Category: Class 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 12 Tourism Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 12 Tourism

Class 9 Geography Chapter 12 Tourism Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the type of tourism from the statement.

(A) Hemant Kumar went to Mexico to learn about the architectural skills of the Mayan culture
Answer:
Cultural Tourism

(B) Portuguese tourists had come to Goa to participate in the Goa Carnival.
Answer:
Cultural Tourism

(C) To seek treatment in a naturopathy centre, John and Amar went to Kerala.
Answer:
Medical Tourism.

(D) Pundalikrao accomplished the Char Dham Yatra with his family
Answer:
Religious Tourism.

(E) Rameshwari from Pune went to enjoy Hurda ( Roasted Grain) party and learn about modern and traditional methods of agriculture
Answer:
Agro-tourism.

(F) Sayyed family went to Ajmer Durgah.
Answer:
Religious tourism.

2. Match the columns identifying the correlation. Make a chain.

	Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1)	Tadoba	Madhya Pradesh	Lake
(2)	Bird Sanctuary	Agra	Butterflies
(3)	Sanjay Gandhi National Park	Manipur	Kailash caves
(4)	Taj Mahal	Nannaj	Film city
(5)	Ramoji Film City	Ellora	World-famous wonder
(6)	Radhanagari	Mumbai	Ancient cave- paintings
(7)	Bimbetka	Hyderabad	Great Indian Bustard (Maaldhok)
(8)	Ancient Caves	Kolhapur	Kanheri Caves
(9)	Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary	Chandrapur	Bison
(10)	Loktak	Arunachal Pradesh	Tiger

Answer:

	Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1)	Tadoba	Chandrapur	Tiger
(2)	Bird Sanctuary	Nannaj	Great Indian Bustard (Maaldhok)
(3)	Sanjay Gandhi National Park	Mumbai	Kanheri Caves
(4)	Taj Mahal	Agra	World-famous wonder
(5)	Ramoji Film City	Hyderabad	Film city
(6)	Radhanagari	Kolhapur	Bison
(7)	Bimbetka	Madhya Pradesh	Ancient cave- paintings
(8)	Ancient Caves	Ellora	Kailash caves
(9)	Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary	Arunachal Pradesh	Butterflies
(10)	Loktak	Manipur	Lake

3. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Differentiate between religious and cultural tourism.
Answer:

Religious tourism	Cultural tourism
(i) religious tourism is a type of tourism in which tourists travel for pilgrimage.	Cultural tourism refers to a type of tourism in which tourists travel to cultural attractions away from residence to gather new information and experience.
(ii) In religious tourism various religious places, temples, churches, etc. are visited for performing religious activities and gaining spiritual peace.	In cultural tourism art, architecture, religion, customs, traditions, lifestyle, etc. of a particular region are experienced and studied.
(iii) For example, a visit to Shirdi, Haji Ali, Mount Mary Church, etc.	For example, Portuguese tourists participating in Goa carnival.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of tourism?
Answer:
Following are the objectives of tourism:

• Getting joy
• Getting entertained
• Trading
• Staying
• Availing health facilities
• Getting a glimpse of agricultural life
• Performing religious activities, etc.

Question 3.
Explain the environmental effects of tourism.
Answer:
Following are the environmental effects of tourism:

• Sometimes, tourists damage tourist place and degrade the environment. Some tourists throw litter and pollute the tourist place.
• Therefore, all tourists must follow the concept of eco-tourism. Eco-tourism includes taking precautions of not degrading and polluting the environment as well as not damaging tourist places.
• Tourism is good for environmental development as the government makes economic investment in developing sanctuaries and national parks for the sake of the tourism industry.
• In eco-friendly tourism, factors like designing houses, resorts, traffic routes are designed in an eco-friendly manner in which electricity and water are used judiciously.
• The concept of recycling and reuse is also applied in eco-friendly tourism.

Question 4.
What opportunities develop with the development of tourism?
Answer:

• Tourism and Economic Development: The development of infrastructural facilities generates employment on an large scale. Eg. transportation, banking, restaurants, shops, resorts, medical services etc.
• Tourism and Environmental development: Due to the Eco-friendly tourism concept, tourist places are developed while caring for the environment. Eg. Eco-tourism.
• Tourism and’ Health: Opportunities to avail health facilities develop with tourism. Eg. Indian Ayurveda, Yoga, Pranayam.
• Tourism and Social Developments: Tourism creates social consciousness among tourists which helps in the development of neglected components of the society. For eg. Visit to Anandwan village.

Question 5.
Suggest measures after explaining the problems arising at the tourist places.
Answer:
(i) The problems that may arise at the tourist places:

• Lack of basic facilities.
• Lack of frequency of means of transportation.
• Lack of medical facilities.
• Lack of communication facilities.
• Petty crimes and security issues.

(ii) Measures to minimize the problems arising at the tourist places:

• Government can provide lodges, eateries, clean drinking water and good sanitation facilities.
• All tourist places can be connected by speedy means of transportation.
• Government can open dispensaries and arrange ambulance facilities.
• Communication facilities can be developed at every tourist place.
• Installation of CCTVs in public places and prompt action by the law and order forces can help tourist immensely.

Question 6.
Explain with the reason the places of interest that can be developed as tourist centers in your district.
Answer:

• In the district of Mumbai, there are many tourists destinations which fascinate the tourists.
• But there are few places which can be developed as tourist centres, which are currently neglected.
• To name a few, there are some small forts on the beaches of Mumbai and some caves in the suburbs of Mumbai.
• The Sion fort and the fort of Mahim are currently in a bad state and need urgent restoration.
• The Mahakali caves situated in western suburbs of Mumbai need to be developed in order to preserve cultural heritage which can attract many tourists.

(Disclaimer: The students can write answer of this above question in their own words as per the district they belong to.)

Question 7.
Local people get employment due to tourism. Give reasons.
Answer:

• Tourism is an important tertiary occupation through which many tourists visit places of interest.
• Many job opportunities are created to serve the tourists.
• When basic infrastructure improves, it leads to generation of employment.
• Many local people get job opportunities from various restaurants, transportation systems and recreational places.

5. Make a notice board containing instructions for the tourists at a tourist place.
Answer:

6. Explain how relevant is the concept of “Atithi Devo Bha va” (Guest is our God) with respect to tourism.
Answer:

1. In Sanskrit “Atithi Devo Bhava” means “Guest is our God”. This is a tag line of India’s, Ministry of Tourism’s campaign to improve the treatment of tourists in India.
2. India attracts millions of tourists every year but it still lags far behind compared to other destinations.
3. With an attempt to improve the number of tourists travelling to India, the Tourism Department of India started this social awareness campaign which provides training and orientation to taxi drivers, guides, immigration officers, police and other personnel who interact directly with the tourists.
4. This campaign educates the citizens of our country about the importance of our cultural heritage, benefits of cleanliness, importance of foreign tourists and maintaining our historical monuments.
5. All these efforts will lead to the economic development of our country.

7. The tourism map of Maharashtra is given. Answer the following questions based on the map.

Question 1.
Make a list of places having hot springs. What are the reasons for these being located here?
Answer:
Say, Vajreshwari, Kapeshwar, Unakeshwar, linhavare, Unapdev are the places that have hot springs.
Reason of hot water springs because geothermally heated ground water rises from the Earth’s crust.

Question 2.
At what places do you find the correlation between transportation routes and the development of tourism?
Answer:

• Aurangabad: The national highway and the airport is located in Aurangabad which facilitates the tourists to visit Ajanta and Ellora caves.
• Shirdi: Since Shirdi has got a railway station, more devotees will visit the temple every year.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 12 Tourism Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

(I) Dear Students, imagine that you have to go on a vacation with your family. Make a list of 15 favourite places in Maharashtra.
After the list is prepared, put your places in the relevant classification.

• Places near the sea
• Historical places
• National parks and sanctuaries
• Hill stations
• Religious places

Select one place from each group which you would like to visit.

Discuss the reasons of your choice in the class.
Answer:
(A) A list of 15 favourite places in Maharashtra

• Mumbai
• Pune
• Nashik
• Alibaug
• Guhagar
• Malvan
• Shirdi
• Shegaon
• Chandoli
• Pench
• Kamala
• Matheran
• Mahabaleshwar
• Jawhar
• Parli Vaijanath.

(B) A relevant classification of 15 favourite places is as follows:
(1) Places near the sea :

• Alibaug
• Guhagar
• Malvan.

(2) Historical places :

• Pune
• Mumbai
• Nashik.

(3) National parks and sanctuaries :

• Chandoli
• Pench
• Kamala.

(4) Hill stations:

• Matheran
• Mahabaleshwar
• Jawhar.

(5) Religious places :

• Parli Vaijanath
• Shirdi
• Shegaon.

(C) Name of a place from each group which we would like to visit with reason :
(1) Name of a place near the sea which we would like to visit: Guhagar.
Reason: Guhagar is famous for its clean white sand beach. ‘Shri Vyadeshwar’ an ancient shiv temple is also located at Guhagar.

(2) Name of a historical place which we would like to visit: Pune.
Reason : Many historical forts are located in Pune.

(3) Name of a national park and sanctuary which we would like to visit: Karnala.
Reason : Karnala bird sactuary houses many species of resident birds.

(4) Name of a hill station which we would like.to visit: Matheran.
Reason : One can reach Matheran by a Toy Train. Horse riding is another tourist attraction of Matheran. There are gardens, waterfalls, temples, markets and many scenic points at Matheran.

(5) Name of a religious place which we would like to visit: Shegaon.
Reason : A famous ‘Gajanan Maharaj Temple’ is located at Shegaon. Anand Sagar’, a spiritual and entertainment park centre is also located at Shegaon.

(II) (i) Which new forms of tourism have developed recently? (Textbook Page no. 92)
(ii) Tell the reasons why new forms of tourism emerge. (Textbook Page no. 92)
Answer:
(i) In recent years, following are the new forms of tourism that have developed:

• Eco-Tourism
• Agro-Tourism
• Film Tourism
• Medical Tourism
• Cultural tourism

(ii) Nowadays people are more aware of new tourist destinations and attractions, have the ability to spend and need break from their routine stressful life. They take breaks to refresh and relax or may travel for some psychological and social needs.

Think about it.

We saw the various types of tourism. Just think, can we go into the space for tourism? What will we have to do for that? Where can we go? Present your ideas in the form of picture or paragraphs, etc.
Answer:
Yes, we can go into the space for tourism. We will require a the most powerful rocket built with a spaceship designed to carry atleast 100 people. We can go to the Red Planet-Mars.

Use your brain power!

Some issues related to tourism development are given below. Rewrite the inappropriate ones after correcting them.
Answer:

• The income of a country should be substantially high for development of tourism. Inappropriate: The income of a country is high due to development of tourism.
• Domestic tourism should be given a boost. Inappropriate: Domestic tourism should be given a boost.
• Tourists from other countries should be banned. Inappropriate: Tourists from other countries should be welcomed for economic development of our country.
• Appropriate: Tourists should be assured of a safe journey.
• Appropriate: The cultural heritage of a country should be preserved.
• Appropriate: We should respect other country’s culture.
• Appropriate: Government subsidies1 and incentives should be given for tourism businesses.
• Appropriate: Participation in international sports should be increased.
• Appropriate: Tourism should be encouraged through advertisements.
• Appropriate: It is necessary to preserve the tourist places.
• Appropriate: We should preserve buildings of famous people who have contributed in various sectors for memorials.
• Appropriate: Services and amenities3 should be developed for tourism.
• Tourist agencies should be banned. Inappropriate: Tourists agencies should be encourage for their businesses.
• There is no ample scope in this field. Inappropriate: There is ample scope in the field of tourism.
• Appropriate: Tourism is a type of invisible trade.
• Appropriate: All types of facilities should be developed for tourists.
• The country’s economy does not benefit at all from tourism. Inappropriate: The country’s economy benefits a lot from tourism.
• Appropriate: The hidden potential of other sites should also be developed.
• Appropriate: The forts and castles should be developed.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 12 Tourism Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those given in the brackets:

Question 1.
Visiting various places away from our homes for getting joy, entertainment, trading, staying, etc. is called
(a) boarding
(b) lodging
(c) visiting
(d) tourism1
Answer:
(d) tourism

Question 2.
On the basis of political boundaries, tourism can be of two types and
(a) domestic tourism and local tourism
(b) international tourism and foreign tourism
(c) local tourism and holidays
(d) domestic tourism and international tourism
Answer:
(a) domestic tourism and international tourism

Question 3.
Tourism within the limits of a country is called …………………. .
(a) domestic tourism
(b) international tourism
(c) foreign tourism
(d) abroad tourism
Answer:
(a) domestic tourism

Question 4.
A person from Maharashtra going to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu for tourism, a person from Nagpur visiting Ellora Caves in Aurangabad are examples of
(a) international tourism
(b) abroad tourism
(c) domestic tourism
(d) foreign tourism
Answer:
(c) domestic tourism

Question 5.
Crossing country’s boundaries and visiting some other country for tourism is called
(a) local tourism
(b) international/ foreign tourism
(c) city tourism
(d) state tourism
Answer:
(b) international foreign tourism

Question 6.
Indian going to Switzerland for tourism, an American coming to India for tourism are examples of
(a) city tourism
(b) state tourism
(c) local tourism
(d) intemational/foreign tourism
Answer:
(d) international/ foreign tourism

Question 7.
………………….. tourism should be promoted as it is necessary to preserve the cultural heritage1 of a country.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Local
(c) Andheri
(d) Domestic
Answer:
(d) Domestic tourism

Question 8.
To go to a foreign country, one needs a ………………, ………………, travel insurance and other documents.
(a) passport, train tickets
(b) visa, bus tickets
(c) movie tickets, bus tickets
(d) passport, visa
Answer:
(d) passport and visa

Question 9.
The ……………… system in our smartphones or the GPS instrument is largely used for tourism. For that we need special applications like the
(a) GPRS and atlas
(b) GPS and radio
(c) GPS and google map
(d) google play store and GPRS
Answer:
(c) GPS and google map

Question 10.
Tourism is an important occupation.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(c) tertiary

Question 11.
Besides domestic tourists2, foreign tourists also visit various places of interest and therefore, ……………… currency increases in our economy.
(a) domestic
(b) foreign
(c) FOREX
(d) shares
Answer:
(b) foreign

Question 12.
Tourism should be promoted through in various media which will help in its growth.
(a) slogans
(b) word of mouth
(c) references
(d) advertisements
Answer:
(d) advertisements

Question 13.
……………… has implemented many programmes by providing guest houses, water sports, tourist houses near coastal areas, etc.
(a) Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC)
(b) Maharashtra Transportation Development Corporation (MTDC)
(c) Maharashtra Traffic Development Corporation (MTDC)
(d) Maharashtra Training Development Corporation (MTDC)
Answer:
(a) Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC)

Question 14.
……………… is a train started especially for tourism which is operated in coordination with MTDC, Indian Railways and Ministry of Tourism.
(a) Deccan Chronicle
(b) Deccan Express
(c) Mumbai Local
(d) Deccan Odyssey
Answer:
(d) Deccan Odyssey

Question 15.
………………….. train takes the Delhi-Jaipur-Udaipur-Bharatpur-Agra- Delhi route.
(a) Palace of Tiles
(b) Palace on Train
(c) Palace on Wheels
(d) Palace in Rajasthan
Answer:
(c) Palace on Wheels

Question 16.
The Indian railways have started a new train with coaches having transparent ceiling as a special attraction for tourism.
(a) superdome
(b) astrodome
(c) imax dome
(d) vistadome
Answer:
(d) vistadome

Question 17.
………………….. is an eco-friendly type of tourism.
(a) Medical tourism
(b) Eco-tourism
(c) Social tourism
(d) Religious tourism
Answer:
(b) Eco-tourism

Question 18.
A pollution-free location away from the city holding an agricultural activity where the tourist is shown a glimpse of agricultural life is called
(a) agro-tourism
(b) social tourism
(c) cultural tourism
(d) medical tourism
Answer:
(a) agro-tourism

Question 19.
In and districts of Maharashtra number of agro-tourism centres have been developed.
(a) Pune, Mumbai
(b) Mumbai, Nagpur
(c) Pune, Kolhapur
(d) Kolhapur, Amravati
Answer:
(c) Pune, Kolhapur

Question 20.
Places, where film shooting takes place, are and
(a) Mumbai film city, Ramoji city
(b) Pune city and Mahableshwar
(c) Ramoji city and Pune city
(d) Lonavala and Khandala
Answer:
(a) Mumbai film city, Ramoji City

Question 21.
………………….. in Konkan is famous for its seabed and the biodiversity found there.
(a) Juhu Beach
(b) Tarkali
(c) Alibaugh
(d) Sindhudurg
Answer:
(b) Tarkali

Question 22.
The tribal life in of Maharashtra and visit to model villages like project of the social activist Baba Amte, Ralegan Siddhi, Hiwre Bazaar, etc. creates social consciousness.
(a) Phonda Ghat, Vrindavan
(b) Melghat, Sunderbans
(c) Melghat, Anandwan
(d) Bor Ghat, Anandwan
Answer:
(b) Melghat, Anandwan

Answer in one sentence

Question 1.
What is meant by tourism?
Answer:
Visiting various places away from our homes for getting joy, entertainment, trading, staying etc. is called tourism.

Question 2.
By which name is the tourism within one’s own country’s boundaries is known?
Answer:
The tourism within one’s own country’s boundaries is known as ‘domestic tourism’.

Question 3.
What do mean by International tourism?
Answer:
Crossing country’s boundaries and visiting some other country for tourism is called international tourism.

Question 4.
A visit to which places in Maharashtra creates social consciousness?
Answer:
Visit to Melghat to see the tribal life and visit to model villages like Anandwan, Ralegansiddhi, Hiwre Bazaaro of Maharashtra creates social consciousness.

Question 5.
Anandwan’ is a project of which social activist?
Answer:
Anandwan’ is a project of the social activistt Baba Amte.

Question 6.
What is Cultural Tourism?
Answer:
Cultural tourism is a type of tourism in which tourists travel to collect information and to experience traditions, customs, art, lifestyle of people, etc. of a particular region.

Question 7.
What is Health Tourism?
Answer:
Health tourism is a type of tourism in which tourists travel for availing health facilities, achieving mental peace and physical strength.

Question 8.
What do we require when travelling abroad?
Answer:
To go abroad one requires a passport, visa, travel insurance, other documents and currency of the country where we are going.

Question 9.
Name the agro-tourism centres in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Pune and Kolhapur districts of Maharashtra have agro-tourism centres.

Observe fig. 12.1 and answer the following questions: Use an atlas for reference:

Question 1.
Out of these, which tourist places1 do you know? Make a list.
Answer:
A list of known tourist places :

• Leh
• Shimla
• Mussoorie
• Nainital
• Jaisalmer
• Ajanta
• Ellora
• Tirupati
• Udagamandalam
• Rameshwar
• Jagannath puri
• Konark
• Khajuraho
• Panaji.

Question 2.
For what are the selected places famous?
Answer:
The selected places are famous for the following:

• Leh, Shimla, Mussoorie, Naini Tal, etc. – famous for their natural beauty.
• Rameshwaram, Tirupati, Jagannathpuri – religious places.
• Ajanta, Ellora, Konark, Khajuraho – cultural sites.
• Mumbai, Pune, Delhi, Kolkata – historical sites

Question 3.
Make a list of religious and historical sites from the map.
Answer:

Religious sites	Historical sites
Tirupati	Dwarka
Mathura	Agra
Varanasi	Jhansi
Konark	Jaipur

Question 4.
Make a list of hill stations, places having sanctuaries and places along the coasts.
Answer:
(A) Hill stations –

• Shimla
• Massoorie
• Nainital
• Darjiling

(B) Sanctuaries –

• Maharashtra – Koyna, Wild life Sanctuary
• Goa – Bird sanctuary
• Gujarat – Indina wild Ass. sanctuary
• Karnataka – Bhadra wild life sanctuary

(C) Places along coast –

• Mumbai
• Panaji
• Mangalore
• Chennai

Question 5.
Correlate the physiography and tourist places in India.
Answer:

• There is a close relationship between physiography and tourist places in India.
• Many tourist places are developed at various locations having different physiography.
• The hill stations like Jammu, Srinagar, Nainital, Darjiling, Udagamandalam are developed in mountainous region of India.
• The tourist places like Ujjain, Pune, Jabalpur, etc. are located at plateau region of India.
• The tourist places Jodhpur, etc. are developed in desert area of India.
• The tourist places like Mumbai, Panaji, Mangalore, Kanniyakumari, Chennai, etc. are located in the coastal area of India.

The tourism map of Maharashtra is given below. Answer the following questions based on the map:

Question 3.
Name the ports of Konkan coast and is there any connectivity of ports with tourism?
Answer:
Mumbai, Vijaydurg, Sindhudurg, Ratnagiri, Jaygad, Harne, Shrivardhan.
Yes, there is a close connectivity between ports and tourism as tourists can reach such places by sea without wasting much time in travelling.

Question 4.
Name some of the caves in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Karle, Bhaje, Mhasrul, Ajanta, Verul, Kharosa, Pullar are some of the caves in Maharashtra.

Give reason

Question 1.
Social development be accomplished through tourism.
Answer:

1. When facets1 like rural lifestyle, tribal life and culture are included in tourism then tourism gets a social dimension1 and the neglected components can be included in development.
2. The tribal life of Mel ghat of Maharashtra and visit to model villages like ‘Anandwan’, a project of the social activist Baba Amte, Ralegansidhhi, Hiwre Bazaar, etc. creates social consciousness and gives a fillip to development there.
3. There is a great potential2 for development of such a type of tourism in India through which social development can be accomplished.

Question 3.
Tourism is an invisible Trade’.
Answer:

1. Invisible Trade is a trade in which exchange of services occurs. Example of invisible trade. Tourism is a type of invisible trade.
2. Various restaurants, shops, transportation systems and recreational places are developed because of tourism and contribute directly to the economy.
3. Also, basic infrastructure improves and employment is generated which is an advantage to the economy indirectly.
4. Thus, tourism plays an important role in economic development and hence it is said that tourism is an invisible trade.

Question 4.
Tourism is good for environmental development.
Answer:

• Tourism is good for environmental development.
• Because of eco-friendly tourism concept, tourist places can be developed while caring for the environment.
• Factors like housing, resorts, traffic routes, etc. are also designed in an eco-friendly manner.
• In this type of development process, electricity, water are used very judiciously. The concept of recycle and reuse is also applied.
• Natural environment is maintained and tourism is developed too.

Answer in 2-3 Sentences.

Question 1.
What is the speciality of Deccan Odyssey?
Answer:

• Deccan Odyssey is a luxury train operated in co-ordination with MIDC, Indian Railways and Ministry of Tourism.
• Deccan Odyssey is like a moving palace.
• It originates at Mumbai and takes tourists to Nasik, Ellora, Ajanta, Koihapur, Goa and Ratnagiri.

Question 2.
Write about the luxury train for tourists visiting Northern india.
Answer:

• Palace on wheels” is the luxury train that covers the Northern India.
• This train takes the Deihi-Jaipur, Udaypur, Bharatpur, Agra Delhi route.
• Domestic arid foreign tourists enjoy travelling in this train.

Question 3.
Why is Vistadome a special attraction for tourists?
Answer:

• The coaches of Vistadome have a transparent ceiling which is a special attraction for tourists.
• It runs on the Vishakapatnam Kirandul route.
• As the train has a glass roof, the tourists can enjoy the panaromic view of the beautiful Arakuvalley, Anantgiri Ghat and Borra Coves.

Question 4.
What is Tarkarli in Konkan renowned for?
Answer:

• Tarkarli in Konkan is renowned for its seabed and biodiversity.
• Tourists can do snorkelling and scuba diving here.
• MTDC has set up a ‘scuba diving’ training centre of International standards at Tarkarli.

Question 5.
How is the GPS useful for tourists?
Answer:

• The GPS instrument found in applications like Google App location.
• Information regarding all possible routes of travel, distances, time require according to the type of vehicle, amenities on the way like petrol pump, restaurants etc. becomes available through GPS.

Write short note on:

Question 1.
GPS for tourism
Answer:

• The GPS system in our smartphones or the GPS instrument is largely used for tourism.
• For that we need special applications like the Google Map.
• We can know our exact location with the help of the map.
• Once it is decided where we want to head, then information regarding all the possible routes of travel, distances, time required according to type of vehicle, amenities on the way like petrol pump, restaurants, lodges, etc. becomes available in the app.
• We can use this for tourism.

Question 2.
MTDC
Answer:

• Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC) has implemented many programmes.
• It has provided guest houses, water sports, tourist houses near coastal areas, etc.
• “Deccan Odyssey” is a train started especially for tourism which is operated in coordination with MTDC, Indian Railways and Ministry of Tourism.
• The train originates at Mumbai and takes tourists to places like Nashik, Ellora, Ajanta, Kolhapur, Goa and Ratnagiri and back to Mumbai.

Question 3.
Domestic Tourism.
Answer:

• Tourism within the limits of the country is called Domestic Tourism.
• For example, a person from Maharashtra going to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu for a vacation, a person from Nagpur visiting Ellora Caves in Aurangabad and so on.

Question 4.
International Tourism.
Answer:

• Crossing the country’s boundaries and visiting some other country for tourism is called International Tourism.
  Glossary
• For example, an Indian going to Switzerland 1 for tourism, an American coming to India for tourism and so on.

Question 5.
Things required to travel to a foreign country.
Answer:
Following are the things required to travel to a foreign country:

• A Passport, visa, travel insurance and other documents.
• Currency of the country you are going to visit.

Question 6.
Eco-friendly tourism (Eco tourism).
Answer:

• The concept of eco-friendly tourism came into light when it was realised that due to increasing population, pollution and urbanization, environment is degrading.
• The nature of ecotourism is eco-friendly.
• In ecotourism, the tourists the place are visited by taking precautions of not damaging or degrading the environment.
• Ecotourism includes avoiding sound pollution, and air pollution, not hurting trees, birds, animals, etc. in the forests, etc.

Question 7.
Agro tourism.
Answer:

• Recently the concept of ‘agro-tourism’ has arisen which is visiting a pollution-free location away from the city holding an agricultural activity.
• In agro-tourism, the tourists are shown a glimpse of agricultural life.
• For a change from the urban life, tourists live on the farm and accept the hospitality of the farmers on payment in agro-tourism.
• In Pune and Kolhapur districts of Maharashtra number of agro-tourism centres have been developed.

Question 8.
Film tourism.
Answer:

• In film tourism, the locations where films are shot are shown to the tourists.
• A number of amenities and facilities are provided at such places to attract tourists.
• Mumbai film city, Ramoji film city are the famous film tourist places in India.

Question 9.
Coastal (sea) tourism
Answer:

• Coastal (sea) tourism is a new type of tourism.
• Tarkarli in Konkan is famous for snorkelling and scuba diving. It is also famous for its seabed and the biodiversity.
• MTDC has started a ‘scuba diving training centre’ of international standards at Tarkarli of Malwan taluka in Sindhudurg district.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Which new forms of tourism have developed recently?
Answer:
In recent years, the following are the new forms of tourism that have developed:

• Eco-tourism: While touring a place the environment should not be degraded or damaged by tourists, then it is called Ecotourism.
• Agro-tourism: Concept of ‘agro-tourism’ has arisen where pollution-free location away from the city holding an agricultural activity is visited. There the tourists are shown a glimpse of agricultural life.
• Film Tourism: Film tourism is a new type of tourism. The locations where films are shot are shown to tourists.
• Medical Tourism: The medicinal and surgical treatment in Indian hospitals are cost-effective and therefore, many patients from various developing countries come here for treatment.
• Medical Tourism develops from such facilities required by these tourists.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of tourist development in India.
Answer:

• India is diverse in terms of culture and nature, due to which India has a lot of potential for tourism.
• The richness of natural beauty in India, attractive landscapes and high mountains like Flimalayas exquisite coastal areas attract tourists.
• Also, the diversity of Indian culture, festivals, traditions and customs have resulted in opportunities for tourism in India.

Question 8.
What are the reasons of following medical tourists in India?
Answer:

• Many tourists visit India to avail health facilities, to achieve mental peace and physical strength through Indian Ayurveda, Yoga and Pranayam.
• The medicinal and surgical treatment in Indian hospitals are cost-effective and therefore many patients from various developing countries come here for treatment.
• Hence, medical Tourism develops from the facilities required by these tourists.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
This was the main objective behind establishing the Indian Atomic Energy Commission ________.
(a) Enhance military capacity
(b) Conduct nuclear tests
(c) To stop the proliferation of nuclear weapons
(d) Production of atomic energy
Answer:
(a) Enhance military capacity

Question 2.
The following is now the objective of all the nations of the world _____.
(a) atomic development
(b) economic development
(c) nuclear test
(d) security system
Answer:
(b) economic development

Question 3.
The is an important aspect of India’s foreign policy _______.
(a) free economic policy
(b) interdependence
(c) non-alignment
(d) nuclear development
Answer:
(c) non-alignment

Question 4.
India coriducted nuclear tests in 1974 at ______.
(a) Sriharikota
(b) Thumba
(c) Pokharan
(d) Jaitapur
Answer:
(c) Pokharan

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru contributed towards improving Sino-Indian relations.
Answer:
True.
Self-opinion based

• Pandit Nehru formulated Panchsheel which was a treatise of the five principles of peaceful coexistence to govern relations between India and China. The first formal codification in the form of a treaty was an agreement between China and India in 1954.
• Mutual non-interference in internal affairs, mutual non-aggression, equality of mutual benefit, mutual respect, and peaceful co-existence were the principles for seeking peace with China.
• Nehru backed China’s permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council.
• Though Nehru had a policy of improving Sino- Indian relations, China attacked India in 1962.

Question 2.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee took lead in improving relations with Pakistan.
Answer:
True.
Evaluative, self-opinion based

• In an effort to develop friendly relations, India and Pakistan have started a bus service called ‘Sada-e-Sarhad’ (Call of the border) between Delhi and Lahore when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister. He also revived the train called Samjhauta Express (Friendship Express).
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee rendered help to the earthquake victims of Pakistan during the rule of Pervez Musharraf.
• In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in the Kargil region over the Kashmir issue. India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards India started shaping its Foreign Policy independently.
(ii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for Foreign Policy.
(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our Foreign Policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Question 2.
National Interest
Answer:
(i) National interest implies the means through which the independence and sovereignty of our country can be safeguarded.

(ii) National interest also includes efforts to achieve our economic development and to take steps towards increasing our national power.

(iii) When decisions are taken after giving careful thought to what is beneficial and good for our country, we say that we are nurturing our national interest.

Question 3.
World Peace
Answer:
(i) World peace is an ideal state of freedom, peace, and happiness among and within all nations and people.
(ii) This idea of world non-violence provides a basis for peoples and nations to willingly co-operate.
(iii) Either voluntarily or by virtue of a system of governance, that prevents warfare.
(iv) India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s policy that there should be peace and security.

4. What is your opinion about the fact that world peace is threatened due to nuclear preparedness?
Answer:
Nuclear preparedness leads to an Arm’s Race. It increases the possibilities of wars.
(i) If a nuclear bomb exploded in a major city, the blast center would be hotter than the surface of the sun.
(ii) Survivors would have no electricity, no transportation, no phones, and hospitals would be overwhelmed if they were still standing
(iii) India is now a country that has nuclear weapons. We have accepted the role of a responsible nuclear power. India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s position that there should be peace and security in the world.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
On what principles is India’s foreign policy based?
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.

(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape Foreign Policy. Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy.

(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.

(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law. India’s Foreign Policy till now has been developed in this framework.

Question 2.
Who has contributed to improving Sino- Indian relations?
Answer:
(i) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.
(ii) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister, and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(iii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain the continuity in Foreign Policy and to improve upon it.

Question .3
Write the objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are as follows:

• While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
• Not to compromise about the geographical boundaries of the nation.
• Protect the unity and integrity of the country.
• Protect the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
• To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving the economic development of India.

6. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Prime Minister ______ shaped India’s Foreign Policy during the early period.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
Foreign policy is framed to establish economic and _____ relations with other countries for achieving economic development of India,
(a) Social
(b) Commercial
(c) Economic
(d) All of above
Answer:
(b) Commercial

Question 3.
The period from independence to ____ can be considered as the first stage.
(a) 1984
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 2011
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 4.
Peace and ______ became the fundamental principles of Non-Aligned Policy.
(a) justice
(b) freedom
(c) relations
(d) power
Answer:
(b) freedom

Question 5.
The first Chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission was ______.
(a) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(b) Dr. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.

Question 6.
After ________, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1984
(d) 1957
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 7.
In the decade after 1990, our relations with the South Asian countries like ______, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Indonesia
(d) Singapore
Answer:
(d) Singapore

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Foreign Policy is always dynamic.
Answer:
True.

• Foreign Policy is drawn up to foster the national interest of defence and economic development.
• National interest is considered to be the goal and foreign policy is considered to be the means to achieve it.
• Goals of nations change with changes in conditions and time.
• Accordingly, national interest also changes.
• These changes are reflected in foreign policy. Therefore, foreign policy is always dynamic.

Question 2.
India has not signed NNPT or CTBT.
Answer:
True.

• Nuclear weapons are extremely destructive.
• Hence, it is necessary to, make consistent efforts so that they are never used. Two treaties have been made to stop the spread of nuclear weapons.

1. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NNPT)
2. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

• The conditions of both these treaties are of benefit to big nuclear powers and they put unfair restrictions on developing countries, hence India has not signed either of these treaties.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
(ii) Protecting the unity and integrity of the country.
(iii) Protecting the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
(iv) To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving economic development.

Question 2.
Role of Economy in Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Foreign policy is shaped by the need to establish economic relations with other countries, import-export, participation in world trade, all aimed at strengthening the economy of the country.
(ii) In today’s world, the issues of economic security are as important as national security.
(iii) A country is recognized to be powerful in proportion to the economic security it enjoys.
(iv) Countries having a strong economy are less dependent on others, and they can have an independent foreign policy as well.

Question 3.
National leadership
Answer:
(i) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(ii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain continuity in foreign policy and to improve upon it.
(iii) For example, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru contributed the policy of non-alignment to India’s foreign policy.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.

Question 4.
Write about Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947, and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.
(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape foreign policy.
(iii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy. According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Do as directed:

Complete the list:

Question 1.
Complete the list by writing the contribution made by the following leaders. For example, Lai Bahadur Shastri: Tashkent Agreement
(i) Indira Gandhi: ____
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi : ____
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee : _______
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi: Pokhran Nuclear Test.
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi: Science and Technology
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Sino-Indian Relations

Question 2.
Name the Prime Minister who followed these policies?
(i) _____ : Look East
(ii) ______ : Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment
Answer:
(i) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru: Look East
(ii) P. V. Narasimha Rao: Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name the three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
(i) Three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in this period.
(ii) We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
(iii) The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
(iv) One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 2.
Flow did India promote the concept at regional development in the beginning?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa, as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union.

(v) This stopped the process of regional development. After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of non-alignment.

(vi) Peace and freedom became the fundamental principles of non-aligned policy.

Question 3.
Describe India’s relations with foreign nations post-1970.
Answer:
(i) In the decade of the 1970s, there came about some stability in India’s Foreign Policy.

(ii) India had risen as a powerful regional power in South Asia.

(iii) By conducting nuclear tests in 1974, India had also proved its nuclear capability.

(iv) From 1980, however, some changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established.

(v) India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 4.
Name the three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early period are:

1. We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
2. The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
3. One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 5.
Write about Pandit Nehru’s contribution to India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Prime Minister Pandit Nehru shaped India’s foreign policy in the early period. He opposed colonialism through India’s foreign policy. He took an internationalist position and gave priority to global peace and security.

Question 6.
Describe the conflicts India had to face in its early phase of foreign policy.
Answer:
In the early period, India had to face conflict with neighbouring countries. Wars happened between India and Pakistan over the Kashmir question in 1947-48 and 1965. In the third war, which happened in 1971, Pakistan broke apart and independent Bangladesh was created.

Question 7.
Describe the important changes that took place in India’s foreign policy from the 1980s.
Answer:
From 1980, some important changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established. India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 8.
What is India’s role in regional development?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union. This stopped the process of regional development.

(v) After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of Non-alignment.

Question 9.
Write about the Political system as a factor influencing India’s small Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) In a democratic political system, the nation’s Parliament plays a major role in evolving Foreign Policy.

(ii) When different aspects come up for discussion in Parliament, the opposition parties try to regulate the Foreign Policy by raising questions about the same.

(iii) Federal political systems have to take into account the inclinations of the constituent states while shaping Foreign Policy because the affairs in neighbouring nations affect constituent states.

(iv) For example, events in Sri Lanka may affect Tamil Nadu, and those in Bangladesh may affect West Bengal and the North-East Indian States.

Question 10.
Write about the administrative factors of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Ministry of External Affairs, Foreign Secretary, embassies in different countries, Diplomatic officers, etc. are the administrative factors involved in creating Foreign Policy.

(ii) Even though the final decisions about Foreign Policy are taken by the Prime Minister and the Minister for External Affairs, the administrative machinery helps to arrive at that decision.

(iii) The administrative officers collect information needed to shape the foreign policy, analyze it and give appropriate advice based on it.

(iv) The National Security Advisor also completes this task.

Question 11.
Write a note on the first stage of India’s Foreign Policy 1947-1990.
Answer:
(i) India adopted the policy of non-alignment in the context of the cold war. As a result, priority was given to maintaining friendly relations with all nations and to taking the help required for development from different countries. Due to the policy of non-alignment, India could get aid from both the superpowers.

(ii) There was a lot of stress on improving/ strengthening India’s defence. The technology required for this was imported. Soviet Union, France, and Germany helped India in this matter.

(iii) In this period, India had to face some challenges. These included the conflict with Pakistan, the creation of Bangladesh, and the conflict with China.

(iv) India proved its nuclear capability by conducting nuclear tests in 1974.

Question 12.
Write a note on Geographical Location.
Answer:
(i) In the globe or map of the world. We see the geographical location of any nation of the world.

(ii) Some countries are far away from other countries, while there are several neighbouring countries around some countries. Some nations have a long coastline, while some have plenty of mineral wealth.

(iii) In sum, the size, population, topography, coastline, availability of natural resources, all these factors need to be considered while deciding the foreign policy of any country.

Question 13.
Describe the factors included in National interest in any country.
Answer:
The following factors are included in the national interest of any country.

• Defence, i.e. the protection of our country’s independence, sovereignty, and integrity is the highest national interest.
• Economic development is also an important national interest.
• An economically weak nation will not be able to maintain its independence.
• Hence, economic development is understood to be an important national interest, next only to defense.

Question 14.
Consider the developments of India’s Foreign Policy from 1991 till date.
Answer:
(i) India’s Foreign Policy became more comprehensive and dynamic in the second stage.

(ii) In the post-cold war period, the priority no longer remained on political and military relations.

(iii) Several other dimensions like the economy, trade, education, and technology got included in foreign policy.

(iv) After 1991, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.

(v) In the decade after 1990, our relations with South Asian countries like Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.

(vi) Our trade exchange with Israel, Japan, China, and European Union increased.

(vii) India began to participate in organizations at the international and regional levels more than before.

(viii) For example, G-20 and BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).

(ix) Our relations with America strengthened.

(x) India’s nuclear policy is an important part of India’s foreign policy. India undertook the nuclear energy program immediately after independence. India built nuclear weapons and conducted nuclear tests in 1998. India is now a country that has nuclear weapons.

Question 15.
State the importance of foreign policy.
Answer:
(i) Interdependence being a key feature in the international system each country has to decide the nations with which it should be friendly, in which bloc it should participate or what position it should take in international relations.

(ii) Such decisions should be made thoughtfully.

(iii) The theoretical framework in which such decisions are taken is called Foreign Policy.

(iv) Every sovereign and independent country decides its own Foreign Policy.

(v) Hence in the discipline of international politics, which studies international relations between nations, Foreign Policy has an important place.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Work and Energy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Work and Energy

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Work and Energy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write detailed answers?

a. Explain the difference between potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

Kinetic Energy	Potential Energy
(i) Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by the body due to its motion.	(i) Potential energy is the energy possessed by the body because of its shape or position.
(ii) K.E = 1/2 mv2	(ii) P.E = mgh
(iii) e.g., flowing water, such as when falling from a waterfall.	(iii) e.g., water at the top of a waterfall, before the drop.

b. Derive the formula for the kinetic energy of an object of mass m, moving with velocity v.
Answer:
Suppose a stationary object of mass ‘m’ moves because of an applied force. Let ‘u’ be its initial velocity (here u = 0). Let the applied force be ‘F’. This generates an acceleration a in the object, and after time T, the velocity of the object becomes equal to ‘v’. The displacement during this time is s. The work done on the object is
W = F x s ……………….. (1)
Using Newton’s 2nd law of motion,
F = ma ……………….. (2)
Using Newton’s 2nd equation of motion
\(s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2}\)
However, as initial velocity is zero, u = 0

c. Prove that the kinetic energy of a freely falling object on reaching the ground is nothing but the transformation of its initial potential energy.
Answer:
Let us look at the kinetic and potential energies of an object of mass (m), falling freely from height (h), when the object is at different heights.

As shown in the figure, the point A is at a height (h) from the ground. Let the point B be at a distance V, vertically below A. Let the point C be on the ground directly below A and B. Let us calculate the energies of the object at A, B and C.

(1) Let the velocity of the object be v_B when it reaches point B, having fallen through a distance x.

(2) When the object is stationary at A, its initial velocity is u = 0
∴ K.E = 1/2 mass x velocity2

(3) Let the velocity of the object be vc when it reaches the ground, near point C.

From equations (i) and (iii) we see that the total potential energy of the object at its initial position is the same as the kinetic energy at the ground.

d. Determine the amount of work done when an object is displaced at an angle of 300 with respect to the direction of the applied force.
Answer:
When an object is displaced by displacement ‘s’ and by applying force ‘F’ at an ’angle’ 30°. work done can be given as

e. If an object has 0 momenta, does it have kinetic energy? Explain your answer.
Answer:

• No, it does not have kinetic energy if it does not have momentum.
• Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. If it is zero, it implies that v = 0 (since mass can never be zero).
• Now K.E = ~ mv2, So if v = 0 then K.E also will be zero.
• Thus, if an object has no momentum then it cannot possess kinetic energy.

f. Why is the work done on an object moving with uniform circular motion zero?
Answer:

• In uniform circular motion, the force acting on an object is along the radius of the circle.
• Its displacement is along the tangent to the circle. Thus, they are perpendicular to each other.
  Hence θ = 90° and cos 90 = θ
  ∴ W = Fs cos θ = 0

2. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

a. For work to be performed, energy must be ….
(i) transferred from one place to another
(ii) concentrated
(iii) transformed from one type to another
(iv) destroyed

b. Joule is the unit of …
(i) force
(ii) work
(iii) power
(iv) energy

c. Which of the forces involved in dragging a heavy object on a smooth, horizontal surface, have the same magnitude?
(i) the horizontal applied force
(ii) gravitational force
(iii) reaction force in vertical direction
(iv) force of friction

d. Power is a measure of the …….
(i) the rapidity with which work is done
(ii) amount of energy required to perform the work
(iii) The slowness with which work is performed
(iv) length of time

e. While dragging or lifting an object, negative work is done by
(i) the applied force
(ii) gravitational force
(iii) frictional force
(iv) reaction force

3. Rewrite the following sentences using a proper alternative.

a. The potential energy of your body is least when you are …..
(i) sitting on a chair
(ii) sitting on the ground
(iii) sleeping on the ground
(iv) standing on the ground
Answer:
(iii) sleeping on the ground

b. The total energy of an object falling freely towards the ground …
(i) decreases
(ii) remains unchanged
(iii) increases
(iv) increases in the beginning and then decreases
Answer:
(iii) increases

c. If we increase the velocity of a car moving on a flat surface to four times its original speed, its potential energy ….
(i) will be twice its original energy
(ii) will not change
(iii) will be 4 times its original energy
(iv) will be 16 times its original energy.
Answer:
(ii) will not change

d. The work done on an object does not depend on ….
(i) displacement
(ii) applied force
(iii) initial velocity of the object
(iv) the angle between force and displacement.
Answer:
(iii) initial velocity of the object

4. Study the following activity and answer the questions.

1. Take two aluminium channels of different lengths.
2. Place the lower ends of the channels on the floor and hold their upper ends at the same height.
3. Now take two balls of the same size and weight and release them from the top end of the channels. They will roll down and cover the same distance.

Questions
1. At the moment of releasing the balls, which energy do the balls have?
2. As the balls roll down which energy is converted into which other form of energy?
3. Why do the balls cover the same distance on rolling down?
4. What is the form of the eventual total energy of the balls?
5. Which law related to energy does the above activity demonstrate? Explain.
Answer:
1. At the moment of releasing the ball they possess Potential energy as they are at a height above the ground.
2. As the balls roll down, the Potential energy is converted into Kinetic energy since they are now in motion.
3. Since they have been released from the same height, they will cover the same distance.
4. The eventual form of the total energy of the balls is “Mechanical Energy” i.e, a combination of Potential energy and Kinetic energy
5. The above activity demonstrates the “Law of Conservation of Energy”

5. Solve the following examples.

a. An electric pump has 2 kW power. How much water will the pump lift every minute to a height of 10 m? (Ans : 1224.5 kg)
Answer:
Given:
Power (P) = 2 kW = 2000 W
Height (h) = 10 m
Time (t) = 1 min = 60 s
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Mass of water (m)= ?
Formula:

Water lifted by the pump is 1224.5 kg

b. If the energy of a ball falling from a height of 10 metres is reduced by 40%, how high will it rebound? (Ans : 6 m)
Answer:
Given: Initial height (h₁) = 10m
Let Initial (P.E₁) = 100
Final (P.E₂) = 100 – 40
= 60

To Find:
Final height (h₂) = ?
Formula:
P.E. = mgh
Solution:

The ball will rebound by 6 m.

d. The velocity of a car increase from 54 km/hr to 72 km/hr. How much is the work done if the mass of the car is 1500 kg? (Ans. : 131250 J)
Answer:


Work done to increase the velocity = 131250 J

e. Ravi applied a force of 10 N and moved a book 30 cm in the direction of the force. How much was the work done by Ravi? (Ans: 3 J)
Answer:
Given:
Force (F) = 10 N
θ = 0°, (Since force and displacement are in same direction)
Displacement (s) = 30 cm = 30/100 m
To Find:
Work (W) = ?
Formula:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:
The work done by Ravi is 3J

Numericals For Practice

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Laws of Motion Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are different types of forces? Give examples.
Answer:
Forces are of two types.

• Contact force e.g.: Mechanical force, frictional force, muscular force
• Non-contact force e.g.: gravitational force, magnetic force, electrostatic force

Question 2.
Monashee wants to displace a wooden block from point A to point B along the surface of a table as shown. She has used force F for the purpose.

(a) Has all the energy she spent been used to produce an acceleration in the block?
(b) Which forces have been overcome using that energy?
Answer:
(a) Only part of the energy applied by Minakshee is used in accelerating the block.
(b) Force of friction has been overcome using the energy.

Question 3.
Mention the type of energy used in the following examples.
(i) Stretched rubber string.
(ii) Fast-moving car.
(iii) The whistling of a cooker due to steam.
(iv) A fan running on electricity.
(v) Drawing out pieces of iron from garbage, using a magnet.
(vi) Breaking of a glass window pane because of a loud noise.
(vii) The drackers exploded in Diwali.
Answer:
(i) Potential energy
(ii) Kinetic energy
(iii) Sound energy
(iv) Electrical energy
(v) Magnetic energy
(vi) Sound energy
(vii) Sound energy, light energy and heat energy

Question 4.
Study the pictures given below and answer the questions:

(a) In which of the pictures above has work been done?
(b) From scientific point of view, when do we say that no work was done?
Answer:
(a) Girl studying : No work done
Boy playing with ball: Work is done
Girl watching T.V.: No work done Person lifting sack of grains : Work is done
(b) No work is said to be done when force is applied but there is no displacement.

Question 5.
Make two pendulums of the same length with the help of thread and two nuts. Tie another thread in the horizontal position.

Tie the two pendulums to the horizontal thread in such a way that they will not hit each other while swinging. Now swing one of the pendulums and observe. What do you see?

Answer:
You will see that as the speed of oscillation of the pendulum slowly decreases, the second pendulum which was initially stationary, begins to swing. Thus, one pendulum transfers its energy to the other.

Question 6.
Ajay and Atul have been asked to determine the potential energy of a ball of mass m kept on a table as shown in the figure. What answers will they get? Will they be different? What do you conclude from this?

Answer:

• According to Ajay P.E₁ = mgh₁ and according to Atul P.E₂ = mgh₂.
• Yes, the answer will be different as the two heights are different.
• Potential energy is relative.

Question 7.
Discuss the directions of force and of displacement in each of the following cases.
(i) Pushing a stalled vehicle.
(ii) Catching the ball which your friend has thrown towards you.
(iii) Tying a stone to one end of a string and swinging it round and round by the other end of the string.
(iv) Walking up and down a staircase; climbing a tree.
(v) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes.
Answer:
(i) Force and displacement are in the same direction.
(ii) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.
(iii) Force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.
(iv) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.
(v) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.

Question 8.
(A) An arrow is released from a stretched bow.
(B) Water kept at a high flows through a pipe into the tap below.
(C) A compressed spring is released.
(a) Which words describe the state of the object in the above examples?
(b) Where did the energy required to cause the motion of the objects come from?
(c) If the obj ects were not brought in those states, would they have moved?
Answer:
(a) Words such as stretched bow, water kept at a height and compressed spring describe the state of the objects.
(b) The energy required for the objects came from its specific state or motion in the form of potential energy.
(c) No, if the objects were not brought in those states, they would have not moved.

Question 9.
Study the activity and answer the following questions.

(a) Figure A – Why does the cup get pulled?
(b) Figure B – What is the relation between the displacement of the cup and the force applied through the ruler?
(c) In Figure C-Why doesn’t the cup get displaced?
(d) What is the type of work done in figures A, B and C?
(e) In the three actions above, what is the relationship between the applied force and the displacement?
Answer:
(a) The cup gets pulled as the force of the nut and the displacement of the cup is in the same direction.
(b) The displacement of the cup and the force applied through the ruler is in the opposite direction.
(c) Tire cup does not get displaced as two equal forces are working in opposite directions.
(d) The work done in figure A is positive, figure B is negative and in figure C is zero.
(e) In figure A the applied force and the displacement is in the same direction, in figure B the applied force and the displacement is in the opposite direction and in figure C the applied force and displacement is perpendicular to each other.

Question 10.
From the following activities find out whether work is positive, negative or zero. Give reasons for your answers.
(a) A boy is swimming in a pond.
(b) A coolie is standing with a load on his head.
(c) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes.
(d) Catching the ball which you friend has thrown towards you.
Answer:
(a) A boy is swimming in a pond: The work done is positive because the direction of applied force and displacement are the same.
(b) A coolie is standing with a load on his head: The work done is zero because the applied force does not cause any displacement.
(c) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes: The work done is negative because the fore applied by the brakes acts in a direction opposite to the direction of motion of car.
(d) Catching the ball which you friend has thrown towards you : Negative work because the force required to stop the ball, acts opposite to the displacement of the ball.

Question 11.
(a) Can your father climb stairs as fast as you can?
(b) Will you fill the overhead water tank with the help of a bucket or an electrical motor?
(c) Suppose Raj ashree, Yash and Ranjeet have to reach the top of a small hill. Raj ashree went by car. Yash went cycling while Ranjeet went walking. If all of them choose the same path, who will reach first and who will reach last? (Think before you answer.
Answer:
(a) No, father takes more time to climb stairs.
(b) Overhead water tank can be filled with the help of one electric motor rather than filling it with bucket.
(c) Raj ashree will reach first, followed by Yash and Ranjeet will reach last because car moves faster than a cycle and a person walking.

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Laws of Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Choose and write the correct option:

Question 1.
Forces are of …………………… types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 2.
Example of Contact force is ………………….. .
(a) Gravitational Force
(b) Magnetic Force
(c) Electrostatic Force
(d) Muscular Force
Answer:
(d) Muscular Force

Question 3.
Example of Non-contact force is ………………….. .
(a) Mechanical Force
(b) Frictional Force
(c) Muscular Force
(d) Electrostatic Force
Answer:
(d) Electrostatic force

Question 4.
Work is said to be done on a body when a …………………… is applied on object causes displacement of the object.
(a) Direction
(b) Area
(c) Volume
(d) Force
Answer:
(d) force

Question 5.
W = ………………. .
(a) mgh
(b) mdh
(c) mv²
(d) mfe
Answer:
(a) mgh

Question 6.
The energy stored in the dry cell is in of ………………. energy.
(a) Light
(b) Chemical
(c) Solar
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(b) chemical

Question 7.
The work done is zero if there is no ……………… .
(a) Direction
(b) Displacement
(c) Mass
(d) Angle
Answer:
(b) displacement

Question 8.
Flowing water has ………………. energy.
(a) Potential
(b) Chemical
(c) Solar
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(d) kinetic

Question 9.
By stretching the rubber strings of a we store ………………. energy in it.
(a) Potential
(b) Chemical
(c) Electric
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(a) potential

Question 10.
………………. is the unit of force.
(a) Both B and C
(b) Newton
(c) Dyne
(d) Volts
Answer:
(a) Both B and C

Question 11.
For a freely falling body, kinetic energy is ………………. at the ground level.
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Neutral
(d) Reversed
Answer:
(a) Maximum

Question 12.
Energy can neither be ………………. nor ……………… .
(a) Destroyed
(b) Created
(c) Saved
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(d) Both A and B

Question 13.
Work and …………………… have the same unit.
(a) Energy
(b) Electricity
(c) Force
(d) Both B and C
Answer:
(a) Energy

Question 14.
S.I. unit of energy is ………………….. .
(a) Joule
(b) Ergs
(c) m/s²
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(a) Joule

Question 15.
Work is the product of ………………….. .
(a) force and distance
(b) displacement and velocity
(c) kinetic and potential energy
(d) force and displacement
Answer:
(d) force and displacement

Question 16.
S.I. unit of work is ………………….. .
(a) dyne
(b) newton-meter or erg
(c) N/m2 or joule
(d) newton-meter or joule
Answer:
(d) newton-meter or joule

Question 17.
…………………… is the capacity to do work.
(a) Energy
(b) Force
(c) Power
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(a) Energy

Question 18.
Kinetic energy of a body (KE) = ………………….. .
(a) mv²
(b) ¹/₂ mv²
(c) mgh
(d) Fs
Answer:
(b) ¹/₂ mv²

Question 19.
Potential energy of a body is given by (P.E.) = ………………….. .
(a) Fs
(b) mgh
(c) ma
(d) mv²
Answer:
(b) mgh

Question 20.
1 hp = ………………….. .
(a) 476 watts
(b) 746 watts
(c) 674 watts
(d) 764 watts
Answer:
(b) 746 watts

Question 21.
…………………… is the commercial unit of power.
(a) kilowatt second
(b) dyne
(c) kilowatt
(d) erg
Answer:
(c) kilowatt

Question 22.
1 kWh = …………………… joules.
(a) 3.6 x 10³
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶
(c) 6.3 x 10⁶
(d) 6.3 x 10³
Answer:
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶

Based on Practicals

Question 23.
The work done by a force is said to be …………………… when the applied force does not produce displacement.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 24.
When some unstable atoms break up, they release a tremendous amount of …………………… energy.
(a) chemical
(b) potential
(c) nuclear
(d) mechanical
Answer:
(c) nuclear.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Unit of energy used for commercial purpose.
Answer:
Kilowatt-hour kW h is the unit of energy used for commercial purpose.

Question 2.
Unit used in industry to measure power.
Answer:
Horse power (hp) is the unit used in industry to express power.

Question 3.
SI unit of energy.
Answer:
SI unit of energy is Joule (J).

Question 4.
Two types of mechanical energy.
Answer:
Potential energy and kinetic energy are the two types of mechanical energy.

Question 5.
An example where force acting on an object does not do any work.
Answer:
In a simple pendulum, the gravitational force acting on the bob does not do any work as there is no displacement in the direction of force.

Question 6.
The relationship between 1 joule and 1 erg.
Answer:
1 joule = 107 erg.

Question 7.
Various forms of energy
Answer:
The various forms of energy are mechanical, heat, light, sound, electro-magnetic, chemical, nuclear and solar.

State whether the following statements are true or false:

(1) The potential energy of a body of mass 1 kg kept at height 1 m is 1 J.
(2) Water stored at some height has potential energy.
(3) Unit of power is joule.
(4) Mechanical energy can be converted into electrical energy.
(5) Work is a vector quantity.
(6) Power is a scalar quantity.
(7) The kilowatt hour is the unit of energy.
(8) The CGS unit of energy is dyne.
(9) The SI unit of work is newton.
(10) Kinetic energy has formula – mv²
Answer:
(1) False
(2) True
(3) False
(4) True
(5) False
(6) True
(7) True
(8) False
(9) False
(10) True

Find the odd man out.

Question 1.
Work, Energy, Power, Force.
Answer:
Force.

Question 2.
A stretched spring, A body placed in at some height, A bullet fired from gun.
Answer:
A bullet fired from gun.

Question 3.
A stretched spring, A rock rolling downhill, A bullet fired from gun.
Answer:
A stretched spring.

Write the formula of the following.

Question 1.
Kinetic energy
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²

Question 2.
Potential energy
Answer:
mgh

Question 3.
Work
Answer:
Fs or Fs cosθ

Question 4.
Force
Answer:
ma

Question 5.
Power
Answer:
\(\frac{w}{1}\)

One line answer.

Question 1.
(i) When is work done said to be zero?
Answer:
Work done is zero when force acting on the body and its displacement are perpendicular to each other.

(ii) Which quantities are measured in ergs?
Answer:
Work and energy are measured in ergs.

(iii) What is the relationship between newton, meter and joule?
Answer:
1 joule = 1 newton x 1 meter

(iv) What is energy?
Answer:
The ability of a body to do work is called energy.

(v) Give 4 examples of energy
Answer:
Solar, wind, mechanical and heat.

(vi) Which device converts electrical energy into heat?
Answer:
Electric water heater (Geyser) converts electrical energy into heat.

(vii) What is the relationship between second, horsepower and joule?
Answer:
1 horse power = \(\frac{746 \text { joules }}{1 \text { second }\)

Question 2.
Find whether work is positive, negative or zero.

(a) Person moving along circle from A to B.
Answer:
Work done is positive as direction of applied force and displacement are the same.

(b) Person completing one circle and returns to position A.
Answer:
Work done is zero because there is no displacement for the person.

(c) Person pushing a car in the forward direction.
Ans,
Work done is positive as the motion of car is in the direction of the applied force.

(d) A car coming downhill even after pushing it in the opposite uphill direction.
Ans,
Work done is negative as the motion of car is in opposite direction of the applied force.

(e) Motion of the clock pendulum.
Answer:
work done is zero as there is no displacement of the pendulum and it comes back to its original position.

Give Scientific reasons:

Question 1.
A moving ball hits a stationary ball and displaces it.
Answer:

• The moving ball has certain energy.
• When it hits the stationary ball, the energy is transferred to the stationary ball, because of which it moves.
• Hence, a moving ball hits a stationary ball and displaces it.

Question 2.
Flowing water from some height can rotate turbine.
Answer:

• Flowing water has certain energy.
• When it hits the turbine, energy is transferred to the turbine, because of which it rotates.
• Hence, flowing water from some height can rotate a turbine.

Question 3.
A stretched rubber band when released regains its original length.
Answer:

• When we stretch a rubber band we give energy to it.
• This energy is stored in it.
• Hence, when we release it, it regains its original length.

Question 4.
Wind can move the blades of a windmill.
Answer:

• Wind has certain energy.
• When it hits the windmill energy is transferred to the windmill because of which it moves.
• Hence, wind can move the blades of a wind mill.

Question 5.
An exploding firecracker lights up as well as makes a sound.
Answer:

• The exploding firecracker converts the chemical energy stored in it into light and sound respectively.
• Here, energy is converted from one type to another.
• Hence, an exploding firecracker lights as well as makes a sound.

Question 6.
Work done on an artificial satellite by gravity is zero while moving around the earth.
Answer:

• When the artificial satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit, gravitation force acts on it.
• The gravitational force acting on the satellite and its displacement are perpendicular to each other. i.e. 0 = 90°
• For 0 = 90°, work done is zero. [ v cos 90 = 0)
• Hence, work done on an artificial satellite by gravity is zero while moving around the earth.

Difference between :

Question 1.
Work and Power:
Answer:

Work	Power
(i) Work is the product of force and displacement. (ii) Work is given by the formula : W = Fs (iii) MKS unit – joule, CGS unit-erg	(i) Power is the rate of doing work. (ii) Power is given by the formula : \(\mathrm{P}=\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{t}}\) (iii) MKS unit – joule/sec, CGS unit – erg/sec

Question 2.
Work and Energy:
Answer:

Work	Energy
(i) It is the product of the magnitude of the force acting on the body and the displacement of the body in the direction of the force. (ii) It is the effect of energy.	(i) It is the capacity to do work. (ii) It is the cause of work.

Solve the following:

Type – A

Formula:
W = Fs cosθ
If force and displacement are in same direction, then θ = 0°, and cos θ = 1
If force and displacement are in opposite direction, then θ = 180°, and cos θ = -1
If force and displacement are perpendiculars, then θ = 90°, and cos θ = 0

Question 1.
Pravin has applied a force of 100 N on an object, at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. The object gets displaced in the horizontal direction and 400 J work is done. What is the displacement of the object? (cos 600 =12)
To Find:
Displacement (s) = ?
Formula:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:

The object will be displaced through 8 m.

Question 2.
A force of 50 N acts on an object and displaces it by 2 m. If the force acts at an angle of 60° to the direction of its displacement, find the work done.
Answer:
50 J

Question 3.
Raj applied a force of 20 N and moved a book 40 cm in the direction of the force. How much was the work done by Raj?
Answer:
8J

Type -B

Formula:
1) W = K.E = 1/2 mv2
2) W = P.E = mgh
• W = P.E, W = K.E
1 km/hr =
\(\frac{1000}{3600} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}=\frac{5}{18} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 4.
A stone having a mass of 250 gm is falling from a height. How much kinetic energy does it have at the moment when its velocity is 2 m/s?
Answer:


The kinetic energy of the stone is 0.5 J

Question 5.
500 kg water is stored in the overhead tank of a 10 m high building. Calculate the amount of potential energy stored in the water.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 500 kg
Height (h) = 10 m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Potential energy (P.E) = ?
Formula:
P.E = mgh
Solution:
P.E = mgh
= 500 x 9.8 x 10
= 500 x 98
= 49000J
The P.E of the stored water is 49000 J

Question 6.
Calculate the work done to take an object of mass 20 kg to a height of 10 m. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = -9.8 m/s²
Displacement (s) = (h) = 10 m.
To Find:
Work done (W) = ?
Formula:
(i) W = P.E = mgh
Solution:
W = mgh
= 20 x (-9.8) x 10
= -1960J
The work done to take an object of mass 20 kg to a height of 10 m is -1960 J.

Question 7.
A body of 0.5 kg thrown upwards reaches a maximum height of 5 m. Calculate the work done by the force of gravity during this vertical displacement.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 0.5 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = -9.8 m/s²
Displacement (s) = 5 m.
To Find:
Work done (W) = ?
Formula:
W = P.E = mgh
Solution:
W = mgh
= 0.5 x (-9.8) x 5
= -24.5 J
The work done by the force of gravity is -24.5 joule.

Question 8.
1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 2 joule. Calculate its velocity.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 1 kg
Kinetic Energy (K.E) = 2 J
To Find:
Velocity (v) = ?
Formula:

The velocity is 2 m/s

Question 9.
A rocket of mass 100 tonnes is propelled with a vertical velocity 1 km/s. Calculate kinetic energy.
Answer:

The kinetic energy of the rocket is 5 x 10¹⁰ J

Type – C

Formula:
\(\text { 1) Power }=\frac{\text { work }}{\text { time }}=\frac{\text { mgh }}{t}\)

Power should be expressed in kW
Time should be expressed in hours
1 k Wh = 1 unit

Question 10.
Swaralee takes 20 s to carry a bag weighing 20 kg to a height of 5 m. How much power has she used?
Given:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Height (h) = 5 m
Time (t) = 20s
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Power (P) = ?
Formula:
\(\mathrm{P}=\frac{\mathrm{mgh}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
Solution:
\(\begin{aligned}
P &=\frac{m g h}{t} \\
&=20 \times 9.8 \times \frac{5}{20} \\
&=9.8 \times 5
\end{aligned}\)
= 49 W
Power used by Swaralee is 49 W

Write notes on the following:

Question 1.
Derive the expression for potential energy.
Answer:
(i) To carry an object of mass ‘m’ to a height ‘h’ above the earth’s surface, a force equal to ‘mg’ has to be used against the direction of the gravitational force.

(ii) The amount of work done can be calculated as follows:
Work = force x displacement
∴ W = mg x h
∴ W = mgh

(iii) The amount of potential energy stored in the object because of its displacement.
PE = mgh (W = P.E)

(iv) Displacement to height h causes energy equal to mgh to be stored in the object.

Question 2.
When can you say that the work done is either positive, negative or zero?
Answer:

• When the force and the displacement are in the same direction, the work done by the force is positive.
• When the force and displacement are in the opposite directions, the work done by the force is negative.
• When the applied force does not cause any displacement or when the force and the displacement are perpendicular to each other, the work done by the force is zero.

Question 3.
Explain the relation between, the commercial and SI unit of energy.
Answer:
The commercial unit of energy is a kilowatt-hour (kWh) while the SI unit of energy is the joule. Their relation is
1 kWh = 1kW x 1hr
= 1000 Wx 3600 s
= 3600000J
(Watt x Sec = Joule)
1 kWh = 3.6 x 106 J.

Question 4.
How is work calculated if the direction of force and the displacement are inclined to each other?
Answer:
If the direction of force and the displacement are inclined to each other then, we must convert the applied force into the force acting along the direction of displacement.

If θ is angle between force and displacement, then force (F₁) in direction of displacement is

Complete the flow chart.

Question 1.
Transformation of energy

Answer:

Question 2.
Transformation of energy

Answer:

Write effects of the following with examples.

Question 1.
Force
Answer:

• A force can move a stationary object. The force of engine makes a stationery car to move.
• A force can stop a moving object. The force of brakes can stop a moving car.
• A force can change the speed of a moving object. When a hockey player hits a moving ball, the speed of ball increases.
• A force can change the direction of a moving object. In the game of carrom ,when we take a rebound then the direction of striker changes because the edge of the carrom board exerts a force on the strike.
• A force can change the shape and size of an object. The shape of kneaded wet clay changes when a potter converts it into pots of different shapes and sizes because the p otter applies force on the kneaded wet clay.

Give two examples in each of the following cases:

Question 1.
Potential energy
Answer:

• Water stored in a dam
• A compressed spring

Question 2.
Kinetic energy
Answer:

• Water flowing
• Bullet fired from a gun

Question 3.
Chemical energy
Answer:

• Chemical in cell
• Explosive mixture of a bomb

Question 4.
Zero work done
Answer:

• A stone tied to a string and whirled in a circular path
• Motion of the earth and other planets moving around the sun

Question 5.
Negative work done
Answer:

• A cyclist applies brakes to his bicycle, but the bicycle still covers some distance.
• When a body is made to slide on a rough surface, the work done by the frictional force.

Question 6.
Positive work done
Answer:
(i) A boy moving from the ground floor to the first floor.
(ii) A fruit falling down from the tree.
= 0.5 hr x 30 days
= 15 hrs
To Find:
Energy consumed = ?

The units of energy consumed in the month of April by the iron is 18 units.

Question 7.
A 25 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours every day. How much electricity does it consume each day?
Answer:
Given:
Power (P) = 25 W
25/1000 kW
Time (E) = 10 hrs
To Find:
Electric energy consumed = ?
Formula:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
Solutions:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
= 25/1000 x 10
= 0.25 kWh
The electric bulb consumes 0.25 kWh of electricity each day.

Question 8.
If a TV of rating 100W is operated for 6 hrs per day, find the amount of energy consumed in any leap year?
Answer:

= 2196 hrs.
To Find:
Electric energy consumed
Formula:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
Solution:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
= 0.1 x 2196
= 219.6 kWh
The amount of energy consumed is 219.6 kWh

Complete the paragraph.

Question 1.
………….. is the measure of energy transfer when a force (F) moves an object through a ………….. (d). So when ………….. is done, energy has been transferred from one energy store to another, and so: energy transferred = ………….. done. Energy transferred and work done are both measured in ………….. (J)
Answer:
Work is the measure of energy transfer when a force (F) moves an object through a distance (d). So when work is done, energy has been transferred from one energy store to another, and so: energy transferred = work done. Energy transferred and work done are both measured in joules (J).

Question 2.
………….. energy and ………….. done are the same thing as much as ………….. energy and work done are the same thing. Potential energy is a state of the system, a way of ………….. energy as of virtue of its configuration or motion, while ………….. done in most cases is a way of channeling this energy from one body to another.
Answer:
Potential energy and work done are the same thing as much as kinetic energy and work done are the same thing. Potential energy is a state of the system, a way of storing energy as of virtue of its configuration or motion, while work done in most cases is a way of channeling this energy from one body to another.

Question 3.
In physics, ………….. is the rate of doing work or, i.e., the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the ………….. equal to one ………….. per second.

Power is a ………….. quantity that requires both a change in the physical system and a specified time interval in which the change occurs. But more ………….. is needed when the work is done in a shorter amount of time.
Answer:
In physics, power is the rate of doing work or, i.e., the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the watt. equal to one joule per second.

Power is a scalar quantity that requires both a change in the physical system and a specified time interval in which the change occurs. But more power is needed when the work is done in a shorter amount of time.

Activity-based questions

Answer in detail:

Question 1.
State the expression for work done when displacement and force makes an angle θ OR State the expression for work done when force is applied making an angle θ with the horizontal force.

Answer:
Let ‘F’ be the applied force and Fj be its component in the direction of displacement. Let ’S’ be the displacement.

The amount of work done is given by W = F₁s ……………………………………… (1)
The force ‘F’ is applied in the direction of the string.

Let ‘θ’ be the angle that the string makes with the horizontal. We can determine the component ‘F₁‘, of this force F, which acts in the horizontal direction by means of trigonometry.
\(\begin{aligned}
\cos \theta=\frac{\text { base }}{\text { hypotenuse }} \\
\therefore \quad \cos \theta=\frac{\mathrm{F}_{1}}{\mathrm{~F}} \\
\therefore \quad \mathrm{F}_{1}=\mathrm{F} & \cos \theta
\end{aligned}\)
Substituting the value of F₁ in equation 1
Thus, the work done by F₁ is
W cos θ s
∴ W = Fscosθ

Question 2.
When a body is dropped on the ground from some height its P.E is converted into K.E but when it strikes the ground and it stops, what happens to the K.E?
Answer:
When a body is dropped on the ground, its K.E appears in the form of:

• Heat (collision between the body and the ground).
• Sound (collision of the body with the ground).
• The potential energy of change in state of the body and the ground.
• Kinetic energy is also utilized to do work i.e., the ball bounces to a certain height and moves to a certain distance vertically and horizontally till Kinetic energy becomes zero.
• The process in which the kinetic energy of a freely falling body is lost in an unproductive chain of energy is called the dissipation of energy.

Question 3.
Explain the statement “Potential Energy is relative”.
Answer:

• The potential energy of an object is determined and calculated according to a height of the object with respect to the observer.
• So, the person staying on 6th floor more potential energy than those staying on the 3rd floor.
• But, the person on the 6th floor will have lesser potential energy than on the 8th floor. Hence potential energy is relative.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Textbook Questions and Answers

1A. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
A system of independent and sovereign states ___.
(a) Political system
(b) International system
(c) Social system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) International system

Question 2.
The main responsibility of the United Nations ____.
(a) to avoid war
(b) independence of colonies
(c) improving the economics of different nations
(d) disarmament
Answer:
(a) to avoid war

Question 3.
The Cold War ended with the event, _____.
(a) Establishment of the United Nations
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union
(c) Creation of Military Organisations
(d) Cuban Missile Crisis
Answer:
(b) Disintegration of the Soviet Union

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The League of Nations was established after the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• At the end of the First World War, all the nations felt that such a war should not happen again and some measures need to be taken to achieve that end.
• An international organisation called the League of Nations was established out of this thinking.
• It became an important platform to solve international disputes and carry out negotiations.
• The main responsibility of the League of Nations was understood to be to avoid war.

Question 2.
The world became unipolar due to the Cold War.
Answer:
False.

• During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocs (USA or USSR).
• Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 3.
The policies of Mikhail Gorbachev gave an impetus to democratisation.
Answer:
True.

• The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The state loosened up its control of the economy.
• The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness).
• Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.
• Important changes took place in political and economic spheres, i.e. these spheres, were restructured. This gave impetus to democracy.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Cold War
Answer:
(i) America and the Soviet Union, who were allies in the Second World War became competitors, as soon as the war was over.

(ii) The cooperation between them gave way to rivalry. This rivalry occupied a period of 40-45 years of international politics

(iii) There was no open war between these two countries; but there was such tension in their relations, that it seemed that a war would erupt any time.

(iv) The concept of Cold War is used to describe the condition where there is no actual war, but there are such tensions in the circumstances, that they may be responsible to cause war.

(v) In this period, America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become a super power by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(vi) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 2.
Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(i) In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry. Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as non-alignment.

(ii) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(iii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

(iv) The non-aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(v) India led this movement under the guidance of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. India continued to actively support the movement afterwards as well.

(vi) Even after the end of the Cold War, the importance of the movement has not reduced. The non-aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.

(vii) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together. It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.

(viii) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the non-aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly. This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

Question 3.
Interdependence
Answer:
(i) All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.

(ii) Even big nations have to depend upon other big and small nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 4.
Bipolarisation
Answer:
During the Cold War, most countries of the world joined either of the two super power blocks. Such a division of the nations of the world in two groups is bipolarisation.

Question 5.
Globalization
Answer:
(i) After the end of the Cold War, trade and economic relations between countries became more open. As it has been mentioned before, capital, labour, markets and information began circulating globally.

(ii) The give and take of ideas among people all over the world grew.

(iii) Due to the revolution in information technology, different events and developments began to be known everywhere.

(iv) The boundaries between nations did not remain as sacrosanct as they were before. All these processes are together called globalisation.

(v) Just as globalisation has brought us benefits, it has also caused losses. For example, as the economies of different countries got linked with each other, trade increased, economic unification grew, plenty of products became available in the markets; but (at the same time) the gap between the poor and rich nations did not reduce.

4. Give your opinion on the following topics:

Question 1.
What measures should the League of Nations have taken to avoid the Second World War?
Answer:
(i) League of Nations should have organised a military wing with the help of member nations to keep a check over the aggressors like Germany and Japan.

(ii) League should have reconsidered implementation of harsh term of treaties imposed on the losers to avoid the revengeful policies of dictators like Adolf Hitler.

Question 2.
Non-Alignment was necessary during the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes. This was important to keep newly independent countries of Asia and Africa away from the super power rivalry.

(ii) Since these countries did not officially show allegiance to any super power, they freed themselves from the dominance of USA and USSR and could independently frame their foreign policies.

(iii) This further promoted peace and co-operation.

Question 3.
Human welfare was neglected due to the Cold War.
Answer:
(i) Yes, due to military alliances the world was gripped in the fear of a possible Third World War, which would have annihilated the entire human race.

(ii) Moreover the Arms Race diverted the resources and harnessed science for destruction rather than human welfare.

Question 4.
Which countries can emerge as super powers, in competition with America in present times?
Answer:
India and China could be future super powers.

5. Write brief answers:

Question 1.
Compare the First World War and the Second World War with the help of the following points.

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period
(2) Involved nations
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)
(4) International Organisations established after the War

Answer:

Points	First World War	Second World War
(1) Period	1914-1918	1939 -1945
(2) Involved nations	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Russia, Italy, America Central Powers – Germany, Austria, Hungary, Ottoman Empire, Bulgaria	Allied Powers – Britain, France, Australia, Canada, New Zealand, India, Soviet Union, China, America Axis powers – Germany, Japan, Italy
(3) Impacts (Political and Economic)	(i) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.	(i) Beginning of Cold War
	(ii) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.	(ii) Destruction of public property on larger scale due to use of nuclear weapons
	(iii) League of nations was established.
	(iv) Autocratic regime came up in Germany, Spain, Italy and other countries.
	(v) Destruction of public property.
(4) International Organisations established after the War	League of Nations	United Nations Organisation

Question 2.
What were the factors responsible for the end of Cold War?
Answer:
The factors responsible for the end of Cold War are:

(i) The Soviet Union adopted the policy of opening up the economy. The State loosened up its control of the economy.

(ii) The then President of the Soviet Union Mikhail Gorbachev implemented the policies of Perestroika (Restructuring) and Glasnost (Openness). Due to these policies, the control over the media reduced.

(iii) As the East European countries under the influence of the Soviet Union adopted the capitalist and democratic paths, the Soviet Union disintegrated and several new nations were created out of it.

Question 3.
What major changes occurred in global politics after the end of the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) Major changes took place in world politics after the end of the Cold War. For example, America remained the only super power in world politics.

(ii) A conducive atmosphere prevailed for the growth in trade and economic relations between and among nations.

(iii) As all nations of the world decided to give priority to trade relations, the idea of giving ‘aid’ to other nations fell behind.

(iv) The United Nations now had to take more concrete steps to maintain global peace and security.

(v) Environmental protection, fostering of human rights, gender equality and management of natural calamities now acquired a global dimension.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 1 Post World War Political Developments Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
President of Soviet Union who implemented ‘Perestroika’ and ‘Glasnost’ ______.
(a) Nikita Khrushchev
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) General Molotov
(d) Vladimir Lenin
Answer:
(b) Mikhail Gorbachev

Question 2.
Military organisation formed under dominance of USA ______.
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(b) Warsaw Pact
(c) New International Economic Order
(d) Non-Aligned Movement
Answer:
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation

Question 3.
Division of world into two power blocs is called ______.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Nuclear Escalation
(c) Bipolarisation
(d) Internationalism
Answer:
(c) Bipolarisation

Question 4.
Among the following ________ is not an Axis Power.
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Belgium
(d) Japan
Answer:
(c) Belgium

Question 5.
______ is an important event of the Cold War.
(a) Fashoda Incident
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis
(c) Wall Street Crash
(d) Red Menace
Answer:
(b) Cuban Missile Crisis

Question 6.
Non-aligned movement is opposed to ____.
(a) Racism
(b) Capitalism
(c) McCarthyism
(d) Nepotism
Answer:
(a) Racism

Question 7.
Non-aligned movement demanded establishment of _______.
(a) Association of South East Asian Nations
(b) League of Nations
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)
(d) European Union (EU)
Answer:
(c) New International Economic Order (NIEO)

Question 8.
The policy of Perestroika means restructuring and Glasnost means ______.
(a) strictness
(b) oneness
(c) massiveness
(d) openness
Answer:
(d) openness

State whether the following statements are True or False, with reasons:

Question 1.
A system of Independent States is called International System.
Answer:
True.

• Our social life and well being is dependent on others and mutual co-operation has a very important place in it.
• The same is true about society, and it applies to different nations as well. There are many independent nations in the world, like India.
• Some exchange and interaction goes on among these nations on a regular basis. These independent states also enter into treaties with each other.
• A system of all these independent, sovereign states that emerges is called an International System.

Question 2.
Interdependence is not an important feature of the International System.
Answer:
False.

• All the countries of the world are dependent on each other for one reason or the other. However big, prosperous or developed a nation may be, it can never be self-sufficient to fulfill all its needs.
• Even big nations have to depend upon each other and on smaller nations. Thus, interdependence is an important feature of the international system, i.e. today’s global system.

Question 3.
The Second World War proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
Answer:
True.

• The Second World War was fought between 1939 and 1945. It proved to be far more destructive than the First World War.
• Not only was it more widespread compared to the First World War, but far more advanced technology was employed in this war.
• Countries which took part in the Second World War once again faced a situation of economic crisis.

Question 4.
Efforts towards arms control and disarmament happened during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• The Super Powers started producing arms on a large scale to outsmart each other.
• There started a rivalry to make more and more destructive weapons and to acquire the technology required for the same.
• But soon, both the Super Powers realised that the arms race may endanger international peace.
• Hence, efforts towards arms control and disarmament also happened during this period.

Question 5.
Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
Answer:
True.

• In the period of the Cold War, while the world was becoming bipolar, there were some countries which did not want to join the super power rivalry.
• Such nations decided to stay out of the cold war rivalry. Their policy is known as Non-alignment.
• Non-alignment was an important movement during the Cold War.
• The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

Explain the concept:

Question 1
Military Organisation
Answer:
(i) During the Cold War, power struggle between USSR and USA created need for nations who will support their ideologies.

(ii) Thus, organisations were created for helping nations militarily and thus dragging them into either of the super power blocs for their hegemony.

(iii) The respective super powers took up the responsibility of the security of the countries joining the military organisations led by them.

(iv) NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organisation) was a military organisation under the dominance of America, while the Warsaw Pact was a military organisation, under the command of the Soviet Union.

Do as directed/instructed:

Complete the charts.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What were the effects of World War I?
Answer:
(i) The First World War was fought between 1914 and 1918. The war caused a tremendous loss of life and property. The countries which joined the war suffered tremendous economic losses.

(ii) Even the countries which did not join the war were impacted by the war. The economies of the victorious as well as the losing countries collapsed.

(iii) Earlier empires in Europe collapsed and new nations came into being.

(iv) Independence movements in European colonies changed hegemony of European Nations.

(v) League of Nations was established.

(vi) Autocratic regime came up in Germany Spain, Italy and other countries.

Question 2.
Describe America’s role in the Second World War.
Answer:
(i) America played a major role in the Second World War. It had manufactured nuclear weapons.

(ii) In order to end the war, it dropped two nuclear weapons on two cities of Japan – Hiroshima and Nagasaki on 6th and 9th August 1945 respectively.

Question 3.
What gave rise to the Cold War?
Answer:
(i) America was already a super power, but the Soviet Union also tried to become one, by making nuclear weapons and by increasing its military might.

(ii) The struggle for power, arms race, differences in ideologies, attitude of checkmating each other by strategies and counter-strategies gave rise to the Cold War.

Question 4.
Describe extreme differences among USA and USSR.
Answer:
(i) The U.S.A was a democratic State, advocating capitalism, while the Soviet Union advocated socialism and a one party authoritarian system.
(ii) Both the super powers wanted to expand their own dominance in the world.
(iii) America wanted to spread capitalism, while the Soviet Union wanted to spread socialism.

Question 5.
What is meant by Non-Aligned Movement and who were its founding fathers?
Answer:
(i) The Asian and African countries, which became independent after the Second World War supported the idea of non-alignment.

(ii) This movement started from 1961 under the leadership of India’s Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, President of Yugoslavia Marshall Tito, President of Egypt Gamal Abdal Nasser, President of Indonesia Dr. Sukarno and Prime Minister of Ghana Dr. Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 6.
Evaluate the Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
(i) The Non-Aligned Movement has opposed colonialism, imperialism and racism.
(ii) It has encouraged the resolution of international disputes by peaceful means.
(iii) The Non-Aligned movement is based on eternal principles of humanism, global peace and equality.
(iv) It has inspired the less developed countries to come together.
(v) While taking a firm stand on disarmament, fostering human rights, the Non-Aligned movement put forth the problems of poor, undeveloped countries firmly.
(vi) This movement made a demand of a New International Economic Order (NIEO).

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the statements by choosing the proper option:

Question 1.
In 1992, a movement against drinking alcohol was started in _________.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer:
(c) Andhra Pradesh

Question 2.
In 1975, the government of India formed the Committee on the status of women under chairmanship of ______.
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(b) Uma Bharati
(c) Vasundhara Raje
(d) Pramila Dandavate
Answer:
(a) Dr Phulrenu Guha

2.B Identify the wrong pair and rewrite the corrected one:

Question 1.
(i) Saudamini Rao – Stree-Mukti Andolan Samiti
(ii) Vidya Bal – Nari Samata Manch
(iii) Pramila Dandavate – Mahila Dakshata Samiti
(iv) Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Jyoti Mhapsekar – Committee on the Status of Women

3. Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Laws related to women:
Answer:

4. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Alimony
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.
(ii) The law enacted in 1952, recognizes women’s right to alimony and their share in the father’s property. Her right to Sreedharan was recognized.

Question 2.
Minority
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed as a minority.
(ii) As there are various religions, sects, and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

5. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The evolution of the women’s liberation movement.
Answer:
(i) The United Nations had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year.

(ii) In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman.

(iii) A comprehensive survey was conducted on several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work /livelihood, their wages , the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rate and the role of women.

(iv) Taking into consideration this entire background, a State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life / regions participated in it.

(v) The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The policy of a struggle against discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.

(vi) In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed.

(vii) Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule city.

Question 2.
The Prohibition of Dowry (Amendment) Act was enacted in 1984.
Answer:
(i) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law, incidents like ‘Woman bums to death as sari pallu catches fire while cooking’ and ‘Woman slips into well while washing clothes, drowns and dies’ continued to be reported.
(ii) Investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of such deaths.
(iii) The role of the police, the administration and judiciary were highlighted. This created greater awareness.
(iv) As a result, the Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Question 3.
The practice of untouchability was banned by law.
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.

Question 4.
The Constitution gives cultural and educational rights to minorities.
Answer:
(i) In any society, a group of people of a particular religion, language or race who are few in number are termed a minority.

(ii) As there are various religions, sects and languages in our country, we see great cultural diversity. There is variation in cultural traditions, too.

(iii) In order to preserve their cultural traditions and develop their own language, the Constitution gives the citizens certain educational and cultural rights.

(iv) Minorities have the right to protect and conserve their language, culture and traditions.

(v) For this purpose they have the right to set up separate educational institutions.

6. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Describe the Chipko movement.
Answer:
(i) The show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973.
(ii) Trees from the forests in the foothills of the Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(iii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna had started a movement to prevent this.
(iv) Women followed the strategy of holding hands and encircling each tree.
(v) As their method consisted of protecting the tree by embracing it, the movement came to be known as the Chipko movement.
(vi) Women took part in it in large numbers. Women had a big role to play in the agricultural economy of this region.
(vii) Gaura Devi was the activist who created this awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Protection of Human Rights Act.
Answer:
(i) In 1993, the Protection of Human Rights Act law was enacted to prevent injustice to men and women.
(ii) The National Human Rights Commission was also formed for this purpose.
(iii) In some States, the State Human Rights Commission was also formed on the same lines.
(iv) This law which deals with collective oppression, the social conditions of divorced women, women and secure work places, played an effective role in mitigating injustices to women.

7. Answer the following question in detail:

Question 1.
Explain with examples how the united strength of women can bring about constructive changes in various fields.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.

(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).

(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene had become very expensive.

(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.

(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

(vi) Another show of constructive woman power was seen during the Chipko movement in 1973. Gaura Devi was the activist who created awareness among the women with the help of Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

(x) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so. Committing sati, glorifying the practice of sati were all illegal acts.

(xi) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case. In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Class 9 History Chapter 6 Empowerment of Women and Other Weaker Sections Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
Under the leadership of the socialist leader ______ women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the Laatne Morcha.
(a) GauraDevi
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha
(c) Meena Menon
(d) Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(d) Mrinal Gore

Question 2.
Vinoba Bhave made use of women power in the _____.
(a) Bhoodan Movement
(b) Chipko Movement
(c) Laatne Morcha
(d) Anti-liquor movement
Answer:
(a) Bhoodan Movement

Question 3.
Women activists associated with the Chipko movement ________.
(a) Sucheta Kripalani, Nandini Satpathy and Jayalalitha
(b) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Uma Bharati and Vasundhara Raje
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(d) Dr Phulrenu Guha, Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(c) Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi

Question 4.
The Chipko movement was started by ______.
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna
(b) Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi
(c) Vinoba Bhave and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Meena Menon and Mrinal Gore
Answer:
(a) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna

Question 5.
The United Nations had declared as _____ the International Women’s Year.
(a) 1992
(b) 2000
(c) 1975
(d) 1988
Answer:
(c) 1975

Question 6.
A collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhaali Ho are written by ______.
(a) Vidya Bal
(b) Pramila Dandavate
(c) Sujata Anandan
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar
Answer:
(d) Jyoti Mhapsekar

Question 7.
A State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the _______.
(a) Samajwadi Mahila Sabha.
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.
(c) Nari Prabodhan Manch.
(d) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch.
Answer:
(b) Stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti.

Question 8.
Census is conducted in India every _______.
(a) 5 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
Answer:
(b) 10 years

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(i) Vinoba Bhave – Bhoodan Movement
(ii) Chandiprasad Bhat and Sunderlal Bahuguna – Chipko movement
(iii) Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha
(iv) Shah Bano Begum – Right to alimony
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Dr Phulrenu Guha – Laatne Morcha

Question 2.
(i) Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch – Aurangabad
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune
(iii) Mahila Hakka – Nashik
(iv) Nari Prabodhan Manch – Latur
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Pune

Question 3.
(i) Stree-mukti Andolan Samiti – Soudamini Rao
(ii) Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha
(iii) Milun Saryajani – Vidya Bal
(iv) Laatne Morcha – Mrinal Gore
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Mahila Dakshata Samiti – Phulrenu Guha

Question 4.
(i) Streemuktichi Lalkari – Collection of songs
(ii) Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical
(iii) Bayaja – fortmighty
(iv) Sitama Katha – Story
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Mulgi Jhaali Ho – Periodical

Do as directed
Make a concept chart:

Question 1.
Roop Kanwar Sati Case.
Answer:

Question 2.
List at least five Women Chief Ministers in India:
Answer:

• Sucheta Kriplani (Uttar Pradesh)
• Nandini Satpathy (Odisha)
• Jayalalitha (Tamil Nadu)
• Mayawati (Uttar Pradesh)
• Vasundhara Raje (Rajasthan)
• Mamata Banerjee (West Bengal)
• Rabdi Devi (Bihar)
• Anandiben Patel (Gujarat)
• Sheila Dixit (Delhi)
• Mehbooba Mufti Sayeed (Jammu & Kashmir)
• Uma Bharati (Madhya Pradesh)
• Rajendra Kaur Bhattal (Punjab)
• Sushma Swaraj (Delhi)
• Shashikala Kakodkar (Goa)
• Sayeeda Anwar Taimur (Assam)
• Janaki Ramachandran (Tamil Nadu), are all women who have led their States as Chief Ministers.

Complete the following chart:

Question 1.

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	………………….
………………	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	………………..
………………..	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Answer:

Women	Contribution
Dr. Phulrenu Guha	Chairman Committee on Status for Women
Soudamini Rao	Streemukti Andolan Samiti
Vidya Bal	Nari Samata Manch
Pramila Dandavate	Mahila Dakshata Samiti

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
International Women’s Day
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March 1857.

(ii) It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(iii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iv) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

(v) The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women.

Question 2.
Family Courts
Answer:
(i) Family courts were established to resolve conflicts arising out of differences within marriage and domestic problems as well as issues such as alimony, single parenthood, separation, care of children and ownership which are all related to the family situation.
(ii) These family courts give priority to mutual understanding over witnesses and evidence and to counsellors over lawyers.
(iii) Emphasis is on resolving issues quickly but justly.

Question 3.
Reservation for Women
Answer:
(i) The 73rd and 74th amendments to the Constitution provide for reservation of one-third of the seats for women in Gram Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Zilla Parishads, municipalities and municipal corporations as well as for the posts of Sarpanch, Chairman and Mayor.
(ii) Maharashtra and 15 other states have reserved 50% seats for women.
(iii) This provision provides women the opportunity to participate in the business of the community.

Question 4.
Scheduled Tribes
Answer:
(i) The Scheduled Tribes or Adivasis who live in remote parts of the country face several difficulties.

(ii) As they have lived far away from the progress made in modem times, they are economically and socially backward.

(iii) Even though their conditions have seen some improvement in recent times, they do not have any means of livelihood other than agriculture and forest produce.

(iv) Modem farming implements have not yet reached them. Hence, their income from agriculture is very small. Besides, their fields are on hillsides and not fertile.

(v) They are malnourished due to insufficient and poor quality of diet.

(vi) Adivasis in remote areas find it difficult to get medical attention in time. For all these reasons, there is a need to give special protection to Adivasis.

(vii) In the Indian Constitution, Adivasis have been enumerated as Scheduled Tribes. They are given representation in law boards, education, government service, etc.

Question 5.
8th March was declared as International Women’s Day.
Answer:
(i) A demonstration was held in New York on 8 March, 1857. It was the first demonstration by working women and its demands were for fewer working hours, proper remuneration, provision of creches, etc.

(ii) On 8 March 1909 women went on strike for the very same demands. That is why, this day was declared as the Women’s Struggle Day at the Women’s Socialist International, a conference held in Denmark.

(iii) The year 1975 was observed as the International Women’s Year and in 1977, 8 March was declared as International Women’s Day by a resolution passed in the General Assembly of the United Nations.

Question 6.
The ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.
Answer:
(i) A fixed amount paid to a married woman for her upkeep by the husband who has divorced her, is called alimony.

(ii) In the case of Mohammad Ahmed Khan vs Shah Bano Begum, the Supreme Court gave the verdict that Shah Bano Begum had the right to alimony.

(iii) However, religious organisations protested vociferously against the verdict.

(iv) As a result, the ‘Muslim Women’s Act’ (Protection of rights on divorce) was passed by Parliament.

Question 7.
In 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
Answer:
(i) On 4th September 1987, Roop Kanwar, a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will; she was coerced into doing so.

(ii) Committing Sati, glorifying the practice of Sati were all illegal acts.

(iii) The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

(iv) So in 1998, the government passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.

Read the passage and answer the questions:

Passage I

International Women’s year: The United Nations ! had declared 1975 as the International Women’s Year. The three aspects of this programme were peace, development and equality between men and women. In 1975, the government of India constituted the Committee on the Status of Women and appointed Dr Phulrenu Guha as its Chairman. A comprehensive survey was conducted of several issues such as the social position of women, their status, the consequences of the constitutional provisions made for Women as also education of women and its percentage, their progress due to education, difficulties faced by working women, the position of women with respect to work/livelihood, their wages (relative to men’s wages), the female-male ratio, birth and mortality rates and the role of women.
Taking into consideration this entire background, State-wide conference for women was held in 1975 organised by the stree-mukti Sangharsha Samiti. Women from all walks of life/regions participated in it. The Samiti published its manifesto in 1978. The Samiti published its manifesto discrimination on the basis of gender, caste and vama was adopted.
This gave rise to a collection of songs called Streemuktichi Lalkari, a street play called Mulgi Jhali Ho by Jyoti Mhapsekar and a periodical called Prerak Lalkari which became their mouthpiece and other such programmes. In 1977, groups like the Streemukti Andolan Samiti established by Soudamini Rao in Pune, Bayaja a fortnightly, as also Stree Uvach, Maitrin and Stree Anyayavirodhi Manch in Aurangabad, Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Kolhapur, Mahila Hakka in Nashik and Nari Prabodhan Manch in Latur were formed. Anti-dowry protection committees were formed all over Maharashtra. A conference to protest against oppression of women was organised in Dhule City.

Question 1.
Prepare a time line of the highlights mentioned in the passages.
Ans:
Timeline of the Highlights of the passage

• 1975 – UN declared International Women’s Day Committee on the Status of women was appointed.
• 1975 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti was organised.
• 1978 – Stree Mukti Sangharsha Samiti published a Manifesto
• 1977 – Stree Mukti Andolan Samiti was established by Soudamini Rao.

Question 2.
State the issues on which a survey was conducted by the committee on the status of women.
Ans:
The Committee on Status of Women appointed under the chairmanship of Dr. Phulrenu Guha made a comprehensive survey over several issues:

• Social position of women and their status.
• Consequences of the constitutional provision made for women.
• Education of women and it’s a percentage.
• Their progress due to education.
• Difficulties faced by working women with respect to work, livelihood, and wages.
• Female – male ratio.
• Birth and mortality rates.
• Role of women.

Question 3.
Name any two women who according to you managed to break the norms of the Indian Society and came up as icons of woman power.
Ans:
(i) Mrinal Gore
(ii) Gaura Devi

Passage II

Vidya Bal’s periodicals, Nari Samata Manch, and Milun Saryajani, as also the work ofthe Samajwadi Mahila Sabha and the Krantikari Mahila Sanghatana were of great help in dealling with women’s issues. The Employment Guarantee Scheme in Maharashtra also helped to empower women. Pramila Dandavate established the Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976. Branches of the Samiti came up in the States of Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. The Communist Party established the Akhil Bharatiya Janavadi Mahila Sanghatana in 1980. Efforts were made to start branches of this Organisation in all parts of India. The Sanghatana started a struggle against issues like dowry, female foeticide, domestic abuse, Research on women’s issues was undertaken at various levels. Women’s Studies Centres were started at the first women’s university, Mumbai and at Tata Institute of Social Sciences, Mumbai, Savitribai Phule Pune University and Shivaji University, Kolhapur. These Centres played an important role in critical analysis and in developing a vision on women’s issues.

Question 1.
State the role of Pramila Dandavate and Vidhya Bal in women’s upliftment.
Answer:
(i) Pramila Dandavate established Mahila Dakshata Samiti in Delhi in 1976.
(ii) Vidya Bal published periodicals like ’Nari Samata Manch’ and ‘Milun Saryajani’.

Question 2.
Where are the women’s study centers located in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Women study centers are located at:

• Shrimati Nathibai Damodar Thakersey Women’s University – Mumbai.
• Tata Institute of Social Sciences – Mumbai.
• Savitribai Phule University – Pune
• Shivaji University – Kolhapur.

Question 3.
Do you think International Beauty Pageants can help in creating awareness about women’s issues? why?
Answer:
Yes, International Beauty Pageants can help in creating global awareness on women’s issues world wide.
The participants in these events come from different cultures and backgrounds, they speak on many subjects affecting women which is covered by international media. Concerns pertaining to women’s political rights have been brought to the notice of the world through these pageants.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Explain, in detail, the Anti-liquor movement.
Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh, a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol. It received a good response in other States too.

(ii) When the head of the household dies an untimely death due to addiction to alcohol, the family faces a serious crisis which affects women the most.

(iii) Due to alcoholism, they have to deal with extreme sorrow and poverty. This movement got the support of the anti-arrack movement in Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) As a result of a government policy, arrack (a locally produced alcohol) dealers set up shop in every town and village.The poor labouring people began to get addicted to alcohol.

(v) At the same time, a literacy programme was being run in the villages of the State. The Sitama Katha (Sita’s story) was narrated as a part of this programme.

(vi) It was a story about Sita who creates awareness among the people of a village and gets alcohol to be banned from the village.

(vii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in a lake, in a state of inebriation, and died.

(viii) At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.

(ix) The report of this news in the local newspapers had its effect on many other villages.

(x) The movement spread to the entire State and the government had to adopt a strict policy against the sale of alcohol.

Question 2.
Explain the term ‘Nomadic’ and ‘De-notified’ Tribes.
Answer:
(i) Castes and tribes that move from place to place for a livelihood, are included under Nomadic Tribes.
(ii) They live by rearing animals and engaging in some other occupations.
(iii) The British had declared some of them as criminal tribes.
(iv) In the Law of 1871 to curb crimes, some of the main groups were mentioned as criminal tribes and their occupations and movements were banned.
(v) This unjust law was repealed in the post¬independence period.
(vi) And the curbs on these tribes were lifted. They were included under De-notified Tribes.
(vii) Special efforts are made by the government for the purpose of their social and economic development.
(viii) These tribes have been given representation in educational institutions and the government sector.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Scheduled Castes?
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period, our Constitution adopted the values of freedom, equality, fraternity and social justice.
(ii) In accordance with this, the practice of untouchability was banned by law.
(iii) Untouchability was removed by the 17th paragraph of the Constitution and this class was included in the Scheduled Castes.
(iv) In view of the educational and social backwardness of these castes, they were given reservations in education as well as jobs to facilitate their development.

Question 4.
Write a note on the manifestation of woman power.
Answer:
(i) Women, who have to face the brunt of scarcity of supplies and rising prices, gave a show of their strength as an organised entity in 1972.
(ii) Under the leadership of the socialist leader Mrinal Gore, women in Mumbai participated in a demonstration which came to be known as the laatne morcha (the rolling pin demonstration).
(iii) Commodities like oil, ghee, rava, maida, would become scarce just as Diwali was near at hand. Kerosene would become very expensive.
(iv) Women came together brandishing their rolling pins and took part in the demonstration.
(v) This movement met with success and the public got a glimpse of the united power of women.

Observe the pictures and write relevant information about them:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) A show of constructive women power was seen during the Chipko Movement in 1973. The trees from the forests in the foothills of Himalayas were to be cut down for commercial purposes.
(ii) The important leaders of the Chipko Movement were: Chandiprasad Bhat, Sunderlal Bahuguna, Gaura Devi, Sudesha Devi and Bachani Devi.

Question 2.

Answer:
(i) In 1992, in Andhra Pradesh a movement was started against the drinking of alcohol.
(ii) In 1992, three youths of Dubuganta village of Nellore district in Andhra Pradesh drowned in lake, in a state of inebriation and died. At this instance, the women of the village came together and forced the closure of arrack shops.
(iii) Arrack is a locally produced alcohol. As a result of a government policy arrack dealers set up shop in every town and village.

Question 3.

Answer:
(i) In 1998, the govt passed the Sati (Prevention) Act with very stringent provisions.
(ii) On 4th Sept. 1987, Roop Kanwar a married woman, committed sati. She did not do this of her own free will, she was coerced into doing so.
The women activists and journalists, Meena Menon, Geeta Seshu, Sujata Anandan, Anu Joseph and Kalpana Sharma investigated the case.

Question 4.

Answer:
(i) The Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 made both giving and taking of dowry a cognizable criminal offence.
(ii) Even after the enactment of the anti-dowry law investigations still revealed dowry to be the most frequent cause of deaths. This created greater awareness. Thus, Dowry Prohibition (Amendment) Act came into force in 1984.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in brief.
(a) What is mechanical weathering?
Answer:

1. The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.
2. The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases. Due to such continuous contracting and expansion, tension develops in the rock particles.
3. Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature; some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much. Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
4. In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes. Its volume increases which leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
5. When the alkaline water of the sea fills in the cracks of the rocks, the soluble minerals in the rock get dissolved leading to the formation of small holes in the rocks.
6. Because of the heat, this water turns into water vapour and only crystals of alkaline materials remain in the rocks. Crystals occupy more space which causes tension in the rock.
7. Sometimes the outer layers of the rocks exert pressure on the inner or lower layers. When this pressure ceases to exist, the lower or inner layers get freed from the pressure. This also leads to weathering.
8. In areas of heavy rainfall soaking of rock water also causes weathering of some rocks like sandstone and conglomerate. When water penetrates such rocks, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock.

(b) What are the main types of chemical weathering?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.
Its main types are:
(i) Carbonation

• When the rain water mixes with the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere it leads to the formation of dilute carbonic acid.
• Many rocks like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

(ii) Solution

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Because of this solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

(iii) Oxidation

• This process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.
• It occurs in rocks in areas with high rainfall.

(c) How does biological weathering occur?
Answer:

• It is the process by which rocks are broken into small fragments and fine particles due to the action of plants, animals and human beings.
• The roots of the plants enter the points and ! cracks of the rocks in search of moisture.
• As the roots grow bigger, they create tension in the rocks and start breaking them.
• Animals such as mice, rabbits and rats dig I holes, anthills etc. and weaken the rock, which makes them loose and break into pieces.
• Besides these, algae, moss1, lichen2, other flora grow in the rocks. They also help in weathering.
• Thus, the weathering caused by living organisms is called biological weathering,

(d) Distinguish between weathering and mass wasting.
Answer:

Weathering	Mass Wasting
(i) Breaking or weakening of rocks is called as weathering.	(i) When weathered rock material moves down the slopes due to gravity and accumulate near the foothills or gentle slopes, it is mass wasting.
(ii) Weathering is of three types – Mechanical, Chemical and Biological.	(ii) Mass wasting is of two types – Rapid and Slow.

2. Write whether the statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect ones.

(a) Climate affects earthquakes.
Answer:
False – Internal movements affect (leads to) earthquakes.

(b) Mechanical weathering is less effective in humid climates.
Answer:
True

(c) Mechanical weathering happens on a large scale in dry climates.
Answer:
True

(d) The breaking down of rocks into smaller particles is called weathering.
Answer:
True

(e) Lateritic rocks are formed through exfoliation.
Answer:
False – Lateritic rocks are formed due to oxidation.

3. Complete the flowchart below.

Answer:

4. Identify the type of weathering from the given description.

(a) Some animals live inside the grounds by making burrows.
(b) The rock rusts.
(c) Water which has accumulated in the crevices of the rocks freezes. Consequently, the rock breaks.
(d) The pipes supplying water in colder regions break.
(e) Sand formation occurs in deserts
Answer:
(a) Biological weathering
(b) Chemical weathering
(c) Mechanical weathering
(d) Mechanical weathering
(e) Mechanical weathering

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Intext Questions and Answers

Can You Tell?
(1) See the given pictures. Observe the physical appearance of the rocks in each picture. You can see that rocks are broken, fractured and have holes in them. In a picture you can also see that the statue has been deformed. Why are the rocks in such a condition? Think about them and briefly tell the reasons you can think of. Discuss the reasons. Check with the teachers if your reasons are relevant.
Answer:

• At some places the day temperatures are very high and the night temperatures are very low. In the given pictures the rocks may have broken due to temperature variation during day time and night time.
• In coastal areas when the sea waves hit the rocks, the rocks fracture and break down.
• Due to the roots of trees, and activities of burrowing animals like ant, rats etc. in the soft rocks, the rocks break down.
• The statues might be deformed due to heat and humidity.

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Have you seen the process of biological weathering3 around you?
Answer:
I have seen process of biological weathering3 around me. Many plants and trees have grown in an old dilapidated building which is located near my house. The roots of the trees have broken the walls and slabs of the building at many places.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 3 Exogenetic Movements Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………… is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
(a) Limestone
(b) Sandstone
(c) Coal
(d) Iron
Answer:
(a) Limestone

Question 2.
…………………… process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
(a) Shattering
(b) Oxidation
(c) Carbonation
(d) Granular
Answer:
(b) Oxidation

Question 3.
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’. This is called ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(d) slumping

Question 4.
periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called ………………….. .
(a) soil erosion
(b) solifluction
(c) shattering
(d) block disintegration
Answer:
(b) solifluction

Question 5.
Biological weathering occurs because of ………………….. .
(a) high temperatures
(b) frost
(c) crystal growth
(d) living organisms
Answer:
(d) living organisms

Question 6.
come minerals in the rock get dissolved in the water and undergo chemical weathering. This process is called ………………….. .
(a) solution
(b) carbonation
(c) exfoliation
(d) precipitation
Answer:
(a) solution

Question 7.
When dilute carbonic acids reacts with the minerals in the rocks the process is called as ………………….. .
(a) carbonation
(b) exfoliation
(c) precipitation
(d) slumping
Answer:
(a) carbonation

Question 8.
When the outer layers of the rock fall apart from the main rock due to difference in temperatures, the process is called ………………….. .
(a) shattering
(b) oxidation
(c) exfoliation
(d) carbonation
Answer:
(c) exfoliation

Question 9.
…………………… is a universal solvent¹.
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) Water

Question 10.
Alkalis in the rock dissolve because of the solution and make them ………………….. .
(a) even
(b) sturdy
(c) brittle
(d) crusty
Answer:
(c) brittle

Match the Column:

I.

(I) Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Mechanical weathering (2) Chemical weathering (3) Biological weathering	(a) burrowing (b) frost (c) carbonation (d) erosion

Answer:
(1-b),
(2- c),
(3 – a)

II.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Oxidation (2) Slumping (3) Solifluction	(a) Mass movement occurring slowly (b) Carbon dioxide gets mixed with air (c) Chemical reaction between iron and oxygen (d) Weathered material which sink in situ

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – d),
(3 – a)

Answer in one sentence each;

Question 1.
What are the Exogenetic processes?
Answer:
Exogenetic processes are external processes 1 that occur on or above the earth’s surface, E.g. weathering, erosion, transportation, deposition etc.

Question 2.
Explain the Process of weathering
Answer:
Breaking or weakening of rocks is called as weathering.

Question 3.
What is Mechanical Weathering?
Answer:
The disintegration of rocks without any change in their chemical composition is called mechanical weathering.

Question 4.
What is Chemical Weathering (Salt Weathering)?
Answer:
The process of decomposition of rocks due to changes in their chemical composition is called chemical weathering.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Biological Weathering?
Answer:
The weathering process caused by human beings, animals and plants is called biological weathering.

Question 6.
What is Slumping?
Answer:
Sometimes the weathered materials do not move downward but sink ‘in situ’ (where they ! are). This is called slumping. ;

Question 7.
What is Solifluction?
Answer:
In periglacial regions along the slopes, small layers of soil accumulate because of the movement of soil. This is called solifluction.

Question 8.
Explain Granular Weathering.
Answer:
When water penetrates in rocks like sandstones and conglomerates1, the particles get loose and separate from the main rock. This is called granular weathering.

Question 9.
What is Block Disintegration?
Answer:
When water accumulates in wide points and big blocks of rocks separate from each other, this is called block disintegration.

Question 10.
What is Exfoliation?
Answer:
When the outer layer of the racks fall apart from the main rock due to temperature, the process is called exfoliation.

Question 11.
What does the term ‘diurnal Range’ mean
Answer:
The difference between the daily maximum and minimum temperature is diurnal Range.

Question 12.
What is Solution?
Answer:
The minerals in rocks which dissolve in water leads to the formation of solutions.

Question 13.
Name the two types of mass movements.
Answer:
The two types of mass movements are:
(a) Rapid Mass Movement and
(b) Show Mass movement.

Question 14.
What are the types of Mechanical weathering?
Answer:
The types of Mechanical weathering are
(a) Temperatures
(b) Frost
(c) Crystal growth
(d) Release of pressure and
(c) water

Question 15.
Types of chemical weathering.
Answer:
The types of chemical weathering are:
(a) Carbonation
(b) Solution and
(c) Oxidation

Question 16.
Where does Mechanical weathering occur?
Answer:
Mechanical weathering occurs mainly in the arid climates.

Question 17.
Chemical weathering can be seen in which climates?
Answer:
In humid conditions, one can see chemical weathering.

Write whether the statements are TRUE or FALSE. Correct the incorrect statements.

Question 1.
Soil creep is uncommon in areas with dry climates and gentle slopes.
Answer:
False – It is a common phenomenon in such areas.

Question 2.
Shattering is a type of mechanical weathering
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Granular weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:
True.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Mechanical Weathering and Chemical Weathering.
Answer:

Mechanical Weathering	Chemical Weathering
(i) In this type of weathering, rocks get disintegrated but the chemical composition of the rocks does not change.	(i) It is a process where rocks get disintegrated and the chemical composition of the rocks change.
(ii) It is caused due to differences in the day and night temperature.	(ii) It is caused due to the reaction of oxygen, carbon dioxide and water with certain rock minerals.
(iii) It is more common in an extremely cold climates and hot dry desert climates.	(iii) It is more common in hot and humid climates.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.
(1) Area affected by a landslide (mudslide) in Maharashtra.
(2) Wadgaon Darya

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• A reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks.
• Thus, the oxidation process occurs in heavy rainfall areas.

Question 2.
Chemical weathering occurs in areas of heavy rainfall.
Answer:

• The rain water travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground. Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process.
• Dilute carbonic acid gets formed. Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids leading to weathering of rocks.
• Some minerals in the rock gets dissolved in water. Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
  Similarly, because of the solution, alkalis in the rock dissolves and make them brittle.
• Oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them. The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Question 3.
Mechanical weathering3 takes place in the cold regions.
Answer:

• In the cold regions, the temperature drops below 0°C for a period of time.
• The water that has percolated through the cracks in the rocks freezes and turns into ice.
• Ice requires greater space than water. Tension is developed when the ice tries to acquire greater space.
• The continuous process of freezing and melting finally leads to the breaking of the rock mass.

Question 4.
Rapid mass movements occurs along the steep slopes.
Answer:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the steep slopes.
• When it rains in such areas, the rainwater penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• Due to this the weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the steep slopes.

Question 5.
Mechanical weathering is seen in areas where the diurnal range of temperature is high.
OR
Change in temperature leads to Mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• The minerals in the rocks expand because of heat and contract when the temperature decreases.
• Due to such continuous contracting and expanding, tension develops in the rock particles.
• Each mineral reacts differently to the temperature. Some minerals expand more, while others do not expand as much.
• Consequently, the tension formed in the rocks also increases and decreases. As a result, cracks develop in the rocks and they break.
• Thus in areas, where the diurnal range of temperature is higher, mechanical weathering is seen.

Question 6.
Water plays an important role in chemical weathering.
Answer:

• Rock is a mixture of many minerals.
• Since many things get dissolved easily in water, it is considered a universal solvent.
• The solubility1 of the solution increases because the matter gets dissolved in water.
• Water speeds up the process of carbonation, solution and oxidation. These processes lead to the weathering of rocks.
• Thus water plays an important role in chemical weathering.

Question 7.
Frost leads to mechanical weathering.
Answer:

• In areas where the temperatures drop below 0°C for quite some time, the water accumulated in the cracks and crevices in the rocks freezes.
• The volume of water increases on freezing.
• This leads to tension in the rocks and they shatter.
• In this way frost leads to mechanical weathering.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What is a mass movement? What are the types of mass movements?
Answer:
The weathered rock materials move along the slopes due to gravity and accumulate near the foothills or the gentler slopes. When the weathered particles move down due to gravity alone, the process is called mass movements.

Types of Mass movements:
(i) Rapid mass movements:

• A thick layer of weathered material forms on the slope. When it rains in such areas, the rain water penetrates the weathered materials and their weight increases.
• The weathered materials move very rapidly and come down the slope.
• Sometimes the weathered materials sink in situ. (Where they are)
• Rockfalls, landslides, land subsidence are ; termed as rapid mass movements.

(ii) Slower mass movements:

• Soil creep is the most common phenomenon in areas with dry climate and gentler slopes.
• In periglacial regions along the soil. This is called as solifluction.

Question 2.
How does external processes occur?
Answer:

• External processes occur because of the forces working on the earth’s surface.
• They are mainly solar energy, gravitational force and kinetic energy associated with the moving objects on the earth’s surface.

Question 3.
What is exfoliation?
Answer:

• In regions of high temperatures, the exposed part of the rock heats more while the inner part is comparatively cooler.
• As a result, the outer layers of the rocks fall apart from the main rock.
• This is called the exfoliation of the rock.

Question 4.
Explain the process of oxidation.
Answer:

• The oxidation process occurs in rocks which have iron present in them.
• The iron in the rock comes in contact with water and a chemical reaction takes place between iron and oxygen.
• Hence, a reddish coloured layer forms on the rocks. This is called rust.

Explain:

Question 1.
Block Disintegration
Answer:

• Sometimes both temperature and water are responsible for weathering.
• The difference in temperature cause contraction and expansion of minerals in the rocks. This leads to widening theoints or cracks in the rocks.
• Water accumulates in such wideouts and big blocks of rocks separate from each other.
• This is called Block Disintegration.

Question 2.
Carbonation
Answer:

• Carbonation is a type of chemical weathering.
• The rainwater travels through the atmosphere before reaching the ground.
• Carbon dioxide in the air gets mixed in the water in this process and dilute carbonic acid gets formed.
• For e.g Water + Carbon Dioxide = Carbonic Acid (H₂O +CO₂ = H₂CO₃)
• Materials like limestone get easily dissolved in such acids.

Question 3.
Solution
Answer:

• Some minerals in the rock get dissolved in water.
• Limestone is formed due to chemical precipitation between water and alkalis.
• At Wadgaon Darya in Ahmadnagar district, limestone gets precipitated chemically i.e. undergoes chemical weathering again.
• Similarly, because of solution, alkalis in the rock dissolve and make them brittle.

Question 4.
Make a record of few landslides that have occured in India and write about them briefly.
Answer:
Landslide is a rapid mass movement which is caused majorly due to heavy rains, floods, earthquakes etc. The following are some fatal landsides in India.

1. Guwahati landslide, Assam:- The landslide took place in the year 1948 due to heavy rains & over 500 people died in this landslide.
2. Darjeeling landslide, West Negal:- This landslide happened in the year of 1968. It was triggered by floods and thousands of people died due to this landslide.
3. Malpa landslide, Uttarkhand:- Consecutive landslides occured in August 1998 in village of Mapla due to which 380 people died as an entire village was destroyed in the landslide.
4. Kedarnath landslide, Uttarakhand:- This landslide took place onune 16, 2013 & was the result of Uttar Khand floods. Over 5700 people were reported dead and over 4200 villages were affected by floods and post-flood landslide.
5. Malin landslide, Maharashtra:- This landslide occured onuly 30, 2014, in a village in Malin. The landslide occured due to heavy rainfall and around 151 people died and 100 people went missing after the disaster.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the correct statement:

Question 1.
The temperature range helps the wind in its work.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
River’s work is more prominent than other agents of erosion in desert regions.
Answer:
Incorrect. Work of wind is more prominent in desert regions than other agents of erosion.

Question 3.
The work of groundwater is effective in the area with soft rocks.
Answer:
Correct.

2. Correct and rewrite the incorrect statements:

Question 1.
The ice on the lateral side of the glacier moves faster than the ice at the base.
Answer:
Incorrect. The ice on the base of the glacier moves faster than the ice on the lateral side.

Question 2.
The depositional work by rivers happens because of gentle slope, reduced speed and transported sediments.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 3.
A river flows at a faster speed than the glacier.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 4.
The speed of the glacier is more on both the banks than in the middle.
Answer:
Correct.

3. Identify the wrong pair

Question 1.
Deposition – V-shaped valley
Answer:
Wrong pair.
Correct pair is – Erosion – V-shaped valley

Question 2.
Transport – Ripple Marks
Answer:
Transport – Ripple Marks

Question 3.
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks
Answer:
Erosion – Mushroom Rocks

4. Identify and name the landforms in the following diagrams :

Answer:
(i) V-shaped valley
(ii) Gorge (Canyon)
(iii) Delta

5. Complete the following table by classifying the landforms according to their agents of erosion.
(waterfall, delta, cirque, arête, barchans, moraine, pothole, mushroom rock, sinkholes, beach, pillars, lagoons)
Rivers Wind Glacier Sea Waves Groundwater
Answer:

Rivers	Wind	Glacier	Sea waves	Ground Water
Waterfall	Barchans	Cirque	Beach	Sinkholes
Delta	Mushroom rock	Aretes	Lagoons	Pillars
Pothole		Moraine

6. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
List the landforms that are a result of the erosional work of the rivers.
Answer:
Gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls are the result of the erosional work of the rivers.
(i) ‘V’ Shaped Valley:

• A ‘V shaped valley is formed due to the erosional work of a river.
• Over a period of time, the amount of load in the flow starts increasing.
• More and more energy of the river gets consumed in transporting the material.
• As a result, there is less erosion of the bed. The erosion along the banks and the slopes of the valley increases.
• Hence, the slopes recedes and the valley with near-vertical sides becomes wider, resembling the letter ‘V’.

(ii) Gorge:

• A gorge is found in the upper course of the river.
• It is a deep and narrow valley with steep sides.
• In mountainous areas, the river flows with great speed. Therefore, the bed of the river gets eroded more than its banks, giving rise to a gorge that has a steep banks and a narrow bed.

(iii) Waterfall:

• Waterfalls are formed as a result of the erosional work of a river.
• Water flowing over a hilly region cascades down a cliff, forming a waterfall.
• In the areas, where the hard and soft rocks are next to each other, the soft rocks are eroded faster than the hard ones. A difference in the height along the river bed leads to the formation of a waterfall.

Question 2.
Which agent is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites and where are they formed?
Answer:

• The work of groundwater is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites.
• In areas of limestone, the alkaline water seeps through the roof of the limestone caves.
• When this water evaporates, minerals get deposited at the bottom and at the top of the limestone caves.
• This leads to formation of stalactites and stalagmites.

Question 3.
List the landforms that are produced by the depositional work of the sea waves
Answer:
The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.
(i) Beach:

• Large amount of sediments come from the landward side in areas between two adjoining headlands.
• Moreover, as these areas are shallow, the velocity of the waves decreases.
• As a result, the sediments that come from the land, as well as those coming from the deep sea, get deposited in this area.
• Predominantly fine sand gets settled along the coast.
• Such sandy deposits along the coasts are called beaches.

(ii) Lagoon:

• The brackish water separated from the seawater by sand bars and lying in the areas between the coast and bars is called a lagoon.
• As the waters are separated from the open sea, large waves are not generated.
• These lagoons run parallel to the sea coast.

(iii) Sand bars:

• Sand gets deposited along the sides of the headlands.
• The deposition extends parallel to the coast from one headland to the next.
• Over a period of time, these deposits extend over long distances forming bars that protrude into the water at some distance away from the beach.
• These are known as ‘sand bars’, Sometimes, the eroded material from the’ beach, gives rise to the sand bars.

Question 4.
Name the types of moraines.
Answer:
The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines. Depending ond the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.

• The material deposited at the base of a glacier is called ground moraine.
• The material deposited along the banks of a glacier is called Lateral moraine.
• After the confluence of two glaciers, the moraine deposited in the central part of the glacier is known as medial moraine. It is formed out of . the side moraine of the inner banks of the two glaciers.
• At the end where a glacier turns into a stream, huge quantity of moraine is deposited. The stream of water is unable to carry the moraine further. As the deposited moraine is at the terminal part of a glacier, it is called terminal moraine.

7. Observe the following picture carefully. Identify the landforms formed by different agents of erosion. Number them with a pencil here and write their names in the sequence in your notebook.

(i)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of river

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of river

(2) Some pictures of the landforms formed by glaciers3 are given below. Write the function because of which they have been formed.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(ii)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of glacier

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of glacier

(3) Some pictures of the Iandforms produced by the work of the winds are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iii)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(iv)

Answer:
Depositional work of wind

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(vi)

Answer:
Erosional work of wind

(4) Some pictures of the landforms produced by the work of the sea waves are given below. See the pictures and write in the box whether they have been formed by erosion or deposition.

With the help of internet, obtain information regarding the places along the Konkan coast where you will find the landforms formed by sea waves.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves

(iii)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(iv)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(v)

Answer:
Erosional work of sea waves.

(vi)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(vii)

Answer:
Depositional work of sea waves.

(5) See the pictures of the landforms produced by the work of groundwater. Write in the box below them whether they are formed through the work of erosion or deposition.

(i)

Answer:
Erosional work of ground water

(ii)

Answer:
Depositional work of ground water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Intext Questions and Answers

Draw a diagram showing landforms at the sea coast:
Answer:

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
How will you differentiate between a rill, gully, stream and a river?
Answer:
The smallest natural flow of rain water is a rill. Many rills come together to form a gully. Many gullies come together and form a stream. Many streams come together and form a river. Thus we can see that rills, gullies, streams nad rivers are the various forms of flowing water in increasing order of their size.

Question 2.
What is a river?
Answer:
Running water flows naturally in a direction according to gravity along the slope, making its own way. This is called a flow of water when many such flows of water come together a river is formed.

Question 3.
Where can you see the work by glaciers in India?
Answer:
Glaciers can be seen in the Himalayan region in India.

Question 4.
In which natural region can you see the work of glaciers at the sea level?
Answer:
We can see the work of glacier at sea level in the Polar regions (Antarctica).

Question 5.
Where will you find the landforms formed by sea waves along the Konkan coast?
Answer:
Along the Konkan coast, landforms formed by sea waves can be found at Harihareshwar, Bhagwatibandar, Shrivardhan, Ratnagiri and Sindhudurg.

Think about it.

Question 1.
There are many creeks found in the coastal areas of Konkan but no delta, why?
Answer:
The Konkan coast has an indented (broken) coastline. Hence many creeks are found here. Many small seasonal rivers originate in the steep western side of the Western Ghats. As the rivers flow through the steep slopes their velocity increases. So, there is very little erosion done by them. Due to the narrow width of the Konkan coast, the rivers cover a short distance and drain in the Arabian sea. Thus they do not form estuaries rather than deltas.

Question 2.
Can you see a glacier moving just as you can observe the movement of river water?
Answer:
No

Question 3.
Ramu has to dig a well in his farm. But he is in a dilemma as to which season should he dig it so that there is water supply for a longer time. What will you suggest to Ramu?
Answer:
Ramu should dig a well during the summer season. A deep well can be dug during the summer season. This will ensure water supply not only during the monsoon and winter season but also during the next summer season.

Question 4.
Which agent has more kinetic energy of all-wind, river or glacier?
Answer:
Glacier is the agent of erosion which has the most kinetic energy of all. The glacier is a mixture of heavy soil and rock particles which are flowing. Thus it has both weight and movement.

Find out.

Question 1.
Is there any lake found near the meanders of the river? Obtain information about them.
Answer:

• Ox-Bow lakes are usually found near the meanders of a river.
• Wherever the river changes its direction, erosion takes place along the outer banks.
• If these conditions occur again and again, the river develops a zigzag path.
• Such a zigzag path is called a meandering path (course) and each loop along the path is called meander.
• When the turns in the course become acute, the limbs of a turn come very close.
• During flood, as the force of water increases, the river skips the meandering path and follows a straight path.
• The abandoned portion of the loop develops into a lake that is called an ‘ox-bow’ lake.

Question 2.
Where will you find mushroom rocks in the Deccan Plateau?
Answer:
Mushroom rocks can be found in the Hyderabad.

Question 3.
Can you find the work of wind near coastal areas? What landforms will be formed there?
Answer:
Yes, Ripple marks and sand mounds can be seen on the sand in the coastal regions.

Question 4.
Where are limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites found in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are found in Kanhur caves in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra.

Question 5.
Why are the landforms formed in limestone called Karst?
Answer:
A karst is an area of land formation created by eroding and dissolving portions of limestone or other soluble rock layers above or below the ground. According to the prevalent interpretation, the term is derived from the German name for the Karst region, a limestone plateau above the city of Trieste in the northern Adriatic.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 4 Exogenetic Movements Part 2 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements by choosing the correct options.

Question 1.
The sediments are deposited at the foothills of the mountains in a triangular area forming an/a ………….. .
(a) alluvial fan
(b) yardang
(c) delta
(d) V-shaped valley
Answer:
(a) alluvial fan

Question 2.
The sediments carried by the glacier2 are called ………….. .
(a) sediments
(b) silt
(c) moraines
(d) alluvium
Answer:
(c) moraines

Question 3.
The erosional, transportation and depositional work of wind is more prominent in ………….. .
(a) polar regions
(b) deserts
(c) temperate regions
(d) grasslands
Answer:
(b) deserts

Question 4.
When many flows of water come together a …………… is formed.
(a) gorge
(b) river
(c) glacier
(d) canyon
Answer:
(b) river

Question 5.
The water which percolates through the porous rocks on the non-porous layer of rock is termed as ………….. .
(a) glacier
(b) flood leeves
(c) ground water
(d) surface water
Answer:
(c) ground water

Question 6.
…………… is formed due to depositional work of river.
(a) Delta
(b) Gorge
(c) V-shaped valley
(d) Canyon
Answer:
(a) Delta

Question 7.
In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of ………….. .
(a) rainfall
(b) hail
(c) snowfall
(d) frost
Answer:
(c) snowfall

Question 8.
The erosional work of glacier forms ………….. .
(a) drumlins
(b) eskers
(c) cirques
(d) yardangs
Answer:
(c) cirques

Question 9.
The Jacobshavn Glacier in …………… is one of the fastest moving glaciers in the world.
(a) Finland
(b) Greenland
(c) Antarctica
(d) Himalayas
Answer:
(b) Greenland

Question 10.
The depositional work of ground water forms ………….. .
(a) limestone caves
(b) lagoons
(c) ripple marks
(d) seifs
Answer:
(a) limestone caves

Question 11.
Stalactites grow ………….. .
(a) downwards
(b) upwards
(c) sidewards
(d) fast
Answer:
(a) downwards

Question 12.
The ground water levels sink down in …………… season.
(a) summer
(b) winter
(c) rainy
(d) spring
Answer:
(a) summer

Question 13.
…………… is formed as a result of the depositional work of the sea waves.
(a) Sea cliff
(b) Lagoon
(c) Wave-cut platform
(d) Sea cave
Answer:
(b) Lagoon

Question 14.
The landforms developed in limestone areas are also called as …………… landforms.
(a) lime
(b) sinkhole
(c) krast
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) krast

Match the Columns:

(1) River

Column A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Ox-bow lake
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Meanders
		(c)	Yardangs

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2-a)

(2) Glacier

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Seif
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Eskers
		(c)	Cirque

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(3) Wind

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Erosion	(a)	Sand dunes
(2)	Deposition	(b)	Mushroom Rock
		(c)	Lagoon

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a)

(4)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Ground water	(a)	Delta region
(2)	Sea waves	(b)	Lagoon
		(c)	Sink holes

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – b)

(5)

Column ‘A’		Column B’
(1)	Stalactites & stalagmites	(a)	wind
(2)	Sand bar	(b)	ground water
		(c)	sea waves

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the agents of erosion.
Answer:
The agents of erosion are wind, rivers, glaciers, sea waves and ground water.

Question 2.
What factors does the work of a river depend on?
Answer:
The works of river depends on the nature of rock, the slope of land, velocity of the flow and the volume of water.

Question 3.
What are the important phases of a river’s work?
Answer:
The important phases of a river’s work are erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 4.
What factors does the work of glaciers depend on?
Answer:
The work of glacier depends on the thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature, and the slope of the land.

Question 5.
Which landforms are created due to the processes of erosion by the river?
Answer:
Landforms like gorges, V-shaped valleys, potholes and waterfalls are created due to the processes of erosion by the river.

Question 6.
Which landforms are formed mainly due to the transportational and depositional work of a river?
Answer:
Due to the transportational and depositional work of a river, meanders, ox-bow lakes, flood levees, flood plains and delta regions are formed.

Question 7.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier?
Answer:
The landforms such as a cirque, arete and matterhorn, U-shaped valley, hanging valleys, etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of a glacier.

Question 8.
Name the landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers.
Answer:
The landforms formed by the depositional work of glaciers are drumlins, eskers etc.

Question 9.
Name the types of moraine.
Answer:
Ground moraine, lateral moraine, medial moraine and terminal moraine are the different types of moraine.

Question 10.
Which landforms are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind?
Answer:
The landforms like mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs etc. are created as a result of the erosional work of the wind.

Question 11.
Which landforms are created as a result of the transportation and depositional work of the wind?
Answer:
Sand dunes, barchans, seif, ripple marks, and loess plains are created as a result of transportation and depositional work of the wind.

Question 12.
Which landforms are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves?
Answer:
The landforms like sea cliffs, sea caves, wave-cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are produced as a result of the erosional work of sea waves.

Question 13.
Mention the landforms created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
Beaches, sand bars and lagoons are created due to the transportation and depositional work of sea waves.

Fill the map with the given information and make a legend.

(1) Konkan Coast where work of sea waves can be seen
(2) Region in India where work of glaciers can be seen
(3) Desert region in India where work of wind can be seen
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.
Answer:

• In regions, where the temperatures are generally below freezing points, precipitation is in the form of snowfall.
• Layers of snow accumulate on the earth’s surface because of snowfall.
• The heavy weight of these overlying layers makes the snow move along the slope.
• At the base of the layer, the snow starts melting because of the friction and the pressure from above. Glacier starts moving slowly along the slope.
• Thus like the river, a glacier too carries out the work of erosion, transportation and deposition.

Question 2.
Specific landforms are formed due to deposition by wind in arid and semi arid regions.
Answer:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.?
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates.
• As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 3.
The work of sea waves cause different landforms.
Answer:

• In coastal areas, the sea waves carry out erosional, depositional and transportational work.
• Winds and tides cause the movements of sea water. As a result, waves come to the coast.
• Because of their hitting the rocks at the coasts, erosion of the rocks occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work of the sea waves.

Question 4.
In the desert, the work of wind is effective.
Answer:

• The work of wind is predominantly found in the hot desert and semi-arid regions.
• Hot deserts are found close to the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
• The average annual rainfall in the hot deserts is 250 mm or even less. Therefore, the vegetal cover is negligible.
• As there are no obstacles due to lack of vegetal cover, the work of wind is effective in the desert.

Question 5.
Glaciers have a low velocity.
Answer:

• In the high altitude areas and the areas of high elevation, the ice slides down the slope. Such a sliding mass of ice is called a glacier.
• As the ice moving in a glacier is in the solid state, its velocity is very low.
• The thickness of the accumulated ice, the temperature and the slope of the land are the factors that determine the velocity of the glacier.

Question 6.
The ground water level changes according to seasons.
Answer:

• The upper level of the stored ground water is called ground water level.
• It varies according to the slope of the land, porosity and compactness of the rocks and the rainfall in the region.
• Ground water level also changes according to season.
• In the rainy season, it is closer to the ground surface whereas during summer, it drops down deeper.

Identify the land forms made by waves and write their names in the given picture.

Answer:

• Wave-cut platform
• Lagoon
• Beach
• Sea cave
• Sea arch
• Sea stack
• Sea cliff

Write the name of the landforms with which the following diagrams are associated. Colour the eroded and the remaining part, if any, in the given diagrams.

Answer:
(a) Mushroom Rock
(b) Sand Dune (Barchan)
(c) Yardangs
(d) Seif (Sand Mounds)

Identify the landforms formed by groundwater in the given diagram.

Answer:
Stalactite and Stalagmite cave.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
List the agents responsible for new landforms. i
Answer:
The agents – running water (river), glaciers, wind, sea waves and groundwater, – do the work of erosion, transportation and deposition. Because of these agents, the earth’s surface keeps undergoing changes and new landforms are formed.
(i) Running water (river):

• The river beds, as well as the banks of a river, are eroded due to the speedy flowing stream of water. The load that a river carries also erodes the banks and the bed of the river.
• The rocks, stones, sand, etc. collide with one another and break into fragments
• Different landforms like gorge, V-shaped valley, pothole and waterfall are formed due to the erosional work of a river.

(ii) Glaciers:

• As a glacier is nothing but a solid mass of ice, its velocity is very low. Nevertheless, the mass of water in the solid form is quite high. Therefore, glaciers cause a considerable amount of erosion.
• The glaciers erode the ice-clad base of the mountain slopes and the snow-clad sides of the mountains to a large extent.
• The Cirque, Arete and horn, U-Shaped valley and hanging valley are the landforms formed by the erosional work of a glacier.

(iii) Wind:

• The wind carries sand and pebbles.
• When they strike and scratch the rocks, the elevated and basal parts of the rocks get eroded.
• Due to the erosional processes of the wind, deflation hollows, mushroom rocks and yardangs3 are formed.

(iv) Sea waves:

• The basal portions of the headlands get severely eroded due to the continuous attack of sea waves. This leads to the erosion of the rocks on a large scale.
• Rocky coasts are formed where the headlands get severely eroded.
• Landforms such as sea cliffs, sea caves, wave- cut platforms, sea arches and sea stacks are formed due to the erosional work of sea waves.

(v) Groundwater:

• Soluble minerals in the rocks dissolve in water and they move along with the ground water. This process is called erosion by ground water.
• The work of ground water is predominant in the region where rock like limestone is found on a large scale.
• Limestone dissolves in carbonic acid. Carbonic acid is formed due to the presence of carbon? dioxide in ground water. This acid dissolves carbonates like limestone. Thus, chemical weathering takes place.
• The landforms like sinkholes and caves are the result of the erosional work of groundwater.

Question 2.
List the landforms that are produced due to deposition of sediments by rivers.
Answer:
Landforms like flood levees, flood plains, deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments,

1. Flood levees: When in flood, the river deposits ; the coarser material on the banks which in duecourse rises parallel to the banks of the river. These are called ‘flood levees’.
2. Flood plains: The finer silt deposited away from the banks during the flood form plains on ! either side of the river. They are called ‘flood plains’.
3. Delta: The continuous deposition leads to the formation of a plain in the shape of a triangle called delta. Extensive deltas have been formed ! at the mouth of rivers Ganga, Godavari, Kaveri.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of wind.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of winds:

• Wind carries small sand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with it.
• These particles cause erosion along rocks coming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.

(ii) Depositional work of winds:

• Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loessplains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 4.
Write in detail about the erosional and depositional work of sea waves.
Answer:
(i) Erosional work of sea waves:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles,sand particles, etc. This leads to the erosion of the coast.
• Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs. The landforms like wavecut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

(ii) Depositional work of sea waves:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed. Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other.
• Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less. The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to the depositional work of the sea waves.

Explain:

Question 1.
Erosional work of rivers
Answer:

• The rivers originate at a much higher altitude from the sea level.
• Here, the river flows at a great speed and therefore, its power to erode is great.
• The riverbed and the river banks get eroded because of the speedy flow of the river, sand particles, pebbles. Also, various tributaries join the main river.
• All these lead to the formation of gorges (canyons), V-shaped valleys and waterfalls.

Question 2.
Transportation and deposition by rivers
Answer:

• A river flows down the slope from a hilly region.
• At the foothills, the change in the slope causes deposition of coarse sediments.
• As these are deposited in a triangular shape, they form an alluvial fan. As the steepness of the slope decreases and the transport capacity of the river reduces, it starts flowing slowly.
• It bends (meanders) often in its way in an effort to cross even small obstacles.
• By the time the river reaches the sea, its riverbed becomes very wide and its speed becomes very slow.
• The sediments of the river get deposited in its bed and on its banks. The factors that determine the deposition of sediments are thelength of the rivers, volume of water, amountof sediments, and the slope of the river and the earth’s surface.
• Thus, landforms like flood levees, flood plains,deltas are formed because of deposition of sediments.

Question 3.
Erosion work by glaciers
Answer:

• Though the velocity of glaciers is less, the mass of the ice is more and hence the glacier erodes its own banks and its bed on a large scale.
• The erosional work of glaciers produces landforms like cirques, aretes, horns, U-shaped valleys, hanging valleys and roche moutonnees (or sheepbacks).

Question 4.
Transportation and deposition by glaciers
Answer:

• The glaciers carry sediments with them. These sediments are called moraines.
• Depending on the location of the deposits, moraines can be divided into 4 types: ground moraines, lateral moraines, medial moraines and terminal moraines.
• The depositional work of glacier produces landforms like drumlins, eskers, etc.

Question 5.
Erosional and depositional work of wind
Answer:

• Erosional work of wind: Wind carries smallsand particles, small pebbles, etc. along with I it. These particles cause erosion along rockscoming in the way due to friction.
• This leads to formation of mushroom rocks, deflation hollows, yardangs, etc.
• Depositional work of winds: Sand particles that blow with the winds are of different shapes and sizes.
• Those particles which are very fine are carried to larger distances while the larger ones get transported to shorter distances only.
• These sand particles get deposited in deserts ; and semi-arid climates. As a result, specific landforms are formed.
• Sand dunes, barchans, seifs, ripple marks, loess plains, etc. are formed by deposition by wind.

Question 6.
Erosional work of sea waves
Answer:

• When the waves break at the coast, they bring with them water, transported stones, pebbles, sand particles, etc.
• This leads to the erosion of the coast. Because of the chemical and hydraulic action of the sea wave too, the erosion occurs.
• The landforms like wave cut platforms, sea caves, sea arches, sea cliffs, etc. are formed because of the erosional work of the waves.

Question 7.
Depositional work of sea waves
Answer:

• The eroded materials accumulate at the sea bed.
• Because of tides, they keep on moving towards the coast and away from the coast.
• They become fine because of attrition and hitting towards each other. Deposition of such materials occurs at the places where the effect of waves is less.
• The landforms like beaches, sand bar, lagoons are formed due to depositional work.

Question 8.
Work of groundwater and landforms
Answer:

• The rainwater seeps below the earth’s surface through porous rocks or the cracks in the rocks.
• This water accumulates at the non-porous layer of the rock. This accumulated water is called groundwater.
• The soluble minerals in the water get dissolved and flow with the groundwater. This is the erosional work of the groundwater.
• When the groundwater evaporates or the volume of soluble minerals is more than the solubility of the groundwater, the deposition of dissolved materials starts.
• Landforms like sinkholes, limestone caves, stalactites and stalagmites are formed.
• Thus, the groundwater carries out the erosion, transportation and depositional work.

Question 9.
Groundwater table
Answer:

• The upper surface of the water accumulated below the ground is called the ground water table.
• Factors like seasons, porosity of rocks, amount of rainfall, etc. affect the level of water table.
• The water table is closer to the ground during rainy seasons while it is deeper in the summers.?

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Maths Solutions covers the Practice Set 9.3 Geometry 9th Class Maths Part 2 Answers Solutions Chapter 9 Surface Area and Volume.

Practice Set 9.3 Geometry 9th Std Maths Part 2 Answers Chapter 9 Surface Area and Volume

Question 1.
Find the surface areas and volumes of spheres of the following radii
i. 4 cm
ii. 9 cm
iii. 3.5 cm (π = 3.14)
i. Given: Radius (r) = 4 cm
To find: Surface area and volume of sphere
Solution:
Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x 3.14 x 4²
∴ Surface area of sphere = 200.96 sq.cm
Volume of sphere = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\)πr³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x 4²
∴ Volume of sphere = 267.95 cubic cm

ii. Given: Radius (r) = 9 cm
To find: Surface area and volume of sphere
Solution:
Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x 3.14 x 9²
∴ Surface area of sphere = 1017.36 sq.cm

∴ Volume of sphere = 3052.08 cubic cm

iii. Given: Radius (r) = 3.5 cm
To find: Surface area and volume of sphere
Solution:
Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x 3.14 x (3.5)²
∴ Surface area of sphere = 153.86 sq.cm
Volume of sphere = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) πr³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x (3.5)³
∴ Volume of sphere = 179.50 cubic cm

Question 2.
If the radius of a solid hemisphere is 5 cm, then find its curved surface area and total surface area, (π = 3.14)
Given: Radius (r) = 5 cm
To find: Curved surface area and total surface area of hemisphere
Solution:
i. Curved surface area of hemisphere = 2πr²
= 2 x 3.14 x 5²
= 2 x 3.14 x 25
= 50 x 3.14
= 157 sq.cm.

ii. Total surface area of hemisphere = 3πr²
= 3 x 3.14 x 5²
= 235.5 sq.cm.
∴ The curved surface area and totai surface area of hemisphere are 157 sq.cm, and 235.5 sq.cm, respectively.

Question 3.
If the surface area of a sphere is 2826 cm² then find its volume. (π = 3.14)
Given: Surface area of sphere = 2826 sq.cm.
To find: Volume of sphere
Solution:
i. Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
∴ 2826 = 4 x 3.14 x r²
2826 = 282600 = 900
∴ \( r^{2}=\frac{2826}{4 \times 3.14}=\frac{282600}{4 \times 314}=\frac{900}{4}\)
∴ r² = 225
∴ r = \(\sqrt { 225 }\) … [Taking square root on both sides]
= 15 cm

ii. Volume of sphere = \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) πr³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x 15³
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x 3.14 x 15 x 15 x 15
= 4 x 3.14 x 5 x 15 x 15
= 14130 cubic cm.
∴ The volume of the sphere is 14130 cubic cm.

Question 4.
Find the surface area of a sphere, if its volume is 38808 cubic cm. (π = \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\))
Given: Volume of sphere = 38808 cubic cm.
To find: Surface area of sphere
Solution:

∴ r³ = 441 x 21 = 21 x 21 x 21
∴ r = 21 cm … [Taking cube root on both sides]
ii. Surface area of sphere = 4πr²
= 4 x \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) x 21
= 4 x \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) x 21 x 21
= 4 x 22 x 3 x 21
= 5544 sq.cm.
∴ The surface area of sphere is 5544 sq.cm.

Question 5.
Volume of a hemisphere is 18000π cubic cm. Find its diameter.
Given: Volume of hemisphere = 1 8000π cubic cm.
To find: Diameter of the hemisphere
Solution:
i. Volume of hemisphere = \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\) πr³

= 9000 x 3
∴ r³ = 27000
∴ r = \(\sqrt [ 3 ]{ 27000 }\) … [Taking cube root on both sides]
= 30 cm

ii. Diameter = 2r
= 2 x 30 = 60 cm
∴ The diameter of the hemisphere is 60 cm.

Maharashtra Board Class 9 Maths Solutions

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 9th Std Hindi Lokbharti & Lokvani Textbook Solutions Answers Digest

Maharashtra Board Solution of 9th Class Hindi Lokbharti & Lokvani 9th Std Digest Answers PDF Free Download.

Maharashtra State Board 9th Std Hindi Lokbharti Textbook Solutions

Hindi Lokbharti 9th Digest Answers Pdf पहली इकाई

• Chapter 1 चाँदनी रात
• Chapter 2 बिल्ली का बिलुंगड़ा
• Chapter 3 कबीर (पूरक पठन)
• Chapter 4 किताबें
• Chapter 5 जूलिया
• Chapter 6 ऐ सखि ! (पूरक पठन)
• Chapter 7 डाॅक्‍टर का अपहरण
• Chapter 8 वीरभूमि पर कुछ दिन
• Chapter 9 वरदान माँगूँगा नही
• Chapter 10 रात का चौकीदार (पूरक पठन)
• Chapter 11 निर्माणों के पावन युग में

Hindi Lokbharti 9th Std Digest दूसरी इकाई

• Chapter 1 कह कविराय
• Chapter 2 जंगल (पूरक पठन)
• Chapter 3 इनाम
• Chapter 4 सिंधु का जल
• Chapter 5 अतीत के पत्र
• Chapter 6 निसर्ग वैभव (पूरक पठन)
• Chapter 7 शिष्‍टाचार
• Chapter 8 उड़ान
• Chapter 9 मेरे पिता जी (पूरक पठन)
• Chapter 10 अपराजेय
• Chapter 11: स्‍वतंत्रता गान

Maharashtra State Board 9th Std Hindi Lokvani Textbook Solutions

Hindi Lokvani 9th Std Digest पहली इकाई

• Chapter 1 नदी की पुकार
• Chapter 2 झुमका
• Chapter 3 निज भाषा (पठनार्थ)
• Chapter 4 मान जा मेरे मन
• Chapter 5 किताबें कुछ कहना चाहती हैं
• Chapter 6 ‘इत्यादि’ की आत्मकहानी (पठनार्थ)
• Chapter 7 छोटा जादूगर
• Chapter 8 जिंदगी की बड़ी जरूरत है हार..!

Hindi Lokvani 9th Std Textbook Solutions दूसरी इकाई

• Chapter 1 गागर में सागर
• Chapter 2 मैं बरतन माँगूँगा
• Chapter 3 ग्रामदेवता (पठनार्थ)
• Chapter 4 साहित्य की निष्कपट विधा है-डायरी
• Chapter 5 उम्मीद
• Chapter 6 सागर और मेघ
• Chapter 7 लघुकथाएँ (पठनार्थ)
• Chapter 8 झंडा ऊँचा सदा रहेगा

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Textbook Solutions