.75 × 10^-2
= 3.75 cm

Question 5.
In a EM wave the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2 × 10¹⁰ What is the wavelength of the wave?
Answer:
Given: v = 2 × 10¹⁰ Hz, c = 3 × 10⁸ m
To find: Wavelength (λ)
Formula: c = vλ
Calculation: From formula,
λ = \(\frac {c}{λ}\) = \(\frac {3×10^8}{2×10^{10}}\) = 1.5 × 10^-2

Question 6.
The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic EM wave in vacuum is B0 = 5 X 10-7 T. What is the amplitude of the electric field part of the wave?
Answer:
Given: B₀ = 5 × 10^-7 T, c = 3 × 10⁸
To find: Amplitude of electric field (E₀)
Formula: c = \(\frac {E_0}{B_0}\)
Calculation /From formula,
E₀ = c × B₀
= 3 × 10⁸ × 5 × 10^-7
= 150 V/m

Question 7.
A TV tower has a height of 200 m. How much population is covered by TV transmission if the average population density around the tower is 1000/km²? (Radius of the Earth = 6.4 × 10⁶ m)
Answer:
Given: h = 200 m,
Population density (n)
= 1000/km² = 1000 × 10^-6/m² = 10^-3/m²
R = 6.4 ×10⁶ m
To find: Population covered
Formulae: i. A = πd² = π(\(\sqrt{2Rh}\))² = 2πRh
ii. Population covered = nA
Calculation /From formula (i),
A = 2πRh
= 2 × 3.142 × 6.4 × 10⁶ × 200
≈ 8 × 10⁹ m²
From formula (ii),
Population covered = nA
= 10^-3 × 8 × 10⁹
= 8 × 10⁶

Question 8.
Height of a TV tower is 600 m at a given place. Calculate its coverage range if the radius of the Earth is 6400 km. What should be the height to get the double coverage area?
Answer:
Given: h = 600 m, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
To find: Range (d)
Height to get the double coverage (h’)
Formula: d = \(\sqrt{2hR}\)
Calculation: From formula,
d = \(\sqrt{2×600×6.4×10^6}\) = 87.6 × 10³ = 87.6 km
Now, for A’ = 2A
π(d’)² = 2 (πd²)
∴ (d’)² = 2d²
From formula,
h’ = \(\frac{(d’)^2}{2R}\)
= \(\frac{2d^2}{2R}\)
= 2 × h ……….. (∵ h = \(\frac{d^2}{2R}\))
= 2 × 600
=1200 m

Question 9.
A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 32 m and that of the receiving antenna is 50 m. What is the maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in line of sight mode? Given radius of Earth is 6.4 × 10⁶ m.
Answer:
Given: h_t = 32 m, h_r = 50 m, R = 6.4 × 10⁶ m
To find: Maximum distance or range (d)
Formula: d = \(\sqrt{2Rh}\)
Calculation: From formula,
d_t = \(\sqrt{2Rh_t}\) = \(\sqrt{2×6.4×10^6×32}\)
= 20.238 × 10³ m
= 20.238 km
d_r = \(\sqrt{2Rh_t}\)
= \(\sqrt{2×6.4×10^6×50}\)
= 25.298 × 10³ m
= 25.298 km
Now, d = d_t + d_r
= 20.238 + 25.298
= 45.536 km

11th Physics Digest Chapter 13 Electromagnetic Waves and Communication System Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbookpage no. 229)

Question 1.
i. What is a wave?
Answer:
Wave is an oscillatory disturbance which travels through a medium without change in its form.

ii. What is the difference between longitudinal and transverse waves?
Answer:
a. Transverse wave: A wave in which particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave is called transverse wave.
b. Longitudinal wave: A wave in which particles of the medium vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of wave is called longitudinal wave.

iii. What are electric and magnetic fields and what are their sources?
Answer:
a. Electric field is the force experienced by a test charge in presence of the given charge at the given distance from it.
b. A magnetic field is produced around a magnet or around a current carrying conductor.

iv. By which mechanism heat is lost by hot bodies?
Answer:
Hot bodies lose the heat in the form of radiation.

Question 2.
What are Lenz’s law, Ampere’s law and Faraday’s law?
Answer:
Lenz’s law:
Whereas, Lenz’s law states that, the direction of the induced emf is such that the change is opposed.

Ampere’s law:
Ampere’s law describes the relation between the induced magnetic field associated with a loop and the current flowing through the loop.

Faraday’s law:
Faraday’s law states that, time varying magnetic field induces an electromotive force (emf) and an electric field.

Internet my friend. (Tpxtboakpage no. 240)

https//www.iiap.res.in/centers/iao
[Students are expected to visit the above mentioned website and collect more information about different EM wave propagations used by astronomical observatories.]

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Magnetism Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 12 Magnetism

1. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Let r be the distance of a point on the axis of a bar magnet from its center. The magnetic field at r is always proportional to
(A) \(\frac {1}{r^2}\)
(B) \(\frac {1}{r^3}\)
(C) \(\frac {1}{r}\)
(D) Not necessarily \(\frac {1}{r^3}\) at all points
Answer:
(B) \(\frac {1}{r^3}\)

Question 2.
Magnetic meridian is the plane
(A) perpendicular to the magnetic axis of Earth
(B) perpendicular to geographic axis of Earth
(C) passing through the magnetic axis of Earth
(D) passing through the geographic axis
Answer:
(C) passing through the magnetic axis of Earth

Question 3.
The horizontal and vertical component of magnetic field of Earth are same at some place on the surface of Earth. The magnetic dip angle at this place will be
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 0°
(D) 90°
Answer:
(B) 45°

Question 4.
Inside a bar magnet, the magnetic field lines
(A) are not present
(B) are parallel to the cross sectional area of the magnet
(C) are in the direction from N pole to S pole
(D) are in the direction from S pole to N pole
Answer:
(D) are in the direction from S pole to N pole

Question 5.
A place where the vertical components of Earth’s magnetic field is zero has the angle of dip equal to
(A) 0°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer:
(A) 0°

Question 6.
A place where the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field is zero lies at
(A) geographic equator
(B) geomagnetic equator
(C) one of the geographic poles
(D) one of the geomagnetic poles
Answer:
(D) one of the geomagnetic poles

Question 7.
A magnetic needle kept nonparallel to the magnetic field in a nonuniform magnetic field experiences
(A) a force but not a torque
(B) a torque but not a force
(C) both a force and a torque
(D) neither force nor a torque
Answer:
(C) both a force and a torque

2. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
What happens if a bar magnet is cut into two pieces transverse to its length/ along its length?
Answer:
i. When a magnet is cut into two pieces, then each piece behaves like an independent magnet.

ii. When a bar magnet is cut transverse to its length, the two pieces generated will behave as independent magnets of reduced magnetic length. However, the pole strength of all the four poles formed will be same as that of the original bar magnet. Thus, the new dipole moment of the smaller magnets will be,

iii. When the bar magnet is cut along its length, the two pieces generated will behave like an independent magnet with reduced pole strength. However, the magnetic length of both the new magnets will be same as that of the original bar magnet. Thus, the new dipole moment of the smaller magnets will be,

Question 2.
What could be the equation for Gauss’ law of magnetism, if a monopole of pole strength p is enclosed by a surface?
Answer:
i. According to Gauss’ law of electrostatics, the net electric flux through any Gaussian surface is proportional to net charge enclosed in it. The equation is given as,
ø_E = ∫\(\vec{E}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = \(\frac {q}{ε_0}\)

ii. Similarly, if a monopole of a magnet of pole strength p exists, the Gauss’ law of magnetism in S.I. units will be given as,
ø_E = ∫\(\vec{B}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = µ₀P

3. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the Gauss’ law for magnetic fields.
Answer:
i. Analogous to the Gauss’ law for electric field, the Gauss’ law for magnetism states that, the net magnetic flux (ø_B) through a closed Gaussian surface is zero. ø_B = ∫\(\vec{B}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = 0

ii. Consider a bar magnet, a current carrying solenoid and an electric dipole. The magnetic field lines of these three are as shown in figures.

iii. The areas (P) and (Q) are the cross – sections of three dimensional closed Gaussian surfaces. The Gaussian surface (P) does not include poles while the Gaussian surface (Q) includes N-pole of bar magnet, solenoid and the positive charge in case of electric dipole.

iv. The number of lines of force entering the surface (P) is equal to the number of lines of force leaving the surface. This can be observed in all the three cases.

v. However, Gaussian surface (Q) of bar magnet, enclose north pole. As, even thin slice of a bar magnet will have both north and south poles associated with it, the number of lines of Force entering surface (Q) are equal to the number of lines of force leaving the surface.

vi. For an electric dipole, the field lines begin from positive charge and end on negative charge. For a closed surface (Q), there is a net outward flux since it does include a net (positive) charge.

vii. Thus, according to the Gauss’ law of electrostatics ø_E = ∫\(\vec{E}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = \(\frac {q}{ε_0}\), where q is the positive charge enclosed.

viii. The situation is entirely different from magnetic lines of force. Gauss’ law of magnetism can be written as ø_B = ∫\(\vec{B}\) . \(\vec{dS}\) = 0
From this, one can conclude that for electrostatics, an isolated electric charge exists but an isolated magnetic pole does not exist.

Question 2.
What is a geographic meridian? How does the declination vary with latitude? Where is it minimum?
Answer:
A plane perpendicular to the surface of the Earth (vertical plane) and passing through geographic axis is geographic meridian.

i. Angle between the geographic and the magnetic meridian at a place is called magnetic declination (a).
ii. Magnetic declination varies with location and over time. As one moves away from the true north the declination changes depending on the latitude as well as longitude of the place. By convention, declination is positive when magnetic north is east of true north, and negative when it is to the west. The declination is small in India. It is 0° 58′ west at Mumbai and 0° 41′ east at Delhi.

Question 3.
Define the angle of dip. What happens to angle of dip as we move towards magnetic pole from magnetic equator?
Answer:
Angle made by the direction of resultant magnetic field with the horizontal at a place is inclination or angle of dip (ø) at the place.
At the magnetic pole value of ø = 90° and it goes on decreasing when we move towards equator such that at equator value of (ø) = 0°.

4. Solve the following problems.

Question 1.
A magnetic pole of bar magnet with pole strength of 100 Am is 20 cm away from the centre of a bar magnet. Bar magnet has pole strength of 200 Am and has a length 5 cm. If the magnetic pole is on the axis of the bar magnet, find the force on the magnetic pole.
Answer:
Given that, (q_m)₁ = 200 Am
and (2l) = 5 cm = 5 × 10^-2 m
∴ m = 200 × 5 × 10^-2 = 10 Am²
For a bar magnet, magnetic dipole moment is,
m = q_m (21)
For a point on the axis of a bar magnet at distance, r = 20 cm = 0.2 m,
B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \times \frac{2 m}{r^{3}}\)
= 10^-7 × \(\frac{2 \times 10}{(0.2)^{3}}\)
= 0.25 × 10^-3
= 2.5 × 10^-4 Wb/m²
The force acting on the pole will be given by,
F = q_m B_a = 100 × 2.5 × 10^-4
= 2.5 × 10^-2 N

Question 2.
A magnet makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal in a plane making an angle of 30° with the magnetic meridian. Find the true value of the dip angle at the place.
Answer:
Let true value of dip be ø. When the magnet is kept 45° aligned with declination 30°, the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field.
B’_H = B_H cos 30° Whereas, vertical component remains unchanged.
∴ For apparent dip of 45°,
tan 45° = \(\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{V}}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{H}}^{\prime}}=\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{V}}}{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{H}} \cos 30^{\circ}}=\frac{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{v}}}{\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{H}}} \times \frac{1}{\cos 30^{\circ}}\)
But, real value of dip is,
tan ø = \(\frac {B_V}{B_H}\)
∴ tan 45° = \(\frac {tan ø}{cos 30°}\)
∴ tan ø = tan 45° × cos 30°
= 1 × \(\frac {√3}{2}\)
∴ ø = tan^-1 (0.866)

Question 3.
Two small and similar bar magnets have magnetic dipole moment of 1.0 Am² each. They are kept in a plane in such a way that their axes are perpendicular to each other. A line drawn through the axis of one magnet passes through the centre of other magnet. If the distance between their centres is 2 m, find the magnitude of magnetic field at the midpoint of the line joining their centres.
Answer:
Let P be the midpoint of the line joining the centres of two bar magnets. As shown in figure, P is at the axis of one bar magnet and at the equator of another bar magnet. Thus, the magnetic field on the axis of the first bar magnet at distance of 1 m from the centre will be,

B_a = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{2 m}{r^{3}}\)
= 10^-7 × \(\frac {2×1.0}{(1)^3}\)
= 2 × 10^-7 Wb/m²
Magnetic field on the equator of second bar magnet will be,
B_eq = \(\frac{\mu_{0}}{4 \pi} \frac{m}{r^{3}}\)
= 10^-7 × \(\frac {1.0}{(1)^3}\)
= 1 × 10^-7 Wb/m²
The net magnetic field at P,
B_net = \(\sqrt {B_a^2+B_{eq}^2}\)
= \(\sqrt {(2×10^{-7})^2+(1×10^{-7})^2}\)
= \(\sqrt {(10^{-7})^2×(4+1)}\)
= √5 × 10^-7 Wb/m²

Question 4.
A circular magnet is made with its north pole at the centre, separated from the surrounding circular south pole by an air gap. Draw the magnetic field lines in the gap. Draw a diagram to illustrate the magnetic lines of force between the south poles of two such magnets.
Answer:
i. For a circular magnet:

Question 5.
Two bar magnets are placed on a horizontal surface. Draw magnetic lines around them. Mark the position of any neutral points (points where there is no resultant magnetic field) on your diagram.
Answer:
The magnetic lines of force between two magnets will depend on their relative positions. Considering the magnets to be placed one besides the other as shown in figure, the magnetic lines of force will be as shown.

11th Physics Digest Chapter 12 Magnetism Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook page no. 221)

Question 1.
What are the magnetic lines of force?
Answer:
The magnetic field around a magnet is shown by lines going from one end of the magnet to the other. These lines are named as magnetic lines of force.

Question 2.
What are the rules concerning the lines of force?
Answer:
i. Magnetic lines of force originate from the north pole and end at the south pole.
ii. The magnetic lines of force of a magnet or a solenoid form closed loops. This is in contrast to the case of an electric dipole, where the electric lines of force originate from the positive charge and end on the negative charge.
iii. The direction of the net magnetic field \(\vec {B}\) at a point is given by the tangent to the magnetic line of force at that point.
iv. The number of lines of force crossing per unit area decides the magnitude of magnetic field \(\vec {B}\)
v. The magnetic lines of force do not intersect. This is because had they intersected, the direction of magnetic field would not be unique at that point.

Question 3.
What is a bar magnet?
Answer:
Bar magnet is a magnet in the shape of bar having two poles of equal and opposite pole strengths separated by certain distance (2l).

Question 4.
If you freely hang a bar magnet horizontally, in which direction will it become stable?
Answer:
A bar magnet suspended freely in air always aligns itself along geographic N-S direction.

Try this (Textbook page no. 221)

You can take a bar magnet and a small compass needle. Place the bar magnet at a fixed position on a paper and place the needle at various positions. Noting the orientation of the needle, the magnetic field direction at various locations can be traced.
Answer:
When a small compass needle is kept at any position near a bar magnet, the needle always aligns itself in the direction parallel to the direction of magnetic lines of force.

Hence, by placing it at different positions, A, B, C, D,… as shown in the figure, the direction of magnetic lines of force can be traced. The direction of magnetic field will be a tangent at that point.

Internet my friend: (Text book page no. 227)

https://www.ngdc.noaa.gov
[Students are expected to visit above mentioned link and collect more information about Geomagnetism.]

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 11 Electric Current Through Conductors Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 11 Electric Current Through Conductors

1. Choose the correct Alternative.

Question 1.
You are given four bulbs of 25 W, 40 W, 60 W, and 100 W of power, all operating at 230 V. Which of them has the lowest resistance?
(A) 25 W
(B) 40 W
(C) 60 W
(D) 100 W
Answer:
(D) 100 W

Question 2.
Which of the following is an ohmic conductor?
(A) transistor
(B) vacuum tube
(C) electrolyte
(D) nichrome wire
Answer:
(D) nichrome wire

Question 3.
A rheostat is used
(A) to bring on a known change of resistance in the circuit to alter the current.
(B) to continuously change the resistance in any arbitrary manner and there by alter the current.
(C) to make and break the circuit at any instant.
(D) neither to alter the resistance nor the current.
Answer:
(B) to continuously change the resistance in any arbitrary manner and there by alter the current.

Question 4.
The wire of length L and resistance R is stretched so that its radius of cross-section is halved. What is its new resistance?
(A) 5R
(B) 8R
(C) 4R
(D) 16R
Answer:
(D) 16R

Question 5.
Masses of three pieces of wires made of the same metal are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 1. The ratios of their resistances are
(A) 1 : 3 : 5
(B) 5 : 3 : 1
(C) 1 : 15 : 125
(D) 125 : 15 : 1
Answer:
(D) 125 : 15 : 1

Question 6.
The internal resistance of a cell of emf 2 V is 0.1 Ω, it is connected to a resistance of 0.9 Ω. The voltage across the cell will be
(A) 0.5 V
(B) 1.8 V
(C) 1.95 V
(D) 3V
Answer:
(B) 1.8 V

Question 7.
100 cells each of emf 5 V and internal resistance 1 Ω are to be arranged so as to produce maximum current in a 25 Ω resistance. Each row contains equal number of cells. The number of rows should be
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 100
Answer:
(A) 2

Question 8.
Five dry cells each of voltage 1.5 V are connected as shown in diagram

What is the overall voltage with this arrangement?
(A) 0 V
(B) 4.5 V
(C) 6.0 V
(D) 7.5 V
Answer:
(B) 4.5 V

2. Give reasons / short answers

Question 1.
In given circuit diagram two resistors are connected to a 5V supply.

i. Calculate potential difference across the 8Q resistor.
ii. A third resistor is now connected in parallel with 6 Ω resistor. Will the potential difference across the 8 Ω resistor be larger, smaller or same as before? Explain the reason for your answer.
Answer:
Total current flowing through the circuit,
I = \(\frac {V}{R_s}\)
= \(\frac {5}{8+6}\)
= \(\frac {5}{14}\) = 0.36 A
∴ Potential difference across 8 f2 (Vi) = 0.36 × 8
= 2.88 V

ii. Potential difference across 8 Ω resistor will be larger.
Reason: As per question, the new circuit diagram will be

When any resistor is connected parallel to 6 Ω resistance. Then the resistance across that branch (6 Ω and R Ω) will become less than 6 Ω. i.e., equivalent resistance of the entire circuit will decrease and hence current will increase. Since, V = IR, the potential difference across 8 Ω resistor will be larger.

Question 2.
Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the drift speed of electrons.
Answer:
i. Consider a part of conducting wire with its free electrons having the drift speed vd in the direction opposite to the electric field \(\vec{E}\).

ii. All the electrons move with the same drift speed vd and the current I is the same throughout the cross section (A) of the wire.

iii. Let L be the length of the wire and n be the number of free electrons per unit volume of the wire. Then the total number of free electrons in the length L of the conducting wire is nAL.

iv. The total charge in the length L is,
q = nALe ………….. (1)
where, e is the charge of electron.

v. Equation (1) is total charge that moves through any cross section of the wire in a certain time interval t.
∴ t = \(\frac {L}{v_d}\) ………….. (2)

vi. Current is given by,
I = \(\frac {q}{t}\) = \(\frac {nALe}{L/v_d}\) ……………. [From Equations (1) and (2)]
= n Av_de
Hence
v_d = \(\frac {1}{nAe}\)
= \(\frac {J}{ne}\) …………. (∵ J = \(\frac {1}{A}\))
Hence for constant ‘ne’, current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the drift speed of electrons, J ∝ v_d.

3. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Distinguish between ohmic and non ohmic substances; explain with the help of example.
Answer:

Ohmic substances	Non-ohmic substances
1. Substances which obey ohm’s law are called ohmic substances.	Substances which do not obey ohm’s law are called non-ohmic substances.
2. Potential difference (V) versus current (I) curve is a straight line.	Potential difference (V) versus current (I) curve is not a straight line.
3. Resistance of these substances is constant i.e. they follow linear I-V characteristic.	Resistance of these substances
Expression for resistance is, R = \(\frac {V}{I}\)	Expression for resistance is, R = \(\lim _{\Delta I \rightarrow 0} \frac{\Delta V}{\Delta I}=\frac{d V}{d I}\)
Examples: Gold, silver, copper etc.	Examples:  Liquid electrolytes, vacuum tubes, junction diodes, thermistors etc.

Question 2.
DC current flows in a metal piece of non uniform cross-section. Which of these quantities remains constant along the conductor: current, current density or drift speed?
Answer:
Drift velocity and current density will change as it depends upon area of cross-section whereas current will remain constant.

4. Solve the following problems.

Question 1.
What is the resistance of one of the rails of a railway track 20 km long at 20°C? The cross-section area of rail is 25 cm² and the rail is made of steel having resistivity at 20°C as 6 × 10^-8 Ω m.
Answer:
Given: l = 20 km = 20 × 10³ m,
A = 25 cm² = 25 × 10^-4 m²,
ρ = 6 × 10^-8 Ω m
To find: Resistance of rail (R)
Formula: ρ = \(\frac {RA}{l}\)
Calculation: From formula.
R = ρ\(\frac {l}{A}\)
∴ R = \(\frac {6×10^{-8}×20×10^3}{A}\) = \(\frac {6×4}{5}\) × 10^-1
= 0.48 Ω

Question 2.
A battery after a long use has an emf 24 V and an internal resistance 380 Ω. Calculate the maximum current drawn from the battery. Can this battery drive starting motor of car?
Answer:
E = 24 V, r = 380 Ω
i. Maximum current (I_max)
ii. Can battery start the motor?
Formula: I_max = \(\frac {E}{r}\)
Calculation:
From formula,
I_max = \(\frac {24}{380}\) = 0,063 A
As, the value of current is very small compared to required current to run a starting motor of a car, this battery cannot be used to drive the motor.

Question 3.
A battery of emf 12 V and internal resistance 3 O is connected to a resistor. If the current in the circuit is 0.5 A,
i. Calculate resistance of resistor.
ii. Calculate terminal voltage of the battery when the circuit is closed.
Answer:
Given: E = 12 V, r = 3 Ω, I = 0.5 A
To find:
i. Resistance (R)
ii. Terminal voltage (V)
Formulae:
i. E = I (r + R)
ii. V = IR
Calculation: From formula (i),
E = Ir + IR
∴ R = \(\frac {E-Ir}{l}\)
= \(\frac {12-0.5×3}{0.5}\)
= 21 Ω
From formula (ii),
V = 0.5 × 21
= 10.5 V

Question 4.
The magnitude of current density in a copper wire is 500 A/cm². If the number of free electrons per cm³ of copper is 8.47 × 10²², calculate the drift velocity of the electrons through the copper wire (charge on an e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C)
Answer:
Given: J = 500 A/cm² = 500 × 10⁴ A/m²,
n = 8.47 × 10²² electrons/cm³
= 8.47 × 10²⁸ electrons/m³
e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
To Find: Drift velocity (v_d)
Formula: v_d = \(\frac {J}{ne}\)
Calculation:
From formula,
v_d = \(\frac {500×10^4}{8.47×10^{28}×1.6×10^{-19}}\)
= \(\frac {500}{8.47×1.6}\) × 10^-5
= {antilog [log 500 – log 8.47 – log 1.6]} × 10^-5
= {antilog [2.6990 – 0.9279 -0.2041]} × 10^-5
= {antilog [1.5670]} × 10^-5
= 3.690 × 10¹ × 10^-5
= 3.69 × 10^-4 m/s

Question 5.
Three resistors 10 Ω, 20 Ω and 30 Ω are connected in series combination.
i. Find equivalent resistance of series combination.
ii. When this series combination is connected to 12 V supply, by neglecting the value of internal resistance, obtain potential difference across each resistor.
Answer:
Given: R₁ = 10 Ω, R₂ = 20 Ω,
R₃ = 30 Ω, V = 12 V
To Find: i. Series equivalent resistance(R_s)
ii. Potential difference across each resistor (V₁, V₂, V₃)
Formula: i. R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
ii. V = IR
Calculation:
From formula (i),
R_s = 10 + 20 + 30 = 60 Ω
From formula (ii),
I = \(\frac {V}{R}\) = \(\frac {12}{60}\) = 0.2 A
∴ Potential difference across R₁,
V₁ = I × R₁ = 0.2 × 10 = 2 V
∴ Potential difference across R₂,
V₂ = 0.2 × 20 = 4 V
∴ Potential difference across R₃,
V₃ = 0.2 × 30 = 6 V

Question 6.
Two resistors 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in parallel combination.
i. Find equivalent resistance of parallel combination.
ii. When this parallel combination is connected to 9 V supply, by neglecting internal resistance, calculate current through each resistor.
Answer:
R₁ = 1 kΩ = 10³ Ω,
R₂ = 2 kΩ = 2 × 10³ Ω, V = 9 V
To find:
i. Parallel equivalent resistance (R_p)
ii. Current through 1 kΩ and 2 kΩ (I₁ and I₂)
Formula:
i. \(\frac {1}{R_p}\) = \(\frac {1}{R_1}\) + \(\frac {1}{R_2}\)
ii. V = IR
Calculation: From formula (i),
\(\frac {1}{R_p}\) = \(\frac {1}{10^3}\) + \(\frac {1}{2×10^3}\)
= \(\frac {3}{2×10^3}\)
∴ R^p = \(\frac {2×10^3}{3}\) = 0.66 kΩ
From formula (ii),
I₁ = \(\frac {V}{R_1}\) + \(\frac {9}{10^3}\)
= 9 × 10^-3 A
= 3 mA
I₂ = \(\frac {V}{R_2}\) + \(\frac {9}{2×10^3}\)
= 4.5 × 10^-3 A
= 4.5 mA

Question 7.
A silver wire has a resistance of 4.2 Ω at 27°C and resistance 5.4 Ω at 100°C. Determine the temperature coefficient of resistance.
Answer:
Given: R₁ =4.2 Ω, R₂ = 5.4 Ω,
T, = 27° C, T2= 100 °C
To find: Temperature coefficient of resistance (α)
Formula: α = \(\frac {R_2-R_1}{R_1(T_2-T_1)}\)
Calculation:
From Formula
α = \(\frac {5.4-4.2}{4.2(100-27)}\) = 3.91 × 10^-3/°C

Question 8.
A 6 m long wire has diameter 0.5 mm. Its resistance is 50 Ω. Find the resistivity and conductivity.
Answer:
Given: l = 6 m, D = 0.5 mm,
r = 0.25 mm = 0.25 × 10^-3 m, R = 50 Ω
To find:
i. Resistivity (ρ)
ii. Conductivity (σ)
Formulae:
i. ρ = \(\frac {RA}{l}\) = \(\frac {Rπr^2}{l}\)
ii. σ = \(\frac {1}{ρ}\)
Calculation:
From formula (i),
ρ = \(\frac {50×3.142×(0.25×10^{-3})^2}{6}\)
= {antilog [log 50 + log 3.142 + 21og 0.25 -log 6]} × 10^-6
= {antilog [ 1.6990 + 0.4972 + 2(1.3979) -0.7782]} × 10^-6
= {antilog [2.1962 + 2 .7958 – 0.7782]} × 10^-6
= {antilog [0.9920 – 0.7782]} × 10^-6
= {antilog [0.2138]} × 10^-6
= 1.636 × 10^-6 Ω/m
From formula (ii),
σ = \(\frac {1}{1.636×10^{-6}}\)
= 0.6157 × 10⁶
….(Using reciprocal from log table)
= 6.157 × 10⁵ m/Ω

Question 9.
Find the value of resistances for the following colour code.
i. Blue Green Red Gold
ii. Brown Black Red Silver
iii. Red Red Orange Gold
iv. Orange White Red Gold
v. Yellow Violet Brown Silver
Answer:
i. Given: Blue – Green – Red – Gold
To find: Value of resistance
Formula: Value of resistance
= (xy × 10^z ± T%)Ω
Calculation:

Colour	Blue (x)	Green (y)	Red (z)	Gold (T%)
Code	6	5	2	± 5

From formula,
Value of resistance = (65 × 10² ± 5%) Ω
Value of resistance = 6.5 kΩ ± 5%

ii. Given: Brown – Black – Red – Silver
To find: Value of resistance
Formula: Value of resistance
= (xy × 10^z + T%) Ω
Calculation:

Colour	Brown (x)	Black (y)	Red (z)	sliver (T%)
Code	1	0	2	± 10

From formula,
Value of resistance = (10 × 10² ± 10%) Ω
Value of resistance = 1.0 kΩ ± 10%

iii. Given: Red – Red – Orange – Gold
To find: Value of the resistance
Formula: Value of the resistance
= (xy × 10^z ± T%)
Calculation:

Colour	Red (x)	Red (y)	Orange (z)	Gold (T%)
Code	2	2	3	± 5

From formula,
Value of resistance = (22 × 10³ ± 5%)Ω
Value of resistance = 22 kΩ ± 5%
[Note: The answer given above is presented considering correct order of magnitude.]

iv. Given: Orange – White – Red – Gold
To find: Value of the resistance
Formula: Value of the resistance
= (xy × 10^z ± T%)
Calculation:

Colour	Ornage (x)	White (y)	Red (z)	Gold (T%)
Code	3	9	2	± 5

From formula,
Value of resistance = (39 × 10² ± 5%) Ω
Value of resistance = 3.9 kΩ ± 5%

v. Given: Yellow-Violet-Brown-Silver
To find: Value of the resistance
Formula: Value of the resistance
= (xy × 10^z ± T%)
Calculation:

Colour	Yellow (x)	violet (y)	Brown (z)	Sliver (T%)
Code	4	7	1	± 10

From formula,
Value of resistance = (47 × 10 ± 10%) Ω
Value of resistance = 470 Ω ± 10%
[Note: The answer given above is presented considering correct order of magnitude.]

Question 10.
Find the colour code for the following value of resistor having tolerance ± 10%.
i. 330 Ω
ii. 100 Ω
iii. 47 kΩ
iv. 160 Ω
v. 1 kΩ
Answer:

Question 11.
A current of 4 A flows through an automobile headlight. How many electrons flow through the headlight in a time of 2 hrs?
Answer:
Given: I = 4 A, t = 2 hrs = 2 × 60 × 60 s
To find: Number of electrons (N)
Formula: I = \(\frac {q}{t}\) = \(\frac {Ne}{t}\)
Calculation: As we know, e = 1.6 × 10^-19 C
From formula,
N = \(\frac {It}{e}\) = \(\frac {4×2×60×60}{1.6×10^{-19}}\) = 18 × 10^-23

Question 12.
The heating element connected to 230 V draws a current of 5 A. Determine the amount of heat dissipated in 1 hour (J = 4.2 J/cal).
Answer:
Given: V = 230 V, I = 5 A,
At = 1 hour = 60 × 60 sec
To find: Heat dissipated (H)
Formula: H = ∆U = I∆tV
Calculation: From formula,
H = 5 × 60 × 60 × 230
= 4.14 × 10⁶ J
Heat dissipated in calorie,
H = \(\frac {4.14×10^6}{4.2}\) = 985.7 × 10³ cal
= 985.7 kcal

11th Physics Digest Chapter 11 Electric Current Through Conductors Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbookpage no. 207)

An electric current in a metallic conductor such as a wire is due to the flow of electrons, the negatively charged particles in the wire. What is the role of the valence electrons which are the outermost electrons of an atom?
Answer:
i. The valence electrons become de-localized when a large number of atoms come together in a metal.
ii. These electrons become conduction electrons or free electrons constituting an electric current when a potential difference is applied across the conductor.

Internet my friend (Textbook page no. 218)

https://www.britannica.com/science/supercond activity physics

[Students are expected to visit the above-mentioned website and Collect more information about superconductivity.]

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 Electrostatics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 10 Electrostatics

1. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
A positively charged glass rod is brought close to a metallic rod isolated from the ground. The charge on the side of the metallic rod away from the glass rod will be
(A) same as that on the glass rod and equal in quantity
(B) opposite to that on the glass of and equal in quantity
(C) same as that on the glass rod but lesser in quantity
(D) same as that on the glass rod but more in quantity
Answer:
(A) same as that on the glass rod and equal in quantity

Question 2.
An electron is placed between two parallel plates connected to a battery. If the battery is switched on, the electron will
(A) be attracted to the +ve plate
(B) be attracted to the -ve plate
(C) remain stationary
(D) will move parallel to the plates
Answer:
(A) be attracted to the +ve plate

Question 3.
A charge of + 7 µC is placed at the centre of two concentric spheres with radius 2.0 cm and 4.0 cm respectively. The ratio of the flux through them will be
(A) 1 : 4
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 1 : 1
(D) 1 : 16
Answer:
(C) 1 : 1

Question 4.
Two charges of 1.0 C each are placed one meter apart in free space. The force between them will be
(A) 1.0 N
(B) 9 × 10⁹ N
(C) 9 × 10^-9 N
(D) 10 N
Answer:
(B) 9 × 10⁹ N

Question 5.
Two point charges of +5 µC are so placed that they experience a force of 80 × 10^-3 N. They are then moved apart, so that the force is now 2.0 × 10^-3 N. The distance between them is now
(A) 1/4 the previous distance
(B) double the previous distance
(C) four times the previous distance
(D) half the previous distance
Answer:
(B) double the previous distance

Question 6.
A metallic sphere A isolated from ground is charged to +50 µC. This sphere is brought in contact with other isolated metallic sphere B of half the radius of sphere A. The charge on the two sphere will be now in the ratio
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 1 : 1
Answer:
(D) 1 : 1

Question 7.
Which of the following produces uniform electric field?
(A) point charge
(B) linear charge
(C) two parallel plates
(D) charge distributed an circular any
Answer:
(C) two parallel plates

Question 8.
Two point charges of A = +5.0 µC and B = -5.0 µC are separated by 5.0 cm. A point charge C = 1.0 µC is placed at 3.0 cm away from the centre on the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the two point charges. The charge at C will experience a force directed towards
(A) point A
(B) point B
(C) a direction parallel to line AB
(D) a direction along the perpendicular bisector
Answer:
(C) a direction parallel to line AB

2. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the magnitude of charge on an electron?
Answer:
The magnitude of charge on an electron is 1.6 × 10^-19 C

Question 2.
State the law of conservation of charge.
Answer:
In any given physical process, charge may get transferred from one part of the system to another, but the total charge in the system remains constant”
OR
For an isolated system, total charge cannot be created nor destroyed.

Question 3.
Define a unit charge.
Answer:
Unit charge (one coulomb) is the amount of charge which, when placed at a distance of one metre from another charge of the same magnitude in vacuum, experiences a force of 9.0 × 10⁹ N.

Question 4.
Two parallel plates have a potential difference of 10V between them. If the plates are 0.5 mm apart, what will be the strength of electric charge.
Answer:
V=10V
d = 0.5 mm = 0.5 × 10^-3 m
To find: The strength of electric field (E)
Formula: E = \(\frac {V}{d}\)
Calculation: From formula,
E = \(\frac {10}{0.5×10^{-3}}\)
20 × 10³ V/m

Question 5.
What is uniform electric field?
Answer:
A uniform electric field is a field whose magnitude and direction are same at all points. For example, field between two parallel plates as shown in the diagram.

Question 6.
If two lines of force intersect of one point. What does it mean?
Answer:
If two lines of force intersect of one point, it would mean that electric field has two directions at a single point.

Question 7.
State the units of linear charge density.
Answer:
SI unit of λ is (C / m).

Question 8.
What is the unit of dipole moment?
Answer:
i. Strength of a dipole is measured in terms of a quantity called the dipole moment.

ii. Let q be the magnitude of each charge and 2\(\vec{l}\) be the distance from negative charge to positive charge. Then, the product q(2\(\vec{l}\)) is called the dipole moment \(\vec{p}\).

iii. Dipole moment is defined as \(\vec{p}\) = q(2\(\vec{l}\))

iv. A dipole moment is a vector whose magnitude is q (2\(\vec{l}\)) and the direction is from the negative to the positive charge.

v. The unit of dipole moment is coulomb-metre (C m) or debye (D).

Question 9.
What is relative permittivity?
Answer:
i. Relative permittivity or dielectric constant is the ratio of absolute permittivity of a medium to the permittivity of free space.
It is denoted as K or ε_r.
i.e., K or ε_r = \(\frac {ε}{ε_0}\)

ii. It is the ratio of the force between two point charges placed a certain distance apart in free space or vacuum to the force between the same two point charges when placed at the same distance in the given medium.
i.e., K or ε_r = \(\frac {F_{vacuum}}{F_{medium}}\)

iii. It is also called as specific inductive capacity or dielectric constant.

3. Solve numerical examples.

Question 1.
Two small spheres 18 cm apart have equal negative charges and repel each other with the force of 6 × 10^-8 N. Find the total charge on both spheres.
Solution:
Given: F = 6 × 10^-8 N, r = 18 cm = 18 × 10^-2 m
To find: Total charge (q₁ + q₂)
Formula: F = \(\frac {1}{4πε_0}\) \(\frac {q_1q_2}{r^2}\)
Calculation: From formula,

Taking square roots from log table,
∴ q = -4.648 × 10^-10 C
….(∵ the charges are negative)
Total charge = q₁ + q₂ = 2q
= 2 × (-4.648) × 10^-10
= -9.296 × 10^-10 C

Question 2.
A charge + q exerts a force of magnitude – 0.2 N on another charge -2q. If they are separated by 25.0 cm, determine the value of q.
Answer:
Given: q₁ = + q, q₂ = -2q, F = -0.2 N
r = 25 cm = 25 × 10^-2 m
To find: Charge (q)
Formula: F = \(\frac {1}{4πε_0}\) \(\frac {q_1q_2}{r^2}\)
Calculation: From formula,

[Note: The answer given above is calculated in accordance with textual method considering the given data]

Question 3.
Four charges of +6 × 10^-8 C each are placed at the corners of a square whose sides are 3 cm each. Calculate the resultant force on each charge and show in direction on a diagram drawn to scale.
Answer:
Given: q_A = q_B = q_C = q_D = 6 × 10^-8 C, a = 3 cm

∴ Resultant force on ‘A’
= F_AD cos 45 + F_AB cos 45 + F_AC
= (3.6 × 10^-2 × \(\frac {1}{√2}\)) + (3.6 × 10^-2 × \(\frac {1}{√2}\)) + 1.8 × 10^-2
= 6.89 × 10^-2 N directed along \(\vec{F_{AC}}\)

Question 4.
The electric field in a region is given by \(\vec{E}\) = 5.0 \(\hat{k}\) N/C Calculate the electric flux through a square of side 10.0 cm in the following cases
i. The square is along the XY plane
ii. The square is along XZ plane
iii. The normal to the square makes an angle of 45° with the Z axis.
Answer:
Given: \(\vec{E}\) = 5.0 \(\hat{k}\) N/C, |E| = 5 N/C
l = 10 cm = 10 × 10^-2 m = 10^-1 m
A = l² – 10^-2m²
To find: Electric flux in three cases.
(ø₁) (ø₂) (ø₃)
Formula: (ø₁) = EA cos θ
Calculation:
Case I: When square is along the XY plane,
∴ θ = 0
ø₁ = 5 × 10^-2 cos 0
= 5 × 10^-2 V m

Case II: When square is along XZ plane,
∴ θ = 90°
ø₁ = 5 × 10^-2 cos 90° = 0 V m

Case III: When normal to the square makes an angle of 45° with the Z axis.
∴ 0 = 45°
∴ ø₃ = 5 × 10^-2 × cos 45°
= 3.5 × 10^-2 V m

Question 5.
Three equal charges of 10 × 10^-8 C respectively, each located at the corners of a right triangle whose sides are 15 cm, 20 cm and 25 cm respectively. Find the force exerted on the charge located at the 90° angle.
Answer:
Given: q_A = q_B = q_C = 10 × 10^-8

Force on B due to A,

Question 6.
A potential difference of 5000 volt is applied between two parallel plates 5 cm apart. A small oil drop having a charge of 9.6 x 10-19 C falls between the plates. Find (i) electric field intensity between the plates and (ii) the force on the oil drop.
Answer:
Given: V = 5000 volt, d = 5 cm = 5 × 10^-2 m
q = 9.6 × 10^-19 C
To find:
i. Electric field intensity (E)
ii. Force (F)
Formula:
i. E = \(\frac {V}{d}\) \(\frac {q}{r}\)
ii. E = \(\frac {F}{q}\)
Calculation: From formula (i),
E = \(\frac {F}{q}\) = 10⁵ N/C
From formula (ii)
F = E x q
= 10⁵ × 9.6 × 10^-19
= 9.6 × 10^-14 N

Question 7.
Calculate the electric field due to a charge of -8.0 × 10^-8 C at a distance of 5.0 cm from it.
Answer:
Given: q = – 8 × 10^-8 C, r = 5 cm = 5 × 10^-2 m
To Find: Electric field (E)
Formula: E = \(\frac {1}{4πε_0}\) \(\frac {q}{r^2}\)
Calculation: From formula,
E = 9 × 10⁹ × \(\frac {(-8×10^{-8})}{(5×10^{-2})^2}\)
= -2.88 × 10⁵ N/C

11th Physics Digest Chapter 10 Electrostatics Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbookpage no. 188)

Question 1.
Have you experienced a shock while getting up from a plastic chair and shaking hand with your friend?
Answer:
Yes, sometimes a shock while getting up from a plastic chair and shaking hand with friend is experienced.

Question 2.
Ever heard a crackling sound while taking out your sweater in winter?
Answer:
Yes, sometimes while removing our sweater in winter, some crackling sound is heard and the sweater appears to stick to body.

Question 3.
Have you seen the lightning striking during pre-monsoon weather?
Answer:
Yes, sometimes lightning striking during pre-pre-monsoon weather seen.

Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 189)

i. When a petrol or a diesel tanker is emptied in a tank, it is grounded.
ii. A thick chain hangs from a petrol or a diesel tanker and it is in contact with ground when the tanker is moving.
Answer:
i. When a petrol or a diesel tanker is emptied in a tank, it is grounded so that it has an electrically conductive connection from the petrol or diesel tank to ground (Earth) to allow leakage of static and electrical charges.

ii. Metallic bodies of cars, trucks or any other big vehicles get charged because of friction between them and the air rushing past them. Hence, a thick chain is hanged from a petrol or a diesel tanker to make a contact with ground so that charge produced can leak to the ground through chain.

Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 194)

Three charges, q each, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. What will be the resultant force on charge q placed at the centroid of the triangle?
Answer:

Since AD. BE and CF meets at O, as centroid of an equilateral triangle.
∴ OA = OB = OC
∴ Let, r = OA = OB = OC
Force acting on point O due to charge on point A,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{OA}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{q}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}_{i}^{2}} \hat{\mathrm{r}}_{\mathrm{AO}}\)
Force acting on point O due to charge on point B,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{O \mathrm{~B}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{q}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}} \hat{\mathrm{r}}_{\mathrm{BO}}\)
Force acting on point O due to charge on point C,
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{OC}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{q}^{2}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}} \hat{\mathrm{r}} \mathrm{co}\)
∴ Resultant force acting on point O,
F = \(\vec{F}\)_OA + \(\vec{F}\)_OB + \(\vec{F}\)_OC
On resolving \(\vec{F}\)_OB and \(\vec{F}\)_OC, we get –\(\vec{F}\)_OA
i.e., \(\vec{F}\)_OB + \(\vec{F}\)_OC = –\(\vec{F}\)_OA
∴ \(\vec{F}\) = \(\vec{F}\)_OA – \(\vec{F}\)_OA = 0
Hence, the resultant force on the charge placed at the centroid of the equilateral triangle is zero.

Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 197)

Why a small voltage can produce a reasonably large electric field?
Answer:

1. Electric field produced depends upon voltage as well as separation distance.
2. Electric field varies linearly with voltage and inversely with distance.
3. Hence, even if voltage is small, it can produce a reasonable large electric field when the gap between the electrode is reduced significantly.

Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 198)

Lines of force are imaginary; can they have any practical use?
Answer:
Yes, electric lines of force help us to visualise the nature of electric field in a region.

Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 204)

The surface charge density of Earth is σ = -1.33 nC/m². That is about 8.3 × 10⁹ electrons per square metre. If that is the case why don’t we feel it?
Answer:
The Earth along with its atmosphere acts as a neutral system. The atmosphere (ionosphere in particular) has nearly equal and opposite charge.

As a result, there exists a mechanism to replenish electric charges in the form of continual thunderstorms and lightning that occurs in different parts of the globe. This makes average charge on surface of the Earth as zero at any given time instant. Hence, we do not feel it.

Internet my friend (Textbook page no. 205)

i. https://www.physicsclassroom.com/class
ii. https://courses.lumenleaming.com/physics/
iii. https://www,khanacademy.org/science
iv. https://www.toppr.com/guides/physics/
[Students are expected to visit the above mentioned websites and collect more information about electrostatics.]

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Textbook Solutions Chapter 9 Optics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Physics Solutions Chapter 9 Optics

1. Multiple Choise Questions

Question 1.
As per the recent understanding, light consists of
(A) rays
(B) waves
(C) corpuscles
(D) photons obeying the rules of waves
Answer:
(D) photons obeying the rules of waves

Question 2.
Consider the optically denser lenses P, Q, R, and S drawn below. According to the Cartesian sign convention which of these have a positive focal length?

(A) Only P
(B) Only P and Q
(C) Only P and R
(D) Only Q and S
Answer:
(B) Only P and Q

Question 3.
Two plane mirrors are inclined at angle 40° between them. Number of images seen of a tiny object kept between them is
(A) Only 8
(B) Only 9
(C) 8 or 9
(D) 9 or 10
Answer:
(C) 8 or 9

Question 4.
A concave mirror of curvature 40 cm, used for shaving purpose produces image of double size as that of the object. Object distance must be
(A) 10 cm only
(B) 20 cm only
(C) 30 cm only
(D) 10 cm or 30 cm
Answer:
(D) 10 cm or 30 cm

Question 5.
Which of the following aberrations will NOT occur for spherical mirrors?
(A) Chromatic aberration
(B) Coma
(C) Distortion
(D) Spherical aberration
Answer:
(A) Chromatic aberration

Question 6.
There are different fish, monkeys and water of the habitable planet of the star Proxima b. A fish swimming underwater feels that there is a monkey at 2.5 m on the top of a tree. The same monkey feels that the fish is 1.6 m below the water surface. Interestingly, height of the tree and the depth at which the fish is swimming are exactly same. Refractive index of that water must be
(A) 6/5
(B) 5/4
(C) 4/3
(D) 7/5
Answer:
(B) 5/4

Question 7.
Consider following phenomena/applications: P) Mirage, Q) rainbow, R) Optical fibre and S) glittering of a diamond. Total internal reflection is involved in
(A) Only R and S
(B) Only R
(C) Only P, R and S
(D) all the four
Answer:
(A) Only R and S

Question 8.
A student uses spectacles of number -2 for seeing distant objects. Commonly used lenses for her/his spectacles are
(A) bi-concave
(B) piano concave
(C) concavo-convex
(D) convexo-concave
Answer:
(A) bi-concave

Question 9.
A spherical marble, of refractive index 1.5 and curvature 1.5 cm, contains a tiny air bubble at its centre. Where will it appear when seen from outside?
(A) 1 cm inside
(B) at the centre
(C) 5/3 cm inside
(D) 2 cm inside
Answer:
(B) at the centre

Question 10.
Select the WRONG statement.
(A) Smaller angle of prism is recommended for greater angular dispersion.
(B) Right angled isosceles glass prism is commonly used for total internal reflection.
(C) Angle of deviation is practically constant for thin prisms.
(D) For emergent ray to be possible from the second refracting surface, certain minimum angle of incidence is necessary from the first surface.
Answer:
(A) Smaller angle of prism is recommended for greater angular dispersion.

Question 11.
Angles of deviation for extreme colours are given for different prisms. Select the one having maximum dispersive power of its material.
(A) 7°, 10°
(B) 8°, 11°
(C) 12°, 16°
(D) 10°, 14°
Answer:
(A) 7°, 10°

Question 12.
Which of the following is not involved in formation of a rainbow?
(A) refraction
(B) angular dispersion
(C) angular deviation
(D) total internal reflection
Answer:
(D) total internal reflection

Question 13.
Consider following statements regarding a simple microscope:
(P) It allows us to keep the object within the least distance of distinct vision.
(Q) Image appears to be biggest if the object is at the focus.
(R) It is simply a convex lens.
(A) Only (P) is correct
(B) Only (P) and (Q) are correct
(C) Only (Q) and (R) are correct
(D) Only (P) and (R) are correct
Answer:
(D) Only (P) and (R) are correct

2. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
As per recent development, what is the nature of light? Wave optics and particle nature of light are used to explain which phenomena of light respectively?
Answer:

1. As per recent development, it is now an established fact that light possesses dual nature. Light consists of energy carrier photons. These photons follow the rules of electromagnetic waves.
2. Wave optics explains the phenomena of light such as, interference, diffraction, polarisation, Doppler effect etc.
3. Particle nature of light can be used to explain phenomena like photoelectric effect, emission of spectral lines, Compton effect etc.

Question 2.
Which phenomena can be satisfactorily explained using ray optics?
Answer:
Ray optics or geometrical optics: Ray optics can be used for understanding phenomena like reflection, refraction, double refraction, total internal reflection, etc.

Question 3.
What is focal power of a spherical mirror or a lens? What may be the reason for using P = \(\frac {1}{f}\) its expression?
Answer:

1. Converging or diverging ability of a lens or of a mirror is defined as its focal power.
2. This implies, more the power of any spherical mirror or a lens, the more is its ability to converge or diverge the light that passes through it.
3. In case of convex lens or concave mirror, more the convergence, shorter is the focal length as shown in the figure.
4. Similarly, in case of concave lens or convex mirror, more the divergence, shorter is the focal length.
5. This explains that the focal power of any spherical lens or mirror is inversely proportional to the focal length.
6. Hence, the expression of focal power is given by the formula, P = \(\frac {1}{f}\).

Question 4.
At which positions of the objects do spherical mirrors produce (i) diminished image (ii) magnified image?
Answer:
i. Amongst the two types of spherical mirrors, convex mirror always produces a diminished image at all positions of the object.

ii. Concave mirror produces diminished image when object is placed:

• Beyond radius of curvature (i.e., u > 2f)
• At infinity (i.e., u = ∞)

iii. Concave mirror produces magnified image when object is placed:

• between centre of curvature and focus (i.e., 2f > u > f)
• between focus and pole of the mirror (i.e., u < f)

Question 5.
State the restrictions for having images produced by spherical mirrors to be appreciably clear.
Answer:
i. In order to obtain clear images, the formulae for image formation by mirrors or lens follow the given assumptions:

• Objects and images are situated close to the principal axis.
• Rays diverging from the objects are confined to a cone of very small angle.
• If there is a parallel beam of rays, it is paraxial, i.e., parallel and close to the principal axis.

ii. In case of spherical mirrors (excluding small aperture spherical mirrors), rays farther from the principle axis do not remain parallel to the principle axis. Thus, the third assumption is not followed and the focus gradually shifts towards the pole.

iii. The relation (f = \(\frac {R}{2}\)) giving a single point focus is not followed and the image does not get converged at a single point resulting into a distorted or defective image.

iv. This defect arises due to the spherical shape of the reflecting surface.

Question 6.
Explain spherical aberration for spherical mirrors. How can it be minimized? Can it be eliminated by some curved mirrors?
Answer:

1. In case of spherical mirrors (excluding small aperture spherical mirror), The rays coming from a distant object farther from principal axis do not remain parallel to the axis. Thus, the focus gradually shifts towards the pole.
2. The assumption for clear image formation namely, ‘If there is a parallel beam of rays, it is paraxial, i.e., parallel and close to the principal axis’, is not followed in this case.
3. The relation f (f = \(\frac {R}{2}\)) giving a single point focus is not followed and the image does not get converged at a single point resulting into a distorted or defective image.
4. This phenomenon is known as spherical aberration.
5. It occurs due to spherical shape of the reflecting surface, hence known as spherical aberration.
6. The rays near the edge of the mirror converge at focal point F_M Whereas, the rays near the principal axis converge at point F_P. The distance between F_M and F_P is measured as the longitudinal spherical aberration.
7. In spherical aberration, single point image is not possible at any point on the screen and the image formed is always a circle.
8. At a particular location of the screen (across AB in figure), the diameter of this circle is minimum. This is called the circle of least confusion. Radius of this circle is transverse spherical aberration.

Remedies for Spherical Aberration:

1. Spherical aberration can be minimized by reducing the aperture of the mirror.
2. Spherical aberration in curved mirrors can be completely eliminated by using a parabolic mirror.

Question 7.
Define absolute refractive index and relative refractive index. Explain in brief with an illustration for each.
Answer:
i. Absolute refractive index of a medium is defined as the ratio of speed of light in vacuum to that in the given medium.

ii. A stick or pencil kept obliquely in a glass containing water appears broken as its part in water appears to be raised.

iii. As the speed of light is different in two media, the rays of light coming from water undergo refraction at the boundary separating two media.

iv. Consider speed of light to be v in water and c in air. (Speed of light in air ~ speed of light in vacuum)
∴ refractive index of water = \(\frac {n_w}{n_s}\) = \(\frac {n_w}{n_{vacuum}}\) = \(\frac {c}{v}\)

v. Relative refractive index of a medium 2 is the refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1 and it is defined as the ratio of speed of light v₁ in medium 1 to its speed v₁ in medium 2.
∴ Relative refractive index of medium 2,
¹n₂ = \(\frac {v_1}{v_2}\)

vi. Consider a beaker filled with water of absolute refractive index n₁ kept on a transparent glass slab of absolute refractive index n₂.

vii. Thus, the refractive index of water with respect to that of glass will be,
ⁿw₂ = \(\frac {n_2}{n_1}\) = \(\frac {c/v_2}{c/v_1}\) = \(\frac {v_1}{v_2}\)

Question 8.
Explain ‘mirage’ as an illustration of refraction.
Answer:
i. On a hot clear Sunny day, along a level road, there appears a pond of water ahead of the road. Flowever, if we physically reach the spot, there is nothing but the dry road and water pond again appears some distance ahead. This illusion is called mirage.

ii. Mirage results from the refraction of light through a non-uniform medium.

iii. On a hot day the air in contact with the road is hottest and as we go up, it gets gradually cooler. The refractive index of air thus decreases with height. Hot air tends to be less optically dense than cooler air which results into a non-uniform medium.

iv. Light travels in a straight line through a uniform medium but refracts when traveling through a non-uniform medium.

v. Thus, the ray of light coming from the top of an object get refracted while travelling downwards into less optically dense air and become more and more horizontal as shown in Figure.

vi. As it almost touches the road, it bends (refracts) upward. Then onwards, upward bending continues due to denser air.

vii. As a result, for an observer, it appears to be coming from below thereby giving an illusion of reflection from an (imaginary) water surface.

Question 9.
Under what conditions is total internal reflection possible? Explain it with a suitable example. Define critical angle of incidence and obtain an expression for it.
Answer:
Conditions for total internal reflection:
i. The light ray must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.

ii. The angle of incidence in the denser medium must be greater than critical angle for the given pair of media.

Total internal reflection in optical fibre:
iii. Consider an optical fibre made up of core of refractive index n₁ and cladding of refractive index n₂ such that, n₁ > n₂.

iv. When a ray of light is incident from a core (denser medium), the refracted ray is bent away from the normal.

v. At a particular angle of incidence i_c in the denser medium, the corresponding angle of refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.

vi. For angles of incidence greater than ic, the angle of refraction become larger than 90° and the ray does not enter into rarer medium at all but is reflected totally into the denser medium as shown in figure.

critical angle of incidence and obtain an expression:
i. Critical angle for a pair of refracting media can be defined as that angle of incidence in the denser medium for which the angle of refraction in the rarer medium is 90°.

ii. Let n be the relative refractive index of denser medium with respect to the rarer.

iii. Then, according to Snell’s law,
n = \(\frac {n_{denser}}{n_{rarer}}\) = \(\frac {sin r}{sin i_c}\) = \(\frac {sin 90°}{sin i_c}\)
∴ sin (i_c) = \(\frac {1}{n}\)

Question 10.
Describe construction and working of an optical fibre. What are the advantages of optical fibre communication over electronic communication?
Answer:

Construction:

1. An optical fibre consists of an extremely thin, transparent and flexible core surrounded by an optically rarer flexible cover called cladding.
2. For protection, the whole system is coated by a buffer and a jacket.
3. Entire thickness of the fibre is less than half a mm.
4. Many such fibres can be packed together in an outer cover.

Working:

1. Working of optical fibre is based on the principle of total internal reflection.
2. An optical signal (a ray of light) entering the core suffers multiple total internal reflections before emerging out after a several kilometres.
3. The optical signal travels with the highest possible speed in the material.
4. The emerged optical signal has extremely low loss in signal strength.

Advantages of optical fibre communication over electronic communication:

1. Broad bandwidth (frequency range): For TV signals, a single optical fibre can carry over 90000 independent signals (channels).
2. Immune to EM interference: Optical fibre being electrically non-conductive, does not pick up nearby EM signals.
3. Low attenuation loss: loss being lower than 0.2 dB/km, a single long cable can be used for several kilometres.
4. Electrical insulator: Optical fibres being electrical insulators, ground loops of metal wires or lightning do not cause any harm.
5. Theft prevention: Optical fibres do not use copper or other expensive material which are prone to be robbed.
6. Security of information: Internal damage is most unlikely to occur, keeping the information secure.

Question 11.
Why are prism binoculars preferred over traditional binoculars? Describe its working in brief.
Answer:

1. Traditional binoculars use only two cylinders. Distance between the two cylinders can’t be greater than that between the two eyes. This creates a limitation of field of view.
2. A prism binocular has two right angled glass prisms which apply the principle of total internal reflection.
3. The incident light rays are reflected internally twice giving the viewer a wider field of view. For this reason, prism binoculars are preferred over traditional binoculars.

Working:

1. The prism binoculars consist of 4 isosceles, right angled prisms of material having critical angle less than 45°.
2. The prism binoculars have a wider input range compared to traditional binoculars.
3. The light rays incident on the prism binoculars, first get total internally reflected by the isosceles, right angled prisms 1 and 4.
4. These reflected rays undergo another total internal reflection by prisms 2 and 3 to form the final image.

Question 12.
A spherical surface separates two transparent media. Derive an expression that relates object and image distances with the radius of curvature for a point object. Clearly state the assumptions, if any.
Answer:
i. Consider a spherical surface YPY’ of radius curvature R, separating two transparent media of refractive indices n₁ and n₂ respectively with ni₁ < n₂.

ii. P is the pole and X’PX is the principal axis. A point object O is at a distance u from the pole, in the medium of refractive index n₁.

iii. In order to minimize spherical aberration, we consider two paraxial rays.

iv. The ray OP along the principal axis travels undeviated along PX. Another ray OA strikes the surface at A.

v. As n₁ < n₂, the ray deviates towards the normal (CAN), travels along AZ and real image of point object O is formed at I.

vi. Let α, β and γ be the angles subtended by incident ray, normal and refracted ray with the principal axis.
∴ i = (α + β) and r = (β – γ)

vii. As, the rays are paraxial, all the angles can be considered to be very small.
i.e., sin i ≈ i and sin r ≈ r
Angles α, β and γ can also be expressed as,

viii. According to Snell’s law,
n₁ sin (i) = n₂ sin (r)
For small angles, Snell’s law can be written
as, n₁i = n₂r
∴ n₁ (α + β) = n₂ (β – γ)
∴ (n₂ – n₁)β = n₁α + n₂γ
Substituting values of α, β and γ, we get,
(n₂ – n₁) \(\frac {arc PA}{R}\) = n₁(\(\frac {arc PA}{-u}\)) + n₂(\(\frac {arc PA}{v}\))
∴ \(\frac {(n_2-n_1)}{R}\) = \(\frac {n_2}{v}\) – \(\frac {n_1}{u}\)

Assumptions: To derive an expression that relates object and image distances with the radius of curvature for a point object, the two rays considered are assumed to be paraxial thus making the angles subtended by incident ray, normal and refracted ray with the principal axis very small.

Question 13.
Derive lens makers’ equation. Why is it called so? Under which conditions focal length f and radii of curvature R are numerically equal for a lens?
Answer:
i. Consider a lens of radii of curvature Ri and R2 kept in a medium such that refractive index of material of the lens with respect to the medium is denoted as n.

ii. Assuming the lens to be thin, P is the common pole for both the surfaces. O is a point object on the principal axis at a distance u from P.

iii. The refracting surface facing the object is considered as first refracting surface with radii R₁.

iv. In the absence of second refracting surface, the paraxial ray OA deviates towards normal and would intersect axis at I₁. PI₁ = V₁ is the image distance for intermediate image I₁.

Before reaching I₁, the incident rays (AB and OP) strike the second refracting surface. In this case, image I₁ acts as a virtual object for second surface.

vii. For second refracting surface,
n₂ = 1, n₁ = n, R = R₂, u = v₁ and PI = v
∴ \(\frac{(1-\mathrm{n})}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{v}}-\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{v}_{1}}-\frac{(\mathrm{n}-1)}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{v}}-\frac{\mathrm{n}}{\mathrm{v}_{1}}\) ………… (2)

viii. Adding equations (1) and (2),
(n – 1) \(\left(\frac{1}{R_{1}}-\frac{1}{R_{2}}\right)=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)
For object at infinity, image is formed at focus, i.e., for u = ∞, v = f. Substituting this in above equation,
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=(\mathrm{n}-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\) …………. (3)
This equation in known as the lens makers’ formula.

ix. Since the equation can be used to calculate the radii of curvature for the lens, it is called the lens makers’ equation.

x. The numeric value of focal length f and radius of curvature R is same under following two conditions:
Case I:
For a thin, symmetric and double convex lens made of glass (n = 1.5), R₁ is positive and R₂ is negative but, |R₁| = |R₂|.
In this case,
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=(1.5-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}-\frac{1}{-\mathrm{R}}\right)=0.5\left(\frac{2}{\mathrm{R}}\right)=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
∴ f = R

Case II:
Similarly, for a thin, symmetric and double concave lens made of glass (n = 1.5), R₁ is negative and R₂ is positive but, |R₁| = |R₂|.
In this case,
\(\frac{1}{\mathrm{f}}=(1.5-1)\left(\frac{1}{-\mathrm{R}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\right)=0.5\left(-\frac{2}{\mathrm{R}}\right)=-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}}\)
∴ f = -R or |f| = |R|

3. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
What are different types of dispersions of light? Why do they occur?
Answer:
i. There are two types of dispersions:
a. Angular dispersion
b. Lateral dispersion

ii. The refractive index of material depends on the frequency of incident light. Hence, for different colours, refractive index of material is different.

iii. For an obliquely incident ray, the angles of refraction are different for each colour and they separate as they travel along different directions resulting into angular dispersion.

iv. When a polychromatic beam of light is obliquely incident upon a plane parallel transparent slab, emergent beam consists of all component colours separated out.

v. In this case, these colours are parallel to each other and are also parallel to their initial direction resulting into lateral dispersion

Question 2
Define angular dispersion for a prism. Obtain its expression for a thin prism. Relate it with the refractive indices of the material of the prism for corresponding colours.
Answer:
i. If a polychromatic beam is incident upon a prism, the emergent beam consists of all the individual colours angularly separated. This phenomenon is known as angular dispersion for a prism.

ii. For any two component colours, angular dispersion is given by,
δ₂₁ = δ₂ – δ₁

iii. For white light, we consider two extreme colours viz., red and violet.
∴ δ_VR = δ_V – δ_R

iv. For thin prism,
δ = A(n – 1)
δ₂₁ = δ₂ – δ₁
= A(n₂ – 1) – A(n₁ – 1) = A(n₂ – n₁)
where n₁ and n₂ are refractive indices for the two colours.

v. For white light,
δ_VR = δ_V – δ_R
= A(n_V – 1) – A(n_R – 1) = A(n_V – n_R).

Question 3.
Explain and define dispersive power of a transparent material. Obtain its expressions in terms of angles of deviation and refractive indices.
Answer:
Ability of an optical material to disperse constituent colours is its dispersive power.

It is measured for any two colours as the ratio of angular dispersion to the mean deviation for those two colours. Thus, for the extreme colours of white light, dispersive power is given by,
\(\omega=\frac{\delta_{\mathrm{V}}-\delta_{\mathrm{R}}}{\left(\frac{\delta_{\mathrm{V}}+\delta_{\mathrm{R}}}{2}\right)} \approx \frac{\delta_{\mathrm{V}}-\delta_{\mathrm{R}}}{\delta_{\mathrm{Y}}}=\frac{\mathrm{A}\left(\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{V}}-\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{R}}\right)}{\mathrm{A}\left(\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{Y}}-1\right)}=\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{V}}-\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{R}}}{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{Y}}-1}\)

Question 4.
(i) State the conditions under which a rainbow can be seen.
Answer:
A rainbow can be observed when there is a light shower with relatively large raindrop occurring during morning or evening time with enough sunlight around.

(ii) Explain the formation of a primary rainbow. For which angular range with the horizontal is it visible?
Answer:
i. A ray AB incident from Sun (white light) strikes the upper portion of a water drop at an incident angle i.

ii. On entering into water, it deviates and disperses into constituent colours. The figure shows the extreme colours (violet and red).

iii. Refracted rays BV and BR strike the opposite inner surface of water drop and suffer internal reflection.

iv. These reflected rays finally emerge from V’ and R’ and can be seen by an observer on the ground.

v. For the observer they appear to be coming from opposite side of the Sun.

vi. Minimum deviation rays of red and violet colour are inclined to the ground level at θ_R = 42.8° ≈ 43° and θ_V = 40.8 ≈ 41° respectively. As a result, in the rainbow, the red is above and violet is below.

(iii) Explain the formation of a secondary rainbow. For which angular range with the horizontal is it visible?
Answer:
i. A ray AB incident from Sun (white light) strikes the lower portion of a water drop at an incident angle i.

ii. On entering into water, it deviates and disperses into constituent colours. The figure shows the extreme colours (violet and red).

iii. Refracted rays BV and BR finally emerge the drop from V’ and R’ after suffering two internal reflections and can be seen by an observer on the ground.

iv. Minimum deviation rays of red and violet colour are inclined to the ground level at θ_R ≈ 51° and θ_V ≈ 53° respectively. As a result, in the rainbow, the violet is above and red is below.

(iv) Is it possible to see primary and secondary rainbow simultaneously? Under what conditions?
Answer:
Yes, it is possible to see primary and secondary rainbows simultaneously. This can occur when the centres of both the rainbows coincide.

Question 5.
(i) Explain chromatic aberration for spherical lenses. State a method to minimize or eliminate it.
Answer:
Lenses are prepared by using a transparent material medium having different refractive index for different colours. Hence angular dispersion is present.
If the lens is thick, this will result into notably different foci corresponding to each colour for a polychromatic beam, like a white light. This defect is called chromatic aberration.
As violet light has maximum deviation, it is focussed closest to the pole.

Reducing/eliminating chromatic aberration:

1. Eliminating chromatic aberrations for all colours is impossible. Hence, it is minimised by eliminating aberrations for extreme colours.
2. This is achieved by using either a convex and a concave lens in contact or two thin convex lenses with proper separation. Such a combination is called achromatic combination.

(ii) What is achromatism? Derive a condition to achieve achromatism for a lens combination. State the conditions for it to be converging.
Answer:
i. To eliminate chromatic aberrations for extreme colours from a lens, either a convex and a concave lens in contact or two thin convex lenses with proper separation are used.

ii. This combination is called achromatic combination. The process of using this combination is termed as achromatism of a lens.

iii. Let ω₁ and ω₂ be the dispersive powers of materials of the two component lenses used in contact for an achromatic combination.

iv. Let V, R and Y denote the focal lengths for violet, red and yellow colours respectively.

v. For lens 1, let
K₁ = (\(\frac {1}{R_1}\)–\(\frac {1}{R_2}\))₁ and K₂ = (\(\frac {1}{R_1}\)–\(\frac {1}{R_2}\))₂

vi. For the combination to be achromatic, the resultant focal length of the combination must be the same for both the colours,

This is the condition for achromatism of a combination of lenses.

Condition for converging:
For this combination to be converging, fY must be positive.
Using equation (3), for f_Y to be positive, (f_Y)₁ < (f_Y)₂ ⇒ ω₁ < ω₂

Question 6.
Describe spherical aberration for spherical lenses. What are different ways to minimize or eliminate it?
Answer:
i. All the formulae used for image formation by lenses are based on some assumption. However, in reality these assumptions are not always true.

ii. A single point focus in case of lenses is possible only for small aperture spherical lenses and for paraxial rays.

iii. The rays coming from a distant object farther from principal axis no longer remain parallel to the axis. Thus, the focus gradually shifts towards pole.

iv. This defect arises due to spherical shape of the refracting surface, hence known as spherical aberration. It results into a blurred image with unclear boundaries.

v. As shown in figure, the rays near the edge of the lens converge at focal point F_M. Whereas, the rays near the principal axis converge at point F_P. The distance between F_M and F_P is measured as the longitudinal spherical aberration.

vi. In absence of this aberration, a single point image can be obtained on a screen. In the presence of spherical aberration, the image is always a circle.

vii. At a particular location of the screen (across AB in figure), the diameter of this circle is minimum. This is called the circle of least confusion. Radius of this circle is transverse spherical aberration.

Methods to eliminate/reduce spherical aberration in lenses:
i. Cheapest method to reduce the spherical aberration is to use a planoconvex or planoconcave lens with curved side facing the incident rays.

ii. Certain ratio of radii of curvature for a given refractive index almost eliminates the spherical aberration. For n = 1.5, the ratio is
\(\frac {R_1}{R_2}\) = \(\frac {1}{6}\) and for n = 2, \(\frac {R_1}{R_2}\) = \(\frac {1}{5}\)

iii. Use of two thin converging lenses separated by distance equal to difference between their focal lengths with lens of larger focal length facing the incident rays considerably reduces spherical aberration.

iv. Spherical aberration of a convex lens is positive (for real image), while that of a concave lens is negative. Thus, a suitable combination of them can completely eliminate spherical aberration.

Question 7.
Define and describe magnifying power of an optical instrument. How does it differ from linear or lateral magnification?
Answer:
i. Angular magnification or magnifying power of an optical instrument is defined as the ratio of the visual angle made by the image formed by that optical instrument (β) to the visual angle subtended by the object when kept at the least distance of distinct vision (α).

ii. The linear magnification is the ratio of the size of the image to the size of the object.

iii. When the distances of the object and image formed are very large as compared to the focal lengths of the instruments used, the magnification becomes infinite. Whereas, the magnifying power being the ratio of angle subtended by the object and image, gives the finite value.

iv. For example, in case of a compound microscope,
M_min = \(\frac {D}{f}\) = \(\frac {25}{5}\) = 5 and M_max = 1 + \(\frac {D}{f}\) = 6
Hence image appears to be only 5 to 6 times bigger for a lens of focal length 5 cm.
For M_min = \(\frac {D}{f}\) = 5, V = ∞
∴ Lateral magnification (m) = \(\frac {v}{u}\) = ∞
Thus, the image size is infinite times that of the object, but appears only 5 times bigger.

Question 8.
Derive an expression for magnifying power of a simple microscope. Obtain its minimum and maximum values in terms of its focal length.
Answer:
i. Figure (a) shows visual angle a made by an object, when kept at the least distance of distinct vision (D = 25 cm). Without an optical instrument this is the greatest possible visual angle as we cannot get the object closer than this.

ii. Figure (b) shows a convex lens forming erect, virtual and magnified image of the same object, when placed within the focus.

iii. The visual angle p of the object and the image in this case are the same. However, this time the viewer is looking at the image which is not closer than D. Hence the same object is now at a distance smaller than D.

iv. Angular magnification or magnifying power, in this case, is given by
M = \(\frac {Visual angle of theimage}{Visual angle of the object at D}\) = \(\frac {β}{α}\)
For small angles,
M = \(\frac {β}{α}\) ≈ \(\frac {tan(β)}{tan(α)}\) = \(\frac {BA/PA}{BA/D}\) = \(\frac {D}{u}\)

v. For maximum magnifying power, the image should be at D. For thin lens, considering thin lens formula.

Question 9.
Derive the expressions for the magnifying power and the length of a compound microscope using two convex lenses.
Answer:
i. The final image formed in compound microscope (A” B”) as shown in figure, makes a visual angle β at the eye.
Visual angle made by the object from distance D is α.

From figure,
tan β = \(\frac {A”B”}{v_c}\) = \(\frac {A’B’}{u_c}\)
and tan α = \(\frac {AB}{D}\)

Question 10.
What is a terrestrial telescope and an astronomical telescope?
Answer:

1. Telescopes used to see the objects on the Earth, like mountains, trees, players playing a match in a stadium, etc. are called terrestrial telescopes.
2. In such case, the final image must be erect. Eye lens used for this purpose must be concave and such a telescope is popularly called a binocular.
3. Most of the binoculars use three convex lenses with proper separation. The image formed by second lens is inverted with respect to object. The third lens again inverts this image and makes final image erect with respect to the object.
4. An astronomical telescope is the telescope used to see the objects like planets, stars, galaxies, etc. In this case there is no necessity of erect image. Such telescopes use convex lens as eye lens.

Question 11.
Obtain the expressions for magnifying power and the length of an astronomical telescope under normal adjustments.
Answer:
i. For telescopes, a is the visual angle of the object from its own position, which is practically at infinity.

ii. Visual angle of the final image is p and its position can be adjusted to be at D. However, under normal adjustments, the final image is also at infinity making a greater visual angle than that of the object.

iii. The parallax at the cross wires can be avoided by using the telescopes in normal adjustments.

iv. Objective of focal length f₀ focusses the parallel incident beam at a distance f₀ from the objective giving an inverted image AB.

v. For normal adjustment, the intermediate image AB forms at the focus of the eye lens. Rays refracted beyond the eye lens form a parallel beam inclined at an angle β with the principal axis.

vi. Angular magnification or magnifying power for telescope is given by,
M = \(\frac {β}{α}\) ≈ \(\frac {tan(β)}{tan(α)}\) = \(\frac {BA/P_cB}{BA/P_0B}\) = \(\frac {f_0}{f_e}\)

vii. Length of the telescope for normal adjustment is, L = f₀ + f_e.

Question 12.
What are the limitations in increasing the magnifying powers of (i) simple microscope (ii) compound microscope (iii) astronomical telescope?
Answer:
i. In case of simple microscope
\(\mathrm{M}_{\max }=\frac{\mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{u}}=1+\frac{\mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{f}}\)
Thus, the limitation in increasing the magnifying power is determined by the value of focal length and the closeness with which the lens can be held near the eye.

ii. In case of compound microscope,
M = \(\mathrm{m}_{0} \times \mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{e}}=\frac{\mathrm{v}_{0}}{\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{o}}} \times \frac{\mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{u}_{\mathrm{e}}}\)
Thus, in order to increase m₀, we need to decrease u₀. Thereby, the object comes closer and closer to the focus of the objective. This increases v₀ and hence length of the microscope. Therefore, mQ can be increased only within the limitation of length of the microscope.

iii. In case of telescopes,
M = \(\frac {f_0}{f_e}\)
Where f₀ = focal length of the objective
f_e = focal length of the eye-piece
Length of the telescope for normal adjustment is, L = f₀ + f_e.
Thus, magnifying power of telescope can be increased only within the limitations of length of the telescope.

4. Solve the following numerical examples

Question 1.
A monochromatic ray of light strikes the water (n = 4/3) surface in a cylindrical vessel at angle of incidence 53°. Depth of water is 36 cm. After striking the water surface, how long will the light take to reach the bottom of the vessel? [Angles of the most popular Pythagorean triangle of sides in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 are nearly 37°, 53° and 90°]
Answer:
From figure, ray PO = incident ray
ray OA = refracted ray
QOB = Normal to the water surface.
Given that,
∠POQ = angle of incidence (θ₁) = 53°
Seg OB = 36 cm and n_water = \(\frac {4}{3}\)
From Snell’s law,
n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂
∴ n_water = \(\frac {sinθ_1}{sinθ_2}\)
Or sin θ₂ = \(\frac {sinθ_1}{n_{water}}\) = \(\frac {sin(53°)×3}{4}\)
∴ θ₂ ~ 37°
ΔOBA forms a Pythagorean triangle with angles 53°, 37° and 90°.
Thus, sides of ΔOBA will be in ratio 3 : 4 : 5 Such that OA forms the hypotenuse. From figure, we can infer that,
Seg OB = 4x = 36 cm
∴ x = 9
∴ seg OA = 5x = 45 cm and
seg AB = 3x = 27 cm.
This means the light has to travel 45 cm to reach the bottom of the vessel.
The speed of the light in water is given by,
v = \(\frac {c}{n}\)
∴ v = \(\frac {3×10^8}{4/3}\) = \(\frac {9}{4}\) × 10⁸ m/s
∴ Time taken by light to reach the bottom of vessel is,
t = \(\frac {s}{v}\) = \(\frac {45×10^{-2}}{\frac {9}{4} × 10^8}\) = 20 × 10^-10 = 2 ns or 0.002 µs

Question 2.
Estimate the number of images produced if a tiny object is kept in between two plane mirrors inclined at 35°, 36°, 40° and 45°.
Answer:
i. For θ₁ =35°
n₁ = \(\frac {360}{θ_1}\) = \(\frac {360}{35}\) = 10.28
As ni is non-integer, N₁ = integral part of n₁ = 10

ii. For θ₂ = 36°
n₂ = \(\frac {360}{36}\) = 10
As n₂ is even integer, N₂ = (n₂ – 1) = 9

iii. For θ₃ = 40°
n₃ = \(\frac {360}{36}\) = 9
As n₃ is odd integer.
Number of images seen (N₃) = n₃ – 1 = 8
(if the object is placed at the angle bisector) or Number of images seen (N₃) = n₃ = 9
(if the object is placed off the angle bisector)

iv. For θ₄ = 45°
n₄ = \(\frac {360}{45}\) = 8
As n₄ is even integer,
N₄ = n₄ – 1 = 7

Question 3.
A rectangular sheet of length 30 cm and breadth 3 cm is kept on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 30 cm. Draw the image formed by the mirror on the same diagram, as far as possible on scale.

Answer:

[Note: The question has been modified and the ray digram is inserted in question in order to find the correct position of the image.]

Question 4.
A car uses a convex mirror of curvature 1.2 m as its rear-view mirror. A minibus of cross section 2.2 m × 2.2 m is 6.6 m away from the mirror. Estimate the image size.
Answer:
For a convex mirror,
f = +\(\frac {R}{2}\) = \(\frac {1.2}{2}\) = +0.6m
Given that, a minibus, approximately of a shape of square is at distance 6.6 m from mirror.
i.e., u = -6.6 m

∴ h₂ = 0.183 m
i.e., h₂ 0.2 m

Question 5.
A glass slab of thickness 2.5 cm having refractive index 5/3 is kept on an ink spot. A transparent beaker of very thin bottom, containing water of refractive index 4/3 up to 8 cm, is kept on the glass block. Calculate apparent depth of the ink spot when seen from the outside air.
Answer:
When observed from the outside air, the light coming from ink spot gets refracted twice; once through glass and once through water.
∴ When observed from water,

∴ Apparent depth = 2 cm
Now when observed from outside air, the total real depth of ink spot can be taken as (8 + 2) cm = 10 cm.
∴ \(\frac {n_w}{n_{air}}\) = \(\frac {Real depth}{Apparent depth}\)
∴ Apparent depth = \(\frac {10}{4/3}\)
= \(\frac {10×3}{4}\) = 7.5 cm

Question 64.
A convex lens held some distance above a 6 cm long pencil produces its image of SOME size. On shifting the lens by a distance equal to its focal length, it again produces the image of the SAME size as earlier. Determine the image size.
Answer:
For a convex lens, it is given that the image size remains unchanged after shifting the lens through distance equal to its focal length. From given conditions, it can be inferred that the object distance should be u = –\(\frac {f}{2}\)
Also, h₁ = 6 cm, v₁ = v₂
From formula for thin lenses,

Question 7.
Figure below shows the section ABCD of a transparent slab. There is a tiny green LED light source at the bottom left corner B. A certain ray of light from B suffers total internal reflection at nearest point P on the surface AD and strikes the surface CD at point Question Determine refractive index of the material of the slab and distance DQ. At Q, the ray PQ will suffer partial or total internal reflection?

Answer:

As, the light ray undergo total internal reflection at P, the ray BP may be incident at critical angle.
For a Pythagorean triangle with sides in ratio 3 : 4 : 5 the angle opposite to side 3 units is 37° and that opposite to 4 units is 53°.
Thus, from figure, we can say, in ΔBAP
∠ABP = 53°
∠BPN = i_c = 53°
∴ n_glass = \(\frac {1}{sin_c}\) = \(\frac {1}{sin(53°)}\) ≈ \(\frac {1}{0.8}\) = \(\frac {5}{4}\)
∴ Refractive index (n) of the slab is \(\frac {5}{4}\)
From symmetry, ∆PDQ is also a Pythagorean triangle with sides in ratio QD : PD : PQ = 3 : 4 : 5.
PD = 2 cm ⇒ QD = 1.5 cm.
As critical angle is i_c = 53° and angle of incidence at Q, ∠PQN = 37° is less than critical angle, there will be partial internal reflection at Question

Question 8.
A point object is kept 10 cm away from a double convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radii of curvature 10 cm and 8 cm. Determine location of the final image considering paraxial rays only.
Answer:
Given that, R₁ = 10 cm, R₂ = -8 cm,
u = -10 cm and n = 1.5
From lens maker’s equation,

Question 9.
A monochromatic ray of light is incident at 37° on an equilateral prism of refractive index 3/2. Determine angle of emergence and angle of deviation. If angle of prism is adjustable, what should its value be for emergent ray to be just possible for the same angle of incidence.
Answer:
By Snell’s law, in case of prism,

For equilateral prism, A = 60°
Also, A= r₁ + r₂
∴ r₂ = A – r₁ = 60° – 23°39′ = 36°21′
Applying snell’s law on the second surface of

= sin^-1 (0.889)
= 62°44′
≈ 63°
For any prism,
i + e = A + δ
∴ δ = (i + e) – A
= (37 + 63) – 60
= 40°
For an emergent ray to just emerge, the angle r’₂ acts as a critical angle.
∴ r’₂ = sin^-1 (\(\frac {1}{n}\))
= sin^-1 (\(\frac {2}{3}\))
= 41°48′
As, A = r’₁ + r’₂ and i to be kept the same.
⇒ A’ = r’₁ + r’₂‘
= 23°39′ + 41°48′
= 65°27’

Question 10.
From the given data set, determine angular dispersion by the prism and dispersive power of its material for extreme colours. n_R = 1.62 nv = 1.66, δ_R = 3.1°
Answer:
Given: n_R = 1.62, n_V = 1.66, δ_R = 3.1°
To find:
i. Angular dispersion (δ_vr)
ii. Dispersive power (ω_VR)
Formula:
i. δ = A (n – 1)
ii. δ_VR = δ_V – δ_R
(iii) ω = \(\frac{\delta_{\mathrm{V}}-\delta_{\mathrm{R}}}{\left(\frac{\delta_{\mathrm{V}}+\delta_{\mathrm{R}}}{2}\right)}\)
Calculation: From formula (i),
δ_R = A(n_R – 1)
∴ A = \(\frac{\delta_{R}}{\left(n_{R}-1\right)}=\frac{3.1}{(1.62-1)}=\frac{3.1}{0.62}\)
= 5
δV = A(n_v – 1) = 5 × (1.66 – 1) = 3.3C
From formula (ii),
δ_VR = 3.3 – 3.1 = 0.2°
From formula (iii),
ω_VR = \(\frac{3.3-3.1}{\left(\frac{3.3+3.1}{2}\right)}=\frac{0.2}{6.4} \times 2=\frac{0.2}{3.2}=\frac{1}{16}\)
= 0.0625

Question 11.
Refractive index of a flint glass varies from 1.60 to 1.66 for visible range. Radii of curvature of a thin convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. Calculate the chromatic aberration between extreme colours.
Answer:
Given the refractive indices for extreme colours. As, n_R < n_V
n_R = 1.60 and n_V = 1.66
For convex lens,
R₁ = 10 cm and R₁₀ = -15 cm

= 0.11
∴ f_V = 11 cm
∴ Longitudinal chromatic aberration
= f_V – f_R = 11 – 10 = 1 cm

Question 12.
A person uses spectacles of ‘number’ 2.00 for reading. Determine the range of magnifying power (angular magnification) possible. It is a concave convex lens (n = 1.5) having curvature of one of its surfaces to be 10 cm. Estimate that of the other.
Answer:
For a single concavo-convex lens, the magnifying power will be same as that for simple microscope As, the number represents the power of the lens,
P = \(\frac {1}{f}\) = 2 ⇒ f = 0.5 m.
∴ Range of magnifying power of a lens will be,
M_min = \(\frac {D}{f}\) = \(\frac {0.25}{0.5}\) = 0.5
and M_min = 1 + \(\frac {D}{f}\) = 1 + 0.5 = 1.5
Given that, n = 1.5, |R₁| = 10 cm
f = 0.5 m = 50 cm
From lens maker’s equation,

Question 13.
Focal power of the eye lens of a compound microscope is 6 dioptre. The microscope is to be used for maximum magnifying power (angular magnification) of at least 12.5. The packing instructions demand that length of the microscope should be 25 cm. Determine minimum focal power of the objective. How much will its radius of curvature be if it is a biconvex lens of n = 1.5.
Answer:
Focal power of the eye lens,
P_e = \(\frac {1}{f_e}\) = 6D
∴ f_e = \(\frac {1}{6}\) = 0.1667 m = 16.67 cm
Now, as the magnifying power is maximum,
v_e = 25 cm,
Also (M_e)_max = 1 + \(\frac {D}{f_e}\) = 1 + \(\frac {25}{16.67}\) ≈ 2.5
Given that,
M = m₀ × M_e = 12.5
∴ m₀ × 2.5 = 12.5
∴ m₀ = \(\frac {v_0}{u_0}\) = 5 ……….. (1)
From thin lens formula,

Length of a compound microscope,
L = |v₀| +|u₀|
∴ 25 = |v₀| + 10
∴ |v₀|= 15 cm
∴ |u₀| = \(\frac {v_0}{5}\) = 3 cm …………… (from 1)
From lens formula for objective,
\(\frac {1}{f_0}\) = \(\frac {1}{v_0}\) – \(\frac {1}{u_0}\)
= \(\frac {1}{15}\) – \(\frac {1}{-3}\)
= \(\frac {2}{5}\)
∴ f₀ = 2.5 cm = 0.025 m
Thus, focal power of objective,
P = \(\frac {1}{f_0(m)}\)
= \(\frac {1}{0.025}\) = 40 D
Using lens maker’s equation for a biconvex lens,
\(\frac{1}{f_{o}}=(n-1)\left(\frac{1}{R}-\frac{1}{-R}\right)\)
∴ \(\frac{1}{2.5}=(1.5-1)\left(\frac{2}{R}\right)=\frac{1}{R}\)
∴ R = 2.5 cm

11th Physics Digest Chapter 9 Optics Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook rage no 159)

What are laws of reflection and refraction?
Answer:
Laws of reflection:
a. Reflected ray lies in the plane formed by incident ray and the normal drawn at the point of incidence and the two rays are on either side of the normal.
b. Angles of incidence and reflection are equal (i = r).

Laws of refraction:
a. Refracted ray lies in the plane formed by incident ray and the normal drawn at the point of incidence; and the two rays are on either side of the normal.

b. Angle of incidence (θ₁) and angle of refraction (θ₂) are related by Snell’s law, given by, n₁ sin θ₁ = n₂ sin θ₂ where, n₁, n₂ = refractive indices of medium 1 and medium 2 respectively.

Can you recall? (Textbook page no. 159)

Question 1.
What is refractive index?
Answer:
The ratio of velocity of light in vacuum to the velocity’ of light in a medium is called the refractive index of the medium.

Question 2.
What is total internal reflection?
Answer:
For angles of incidence larger than the critical angle, the angle of refraction is larger than 90°. Thus, all the incident light gets reflected back into the denser medium. This is called total internal reflection.

Question 3.
How does a rainbow form?
Answer:

1. The rainbow appears in the sky after a rainfall.
2. Water droplets present in the atmosphere act as small prism.
3. When sunlight enters these water droplets it gets refracted and dispersed.
4. This dispersed light gets totally reflected inside the droplet and again is refracted while coming out of the droplet.
5. As a combined effect of all these phenomena, the seven coloured rainbow is observed.

Question 4.
What is dispersion of light?
Answer:
Splitting of a white light into its constituent colours is known as dispersion of light.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solution Book Pdf Chapter 2 Functions Miscellaneous Exercise 2 Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Commerce Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Functions Miscellaneous Exercise 2

Question 1.
Which of the following relations are functions? If it is a function determine its domain and range.
(i) {(2, 1), (4, 2), (6, 3), (8, 4), (10, 5) (12, 6), (14, 7)}
(ii) {(0, 0), (1, 1), (1, -1), (4, 2), (4, -2), (9, 3), (9, -3), (16, 4), (16, -4)}
(iii) {(1, 1), (3, 1), (5, 2)}
Solution:
(i) {(2, 1), (4, 2), (6, 3), (8, 4), (10, 5) (12, 6), (14, 7)}

Every element of set A has been assigned a unique element in set B.
∴ Given relation is a function.
Domain = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12, 14},
Range = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}

(ii) {(0, 0), (1, 1), (1, -1), (4, 2), (4, -2), (9, 3), (9, -3), (16, 4), (16, -4)}
∴ (1, 1), (1, -1) ∈ the relation
∴ Given relation is not a function.
As element 1 of the domain has not been assigned a unique element of co-domain.

(iii) {(1, 1), (3, 1), (5, 2)}

Every element of set A has been assigned a unique element in set B.
∴ Given relation is a function.
Domain = {1, 3, 5}, Range = {1, 2}

Question 2.
A function f: R → R defined by f(x) = \(\frac{3 x}{5}\) + 2, x ∈ R. Show that f is one-one and onto. Hence, find f^-1.
Solution:
f: R → R defined by f(x) = \(\frac{3 x}{5}\) + 2
First we have to prove that f is one-one function for that we have to prove if
f(x₁) = f(x₂) then x₁ = x₂
Here f(x) = \(\frac{3 x}{5}\) + 2
Let f(x₁) = f(x₂)
∴ \(\frac{3 x_{1}}{5}+2=\frac{3 x_{2}}{5}+2\)
∴ \(\frac{3 x_{1}}{5}=\frac{3 x_{2}}{5}\)
∴ x₁ = x₂
∴ f is a one-one function.
Now, we have to prove that f is an onto function.
Let y ∈ R be such that
y = f(x)
∴ y = \(\frac{3 x}{5}\) + 2
∴ y – 2 = \(\frac{3 x}{5}\)
∴ x = \(\frac{5(y-2)}{3}\) ∈ R
∴ for any y ∈ co-domain R, there exist an element x = \(\frac{5(y-2)}{3}\) ∈ domain R such that f(x) = y
∴ f is an onto function.
∴ f is one-one onto function.
∴ f^-1 exists.
∴ \(\mathrm{f}^{-1}(y)=\frac{5(y-2)}{3}\)
∴ \(f^{-1}(x)=\frac{5(x-2)}{3}\)

Question 3.
A function f is defined as follows:
f(x) = 4x + 5, for -4 ≤ x < 0. Find the values of f(-1), f(-2), f(0), if they exist.
Solution:
f(x) = 4x + 5, -4 ≤ x < 0
f(-1) = 4(-1) + 5 = -4 + 5 = 1
f(-2) = 4(-2) + 5 = -8 + 5 = -3
x = 0 ∉ domain of f
∴ f(0) does not exist.

Question 4.
A function f is defined as follows:
f(x) = 5 – x for 0 ≤ x ≤ 4. Find the value of x such that f(x) = 3.
Solution:
f(x) = 5 – x
f(x) = 3
∴ 5 – x = 3
∴ x = 5 – 3 = 2

Question 5.
If f(x) = 3x² – 5x + 7, find f(x – 1).
Solution:
f(x) = 3x² – 5x + 7
∴ f(x – 1) = 3(x – 1)² – 5(x – 1) + 7
= 3(x² – 2x + 1) – 5(x – 1) + 7
= 3x² – 6x + 3 – 5x + 5 + 7
= 3x² – 11x + 15

Question 6.
If f(x) = 3x + a and f(1) = 7, find a and f(4).
Solution:
f(x) = 3x + a,
f(1) = 7
∴ 3(1) + a = 7
∴ a = 7 – 3 = 4
∴ f(x) = 3x + 4
∴ f(4) = 3(4) + 4
= 12 + 4
= 16

Question 7.
If f(x) = ax² + bx + 2 and f(1) = 3, f(4) = 42, find a and b.
Solution:
f(x) = ax² + bx + 2
f(1) = 3
∴ a(1)² + b(1) + 2 = 3
∴ a + b = 1 …….(i)
f(4) = 42
∴ a(4)² + b(4) + 2 = 42
∴ 16a + 4b = 40
Dividing by 4, we get
4a + b = 10 ……….(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
a = 3, b = -2

Question 8.
If f(x) = \(\frac{2 x-1}{5 x-2}, x \neq \frac{2}{5}\), verify whether (fof)(x) = x
Solution:
(fof)(x) = f(f(x))

Question 9.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x+3}{4 x-5}\), g(x) = \(\frac{3+5 x}{4 x-1}\), then verify that (fog)(x) = x.
Solution: