Category: Class 8

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
The State of …………….. was formed on 1 May, 1960.
(a) Goa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(d) Maharashtra

Question 2.
…………….. put forth the proposal of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai in the Mumbai Municipal Corporation.
(a) G. T. Madkholkar
(b) Acharya Atre
(c) D. V. Potdar
(d) Shankarrao Dev
Answer:
(b) Acharya Atre

Question 3.
…………….. accepted the responsibility as first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan
(b) Pruthviraj Chavan
(c) Shankarrao Chavan
(d) Vilasrao Deshmukh
Answer:
(a) Yashwantrao Chavan

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti came to be established.
Answer:

1. The demand for a state of Marathi speaking people of all regions was put forth in the Nagpur Pact in 1953.
2. There was no positive response from the Central Government for formation of Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai.
3. The agitation was made severe through strikes, demonstrations, rallies, etc. which were organised from time to time.
4. As the issue of the demand of Marathi speaking people started becoming complicated, discontent spread throughout the state.
5. A meeting was held under the leadership of Keshavrao Jedhe on 6 February, 1956 at Tilak Smarak Mandir in Pune and the Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti was formed.

Question 2.
The role of newspapers was important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:

1. The role of newspapers was equally important in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement. They worked to awaken the people.
2. Navyug, Prabhat, Navakal, Sakai, Prabodhan, Kesari are newspapers which played important role.
3. The ‘Maratha’ newspaper by Acharya Atre had a significant role in Samyukta Maharashtra movement.
4. Balasaheb Thackeray took pen name ‘Mavla’ and drew caricatures in ‘Navyug’.
5. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening on a large scale through their writings.

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Samyukta Maharashtra Parishad:
Answer:

1. On 12 May 1946, a resolution was passed regarding Samyukta Maharashtra in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon.
2. On this background, Maharashtra Ekikaran Parishad was convened under the leadership of Shankarrao Dev at Mumbai on 28 July.
3. A resolution was passed that all Marathi speaking regions should be united in one state.
4. It should include the regions of Mumbai, Central provinces Marathwada and Gomantak.

Question 2.
Contribution of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti:
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti f contributed in the following way to form Samyukta Maharashtra.
1. Samyukta Maharashtra movement spread throughout the state and reached in rural areas.
2. Common people also joined the movement spontaneously.
3. When it was clear that Mumbai will not be included in Maharashtra, Samiti held demonstrations to protest and arouse public agitation.
4. The grand success of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti in Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha and Mumbai Municipal Corporation in 1957 made it clear that the voters were in favour of Samyukta Maharashtra.
5. The agitations led by Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru made the approach of Central Government favourable in the formation of Maharashtra state.

4. Complete the following diagram.

Question 1.

Answer:

Do you Know?

Contribution of Marathi newspapers and Shahirs: In this movement the role of newspapers was important. Prabodhan, Kesari, Sakal, Navakal, Navyug, Prabhat many such newspapers worked for awakening of the people. Acharya Atre started the ‘Maratha’ newspaper which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Balasaheb Thackeray took up the pen name ‘Mavia’ and drew caricatures to make the movement comprehensive. Lokshahir Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D.N.Gavankar through their writings aroused public awakening on a large scale.

Project:

Collect information about the personalities who greatly contributed to the formation of Maharashtra and prepare a project based on it with the help of your teachers.

Class 8 History Chapter 14 Formation of State of Maharashtra Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
………………… organised rallies to protest against the report of JVP Committee.
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) P. K. Atre
(c) Senapati Bapat
(d) Prabodhankar Thackeray
Answer:
(c) Senapati Bapat

Question 2.
…………….. established Dar Commission for forming linguistic province.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Yashwantrao Chavan
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
According to 1953 Pact, Assembly session would be held once in a year at …………….
(a) Pune
(b) Mumbai
(c) Nagpur
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(c) Nagpur

Question 4.
Police used lathi charge and tear …………….. gas on the March led by
(a) Bhai Madhavrao Bagal
(b) Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange
(c) S.M. Joshi
(d) Senapati Bapat
Answer:
(d) Senapati Bapat

Question 5.
Acharya Atre started the newspaper …………….. which played an important role in Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
(a) Navyug
(b) Prabodhan
(c) Maratha
(d) Navakal
Answer:
(c) Maratha

Name the following:

Question 1.
Demanded reconstruction of a state based on language in 1915.
Answer:
Lokmanya Tilak

Question 2.
Commission which advocated bilingual Mumbai.
Answer:
‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’

Question 3.
Samiti established at Tilak Smarak Mandir, Pune.
Answer:
Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti

Question 4.
The Act passed by the Parliament in April 1960.
Answer:
Mumbai Reorganisation Act.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What was the appeal made by Shankarrao Dev in the meeting held on Kamgar Maidan?
Answer:
Shankarrao Dev appealed to the people in the following words, “We will oppose the separation of Mumbai from Maharashtra up to our last breath.”

Question 2.
What was the suggestion given by the Commission for Reconstruction of States?
Answer:
The Commission for Reconstruction of States suggested creation of bilingual Mumbai State.

Question 3.
What was the resolution proposed by S. M. Joshi on 7 November, 1955 at the meeting of labourers?
Answer:
At the meeting of the labourers on 7 November, 1955 S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution that Samyukta Maharashtra should be created with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 4.
Where was the memorial of 106 martyrs erected? What is it called?
Answer:
The memorial of 106 martyrs was erected in Mumbai near Flora Fountain. It is called ‘Flutatma Smarak.’

Question 5.
Who played an important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:
Acharya P K. Atre, Madhu Dandavate, Prabodhankar Keshav Thackeray, Y. K. Souni played important role in establishing Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.

Question 6.
Name the lokshahirs who aroused awakening among people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
Answer:
Lokshahirs Annabhau Sathe, Shahir Amar Sheikh and Shahir D. N. Gavankar aroused public awakening among the people during Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.

Do as Directed:

Complete the following diagram:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Dar Commission:
Answer:

1. The President of Constituent Assembly, Dr. Rajendra Prasad established the Dar Commission on 17 June, 1947.
2. The Commission started the work under the leadership of Justice S. K. Dar to form states on linguistic basis.
3. On 10 December, 1948, the report of Dar Commission was published but the issue remained unsolved.

Question 2.
Commission for Reconstruction of States:
Answer:

1. Indian Government appointed a ‘Commission for Reconstruction of States’ on 29 December, 1953.
2. It was formed under the Chairmanship of Justice Fazal Ali.
3. In the proposal presented by the commission on 10 October, 1955, a creation of bilingual Mumbai State was advocated.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What started the demand for an independent state of Marathi speaking people?
Answer:

1. The demand for an independent Marathi speaking state started before independence.
2. N. C. Kelkar presented the idea that the entire Marathi speaking population should be under one dominion.
3. In 1915, Lokmanya Tilak demanded the reconstruction of a state based on language.
4. An important resolution regarding Samyukta Maharashtra was passed in the Sahitya Sammelan at Belgaon. It began the movement to form Independent state of Marathi speaking people.

Question 2.
Write information on the workers meeting held on 7 November, 1955.
Answer:

1. The struggle of Marathi speaking people for formation of Maharashtra with Mumbai had started.
2. On 7 November, 1955 a meeting of labourers was held.
3. Labour Organisation or Communists, Praja Socialists, Socialists, Peasants and Workers Party, Janasangh, etc. participated in the meeting.
4. Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange was the President of this meeting.
5. S. M. Joshi proposed a resolution to create a Samyukta Maharashtra with Mumbai and Vidarbha.

Question 3.
What were the provisions in the Nagpur Pact?
Answer:
The following provisions were made in the Nagpur Pact:

1. Samyukta Maharashtra should be formed including Western Maharashtra 8 and Vidarbha along with Marathwada.
2. Assurance was given regarding equitable financial provisions for development.
3. Ample finance will be provided for technical and vocational education.
4. Government services will be provided in accordance with the population in the region.
5. Once in a year an Assembly session will be held at Nagpur.

Question 4.
What happened on the day a grand march was taken to Vidhan Sabha?
Answer:

1. For the formation of Samyukta Maharashtra, a grand march was taken to the Vidhan Sabha led by Senapati Bapat.
2. The government declared a ban.
3. The police started lathi charge and used tear gas on the protestors who broke the ban.
4. On the same evening, Comrade Shripad Dange guided a mob of fifty thousand on Kamgar Maidan.
5. To give impetus to the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, it was further decided to hold one day strike on 21 November, 1955.

Question 5.
Which events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state?
Answer:
The following events took place in the final stages of establishment of Maharashtra state:

1. Due to agitation of Samyukta Maharashtra Movement, central government gave consent to the formation of two linguistic states.
2. The Congress President, Indira Gandhi also supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
3. In April 1960, the Parliament passed the Mumbai Reorganisation Act.
4. According to this act, Maharashtra State was formed on 1st May, 1960.
5. Pandit Nehru on the occasion of Labour Day made a formal announcement of the formation of Maharashtra State at a special ceremony at Raj Bhavan.
6. Yashwantrao Chavan accepted the responsibility of first Chief Minister of Maharashtra.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Severe response was seen 9, throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.
Answer:

1. The Congress appointed a three ministers committee on 29 December, 1948 to study the conditions of creating linguistic provinces.
2. The report suggested that Congress accepted the concept of linguistic state in principle but the time was not proper for it.
3. Due to this, severe response of the people was seen throughout Maharashtra against JVP Committee report.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
How did the Central Government favour Maharashtra’s movement under the leadership of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti?
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was going to unveil statue of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj mounted on a horse on Pratapgad on 30 November, 1957.
2. Under the leadership of Bhai Madhavrao Bagal, Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti held huge demonstrations.
3. Leaders like S. M. Joshi, N. G. Gore, Jayantrao Tilak, R K. Atre participated in the protest at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur.
4. Pandit Nehru became aware of sentiments of the Marathi speaking people.
5. The Congress President Indira Gandhi supported the Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
6. Finally, the Central government gave consent for formation of two states-Gujarat and Maharashtra from former Mumbai (Bombay) state

Question 2.
Observe the given picture and identify. Write about his contribution in Samyukta Maharashtra.

Answer:

1. This picture is of Acharya R K. Atre. He made important contribution to Samyukta Maharashtra Movement.
2. He played important role in formation of Samyukta Maharashtra Samiti.
3. He presented and supported the pro- united Maharashtra Movement through his newspaper ‘Maratha’.
4. He was in the forefront of the demonstrations at Pasarni Ghat and Poladpur during the visit of Prime Minister Pandit Nehru at Pratapgad.

Question 3.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of linguistic reorganisation of states?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. The feeling of unity is very strong among the people speaking common language.
2. It guarantees social security.
3. It facilitates communication between people.
4. It helps in achieving linguistic and cultural unity.

Disadvantages:

1. Linguistic reorganisation may narrow perspective of the people.
2. Excessive pride in one’s language creates hatred towards other language.
3. Learning other languages and enjoying the literature never takes places.
4. It creates hurdles in social and cultural development.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :
(Andaman and Nicobar, August Kranti, Vinoba Bhave, Sane Guruji, Indian National Congress)

Question 1.
……………….. was the first satyagrahi of individual satyagraha.
Answer:
Vinoba Bhave

Question 2.
The nation wide movement of 1942 is also called ……….. .
Answer:
August Kranti

Question 3.
In November 1943, Japan conquered ………. islands and handed them over to Azad Hind Government.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
In November 1939, provincial ministers of Indian National Congress gave their resignations.
Answer:

1. Viceroy Lord Linlithgo declared in 1939 that India had joined the Second World War on the side of England, without consulting the Indian leaders.
2. England claimed that it was fighting to save democracy in Europe.
3. Thereupon, the Congress claimed that if that claim is true then England should grant Independence to India immediately. ’
4. So the provincial ministries of the Indian National Congress resigned in November 1939 as England did not accept this demand.

Question 2.
The Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Army fought against the British in adverse circumstances under the leadership of Subhash Chandra Bose.
2. The Imphal Campaign of Indian National Army remained incomplete as the Japanese stopped helping the Indian National Army.
3. In the same period, Japan accepted defeat in the Second World War.
4. On 18 August 1945, Subhash Chandra Bose died in a plane crash.

Under these circumstances, the soldiers of the Indian National Army had to lay down their arms.

Question 3.
The Parallel Government became a source of inspiration to the people.
Answer:
1. During the Quit India Movement, parallel governments were established in many parts of India.
2. It rendered great service by doing work like :

• Opposition to money lenders
• Prohibition of liquor
• Spread of literacy

3. Opposition to caste distinctions, etc. Due to this, the Parallel Government became a source of inspiration for the public.

3. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

4. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why did the British Prime Minister send Sir Stafford Cripps to India?
Answer:

1. During the Second World War, England sided with America against Japan.
2. As England was ruling India, there was possibility of Japan attacking India.
3. The Japanese forces came closer to the eastern border of India.
4. It was necessary to have co-operation of India to resist Japanese invasion.

Therefore, the British Prime Minister, Winston Churchill sent Sir Stafford Cripps to India in March 1942.

Question 2.
What kind of reaction was seen during the spread of news of arrest of main leaders of the Indian National Congress?
Answer:

1. Quit India Resolution moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, was passed on 8th August with an overwhelming majority.
2. On the same night, the leaders of the Indian National Congress were arrested.
3. The news of these arrest aroused strong resentment.
4. The angry people took out processions, tried to take control of government offices and attacked jails, police stations and railway stations.
5. School children took out processions and shouted slogan “Vande Mataram”.
6. Even though the police resorted to lathi charge and firing, the people were not afraid. The young and old showed determination and courage.

Question 3.
What appeal did Mahatma Gandhi make in the Quit India session of Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Gandhiji made the following appeal to the people of India during the Quit India session of Indian National Congress at Mumbai:

1. Everyone of you, should from this moment onwards, consider yourself a free man or woman.
2. Everyone should behave like a citizen of free India.
3. Either we shall free India or die in the attempt.
4. Through the appeal he stated that Indians should be ready to make a sacrifice with the feeling of ‘Do or Die’.

Do you Know?

Inspirational account of brave children:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, school children carried out procession holding the tricolour at Nandurbar in Maharashtra.
2. The slogan of Vande Mcrtaram was given.
3. In the police firing, along with Shirishkumar, Dhansukhlal, Shashidhar, Ghanashyam, Laldas became martyrs.

Let us Know….:

Individual Satyagraha:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands, the Indian National Congress decided to start anti war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement every person should individually disobey the law. This is called Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him, nearly 25,000 Satyagrahis participated in individual Satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a timeline of the events of the struggle of Indian National Army.

Question 2.
With the help of internet collect the pictures of Quit India Movement of 1942 and organise an exhibition on occasion of a national day.

Class 8 History Chapter 9 Last Phase of Struggle for Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
Provincial Ministers of …………… resigned in November, 1939.
Answer:
Indian National Congress

Question 2.
Songs of ……………. inspiration during the movement.
Answer:
Sane Guruji

Identify the wrong pair :

Organisation – Founder
1. Azad Dasta – Bhai Kotwal
2. Lai Sena – General Awari
3. Azad Radio – Aruna Asaf Ali
4. Azad Hind Government – Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
Wrong pair: Azad Radio
– Aruna Asaf Ali

Corrected pair: Azad Radio
– Usha Mehta.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
In 1937 elections, the Indian National Congress gained a majority in ……………
provinces and came to power.
(a) seven
(b) two
(c) eight
(d) three
Answer:
(c) eight

Question 2.
Parallel government was formed by …………… in Satara.
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil
(b) N.G. Gore
(c) Rashtrasant Tukdoji Maharaj
(d) S.M. Joshi
Answer:
(a) Krantisinh Nana Patil

Question 3.
Netaji founded the …………… in 1943 in Singapore.
(a) Free India Centre
(b) Azad Hind Sena
(c) Parallel Government
(d) Azad Hind Government
Answer:
(d) Azad Hind Government

Question 4.
…………… tried to destroy the railway along with his campaigners in Sindh.
(a) Khudiram Bose
(b) Ashfaqulla Khan
(c) Hemu Kalani
(d) Maganlal Bagdi
Answer:
(c) Hemu Kalani

Question 5.
…………… had formed the Azad Hind Sena with the help of Captain Mohan Singh.
(a) Rash Behari Bose
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Anand Mohan Bose
(d) S.M. Gore
Answer:
(a) Rash Behari Bose

Name the following:

Question 1.
Viceroy who announced India’s involvement in Second World War.
Answer:
Lord Linlithgo

Question 2.
President of Mumbai session of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
Leader who put forth Quit India Movement resolution at the Mumbai session of the Congress.
Answer:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 4.
The outburst of Navy and Air Force on this British warship.
Answer:
Talwar

Question 5.
His songs inspired the National Movement.
Answer:
Rashtrasant Tukdcji Maharaj.

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
State the resolution passed by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session.
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee at its Wardha session passed the resolution that

• the British rule in India should be ended immediately and
• India be given independence.

Question 2.
What was the warning given by the Congress Working Committee in the Wardha session?
Answer:
The Congress Working Committee had given the warning that if the demand for complete independence was not met, it would launch a non-violent movement for the freedom of India.

Question 3.
Why did the British Government imprison Subhash Chandra Bose?
Answer:
The British Government imprisoned Subhash Chandra Bose because through his speeches he made appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British rule.

Question 4.
What did the British Government realise after the Navy and Air Force revolted?
Answer:
After the revolt of Navy and Air Force, the British Government realised that their rule in India was about to end.

Do as Directed:

Complete the graphical presentation:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Question 4.

Answer:

Prepare a Timeline of the events of the struggle of Azad Hind Sena:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes :

Question 1.
Provincial Cabinets :
Answer:

1. According to the Act of 1935, working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the elected representatives.
2. Although not satisfied with the act. Congress contested elections to the Provincial Legislatures of eleven provinces in 1937.
3. Indian National Congress gained a majority in eight provinces.
4. Congress ministries did a lot of useful work for the benefit of the people.
5. As the British government refused their demand of Independence the Congress ministries resigned in November 1939.

Question 2.
Individual Satyagraha :
Answer:

1. As the British government was constantly neglecting the demands the Indian National Congress decided to start anti-war propaganda.
2. Instead of a collective movement they decided every person should individually disobey the law. This is known as Individual Satyagraha.
3. Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Individual Satyagrahi.
4. After him nearly 25,000 satyagrahis participated in individual satyagraha and were imprisoned.

Question 3.
Rash Behari Bose :
Answer:

1. Rash Behari Bose was living in Japan since 1915.
2. He had established the ‘Indian Independence League’ by organizing the Indian patriots living in the South East Asia.
3. Japan conquered the territories of South-East Asia controlled by the British.
4. Rash Behari Bose, with the help of Captain Mohan Singh, formed the Indian

National Army or Azad Hind Sena from the Indian prisoners of war captured by Japan.

Question 4.
Revolt of Indian Navy and Air Force :
Answer:

1. Inspired by the heroics of the Indian National Army, the soldiers on the British warship ‘Talwar’ revolted on 8th February 1946.
2. They hoisted the tricolour flag on the ship and raised slogans against the British Government.
3. The exchange of fire between the rebels and the British army took place.
4. The workers and common people extended their support.
5. To support this uprising, the Air Force from Delhi, Lahore, Karachi, Ambala, Meerut went on strike.
6. The naval soldiers laid down their arms after the mediation by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What work did the Azad Radio Centre do during the 1942 underground movement?
Answer:
During the 1942 underground movement Vitthal Zaveri, Usha Mehta and her companions established a secret transmission centre, ‘Azad Radio’.
The work done:

• News of agitations in the country were broadcast on it.
• Patriotic songs were sung.
• Patriotic speeches were telecast.

This gave inspiration to the agitators during the Quit India Movement.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of the Quit India Movement.
Answer:
1. On 8th August 1942, in the Mumbai session, the Indian National Congress gave the order of ‘Quit India’ to the British government. This was the beginning of a nationwide agitation.
2. To fulfill the objective of independence, lakhs of Indians sacrificed their lives in this movement.
3. The number of people who participated were so large that even all prisons in the country were not enough to contain them.
4. The movement shook the foundation of British rule in India.

Question 3.
State the impact of the events from 1942 to 1946 on the British rule.
Answer:
Many important events took place between 1942 to 1946. The following effects were seen on the British rule :

1. It shook the foundation of British rule in India.
2. The Quit India agitation manifested the strong anti-British feeling of the Indian people.
3. The Army, Navy and Air Force considered to be backbone of the British power revolted against it.
4. The British rulers realised that now their rule will not last long in India.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The plan of federation mentioned in 1935 Act did not materialise.
Answer:

1. The Act of 1935 provided for the formation of a federation of the British administered provinces and the Indian princely states.
2. The working of the British administered provinces were transferred to the Indian representatives.
3. On joining the federation, the princely states would lose their autonomy.
4. So, the proposal of federation did not materialise as the rulers of the princely states refused to join the federation.

Question 2.
The Cripps proposal was rejected.
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress rejected the Cripps’ proposal because there was no clear mention of the grant of complete independence to India.
2. The Muslim League rejected the Cripps’ proposal as it had no mention of creation of Pakistan.

Question 3.
Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of Congress President.
Answer:
1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He became the President of Congress when Second World War had commenced. He was of the opinion that as England was engaged in war, the Congress should intensify the agitation by taking advantage of this situation.
3. If needed, India should seek the help of the enemies of England.
4. Other senior leaders of the Congress did not agree with this view.
As a result, Subhash Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the Congress President.

Question 4.
The British government suspended the punishment of INA officers.
Answer:

1. After surrender of the soldiers of the Indian National Army, the British government charged them with treason.
2. Expert lawyers like Pandit Nehru, Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapre defended the INA officers.
3. But the military tribunal held them guilty and sentenced them to life imprisonment.
4. There was severe unrest in the minds of the Indian people against the British Government.

So, they had to suspend the punishment given by the military tribunal.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the Session of Indian National Congress held in Mumbai in August 1942.
Answer:

1. On 14th July, 1942 the Congress Working Committee passed the Quit India Resolution at Wardha.
2. It warned the British government of launch of a non-violent struggle for India’s independence.
3. With this background, Quit India Session of the Indian National Congress began at Gowalia Tank (Kranti Maidan) in Mumbai on 7th August, 1942.
4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad presided over this session.
5. The resolution passed at Wardha § session was finally approved in the Mumbai session.
6. On 8th August, Quit India Resolution, moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was passed with an overwhelming majority.
7. Congress decided to launch a nationwide non-violent movement under the leadership of Gandhiji.
8. Gandhiji gave inspiring message of ‘Do or Die’ to the people and appealed them to be ready to sacrifice for the nation.

Question 2.
Give detailed information about Underground Movement.
Answer:

1. At the end of 1942, the young socialist leaders started the Underground Movement.
2. S. M. Joshi, Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia, Jayprakash Narayan were among the many leaders who led the movement.
3. Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta, Sucheta Kriplani were the women leaders who led the movement.
4. The activists disrupted transport and communication by breakdown of railway routes, cutting telephone lines, blowing up 8 bridges, etc.
5. Hemu Kalani tried to destroy railway carrying British troops and supply, in Sindh province.
6. Groups like Azad Dasta of Bhai Kotwal in Karjat and Lai Sena of General Awari in Nagpur made the government helpless and witless for months.
7. Usha Mehta and Vitthal Zaveri started a secret transmission centre of Azad Radio in Mumbai.
8. Many such centres operated at Kolkata, Delhi and Pune.
9. Krantisinh Nana Patil formed parallel government in Satara.
10. Parallel governments were formed in Midnapore in Bengal, Ballia and Azamgrah in Uttar Pradesh and Purnia in Bihar.
11. Krantiagrani GD (Bapu Lad) established ‘Toofan sena’ at Kundal.

Question 3.
Identify the given picture and write information about the work done by him.

Answer:
The given picture is of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.

1. Subhash Chandra Bose became the President of Indian National Congress twice.
2. He was of the view to intensify the agitation and seek help from the enemies of England during the Second World War.
3. He had difference of opinion with other senior leaders on these points.
4. Therefore, he resigned from the office of the Congress President and formed a party, ‘Forward Bloc’.
5. Subhash Chandra Bose was imprisoned by the British because he made an appeal to the people of India to revolt against the British.
6. He was interned in his house by the British but he managed to escape in disguise and reached Germany in April 1941.
7. He founded the ‘Free India Centre’ in Germany.
8. He made an appeal to the people of India to join in the armed struggle for the independence of India from Berlin radio station.
9. On the invitation of Rash Behari Bose, he went to Japan and led the Indian National Army.
10. He formed the Azad Hind Government in Singapore in 1943.
11. Under his leadership, Azad Hind Army captured the Aarakan province in Myanmar and posts on the eastern border of Assam.
12. Netaji appealed to the people of India : ‘You give me blood and I will give you independence’.
13. On 18 August, 1945 Netaji died in a plane crash.

Question 4.
How do you find the contribution of Shirishkumar to be inspirational?
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of Shirishkumar, the school children took out a procession holding the tricolour flag at Nandurbar.
2. ‘Vande Mataram’ was the slogan given to them.
3. The police fired on them. In the firing Shirishkumar and many other children became martyrs.
4. His sacrifice gives inspiration to us to do work for the society and country.
5. Gaining independence is no more our objective but to keep the environment clean, to maintain unity among people, and collectively solve the problems is our responsibility.
6. As all this is equally challenging we get inspiration from courage and determination of Shirishkumar.
7. Shirishkumar inspires us to do our work fearlessly without being a victim of injustice and oppression.
8. He also inspires us to make sacrifice, have faith in work and determination. 1

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
Laws are made by …………………. .
(a) Legislature
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Judiciary
(d) Executive
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 2.
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court is appointed by the …………………… .
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Law Minister
Answer:
(b) President

2. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Judicial Review:
Answer:

1. The Constitution is the fundamental law of the nation and to protect it is the prime responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. The Parliament cannot pass any law that violates the Constitution.
3. Every act or policy made by the Executive should be consistent with the Constitution.
4. If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act is declared illegal.
5. So, it is struck down by the Supreme Court.
6. This power of the Supreme Court is known as Judicial Review.

Question 2.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
Answer:

1. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigations filed on issues of public importance and issues related to the welfare of the people.
2. It can be filed by individual citizens, social organisation or Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) on behalf of all the people.
3. Issues related to rehabilitation of people who have lost their homes/lands, protection of environment, protection of the weaker sections of society, etc. have been effectively handled through PIL.
4. PILs are effective tool which require minimum expenditure and get immediate justice.

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Civil Law:
Answer:

1. It is one of the two main branches of law.
2. It deals with conflicts which affect or interfere with the rights of an individual.
3. Conflicts regarding land and property, rent agreement, divorce, etc. are included under Civil law.
4. After filing a petition in the relevant court, the court gives a decision.

Question 2.
Criminal Law:
Answer:

1. Serious crimes are dealt under Criminal law.
2. Crimes like theft, robbery, dowry, murder, etc. are included under Criminal law.
3. In these cases, the first step is to file a ‘First Information Report’ (FIR) with the police, who investigate the matter and file a petition in the court.
4. If the charges are proved, there are provisions for severe punishment.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why are laws necessary in society?
Answer:

1. Differences in opinions, thoughts, perspectives, different cultures of people give rise to conflicts. These conflicts can be resolved impartially by the Judiciary.
2. Social justice and equality in society can be established with the help of law.
3. It also helps to bring weaker sections of the society, women, children differently-abled and transgenders into the mainstream of the society.
4. Law helps the common man to get the benefits of values of freedom, equality and democracy.
5. Law helps to protect the rights of the people.
6. It prevents emergence of repressive and authoritarian groups and individuals.
   Hence, laws are necessary in society.

Question 2.
Enumerate the functions of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
The functions of the Supreme Court are as follows:

1. As a federal court, it has the responsibility to settle disputes between the centre and the states; and states on one side and states on the other.
2. It gives orders to relevant authorities to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
3. It has the power to review decrees and orders of the lower courts and also review its own decisions.
4. It provides necessary advice to the President if he/she asks for advice to understand the legal aspects in matters of public importance.

Question 3.
Which are the provisions that preserve the independence of the judiciary?
Answer:
The Constitution has made following provisions to preserve the independence of the judiciary:

1. To avoid any political pressure, judges are appointed by the President.
2. Judges enjoy the security of tenure. They cannot be removed from the post for trivial reasons or for political motives.
3. The salaries of the judges are drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India. No discussion regarding this takes place in the Parliament.
4. Personal criticism cannot be made on judges for their acts and decisions. It is considered as contempt of court and is a punishable offence.
5. The Parliament cannot discuss the decisions of the judges.

5. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

See this example:

1. The court had asked the candidates contesting in elections to declare their property and income details and educational qualifications through or affidavit.
2. The idea behind this was to ensure that the voters will vote on the basis of accurate information about the candidates.
3. This is an attempt to make our election process more transparent.
4. It is mandatory for the contesting candidates to declare whether there are any charges filed against them,
and the nature of the charges whether civil or criminal also has to be declared.

Do it:

High Courts having jurisdiction over more than one state:

1. Mumbai High Court: Maharashtra, Goa and Union Territories of Diu Daman and Dadra-Nagar Haveli.
2. Guwahati High Court: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland.
3. Kerala High Court: Kerala and Union Territory of Lakshadweep islands.
4. Kolkata High Court: West Bengal and Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
5. Chandigarh High Court: Punjab and Haryana.

Project:

Question 1.
Organise a Moot Court’ in your school, prepare and ask questions related to Public Interest Litigations in this Moot Court.

Question 2.
Visit the nearest police station and understand the procedure of filing a First Information Report (FIR) with the help of your teacher.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
When the common man benefits from the values of freedom, equality and justice, it leads to the widening and deepening of ……………… .
(a) values
(b) democracy
(c) Judiciary
(d) Law
Answer:
(b) democracy

Question 2.
…………. helps to protect the rights of people.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Judiciary
(d) Social Organisation
Answer:
(c) Judiciary

Question 3.
The …………. is the fundamental law of the nation.
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) Constitution
(d) President’s order
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 4.
If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act can be declared illegal by the ………….
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(d) Supreme Court

Question 5.
The …………. has the power to establish a High Court in every state of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 6.
Currently, there are ……………. High Courts in India.
(a) 20
(b) 29
(c) 24
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 24

Find and write:

Question 1.
Nature of Judiciary in India:
Answer:
Integrated System

Question 2.
In the criminal cases, the first step is to file:
Answer:
First Information Report (FIR)

Question 3.
The District judges are appointed by
Answer:
The Governor

Question 4.
The High Court judges are appointed by:
Answer:
The President.

Complete the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Judicial Activism:
Answer:

1. The courts settle the disputes whenever they are approached for that purpose.
2. But, in the recent times, this image of the courts has undergone a change.
3. They have become increasingly active.
4. The courts are now trying to fulfill the constitutional goals of justice and equality.
5. The courts have tried to provide legal protection to the marginalised sections of society, women, tribal, workers, farmers and children.
6. Public Interest Litigations related to issues like victimisation of women, malnourishment among children, etc. have played an important role in boosting Judicial Activism

Question 2.
High Court:
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution confers the Parliament with the power to establish a High Court in each constituent state in the Union.
2. Normally, each state has a High Court. But, in certain cases where the population and area of the states is less, one High Court has jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. For example, the Bombay High Court’s jurisdiction covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
4. Currently, there are 24 High Courts in India.

Question 3.
Supreme Court of India:
Answer:

1. Judiciary in India is an integrated system where Supreme Court is at the apex position.
2. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
3. By convention, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice.
4. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the Supreme Court.
5. The Supreme Court of India is located at New Delhi.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Judiciary in India is an integrated system.
Answer:

1. India is a Union of States. The Centre and the Constituent States have a separate Legislature and Executive.
2. But there is one judicial system for the whole of India.
3. The Supreme Court is the apex court under which there are High Courts.
4. The High Courts control the district courts and below them are the lower courts. Hence, this structure makes Judiciary in India an integrated system.

Question 2.
The Constitution has made provision for independence of Judiciary.
Answer:
1. The Constitution wants Judiciary to work freely, without any kind of pressure.
2. The independence of the judiciary is maintained so as to enable the judges to fearlessly carry out the function of giving justice.
For this purpose, the Constitution has made provisions for independence of Judiciary.

Question 3.
The Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.
Answer:

1. The Indian judiciary has always given importance to social values while protecting the Constitution.
2. It has exposed wrong practices like superstitions, discrimination, injustice to weaker sections, etc. and forced the legislature to pass laws against them.
3. It has protected individual freedom, the federal system and the Constitution of India.
4. Common people have a lot of respect and trust in the judicial system.

Thus, the Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What are the eligibility criteria for appointment of Supreme Court judges?
Answer:
The eligibility criteria laid down by the Constitution for appointment of Supreme Court judges are as follows:

1. He/She must be a citizen of India.
2. He/She must be a legal expert.
3. He/She must have served as a High Court judge or as an experienced advocate in the High Court.

Question 2.
Mention the functions of the High Court.
Answer:
The functions of the High Court are as follows:

1. To supervise over the District and other lower courts in its jurisdiction.
2. To maintain control over the functioning of the lower courts.
3. To give orders to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
4. To give advice to the governor while appointing judges in the district courts.

Question 3.
Should the Supreme Court have the power of Judicial Review?
Answer:
The Supreme Court must have the power of Judicial Review for following reasons:

1. Protecting the Constitution is the most important responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. Many a times, laws violating the Constitution are passed under public pressure or for gaining popularity.
3. The Executive may pass laws or frame policies violating the Constitution.
4. Laws violating the fundamental rights of the citizens may be passed which may prove to be harmful for democracy.
5. The power of Judicial Review helps in curbing all anti-constitutional practices and protects and strengthens democracy.
6. It also helps in keeping the Executive under control.

Question 4.
Why does the President seek the advice of the Supreme Court on any issue of public importance? Can you tell?
Answer:

1. Decisions taken on issues of public importance have long-lasting effect on the lives of the people.
2. Such decisions should also be according to the Rule of Law which treats everyone equally.
3. Care has to be taken that such decisions should not violate the Constitution.
4. Since the President is not a legal expert, he has to seek advice of the Supreme Court on any issues of public importance.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 2 Europe and India Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 2 Europe and India

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Europe and India Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
In 1453, the city of was conquered by Ottoman Turks.
(a) Venice
(b) Constantinople
(c) Rome
(d) Paris
Answer:
(b) Constantinople

Question 2.
The Industrial Revolution began in
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) Portugal
Answer:
(a) England

Question 3.
…….. tried to put restrictions on the illegal trade of British.
(a) Siraj-ud-Daulah
(b) Mir Kasim
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Shah Alam
Answer:
(b) Mir Kasim

2. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Colonialism:
Answer:
1. Exploitation of one country by another and making it into a colony is called Colonialism.
2. On the basis of economic and military strength one country occupies a region of another country and establishes its political supremacy.
3. Many European nations established their colonies in various parts of the continents of America, Asia, Africa and Australia.
4. They grabbed the power by using force to exploit the colonies systematically. This gave rise to Imperialism.

Question 2.
Imperialism:
Answer:

1. Imperialism means a powerful country controls other country by establishing its overall domination.
2. The objective of imperialism is to establish more and more colonies.
3. European countries with strong military power and imperialist aspirations enslaved the countries in Asia and Africa.
4. Imperialism gained momentum after industrial revolution and came to an end in twentieth century.

Question 3.
Age of Renaissance:
Answer:
(1) Renaissance literally means rebirth or revival. In the latter phase of medieval Europe, reformation, religious reform movement and geographical discoveries gained momentum.
(2) It was a comprehensive movement which touched all aspects of human life. The Greek and Roman traditions in art, architecture and philosophy were revived in the Age of Renaissance.
(3) Humanitarianism got great impetus.
(4) Renaissance inspired all round progress and ushered a new era in the history of world.
(5) This developments took place from 13th century to 16th century in Europe. This period is known as the Age of Renaissance.

Question 4.
Capitalism:
Answer:
1. Many traders participated in the competition for trade with Asia after the discovery of the new sea routes to the east.
2. As it was not possible to carry out trade single-handedly, it was decided by the traders to pool their resources to raise capital for trade.
3. Many trading companies like the East India Company were formed.
4. Trade with Oriental countries was very profitable and responsible for economic prosperity.
5. The ruling powers gave protection and trade concessions to these companies.
6. This led to the accumulation of wealth in Europe. This wealth was used as capital for trade and commerce which gave rise to capitalism in Europe.

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated in the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
1. The officers of the British East India Company misused the trade concessions and built fortification around the factory in Kolkata.
2. Siraj-ud-Daulah captured the factory at Kolkata.
3. This created discontent in England.
4. Robert Clive diplomatically bribed Mir Jafar, Commander in Chief of Nawab’s army and promised to make him Nawab of Bengal.
5. So. the Army of Siraj-ud-Daulah under the command of Mir Kasim did not join the battle against the British at Plassey in 1757 AD.
6. Thus, the British won the battle of Plassey by treachery and deceit.

Question 2.
The European countries felt the necessity of finding new sea routes to Asia.
Answer:

1. The Ottoman Turks captured Constantinople. the capital of Byzantine Empire. in 1453 AD.
2. All land trade routes joining Asia and Europe passed through this city.
3. It stopped the flow of valuable goods from the countries in the east. Therefore, the European countries felt the necessity of finding new sea routes to Asia.

Question 3.
European rulers started giving military protection and trade concessions to the trading companies.
Answer:
1. With the discovery of new sea routes to the east, trade with oriental countries became very profitable. Thus, European trade prospered.
2. Competition for trade began among many European nations.
3. The traders pooled their resources and formed trading companies like the East India Company.
4. As this trade brought economic prosperity, the European rulers started giving military protection and trade concessions to these trading companies.

4. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Leonardo Da Vinci :

1. A famous personality of the Renaissance period who was well versed in different branches of science and arts.
2. He had mastery over varied subjects such as sculpture, architecture, mathematics, engineering, music, astronomy, etc.
3. His paintings ‘Monalisa’ and ‘The Last Supper’ became immortal.

Let us Know:

Project:

Collect information and pictures about the work of famous painters, writers, scientists during renaissance period with the help of reference books and internet. Present a project on it in the classroom.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Europe and India Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
American colonies organised the army under the leadership of and won against England.
(a) Thomas Jefferson
(b) Robert Clive
(c) George Washington
(d) Johannes Gutenberg
Answer:
(c) George Washington

Question 2.
The British East India Company established its factory at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
(d) Surat
Answer:
(d) Surat

Question 3.
Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated because diplomatically bribed Mir Jafar.
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive

Question 4.
Tipu Sultan died in the battle of in 1799.
(a) Mysore
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Srirangapatna
(d) Buxar
Answer:
(c) Srirangapatna

Question 5.
The chieftain of rose against the British.
(a) Multan
(b) Bengal
(c) Carnatic
(d) Jhansi
Answer:
(a) Multan

Question 6.
was the first Portuguese sailor who landed on the western coast of India.
(a) Christopher Columbus
(b) Bartolomeu Días
(c) Vasco-da- Gama
(d) Leonardo da Vinci
Answer:
(c) Vasco-da- Gama

Question 7.
England established colonies on the eastern coast of America.
(a) ten
(b) thirteen
(c) eight
(d) seventeen
Answer:
(b) thirteen

Name the following:

Question 1.
Invented printing press
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

Question 2.
Empire of Ottoman Turks
Answer:
Byzantine

Question 3.
The Bill which laid limitations on powers of the King in England.
Answer:
Bill of Rights

Question 4.
Mughal Emperor who gave permission to Britishers to establish factory at Surat.
Answer:
Emperor Jahangir

Question 5.
Came to be known as ‘World Factory’.
Answer:
England.

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which period in the history of Europe is known as Period of Renaissance?
Answer:
In the history of Europe, the last phase of medieval period i.e. 13th to century in Europe is known as the Period of Renaissance.

Question 2.
Name the developments that laid the foundation of modern era.
Answer:
The Renaissance, the Reformation and the geographical discoveries laid the foundation of the modern era.

Question 3.
State the significance of the invention of printing press.
Answer:
It became possible to take new ideas, new concepts and knowledge to all the sections of society due to the invention of the printing press.

Question 4.
What was the effect of the Reformation movement in the area of religion?
Answer:
Individual freedom and rationalism gained importance in the area of religion due to the Reformation movement.

Question 5.
State the principles that the French Revolution gave to the world.
Answer:
The French Revolution gave the principles of liberty equality and fraternity to the world.

Question 6.
Why did the British establish East India Company?
Answer:
The British established the East India Company to carry out trade in India.

Question 7.
What was the outcome of the American War of Independence?
Answer:
Due to American War of Independence, a new nation known as the United States of America with a federal government, written constitution and based on the principles of democracy was formed.

Do as Directed: 

1. Complete the concept Map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

2. Arrange the following events in chronological order on timeline:
1. Battle of Srirangapatna
2. Second Anglo-Sikh War
3. Battle of Buxar
4. Battle of Plassey
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Leonardo-da-Vinci:
Answer:

1. Leonardo-da-Vinci is regarded as an all round personality of the Renaissance period.
2. He was well versed with the different branches of science and art.
3. He had mastery over varied subjects such as sculpture, architecture, mathematics, engineering, music, astronomy, etc.
4. But he became world-famous as a painter.
5. His paintings ‘Monalisa’ and ‘The Last Supper’ became immortal.

Question 2.
Carnatic Wars :
Answer:

1. There was competition among the European nationals to secure monopoly of trading rights in India.
2. Due to this three Cainatic wars were fought between England and France.
3. England defeated France in the third Carnatic War.
4. Alter this, there was no strong European competitor for British East India Company in India.

Question 3.
The Battle of Buxar:
Answer:

1. Mir Kasim was replaced by Mir Jafar when he tried to put restrictions on illegal practices of the British.
2. Mir Kasim, the deposed Nawab of Bengal, Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Ayodhya and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam formed an affiance.
3. They undertook a campaign to restrain the activities of the British in Bengal.
4. They were defeated by the British in the Battle of Buxar in 1764 in Bihar.
5. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the Battle of Buxar. The British secured the right to collect revenue from Bengal province by this treaty.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The period between 18th and 19th century came to be known as ‘Age of Revolutions’.
Answer:
1. The British Parliament passed The Bill of Rights in 1689. It established sovereignty of Parliament and curtailed powers of the King.
2. This gave momentum to the development of Parliamentary Democracy in England.
3.  The thirteen British colonies in America won the War of Independence in 1783.
4. These thirteen colonies established the first federal republic, known as the United States of America.
5. The people of France revolted against the unjust and uncontrolled monarchy and feudalism. They established a Republic.
6. The Industrial Revolution in Europe in the latter part of the 18th century brought revolutionary changes in Europe.
7. These changes had long-lasting effect on the entire world.
8. All these revolutionary events took place during 18th and 19th century period. Hence it is known as the ‘Age of Revolutions’.

Question 2.
England was described as World Factory.
Answer:

1. There were many revolutionary changes in the latter part of the 18th century in Europe.
2. Many technological innovations in Europe gave enormous outputs
3. Goods were produced with the help of machines running on steam and later on electricity. It was the dawn of the age of machines.
4. Though the industrial revolution started in England it gradually spread to other ports of the western world.
5. During this period. England enjoyed industrial prosperity and was described as World Factory.

Question 3.
The British captured Sindh in 1843.
Answer:

1. The British were afraid of Russian aggression on India via Afghanistan.
2. They decided to bring Afghanistan under their control to ensure the safety of their Indian Empire.
3. The province of Sindh was located at the Northwest frontier.
4. All routes to Afghanistan passed through Sindh.
5. Realising its strategic importance, the British captured Sindh in 1843.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about the Religious Reform Movement.
Answer:

1. The independent intellectuals attacked the old religious ideologies and beliefs of Roman Catholic Church.
2. The Christian priests used to give undue importance to religious rites and practices by taking advantage of the ignorance of the people.
3. They robbed people in the name of religion.
4. The movement which started against this is known as Religious Reform Movement.

Question 2.
What is Intellectual Revolution?
Answer:

1. Due to Renaissance, the European society stepped out of past ignorance and blind faith.
2. The pre-determined customs and traditions came to be seen from a critical point of view.
3. These changes are addressed as Intellectual Revolution.

Question 3.
State the significance of French Revolution.
Answer:

1. The French Revolution was the first event in world history in which the might of the people’s power was witnessed.
2. It had put an end to uncontrolled and unjust monarchy and the feudalism.
3. France became a Republican state. It gave the world principles of liberty, equality and fraternity.
4. The spread of democratic form of government began with the French Revolution.

Question 4.
What were the changes brought about by the Industrial Revolution in the system of production?
Answer:

1. The latter part of 18th century saw many technological innovations in Europe.
2. The production started with the help of machines running on steam.
3. The big factories replaced cottage industries.
4. Handlooms were replaced by machines.
5. New modes of transport like railways and steamer were available.

Question 5.
How did the conflict between Siraj- ud-Daulah and the British start?
Answer:

1. Siraj-ud-Daulah became the Nawab of Bengal in 1756.
2. The British traders misused trade concessions and fortified their factories in Kolkata without seeking permission from the Nawab.
3. So, Siraj-ud-Daulah captured the factory. This was the beginning of conflict between Siraj-ud-Daulah and the British.

Question 6.
Why were the Sikhs defeated in the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

1. Ranjitsingh, the ruler of Punjab was succeeded by his minor son Duleep Singh.
2. Queen Jindan assumed the reins of administration on behalf of her minor son.
3. Taking advantage of the inability of Queen Jindan to control the officers, the British lured some of them to their side.
4. The Sikhs attacked the British under the impression that the British would invade Punjab.
5. Thus, the Sikhs were defeated in the first Anglo-Sikh war.

Question 7.
What brought an end to the Sikh rule in Punjab in 1849?
Answer:

1. After the First Anglo-Sikh War Duleep Singh remained on throne, but the power rested in the hands of the British.
2. The Sikhs could not accept the growing impact of the British over Punjab.
3. The growing influence of the British led to the revolt by Mulraj, the chieftain of Multan.
4. Thousands of Sikh soldiers participated in this war.
5. The British defeated the Sikhs in the Second Anglo-Sikh war and annexed the whole of Punjab in 1849.

Answer the following questions in detail: (4 marks each)

Question 1.
Give detailed account of Renaissance.
Answer:
The foundation of Renaissance period was laid between 13th century and 16th century in Europe.

1. It revived the Greek and Roman traditions.
2. The changes were seen in the field of art, architecture and philosophy in Europe.
3. Humanitarianism gained great momentum.
4. There was a change in the outlook of treating each other as a human being.
5. Man became the centre of all ideologies instead of religion.
6. The sentiments and emotions of human being found expressions in the art and literature.
7. The reform movement could be found in science and different art forms.
8. Literature was produced in local languages for the better understanding of the people.
9. Renaissance was a comprehensive movement which pervaded all sectors of human life.

Question 2.
Give information about American War of Independence.
Answer:
1. After the discovery of American continent, the imperialist European powers took control of different regions of America and established their colonies.
2. England established 13 colonies on the East coast of America.
3. Initially, England kept nominal domination but later British Parliament laid oppressive restrictions and taxes on the colonies.
4. This created discontent among the people and the colonies revolted.
5. George Washington led the American army in the war against England.
6. The colonies won the war and established the first federal democratic republic, known as the United States of America.
7. USA became the first country in the world to have a written constitution and was based on the principles of Democracy.

Question 3.
What according to you are the advantages of Religious Reform Movement?
Answer:
With changing times we find changes in every field. Religious reforms are part of this process. I feel the following are the advantages of Religious Reforms Movement.

1. Superstitions give way to rational thinking.
2. Priest cannot take advantage of people’s ignorance.
3. People will not indulge in unnecessary rituals.
4. They will engage themselves in constructive work which will help them eventually.
5. Some people take advantage in the name of religion and exploit others. Religious Reforms will stop such malpractices.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
Candidates to the Lok Sabha are elected through ……….. .
(a) Territorial constituencies
(b) Religious constituencies
(c) Local bodies
(d) Proportional Representation System
Answer:
(a) Territorial constituencies

Question 2.
The ………….. of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(b) Vice-President

2. Find and write. 

Question 1.
Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as ……………….. .
Answer:
Members of Parliament (MPs)

Question 2.
The responsibility of making laws is with the ……………… .
Answer:
Parliament

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha does not get over at the same time.
2. 1/3rd of the total membership of Rajya Sabha retire after every two years and equal number of new members get elected.
3. Because the limited members of Rajys Sabha retire step by step, it can function continuously.
   Since Rajya Sabha is never dissolved completely it is called a permanent House.

Question 2.
Lok Sabha is known as the first House.
Answer:

1. Lok Sabha is the lower and the first House of the Parliament of India.
2. Lok Sabha is the House of Representatives directly elected by the people. Hence, Lok Sabha is known as the first House.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
How are members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:

1. As per the Constitution, there can be a maximum of 552 members in Lok Sabha.
2. General elections to Lok Sabha are held after every five years and members are directly elected by the people.
3. To ensure equal representation to all sections of the community, some seats are reserved for members belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. In case there are no representation from the Anglo-Indian community, the President can appoint two members from this community to the Lok Sabha.
5. Thus, Lok Sabha is the representative body of the citizens of India.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are :

1. To conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
2. To take care of the rights and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha.
3. To interpret the rules of daily functioning of the House and work accordingly.
4. To maintain the decorum and dignity of the House.

5. Explain the step involved in the lawmaking process.

Question 1.
Parliament :
Answer:

1. The Legislature at the national level is called the Parliament.
2. It consists of the President and two houses, i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Though the President is an inseparable part of the Parliament, he/she cannot participate in the discussions in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
4. The Constitution of India has created the Parliament.

Question 2.
Amendment to the Constitution :
Answer:

1. According to the changing times, certain necessary changes have to be made in some laws. The process of making such changes is called Amendment.
2. Only the Parliament has the right to make such amendments to the Constitution.
3. The Constitution amendment bill is considered to be an important bill.
4. The Parliament discusses why the amendment is required and decides whether to accept it or not.

Question 3.
Members of Parliament :
Answer:

1. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as Members of Parliament (MPs).
2. The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
3. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected from the constituent States and Union Territories.
4. MPs try to resolve the queries and complaints of their constituencies by raising questions in the Parliament.
5. MPs also participate in the process of formulation of laws.
6. The Government allocates funds to MPs to carry out development activities in their constituencies.

Question 4.
Bill of Law:
Answer:

1. At the initial stage of lawmaking process, a rough draft of the law is prepared.
2. This rough draft or outline is known as ‘draft proposal of the law’ or ‘bill of law’.
3. The Bill clearly mentions the objectives and the details of the proposed law.
4. Every bill has to undergo three readings in both the Houses, and then it is put to vote.

Can you find out?

For the purpose of elections, the State is divided into territorial constituencies. The constituent States in India get seats on the basis of their population. For e.g.

• Maharashtra – 48 seats
• Gujarat – 26 seats
• Madhya Pradesh – 29 seats
• Goa – 02 seats
• Uttar Pradesh – 80 seats

Understand It:
(The gist of the conversation held between Mazy, Radhika, Ran veer and others.)

1. Any Indian citizen who has completed 18 years of age is only eligible to vote.
2. An Indian citizens who has completed 25 years of age can contest for Lok Sabha election.
3. A citizen of India can contest for election from any constituency of any State.
4. Citizens of other countries cannot contest for elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
5. Just as there are set criteria for qualifying for election, there are set criteria for disqualification as well.

Rights regarding passing of Bills:

1. Though Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have same set of rights, Lok Sabha has certain rights which are not available for Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills related to finance (Money Bills) and such other bills are first introduced and passed in Lok Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to money bills.
4. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution on the subject in the State List.

Can you tell?

Certain laws which become out-of-date (obsolete) are abolished. Can you give examples of such obsolete laws? For example, Privy purses.

Know this too:

1. Every year, on 1 February the Union Finance Minister presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha. Previously, it was presented on 28 February.
2. The State Legislatures also follow the same procedure of law making as in the Parliament.
3. The bill passed can become a law only after it is signed by the President at the Union level and by the Governor at the State level.

Project:

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Collect information on what are the criteria for their selection.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
…………….. is the upper House of the Parliament.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 2.
The …………… of India has created the Parliament of India.
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Constitution
(d) British Law
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 3.
1/3rd members of total membership of Rajya Sabha, who have completed their tenure of six years, retire after every ……………….. years.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 4.
If ……………….. feels that the Parliament should make a law of the subject in the state list, it can pass a resolution to that effect.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Executive
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Every year in the month of February, the ………….. presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 6.
The President appoints ……………….. distinguished personalities to the Rajya Sabha.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) fifteen
(d) twelve
Answer:
(d) twelve

Find and write:

Question 1.
……………. represent the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker

Question 2.
The bill passed by the State legislature becomes a law after it is signed by the ………….. .
Answer:
Governor

Question 3.
The House that gives representation to 29 States and 7 Union Territories is ………………. .
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Complete the following Concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha :
Answer:

1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. He exercises a control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
3. Maintaining discipline in the House is the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. He also has the responsibility of facilitating discussions in the House by giving members a chance to speak, etc.

Question 2.
Speaker of Lok Sabha :
Answer:

1. The speaker is elected in the very first meeting after the election of Lok Sabha.
2. The members of Lok Sabha elect one member among them as the Speaker.
3. Lok Sabha functions under the guidance and control of the Speaker.
4. It is the responsibility of the speaker to conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
5. The Speaker has to maintain decorum and dignity of the House.
6. Moreover, he has to interpret the rules and work accordingly.

Question 3.
Control over Council of Ministers :
Answer:

1. Council of Ministers are drawn from the Parliament and hence Parliament exercises control over them.
2. The members of Parliament exercise this control through multiple ways.
3. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to see that the Council of Ministers does not disregard the Parliament.
4. In case the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, it has to resign.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:

1. Since Lok Sabha is a House of people’s representatives, elections are held after every five years.
2. Elections to Lok Sabha which are held every five years are known as General elections.
3. When Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of five years and elections are held, such elections are called mid- term elections.
4. When a member resigns or dies suddenly, election held for such a seat is called by-election.

Question 2.
Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The composition of Rajya Sabha is as follows :

1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha is 250 members.
2. Amongst them, 238 members are elected from the constituent states and Union Territories.
3. Remaining twelve members, who are distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social work, are appointed by the President.
4. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected through the system of proportional representation.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of the Parliament.
Answer:
In order to achieve welfare of the people and the objectives of the 8 Constitution, the Parliament has to perform 8 following functions :

1. To formulate new laws and to repeal the outdated laws.
2. To make necessary changes in the existing laws.
3. To amend the Constitution wherever necessary.
4. To keep control over Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
Mention the ways of amending the Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended in following ways :

1. Few provisions in the Indian Constitution can be amended by simple majority.
2. Some provisions require special (2/3rd) majority of the Parliament.
3. Few other provisions can be amended by special majority plus consent from more than half of the constituent states.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Though Lok Sabha is the Lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

1. Since members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people, it represents the people of the nation in the true sense.
2. Money bills related to financial matters are presented in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
3. Since the total membership of Lok Sabha is more than Rajya Sabha, it always gets an upper hand when decisions are taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.

Hence, though Lok Sabha is the lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Answer the following questions in details:

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the law-making process.
Answer:
The Bill undergoes following process in order to be converted into a Law (Act).
1. First reading :

• The minister of the concerned department/ministry or member of the Parliament presents the bill in the House.
• The objectives and the structure of the Bill are mentioned.

2. Second reading :

• The positive and negative points of the bill are discussed.
• The defects and faults in the bill are stressed.
• After removing the defects and the faults, the bill is put to vote.

3. Committee Stage :

• Sometimes, if required, the Bill is sent to the committee of the House.
• The Bill is discussed in the Committee in details.
• The Committee report consisting of instructions and recommendations is sent to the House.
• The Bill is discussed clause by clause and then voting is taken.

4. Third reading :

• The Bill is once again discussed in the House.
• Voting is taken for approving the Bill.

5. Approval of the other House :

• The Bill has to undergo the same procedure even in the other House.
• The Bill is approved by majority.

6. Assent by the President :

• After getting an approval from both the Houses, the Bill is further sent for assent by the President.
• After the final assent and signature of the President, the Bill is converted into Law.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the basis of following points:
1. Number of members
2. Age limit
3. Election
4. Tenure
Answer:

Question 3.
Why, according to you, the Constitution must have granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
1. The President appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are usually experienced and distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social service.

2. Such personalities are very active and totally devoted to their respective fields. Hence, they have no time for contesting the elections.

3. They keep themselves away from election procedures like campaigning, conducting meetings, etc. So their election to the Parliament is not possible.

4. But, to derive benefit from their profound knowledge and experience for making of laws, their presence in the Parliament is essential.
Therefore, I feel that the Constitution has granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha.

Std 8 English Lesson 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions, and Answers.

Class 8 English Chapter 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming Up

1. Discuss in your class:

Question 1.
Do you like to study science?
Answer:
(Points: yes, no, the reasons why)

Question 2.
What are the advantages of learning science?
Answer:
(Points: knowledge, information- more career opportunities, etc.)

Question 3.
Are robots truly useful to human beings?
Answer:
(Points: yes, no, why – examples of robots you have read of, seen in movies, etc.)

Question 4.
How can we take the help of robots in our daily life?
Answer:
(Points: household chores – boring,monotonous work – heavy manual jobs very intricate, minute jobs – dangerous; jobs – operations, surgeries, etc.)

Question 5.
Name some gadgets and: appliances we use in day-to-day life.
Answer:
(Points: washing machine, mixer, grinder, gas stoves, TV, dishwasher, heaters, etc.)

2. Imagine that one of your family members I friends I classmates has recently undergone a surgery. You were curious and wanted to learn about his/her experience.
Match the questions you asked with their answers.

Question 1.
What health problem did you suffer from?
Answer:
I had fractured my ankle while playing hockey.

Question 2.
Whom did you Inform about It first?
Answer:
Our school hockey coach.

Question 3.
What type of doctor did you consult?
Answer:
I consulted an orthopedic surgeon.

Question 4.
How did he/she find out that you needed surgery?
Answer:
The doctor took an X-ray of my ankle, and he found a fracture In my ankle.

Question 5.
What preparation was done before the surgery?
Answer:
I was given a bath and I wore a surgical gown.

Question 6.
How did you feel when you were taken to the operation theatre?
Answer:
I was very nervous.

Question 7.
What was the first step before the actual surgery?
Answer:
I was given an injection of anesthesia.

Question 8.
Did you feel any pain during the surgery?
Answer:
No, I did not feel anything. I was fast asleep.

Question 9.
What did you feel when you opened your eyes after the operation?
Answer:
I was relieved and happy that the operation was over.

Question 10.
How soon did you recover?
Answer:
I recovered and I could walk normally after three weeks.

3. We have learned that sentences may have two, three or more sets of subject + predicate, joined by a conjunction. Each set of subject and predicate.
that is a part of a larger sentence is culled clause.
Separate the clauses in the following sentences and write the conjunction.

Question 1.
The thief stole the money and he ran away.
Answer:
Clause (i): The thief stole the money.
Clause (ii): he ran away
Conjunction: and

Question 2.
She told me that she was a doctor.
Answer:
Clause (i): She told me
Clause (ii): that she was a doctor
Conjunction: that

Question 3.
He ran fast but he did not win the race.
Answer:
Clause (i): He ran fast
Clause (ii): he did not win the race
Conjunction: but

Question 4.
The traveller arrived at the station after the train had left.
Answer:
Clause (i): The traveller arrived at the station
Clause (ii): after the train had left
Conjunction: after

4. Coordination
Observe the clauses in the following sentences.
(1) He is intelligent and he is hardworking.
(2) Asit was tired but he could not rest.
(3) You can go for a walk or you can exercise at home.
(4) Seerna has recovered from fever, so she can attend school.
Each of the above sentences have clauses which do not depend on each other for complete sense. They are called Independant or Co-ordinate clauses. They are joined by conjunctions like and, but, o, so. Such conjunctions are called Co-ordinators.
Other Co-ordinators are:

• as well as / not only but also
• yet / still I however / nevertheless
• or / nor / else / either or / neither nor
• so / therefore / thus / hence / for

From the sentences given in Activity 2 pick out two sentences having Co-ordinate Clauses. Point out the Co-ordinators:

Question 1.
I was given a bath and I wore a surgical gown.
Answer:
Coordinate Clause (i): I was given a bath.
Coordinate Clause (ii): I wore a surgical gown.
Conjunction: and

Question 2.
The doctor took an X-ray of my ankle and he found a fracture in my ankle.
Answer:
Coordinate Clause (i): The doctor took an X-ray of my ankle.
Coordinate Clause (ii): He found a fracture in my ankle.
Conjunction: and

1. Read the lesson and name the following:

Question a.
First surgeon to perform operations
Answer:
Sushruta

Question b.
Anaesthetics used from mid 19th century
Answer:
Ether and chloroform

Question c.
First successful Cardiac Surgeon
Answer:
Dr. Williams

Question d.
A sack around the heart
Answer:
pericardium

Question e.
Father of modern neurosurgery
Answer:
Harvey Cushing

Question f.
World’s most advanced surgical robot
Answer:
the Da Vinci.

2. Match the terms in ‘A’ with their explanation in ‘B’:

Question 1.

Answer:
(1) – (f).
(2) – (d).
(3) – (g).
(4) – (h).
(5) – (a).
(6) – (e).
(7) – (b).
(8) – (i).

3. Fill in the web with words related to ‘Surgery’:

Answer:

4. Write 3 to 4 lines about each of the following in your own words:

Question a.
Sushruta Samhita
Answer:
It is thought that Sushruta was probably the first surgeon to perform surgical operations, and the Sushruta Samhita is one of the oldest works In the world that deal with surgery.

Question b.
First Cardiac Surgery
Answer:
The first cardiac surgery was done by Dr Williams. A patient, James Cornish. was suffering from a very serious knife wound, and the knife had cut an artery less than an inch from his heart. It had punctured the pcricardium. Dr Williams and six staff doctors performed a complicated and daring operation and repaired the heart. This became the first successful cardiac surgery.

Question c.
First Neurosurgeon
Answer:
Harvey Cushing was the first neurosurgeon and is considered to be the father of modern neurological surgery. In the early part of the 20g” century, he developed basic techniques and instruments for operating on the brain. Cushing reduced the mortality rate for neurosurgery from 90% to less than 10%. By 1937, when he retired, he had successfully removed more than 2000 tumours. One of his most significant achievements was the development of a method to stem blood loss by inventing a clip called the ‘silver clip’ or the ‘Cushing clip’.

Question d.
The Robotic Surgery
Answer:
Robotic surgery is a type of minimal invasive surgery. Use Is made of miniature surgical Instruments, that fit through quarter-inch Incisions. Robotic surgery gives the surgeon a 3-D view of the operating site. Every movement he makes with the master controls Is replicated accurately by the robot. When necessary. the surgeon can even change the scale of the robot’s movements. Surgeons can use this technology to perform complex surgical procedures.

5. A. Fill in the gap in the table of Degrees of Comparison:

Answer:

5. B. Adjectives which have more than two syllables (long words) take more and most before them to form Comparative and Superlative degrees:
For example : successful – Positive Degree
more successful – Comparative Degree
most successful – Superlative Degree
Give the Comparative and Superlative forms of:

Answer:

6. Join the sentences using appropriate Co-ordinators. (but, or, so, and):

Question a.
There was lack of technology. Major surgery could not develop for centuries.
Answer:
There was lack of technology,so Major surgery could not develop for centuries.

Question b.
Cardiac Surgery was tried in the past. Patients did not survive.
Answer:
Cardiac Surgery was tried in the past butPatients did not survive.

Question c.
He places his fingers into the master controls. He operates all four arms of the Da vinci.
Answer:
He places his fingers into the master controls and He operates all four arms of the Da vinci.

Question d.
Open heart surgery can help to repair heart valves. It can also replace them.
Answer:
Open heart surgery can help to repair heart valves or It can also replace them.

Question e.
Heart patients were treated with sedatives. They did not survive.
Answer:
Heart patients were treated with sedatives but They did not survive.

Question f.
These procedures can be performed through very small incisions. Our patients experience a number of benefits.
Answer:
These procedures can be performed through very small incisions so Our patients experience a number of benefits.

7. Write in your notebook an imaginary telephonic conversation between you and your family – secretary, asking for an appointment to consult the doctor for a health problem you are suffering from. Begin with

Secretary: Good morning! This is XYZ Clinic. How can I help you?
Myself: Good morning! I am
(Now continue……)

Class 8 English Chapter 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Additional Important Questions and Answers

Write if the following statements True or False:

Question 1.
General anaesthesia makes the whole body numb.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Daniel Williams was a young African American surgeon.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Cardiac surgery was unknown after 1893.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Cardiac surgery relates to the nerves and brain.
Answer:
False

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Doctors began to use anesthesia:
Answer:
Doctors could not cut open the part of the body that was not healthy to remove or set right the part, for this would involve a lot of pain to the patient. Hence, doctors began to use general or local anaesthesia, which benumbs the whole body or part of the body. After this, the surgery could be done without pain to the patient.

Question 2.
Cardiac surgery had not developed:
Answer:
Cardiac surgery had not developed because doctors did not have modern medical tools and procedures essential for heart surgery.

Activities based on Contextual Grammar:

Question 1.
Daniel Williams attempted a new medical technique in order to save a patient’s life.
(Pick out the subject and predicate.)
Answer:
subject – Daniel Williams
predicate – attempted a new medical technique in order to save a patient’s life

Question 2.
Sushruta was the first surgeon to perform surgical operations.
(Rewrite as a negative sentence.)
Answer:
No other surgeon had performed surgical operations before Sushruta.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
How do you feel when you are sick and have to go to a doctor?
Answer:
When I am sick and have to go to a doctor, I usually feel a little frightened that he may give me an injection or ask me to have a blood test. I also feel afraid that he may put me on a strict diet.

Name the following:

Question 1.
First successful Cardiac Surgeon:
Answer:
Dr. Williams

Question 2.
A sack around the heart:
Answer:
pericardium

Question 3.
Father of modern neurosurgery:
Answer:
Harvey Cushing

Question 4.
He was suffering from very serious knife wound:
Answer:
James Cornish

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Describe what kind of cardiac surgery is done nowadays.
Answer:
Nowadays, more advanced techniques are used to deal with heart complications. Open heart surgery, which helps to repair heart defects and heart valves and even replace them, is also performed successfully.

Question 2.
Explain who neurosurgeons operate upon and on what body parts.
Answer:
Neurosurgeons treat those who have disorders of the nervous system.
They can treat patients of all ages, from the newborn to the elderly, who have suffered a stroke. They operate on the brain, the spine, or the nerves.

Pick out the main clause and the subordinate clause in the following sentences:

Question 1.
Open heart surgery, which can help to repair heart defects, is also performed successfully.
Answer:
main clause: Open heart surgery is also performed successfully
subordinate clause: which can help to repair heart defects

Question 2.
They can treat patients of all ages who have suffered a stroke.
Answer:
main clause: They can treat patients of all ages.
subordinate clause: who have suffered a stroke

Personal Response:
Question 1.
Name a scientist whom you admire and say why you admire him/her.
Answer:
I admire the scientist Thomas Alva: Edison. He was an American inventor who has been described as America’s greatest inventor. He developed many devices that have greatly influenced our lives, including the phonograph, the motion picture camera, and the long-lasting electric light bulb.

Complete the following:

Question 1.
Da Vinci is the word’s ______.
Answer:
most advanced surgical robot

Question 2.
The Da Vinci’s miniaturized instruments are mounted on ______.
Answer:
three separate robotic arms

Question 3.
The surgeon controls the instruments from a ______.
Answer:
console located in the operating room

List the advantages of robotic surgery.
Answer:
The advantages of robotic surgery:

• Instead of operating on patients through large incisions, use is made of miniature surgical instruments, that fit through quarter inch incisions.
• Robotic surgery gives the surgeon a 3-D view of the operating site.
• Every movement the surgeon makes with the master controls is replicated accurately by the robot.
• When necessary, the surgeon can even change the scale of the robot’s movements.
• Surgeons can use this technology to perform complex surgical procedures.
• Since the incisions made are very small, the patients too benefit.

Activities based on Contextual Grammar:

Question 1.
Our surgeons are able to perform a growing number of complex surgical procedures. (Pick out the non-Jlnite verbs and say what they are.)
Answer:
to perform – Infinitive;
growing – present participle

Question 2.
The surgeon controls these instruments and the camera from a console, located in the operating room.
(Pick out the prepositions.)
Answer:
from

Personal Response:

What are the qualities needed to be a doctor?
Answer:
To be a doctor, one must be very sincere, intelligent, hardworking and dedicated. A doctor must be prepared to work odd hours. He must be strong- minded and ready to face people who are in pain and distress, and who may be facing death. Finally, last but not the least, the main aim of a doctor should be to cure people. Money should be secondary.

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the word chain of 5 nouns:
surgery → …….. → ………. → ……… →
Answer:
surgery → youth → happiness → strength → health

Question 2.
Pick out the antonyms of the following words from those given in brackets:
simple, increased (successful, complicated, reduced, invasive, separate)
Answer:
simple x complicated
increased x reduced

Question 3.
Arrange the following words in alphabetical order:
dramatically, mortality, disorders,magnified.
Answer:
disorders, dramatically, magnified, mortality.

Std 8th English Workbook Answers Maharashtra Board Unit 4

• The Vet Class 8 English Solutions
• Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Class 8 English Solutions
• The Bees Class 8 English Solutions
• Ramanujan Class 8 English Solutions
• A Battle to Baffle Class 8 English Solutions

Std 8 Science Chapter 12 Introduction to Acid and Base Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Acid and Base Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Introduction to Acid and Base Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Introduction to Acid and Base Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the following solutions, whether they are acid or base.

Question a.

Answer:

2. Write chemical names from given formulae.
H₂SO₄, Ca(OH)₂, HCl, NaOH, KOH, NH₄OH

Question a.
Write the chemical names from given formulae: H₂SO₄, Ca(OH)₂, HCl, NaOH, KOH, NH₄OH
Answer:

1. H₂SO₄ – Sulphuric acid
2. Ca(OH)₂ – Calcium hydroxide
3. HCl – Hydrochloric acid
4. NaOH – Sodium hydroxide
5. KOH – Potassium hydroxide
6. NH₄OH – Ammonium hydroxide

3. Sulphuric acid has highest importance in chemical Industry. Why?

Question a.
Sulphuric acid has highest importance in chemical Industry. Why?
Answer:
Answer:
Sulphuric acid has highest importance in the chemical industry because it is used in the manufacturing of fertilizers like ammonium sulphate and superphosphate of lime. It is used in the manufacturing of hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, phosphoric acid, ether, plastics and metal sulphates. It is also used in the manufacturing of dyes, drugs, perfumes, disinfectants and glue.

4. Give answers.

Question a.
Which acid is used for getting chloride salt?
Answer:
Hydrochloric acid is used for getting chloride salt.

Question b.
By squeezzing lemon on a piece of rock the gas liberated turned lime water milky. Which compound is present in the rock?
Answer:
Metal carbonate is present in the rock.

Question c.
The label on the bottle of chemical is spoiled. How will you find whether the chemical is acidic or not?
Answer:
The chemical is tested with blue litmus paper. If it turns red it is an acidic otherwise tested with red litmus paper, if it turns blue, it is an alkaline.

5. Answer the following questions. 

Question a.
Explain the difference between acid and base.
Answer:
Acids:

1. Acids have sour taste.
2. Acids turn blue litmus red.

Bases:

1. Bases have bitter taste.
2. Bases turn red litmus blue.

Question b.
Why indicator does not affect by salt?
Answer:
Mostly indicators are organic compounds which do not react with a salt.

Question c.
Which substances are produced i by neutralization process?
Answer:
Salt and water are produced in the f neutralization process.

Question d.
Which are the industrial uses of acids?
Answer:
Acids which are used in the industry are:

1. Sulphuric acid
2. Hydrochloric acid
3. Nitric acid.;

1. Sulphuric acid: Sulphuric acid is 5 used (a) in the manufacture of chemical? fertilizers like ammonium sulphate, (b) for cleaning gold and silver articles and (c) in car batteries.

2. Hydrochloric acid: Hydrochloric acid is used (a) to clean toilets and (b) to obtain glucose from starch and also for producing gelatine.

3. Nitric acid: Nitric acid is used (a) in the manufacture of perfumes (b) for engraving on copper, brass or silver and (c) in the manufacture of paints and explosives.

6. Select proper word given in bracket and fill in the blanks.

Question a.
Main constituent of acid is ……………. .
Answer:
Main constituent of acid is H⁺ ion.

Question b.
Main constituent of alkali is …………….. .
Answer:
Main constituent of alkali is OH^– ion.

Question c.
Tartaric acid is a …………… acid.
Answer:
Tartaric acid is a weak acid.

7. Match the pairs. 

Question a.

Answer:

8. State true or false.

Question a.
Oxides of metals are alkaline in nature.
Answer:
True.

Question b.
Salt is acidic.
Answer:
False. (Salt is neutral)

Question c.
Metal corrodes due to salts.
Answer:
False. (Acids and bases corrode metals)

Question d.
Salts are neutral.
Answer:
True. (Not all salts neutral)

9. Classify the following substances into acidic, basic and neutral group:
HCl, NaCl, MgO, KCl, CaO, H₂SO₄, HNO₃, H₂O and Na₂CO₃.

Question a.
Classify the following substances into acidic, basic and neutral group:
HCl, NaCl, MgO, KCl, CaO, H₂SO₄, HNO₃, H₂O and Na₂CO₃.
Answer:

Project:

Question a.
Write in your own language the uses and importance of neutralization reaction in daily life.

Class 8 Science Chapter 12 Introduction to Acid and Base Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Acid reacts with metal to form …………. gas.
Answer:
Acid reacts with metal to form hydrogen gas.

Question 2.
DNA is an acid present in our body, it decides …………. properties.
Answer:
DNA is an acid present in our body, it decides heredity properties.

Question 3.
The chemical formula of milk of magnesia is ………….
Answer:
The chemical formula of milk of magnesia is Mg (OH)₂.

Question 4.
…………. are used to control hyperacidity.
Answer:
Antacids are used to control hyperacidity.

Question 5.
Alkali has …………. taste.
Answer:
Alkali has bitter taste.

Question 6.
Proteins are made up of ………….
Answer:
Proteins are made up of amino acids.

Question 7.
…………. is used in batteries.
Answer:
Dil. H₂SO₄ is used in batteries.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in alkaline solution is ………….
(a) yellow
(b) green
(c) orange
(d) pink
Answer:
The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in alkaline solution is pink.

Question 2.
…………. is sour to taste.
(a) An acid
(b) An alkali
(c) A salt
(d) Alcohol
Answer:
An acid is sour to taste.

Question 3.
When phenolphthalein is added to NaOH, the colour of the solution will become ……………… .
(a) colourless
(b) red
(c) pink
(d) yellow
Answer:
When phenolphthalein is added to 5 NaOH, the colour of the solution will become pink.

Question 4.
When phenolphthalein is added to HCl, the colour of the solution will be ………….. .
(a) red
(b) pink
(c) green
(d) colourless
Answer:
When phenolphthalein is added to HCl, the colour of the solution will be colourless.

Question 5.
…………. is a natural indicator.
(a) Phenolphthalein
(b) Methyl orange
(c) Litmus
(d) Methyl red
Answer:
Litmus is a natural indicator.

Question 6.
The litmus paper or the litmus solution is obtained from …………. plants.
(a) moss
(b) rose
(c) hibiscus
(d) lichen
Answer:
The litmus paper or the litmus solution is obtained from lichen plants.

Question 7.
…………. is not an alkali.
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Potassium hydroxide
(c) Copper hydroxide
(d) Calcium hydroxide
Answer:
Copper hydroxide is not an alkali.

Question 8.
…………. is a weak acid.
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Carbonic acid
(d) Sulphuric acid
Answer:
Carbonic acid is a weak acid.

Question 9.
When methyl orange is added to HCl, the colour of the solution will be …………… .
(a) red
(b) pink
(c) yellow
(d) colourless
Answer:
When methyl orange is added to HCl, the colour of the solution will be pink.

Question 10.
When blue litmus paper is added to NaOH, the colour of the litmus paper will be ……………. .
(a) blue
(b) red
(c) pink
(d) yellow
Answer:
When blue litmus paper is added to NaOH, the colour of the litmus paper will be blue.

State whether the following statements are true or false. If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite:

Question 1.
Red cabbage is a natural indicator.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Fats of our body are formed by fatty acids.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Ammonium hydroxide is used in the production of fertilizers.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Lime water is a weak acid.
Answer:
False. (Limewater is a weak base)

Question 5.
Orange colour of methyl orange turns yellow in acid.
Answer:
False. (Orange colour of methyl orange turns pink in acid)

Question 6.
Methyl red turns yellow in alkali.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Oxalic acid is used in aerated cold drinks.
Answer:
False. (Carbonic acid is used in aerated cold drinks).

Find the odd one out and justify:

Question 1.
Acetic acid, carbonic acid, hydrochloric acid, nitric acid.
Answer:
Acetic acid. (Others are mineral acids.)

Question 2.
Hydrogen chloride, sodium hydroxide, calcium oxide, ammonia.
Answer:
Hydrogen chloride. (Others are bases.)

Question 3.
HCl, CH₃COOH, H₂SO₄, HNO₃
Answer:
CH₃COOH. (Others are strong acids.)

Question 4.
NaOH, Ca(OH)₂, NH₄OH, Ba(OH)₂
Answer:
NaOH (Others are weak bases.)

Question 5.
H₂SO₄, H₂CO₃, HCl, HNO₃
Answer:
H₂CO₃ (Others are strong acids.)

Question 6.
Citric acid, formic acid, lactic acid, nitric acid.
Answer:
Nitric acid. (Others are organic acids.)

Question 7.
Lime, litmus, phenolphthalein, methyl orange.
Answer:
Lime. (Others are indicators.)

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Define the following:

1. Acid: A substance which gives H⁺ ions in water is called an acid.

2. Alkali: A substance which gives OH^– ions in water is called an alkali.

3. Indicator: Substances which change their colours in presence of acid or base are called indicators.

4. Neutralization: The reaction between an acid and an alkali to form the r salt and water is termed as neutralization.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What are natural acids?
Answer:
Acids present in foodstuffs are called natural acids.

Question 2.
State three vegetables from which natural indicators can be prepared.
Answer:
Natural indicators: Red cabbage, radish, tomato.

Question 3.
State names of any three strong acids.
Answer:

1. Hydrochloric acid
2. Sulphuric acid
3. Nitric acid.

Question 4.
State the names of the acids found in lemon juice, Amla, tamarind water and curd.
Answer:

1. Lemonuice – citric acid
2. Amla – ascorbic acid
3. tamarind water – tartaric acid
4. curd – lactic acid.

Question 5.
State names of any three alkalis.
Answer:

1. sodium hydroxide
2. potassium hydroxide
3. calcium hydroxide.

Question 6.
State the names of three indicators.
Answer:

1. Litmus paper
2. Methyl orange
3. Phenolphthalein.

Question 7.
State the names of three weak alkalis.
Answer:

1. Calcium hydroxide
2. ammonium hydroxide
3. magnesium hydroxide.

Question 8.
From which plant is litmus obtained?
Answer:
Litmus is obtained from plants called lichens.

Question 9.
Name the antacid which is used to control the hyper acidity.
Answer:
Milk of magnesia [Mg(OH)₂] is used to control the hyper acidity.

Question 10.
How will you neutralize the excess of acid present in the soil?
Answer:
Lime stone or lime water is mixed in the soil to neutralize the excess of acid.

Question 11.
When lemonuice falls on a marble kitchen counter, which is the gas that bubbled out?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What are indicators?
Answer:
Substances which change their colours in presence of acid or base are called indicators.

Question 2.
State two acid-base indicators and mention their colour change.
Answer:
Phenolphthalein and methyl orange are two acid-base indicators. Phenolphthalein is colourless in an acidic solution while it turns pink in a basic solution. Methyl orange gives orange colour with an acidic solution and yellow colour with a basic solution.

Question 3.
State the colour change for each of the following solutions with red litmus, blue litmus, phenolphthalein and methyl orange solutions.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the acid present in (1) Orange (2) Vinegar (3) Tamarind (4) Curd (5) Tomato (6) Lemon.
Answer:

Question 5.
Classify the following into acidic substances, basic substances and salts.
(1) Lime water, (2) soda water, (3) soap water, (4) sea water, (5) sweet limeuice, (6) sugar caneuice, (7) buttermilk, (8) a mixture of ash in water, (9) tamarind water.
Answer:
a. Acidic substances: (1) Soda water, (2) sweet limeuice, (3) buttermilk, (4) tamarind water.
b. Basic substances: (1) Lime water, (2) Soap water, (3) a mixture of ash in water.
c. Salts: (1) Sea water, (2) sugar caneuice.

Question 6.
What happens when sour substances like limeuice, tamarind water falls on shahabad stones or kitchen platform? Why?
Answer:
When sour substances like limeuice, tamarind water falls on shahabad stones or kitchen platform, citric acid present in limeuice and tartaric acid in tamarind water reacts with metal carbonates present in shahabad stones or kitchen platform, carbon dioxide gas is evolved resulting in the formation of uneven surface.

Question 7.
Collect soil samples from your surroundings and find out whether it is acidic or alkaline or neutral?
Answer:
Soil samples collected from the surroundings are acidic in nature.

Question 8.
Which substances are used to clean greenish stains on copper vessels and to shine blackish silver utensils?
Answer:
Tamarind pulp is used to clean greenish stains on copper vessels. To shine blackish silver utensils, ammoniacal solution or limeuice or detergent is used.

Question 9.
Why toothpaste is used for brushing teeth?
Answer:

1. Toothpaste contains fluorides and alkali to neutralize the mouth acid.
2. Hence, the tooth paste, which is generally alkaline, is used for cleaning the teeth as it can neutralize the excess acid in i the mouth and prevent tooth decay.

Question 10.
State the properties of acids.
Answer:

1. Acids are sour in taste.
2. Acid molecules contain hydrogen ion (H⁺) as a main constituent.
3. Acid reacts with metal to form hydrogen gas.
4. Acid reacts with carbonates and liberates CO₂ gas.
5. Blue litmus turns red in acid.

Question 11.
State the uses of acids.
Answer:

1. Acids are used in the production s of chemical fertilizers.
2. Acids are used in the production of explosives, oil purification, medicines, dyes and paints.
3. Hydrochloric acid is used for the preparation of different types of chloride salts.
4. Dil. H₂SO₄ acid is used in the batteries (electric cell).
5. Dil. HCl is used for sterilization of water.
6. Acid is used for making of white paper from wood pulp.

Question 12.
The iron knife shines better after cutting the sour fruits like lemon, raw mangoes. Why?
Answer:
Acids present in sour fruits clean and dissolves the salts present on the surface of iron knife as a result iron knife shines better after cutting the sour fruits.

Question 13.
What is meant by neutralization? Give example.
Answer:
When an acid reacts with an alkali to form a salt and water, it is called neutralization.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
When we have stomachache, doctors prescribe medicine containing magnesium hydroxide.
Answer:

1. There is hydrochloric acid in our stomach which helps in the digestion of food.
2. Sometimes in the stomach, there is more hydrochloric acid than we need.
3. This excess acid causes acidity and indigestion resulting in stomachache.
4. When magnesium hydroxide is administered it neutralizes the extra acid in the stomach.
5. Therefore, magnesium hydroxide is the best cure for stomachache.
6. So, when we have stomachache, doctors prescribe medicine containing magnesium hydroxide.

Question 2.
Quicklime or slaked lime is added to the soil.
Answer:

1. When chemical fertilizers are added to the soil, the soil becomes acidic.
2. To reduce its acidity quicklime or slaked lime is added to the soil.

Question 3.
Tarnished and stained copper vessels are brought to a shine by using tamarind pulp.
Answer:
In due course, unus6d copper vessels
are covered with a coating of black copper oxide and other compounds of copper which tarnish the vessel. Tamarind contains tartaric acid. When the vessel is rubbed with tamarind pulp, tartaric acid reacts with copper oxide and removes the layer. Thus, the copper vessel regains its shine.

Question 4.
Copper and brass utensils are tinned.
Answer:
Copper and brass reacts with i organic acids present in food materials and poisonous salts are formed. Tin does not react with organic acids present in food materials. Therefore, copper or brass vessels are tinned.

Distinguish between acid and alkali. OR Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Acid and Alkali:
Answer:

Activity-based questions:

Activity 1:
Apparatus: Hibiscus, rose, turmeric, red cabbage leaves, filter paper, etc.
Activity: Rub red petals of hibiscus flower on the white filter paper. This gives hibiscus indicator paper. Similarly rub, rose petals on the white filter paper. Cut strips of this paper, it is a rose indicator paper. Take turmeric powder, add a little water in it. Dip filter paper or ordinary paper in the turmeric water for some time.

After drying make strips of that paper. Prepare turmeric indicator paper in this way. Put leaves of red cabbage in small quantity of water and heat it. Once solution of cabbage leaves cool down, dip papers in it and dry it. Make strips of dried paper. In this way prepare red cabbage indicator paper. Put some drops of following substances on the indicator papers prepared by the above method and write the effect in the following table:

Activity 2:
Take baking powder. Add a little water to it. Add this solution on to limeuice, vinegar, orangeuice, appleuice, etc. and note the findings.
What do you observe on addition of baking soda solution in the fruituice? Whether bubbles formed or effervescence came out of fruituice?
From the above first activity we came to know that yellow turmeric indicator paper’s turns red in certain solutions. Similarly on addition of baking soda solution in the acidic solution bubbles come out or effervescence is produced.
By these simple and easy activity we can identify acidic or alkaline substance:
[Note for Activity 1 and Activity 2: Students should perform the experiments under the guidance of school teachers and record their observations.]

Activity 3:
Under the guidance of teacher take limeuice, ammonium hydroxide (NH₄OH), dil. hydrochloric acid (dil. HCl) and nitric acid (HNOs) in different test-tubes. Add drops of following indicators in them. Also dip litmus papers in the solutions. Observe and record in the following table.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 8th Std Science Textbook Solutions

• Human Body and Organ System Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Introduction to Acid and Base Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Change and Chemical Bond Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Measurement and Effects of Heat Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Reflection of Light Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Man-made Materials Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Ecosystems Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Life Cycle of Stars Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 8 Science Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the table:

Question a.

Answer:

2. Identify the odd term.

Question a.
Gold, Silver, Iron, Diamond.
Answer:
Diamond. (Others are metals.)

Question b.
Ductility, Brittleness, Sonority, Malleability.
Answer:
Brittleness. (Other properties are metallic properties.)

Question c.
Carbon, Bromine, Sulphur, Phosphorus.
Answer:
Bromine. (Others are solids.)

Question d.
Brass, Bronze, Iron, Steel.
Answer:
Iron. (Others are alloys.)

3. Give scientific reasons:

Question a.
The stainless steel vessels in kitchen have copper coating on the bottom.
Answer:

1. Stainless steel is an alloy of iron ; with carbon, chromium and nickel.
2. The conductivity of copper is higher than that of iron in steel. Copper heats uniformly and faster. The time for cooking is reduced, as a result it saves fuel. Hence, the stainless steel vessels in kitchen have copper coating on the bottom.

Question b.
Copper and brass vessels are cleaned with lemon.
Answer:

1. Copper undergoes oxidation in air to form black copper oxide. Copper oxide reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in air and gains a green coat. This green substance is copper carbonate.
2. Lemon contains acid. The acid dissolves the green coating of basic copper carbonate present on the surface of a tarnished copper and brass vessels and makes them shiny again.

Question c.
Sodium metal is kept in kerosene.
Answer:

1. Sodium reacts so vigorously with atmospheric oxygen and water that it catches fire if kept in the open.
2. It does not react with kerosene and sinks in it. Hence, to protect sodium and to prevent accidental fires it is always kept in kerosene.

4. Answer the following: 

Question a.
What is done to prevent corrosion of metals?
Answer:
By applying a layer of paint, oil, grease or varnish on the surface of a metal to prevent corrosion. Also plating with noncorroding metal is done. Iron is coated with thin layer of zinc. Due to these processes the contact of metal surface with air is lost and corrosion is prevented.

Question b.
What are the metals that make the alloys brass and bronze?
Answer:
The alloy brass is formed from copper and zinc and the alloy bronze is formed from copper and tin.

Question c.
What are the adverse effects of i corrosion?
Answer:

1. A reddish coloured deposit (rust) is formed on iron by reaction with oxygen gas.
2. A greenish coloured deposit (copper carbonate) is formed on copper by reaction with carbon dioxide.
3. A blackish coloured deposit is formed (silver sulphide) on silver.
4. Corrosion causes damages to car bodies, bridges, iron railings, ships specially those of iron, silver articles and copper vessels.

Question c.
What are the uses of noble metals?
Answer:
Uses of Noble Metals:

1. Gold, silver and platinum are used to prepare ornaments.
2. Silver is used in medicines. (It has antibacterial property).
3. Gold and silver are also used to make metals and few electronic devices.
4. Platinum, palladium metals are used as catalyst.

5. Three experiments to study the process of rusting are given below. Observe the three test tubes and answer the following questions.

Question a.
Why the nail in the test tube 2 is not rusted?
Answer:
In the test tube 2, oil cuts the supply of air to nail due to which oxidation of nail is prevented and boiled water is free from gases. Hence, the nail in the test tube 2 is not rusted.

Question b.
Why is the nail in the test tube 1 is rusted highly?
Answer:
The nail in the test tube 1 is highly rusted because nail is in contact with water and air. The oxidation process is fast.

Question c.
Would the nail in the test tube 3 get rusted?
Answer:
No change is observed in the test tube 3. Nail remains as it is because the calcium chloride absorbs moisture, making the air dry, thus preventing rusting of the nail.

Project:

Question a.
How is the Varkha or silver foil used in sweets made? Collect the information about which metals are used to make ‘Varkha’.

Class 8 Science Chapter 7 Metals and Nonmetals Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
Gold of 100% purity is …………… carat gold.
Answer:
Gold of 100% purity is 24 carat gold.

Question 2.
The stainless steel utensils used at home are made of an alloy of iron with carbon, …………… and ……….. .
Answer:
The stainless steel utensils used at home are made of an alloy of iron with carbon, nickel and chromium.

Question 3.
…………….. is used in medicines.
Answer:
Silver is used in medicines.

Question 4.
To prepare ornaments ………… carat gold is used.
Answer:
To prepare ornaments 22 carat gold is used.

Question 5.
Non-metals are ………… conductors of heat and electricity.
Answer:
Non-metals are bad conductors of heat and electricity.

Question 6.
Non-metals form ………….. oxides.
Answer:
Non-metals form acidic oxides.

Question 7.
Some element can be hammered into thin sheets. This property is called …………….. .
Answer:
Some element can be hammered into thin sheets. This property is called malleability.

Question 8.
Iodine and ……………. are the two non – metals having typical metallic lustre.
Answer:
Iodine and diamond are the two non¬metals having typical metallic lustre.

Question 9.
Non-metals form ………. ions by gain of electrons.
Answer:
Non-metals form negative ions by gain of electrons.

Question 10.
During formation of positively charged ion, atom of metal ………….. .
Answer:
During formation of positively charged ion, atom of metal lose electrons.

Rewrite the following statements by selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
Metalloids have properties of …………. .
(a) metals
(b) non-metals
(c) both metals and non-metals
(d) neither metals nor non-metals
Answer:
(c) both metals and non-metals

Question 2.
………….. is a metal.
(a) Hg
(b) S
(c) P
(d) Br
Answer:
(a) Hg

Question 3.
…………… is a non-metal.
(a) Aug
(b) Ag
(c) Br
(d) Cu
Answer:
(c) Br

Question 4.
……………. is a metalloid.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Antimony
(c) Zinc
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(b) Antimony

Question 5.
……………. is a metal which is in liquid form at ordinary temperature.
(a) Gallium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium
(d) Scandium
Answer:
(a) Gallium

Question 6.
…………….. is an acidic oxide.
(a) Na₂O
(b) CO₂
(c) FeOs
(d) H₂O
Answer:
(b) CO₂

Question 7.
The valence electron in …………… atom is 1.
(a) magnesium
(b) sodium
(c) silicon
(d) aluminium
Answer:
(b) sodium

Question 8.
The electronic configuration of oxygen is …………….. .
(a) 2, 5
(b) 2, 6
(c) 2, 4
(d) 2, 8, 6
Answer:
(b) 2, 6

Question 9.
Pure ………… is soft.
(a) aluminium
(b) silver
(c) gold
(d) platinum
Answer:
(c) gold

Question 10.
…………… is a highly malleable metal.
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Manganese
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(d) Aluminium

Question 11.
22 carat gold is gold of …………… purity.
(a) 100%
(b) 91.66%
(c) 75%
(d) 44%
Answer:
(b) 91.66%

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Metals are sonorous.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Diamond is the softest natural substance.
Answer:
False. (Diamond is the hardest natural substance.)

Question 3.
The density of lithium is lower than water.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Sulphur is brown in colour.
Answer:
False. (Sulphur is yellow in colour.)

Question 5.
Germanium is a metalloid.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Ornaments are made from 24 carat gold.
Answer:
False. (Ornaments are made from 22 carat gold.)

Question 7.
A reddish coloured deposit is formed on iron by reaction with oxygen.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Paladium and rhodium are noble metals.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The metal oxides are acidic in nature.
Answer:
False. (The metal oxides are basic in nature.)

Question 10.
The metal reacts with dilute acids to form a metal salt.
Answer:
True.

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Magnesium, Mercury, Sodium, Iron.
Answer:
Mercury. (Others metals are in solid state at normal temperature.)

Question 2.
Magnesium, Aluminium, Sulphur, Copper.
Answer:
Sulphur. (Others are metals.)

Question 3.
Iron, Copper, Graphite, Phosphorus.
Answer:
Phosphorus. (Others are good conductors of electricity.)

Question 4.
Tin, Bronze, Steel, Stainless steel.
Answer:
Tin. (Others are alloys.)

Consider the relation between the items in the first pair and write the correlation for second pair:

Question 1.
Mercury : Metal : : Carbon : …………. .
Answer:
Non-metal

Question 2.
Wood : Bad conductor of electricity : : Copper : ………………… .
Answer:
Good conductor or electricity

Question 3.
Gold : Noble metal : : Copper: ……………. .
Answer:
Metal

Question 4.
Iron and carbon : Steel : : Copper and Tin : ……….. .
Answer:
Bronze

Question 5.
0 : 2, 6 : : Mg : …………….. .
Answer:
2, 8, 2.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Define the following:

1. Ductility: The property due to which a substance can be drawn into a thin wire is called ductility.
2. Malleability: The property due to which a substance can be hammered into a thin sheet is called malleability.
3. Metalloids: The element which shows the properties of metals as well as those of non-metals is called a metalloid.
4. Corrosion: Gases in the air react with metals in presence of moisture to form metal compounds on its surface, this destroys the metal gradually and is called corrosion.
5. Alloy: A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or a homogeneous mixture of metal with non-metals is called alloy.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name an alloy of copper and tin.
Answer:
An alloy of copper and tin is termed as bronze.

Question 2.
Name a metal which is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.
Answer:
Mercury is in liquid state at ordinary temperature.

Question 3.
Name two metals which are malleable.
Answer:
Iron and aluminium are malleable metals.

Question 4.
Name two metals which are ductile.
Answer:
Gold and silver are ductile metals.

Question 5.
Name two metals which are good conductors of heat.
Answer:
Silver and copper are good conductors of heat.

Question 6.
Name two metals which are good conductors of electricity.
Answer:
Copper and aluminium are good conductors of electricity.

Question 7.
Name two non-metals which are in solid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Carbon and sulphur are solids at room temperature.

Question 8.
Name two non-metals which are in gaseous state at room temperature.
Answer:
Hydrogen and oxygen are in gaseous state at room temperature.

Question 9.
Name the non-metal having electrical conductivity.
Answer:
Graphite has electrical conductivity.

Question 10.
Name two non-metals which are lustrous.
Answer:
Iodine and diamond are lustrous in nature.

Question 11.
Name two non-metals having high melting points.
Answer:
Carbon and boron melt at high temperature.

Question 12.
State two metals which can be cut easily with a knife.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium are soft metals and can be cut easily with a knife.

Question 13.
Which is the hardest natural substance?
Answer:
Diamond, which is a form of carbon is the hardest natural substance.

Question 14.
State the property of the metals for which they can be drawn into wires.
Answer:
The property of the metals due to which they can be drawn into wires is called ductility.

Question 15.
State the property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets.
Answer:
The property of the metals due to which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability.

Question 16.
Which of the following metals react with cold water? Sodium, iron, copper, potassium.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium metals react with cold water.

Question 17.
Which of the following metals do not react with cold water or hot water?
Answer:
Aluminium and iron do not react with cold water or hot water.

Question 18.
What are the constituents of stainless steel?
Answer:
Iron with carbon, chromium and nickel are the constituents of stainless steel.

Question 19.
State the term used to express the purity of gold.
Answer:
The purity of gold is expressed in carat.

Question 20.
Name two metals having low melting points and boiling points.
Answer:
Sodium and potassium having low melting points and boiling points.

Question 21.
Name a non-metal which is in liquid state at room temperature.
Answer:
Bromine is in liquid state at room temperature.

Question 22.
State the atomic number and electronic configuration of sodium.
Answer:
Atomic number of sodium: 11.
Electronic configuration of sodium (Na): 2, 8, 1.

Question 23.
State the atomic number and electronic configuration of aluminium.
Answer:
Atomic number of aluminium: 13.
Electronic configuration of aluminium (Al): 2, 8, 3.

Question 24.
Give two example of metalloids.
Answer:
Metalloids: Arsenic (As),
germanium (Ge), antimony (Sb).

Question 25.
State the atomic number and electronic configuration of nitrogen.
Answer:
Atomic number of nitrogen: 7.
Electronic configuration of nitrogen (N): 2, 5.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
A metal can be drawn into a wire. Explain why.
Answer:

1. The property due to which a substance can be draw into a thin wire is called ductility.
2. Metals are ductile. Thus, a metal can be draw into a wire.

Question 2.
A metal can be hammered into a i thin sheet. Explain why.
Answer:

1. The property due to which a substance can be hammered (or rolled) into a thin sheet without cracking is called malleability.
2. Metals are malleable. Thus, a metal can be hammered to form a thin sheet.

Question 3.
State the properties of metals.
Answer:

1. Metals have a lustre.
2. Metals are malleable. They can be beaten into thin sheets.
3. Metals are ductile. They can be drawn into wires.
4. They are good conductors of heat and electricity.
5. At ordinary temperature, metals are generally solid. (Exception: Mercury is liquid.)
6. Metals usually have high density.

Question 4.
State the properties of non-metals.
Answer:

1. Non-metals lack lustre.
2. As non-metals are brittle, they are not malleable.
3. They are not ductile.
4. Non-metals are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
5. At ordinary temperature, non-metals are in the solid or gaseous state. (Exception: Bromine is liquid.)
6. Non-metals have low density in the solid state.

Question 5.
How are metal ions formed? Give two examples.
Answer:
Metals have a tendency to lose their valence electrons to form positively charged ions, called cations.
Examples:

Question 6.
Classify the following elements into metals and non-metals :
Silicon, gold, silver, sulphur, carbon, aluminium, copper and phosphorus.
Answer:
Metals: Gold, silver, aluminium and copper.
Non-metals: Silicon, sulphur, carbon and phosphorus.

Question 7.
How are metal oxides formed? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Metals combine with oxygen in the ’ air to form their oxides.
Metal + Oxygen → Metal oxide
[Note: Reaction/explanation given in the screen are for better understanding of students. The same are not given in the textbook.]
When magnesium burns in air, it combines with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO
Magnesium Oxygen Magnesium oxide

Question 8.
How will you show that metal oxides are basic in nature?
Answer:
1. Take magnesium oxide in a test S tube. Add water in the test-tube. Shake the test-tube. Test the solution with red and blue litmus paper. Blue litmus paper remains as it is while red litmus paper turns blue. This shows that metal oxides are basic in nature.

2. Metal oxides react with an acid to form salt and water. Therefore, metal oxides are basic in nature.
Metal oxide + Acid → + Water

Question 9.
How do metals react with acid? Explain with an example.
Answer:
The metals react with dilute acids to form metal salts. Metals liberate hydrogen gas from dilute acids.
Metal + Dilute acid → Metal salt + Hydrogen gas.
Magnesium reacts with dilute HCl to form magnesium chloride and hydrogen gas.

Question 10.
How do metals react with water? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Most metals do not react with cold water. But some metals like sodium and potassium react with cold water to form their hydroxides and hydrogen gas.
Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide.

Question 11.
How do non-metals react with oxygen? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Non-metals combine with oxyen to form their oxides.
Non-metal + Oxygen → Non-metal oxide
When carbon burns in air, it combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.

Question 12.
How will you show that non- metal oxides are acidic in nature?
Answer:
1. Take non-metal oxide in a test tube. Add water in the test tube. Test the solution with blue and red litmus paper. Red litmus paper remains as it is while blue litmus paper turns red. This shows that non¬metal oxides are acidic in nature.

2. The oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature. They react with bases to form soluble salt and water. Therefore, non-metal oxides are acidic in nature.
C + O₂ → CO₂
CO₂ + 2NaOH → Na2CO₃ + H₂O

Question 13.
How are non-metal ions formed? Give two examples.
Answer: Non-metals have a tendency to accept electrons in their valence shell to form negatively charged ions called anions.
Examples:

Question 14.
What is meant by noble metals? Give two examples.
Answer:
Some metals like gold, silver, platinum, paladium and rhodium are found in nature in the form of elements. They are not affected by air, water, acids and heat etc. Hence, they are called noble metals.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Ornaments are generally not made from 24-carat gold.
Answer:

1. 24-carat gold is considered as gold of 100% purity.
2. 24-carat pure gold is very soft. 100% pure gold breaks due to pressure or gets bent easily. Therefore, ornaments are generally not made from 24-carat gold.

c

Question 2.
Ships are painted at frequent intervals.
Answer:
1. The metal sheets of ships are made from iron.
2. Due to salty seawater, the metal sheets of ships get rusted and corroded. Paints contain metals like zinc or magnesium. This prevents the metal surface of the ship coming into direct contact with salty seawater. Therefore, ships are painted at frequent intervals.

Question 3.
Gold and platinum are called noble elements.
Answer:

1. The metals such as gold and platinum are found in nature in the form of elements.
2. They are not affected by water, air, acids, heat and also do not take part in chemical reactions. Hence, they are called noble metals.

Explain the following reactions with the help of balanced equations:

Question 1.
Magnesium combines with oxygen.
Answer:
Magnesium combines with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.

Question 2.
Magnesium oxide reacts with dilute HCl.
Answer:
When magnesium oxide reacts with dilute HCl, magnesium chloride (salt) and water are formed.

Question 3.
Magnesium reacts with dilute HCl.
Answer:
When magnesium reacts with dil.
hydrochloric acid, magnesium chloride is formed and hydrogen gas is evolved.

Question 4.
Sodium reacts with water.
Answer:
When sodium reacts with water, sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas are formed.

Question 5.
Carbon burns in air.
Answer:
When carbon burns in air, carbon dioxide is formed.

Question 6.
Carbon dioxide reacts with sodium hydroxide.
Answer:
When carbon dioxide reacts with sodium hydroxide, soluble salt sodium ; carbonate and water are formed.

Question 7.
Carbon dioxide reacts with water.
Answer:
When carbon dioxide reacts with water, carbonic acid is formed.

Question 8.
Sulphur dioxide reacts with water.
Answer:
When sulphur dioxide reacts with water, sulphurous acid is formed.

Question 9.
Sulphur trioxide reacts with water.
Answer:
When sulphur trioxide reacts with water, sulphuric acid is formed.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
The noble metals.
Answer:
Some metals like gold, silver, platinum, paladium and rhodium are found in nature in the form of elements. They are not affected by air, water, acids and heat etc. Hence, they are called noble metals.

Uses of Nobel Metals:

1. Gold, silver and platinum are used to prepare ornaments.
2. Silver is used in medicines. (It has antibacterial property).
3. Gold and silver are also used to make metals and few electronic devices.
4. Platinum, palladium metals are used as catalyst. .

Question 2.
The purity of gold.
Answer:
1. The purity of gold is measured in carats.
2. Twenty-four carat gold is considered as gold of 100% purity.
3. 24-carat pure gold is very soft. 100% pure gold bends easily or breaks due to pressure. Therefore, copper or silver is added to gold in the necessary proportion (while making ornaments).
4. Generally, 22-carat gold is used in making ornaments.

Question 3.
Corrosion.
Answer:
Corrosion: Gases in the air react with metals in presence of moisture to form metal compounds on its surface, this destroys the metal gradually and is called corrosion.

By applying a layer of paint, oil, grease or varnish on the surface of a metal to prevent corrosion. Also plating with noncorroding metal is done. Iron is coated with thin layer of zinc. Due to these processes, the contact of a metal surface with air is lost and corrosion is prevented.

1. A reddish coloured deposit (rust) is formed on iron by reaction with oxygen gas.
2. A greenish coloured deposit (copper carbonate) is formed on copper by reaction with carbon dioxide.
3. A blackish coloured deposit is formed (silver sulphide) on silver.
4. Corrosion causes damages to car bodies, bridges, iron railings, ships specially those of iron, silver articles and copper vessels.

Question 4.
Alloys.
Answer:

1. A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or of metals and non-metals is called an alloy.
2. They contain metals in specific proportions.
3. The physical properties of an alloy are different from those of its constituents, but chemical properties remain the same.
4. Copper and tin are used to make an alloy called bronze. It is hard and corrosion resistant.
5. When iron and carbon are mixed, an alloy steel is formed. It is a stronger material.
6. The alloy, stainless steel is made from iron, carbon, nickel and chromium. It is more durable, clean and does not rust.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Metals and Non-metals
Answer:

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 8th Std Science Textbook Solutions 

• Living World and Classification of Microbes Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Health and Diseases Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Pressure Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Current Electricity and Magnetism Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Inside the Atom Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Composition of Matter Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Metals and Nonmetals Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Pollution Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Cell and Cell Organelles Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 8 Science Chapter 18 Ecosystems Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 18 Ecosystems Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Ecosystems Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Ecosystems Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following by using the correct option:

Question a.
Air, water, minerals, soil are ………….. factors of an ecosystem. (physical, organic, inorganic)
Answer:
Air, water, minerals, soil are physical factors of an ecosystem.

Question b.
River, ponds, ocean are …………. ecosystems, (land, aquatic, synthetic)
Answer:
River, ponds, ocean are aquatic ecosystems.

Question c.
Man is ………….. in an ecosystem. (producer, consumer, decomposer)
Answer:
Man is consumer in an ecosystem.

2. Match the following:

Question a.

Answer:

3. Give my information:

Question a.
Ecosystem.
Answer:
Ecosystem is the structure formed by the interrelationships between the living organisms and non-living components in their surrounding habitats. Living organisms are also called biotic factors while the non-living components are called abiotic factors. The abiotic and biotic factors have a reciprocal relationship with each other. The ecosystem has plants as producers, animals as consumers and microbes as decomposers.

The decomposers return the substances back to the nature by process of decomposition in which the organic complex molecules are reduced to their inorganic constituents. Thus the dead remains of plants and animals are once again recycled back to the nature in any healthy ecosystem.

Question b.
Biome.
Answer:
Biomes are a larger collection of small ecosystems which are similar in their structure. In a particular biome there are same climatic, abiotic factors and similar living organisms. Biomes are of two main types, land biomes and aquatic biomes. The land biomes exist only on land. Land biomes are of following subtypes based on the abiotic factors. E.g. Grasslands, evergreen forests, deserts, Tundra ecosystem, ecosystems in Taiga, tropical rainforests, etc. Aquatic biomes include freshwater ecosystem, marine ecosystem and brackish water ecosystem found in the creeks.

Question c.
Food web.
Answer:
The complex feeding relationships form a food web. In nature in any ecosystem, the food chains are not straight and linear. But these are quite complex. A prey is consumed by a predator but this predator can itself be a prey to some other predator. E.g. Frog is a predator for variety of insects but frog is preyed upon by snake and the snake can be eaten by a bird. The same bird can also feed on insects or frog. The interrelationships between different biotic components of any ecosystem thus form the complicated food web.

4. Give scientific reasons: 

Question a.
Plants in an ecosystem are called producers.
Answer:
are cut down causing deforestation. The wild animals lose their habitat. Many of them become extinct. There is great loss of flora and fauna due to construction of large dams. There is undue pressure on the land surface caused due to stored water column. This may cause earthquakes. The human settlements are removed as their houses and farms are immersed under water. In all the above ways large dams destroy the ecosystems.

Question b.
Large dams destroy ecosystems.
Answer:
When a large dam is constructed, the original landscape is changed. The trees are cut down causing deforestation. The wild animals lose their habitat. Many of them become extinct. There is great loss of flora and fauna due to construction of large dams. There is undue pressure on the land surface caused due to stored water column. This may cause earthquakes. The human settlements are removed as their houses and farms are immersed under water. In all the above ways large dams destroy the ecosystems.

Question c.
Rhinos were restored in Dudhwa forest.
Answer:
Long ago in last century, Dudhwa forest was the natural habitat of the one-horned Rhino. However, due to hunting and poaching, the Rhino became almost extinct. In order to restore it back the breeding in captivity was attempted and the young ones were released in the natural habitat. Saving the precious wildlife is important and hence these efforts were done.

5. Answer the following:

Question a.
What are the effects of increased population (of human beings) on ecosystems?
Answer:

1. Human population growth rate is very big as compared to other animals.
2. Moreover, they are apex consumers in an ecosystem. Just like any other organisms, ecosystems provide all the basic needs to humans, too.
3. However, man demands much more due to excessive population. The natural resources are utilized on the large scale only by man.
4. Changing lifestyles, consumerism, degradation of nature and pollution are certain aspects which are created only by human beings.
5. All these cause increased stress on the ecosystems. Large human population also produces large-scale solid wastes.

Question b.
How is urbanization responsible for destruction of ecosystems?
Answer:
When people do not get sufficient food and other amenities, they migrate to the cities. The cities provide employment for many people due to industries, factories and other facilities. Every day many people migrate to cities. This causes urbanization. Due to increased population in cities, there is more need for housing. This results in loss of agricultural lands, marshlands, wetlands, forests and grasslands, etc.

The natural ecosystems are lost in an attempt to have developmental work. Human interference causes changes in the ecosystems. When land usage is changed many naturally occurring species of plants and animals are exterminated. Animal- human conflicts are very common in newly established urban areas which are near the natural forests.

Question c.
What are the reasons for war?
Answer:
There are difference of opinions and competition over land, water, mineral resources, etc. among neighbouring countries. Moreover, there can be economic and political causes which lead to war among different countries. Many times the l religions and ethnicity are also caused for dispute. Due to international conflicts, the peace is disturbed and it results in war.

Question d.
Explain the interactions among the factors of an ecosystem.
Answer:

1. The abiotic factors such as air, water, soil, sunlight, temperature, humidity, etc. affect the biotic factors, i.e. the surviving plants, animals and microbes in the ecosystem.
2. The type of abiotic factors in an ecosystem determine the survival of biotic factors. The population of these biotic factors is also dependent on the quality of abiotic factors.
3. The proportion of abiotic factors in an ecosystem fluctuates as biotic factors use up or release particular abiotic factors.
4. Every biotic factor also interacts with its necessary abiotic factors as well as other biotic factors around it.

Question e.
Differentiate between evergreen forests and grasslands.
Answer:

6. Describe the following pictures:

Question a.
Describe the following pictures

Answer:
The picture no. 1 is showing desert ecosystem, while the picture no. 2 is showing a forest ecosystem where a wetland (a lake) is also shown. In desert ecosystem, the producers are green cactus and a palm tree. Since in desert there are scanty rains, the vegetation is very less. The soil is sandy soil. The consumers of the desert are also limited.

In the above picture camel is shown which is a primary consumer in the desert ecosystem. Camel is very well adapted for desert life. There is also the scarcity of water in desert and hence cactus shows xerophytic (suitable to survive in desert) adaptations.

In second picture, the forest ecosystem is shown because we can see elephant and tiger in the picture. Also, giant hornbill is sitting on the tree. This forest must be tropical evergreen forest. The rainfall is heavy in such areas and hence different types of wetlands can be seen in forests. Wetlands support variety of life. A separate aquatic ecosystem does exist here which is closely interconnected with the terrestrial ecosystems through food chains and food web.

The birds utilize the fish as their prey. The wild animals come to wetlands to quench their thirst. In this picture the plants, grass, etc. are producers, small fishes in the lake are primary consumers. They will be eaten by larger fishes which are secondary consumer in the aquatic ecosystem. The elephant is herbivorous animal and hence it is primary consumer. Snake is the secondary consumer while the birds of prey (eagle that is flying) and tiger are tertiary consumers.

Can you recall?

Question 1.
Which factors do you find in your surroundings?
Answer:
In our surroundings there are abiotic and biotic factors. The biotic factors are animals and plants in the surroundings. The invisible bacteria and fungi also have important role in the ecosystem as decomposers. Important abiotic factors are air, water, land, sunlight, etc.

Question 2.
Are these factors directly or indirectly related to you?
Answer:
We are directly or indirectly connected to every single factor in the surrounding in which we reside. For the requirement of food, we are dependent on plants and animals. For our survival we continuously need oxygen, water and other minerals, etc.

Classify:

Question 1.
Classify the following into living and non-living factors. Sunlight, Sunflower, Elephant, Lotus, Algae, Stone, Grass, Water, Ant, Soil, Cat, Fern, Air, Lion.
Answer:

Can you tell?

Question 1.
What is the role of microbes in above interaction?
Answer:
Microbes play the role of decomposers in the above interactions.

Question 2.
How do producers obtain abiotic factors?
Answer:
Producers obtain solar energy from sunlight. The other nutrients are obtained from soil, water and air.

Question 3.
From where do the consumers get their food?
Answer:
Consumers get their food from producers and other consumers.

Project:

Question 1.
Visit an ecosystem nearby, List the biotic and abiotic factors in it. Show with pictures or sketches, how they are dependant on each other.

Question 2.
With the help of internet find out the loss of ecosystems due to wars or atomic explosions. Describe in your words.

Class 8 Science Chapter 18 Ecosystems Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following by using the correct option:

Question 1.
Biotic community is another name for ………. (ecology, ecosystem, population)
Answer:
Biotic community is another name Biotic for ecosystem.

Question 2.
Microbes in an ecosystem are ………… (producers, consumers, decomposers)
Answer:
Microbes in an ecosystem are decomposers.

Question 3.
Many types of ecosystems are found in ………… (oceans, deserts, biosphere)
Answer:
Many types of ecosystems are found in biosphere.

Question 4.
………….. is a type of grassland ecosystem. (Taiga, Tundra, Desert)
Answer:
Taiga is a type of grassland ecosystem.

Question 5.
Gir forest in Gujarat is the only habitat/shelter for the spectacular ………….. (Asiatic lion, Royal Bengal tiger, One-horned rhino)
Answer:
Gir forest in Gujarat is the only habitat shelter for the spectacular Asiatic lion.

Correct the following statements by changing one or two words:

Question 1.
Primary, secondary, tertiary consumers are the abiotic factors of the ecosystem.
Answer:
Primary, secondary, tertiary consumers are the biotic factors of the ecosystem.

Question 2.
Most of the ecosystems are simple.
Answer:
Most of the ecosystems are complex.

Question 3.
The word ecosystem was brought in the use by Ray Claffam.
Answer:
The word ecosystem was brought in the use by A.G. Tansle.

Question 4.
Specific ecosystem developed in a vast area is called a biosphere.
Answer:
Specific ecosystem developed in a vast area is called a biomes.

Question 5.
Longer summer and limited rain develop very tall plants in the grassland ecosystem.
Answer:
Longer summer and limited rain develop dwarf plants in the grassland ecosystem.

Question 6.
29 % of the earth surface is covered by water and only 71 % has land on it.
Answer:
71 % of the earth surface is covered by water and only 29 % has land on it.

Question 7.
Dams increase the water current in lower area.
Answer:
Dams lessen the water current in lower area.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Typha, Pistia, Eichhornia, Dipterocarpus
Answer:
Dipterocarpus. (All others are aquatic plants.)

Question 2.
Teak, Parthenium, Pine, Sandalwood
Answer:
Parthenium. (All others are forest trees.)

Question 3.
Giraffe, Zebra, Cheetah, Elephant
Answer:
Cheetah.. (All others are surviving grassland animals, Cheetah is a forest animal that is extinct from Asia.)

Question 4.
Hyena, Cow, Deer, Rabbit
Answer:
Hyena. (All others are primary consumers, Hyena is tertiary consumer.)

Question 5.
Fusarium, Leptocorsia, Aspergillus, Polycarpus
Answer:
Leptocorsia. (All others are decomposers, Leptocorsia is primary consumer.)

Taking into consideration the relationship in the first pair, complete the second pair :

Question 1.
Plants : Producers : : ……… : Consumers
Answer:
Animals

Question 2.
Secondary consumers : Jackals : : Tertiary consumer : ………..
Answer:
Kite/Lion/Hyena

Question 3.
Goat, sheep : Grassland ecosystem : : Tigers : …………..
Answer:
Forest ecosystem

Question 4.
Desert : Land biome : : Creek : …………….
Answer:
Aquatic biome

Question 5.
Limited rain : Grassland ecosystem : : ……….. : Tropical rainforests
Answer:
Excessive rain.

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:
The structure which is formed due to interactions between abiotic and biotic factors is called an ecosystem.

Question 2.
What is an ecological niche?
Answer:
The position of any living organism with reference to other living organisms and the role played by that organism is called ecological niche.

Question 3.
How are types of ecosystems formed?
Answer:
Types of ecosystems are formed according to size, place, climate, types of plants and animals that survive in that ecosystem.

Question 4.
Give examples of land biomes.
Answer:
Grasslands, evergreen forests, deserts, Tundra or polar ecosystem, ecosystems in Taiga, tropical rainforests, etc. are land biomes.

Question 5.
What are the reasons for tourism among the people?
Answer:
Tourism is mainly because people like to visit scenic places, undertake nature watch, wish to visit to sacred places and for entertainment purpose.

Question 6.
Why we should protect natural ecosystems?
Answer:
Natural ecosystems must be protected as they maintain balance in the biosphere.

Give my information Write short notes:

Question 1.
Dudhwa forest.
Answer:
Dudhwa forest is in Uttar Pradesh. About a century back, Dudhwa forest was the habitat for one-horned Rhino. However, due to hunting and poaching in 20th century, this animal became endangered. Thus to restore their populations, on 1st April 1984 rhino were introduced there again. Rhinos can were bred in captivity followed by releasing them back into natural ecosystem.

For this purpose at first the land was selected. This was 27 square km grassland and forest with continuous water supply through natural resources. Two observatories were established for making these efforts successful. Now Dudhwa is known for one¬horned Rhino population.

Question 2.
Aquatic ecosystems.
Answer:
Earth’s 71 % of surface is covered over by aquatic ecosystems. They are of three main types, viz. fresh water ecosystem, marine ecosystem and brackish water ecosystem. Rivers, lakes and ponds and streams are some of the fresh water ecosystem. Fresh water contains less salt and hence it is potable. Marine water has more salinity, i.e. its salt content is high. Brackish water ecosystem is present in the creeks. Here the saline and fresh water mix together. Hence salinity here is lesser than that of the marine water.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Microbes are called decomposers.
Answer:
Decomposition is the process in which the organic compounds are broken down to their inorganic constituents. The organic substances such as carbohydrates, proteins and lipids which are locked in the dead remains of plants and animals are converted into hydrogen, oxygen, calcium, iron, sodium, potassium, etc. by microbes. Therefore, microbes are called decomposers.

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
Which biotic factors get affected due to a dam?
Answer:
The biotic factors include plants, animals and humans. Lot of vegetation is submerged from the place where dam is constructed. The forests are wiped out. Large scale deforestation takes place in the proposed dam area. Wildlife is destroyed completely. The resident animals whose habitat are there either migrate away or are killed due to lack of their food and shelter. Many instances of animal-human conflicts arise when the wild animals drift to the neighbouring human settlements.

If human settlements are shifted, people are displaced. They lose their houses and agricultural land. Though compensation is given to them, there is great change for the people. Water current in lower area of the dam is reduced due to construction of dam-walls. Therefore, the original lotic (running 5 water) ecosystems that were present are destroyed after the construction of dam.

Question 2.
What will be the effects on biotic factors in the running water of river?
Answer:
The aquatic flora (plants) and fauna (animals) are well adapted to their habitats. The running water ecosystems are known as lotic ecosystems. The non-moving waters on the contrary create lentic ecosystems. Lotic ecosystems provide special adaptations to the plants and animals living therein. Plants are mostly in the form of freely floating algae and phytoplankton. Animals are well adapted for swimming in the currents of water. The fishes especially show a stream-lined body, fins for swimming, and gills to take up dissolved oxygen in the water. The other animals are also well adapted to the currents of water.

Think about it:

Question 1.
Can we call a tree an independent ecosystem?
Answer:
The huge tree can be an independent ecosystem. On one such tree there may be different habitats. Variety of insects thrive on huge tree by making their habitats in cracks and crevices on the tree. Many birds visit the tree to feed on such insects. There are many bird species that live in the hollow of the tree. Garden lizards, chameleons, snakes are the different reptiles seen associated with the tree ecosystem.

Squirrels, rabbits, bats are the mammals which take shelter in and around the trees, also inhabit a tree variety of fungi, lichens, mosses and epiphytic plants like orchids survive on the huge trees. Many food chains and complicated food webs are formed with the support of the tree. Thus one can say that a tree is an independent ecosystem.

Question 2.
Today Divija visited a hill. Honey: bees were hovering on flowers. One of them stung Divijia’s hand. Divija was hurt due to that sting and said with anger that all the honey-bees from the whole world must get destroyed. Afterwards, she thought what will happen if all honey-bees are destroyed? We will get honey, nothing more. What would be your explanation to Divija?
Answer:
Honey bees provide us with honey and bee-wax. Both of these are commercial products. But more than that the role played by honey bees in the pollination of flowers is very important. Due to their nectar collecting behaviour, they bring about pollination of the flowers.

Presence of honey bees is thus very essential for the agriculture and horticulture. Without honey bees, the growth of fruits and grains will not be possible, if pollination and subsequent fertilization does not take place in nature. This will create famine-like conditions. Therefore, honey bees’ position in the nature is very important.

Chart based questions:

Question 1.
Complete the following chart in context to a grassland.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write the information about various components of forest.

Answer:

Question 3.
Observe such ecosystems around you and complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 4.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 5.
Complete the following chart:

Answer:

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Correct the following diagram:

Answer:

MCQs based on experiment:

Question 1.
Which one out of the following is not biotic factor?
(a) Humidity
(b) Rabbit
(c) Snake
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(a) Humidity

Question 2.
Which climatic factor is causing migration of the birds in certain regions of the earth?
(a) Humidity and rainfall
(b) Ambient temperature
(c) Amount of carbon dioxide
(d) Amount of plant matter
Answer:
(b) Ambient temperature

Question 3.
Which abiotic factor mainly distinguishes marine water from the fresh water?
(a) Temperature
(b) Dissolved oxygen:
(c) Salinity
(d) Surface tension
Answer:
(c) Salinity

Question 4.
Why is creek water different from the river water?
(a) Creek water is more polluted than the river water.
(b) Creek water is less salty than the river water.
(c) Creek water is more saline than the river water.
(d) Creek water is less turbulent than the river water.
Answer:
(b) Creek water is less salty than the river water.

Question 5.
Which land biome shows presence of cacti plants more?
(a) Polar regions
(b) Grasslands
(c) Rainforest
(d) Desert
Answer:
(d) Desert

Projects:

Collect information

Question 1.
What are the possible threats to grasslands?
Answer:
Man tries to use grasslands for agricultural purpose. This transformation causes loss of natural ecosystem. Many animals from grasslands are killed by hunting and poaching. Though now Wildlife Act has protected these animals, many wildlife species are already extinct. There are chances of forest fires which is the greatest threat to grasslands. The global warming may also cause grasslands to become a desert.

Question 2.
Why did Asian Cheetah become extinct in last century?
Answer:
When British ruled India, Asian Cheetah was hunted to a great extent. The kings and British rulers did rampant hunting. The forest lands were also reduced due to encroachment by humans to build their settlements. Dams were constructed. Mega highways, bridges and roads caused loss of habitat for Asian Cheetah. Cheetah needs large thickly forested territory. This was lost due to all man-made activities. All these reasons made Asian Cheetah extinct in last century.

Question 3.
Observe Asian Cheetah on internet. Describe it.
Answer:
Cheetah is the fastest running feline animal on the earth. Though from Asian regions it is said to be extinct, in African grasslands, its occurrence is still there. But it is endangered animal. By 2016, the global cheetah population is estimated at approximately 7,100 individuals in the wild. Several African countries have taken steps to improve cheetah conservation measures.

Cheetah has a slender body, deep chest, spotted coat. Its head is small rounded and on the face there is black tear-like streaks. It has long thin legs and a long spotted tail. Cheetah in India were tamed during Moghul period for assisting in hunting. Stories about such episodes are commonly told. However, the last Cheetah in India was spotted in Bastar, M.P. in 1948.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 8th Std Science Textbook Solutions

• Human Body and Organ System Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Introduction to Acid and Base Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Change and Chemical Bond Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Measurement and Effects of Heat Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Reflection of Light Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Man-made Materials Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Ecosystems Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Life Cycle of Stars Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 8 Science Chapter 15 Sound Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 15 Sound Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Science Chapter 15 Sound Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Science Chapter 15 Sound Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word:

Question a.
The region in a sound wave, with higher pressure and density is called ………….. and that with low pressure and density is called ……….. .
Answer:
The region in a sound wave, with higher pressure and density is called compression and that with low pressure and density is called rarefaction.

Question b.
Medium is …………… for generation of sound.
Answer:
Medium is needed (or necessary) for generation of sound.

Question c.
The total number of compressions and rarefactions produced per second in a sound wave is 1000. The frequency of the sound wave is ………… .
Answer:
The total number of compressions and rarefactions produced per second in a sound wave is 1000. The frequency of the sound wave is 500 Hz.
[Note: Total number: 100. ∴ 500 compressions and 500 rarefactions are produced per second.]

Question d.
Different sound notes have different ………………. .
Answer:
Different sound notes have different frequencies.

Question e.
In a loudspeaker, …………… energy is converted into ………….. energy.
Answer:
In a loudspeaker, mechanical energy is converted into sound energy.

2. Give scientific reasons:

Question a.
It is essential to change the tension in the vocal cords, as we produce different sound notes from our larynx.
Answer:
Different sound notes correspond to different frequencies. The frequency of sound depends on the tension in the vocal cords. Hence, it is essential to change the tension in the vocal cords, as we produce different sound notes our larynx.

Question b.
Astronauts on the moon cannot hear each other directly.
Answer:
Two astronauts on the moon talking to each other directly, will be unable to listen to each other, even if they are very close to each other. The moon does not have atmosphere. Since there is no medium which is necessary for generation and propagation of sound, between the astronauts, direct sound propagation between them is not possible. Therefore, the astronauts use some technology like the one used in our cell-phones to communicate with each other. The waves used in cell-phone do not need any medium for propagation.

Question c.
As the sound wave propagates from one place to the other in air, the air itself is not required to move from one place to the other.
Answer:
Propagation of sound through air occurs due to energy transfer by vibrating air molecules in one region to those in the adjacent region away from the source. The molecules simply vibrate about their mean positions. Hence, the air itself is not required to move from one place to the other.

3. How are different sound notes generated in musical instruments like guitar, which uses strings for sound generation, and flute, which uses blown air for sound generation?

Question a.
How are different sound notes generated in musical instruments like guitar, which uses strings for sound generation, and flute, which uses blown air for sound generation?
Answer:
1. Guitar: It is a string based, flat- backed instrument. It has usually six strings, the strings are plucked or strummed with the fingers or a small piece of plastic, wood, etc. It has a flat sounding board with a circular sound hole in the centre. Also it has a fretted fingerboard. Its frequency range is more than three octaves. The frequency of vibration of the string is changed by changing the tension in the string or changing the vibrating length of the string. As the tension is increased, the frequency increases. As the vibrating length is increased, the frequency decreases. This is how different sound notes are generated.
[Note: The acoustic guitar has hollow body and six or twelve strings while the electric guitar usually has solid body and six strings. The electric bass guitar has four strings.]

2. Flute: It is a wind instrument where air is blown against the edge or rim of the blowing hole. The frequency of the sound produced depends upon the length of the vibrating air column in the tube. The greater the length of the vibrating air column, the less is the frequency of the sound produced. This is how different sound notes are produced. The flute has six or seven or eight holes to generate sounds of different frequencies. Different notes can be generated also by changing the way of air-blowing.

4. How is sound produced in the human larynx and a loudspeaker?

Question a.
How is sound produced in the human larynx and a loudspeaker?
Answer:
1. Sound production in the human larynx:
In the humans, sound is produced in the voice box called the larynx. It is located at the upper end of the windpipe. Two vocal cords (chords) are stretched across it with a narrow slit between them for the passage of air (Fig. 15.5). When the lungs force air through the slit, the cords start vibrating.

The frequency of the sound produced depends upon the length and thickness of the cords, and the tension in the chords. The frequency increases with the increase in tension and the more the length or the thickness of the cord, the less is the frequency. Muscles attached to the cords can make the cords tight (more tension) or loose (less tension).

2. Sound produced in a loudspeaker:
Figure shows the internal construction of a loudspeaker. Here, a coil is wound around a permanent magnet. The conical screen of the loudspeaker is attached to the coil.

When a current is passed through the coil, a magnetic field is produced. Its interaction with the permanent magnet results in the back and forth motion of the coil. The frequency and the amplitude of the motion of the coil depends on the variation in the current through the coil.

As the coil moves, the conical screen also moves back and forth. The vibrations of the screen produce sound waves in air. Very loud sound can be produced by changing the current.
[Note: If you gently touch the vibrating screen, you can feel the vibrations.]

5. Explain the experiment, with0 a neat diagram, to prove the following:
‘Sound needs a material medium for propagation.’

Question a.
Explain the experiment, with0 a neat diagram, to prove the following:
‘Sound needs a material medium for propagation.’
Answer:

Figure shows part of the set up used in this experiment. What is not shown is the electric circuit in which the electric bell is connected. A vacuum tight bell jar contains an electric bell connected to a power supply through the lid of the jar. The jar is placed on a smooth horizontal surface such as that of glass.

Initially the vacuum pump is off and the jar contains air. The circuit containing the bell is completed using the key or the switch so that the bell starts ringing. This can be heard outside the jar.

Then the vacuum pump is switched on so that it starts removing the air from the jar. We find that the level of ringing sound heard goes on decreasing as the quantity of air in the jar becomes less and less.

When the pump is operated for a sufficiently long time interval, the quantity of air in the jar becomes so less that the level of ringing sound becomes very low; sound is hardly audible. But we can see the striker in the bell hitting the gong. By extrapolation, we conclude that sound generation and propagation needs a medium.

6. Match the following:

Question a.

Answer:

Can you recall?

Question a.
How is sound produced?
Answer:
Sound is produced by the vibrations of an object such as a stretched membrane or a string under tension.

Project:

Question 1.
Take two plastic glasses and tie a thread between them to make a toy phone. Does the voice of your friend reach you through the thread? Take metal wire instead of the thread and also change the length of the thread wire and repeat the activity. Discuss with your friends and teacher about your conclusions.

Question 2.
Take a plastic or tin can or a plastic glass. Remove its bottom. Stretch a piece of rubber balloon across one end and fix it with a rubber band. Put a few grains of say ragi or bajra on the stretched rubber. Now ask your friend to shout ‘Hoorrey ……… Hoorrey ………… ‘ from the open end of the glass. Observe the dancing of the grains up and down. Discuss the reason behind this.

Class 8 Science Chapter 15 Sound Important Questions and Answers

Select the correct option and write the completed statements:

Question 1.
Sound waves cannot travel through a ………… .
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) vacuum
Answer:
Sound waves cannot travel through a vacuum.

Question 2.
If the frequency of a sound wave is 512 Hz, the number of rarefactions produced per second is ……………… .
(a) 256
(b) 512
(c) 1024
(d) 128
Answer:
If the frequency of a sound wave is 512 Hz, the number of rarefactions produced per second is 512.

Question 3.
In the experiment to show that a medium is necessary for propagation of sound, as the quantity of air inside the bell jar decreases, the level of ringing sound heard outside ……………… .
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) fluctuates randomly
(d) changes at regular intervals
Answer:
In the experiment to show that a medium is necessary for propagation of , sound, as the quantity of air inside the bell jar decreases, the level of ringing sound heard outside decreases.

Find the odd one out and give the reason:

Question 1.
Sound waves, Waves on the surface of water, Waves on a stretched string, Light waves
Answer:
Light waves. Light waves can travel in a vacuum. Other waves need a medium for propagation.

Question 2.
Sitar, Violin, Guitar, Flute.
Answer:
Flute. It is not a string based instrument. Others are string based instruments.

State whether the following statements are True or False. (If a statement is false, correct it and rewrite it.)

Question 1.
If the vibrating length of a stretched string is kept constant and the tension in the string is increased, the frequency of the sound produced increases.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
In Jaltarang, the frequency of sound produced is independent of the height of the air column inside the glass cup.
Answer:
False. (In Jaltarang, the frequency of sound produced depends on the height of the air column inside the glass cup; the more the height of the air column, the less is the frequency of the sound produced.)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What is sound?
Answer:
Sound is a form of energy which produces sensation of hearing in our ears.

Question 2.
What is vibration?
Answer:
Vibration is a rapid, to and from periodic motion of an object about its mean position.

Question 3.
What is compression?
Answer:
As a sound wave travels through air, the region in which air is at high pressure and high density is called compression.

Question 4.
What is rarefaction?
Answer:
As a sound wave travels through air, the region in which air is at low pressure and low density is called rarefaction.

Question 5.
What is the relation between the frequency of vibration and the vibrating length (or height) of the air column?
Answer:
The greater the vibrating length (or height) of the air column, the less is the frequency of vibration of the column.

Question 6.
For a particular string (given material and radius), what are the factors on which its frequency of vibration depends?
Answer:
For a particular string (given material and radius), the frequency of vibration of the string depends upon its vibrating length and the tension in the string.
[Note: in the above case, frequency is proportional to the square root of the tension and inversely proportional to the length.]

Question 7.
Name an instrument in which a stretched skin is used to produce musical sound.
Answer:
Tabla.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Explain the production and propagation of sound in air.
Answer:
Let us consider production of sound by using a tuning fork. A tuning fork is made of a metal. It has a stem and two prongs (Fig). Figure (a) shows the state of air in the absence of propagation sound through it. Equally spaced vertical lines show that the average distance between the air molecules is the same everywhere. It means average pressure and average density in the regions A, B and C are the same.

Suppose the tuning fork is held vertical, its stem is fixed in a stand (not shown in the figure) and its prongs are struck lightly using a light hammer with a piece of rubber at the top. The prongs then start vibrating.
Figure (b) shows what happens when the prongs move away from each other. The air outside the prongs is compressed (layers in the region A). The pressure and density increase in this region.

Figure (c) shows what happens when the prongs move close to each other. The air molecules near the prongs move away from each other resulting in lower pressure and lower density.

This region is called rarefaction. Meanwhile, the compression produced earlier moves forward, i.e., away from the prongs because the air molecules in this region transfer their energy to the air molecules in the region B producing a compression there. The periodic formation of compression and rarefaction results in propagation of sound waves away from the prongs.

Eventually, these sound waves reach our ears, the ear-drum vibrates, and we get a sense of hearing a sound as the specific signals reach the brain.

Use your brain power:

Question a.
If sound waves are generated in air, what moves away from the source? Is it the air itself or the state of compression and rarefaction created in the air?
Answer:
If sound waves are generated in air, the state of compression and rarefaction created in the air moves away from the source.
[Note: The air does not move away from the source because air is elastic and the force due to the tuning fork varies periodically with time.]

Question 2.
Explain the term frequency of a sound wave.
Answer:
Sound travels in the form of waves. A wave consists of cycles of alternate compression and rarefaction. The number of cycles produced in the air (or any other medium) per second is called the frequency of the sound wave. It is expressed in hertz (Hz). 1 hertz = 1 cycle per second or 1 vibration per second or 1 oscillation per second.

[Note: The SI unit of frequency, the hertz, is named in honour of Heinrich Hertz (1857-94), German physicist.]

Question 3.
State the factors on which the frequency of a tuning fork depends.
Answer:
The frequency of a tuning fork depends on the dimensions of the prongs, i.e., length and thickness, and the material used for making the fork.

Try this:

Question a.
Take 6 – 7 glass cups. Arrange them in a line and fill them with water with gradually increasing water level from one end to other. Take a pencil and strike the cups sequentially. The sound generated by each cup will be different. Why is it so?
Use of ICT:
Download videos of Jaltarang from youtube and send them to your friends by email.

Answer:
When a cup is struck, waves are set up in the air column above the water level in the cup. The frequency of the generated wave depends on the height of the air column inside the glass cup. Since the water level in each glass is different, the height of the air column in each glass is also different. Therefore, the frequency of sound generated by each glass cup will also be different. So, the sound generated is different.

Question b.
An ‘app’ for measurement of sound frequency may be available on cellphones. With the help of your teacher, use the app to measure the frequency of the sound generated from each glass cup. Do you observe any relation between the frequency of generated sound and the height of the air column in the glass cup?
Answer:
Yes. The greater the height of the air column in the glass cup, the less is the frequency of the sound produced.

Question c.
This is your simple ‘Jaltarang’! Can this experiment be performed with stainless steel pots of different size?
Answer:
Do it. See what happens as the stainless steel pot itself starts vibrating producing a sound. Also see how this sound is damped by water.

Do you know?

Question a.
What are the frequencies of musical notes ‘sa’, ’re’, ‘ga’, ‘ma’, ‘pa’, ‘dha’, ‘ni’ in the ‘madhya saptak’?
Answer:

[Note: The diatonic scale:


Such a simple fraction is pleasing to the ear and is called a musical interval. Frequency ratios 2 : 1, 3 : 2, 4 : 3 are examples of musical interval.

Observe and discuss:

Question 1.
Identify the instruments and discuss sound production in them. [Students should see these musical instruments.]

Answer:

1. Sitar
2. Shehnai
3. Flute
4. Tabla
5. Santoor
6. Bugle
7. Mandoline or Mandolin
8. Saxophone.

Question i.
Sitar, Santoor and Mandoline or mandoline (String instruments):
Answer:
Vibrating strings produce the sound. The greater the tension in the string, the higher is the frequency of the sound. The greater the vibrating length and the diameter of the string, the lower is the frequency of the sound.

Question ii.
Flute, Saxophone and Shehnai (Wind instruments):
Answer:
Vibrating air column produces the sound. The greater the length of the column, the lower is the frequency of the sound.

Question iii.
Tabla (Percussion instrument):
Answer:
Vibrating skin produces the sound. The greater the tension in the skin, the higher is the frequency of the sound. The greater the thickness of the skin, the lower is the frequency of the sound.

Try this:
‘Apps’ for generation of different sound notes (sound note generator app) may be available on cellphones. With the help of your teacher, using such an app, generate sound notes listed in the table.

Vocal cords are 20 cm in length in male, about 15 cm in female and even smaller in children. Therefore the voice of male, female and children are different.
[Note: Vocal cords are 20 mm in length in male, about 15 mm in female and even smaller in children. Reference NCERT textbook Std. VIII, published in 2017.]

Question 1.
Produce a sound ‘bho … bho …’ just like a dog-barking and ‘meow … meow…’ just like a mewing cat. Carefully notice the tension on the vocal cords, when you produce these sounds. Do you feel that the tension on the vocal cords changes when you produce these two different sounds?
Answer:
Yes.

Question 2.
An ‘app’ may be available on cell-phones to measure the loudness of sound in decibel. With the help of your teacher, use the app to measure the sound level of a sound from a loudspeaker at some public place. Measure the sound level at different distances from the loudspeaker. Do you observe some relation between the distance from the loudspeaker and the sound level?
Answer:
Yes. As the distance increases, the sound level decreases.

Always remember:

We should take care that others are not disturbed when we study sound and its production. Sound pollution is a major cause affecting the environment and social health. Hence we should find ways to avoid sound pollution.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 8th Std Science Textbook Solutions

• Human Body and Organ System Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Introduction to Acid and Base Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Change and Chemical Bond Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Measurement and Effects of Heat Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Reflection of Light Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Man-made Materials Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Ecosystems Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Life Cycle of Stars Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions