Category: Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Disaster Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Disaster Management

Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Disaster Management Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find the odd man out:

Question a.
Famine, earthquake, cloudburst, railway accident.
Answer:
Railway accident.

Question b.
Drought, heavy rains/storm, tsunami.
Answer:
Drought.

Question c.
Lava, hot mud, ash, locusts.
Answer:
Locusts.

Question d.
Washing away of crops, attack of pests on crops, volcano, singeing of crops.
Answer:
Volcano.

2. What are the remedial measures for the following calamities?

Question a.
Famine:
Answer:
Following are the remedial measures for famine:

1. Supply food and water to the people those who are dying due to hunger.
2. Give medicines to the people those who are suffering from malnutrition.
3. Government should start helping centres for the people those who are suffering from famine.
4. Give them temporary shelter in some other places where water and food are available.
5. Shift the animals to safer places.
6. Do proper planning so that region doesn’t get famine again and again.
7. Reuse water
8. grow more trees.

Question b.
Lightning strike:
Answer:
Following are the remedial measures for lightning strike:

1. Give immediate treatment to the lightning affected persons so their life can be saved.
2. Keep the people away from the open ground and swimming pool.
3. Provide them proper guidelines to cure for the lightning strike.

Question c.
Storm:
Answer:

1. Supply food, water and medicines to the people
2. Shift them to safe places.
3. Maintain peace, and advice the people not to panic.
4. Give time to time report on T.V. and radio.

Question d.
Cloudburst:
Answer:
Following are the remedial measures for cloudburst:

1. Shift people to safe places with the help of airplane, helicopter and army.
2. Supply them food, clothes, water and medicines.
3. Give time to time weather report.
4. Open more helpline centres.
5. Government should immediately send the help in terms of money and army to the people.

3. True or false? Give reasons for your answer.

Question a.
Information about a forthcoming storm is to be kept secret.
Answer:
False. Information about a forthcoming storm is not to be kept secret because, with this information we can take immediate steps for disaster management. Large scale damage of property and loss of life can be avoided.

Question b.
You should not swim when there is lightning in the sky.
Answer:
True. Lightning carries some electric charges which causes electric current in it. Water catches this current so if any person is swimming pool during lightning in the sky, then there are more chances that lightning may strike in water and the person may die due to it.

Question c.
It is possible to prevent the eruption of a volcano.
Answer:
False. It is not possible to prevent the eruption of a volcano because it is a natural event. However, by means of science and technology, it is possible to predict an eruption in advance and to take immediate steps for disaster management.

Question d.
Heavy rains result in famine.
Answer:
True. Heavy rains result in flood so crops get washed away or damaged in the flood and results in famine.

Question e.
A loud crashing sound follows a lightning.
Answer:
True, Friction and brushing happens between two clouds making them charged and lightning is produced between two clouds or one cloud and earth. The temperature increases and air pressure also increases to high amount and produces a loud sound of thunder.

4. Write answers to the following questions in our own words.

Question a.
What is a tsunami? What gives rise to a tsunami?
Answer:

1. Waves generated by an earthquake or volcano occurring on the ocean floor is called ‘tsunami’. ‘Tsunami’ is a Japanese word which means ‘harbour wave’.
2. As on land, earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur, at the bottom of the sea, too.
3. If an earthquake occurs at the bottom of ocean, the energy released pushes the water upwards. As a result of this particular type of waves are formed.
4. These waves are not very high near the source, but they start spreading very fast to long distances.
5. The velocity of these waves is 800 to 900 km/hr. When they reach a coastal area, their velocity is reduced, but their height is found to have increased tremendously even to about 30 m. These are tsunami waves.

Question b.
What is cloudburst?
Answer:

1. Sometimes the water coming down from rain clouds does not reach the land in the form of rain. Instead, due to very high temperature near the land, it vaporizes and goes back into the same clouds.
2. As a result the amount of vapour in those clouds becomes very high.
3. Due to rapid condensation, it rains suddenly over a specific and small region at a rate of 100 mm per hour or more. This is known as a cloudburst.

Question c.
Explain the effects of a volcano.
Answer:
Following are the effects of a volcano:

1. The chemical substances such as lava, vapour, hot mud, sulphur etc. get collected on the surface of the earth and thereby mountains and hills are created
2. The atmosphere gets polluted due to the ash and gases ejected by the volcano.
3. Often, it rains as a result of a volcanic eruption.
4. The temperature rises due to hot gases.
5. Forests and settlement get buried under the hot mud.

Question d.
What are the measures to prevent loss of life due to lightning?
Answer:
Following are the measures to prevent loss of life due to lightning:

1. Do not stand on open ground, below a tree, on high location, near an electric pole, near a telephone pole or a tower etc.
2. Do not lean on wire fences around a farm, a compound, a garden or a house.
3. If you are on two-wheeler, a bicycle, a tractor or a boat, get off immediately and go to safe place.
4. Do not gather all together in one place.
5. Take care to keep a distance of 15 feet between any two persons.
6. Do not use plugged in electrical appliances. Do not use a mobile or telephone.
7. Stand on dry wood, a plastic sheet, sack or jute cloth or dry leaves.
8. Keeping your feet together support yourself on the soles of your feet placing your hands on your knees and crouch low.
9. Swimmers and fishermen should immediately come out of the water.
10. A pucca house is the safest place. Find out if there is a lightning conductor on any tall building near your house. If necessary get a lightning conductor fitted on your house.

5. What measures have been taken to deal with calamities such as floods and landslides under the disaster management programme in Maharashtra?

Question a.
What measures have been taken to deal with calamities such as floods and landslides under the disaster management programme in Maharashtra?
Answer:
In Maharashtra, all districts have their own disaster management plan to deal with calamities such as floods and landslides.

1. The plan deals extensively with the emergency, and evacuation measures to be taken up in cases of flood and landslide.
2. The district-level disaster management plan has detailed information about geographical details, population, flood-prone areas, villages and other macro details.
3. Nearly 14 such key departments are engaged in disaster mitigation measures and each one has been assigned a specific task to do at times of natural disasters.
4. The administration is now training master trainers at the district level who in turn will train key persons at village and taluka levels to deal with a natural disaster.
5. The administration through radio jingles, public advertisements and other measures is informing people about how to react at times of flood and landslide.
6. Currently, the Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) gives weather forecast on daily basis and for the next 5 days with advice to farmers on when to start crop sowing and harvesting etc.

6. With reference to disaster management what are the things in your house that you will check?

Question a.
With reference to disaster management what are the things in your house that you will check?
Answer:
With reference to disaster management, we should keep the following things at home and check regularly.

1. Keep proper first aid kit at a handy place.
2. Keep all the electric connections in proper condition.
3. Keep the gas line or tube connection proper.
4. Keep self-powered flashlights and self-powered radios.
5. Keep non-perishable food which will last for a week.
6. Keep a fire extinguisher handy and in proper condition.
7. Keep updated telephone diary which should have emergency phone numbers.

Project:

Question 1.
With the help of the Internet, collect information about the places where a calamity has occurred.

Question 2.
Collect information from the Internet about how cyclonic storms are named.

Class 7 Science Chapter 10 Disaster Management Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
………… and ………… disasters are related to each other.
Answer:
Natural manmade.

Question 2.
………… implemented a canal scheme for drinking water in Aurangabad.
Answer:
Malik Ambar.

Question 3.
………… has turned out to be the most famine-affected contents of the world.
Answer:
Asia

Question 4.
The government of India established the ………… in 1976.
Answer:
National Flood Commission

Question 5.
The ………… that occurred in Mumbai on 26th August 2005 was extraordinary and unforgettable.
Answer:
cloudburst.

Question 6.
A cloudburst occurred at ………… on 6th August, 2010.
Answer:
Ladakh (Leh)

Question 7.
About ………… lightning flashes occur per second in the atmosphere.
Answer:
40.

Question 8.
The temperature generated by ………… is higher than that of the sun.
Answer:
lightning

Question 9.
When some substances comes out of the earth’s crust in an eruption and start flowing is called a ………… .
Answer:
volcano

Question 10.
Some islands are created due to the eruption, of ………… in the sea.
Answer:
volcano

Question 11.
………… is a Japanese word which means ‘harbour wave’.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Question 12.
About ………… nations from all over the world are members of the UNDP.
Answer:
177.

Question 13.
………… established a standing international organization UNDP in 1965.
Answer:
United Nations.

Question 14.
………… is celebrated as International Day for Disaster Reduction.
Answer:
13th October

Question 15.
The condition that arises due to long term and severe scarcity of food grains and water is called………. .
Answer:
famine

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Is it possible to prevent the loss of life caused by lightning?
Answer:
Yes, it is possible to prevent the loss of life caused by lightning, by taking precautions.

Question 2.
What should be done to prevent the bunds on a farm from getting washed away in the rainy season?
Answer:

1. Grow more trees near the bunds.
2. Grow grass strips.
3. Make stone lines near the bunds.
4. Use contour ploughing and tillage network method to prevent the bunds on a farm from getting washed away in the rainy season.

Question 3.
Why do we experience water scarcity?
Answer:
Lessor no rain leads to water scarcity.

Question 4.
What causes rain?
Answer:

1. Due to heat of the sun, water from the sea, lake and river gets evaporated and this water vapour is light in weight so it goes higher and higher and forms the cloud.
2. At a certain level the amount of vapour in those clouds becomes very heavy and it burst and rain occurs.

Question 5.
Have you seen a flash of lightning in the sky? When?
Answer:
Students will answer this question based on their experience.

Question 6.
What causes lightning?
Answer:

1. Where air and clouds rub against each other in the sky, the upper part of some clouds on the upper side becomes positively charged and the lower sides become negatively charged.
2. When this negative charge on the bottom of the cloud becomes much larger than the charge on the ground it starts flowing towards the ground in stages.
3. This happens very fast, in much less than a second and heat, light and sound energy are produced along with the electric current.

Use your brainpower!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
We should not wait at the foothill while it is raining heavily.
Answer:
During heavy rain there are chances of landslide and flood, so we should not wait at the foothill while it is raining heavily.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 9 Heat Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 9 Heat

Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Heat Textbook Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question a.
Maximum heat is absorbed by a ………….. coloured object.
Answer:
black

Question b.
……………. of heat does not require a medium.
Answer:
Radiation

Question c.
Conduction of heat takes place through a ……………. substance.
Answer:
solid

Question d.
The shining surface in a thermos flask decreases the outgoing heat by ……………… .
Answer:
reflection

Question e.
Cooking utensils are made from metals due to their property of ……………… .
Answer:
conduction

Question f.
The earth receives heat from the sun by ………………. .
Answer:
radiation

2. What will absorb heat?
Steel spoon, wooden board, glass vessel, iron griddle (lava), glass, wooden spoon, plastic plate, soil, water, wax.

Question a.
What will absorb heat?
Steel spoon, wooden board, glass vessel, iron griddle (lava), glass, wooden spoon, plastic plate, soil, water, wax.
Answer:
Following will absorb heat fast: steel spoon, iron griddle, water, wax. Remaining objects also obsorb heat but very slowly.

3. Write Answers to the following questions. 

Question a.
How does a fever get lowered by putting a cold compress on the forehead of a patient?
Answer:
The water in the cold compress will evaporate by the heat of fever thus taking some local heat of the body and temperature of the body is lowered, therefore the fever gets lowered by putting a cold compress on the forehead of a patient.

Question b.
Why are the houses in Rajasthan painted white?
Answer:
Rajasthan being a desert, temperature is very high. So there is excess heat. White colour doesn’t absorb the heat but reflects back, so houses will not become hot due to excess heat and inside of the house will be cool. So the houses in Rajasthan are painted white.

Question c.
What are the modes of heat transfer?
Answer:
There are three modes of heat transfer:

1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation.

Question d.
Explain which mode of heat transfer causes sea breezes and land breezes?
Answer:

1. Unequal heating of air above the sea and land sets up convection currents which cause sea breezes during the day time.
2. The land near the sea is heated by sunlight to a higher temperature than the sea.
3. As the air above the land is heated, it becomes lighter and moves upwards, its place is then taken by cooler air moving from the sea towards the land.
4. Sea breezes are thus set up. At night, the land cools faster than water in the sea. Therefore air above sea water is hotter than air above the land.
5. So cooler air from the land moves towards the sea forming land breeze.

Question e.
Why is the outer coat of the penguins of Antarctica black?
Answer:
The outer coat of the penguins of Antarctica is black because black colour absorbs heat so penguins get lots of heat due to this black colour and they can live easily in very, very cold Antarctica region.

Question f.
Why are heaters fitted near the floor and air conditioners near the ceiling of a room?
Answer:
1. Due to air conditioners, air becomes cool so its density increases and it becomes heavy. So it goes down and warm air with less density comes up and take the place of cold air. This cycle goes on and on and the whole room becomes cool.
2. If it is fitted near the floor then cool air of high density can’t go up and upper air with low density cannot come down and cooling of the room does not take place properly so air conditioners are fitted near the ceiling of a room.
3. Heaters are fitted near the floor. Due to heating, air becomes hot which is lighter than cold air. So it goes up and upper air with high density comes down.
4. This cycle goes on and on and the full room becomes warm. So heaters are fitted near the floor.

4. Give scientific reasons.

Question a.
An ordinary glass bottle cracks when boiling water is poured into it, but a borosil glass bottle does not.
Answer:

1. An ordinary glass bottle cracks when we pour boiling water into it because there is a lot of temperature difference between the inner and outer parts of the glass.
2. The inner part gets hot and expands while the outer part remains cold since glass is a bad conductor of heat.
3. This unequal expansion causes the crack of glass bottle.
4. But the borosil glass bottle has a very high melting point so the temperature difference is very less, hence it doesn’t crack.

Question b.
The telephone wires which sag in summer become straight in winter.
Answer:

1. Telephone wires are made up of copper metal. Metals expand on heating.
2. In summer the copper wire expands, thus the length of the wire increases between the two poles and instead of remaining straight it sags.
3. In winter due to cold, it contracts and comes back to the original position, so it becomes straight in winter.

Question c.
Dewdrops form on the grass in winter.
Answer:

1. During the winter, the temperature of air is low, its capacity to hold the vapour is less.
2. At such times the excess water vapour is transformed into water droplets due to cold. And so the dew drops form on the grass in winter.

Question d.
In winter, why does an iron pillar feel colder than a wooden pole.
Answer:

1. Iron is a metal and metals are very good conductors of heat so it transfers heat at a much faster rate than wood.
2. That means, when we touch them, metals conducts away energy in the form of heat emitted by our hand and temperature of our hand lowers down and we get a cold’ sensation.
3. This is what makes the metal appear colder than the wood.
4. The wood is taking away heat at a much slower rate.

Project:

Question 1.
Make a note of the various examples of heat transfer seen in day-to-day life.

Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Heat Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
………………… is an indicator of the heat in a substance.
Answer:
Temperature

Question 2.
………………. flows from higher temperature to lower temperature.
Answer:
Heat

Question 3.
Transfer of heat from one place to another takes place by ……………. or ……………. .
Answer:
conduction, convection, radiation

Question 4.
During conduction, particles of the substance …………….. in their place.
Answer:
vibrate

Question 5.
In a convection current, warm air travels …………….. .
Answer:
upwards

Question 6.
A …………….. is necessary for the conduction of heat.
Answer:
medium

Question 7.
The ………………. of conduction of heat through a medium depends on the medium.
Answer:
speed

Question 8.
Convection takes place only in …………… medium.
Answer:
fluid

Question 9.
Transfer of heat in the absence of a medium is called ……………… .
Answer:
radiation

Question 10.
Substances through which heat travels easily and quickly are called …………… .
Answer:
good conductors

Question 11.
Substances through which heat travels very slowly are called ………… of heat.
Answer:
bad conductors

Question 12.
Copper is a better ………… of heat than …………. .
Answer:
conductor, iron

Question 13.
………………. made first thermos flask in 1892.
Answer:
Sir James Dewar

Question 14.
Neither conduction nor convection of the heat occurs in thermos flask due to the ……………… .
Answer:
vacuum.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Good conductor	a. flow of particles
2. Bad conductor	b. particles vibrate
3. Conduction	c. glass
4. Convection	d. copper

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Good conductor	d. copper
2. Bad conductor	c. glass
3. Conduction	b. particles vibrate
4. Convection	a. flow of particles

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Radiation	a. convection current
2. Black body	b. conduction
3. Vibration	c. absorbs more heat
4. A rotating paper lantern	d. no medium

Answer:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
1. Radiation	d. no medium
2. Black body	c. absorbs more heat
3. Vibration	b. conduction
4. A rotating paper lantern	a. convection current

Say whether true or false, correct and rewrite the false statements:

Question 1.
Glass is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In a thermos flask, hot things remain hot and cold things become warm.
Answer:
False. In a thermos flask, hot things remain hot and cold things remain cold.

Question 3.
Radiation of heat depends upon the colours of the outer surface of the body.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
During radiation, the particles of the medium vibrate.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Copper is better conductor of heat than iron.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
During conduction, particles of the conductor leave their original place.
Answer:
False. During conduction, particles of the conductor do not leave their original place, but only vibrate in their own place.

Question 7.
Hot water is heavier than cold water.
Answer:
False – Hot water is lighter than cold water.

Question 8.
A convection current always travels down wards.
Answer:
False – A convection current always travels upwards.

Question 9.
Every warm substance continuously emits heat in all directions around itself.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Air is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

Define the following:

1. Conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. Transfer of heat.

Answer:

1. Conduction: The transfer of heat from one end of a solid substance to the other, without the particles leaving their original place is called conduction.
2. Convection: Transfer of heat in fluids due to formation of currents is called convection.
3. Radiation: Transfer of heat in all directions in the absence of a medium is called radiation.
4. Transfer of heat: The flow of heat from one place to another is called transfer of heat.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Cricketers wear white clothes when playing in the sun.
Answer:
White clothes do not absorb heat but reflect back therefore cricketers wear white clothes while playing in the sun.

Question 2.
Sawdust is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
Sawdust is a bad conductor of heat because heat travels very slowly through it.

Question 3.
We can feel the heat of table lamp under it.
Answer:
We can feel the heat of table lamp under it because every warm substance continuously emits heat in all directions around itself by radiation.

Question 4.
Medium is necessary for conduction.
Answer:
Conduction is the transfer of heat from one end of a substance to another. Transfer of heat has to be done by particles of a substance and particles of a substance are particles of a medium. Hence, a medium is necessary for conduction.

Question 5.
Explain the structure and functioning of thermometer containers-
Answer:

1. Thermoware containers keep food hot. These containers consist two boxes fitted one inside the other.
2. The outer box is made up of plastic while the inner one is made up of a shiny metal, there is air between the two boxes.
3. Air is a bad conductor of heat. Thus, heat is not lost by either conduction or convection. Also, the shiny inner surface prevents heat loss due to radiation.
4. The container has a plastic lid. This also prevents any transfer of heat.

Question 6.
what is mailed infrared camera? Write its uses.
Answer:

1. Radiation of heat takes place from many objects in nature such as trees, mountains, stones and roads.
2. A camera has been developed which uses these radiations to make our surroundings visible even at night. This is called infrared camera.
3. It is used to keep watch on the movements of the enemy during the night.
4. It is also used to track the movements of animals in the wild.

Question 7.
Why is mercury used in a thermometer?
Answer:
Mercury is used in a thermometer because of the following properties.

1. There is a big difference between the freezing point and boiling point of mercury. Its freezing point is – 39° C and its boiling point is 357° C.
2. It is shiny and can be easily seen.
3. It does not stick to glass.
4. It expands regularly and uniformly in all conditions.

Question 8.
Write the difference between Conduction, Convection and Radiation.
Answer:

Conduction	Convection	Radiation
1. It is a mode of transfer of heat from hot part of an object to the cold part.	It is a mode of transfer of heat by means of convection currents.	It is a mode of transfer of heat in all directions without any medium.
2. It occurs in solids.	It occurs in liquids and gases.	It occurs in all objects of high temperature and vacuum.
3. It is a slow process.	It is a slow process	It is a fast process.

Question 9.
Draw and explain about the Thermos flask or Dewar flask.
Answer:

Principle:
1. As there is no medium in the vacuum between the two bottles, no transfer of heat can take place by conduction or convection.
2. Radiant heat is reflected back inside from the shiny surfaces.
3. Glass and plastic are bad conductors of heat hence they do not transfer heat either into or out of the bottle. Thus transfer of heat does not take place by any of the three modes, namely conduction, convection or radiation Hence, hot things in the flask remain hot and cold things cold.

Structure:

1. A thermos flask consists of two thin glass bottles fitted one inside the other.
2. The inner surfaces of the bottles have a silver coating to shine like a mirror.
3. A vacuum is created in the space between the two bottles by removing all the air from it.
4. A plastic or cork lid is provided to fit on the mouth of the bottle.

Draw neat labelled diagrams of:

Question 1.
The relation between density and convection
Answer:

Question 2.
Conduction of heat
Answer:

Question 3.
Convection of heat
Answer:

Question 4.
Expansion and contraction of a liquid
Answer:

Question 5.
Thermos flask
Answer:

Can you tell?

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why does the halwai wrap up cloth around the end of his slotted spoon while stirring the boiling milk in his large kadhai?
Answer:
The halwai wrap up cloth around the end of his slotted spoon while stirring the boiling milk in his large kadhai because (i) His slotted spoon is made up of metal and metal is a good conductor of heat so due to constant heating spoon gets very hot which makes hand to get burnt, (ii) But cloth is a bad conductor of heat so it does not allow heat to reach till hand and halwai does not feel hot when he stirs the boiling milk.

Question 2.
Why do we hold a steel glass in a handkerchief while drinking hot milk from it?
Answer:

1. Steel is metal and it is a good conductor of heat. So due to hot milk it becomes hot and it is difficult to hold. Person’s hand get burnt due to it.
2. So it is better to hold in a handkerchief because handkerchief is made up of cloth which is a bad conductor of heat. So your hand does not feel hot.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Why do we wear woollen clothes in winter?
Answer:
We wear woollen clothes in winter because

1. Air is a poor conductor of heat and woollen clothes do not allow the transfer of body heat.
2. Therefore we do not feel cold in woollen clothes and get protected from cold in winter.

Question 2.
Why do we use white clothes in summer and dark or black clothes in winter?
Answer:

1. White clothes do not absorb heat, so in summer, weather is very hot and white clothes protect us from heat whereas in winter it is very cold so we need more heat.
2. Dark or black clothes absorb more heat so we get protection from cold.

Question 3.
Why is there a gap at the joints of rails and of cement concrete bridges?
Answer:

1. The joints of rails and cement concrete bridges are made of iron. Metal is a good conductor of heat so in summer due to heat it expands and its length will be increased.
2. To allow for this expansion, gaps are kept.
3. If these gaps are not kept, then after expansion the rails and cement concrete would have buckled upwards due to lack of space.
4. Due to that bridges would crack and railway tracks get crooked.

Question 4.
Why is mercury or alcohol used in a thermometer?
Answer:
Mercury is used in a thermometer because of the following properties.
Alcohol is used in a thermometer for the following properties.

1. It can measure a low temperature because its freezing point is low. (-115°C) but it can not measure higher temperature as its boiling point is low.
2. It can measure the temperature precisely because it has large expansion coefficient.
3. It’s expansion is regular.
4. Less hazardous.

Question 5.
Why hot substance does not remain as hot after two or three hours?
Answer:
A little heat is lost from around the lid and by a small amount of conduction through the vessel. So hot substance does not remain as hot after two or three hours.

Diagram based questions.

Observe the diagram and answer the given questions below it.

1.

Question a.
What is the diagram about?
Answer:
The diagram is showing us the relation between density and convection.

Question b.
Why is the ice wrapped in wire gauze?
Answer:
Ice floats on water, to make it sink, it is wrapped in wire gauze.

Question c.
What does this experiment prove?
Answer:
When a liquid is heated, its density decreases and it rises upwards. This leads to the convection currents which makes the heated liquid rise upwards and cooler liquid takes it place.

2.

Question a.
What is the diagram about?
Answer:
Expansion and contraction of a solid substance.

Question b.
Does the same thing happen in liquids and gases?
Answer:
Yes. Generally substances solids, liquids and gases expand on heating and contract on cooling.

Question c.
Give one example of this property in everyday life.
Answer:
Gaps are present in between two railway line track joints so that they do not bend due to expansion.

3.

Question a.
Label parts 1 – 4
Answer:

1. Vacuum
2. metal/plastic jar
3. Spring
4. silvered surface of the glass.

Question b.
What is the principle of this object?
Answer:
As there is no medium in the vacuum between the two bottles, no transfer of heat takes place due to conduction and convection and radiated heat is reflected back by the shiny surface.

Question c.
State the uses of the given object.
Answer:
The temperature of substances inside it are maintained for some time. Hot things remain hot and cold things cold for 2 – 3 hours.

Question d.
What is an infrared camera?
Answer:
It is a camera which uses radiations to make our surroundings visible at night. Using this camera, it is possible to keep a watch on the movements of the enemy during the night.

Question e.
What is thermoware?
Answer:
Thermoware are object which do not allow heat to escape from them. So things stay warm in them. eg. hot pot, thermos flask.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 17 Effects of Light Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 17 Effects of Light

Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Effects of Light Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks.

Question a.
When the beams from the headlights of a car fall on an object in the night, the shadows – called ………. and ………… . can be seen.
Answer:
umbra, penumbra

Question b.
During a lunar eclipse the shadow of the …………. falls on the ………. .
Answer:
earth, moon

Question c.
During a solar eclipse the shadow of the ………. falls on the ………… .
Answer:
moon, earth

Question d.
Various shades of colour are seen in the sky at sunrise and sunset due to ……….. .
Answer:
scattering of light

2. Give reasons.

Question a.
Space beyond the earth’s atmosphere appears dark.
Answer:

1. Space beyond the earth’s atmosphere does have some gas and cosmic dust but there is not any atmosphere.
2. As there are no particles to scatter the sunlight, the space appears black.

Question b.
We are able to read while sitting in the shade.
Answer:

1. We are able to read because the sun light which falls on the book is scattered and reaches our eyes.
2. While sitting in the shade our eyes adjust to the environment and to amount of light available. That is how we are able to read.

Question c.
We should not observe the solar eclipse with naked eyes.
Answer:

1. During a solar eclipse ultra-violet rays which are harmful to us reach the earth and may lead to eclipse blindness or retinal bums and cataracts.
2. In order to protect our eyes a solar eclipse should never be watched with the naked eye.
3. A special type of goggles should be used for this.

3. Give some examples of scattering of light that we come across in day to day life.

Question a.
Give some examples of scattering of light that we come across in day to day life.
Answer:

1. The formation of rainbow, shift in position of stars, increased day time, mirage, inverted image, glittering of diamond, the working of lens and prism, bending of pen in water are examples of scattering of light.
2. The blue colour of the sky is due to the scattering of sunlight by the molecules of air.
3. During sunrise and sunset, sunlight has to travel greater distance, so shorter wavelength gets scattered off and removed and only orange and red with longer wavelengths reach us.
4. So during sunrise and sunset, sky appears fed and orange.

4. Why is the shadow of a bird flying high not seen on the earth?

Question a.
Why is the shadow of a bird flying high not seen on the earth?
Answer:

1. Birds flying high in the sky do cast their shadow but because they are shading an area that is very tiny the shadow is not visible.
2. The higher the bird flies, the smaller the shadow it casts.
3. Also when the bird flies high, the dark part of the shadow that is called Umbra does not reach the ground so we do not see its shadow.

5. Why is a penumbra not obtained from a point source?

Question a.
Why is a penumbra not obtained from a point source?
Answer:

1. The umbra, penumbra are the distinct parts of a shadow, created by any light source after striking on an opaque object.
2. For a point source, only the umbra is cast sharp dark shadow and not penumbra, because all the light of the point source will be blocked by any shadowing object.
3. Whereas penumbra forms only when some of the light from the source gets blocked by the shadowing object and not all of it does.

6. Answer the following questions in your own words.

Question a.
What is meant by scattering of light?
Answer:

1. Scattering of light is the deviation of light rays from its straight path.
2. As light propagates through the atmosphere, it travels in a straight path until it is obstructed by bits of dust or gas molecules in the atmosphere
3. The process in which light gets deflected by the particles in the medium through which the light passes is called scattering, e.g. The blue colour of the sky is due to the scattering of sunlight by the molecules of air.

Question b.
Does the shadow really vanish in the zero shadow condition?
Answer:
1. Yes, the day on which the sun reaches exactly overhead, at noon, shadow completely disappears.
‘This event can be seen in the region between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) and Tropic of Capricorn (23.5°S).
2. The shadow diminishes and eventually disappears for a while only to reappear later.

Question c.
Will the laser beam be seen if it passes through a glass box which contains a lighted incense stick?
Answer:
Yes, it will be seen.

7. Discuss and write:

Question a.
Write a science based paragraph on ‘What if the sun did not rise’?
Answer:

1. The sun is a star and the centre of our solar system. Everything in our solar system revolves around the sun.
2. If the sun were to suddenly disappear, Earth and the other planets would retain their forward motion, effectively flying off into outer space in a straight line.
3. If the Sun didn’t rise means the Earth’s rotation had come to a screeching halt.
4. Sunrise and sunset are a result of the earth’s rotation so we will not get to see sunrise or sunset. Earth’s spinning generates the magnetic field at the core and it is saving us from harmful rays from the sun.
5. Without sun it would be very dark. No sun means no plants and no animals. Of course, without sun none of us would even exist.
6. Moon will disappear, because the moon dose not produce light. We only see the moon because sunlight is reflected by the moon.
7. Without the sun’s warmth, Earth would quickly become a much colder place. Life would be difficult, oceans will freeze.
8. Without sun rays, all photosynthesis on earth would stop. All plants would die.
9. All animals that rely on plants for food, including humans would die.

Question b.
What efforts will you make to remove the misconceptions about eclipses?
Answer:
Solar, lunar eclipse have been traditionally observed as an ominous sign and therefore superstitions are prevalent in association with these natural phenomena.
1. All these misconceptions should be removed by explaining scientifically the process of eclipse how it happens: (a) Explain with the help of diagram and models of sun, moon and earth, (b) Explain how special glasses which will protect us from UV rays, and excess heat can be used to observe eclipses safely.
2. Also inform that eclipses are natural phenomena and can be predicted in advance.

Question c.
Various eclipses and the conditions during that period.
Answer:
There are two eclipses:

1. Solar eclipse
2. Lunar eclipse

1. Solar eclipse:
There are two types of Solar eclipse, (a) Total solar eclipse (b) Partial solar eclipse

a. Total solar eclipse: In total solar eclipse, the moon is between the sun and the earth and the moon shadow covers the sun disc fully by perfect alignment. The part of the earth that lies in the umbra of the moon experiences total solar eclipse.

b. Partial solar eclipse: In partial solar eclipse, the moon is between the sun and the earth arid the moon shadow does not cover the sun disc fully, because of imperfect alignment. The part of the earth that lies in the penumbra of the moon experiences partial solar eclipse.

c. The solar eclipse occur on a new moon day.
d. Solar eclipse last for few minutes.

2. Lunar eclipse:
There are two types of Lunar eclipse, (a) Total lunar eclipse (b) Partial lunar eclipse

a. Total lunar eclipse: In total lunar eclipse, the earth comes in between the sun and the moon and the earth’s shadow covers the moon’s surface fully because of perfect alignment.

b. Partial lunar eclipse: In partial lunar eclipse, the earth’s shadow does not cover the moon’s surface fully because of inperfect alignment. A small part of the moon’s surface is covered by umbra part of earth’s shadow.

c. The lunar eclipse occurs on a full moon night.
d. Lunar eclipse last for few hours.

8. Explain the difference:

Question a.
Point sources and Extended sources.
Answer:

Point sources	Extended sources
1. A source of radiation light that is concentrated at a point and considered as having no spatial extension.	1. An extended source is a source consisting of many point sources separated internally.
2. Shadow we get from a point source is dark called umbra.	2. Shadow we get from extended source of light is faint called penumbra and dark called umbra

Question b.
Umbra and Penumbra.
Answer:

Umbra	Penumbra
1. The umbra is a central core of darkness which tapers away.	1. The penumbra is an outer cone of partial shadow which diverges, instead of tapering.
2. Umbra is shadow formed from a point source of light.	2. It is the shadow formed from the extended source of light.
3. It is dark	3. It is faint
4. Umbra is the area of total shadow	4. Penumbra is the area of partial shadow.

Project:

Question a.
Obtain information about the special goggles used to watch a solar eclipse.

Class 7 Science Chapter 17 Effects of Light Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
During solar eclipse ………….. comes between the sun and earth.
Answer:
moon

Question 2.
A solar eclipse is seen only on a ………….. day.
Answer:
new moon day

Question 3.
During lunar eclipse ……………. comes between the sun and the moon.
Answer:
earth

Question 4.
A lunar eclipse is seen only on a ………….. night.
Answer:
full moon

Question 5.
The day on which the sun reaches exactly overhead is called the …………… .
Answer:
zero shadow day

Question 6.
As seen from the earth, when a planet or star passes behind the moon, that state is called a ………….. .
Answer:
occultation

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Sky appears blue to us.
Answer:

1. Sunlight is scattered by the molecules of gases like nitrogen, oxygen in the atmosphere.
2. The blue colour in the sunlight which is at shorter wavelength is scattered the most than other colours and therefore the sky appears blue.

Question 2.
Solar eclipse is either partial or total.
Answer:

1. When the moon comes in between the sun and the earth and the solar disc is corripletely covered by the moon, it is called total solar eclipse.
2. When the solar disc is not covered fully by the moon, it is partial solar eclipse.

Explain the difference:

Question 1.
Solar eclipse and Lunar eclipse.
Answer:

Solar eclipse	Lunar eclipse
1. When the moon comes between the sun and the earth, a shadow of the moon is cast on the earth and sun cannot be seen from the part in shadow. This is called a solar eclipse.	1. When the earth comes between the sun and the moon a shadow of the earth is cast on the moon and a part of the moon in covered this is called the lunar eclipse.
2. A solar eclipse is seen only on a new moon day.	2. A lunar eclipse is seen only on a full moon night.
3. A solar eclipse should never be watched with the naked eye. because ultra violate rays which are harmful to us reach the earth	3. A lunar eclipse can be seen with the naked eye.
4. It can be seen for a few minutes only.	4. It can be seen over a period of a few hours.

Explain diagrams:

Question 1.
Explain Solar eclipse with diagram.
Answer:
Solar eclipse:

1. During its revolution, when the moon comes between the sun and the earth, a shadow of the moon is cast on the earth and the sun cannot be seen from the part in the shadow. This is called a solar eclipse
2. A solar eclipse is seen only on a new moon day.
3. The solar eclipse may be either partial or total,
4. Sometimes the solar disc is completely covered by the moon. This is the total solar eclipse.
5. When the solar disc is not covered fully by the moon, we have a partial solar eclipse.
6. During a solar eclipse, ultra-violet rays which are harmful to us reach the earth.
7. A solar eclipse should never be watched with the naked eye.
8. A special type of goggles should be used for this purpose.
9. Solar eclipse can be seen for a few minutes only.

Question 2.
Explain Lunar eclipse with diagram
Answer:
Lunar eclipse:

1. When the earth comes between the sun and the moon a shadow of the earth is cast on the moon and a part of the moon is covered. This is called the lunar eclipse.
2. A lunar eclipse is seen only on a full moon night. If the whole moon comes in the shadow of the earth, it is a total lunar eclipse.
3. When the shadow of the earth is cast only on a part of the moon, it is a partial lunar eclipse. You can watch a lunar eclipse with the naked eye.
4. A lunar eclipse can be seen over a period of a few hours.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Zero Shadow Day.
Answer:

1. The day on which the sun reaches exactly overhead is called zero shadow day.
2. On this day, at noon, shadow completely disappears.
3. This event can be seen in the region between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N) and at tropic of Capricon (23.5°S).
4. The shadow diminishes and eventually disappears for a while only to reappear later
5. This phenomenon occurs twice every year Mumbai got to witness it on May 14, 2018 last year.

Question 4.
Explain the phenomenon of scattering of light with the help of an experiment.
Answer:

1. When the sun rises our surroundings appear illuminated. The entire sky appears bright.
2. This happens because of the dust and other tiny particles in the air. This is the scattering of sunlight by the tiny particles of the various constituents of air.
3. Had there been no atmosphere, the sky would have appeared dark during the day and of course, the sun would be directly seen.
4. This has been verified by observations from the rockets and satellites which go out of the earth’s atmosphere.

Apparatus: A table lamp with a 60 or 100 W milky bulb (LED will not do), thick black paper, sticking tape, a packing needle, 100/200 ml. glass beaker, milk or milk powder, dropper, spoon, etc.

Procedure: Cover the mouth of the lampshade properly with black paper, using sticking tape. Prick a hole of 1 to 2mm diameter in the center of the paper with the help of the packing needle.

1. Take clear water in the beaker. Light the bulb and place the beaker in contact with the hole.
2. Observe from the front and at an angle of 90°.
3. Now add 2-3 drops of milk to the water and stir. Observe again.
4. A few more drops of milk may have to be added to make the water turbid.
5. A blue tinge is seen when observed along the 90° angle. This is the scattered blue light.
6. Because the blue light is scattered, a red-yellow light is seen from the front, and the hole appears reddish.

Question 5.
Short note on Shadow.
Answer:

1. Shadow is a dark patch formed behind an opaque object when it is placed in the path of light.
2. A shadow is formed only when a light source, an opaque object and a screen are present, e.g. during a lunar eclipse we see a part of the earth’s shadow on the surface of the moon.
3. This happens when the earth, the sun, and the moon are in a straight line with the earth between sun and the moon.
4. Here the sun acts as the light source, the earth as the opaque object and moon as the screen.
5. Shadows are formed due the rectilinear propagation of light.
6. The size and the shape of the shadow depend on the position and orientation of the opaque object between the source of light and the screen.
7. If the distance of the object from the source is decreased, then the size of the shadow increases.
8. If the object is moved away from the source, then the size of the shadow decreases.
9. In older days shadows caused by objects placed in the sun were used to measure time. Such a device is called sun dial.

Use your brain power!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Eclipses and transits which will occur recently.
Answer:

• January 6, 2019 – Partial solar eclipse
• January 21, 2019 – Total Lunar eclipse
• July 2, 2019 – Total solar eclipse
• July 16, 2019 – Partial Lunar eclipse
• December 26, 2019 – Annular solar eclipse.

Find Out:

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
If a few drops of milk are added in the experiment given the reddish colour seen from the front becomes an intense red. However, if many more drops are added the reddish colour is not seen. Why is this so?
Answer:

1. As more and more milk is added, more particles of protein and fat scatter the light and the blue colour is scattered more and more than orange and red light and the beam appears blue from the sides.
2. If few drops of milk are added, along with blue colour, orange and yellow also are scattered and only the intense red is seen from the front.
3. But when many more drops are added, even the red colour is scattered and we do not see any colour from the front.

Question 2.
What is Occultation?
Answer:
As seen from the earth, when a planet or a star passes behind the moon, that state is called an Occultation.

Complete the Chart.

Question 1.

Answer:

• A – Solar B – Lunar
• C – Total Solar
• D – Partial Solar
• E – Total Lunar
• F – Partial Lunar
• G – Moon is not in a straight line between earth and sun
• H – It is in the penumbra region of the moon
• I – The earth comes in between the sun and moon and they are not in a straight line.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Food Safety Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Food Safety

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Food Safety Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following statements by using the correct option from those given below.
(Irradiation, dehydration, pasteurization, natural, chemical)

Question a.
Drying the food grains from farms under the hot sun is called …………. .
Answer:
dehydration

Question b.
Materials like milk are instantly cooled after heating up to a certain high temperature. This method of food preservation is called ……….. .
Answer:
pasteurization

Question c.
Salt is a ……….. type of food preservative.
Answer:
natural

Question d.
Vinegar is a …………. type of food preservative.
Answer:
chemical

2. Answer the following questions in your own words. 

Question a.
How is milk pasteurised?
Answer:
Boil the milk at 80°C for 15 minutes and cool it quickly. This destroys the microbes present in the milk and it can remain for a longer duration. This process is called pasteurization of milk.

Question b.
Why should we not consume adulterated food materials?
Answer:
Different types of adulterants affect our health in different ways. Some adulterants cause abdominal discomfort or poisoning while some may affect the functioning of some organs if consumed over a long period of time or even cause cancer.

Question c.
What precautions do your parents take to keep foodstuffs safe?
Answer:
Our parents take following care to keep foodstuffs safe

1. Drying of grains.
2. Boiling of milk, soups and curries from time to time.
3. Refrigeration of vegetables, fruits, milk and cooked food.
4. Candying of jams.
5. Use natural preservatives like oil, spices, neem leaves, salt, etc.
6. Use chemical preservatives in sauces, ketchups, pickles, jams and squashes.

Question d.
How does food spoilage occur? Which are the various factors spoiling the food?
Answer:
Food spoilage is the process in which food deteriorates to the point in which it is not edible to humans or its quality of edibility becomes reduced.
Following are the factors for spoiling of food:

1. Bacteria causes food to spoil
2. Incorrect storage may spoil the food.
3. Infestation by pests.
4. Chemical reaction takes place in food and it gets spoiled.

Question e.
Which methods of food preservation would you use?
Answer:
I use following methods to preserve the food:

1. Freezing
2. Boiling
3. Salting of pickles
4. drying of grains
5. candying of jams.

3. What shall we do?

Question a.
There are vendors selling uncovered sweet-meats in open places in the market.
Answer:
We should tell them to sell the covered sweets because uncovered sweets are harmful to eat because it contains dust, dirt and germs. And buyers also should not purchase these uncovered sweets.

Question b.
A ‘pani-puriwala’ is serving the panipuri with dirty hands.
Answer:
We should tell him to wear gloves before serving panipuri because dirty hands contain dirt and germs which are harmful to us.

Question c.
We have purchased a large quantity of fruits and vegetables.
Answer:
We should keep them in refrigerator because in refrigerator, due to low temperature, fruits and vegetables do not spoil and biological and chemical reactions in fruits and vegetables are slowed down at low temperature.

Question d.
We need to protect foodstuffs from pests like rats, cockroaches, wall-lizards etc.
Answer:

1. If we do not protect foodstuffs from pests like rats, cockroaches, wall-lizards etc. then the food get spoiled by them and germs carried by them enters into the food.
2. If we eat this food then we may get food poisoning and we fall sick so we need to protect foodstuffs from pests like rat, cockroaches, wall lizards etc.

4. Find the odd-man-out. 

Question a.
Salt, vinegar, citric acid, sodium benzoate.
Answer:
Salt

Question b.
Lakhi dal, brick dust, metanyl yellow, turmeric powder.
Answer:
Turmeric powder

Question c.
Banana, apple, guava, almond.
Answer:
Almond

Question d.
Storing, freezing, settling, drying
Answer:
Storing

5. Complete the chart below.

Question a.

Answer:

Foodstuff	Adulterant
1. Turmeric powder	Metanil yellow
2. Black pepper	Dried papaya seeds
3. Rava	Iron filings
4. Honey	Sugar, water and jaggery

6. Explain why this happens and suggest possible remedies.

Question a.
Qualitative wastage of food.
Answer:
Qualitative wastage of food happens due to wrong methods of protecting food, excessive use of food preservatives, over-cooking, washing the vegetables after cutting them, mis¬handling of fruits like grapes and mangoes, miscalculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers are some of the reasons of qualitative wastage of food.
Possible remedies:

1. Avoid overcooking of food.
2. Store grains and other perishable foodstuffs like vegetables, fruits, milk etc. using proper methods.
3. Wash fruits and vegetables before cutting it.

Question b.
The cooked rice is underdone.
Answer:
Sometimes in a hurry if we cook the rice it is underdone.
Possible remedies: Use proper pressure cooker to cook the rice.

Question c.
The wheat that was bought is a bit moist.
Answer:
Sometimes due to sudden rain, wheat gets a bit moist. Possible remedies: Do not store the moist wheat, it gets spoiled due to fungus so first sundry it and then store in a clean and dry container to avoid microbial growth.

Question d.
The taste of yoghurt is too sour/slightly bitter.
Answer:
The taste of yoghurt is too sour/slightly bitter means it is spoiled. This happens if it is not kept in the refrigerator.
Possible remedies:- Always keep the yoghurt in refrigerator to avoid biological and chemical reactions in food materials.

Question e.
Cut fruits turned black.
Answer:
Fruit contains an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase or tyrosinase that reacts with oxygen. The oxidation reaction basically forms a sort of rust on the surface of fruits so it turns black.
Possible remedies:

1. Coat the fruits with sugar syrup
2. Add lemon juice on fruits.

7. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Food remains safe at 5° Celsius.
Answer:
Food remains safe at 5° Celsius because at 5°C, micro-organisms stop growing.

Question 2.
Nowadays, food is served in buffet style during large gatherings.
Answer:
Nowadays, food is served buffet style during large gatherings because due to buffet style quantitative wastage of food can be avoided, as people take only as much as they could eat.

Project:

Question 1.
Go to your kitchen und take notes about the food safety measures and the food wastage you see there.

Question 2.
In a science exhibition demonstrate the various methods of detecting food adulteration.

Class 7 Science Chapter 5 Food Safety Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by using the correct option from those given below.
(Irradiation, dehydration, pasteurization, natural, chemical)

Question 1.
………………………. is celebrated as “World Food Day”.
Answer:
16th October

Question 2.
FSSAI means ………………………. .
Answer:
Food Safety and Standardization Authority of India

Question 3.
………………………. gas is filled in tight packets of potato wafers.
Answer:
Nitrogen

Question 4.
Common name of acetic acid is ……………………….
Answer:
Vinegar

Question 5.
………………………. is sprayed on the gunny bags containing food grains.
Answer:
Melathion

Question 6.
………………………. is used in smoking method.
Answer:
Aluminium phosphide

Question 7.
………………………. and ………………………. are emitted by radioactive isotopes in irradiation method.
Answer:
X – rays, gamma rays

Question 8.
In Maharashtra, irradiation plants have been installed at ………………………. for onions and potatoes and at for spices and condiments.
Answer:
Lasalgaon, Navi Mumbai

Question 9.
………………………. found the pasteurisation method.
Answer:
Louis Pasteur

Question 10.
………………………. adulterant is added to turmeric powder.
Answer:
Metanyl yellow

Question 11.
………………………. adulterant is added to red chilly powder.
Answer:
Brickdust

Question 12.
………………………. is used to make fruits more attractive.
Answer:
calcium carbide

Question 13.
………………………. and ………………………. harmful chemicals are mixed with cold drinks.
Answer:
carbonated soda, phosphoric acid

Question 14.
Shopkeepers change the of the ………………………. food packets fo avoid a financial loss.
Answer:
expiry date

Question 15.
Milk vendors add ………………………. to the milk to appear as higher fat content.
Answer:
urea

Question 16.
The shelf life of potatoes and onions ………………………. due to slowed-down of sprouting.
Answer:
increases

Question 17.
Serving too much food to guests at traditional feasts and banquets leads to ………………………. wastage of food.
Answer:
Quantitative

Question 18.
Miscalculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers leads to ……………………… . wastage of food.
Answer:
Qualitative

Question 19.
Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called ………………………. .
Answer:
food protection

Question 20.
………………………. is an example of a chemical preservative.
Answer:
Sodium benzoate.

Say whether True or False,, Correct and rewrite the false statement.

Question 1.
To prevent adulteration of food, it is inspected by the “Food and Drug Administration department of the government”.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Overcooking of food increases the quality of food.
Answer:
False. Over cooking of food spoils it

Question 3.
Peanuts become rancid then, it is not good to eat.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Oil and ghee contain fats.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called food wastage.
Answer:
False. Prevention of food spoilage by microbial growth and infestation by pests is called food protection.

Question 6.
Serve yourself only as much as you can eat.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Salt, sugar and oil are naturally available preservatives.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Pickles can be preserved by salting.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Milk vendors add urea to the milk so that it appears to have higher fat content.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Shelf life of fruits and vegetables decreases by gamma rays emitted by radio-active isotopes.
Answer:
False. Shelf life of fruits and ‘ vegetables increases by gamma rays emitted by radioactive isotopes.

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
Refrigerators are used in the kitchen.
Answer:

1. Biological and chemical reactions in food materials are slowed down at low temperature.
2. As a result food remains in good condition for a longer period. Therefore refrigerators are used in the kitchen.

Question 2.
Potatoes and onions are treated with gamma rays.
Answer:
Potatoes and onions are treated with gamma rays because irradiation with gamma rays prevents their wastage due to sprouting and increases their shelf life.

Question 3.
Grains are sun-dried.
Answer:
Grains are sun-dried to preserve them because on sun drying their water content gets reduced and hence they last longer.

Question 4.
We boil milk from time to time.
Answer:
We boil milk from time to time to kill microorganisms in it and thus prevent it from getting spoilt.

Question 5.
Jams or pickles get spoilt if their jars are not sealed properly.
Answer:
If the jar is not sealed properly, micro¬organisms from the air enter in the jar and start growing on the food. Oxygen in the air helps the micro-organisms and fungi to grow faster and hence bring about the spoilage of the jams and pickles.

Question 6.
Some vendors add urea to the milk.
Answer:
Some vendors add urea to the milk so that it appears to have higher fat content.

Question 7.
Food wastage should be avoided.
Answer:
In countries like India, the food requirement is plenty and people do not get proper meals even once in a day. If food is not wasted then it could have met the need of many others. Therefore, food should not be wasted and proper measures should be implemented to stop quantitative and qualitative wastage of food.

Question 8.
Adulterated food should not be consumed.’
Answer:

1. The health of all people is endangered by food adulteration.
2. Different types of adulterants affect our health in different ways.
3. Some adulterants cause abdominal discomfort or poisoning, while some may affect the functioning of some organs if consumed over a long period of time or even cause cancer.

Can you tell?

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How and where food is wasted?
Answer:
Quantitative wastage of food:
1. Wrong methods of farming like hand sowing of, ts seeds, inadequate threshing, improper storage and wrong methods of distribution are some reasons for quantitative wastage of food.

2. Besides, much food is wasted as a result of the custom of offering and serving too much food to guests at traditional feasts or banquets.

3. Had it not been wasted, all this food could have met the need of many others Qualitative wastage of food: Using wrong methods of protecting food, excessive use of food preservatives, over-cooking, washing the vegetables after cutting them, mis-handling of fruits like grapes and mangoes, mis-calculation of the time required to transport food from producers to consumers, are some of the causes of quantitative wastage of food.

Question 2.
How is the food adulterated?
Answer:
Food is adulterated by the following ways:

1. Removal of some important components of food. e.g. removal of fat content of milk, essence of cloves, cardamoms, etc.
2. Mixing of a low quality inedible or cheaper material or harmful colour with food.
3. Mixing of some harmful materials like small stones, fine sand, iron filings, urea, dung of horse, sawdust etc.

How will you find out if food has been adulterated?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Textbook Questions and Answers

1. List the restrictions on the powers of the Government.

Answer:
Restrictions upon the powers of the Government are listed below:

• State should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.
• State shall not deny anybody equality before the law and equal protection of the laws.
• No person shall be deprived of his life.
• State shall not impose any religious taxes.

2. Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’.

Question 1.
The jobs advertised in the newspaper are for men and women both.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Men and women doing the same work in a factory get different wages.
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Government implements various schemes for the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 4.
State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Yes

3. Tell why:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
• Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

4. Say right or wrong. Correct and write the wrong ones:

Question 1.
Not to let the National Flag fall down on the ground.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect the National Flag.

Question 2.
To stand in attention while the National Anthem is playing.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to respect our National Anthem.

Question 3.
To carve or paint our names on the walls of a historic place like a fort.
Answer:
Wrong: It is our Fundamental Duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 4.
To give lesser wages to women than to men for the same work.
Answer:
Wrong: Fundamental Rights put restrictions on the power of the government and one of the restriction states that the state should not discriminate between and among citizens on the basis of gender amongst other things.

Question 5.
To keep public places clean.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty to safeguard public property.

5. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Directive Principles of the Constitution enumerated in the textbook.
Answer:
(i) The State should secure adequate means of livelihood to all citizens without any gender discrimination.

(ii) The State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

(iii) The State should secure the improvement of public health.

(iv) The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(v) The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.

(vi) The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

(vii) The State shall offer public assistance to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, etc.

(viii) The State shall secure a uniform civil code applicable to the entire country.

Question 2.
The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in the Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) The provision of a Uniform Civil Code for citizens in mentioned in the Constitution.

(ii) It aims to replace personal laws based on the customs and scriptures of the different religious communities living in India with a common set of laws, which is uniform to all the citizens of India.

Question 3.
Why is it said that the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin?
Answer:

(i) Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Rights are two sides of the same coin.

(ii) Due to Fundamental Rights, citizens get the most needed liberty, while Directive Principles of State Policy creates an atmosphere conducive to the growth of democracy.

6. What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment ? Write with examples.
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

(i) Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.

(ii) Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.

(iii) Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Activities

• Education is our right. Form groups and discuss our duties in this respect.
• The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance. This is one of the Directive Principles. Find out the efforts made by the State about the conservation and protection of forts and make a chart.
• Gather information about the schemes implemented by the Government for children’s health.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 6 Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Due to citizens get the most needed liberty. (Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties)
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
In order that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities ______ were included in the Constitution.
(Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy)
Answer:
Fundamental Duties

Question 3.
We should perform all the tasks that we have undertaken honestly always striving for ______. (excellence, progress, prosperity)
Answer:
excellence

Question 4.
Fundamental Rights restricts the power of the government to impose any ________. (laws, restrictions, religious taxes)
Answer:
religious taxes

Question 5.
Every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian should provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and _______years. (eighteen, fourteen, seventeen)
Answer:
fourteen

Say ‘Yes’ or ‘No’:

Question 1.
The state should secure the improvement of public health.
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
Public assistance is provided to citizens in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness etc.
Answer:
Yes

Name the following:

Question 1.
Put restriction on the power of the government.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights

Question 2.
Direction or guidelines in the Constitution about how to achieve the goals expressed in the Preamble of the Constitution.
Answer:
Directive Principles of the State Policy

Question 3.
Any two challenges faced by India after independence.
Answer:
Establishing order, carrying out smooth administration.

Question 4.
Any one directive which ensures that there is no gender discrimination.
Answer:
State should secure equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Question 5.
It is our Fundamental Duty to respect these two national symbols.
Answer:
National Flag, National Anthem.

Question 6.
Any one practice we are expected to renounce according to the Fundamental Duties listed in our Constitution.
Answer:
Practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 7.
It is our Fundamental Duty to develop these values.
Answer:
Scientific temper, Humanism, Spirit of inquiry and reform.

Say right or wrong with reason. Correct the write down the corrections:

Question 1.
To sacrifice our life for the sake of our motherland.
Answer:
Right: It is our Fundamental Duty .to defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.

Question 2.
The State protects all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:
Right: It is one of the important Directive Principles of the State Policy.

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
Which restrictions on the power of the government by the Fundamental Rights ensure that no discrimination is practised by the State?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights restrains the State from discriminating between and among citizens on the basis of caste, religion, race, language or gender.

Question 2.
When India got independence, why was it necessary to draw up new policies?
Answer:
When India got independence the task of nation building had to be undertaken and for this new policies had to be drawn up.

Question 3.
What is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy with respect to environment?
Answer:
It is included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forest and wild-life of the country.

Question 4.
What is stated in the Directive Principles of State Policy with respect to weaker sections of the Society?
Answer:
It is stated in the Directive Principles of the State Policy that State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interest of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Tribes.

Question 5.
What is the State expected to secure as per the Directive Principles of State Policy which is applicable to the entire country?
Answer:
The State is expected to secure a Uniform Civil Code applicable to the entire country according to the Directive Principles of State policy.

Question 6.
What can we do if a Directive is not implemented by the Government.
Answer:
If a Directive is not implemented by the Government, we can put pressure on the Government in various ways to make a policy in order to meet the goals.

Question 7.
When will the benefits of the various schemes of the Government not reach all the people?
Answer:
The benefits of the various schemes of the government cannot reach all the people if they do not fulfil their Fundamental Duties.

Question 8.
Why were the Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution?
Answer:
Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution so that the Indian citizens become conscious of their responsibilities.

Question 9.
Why is it mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity?
Answer:
It is mentioned in our Fundamental Duties that we should strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation can constantly rise to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What are the ways in which citizens can conserve the environment?
Answer:
There are various ways in which citizens can conserve the environment:

• Citizens can support the endeavour of the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild-life of the country.
• Citizens should collectively take responsible actions to protect and improve the natural environment we are a part of.
• Citizens should put to an end cruelty towards animals and have compassion for living creatures.

Question 2.
State any five Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens.
Answer:
Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens are as follows:

• To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
• To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• To defend the country, and to render national service when called upon to do so.
• To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood transcending diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Give reason:

Question 1.
The State shall protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Answer:

• It is one of important Directive Principles of State policy.
• Monuments are a part of India’s rich cultural heritage. A rich source to learn history, it is our collective responsibility to protect them.

Question 2.
A pension scheme is implemented for old people.
Answer:

• The pension scheme is the State’s way of offering public assistance to citizens who have retired from work.
• This ensures that the retired person can lead a comfortable life.
  Hence a pension scheme is implemented for old people.

Question 3.
Free and compulsory education has been made available to children in the age group 6 to 14.
Answer:

• No child should be deprived of education. So it is made available.
• Right to Liberty now also includes Right to Education and all children are entitled to get education as a Fundamental right.

Give your own response:

Question 1.
What else do you think the Government should do for students? Make a list of your demands. How would you convince others that your demands are just?
Answer:
The list of our demands are:

• Emphasis on skill training in school.
• Choice of a wide variety of subjects based on one’s interest.
• Compulsory training in a particular Sport.
• Making a foreign language compulsory in the curriculum.
• Better facilities in schools.
• Programme of mid-day meals should be implemented in all the schools in the rural areas.
• Inspection of schools from time to time to check the quality of education imparted.
• I will convince others through dialogues and discussion and go by the will of the majority.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:

• Public toilets: Maintenance from time to time and continuous water supply.
• Clean water supply: Ensuring that water treatment to remove contaminants is done before it reaches homes and other places for consumption.
• Vaccination of children:
• Create awareness among parents about different vaccinations through different media of communication.
• Organise vaccination drives from time to time.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
There is a directive to ensure ‘equal pay for equal work’.
Which principles and ideals of the Constitution will be realised with this directive? Why does it happen that inspite of doing the same work, women are paid less than men?
Answer:
(i) Right to Equality and the assurance that State shall not discriminate among citizens will be realised with this objective.

(ii) Due to lack of awareness of rights and no strict implementation of law, we witness gender discrimination at work.

Observe the Picture and answer the questions given below:

Which of the Fundamental Duties are not being followed in the situations above?

Question 1.
A boy scribbling on a historical structure.
Answer:
The duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question 2.
Hanging lemon, chillies
Answer:
The duty to develop the scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.

Question 3.
Damaging a public bus
Answer:
The duty to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Question 4.
A woman emptying a garbage can on the street.
Answer:
The duty to protect and improve the natural environment.

What do you think?

Question 1.
Girls and boys between the ages 6 and 14 have got the Right to Education. All the girls and boys in this age group should be in school. Yet many girls and boys are not able to go to school because of many reasons. They have to work to help their parents earn a living for the family. Do you think that it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school?
Answer:
No I don’t think it is unfair to such children to insist that they go to school.

(i) Practising child labour is a form of exploitation and we have the Right against Exploitation which extends constitutional protection to children.

(ii) Similarly it is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities of education to his or her child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Question 2.
Which improvements will be possible with the following facilities offered by the Government?
Answer:
(i) Public toilets :

• Public toilets will eradicate open defecation and will improve the overall public health
• As the availability of toilets at close proximity to highway will ensure that people do not face inconvenience while traveling.

(ii) Clean water supply:

• Water is our basic need hence providing clean water is very important
• It will prevent the spread of water borne diseases like cholera, jaundice, etc.

(iii) Vaccination of children:

• Vaccination will improve the health of infants
• Vaccination will reduce the occurrence of diseases like polio in infants

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name the following:

Question 1.
The Queen of Gondvana –
Answer:
Rani Durgavati

Question 2.
The son of Udaysingh –
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 3.
The founder of Mughal dynasty –
Answer:
Babur

Question 4.
The first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom–
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 5.
The fighting force established by Guru Gobindsingh –
Answer:
Khalsa Dal

2. Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Sultan Mahmud, Qutubuddin Aibak, Muhammad Ghuri, Babur
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud

Question 2.
Adilshahi, Nizamshahi, Sultanate,Baridshahi
Answer:
Sultanate

Question 3.
Akbar, Humayun, Shershah, Aurangzeb
Answer:
Shershah

3. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How did the kingdoms of Vijaynagar and Bahamani emerge?
Answer:
(i) During the reign of Sultan Muhammad Tughlaq of Delhi, there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
(ii) From these revolts arose the formidable Vijaynagar and Bahamani kingdoms.

Question 2.
What reforms did Mahmud Gawan make?
Answer:
(i) Mahmud Gawan strengthened the Bahamani kingdom.
(ii) He started paying the soldiers their salary in cash instead of through land grants.
(iii) He brought discipline in the army.
(iv) He introduced many reforms in the land revenue system. He opened a Madarsa at Bidar for Arabic and Persian studies.

Question 3.
Why did it become impossible for the Mughals to strengthen their base in Assam?
Answer:
(i) While Aurangzeb ruled, the Ahoms had a prolonged struggle with the Mughals.
(ii) The Mughals attacked the Ahoms’ region.
(iii) The Ahoms united under the leadership of Gadadharsinha. Commander Lachit Borphukan gave an intense battle against the Mughals.
(iv) The Ahoms used the guerilla technique in the conflict against the Mughals.
(v) It became impossible for Mughals to create a strong base in Assam.

4. Write about them briefly in your own words.

Question 1.
Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
(a) Krishnadevaraya, ascended the throne of Vijaynagar in 1509 CE. He conquered Vijaywada, Rajmahendri and annexed the regions to his kingdom.
(b) He successfully took on the armies of the Sultans who had united under the leadership of the Bahamani Sultan Mahmud Shah.
(c) During his reign the Vijaynagar kingdom extended far and wide.
(d) He built the Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple in Vijaynagar.
(e) A scholar he wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu compendium on polity.
(f) Decline of the Vijaynagar kingdom began with his death in the year 1530 CE.

Question 2.
Chandbibi was murdered.
Answer:
(a) Chandbibi, the capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadnagar, bravely defended the fort displaying courage and valour.
(b) At this time, there was an internal strife among the factions of the Sardars in Nizamshahi’s kingdom resulting in the murder of Chandbibi.

Question 3.
Rani Durgavati
Answer:
(a) Rani Durgavati, bom in the dynasty Chandel Rajput became the queen of Gondvana after her marriage.
(b) She was an excellent administrator. Her struggle against the Mughals is important in Medieval history.
(c) After her husband’s death, Durgavati laid down her life but refused to surrender while fighting against Akbar.

5. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Bahamani Kingdom disintegrated into five fragments.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Mahmud Gawan, factionsim increased among the Bahamani Sardars.
(b) The conflict with the Vijaynagar kingdom had an adverse effect on the Bahamani kingdom.
(c) The provincial Governors began to act more independently. This led to the disintegration of the Bahamani kingdom into five small power-Imadshahi of Varhad, Baridshahi of Bidar, Adilshahi of Bijapur, Nizamshahi of Ahmadnagar and Qutubshahi of Golconda.

Question 2.
Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.
Answer:
(a) After the battle of Panipat, Rana Sanga of Mewad brought all Rajput kings together.
(b) There was a battle between Babur and Rana Sanga at Khanua.
(c) Babur’s artillery and reserved force played a key role in this battle and Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.

Question 3.
Rana Pratap has become immortal in history.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Udaysingh, Maharana Pratap ascended the throne of Mewad.
(b) He continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
(c) Till the very end he struggled with Akbar to maintain his independence.
(d) He has become immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 4.
Aurangzeb imprisoned Guru Tegh Bahadur.
Answer:
(a) Guru Tegh Bahadur, protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
(b) Aurangzeb imprisoned him and beheaded him in 1675.

Question 5.
The Rajputs fought against the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Akbar had secured the cooperation of the Rajputs with his policy of amicable relations.
(b) Aurangzeb could not obtain the cooperation of Rajputs. After the death of Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad, Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
(c) Durgadas Rathod crowned Jaswantsingh’s minor son of Ajitsingh of Marwad.
(d) Durgadas Rathod fought hard against the Mughals and continued his struggle against the Mughals for the existence of Marwad.

6. Complete the timeline.

Answer:

7. Using the internet, find out more about any one of the personalities you have studied here, and fill in the box below.

Activity

Obtain more information about the personalities mentioned in this chapter.Use reference books, the internet, newspapers, etc. Prepare a collage of the pictures information in your activity book and display it in the history cell.

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentences by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
‘Pal’ in the ______ was a famous dynasty in Bengal. (seventh century, eight century, ninth century)
Answer:
eight century

Question 2.
Prithviraj Chauhan belonged to _______ dynasty. (Rajput dynasty, Chauhan dynasty, Chola dynasty)
Answer:
Chauhan dynasty

Question 3.
The _____ period is considered to be the golden period of Marathi language. (Yadava, Rashtrakuta, Chola)
Answer:
Yadava

Question 4.
In the eleventh Century CE, the _____ began to invade India and reached the north-western frontier of India. (Afghans, Mughals, Turks)
Answer:
Turks

Question 5.
______ was the last Sultan and he was defeated by Babur, bringing the Sultanate to an end. (Muhammad Ghuri, Bulban, Ibrahim Lodi)
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodi

Question 6.
Hampi in today’s ______ was the capital of the kingdom of Vijaynagar. (Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu)
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 7.
Krishnadevaraya wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu Compendium on _______. (polity, economics, sociology)
Answer:
polity

Question 8.
______ was the first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom. (Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, Mahmud Gawan, Hasan Gangu)
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 9.
In ______ the Sultanate of Delhi came to an end. (1526 CE, 1556 CE, 1605 CE)
Answer:
1526 CE

Question 10.
_______ was the Governor of Punjab under the Sultanate. (Babur, Ibrahim Lodi, Daulatkhan Lodi)
Answer:
Daulatkhan Lodi

Question 11.
_______ was the most powerful king of the Mughal dynasty. (Shahajahan, Akbar, Jahangir)
Answer:
Akbar

Question 12.
The struggle of Gondvana queen Durgavati against Mughals is important in ______ history. (modern, medieval, ancient)
Answer:
medieval

Question 13.
______ became the emperor in 1658 CE. (Shahajahan, Aurangzeb, Akbar)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Question 14.
In the thirteenth century CE, the people of the Shaan community settled down in the valley of river ______. (Ganga, Brahmaputra, Yamuna)
Answer:
Brahmaputra

Question 15.
The ninth Guru of the Sikhs was ______.(Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 16.
______ organised the Sikh youths into a fighting force called Khalsa Dal. (Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 17.
Akbar had secured the co-operation of the ______ with his policy of amicable relations. (Rajputs, Marathas, Ahoms)
Answer:
Rajputs

Question 18.
In Maharashtra, the ______ Marathas offered stiff resistance to and defended their independence. (Babur, Humayun, Aurangzeb)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Imadshahi	(a) Bidar
(2) Baridshahi	(b) Ahmadnagar
(3) Adilshahi	(c) Golconda
(4) Nizamshahi	(d) Varhad
(5) Qutubshahi	(e) Bijapur

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two important dynasties among the Rajput dynasties in North India.
Answer:
(a) The Gahadwal dynasty
(b) Parmar dynasty

Question 2.
Eminent rulers belonging to the Chola dynasty in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Rajaraj I
(b) Rajendra I

Question 3.
The king belonging to the Hoysala dynasty.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 4.
The King who conquered the whole of Karnataka.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 5.
The Varkari movement emerged in
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 6.
During his reign Rashtrakuta dynasty in Maharashtra the Rashtrakut power spread from Kanauj up to Rameshwar.
Answer:
Govind III

Question 7.
The last prosperous power before the period of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
TheYadavas

Question 8.
The capital of Bhillam V of the Yadava dynasty which was near Aurangabad.
Answer:
Deogiri

Question 9.
The golden period of the Marathi Language.
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 10.
The Arab General attacked the Sindh province in the eighth century.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Qasim

Question 11.
The power which began to invade India in eleventh century CE.
Answer:
The Turks

Question 12.
He invaded India many times and plundered the rich temples at Mathura, Vrindavan Kanauj and Somnath and carried away enormous wealth with him.
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni

Question 13.
In 1775 CE and 1178 CE, the Sultan of Ghur from Afghanistan who invaded India.
Answer:
Muhammad Ghuri

Question 14.
During his reign there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
Answer:
Sultan Muhammad-bin-Tughluque

Question 15.
The brothers from South India who were Sardars in the service of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
(a) Harihar
(b) Bukka

Question 16.
The Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple were built in Vijaynagar during his reign.
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Question 17.
He defeated the army of the Sultan of Delhi.
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 18.
The Chief Wazir of the Bahamani kingdom who started paying the soldiers their salaries in cash instead of giving land grants.
Answer:
Mahmud Gawan

Question 19.
The king of Farghana in Central Asia.
Answer:
Babur

Question 20.
After the battle of Panipat, he brought all Rajput kings together.
Answer:
Rana Sanga of Mewad

Question 21.
After ascending the throne of Mewad, he continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 22.
The capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadn^gar who defended the fort of Ahmadnagar.
Answer:
Chandbibi

Question 23.
The Ahoms united under his leadership.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 24.
The commander who gave intense battle against the Mughals.
Answer:
Commander Lachit Borphukan

Question 25.
The ninth Guru of Sikhs who protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 26.
There was an attempt on the life of Guru Gobind Singh in 1708 CE at this place.
Answer:
Nanded

Question 27.
After his death Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
Answer:
Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad.

Question 28.
In Maharashtra, Swaraj was established under his leadership.
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj

Find out the odd man out:

Question 1.
Gadadharsinha, Rana Jaswantsingh, Durgadas Rathod, Ajit Singh.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 2.
Babur, Humayun, Krishnadevaraya, Jahangir
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the regions upto which the Gurjar- Pratihar power spread.
Answer:
The Gurjar-Pratihar power spread up to Andhra, Kalinga, Vidarbha, West Kathewad, Kanauj and Gujarat.

Question 2.
Which places did the Cholas conquer using their naval strength?
Answer:
The Cholas conquered the Maidive Islands and Sri Lanka using their naval strength.

Question 3.
In which period did the Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerge?
Answer:
The Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerged in the Yadava period.

Question 4.
Why did the Arab rulers turn towards India?
Answer:
The Arab rulers turned towards India to expand their empire.

Question 5.
Write the extent of the kingdom of Vij aynagar during Krishnadevaraya’s reign?
Answer:
During Krishnadevaraya’s reign, the kingdom of Vijaynagar extended from Cuttack in the east up to Goa in the West and from the Raichur Doab in the North up to the Indian Ocean in the South.

Question 6.
Who opposed Akbar when he tried to bring India under his central authority?
Answer:
When Akbar tried to bring India under his central authority he had to face the opposition of Maharana Pratap, Chandbibi and Rani Durgavati.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Maharana Pratap made him immortal in history?
Answer:
Maharana Pratap became immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 8.
Which regions together formed the Gondvana?
Answer:
Gondvana can be broadly said to comprise the eastern part of Vidarbha, part of Madhya Pradesh to its North, the Western part of today’s Chhattisgarh, Northern part of Andhra Pradesh and Western part of Odisha.

Question 9.
How did the Marathas defend their independence?
Answer:
Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Babur invaded India.
Answer:
(a) The reigning Sultan of Delhi at that time was Ibrahim Lodi.
(b) Daulatkhan Lodi, was the governor of Punjab under the Sultanate.
(c) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi was strained.
(d) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march to India. Taking this opportunity, Babur invaded India.

Write briefly in your own words:

Question 1.
The First Battle of Panipat
Answer:
(a) Ibrahim Lodi was the Sultan of Delhi and Daulat Khan Lodi was the Governor of Punjab.
(b) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi became strained.
(c) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march on India.
(d) Taking advantage of this opportunity, Babur invaded India.
(e) To repel Babur’s invasion Ibrahim Lodi started with his army.
(f) There was a battle between Ibrahim Lodi and Babur on 21st April 1526 at Panipat.
(g) Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi’s army. This is known as the First Battle of Panipat.

Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write in brief about the conflict of the Mughals with the Marathas.
Answer:
(i) In Maharashtra, Sivaraj was established under the leadership of Shivaji Maharaj.
(ii) In his efforts to establish Swaraj, Shivaji Maharaj had to fight the Mughals too along with the other enemies.
(iii) Aurangzeb came down to the Deccan after the death of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj with the intention of conquering the whole of South India.
(iv) But the Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Complete the following diagrams:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

S.No	Political Power	Founders / Rulers	Capital

Answer:

S.No	Political Power	Founders / Rulers	Capital
(1)	Yadava	Bhillam V	Deogiri
(2)	Vijaynagar	Harihar & Bukka	Hampi
(3)	Bahamani	Hasan Gangu	Gulbarga
(4)	Mughal	Babur	Delhi

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	……………	…………
(2)	Houses	…………….	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	………….	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	……………	…………….

Answer:

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	Barter system	Coins, Paper money, Plastic money, Currency – Rupee, Cashless transaction through banks.
(2)	Houses	Village Houses: Made with simple mud and bricks. Cities- Wadas with one or two storeys.	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	Bullock cart, Horseback, Boat	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	Tamasha, Ballads on Dap	Music, Drama, Dance, Watching Television, Play, movie, Opera etc.

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Festival	(a) Mankoji
(2) Sport	(b) Bail-Pola
(3) Sculpture	(c) Mallakhamb
(4) Ghat	(d) Ghrishneshwar Temple
(5) Painter	(e) Toke

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Patils	(a) To manage the revenue
(2) The Kulkarni	(b) To protect the village
(3) Black Soil,	(c) Work in an office
(4) White-collared	(d) Farmers

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
She took the charge of the Indore administration.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 2.
The most capable and brave man in Nagpurkar Bhosale family.
Answer:
Raghuji

Question 3.
He reinstated the Emperor on the throne of Delhi.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 4.
He managed politics in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

2. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Ashti.
• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

Answer:

• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The battle of Ashti.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

3. Write briefly:

Question 1.
The work done by Ahilyabai Holkar.
Answer:

• She created new laws for agricultural tax and tax recovery.
• She brought barren land under cultivation.
• Dug wells for farmers.
• She promoted trade and industry.
• Built water reservoirs.
• She constructed mandirs, ghats, matts and dharamshalas.
• Provided water facilities over India.
• She brought cultural integration in the country.

Question 2.
The valour shown by Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
(a) He played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha power in the North after the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat.

(b) He realised that guerilla tactics would not be any more useful so he trained and modernised his army under a French military expert de Boigne.

(c) With this trained army, he defeated the Rohillas, the Jats, the Rajputs and the Bundellas.

(d) Mahadji managed the difficult affairs with strong determination and looked after the Delhi affairs during CE 1784 to CE 1794.
The Mughal Emperor honoured him with the title Vakil-i-Mutlak.

Question 3.
The Maratha rule in Gujarat.
Answer:
(a) General Khanderao Dabhade and his son laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat.

(b) After the death of Khanderao, his wife Umabai took the charge, bravely fought the battle with Mughal Sardar at Ahmadabad and captured a fort.

(c) The Gaikwads made Vadodara their centre of power.

4. Discuss the reasons behind the end of the Maratha rule.
Answer:
The reasons behind the end of Maratha rule were:

(a) After the death of Mahadji Shinde and Nana Phadnavis, the Maratha power started declining.

(b) Raghunathrao’s son, Bajirao II the Peshwa did not have leadership qualities which could create solidarity among the Maratha Sardars.

(c) Maratha power got weakened due to these differences among the Maratha Sardars.

(d) The supremacy of the Marathas declined in the North and the South during the period of Bajirao II.

(e) The British dethroned the Maratha power and became the rulers

Activity:

Create a pictorial chart to show the families that contributed to the expansion of the Maratha power. Exhibit it in your school.

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Gaikwads made _______ in Gujarat a seat of their power. (Vadodara, Ahmadabad, Surat)
Answer:
Vadodara

Question 2.
_____ was the founder of the Holkar rule in Indore. (Mahadji, Malharrao, Raghunathrao)
Answer:
Malharrao

Question 3.
_____ managed to take care of the politics in the South. (Nana Phadnavis, Kanhoji, Khanderao)
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 4.
________ strengthened the naval power of Shivaji. (Patwardhan, Bhosale of Nagpur,Kanhoji Tulaji Angre)
Answer:
Kanhoji Tulaji Angre

Question 5.
During the reign of _____ there was a complete breakdown of the Maratha power. (Ahilyabai, Bhosale, Bajirao-ll)
Answer:
Bajirao-ll

Question 6.
_____ laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat. (Khanderao Dabhade, Madhavrao, Raghuji)
Answer:
Khanderao

Question 7.
Malharrao Holkar was well versed in ________ (Sword fighting, Martial art, Guerrilla Warfare)
Answer:
Guerrilla warfare

Question 8.
The British managed to get the rights of the _______ of the Bengal region. (Diwani, Chauthai, Sardeshmukhi)
Answer:
Diwani

Question 9.
Delhi was under the influence of Maratha power till ______. (1803 CE, 1807 CE, 1819 CE)
Answer:
1803 CE

Question 10.
British defeated the Marathas in the battle of Ashti in Solapur in _________. (CE 1818, CE 1820, CE 1814)
Answer:
1818 CE

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Khanderao Dabhade’s wife	(a)  Raghuji Bhosale
(2) The most capable and brave Maratha Sardar.	(b) Umabai
(3) Mahadji’s death	(c) Akhilyabai Holkar
(4) She played a role in the judiciary	(d) Wanawadi (e) Wadgaon

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one word:

Question 1.
Title conferred to Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
Vakil-i-Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor)

Question 2.
An expert in guerilla tactics.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 3.
She was the wife of Khanderao, Malharrao’s son.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 4.
Managed the supremacy in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 5.
Peshwa who didn’t have leadership qualities.
Answer:
Bajirao II

Question 6.
Appointed as Sardar in the North.
Answer:
Ranoji Shinde

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which regions were given as jagirs to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj?
Answer:
Varhad and Gondawan were given to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj.

Question 2.
What rights were assigned to Raghuji?
Answer:
Raghuji Bhosale was assigned the Chauthai rights of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.

Question 3.
Who laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat?
Answer:
Khanderao Dabhade and his son Trimbakrao laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat.

Question 4.
Why did Mahadji Shinde train his army?
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde trained his army because the Marathas generally used the guerrilla tactics in 1 the hilly regions of the South. But would not be
suitable in the plains of the North.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Punyashloka Ahilyabai?
Answer:
(a) Punyashloka Ahilyabai ruled for twenty-eight years and enhanced the Maratha prestige in the North.
(b) She brought peace and order in her kingdom and made her people happy.

Question 6.
What was crystal clear amongst the British and Marathas?
Answer:
It was crystal clear that whoever will rule India will be ultimately decided by the war between the Marathas and the British.

Give reason:

Question 1.
Mahadji Shinde conferred the title of Vakil-i- Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor).
Answer:
British wanted to take the Delhi Emperor in their captivity. Even though the conditions were unfavourable, Mahadji Shinde defeated the British and again reinstated the Emperor on the throne. The Emperor was pleased with his bravery and conferred the title of Vakili- Mutlak. (Chief Agent of the Emperor).

Question 2.
The Maratha Sardars became successful in establishing the supremacy in North and South India.
Answer:
After the death of Madhavrao Peshwa, the Maratha Empire went in a disarray, Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde brought it back to normal. Mahadji was busy in the North to establish the supremacy of Marathas, Nana Phadnavis managed to take care of the politics in South. Leadership and capability helped the Maratha power to reach to a new pinnacle. Hence the Maratha Sardar became successful in establishing the supremacy in north and south India.

Question 3.
The supremacy of Marathas in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.
Answer:
Bajirao II became the Peshwa. He didn’t have any leadership qualities. On the contrary he had many vices. He couldn’t create solidarity amongst the Maratha Sardars. Because of many such reasons, the supremacy of the Maratha power in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Malharrao Holkar
Answer:

• He was the founder of the Holkar rule at Indore.
• He served the Maratha kingdom for a long time.
• He was expert in guerilla warfare.
• He proved his valour in the eras of Bajirao I and Nanasaheb Peshwa.
• He played a major role in establishing the supremacy of the Marathas in Malwa and Rajputana.
• He greatly helped Madhavrao Peshwa in re-establishing the Maratha supremacy after the defeat at Panipat.

Question 2.
Mahadji Shinde
Answer:

• Madhavrao Peshwa was conferred the title of Vakil-i-Mutlak by the Emperor. He was brave and an astute statesmen.
• After the Maratha defeat at Panipat, he played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha dominance and prestige in the Northern India.
• He realised that the guerilla tactics of Marathas would not be useful in the plains of the northern region.
• He trained his army under the French military expert de-Boigne and updated his artillery.
• With the help of his trained army, he subdued the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs, Bundellas, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write about the following:

Question 1.
The Constitution prevents the imposition of religious taxes.
Answer:

• State cannot impose religious taxes that might be used to encourage a particular religion. That is, our Constitution forbids religious taxes.
• This is done in order to broaden the scope of religious freedom.

Question 2.
What is meant by Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:

• In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies is also a fundamental right.
• This is called the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
• This means providing legal remedies in case people’s rights get violated.
• So, it becomes a Constitutional duty of the courts to protect the rights of the people.

2. Find one appropriate word:

Question 1.
Protection from illegal arrest and detention.
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 2.
To restrain a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled.
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 3.
The order of the Supreme Court or the High Court commanding the government to perform an action that is its duty to perform.
Answer:
Mandamus

Question 4.
The order preventing a Subordinate Court from exceeding its jurisdiction.
Answer:
Prohibition.

3. State the reason why we are free to practise the following:

Question 1.
All Indian citizens can celebrate all festivals joyfully, because
Answer:

• In India, we have a great diversity of festivals. Our Constitution has given the different communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• This is guaranteed by our Constitution by giving the citizens the Right to Freedom of Religion.
• So we are free to celebrate all festivals joyfully.

Question 2.
We can make efforts towards the preservation and propagation of our language, its script and literature, because…
Answer:

• Cultural and Educational Rights in our Constitution gives the communities the right to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
• So we are free to make efforts towards preservation and propagation our language, its script and literature

4. Fill in the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
We can approach the ______ in case of infringement of our rights (Court, Police, Government)
Answer:
Court

Question 2.
________ education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that get aid from the state. (Political, Religious, Racial)
Answer:
Religious

Class 7 Civics Chapter 5 Fundamental Rights Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
_____ right provides freedom to establish institutions for religious reasons. (Right to Religion, Cultural and Educational Rights, Right to Constitutional remedies)
Answer:
Right to Religion

Question 2.
_____ is the right which gives people freedom to preserve their own language, script and literature. (Right to Freedom of Religion, Right to Equality, Cultural and Educational Rights)
Answer:
Cultural and Educational Rights

Question 3.
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights and this is called _______.(violation of our rights, infringement of our rights, deprivation of our rights)
Answer:
infringement of our rights

Question 4.
The writ which ensures protection from unlawful arrest and detention is ________. (Mandamus, Certiorari, Habeas Corpus)
Answer:
Habeas Corpus

Question 5.
The writ which prevents a subordinate court from exceeding its jurisdiction is _____. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Certiorari)
Answer:
Prohibition

Question 6.
The writ which restrains a person from acting in an office to which he is not entitled is ________. (Prohibition, Quo Warranto, Mandamus)
Answer:
Quo Warranto

Question 7.
The writ which orders removal of a lawsuit from a subordinate court to superior court is ______. (Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari)
Answer:
Certiorari

Question 8.
There are ______, protection available for judicial rights. (judicial, religious, educational)
Answer:
judicial

Question 9.
There are _______ official languages in Indian Constitution. (22, 28, 24)
Answer:
22

Question 10.
While considering fundamental rights, we also need to remember our _______. (duties, belief, self-interest)
Answer:
duties

Answer in one or two sentence:

Question 1.
In which educational institutions is it not allowed to make religious education compulsory?
Answer:
Religious education cannot be made compulsory in educational institutions that receives aid from the state.

Question 2.
In which aspects of social life of our country do we witness diversity?
Answer:
We can see that there is a great diversity of festivals, food and ways of life in the social life of our country.

Question 3.
Write any one right given to the different communities to preserve their cultural uniqueness.
Answer:
The communities can establish institutions for the development of their language.

Question 4.
Which Fundamental Right ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies is the Fundamental Right which ensures that there is no encroachment on our Fundamental Rights.

Question 5.
What is called an infringement of our rights?
Answer:
Sometimes the rights that are guaranteed to us by the Constitution may get encroached upon and we are not able to exercise our rights. This is called an infringement of our rights.

Question 6.
What does protection of Fundamental Rights by the courts ensure?
Answer:
Protection of Fundamental Rights by courts ensure that the citizens are able to exercise their Fundamental Rights and that they can fulfil their roles as alert, responsible and active citizens.

State the reason why we are free to practice the following:

Question 1.
We can move to court if there is encroachment of Fundamental Rights because….
Answer:
(i) In case of encroachment of Fundamental Rights, the Indian citizens have the right to get judicial remedies.

(ii) The Right to Constitutional Remedies is a Fundamental Right. So we can move the court if there is an encroachment on Fundamental Rights.

Write about the following:

Question 1.
what is each Indian free to practise?
Answer:
According to Right to Freedom of Religion, each Indian citizen is free to practise any religion and to establish institutions for religious reasons.

Question 2.
What right has our Constitution given to different communities?
Answer:

• One of our Fundamental Rights is Cultural and Educational Rights.
• Our Constitution has given the different communities the rights to preserve their cultural uniqueness.

Question 3.
What does the court do if there is infringement of our rights?
Answer:
The court considers our complaint, investigates it and in case it is convinced that rights have indeed been infringed upon and injustice has been done to the aggrieved individual, the court gives an appropriate verdict.

Question 4.
Give some instances which illustrate the infringement of rights:
Answer:
Some instances of infringement of rights are:

• Arresting an individual without reason.
• Preventing a person from leaving a village or a town without giving a valid reason.
• Refusing food, water or medicines to jail inmates.

Let’s us discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
Currently there are 22 scheduled languages in India.

Question 2.
Which institutions have been established by the Maharashtra State Government for the further development of the Marathi language?
Answer:
Some institutions established by Maharashtra State Government for the further development of Marathi language are:

• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Nathya Parishad.
• Maharashtra Sahitya Parishad – Pune.
• Rajya Marathi Vikas Sanstha.
• Akhil Bharatiya Marathi Sahitya Mahamandal.

Question 3.
Is the reaction of this Government official right or wrong?
An officer tells a woman who presents all the documents for getting the benefits of a scheme i for destitutes, “You don’t look like a destitute” and refuses her the benefits of the scheme. In this instance, do you think the woman’s right has been infringed? Where should she go to get redressal?
Answer:

• The reaction of this government official is incorrect since the woman has presented all the documents pertaining to the scheme.
• This is encroachment of her Fundamental Rights.
• She should move to court and lodge a complaint and seek constitutional remedy for infringement of her rights.

Find out and discuss:

Question 1.
How many official languages are listed in the Constitution?
Answer:
The Eight schedules of the Constitution consists,of the following 22 languages:

1. Assamese
2. Bengali
3. Gujarati
4. Hindi
5. Kannada
6. Kashmiri
7. Konkani
8. Malayalam
9. Manipuri
10. Marathi
11. Nepali
12. Oriya
13. Punjabi
14. Sanskrit
15. Sindhi
16. Tamil
17. Telugu
18. Urdu
19. Bodo
20. Santhali
21. Maithili
22. Dogri.

Question 2.
Do you think that all the work of the government and the courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra? What should be done to do so?
Answer:
Yes, I do think that all the work of the government and courts should be done in Marathi in Maharashtra since Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra To achieve this

• Marathi, as well as non-Marathi speakers working in the government organizations and courts, should be given formal training in Marathi.
• Workshops can be conducted to train people for conversing and corresponding in Marathi.
• What should be done at the school – level

Question 3.
for the development of your language and culture?
Answer:

• Schools should encourage reading of books written in the respective language.
• School should make students acquainted with different fors of literature.
• School should establish a language club.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
(i) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(ii) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

(iii) These rights are Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
Name the awards that are conferred by the Government upon people for their distinguished contribution in different fields.
Answer:
Padmashree, Padmabhushan, Padmavibhushan.

Question 3.
Why is it prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places?
Answer:
(i) Employing children under 14 years of age in hazardous places can be dangerous. Children may be grievously injured and they may even lose their life.

(ii) To prevent the exploitation of children and ban oppression of any kind, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

Question 4.
Why has the Constitution given equal rights to all citizens?
Answer:
(i) We get rights at birth. Every newborn baby has a right to live.

(ii) The entire society and government takes efforts to ensure that the baby is in the best of health.

(iii) Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will they be able to develop their skills and qualities.

(iv) Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

(v) The Indian Constitution has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create this conducive atmosphere.

2. Prepare a picture strip on the right to liberty
Answer:

3. Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
Government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds

4. Complete the following graphical description.

Answer:

Activities:

• Collect news clippings about certain important rights like the right to information, right to education, etc.
• If you find small children working on construction sites in your neighbourhood, talk to them and their parents about their problems and present the problems in your class.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

Do this:

Following are the actions of A, B and C. Which kind of freedom do you connect them with?

Question 1.
‘A’ established ‘Adivasi Co-operation Forum’ to solve the problems of the tribal people.
Answer:
Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 2.
‘B’ decided to move his father’s bakery production from Goa to Maharashtra.
Answer:
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.

Question 3.
‘C’ found some lacunae in the new tax policy of the Government. He wrote an artide about it and sent it to a newspaper for publication.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression.

Let’s discuss:

Question 1.

• Children are not employed here.
• Workers are paid daily here.

You see such boards in shops and hotels. In what way are they related to the Fundamental rights in the Constitution?
Answer:
They ensure that the Right against Exploitation mentioned in the Constitution is honoured and the right is not denied to the workers and children.

Question 2.
You must be aware of children’s rights. Can you name two important rights of children?
Answer:
(a) Right to Protection:

• Right to be protected from all sorts of violence.
• Right to be protected from physicaL and sexual abuse.
• Right to be protected from dangerous drugs.

(b) Right to Development

• Right to education
• Right to learn
• Right to relax and play
• Right to all forms of development – emotional, mental and physical.

Question 3.
Can rights be taken away?
Answer:
No, the rights cannot be taken away by anyone.

Question 4.
If rights are taken away, who should we contact for redressal?
Answer:
If rights are taken away one may appeal in the courts to seek justice for the same.

Question 5.
If the pet animals could speak, what rights do you think they would ask from you?
Answer:

• The right to roam around freely, wherever and whenever they wish.
• Right to expression
• Right to eat whatever they want whenever they want.

Question 6.
What are the advantages of equality before law and equal protection of the law?
Answer:

• There is no discrimination among citizens as superior – inferior, as men-women or while extending any protections like protection from arrest without a warrant.
• There is no discrimination among the citizens on the basis of religion, caste, race, sex, place of birth or residence.
• The inhuman practice of untouchability has been abolished in order to establish equality in the Indian society.
• Titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc. have also been abolished.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 4 Fundamental Rights Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The ______ has guaranteed equal rights to all citizens in order to create a conducive atmosphere.(Indian judiciary, Indian Government, Indian Constitution)
Answer:
Indian Constitution

Question 2.
We have protection from arrest without _______. (prior intimation, proof, warrant)
Answer:
warrant

Question 3.
________ gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of an individual. (Right to Equality, Right to Liberty Right against Exploitation)
Answer:
Right to Liberty

Question 4.
______ implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living. (Right against Exploitation, Right to
Liberty, Right to Life)
Answer:
Right to Life

Question 5.
All children between 6 and ______ years of age are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right. (11,10,14)
Answer:
14

Question 6.
It is prohibited to employ children under _______ years of age in hazardous places. (10,14,16)
Answer:
16

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Right to Equality	(a) liberties necessary from the point of view of individuals
(2) Right to Liberty	(b) bans all types of oppression.
(3) Right against	(c) No discrimination
Exploitation	amongst citizens.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Name the following:

Question 1.
The equal rights guaranteed to all citizens by the Indian Constitution in order to create a conducive atmosphere for the development of the self and the entire society.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
According to this right, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior- interior or men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody.
Answer:
Right to Equality.

Question 3.
The State cannot discriminate against any citizen on these grounds for government employment.
Answer:
Religion, caste, race, sex, descent or place of birth or religion.

Question 4.
This inhuman practice that was prevalent in our country has been abolished by law.
Answer:
Untouchability.

Question 5.
These titles have been abolished as it creates artificial hierarchy among people.
Answer:
Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur.

Question 6.
Any two freedoms we enjoy as Indian citizens.
Answer:
Freedom of Speech and Expression, Freedom to Assemble Peacefully.

Question 7.
The new right included in the Right to Liberty.
Answer:
Right to Education.

Question 8.
Children between this age group are entitled to get education as a Fundamental Right.
Answer:
6-14 years.

Question 9.
Two places where children cannot be made to work.
Answer:
Factories, Mines.

Question 10.
It implies getting a guarantee to live and availability of a conducive environment for living.
Answer:
Right to Life.

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
When will individual be able to develop their skills and qualities?
Answer:
Only when all individuals get protection from injustice, exploitation, discrimination and deprivation, will the individuals be able to j develop their skills and qualities.

Question 2.
What does demanding one’s rights imply?
Answer:
Demanding one’s rights is insisting on creating an atmosphere conducive to the development of the self as well as the entire society.

Question 3.
What does the Right to Education ensure?
Answer: Right to Education ensures that no child between the age of 6 and 14 will be deprived of education.

Question 4.
Which are the different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them are different forms of exploitation which are prevented through Right against Exploitation

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Right to Equality
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality, the State cannot discriminate among citizens as superior-inferior or a men-women and cannot give different treatment or privileges to anybody. The same law applies equally to all. Many laws give protection. For example, we have protection from arrest without warrant. The State cannot discriminate even while extending such protection.

Question 2.
Right to Liberty
Answer:
This is a very important right given by the Constitution. It gives a guarantee of all the liberties necessary from the point of view of the individual. As Indian citizens, we have the right to:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
• Freedom to practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.

Question 3.
Right against Exploitation
Answer:
(i) The right against exploitation implies the right to prevent exploitation.

(ii) While the Constitution has banned all types of oppressions through the right against exploitation, it has made a special provision to prevent the exploitation of children.

(iii) Accordingly, it is prohibited to employ children under 14 years of age in hazardous places.

(iv) Children cannot be employed or made to work in factories and mines.

(v) Exploitation includes bonded labour or forcing somebody to work against his wish, treating somebody like a slave, denying them legitimate compensation, making them do excessive or strenuous work, starving them or ill-treating them.

(vi) Generally women, children, the weaker sections of society and powerless people are exploited.

(vii) This right enables us to stand up against any kind of exploitation.

Correct and rewrite the following sentences:

Question 1.
No one gets rights at birth.
Answer:
We get rights at birth.

Question 2.
The government can deprive you of a job by discriminating on the basis of religion, sex, place of birth while giving government jobs.
Answer:
According to the Right to Equality mentioned in our Constitution the State cannot discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, sex, place of birth or other grounds.

Question 3.
People can have titles like Raja, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc.
Answer:
The Constitution has abolished titles like Raja,, Maharaja, Raobahadur etc., that create aq artificial hierarchy among people.