Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 8 States after the Maurya Empire Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 8 States after the Maurya Empire

Class 6 History Chapter 8 States after the Maurya Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Can you tell ?

Question 1.
The kings who started the minting of gold coins in India.
Answer:
The Kushana kings

Question 2.
The city established by Kanishka in Kashmir.
Answer:
Kanishkapur

Question 3.
The king who played the veena.
Answer:
Samudragupta

Question 4.
Another name for Kamrup.
Answer:
Pragjyotish

2. Observe the map in the lesson. List the names of the modern cities which were part of the Gupta Empire.

3. Discuss and write:

Question 1.
Emperor Kanishka
Answer:

• Kanishka’s Empire extended from Kabul in the west to Varanasi in the east.
• Gold and copper coins minted by him have been found in North India.
• The fourth Buddhist council was held in Kashmir during his reign.
• He established the city of Kanishkapur in Kashmir.

Question 2.
Iron pillar at Mehrauli
Answer:

• There is an iron pillar at Mehrauli near Delhi.
• It has not rusted even in the course of the last fifteen hundred years. It is an excellent specimen of the metallurgical skill of the ancient Indian people.
• The inscription on the pillar bears the names of a king called ‘Chandra’. It is on this basis that the iron pillar is assumed to be of the period of Chandragupta II.

4. Make a list of the various books and authors mentioned in the lesson:
Answer:

• ‘Milind Panha’ – questions discussed between Milinda and Bikkhu Nagarsena.
• ‘Buddhacharita and Vajrasuchi’ – Ashvaghosh
• ‘Harshacharita’ – Banabhatta.
• ‘Periplus of the Erythrean sea’.

5. Make a comparative chart of the Vardhan and Gupta dynasties based on the following points.
Answer:

6. What would you do if you met foreign travellers like Yuan Chwang?
Answer:
If I were to meet a foreign traveller, I would extend my friendship, try to grasp information from his vast knowledge. Probably I would also have accompanied him to Nalanda University. I would also have emulated his virtues, learnt Chinese (Mandarin) and helped him translate Buddhist manuscripts.

7. Solve the Puzzle:

Down:

1. A Chinese traveller to India.
2. A famous Indo-Greek King had discussions with this Buddha Bhikkhu.
3. A poet at the court of Emperor Harshavardhan, who also wrote his biography.
4. Chandragupta II conquered this state in neighbouring Gujarat.
   Across:
5. The most famous Indo-Greek King
6. A Pali word that means question.
7. Kanishka was the first Emperor to make this from gold.
8. An ancient Indian University where the Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang stayed for two years.

Answer:

Down:

1. Fa-Hien
2. Milind
3. Banabhatta
4. Malwa
   Across:
5. Panhai
6. Menander
7. Coin
8. Nalanda

Activity:

Obtain more information about the rulers of the period following the Maurya period in India. Enact the role of a ruler of your choice.

Class 6 History Chapter 8 States after the Maurya Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
The last Mauryan emperor was _______.
(a) Chandragupta
(b) Brihadratha
(c) Ashoka
Answer:
(b) Brihadratha

Question 2.
The Indo-Greek kings had a tradition of putting the ,______ of the king on one side and that of a deity on the other side of the coin
(a) map
(b) picture
(c) family
Answer:
(b) picture

Question 3.
One of the famous Indo-Greek kings was _________.
(a) Menander
(b) Alexander
(c) Nagasena
Answer:
(a) Menander

Question 4.
Menander disussed Buddhist philosophy with the Buddhist bhikkhu _____.
(a) Fa-Hein
(b) Ashoka
(c) Nagasena
Answer:
(c) Nagasena

Question 5.
Menander is also referred to as ________.
(a) Pushyamitra
(b) Panha
(c) Milinda
Answer:
(c) Milinda

Question 6.
The Kushanas established their________ in the northwestern region and in Kashmir in the first century CE.
(a) family
(b) friends
(c) rule
Answer:
(c) rule

Question 7.
The Kushan kings were the first to start minting ________ coins in India.
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) gold
Answer:
(c) gold

Question 8.
The ________ kings started the custom of putting the images of Gautam Buddha and different Indian deities on the coins.
(a) Kushana
(b) Gupta
(c) Vardhaman
Answer:
(a) Kushana

Question 9.
Gold and copper coins minted by Kanishka have been found in ________ India.
(a) south
(b) north
(c) east
Answer:
(b) north

Question 10.
The ________ Buddhist council was held in Kashmir during Kanishka’s reign.
(a) fourth
(b) fifth
(c) sixth
Answer:
(a) fourth

Question 11.
Kanishka established the city of _______ in Kashmir.
(a) Saurashtra
(b) Malwa
(c) Kanishkapur
Answer:
(c) Kanishkapur

Question 12.
The well-known poet _________ lived during the reign of Kanishka.
(a) Ashvaghosh
(b) Charaka
(c) Nagasena
Answer:
(a) Ashvaghosh

Question 13.
The famous vaidya ______ was also in Kanishka’s court.
(a) Chandra
(b) Charaka
(c) Shrigupta
Answer:
(b) Charaka

Question 14.
The Guptas remained in power for nearly _____ centuries.
(a) one
(c) two
(c) three
Answer:
(c) three

Question 15.
_____ was the founder of the Gupta dynasty.
(a) Shrigupta
(b) Samudragupta
(c) Brihadratha
Answer:
(a) Shrigupta

Question 16.
Samudragupta and Chandragupta II were the notable kings of the ________ dynasty.
(a) Maurya
(b) Gupta
(c) Nanda
Answer:
(b) Gupta

Question 17.
A pillar inscription at Prayag describes _________ conquests and victories.
(a) Samudragupta’s
(b) Chandragupta’s
(c) Ashoka’s
Answer:
(a) Samudragupta’s

Question 18.
Samudragupta was an excellent ______ player.
(a) drum
(b) guitar
(c) veena
Answer:
(c) veena

Question 19.
In the Gupta period, the Bauddha bhikkhu Fa-Hien came to ______ from China.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) India
(c) Nepal
Answer:
(b) India

Question 20.
______ has written an account of his travels in India.
(a) Harshavardhan
(b) Yuan Chwang
(c) Fa-Hien
Answer:
(c) Fa-Hien

Question 21.
Prabhakar Vardhan was the _______ of Thanesar, near Delhi.
(a) general
(b) minister
(c) king
Answer:
(c) king

Question 22.
The Vardhan dynasty was founded by ______.
(a) Prabhakar Vardhan
(b) Harshavardhan
(c) Kamrup
Answer:
(a) Prabhakar Vardhan

Question 23.
Harshavardhan established friendly relations with the emperor of ________.
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) China
(c) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(b) China

Question 24.
The capital of Harshavardhan’s Empire was ________.
(a) Kanauj
(b) Kamrup
(c) Nalanda
Answer:
(a) Kanauj

Question 25.
Harshavardhan spent a large portion of his ________ for the welfare of the people.
(a) kingdom
(b) revenue
(c) mines
Answer:
(b) revenue

Question 26.
The court poet ______ wrote Harshacharita a biography of Emperor Harshavardhan.
(a) Fa-Hien
(b) Banabhatta
(c) Nalanda
Answer:
(b) Banabhatta

Question 27.
Harshavardhan had become a follower of ________.
(a) Buddhism
(b) Jainism
(c) Judaism
Answer:
(a) Buddhism

Question 28.
The Buddhist Bhikkhu ________ had come to India from China during the regime of Harshavardhan.
(a) Yuan Chwang
(b) Fa-Hien
(c) Magasthenes
Answer:
(a) Yuan Chwang

Question 29.
Yuan Chwang stayed at the ________ University for two years.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Oxford
(c) Nalanda
Answer:
(c) Nalanda

Question 30.
Yuan Chwang translated many Buddhist manuscripts into _________.
(a) Hindi
(b) Chinese
(c) Pali
Answer:
(b) Chinese

Question 31.
The state of ______ emerged in the fourth century CE.
(a) Harappa
(b) Mohen-jo-daro
(c) Kamrup
Answer:
(c) Kamrup

Question 32.
The epics Mahabharta and Ramayana use the name Tragjyotish’ for ________.
(a) Kamrup
(b) Magdha
(c) Avanti
Answer:
(a) Kamrup

Question 33.
The capital of Pragjyotish state was _______.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Pragjyotishpur
(c) Manipur
Answer:
(b) Pragjyotishpur

Question 34.
During the reign of King Bhaskar Varman, Yuan Chwang had visited _________.
(a) Kamrup
(b) Nalanda
(c) Manipur
Answer:
(a) Kamrup

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Who was the last Mauryan Emperor?
Answer:
The last Mauryan emperor was Brihadratha.

Question 2.
How did Pushyamitra become a king?
Answer:
The Mauryan general Pushyamitra Shunga revolted against Brihadratha, killed him and became the king himself.

Question 3.
Which kings are known as Indo-Greek kings?
Answer:
There were several small kingdoms in the northwest of the Indian subcontinent, ruled by Greek kings also known as Indo-Greek kings.

Question 4.
Which Indo-Greek tradition took root in India?
Answer:
The Indo-Greek had a tradition of putting the picture of the king on one side and that of a deity on the other of the coin. This tradition later took root in India.

Question 5.
Name of famous Indo-Greek king.
Answer:
One of the famous Indo-Greek king was Menander.

Question 6.
What is the content of Milind-Panha?
Answer:
The questions that were discussed between Bhikkhu Nagasena and Milinda is the content of the book ‘Milind-Panha’.

Question 7.
In which region did the Kushana tribe establish their rule in India?
Answer:
The Kushana tribe established their rule in the northwestern region and in Kashmir in the first century C.E.

Question 8.
Which custom was started by the Kushana kings?
Answer:
The Kushana kings started a custom of putting the images of Gautam Buddha and different Indian deities on the coins.

Question 9.
Where was the fourth Buddhist council held?
Answer:
The fourth Buddhist council was held in Kashmir during Kanishka’s reign.

Question 10.
Which poet and vaidya were well-known during the time of Kanishka?
Answer:
During the time of Kaniska, poet Ashvagosh and vaidya Charaka were well-known.

Question 11.
Who was the founder of the Gupta dynasty?
Answer:
Shrigupta was the founder of the Gupta dynasty.

Question 12.
Name two notable kings of the Gupta Dynasty.
Answer:
Samudragupta and Chandragupta II were the two notable kings of the Gupta Dynasty.

Question 13.
Why did Sri Lanka make treaties of friendship with Samudragupta?
Answer:
Due to Samudragupta’s victories, Sri Lanka came to be recognised everywhere. So Sri Lanka made a treaty of friendship with him.

Question 14.
Which Bhikkhu from China visited India during Chandragupta’s reign?
Answer:
The Buddha Bhikkhu Fa-Hein came to India from China during Chandragupta’s reign.

Question 15.
What do we learn from Fa-Hien’s account of his travels in India?
Answer:
From Fa-Hien’s account of his travels in India we learn about the efficient administration of the Gupta emperors.

Question 16.
Who was the founder of the Vardhan Dynasty?
Answer:
Prabhakar Vardhan was the founder of the . Vardhan Dynasty.

Question 17.
Where was the capital of Harshavardhan’s Empire?
Answer:
The capital of Harshavardhan’s Empire was Kanauj.

Question 18.
Which Chinese bhikkhu came to India during the reign of Harshavardhan?
Answer:
The Buddhist bhikkhu Yuan Chwang had come to India from China during Harshavardhan’s reign.

Question 19.
Why did Yuan Chwang stay at Nalanda?
Answer:
Yuan Chwang stayed at the Nalanda University for two years to learn and gain more knowledge about the Buddhist manuscripts.

Question 20.
Which state in ancient India is the present city of Guwahati?
Answer:
The ancient state of Pragjyotish is the present city of Guwahati in Assam.

Question 21
During whose reign did Yuan Chwang visit ‘Kamrup’?
Answer:
During the reign of king Bhaskar Varman, Yuan Chwang visited ‘Kamrup’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
How do day and nigbt occur on the earth?
Answer:
Day and night occur on the earth because of the earths rotation.

Question 2.
What term is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun?
Answer:
The term orbital motion is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun.

Question 3.
How long does the earth take to do so?
Answer:
The earth takes 365 days and 6 hours to complete one revolution.

Question 4.
In which hemispheres is our country located?
Answer:
Our country lies in the northeastern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Why don’t the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly at all places on the earth?
Answer:
The sun’s rays do not fall perpendicularly at all the places on the earth because the earth is not flat but spherical in shape.

2. Can you tell?

Records of the entries of sunrise and sunset for the month of June are given below. Answer the questions, that follow.

Question 1.
Refer to the table above and state which are the longest days?
Answer:
The longest days are from 19th June to 26th June.

Question 2.
What difference do you notice in the duration of the nights from 19th June to 28th June?
Answer:
The duration of the nights keeps on increasing day by day.

Question 3.
What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
The sun is now moving southwards.

Question 4.
How did you find out the duration of the night?
Answer:
The duration of the day is subtracted from 24 hours to get the duration of the night.

Question 5.
Which two dates have days and nights of the same duration?
Answer:
March 22 and September 23 have the same duration of days and nights.

Question 6.
With the help of the table, you saw how the duration of the day and the night changes. Do you think such a change occurs everywhere on the earth?
Answer:
Yes, duration of day and night changes everywhere on the earth.

Question 7.
Use the above format to record the duration of daytime from 19th to 28th of every month from September to December.
Answer:
Students should expected to attempt the activity & answer on their own.

3. Think about it:

Question 1.
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, in which direction does the location of sunrise or sunset appear to shift?
Answer:
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, the location of sunrise or sunset will shift southwards.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
The earth’s _______ has enabled us to measure time in terms of days. (revolution, rotation, orbital motion)
Answer:
rotation

Question 2.
The earth rotates from _________ (north to south, east to west, west to east)
Answer:
west to east

Question 3.
The Earth takes _______ hours to rotate around itself. (365,144, 24)
Answer:
24

Question 4.
India lies in the ____ hemisphere. (northeastern, northwestern, southeastern)
Answer:
northeastern

Question 5.
The ________of sunrise and the sunset on the horizon³ for the whole year keep on changing. (position, shadow, rotation)
Answer:
position

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
This was the main objective behind establishing the Indian Atomic Energy Commission ________.
(a) Enhance military capacity
(b) Conduct nuclear tests
(c) To stop the proliferation of nuclear weapons
(d) Production of atomic energy
Answer:
(a) Enhance military capacity

Question 2.
The following is now the objective of all the nations of the world _____.
(a) atomic development
(b) economic development
(c) nuclear test
(d) security system
Answer:
(b) economic development

Question 3.
The is an important aspect of India’s foreign policy _______.
(a) free economic policy
(b) interdependence
(c) non-alignment
(d) nuclear development
Answer:
(c) non-alignment

Question 4.
India coriducted nuclear tests in 1974 at ______.
(a) Sriharikota
(b) Thumba
(c) Pokharan
(d) Jaitapur
Answer:
(c) Pokharan

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Pandit Nehru contributed towards improving Sino-Indian relations.
Answer:
True.
Self-opinion based

• Pandit Nehru formulated Panchsheel which was a treatise of the five principles of peaceful coexistence to govern relations between India and China. The first formal codification in the form of a treaty was an agreement between China and India in 1954.
• Mutual non-interference in internal affairs, mutual non-aggression, equality of mutual benefit, mutual respect, and peaceful co-existence were the principles for seeking peace with China.
• Nehru backed China’s permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council.
• Though Nehru had a policy of improving Sino- Indian relations, China attacked India in 1962.

Question 2.
Atal Bihari Vajpayee took lead in improving relations with Pakistan.
Answer:
True.
Evaluative, self-opinion based

• In an effort to develop friendly relations, India and Pakistan have started a bus service called ‘Sada-e-Sarhad’ (Call of the border) between Delhi and Lahore when Atal Bihari Vajpayee was the Prime Minister. He also revived the train called Samjhauta Express (Friendship Express).
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee rendered help to the earthquake victims of Pakistan during the rule of Pervez Musharraf.
• In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in the Kargil region over the Kashmir issue. India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.
• Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.

3. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards India started shaping its Foreign Policy independently.
(ii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for Foreign Policy.
(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our Foreign Policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Question 2.
National Interest
Answer:
(i) National interest implies the means through which the independence and sovereignty of our country can be safeguarded.

(ii) National interest also includes efforts to achieve our economic development and to take steps towards increasing our national power.

(iii) When decisions are taken after giving careful thought to what is beneficial and good for our country, we say that we are nurturing our national interest.

Question 3.
World Peace
Answer:
(i) World peace is an ideal state of freedom, peace, and happiness among and within all nations and people.
(ii) This idea of world non-violence provides a basis for peoples and nations to willingly co-operate.
(iii) Either voluntarily or by virtue of a system of governance, that prevents warfare.
(iv) India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s policy that there should be peace and security.

4. What is your opinion about the fact that world peace is threatened due to nuclear preparedness?
Answer:
Nuclear preparedness leads to an Arm’s Race. It increases the possibilities of wars.
(i) If a nuclear bomb exploded in a major city, the blast center would be hotter than the surface of the sun.
(ii) Survivors would have no electricity, no transportation, no phones, and hospitals would be overwhelmed if they were still standing
(iii) India is now a country that has nuclear weapons. We have accepted the role of a responsible nuclear power. India has been consistently supporting efforts for disarmament because it is India’s position that there should be peace and security in the world.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
On what principles is India’s foreign policy based?
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947 and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.

(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape Foreign Policy. Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy.

(iii) According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.

(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law. India’s Foreign Policy till now has been developed in this framework.

Question 2.
Who has contributed to improving Sino- Indian relations?
Answer:
(i) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.
(ii) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister, and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(iii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain the continuity in Foreign Policy and to improve upon it.

Question .3
Write the objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy are as follows:

• While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
• Not to compromise about the geographical boundaries of the nation.
• Protect the unity and integrity of the country.
• Protect the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
• To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving the economic development of India.

6. Prepare the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 2 India’s Foreign Policy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
Prime Minister ______ shaped India’s Foreign Policy during the early period.
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. Manmohan Singh
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
Foreign policy is framed to establish economic and _____ relations with other countries for achieving economic development of India,
(a) Social
(b) Commercial
(c) Economic
(d) All of above
Answer:
(b) Commercial

Question 3.
The period from independence to ____ can be considered as the first stage.
(a) 1984
(b) 1990
(c) 1992
(d) 2011
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 4.
Peace and ______ became the fundamental principles of Non-Aligned Policy.
(a) justice
(b) freedom
(c) relations
(d) power
Answer:
(b) freedom

Question 5.
The first Chairman of the Indian Atomic Energy Commission was ______.
(a) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
(b) Dr. A.P.J.Abdul Kalam
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh.
Answer:
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha.

Question 6.
After ________, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.
(a) 1992
(b) 1991
(c) 1984
(d) 1957
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 7.
In the decade after 1990, our relations with the South Asian countries like ______, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Indonesia
(d) Singapore
Answer:
(d) Singapore

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Foreign Policy is always dynamic.
Answer:
True.

• Foreign Policy is drawn up to foster the national interest of defence and economic development.
• National interest is considered to be the goal and foreign policy is considered to be the means to achieve it.
• Goals of nations change with changes in conditions and time.
• Accordingly, national interest also changes.
• These changes are reflected in foreign policy. Therefore, foreign policy is always dynamic.

Question 2.
India has not signed NNPT or CTBT.
Answer:
True.

• Nuclear weapons are extremely destructive.
• Hence, it is necessary to, make consistent efforts so that they are never used. Two treaties have been made to stop the spread of nuclear weapons.

1. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NNPT)
2. Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT).

• The conditions of both these treaties are of benefit to big nuclear powers and they put unfair restrictions on developing countries, hence India has not signed either of these treaties.

Explain the concept:

Question 1.
Objectives of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) While maintaining friendly relations with neighboring countries, ensure that the defense and security of India are not affected.
(ii) Protecting the unity and integrity of the country.
(iii) Protecting the interests of India’s citizens living in other countries. This responsibility is fulfilled by the Indian embassies there.
(iv) To establish economic and commercial relations with other countries for achieving economic development.

Question 2.
Role of Economy in Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Foreign policy is shaped by the need to establish economic relations with other countries, import-export, participation in world trade, all aimed at strengthening the economy of the country.
(ii) In today’s world, the issues of economic security are as important as national security.
(iii) A country is recognized to be powerful in proportion to the economic security it enjoys.
(iv) Countries having a strong economy are less dependent on others, and they can have an independent foreign policy as well.

Question 3.
National leadership
Answer:
(i) The President, the Prime Minister, the Foreign Minister, the Defence Minister, the Finance Minister and the Home Minister have a role in deciding foreign policy.
(ii) The persons holding these positions try to maintain continuity in foreign policy and to improve upon it.
(iii) For example, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru contributed the policy of non-alignment to India’s foreign policy.
(iv) Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee contributed a great deal to improving Sino-Indian relations.

Question 4.
Write about Article 51 of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
(i) India got independence in 1947, and from then onwards we started shaping our foreign policy independently.
(ii) The Directive Principles of State Policy have laid down guidelines about how to shape foreign policy.
(iii) Article 51 among the Directive Principles of State Policy lay down the broad framework for foreign policy. According to it, India should give priority to safeguard international peace and security, and resolve our international problems and disputes by peaceful means.
(iv) The objectives of our foreign policy should be to maintain friendly relations with other nations and respect international law.

Do as directed:

Complete the list:

Question 1.
Complete the list by writing the contribution made by the following leaders. For example, Lai Bahadur Shastri: Tashkent Agreement
(i) Indira Gandhi: ____
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi : ____
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee : _______
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi: Pokhran Nuclear Test.
(ii) Rajiv Gandhi: Science and Technology
(iii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee: Sino-Indian Relations

Question 2.
Name the Prime Minister who followed these policies?
(i) _____ : Look East
(ii) ______ : Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment
Answer:
(i) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru: Look East
(ii) P. V. Narasimha Rao: Efforts to increase Foreign Direct Investment

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name the three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
(i) Three things that influenced India’s foreign policy in this period.
(ii) We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
(iii) The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
(iv) One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 2.
Flow did India promote the concept at regional development in the beginning?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa, as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union.

(v) This stopped the process of regional development. After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of non-alignment.

(vi) Peace and freedom became the fundamental principles of non-aligned policy.

Question 3.
Describe India’s relations with foreign nations post-1970.
Answer:
(i) In the decade of the 1970s, there came about some stability in India’s Foreign Policy.

(ii) India had risen as a powerful regional power in South Asia.

(iii) By conducting nuclear tests in 1974, India had also proved its nuclear capability.

(iv) From 1980, however, some changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established.

(v) India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 4.
Name the three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Three factors that influenced India’s foreign policy in the early period are:

1. We made an effort to understand all international events and developments independently, without any pressure from any power. Peace has always been a central feature of India’s foreign policy.
2. The threats from China and Pakistan were also taken into account.
3. One more feature of India’s foreign policy at this time was the insistence on self-reliance.

Question 5.
Write about Pandit Nehru’s contribution to India’s foreign policy in the early phase.
Answer:
Prime Minister Pandit Nehru shaped India’s foreign policy in the early period. He opposed colonialism through India’s foreign policy. He took an internationalist position and gave priority to global peace and security.

Question 6.
Describe the conflicts India had to face in its early phase of foreign policy.
Answer:
In the early period, India had to face conflict with neighbouring countries. Wars happened between India and Pakistan over the Kashmir question in 1947-48 and 1965. In the third war, which happened in 1971, Pakistan broke apart and independent Bangladesh was created.

Question 7.
Describe the important changes that took place in India’s foreign policy from the 1980s.
Answer:
From 1980, some important changes began to take place. In order to increase cooperation among South Asian countries, the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established. India initiated a dialogue to improve relations with China. India also started interaction with America for cooperation in the field of security.

Question 8.
What is India’s role in regional development?
Answer:
(i) In the beginning, India decided to improve relations with countries in Asia.

(ii) Efforts were taken to cooperate with Asian countries in order to achieve development and to keep our independence intact.

(iii) This concept of regional development later expanded to include Africa as well.

(iv) But some Asian-African countries participated in the military pacts led either by America or the Soviet Union. This stopped the process of regional development.

(v) After this, countries of Asia and Africa, which did not participate in these military pacts supported the concept of Non-alignment.

Question 9.
Write about the Political system as a factor influencing India’s small Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) In a democratic political system, the nation’s Parliament plays a major role in evolving Foreign Policy.

(ii) When different aspects come up for discussion in Parliament, the opposition parties try to regulate the Foreign Policy by raising questions about the same.

(iii) Federal political systems have to take into account the inclinations of the constituent states while shaping Foreign Policy because the affairs in neighbouring nations affect constituent states.

(iv) For example, events in Sri Lanka may affect Tamil Nadu, and those in Bangladesh may affect West Bengal and the North-East Indian States.

Question 10.
Write about the administrative factors of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
(i) Ministry of External Affairs, Foreign Secretary, embassies in different countries, Diplomatic officers, etc. are the administrative factors involved in creating Foreign Policy.

(ii) Even though the final decisions about Foreign Policy are taken by the Prime Minister and the Minister for External Affairs, the administrative machinery helps to arrive at that decision.

(iii) The administrative officers collect information needed to shape the foreign policy, analyze it and give appropriate advice based on it.

(iv) The National Security Advisor also completes this task.

Question 11.
Write a note on the first stage of India’s Foreign Policy 1947-1990.
Answer:
(i) India adopted the policy of non-alignment in the context of the cold war. As a result, priority was given to maintaining friendly relations with all nations and to taking the help required for development from different countries. Due to the policy of non-alignment, India could get aid from both the superpowers.

(ii) There was a lot of stress on improving/ strengthening India’s defence. The technology required for this was imported. Soviet Union, France, and Germany helped India in this matter.

(iii) In this period, India had to face some challenges. These included the conflict with Pakistan, the creation of Bangladesh, and the conflict with China.

(iv) India proved its nuclear capability by conducting nuclear tests in 1974.

Question 12.
Write a note on Geographical Location.
Answer:
(i) In the globe or map of the world. We see the geographical location of any nation of the world.

(ii) Some countries are far away from other countries, while there are several neighbouring countries around some countries. Some nations have a long coastline, while some have plenty of mineral wealth.

(iii) In sum, the size, population, topography, coastline, availability of natural resources, all these factors need to be considered while deciding the foreign policy of any country.

Question 13.
Describe the factors included in National interest in any country.
Answer:
The following factors are included in the national interest of any country.

• Defence, i.e. the protection of our country’s independence, sovereignty, and integrity is the highest national interest.
• Economic development is also an important national interest.
• An economically weak nation will not be able to maintain its independence.
• Hence, economic development is understood to be an important national interest, next only to defense.

Question 14.
Consider the developments of India’s Foreign Policy from 1991 till date.
Answer:
(i) India’s Foreign Policy became more comprehensive and dynamic in the second stage.

(ii) In the post-cold war period, the priority no longer remained on political and military relations.

(iii) Several other dimensions like the economy, trade, education, and technology got included in foreign policy.

(iv) After 1991, India reduced the government controls over the economy and adopted the free-market policy.

(v) In the decade after 1990, our relations with South Asian countries like Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam, etc. became stronger.

(vi) Our trade exchange with Israel, Japan, China, and European Union increased.

(vii) India began to participate in organizations at the international and regional levels more than before.

(viii) For example, G-20 and BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).

(ix) Our relations with America strengthened.

(x) India’s nuclear policy is an important part of India’s foreign policy. India undertook the nuclear energy program immediately after independence. India built nuclear weapons and conducted nuclear tests in 1998. India is now a country that has nuclear weapons.

Question 15.
State the importance of foreign policy.
Answer:
(i) Interdependence being a key feature in the international system each country has to decide the nations with which it should be friendly, in which bloc it should participate or what position it should take in international relations.

(ii) Such decisions should be made thoughtfully.

(iii) The theoretical framework in which such decisions are taken is called Foreign Policy.

(iv) Every sovereign and independent country decides its own Foreign Policy.

(v) Hence in the discipline of international politics, which studies international relations between nations, Foreign Policy has an important place.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
There are two layers in the crust.
(a) Inner and outer crust [ ]
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [ ]
(c) Surface and oceanic crust [ ]
(d) Mantle and core [ ]
Answer:
(b) Continental and oceanic crust [✓]

Question B.
Which element is found in both mantle and crust?
(a) Silica [ ]
(b) Magnesium [ ]
(c) Aluminium [ ]
(d) Iron [ ]
Answer:
(b) Magnesium [✓]

Question C.
Which of these minerals are found in the core of the earth?
(a) Iron – magnesium [ ]
(b) Magnesium – nickel [ ]
(c) Aluminium – iron [ ]
(d) Iron – nickel [ ]
Answer:
(d) Iron – nickel [✓]

Question D.
The inner core is in which state?
(a) Gaseous [ ]
(b) Solid [ ]
(c) Liquid [ ]
(d) Semi-solid [ ]
Answer:
(a) Gaseous [✓]

Question E.
The outer core is made up of
(a) Iron [ ]
(b) Gold [ ]
(c) Hydrogen [ ]
(d) Oxygen [ ]
Answer:
(a) Iron [✓]

Question F.
The layer of the earth on which we live…
(a) Mantle [ ]
(b) Core [ ]
(c) Crust [ ]
(d) Continental crust [ ]
Answer:
(d) Continental crust [✓]

2. Tell whether right or wrong. Correct the wrong statement

Question A.
The density of various materials is not the same in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
Correct.

Question B.
The core of the earth’s interior is made up of hard rocks.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: The core of the earth’s interior is made up of elements, viz. iron and nickel.

Question C.
Secondary waves cannot pass through outer core.
Answer:
Correct.

Question D.
Continental crust is made up of silica and magnesium.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Continental crust is made up of silica and aluminum.

3. Answer the following

Question A.
What are the two parts of the crust? What is the basis of classification?
Answer:

1. Continental crust and the Oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.
2. The crust is classified on the basis of whether it lies below the land or the ocean.
3. The part of the crust lying below the continent is known as the continental crust.
4. The part of the crust lying below the ocean is known as the oceanic crust.

Question B.
Why is the upper layer of the mantle known as the asthenosphere?
Answer:

1. The upper layer of the mantle is in liquid state.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.
3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.
4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

Question C.
Magnetosphere of the earth is a result of rotation. Explain.
Answer:
1. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. This difference between the temperature results in formation of vertical currents.

2. The rotation of the earth gives eddy (circular) motion to these currents.

3. Electric currents develop in these spiral eddies of liquid iron leading to generation of the magnetic field of the earth. This magnetic field is called magnetosphere. In this way, the magnetosphere is formed due to the rotation of the earth.

4 Draw neat diagrams. label them and explain.

Question A.
The interior of the earth
Answer:

Explanation:

1. Inner Core: It is the center and the hottest layer of the Earth. The inner core is solid and made up of iron and nickel.
2. Outer Core: The outer core of the Earth is similar to a very hot ball of metals. It is composed of metals such as iron and nickel. The outer core surrounds the inner core.
3. Mantle: Mantle is the widest section of the Earth. Mantle is mainly made up of semi-molten rock known as magma. The rock is hard in the upper part of the mantle, but lower down the rock is softer and begins to melt. The mantle consists of very hot and dense rock.
4. Crust: The crust is the outer layer where we live. It’s a solid rock layer divided into two types: Continental crust covers the land and Oceanic crust covers water.

Question B.
Magnetic pole and equator
Answer:

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question A.
There are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. There is a difference between the elements, temperatures and the pressure found in the three parts of the interior of the earth, viz, crust, mantle and core.

2. In the interiors of the earth, the transitional areas are found between (a) continental crust and oceanic crust (b) crust and mantle (c) upper mantle and lower mantle (d) mantle and core and (e) outer core and inner core. Therefore, there are discontinuities in the interior of the earth.

Question B.
There is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
1. The rocks found in the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon, aluminium, magnesium, etc. These compounds are lighter in weight. Therefore, they are found in the upper layer of the interior of the earth.

2. The elements like iron, nickel are found in the core of the earth. These elements are heavier in weight. Thus, metals with low density are found in upper level in the interior of the earth and the metals with high density are found in the lower level in the interior of the earth. Thus, there is correlation between the density of metals and their location in the interior of the earth.

Question C.
Mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.
Answer:
1. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and the magma is created.
2. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth.

3. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions. Thus, mantle is the centre of earthquake and volcanic eruptions.

Question D.
The thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.
Answer:
1. The density of the crust below the continents is 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³ The density of the crust below the oceans is 2.90 to 3.3 gm/cm³

2. As the density of the crust below the continents is comparatively low, it keeps floating on the mantle. It does not subduct into mantle. As its effect, the thickness of the crust below the continents is found to be high.

3. As the density of the crust below the ocean is comparatively high, it subducts into mantle leading to its low thickness. Thus, the thickness of the crust below the continents is more as compared to oceans.

Question E.
Earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.
Answer:

1. The ozone layer protects the earth from ultraviolet radiation.
2. The earth’s magnetosphere serves to deflect most of the solar wind, whose charged particles would otherwise strip away the ozone layer. In this way, the earth is protected because of the magnetosphere.

Know this too:

1. The average density of the earth is 5.5 gm/cm³.
2. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of. the mantle melt due to heat.
3. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. found beneath the surface of the earth is called magma.
4. The mixture of molten rocks, volatiles, etc. erupted from volcano or fissure on the surface of the earth is called lava.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a model of the earth’s interior.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 2 Interior of the Earth Additional Important Questions and Answers

Tick [✓] the correct options in the box:

Question A.
Which seismic waves can travel through liquid medium?
(a) Primary waves [ ]
(b) Secondary waves [ ]
(c) Surface waves [ ]
(d) Oceanic waves [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary waves [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following layers of the earth has the highest density?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(c) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(d) Inner core [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following waves can travel through all the layers of the interior of the earth?
(a) Primary [ ]
(b) Secondary [ ]
(c) Tertiary [ ]
(d) Surface [ ]
Answer:
(a) Primary [✓]

Question D.
Which of the following layers of the interior of the earth is in solid form and cool?
(a) Crust [ ]
(b) Mantle [ ]
(C) Outer core [ ]
(d) Inner core [ ]
Answer:
(a) Crust [✓]

Examine the statements and incorrect ones :

Question A.
As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps decreasing.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: As we move deeper the surface, temperature keeps increasing.

Question B.
Magma chambers are found in lower mantle.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct statement: Magma chambers are found in upper mantle.

Question C.
The discontinuity is found between the crust, mantle and core.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question A.
In which of the layers of the interior of the earth is magma formed?
Answer:
Magma is formed in the mantle (upper mantle) of the earth.

Question B.
What are the two parts of the core?
Answer:
Outer core and inner core are the two parts of the core.

Match the columns and complete the chain :

Question A.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question A.
Describe the changes that take place in the temperatures from the surface of the earth to its centre.
Answer:

1. The process of cooling of the earth started from the surface. The temperature goes on increasing from the surface towards the core.
2. The surface of the earth is cool and solid.
3. The centre of the earth is extremely hot. The temperature at the centre of the earth is around 5500° to 6000° C.

Question B.
Describe the changes that take place in the density of the earth from its surface to the centre.
Answer:

1. The density of the earth goes on increasing from its surface to the centre.
2. The average density of the crust of the earth is approximately 2.98 gm/cm³.
3. The average density of the mantle of the earth is approximately 5.7gm/cm³.
4. The average density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm³.
5. The density of the inner core at the centre of the earth is approximately 13 gm/cm³.

Question C.
Write in brief about the travelling of various types of earthquake waves through the layers of interior of the earth.
Answer:

1. The primary earthquake waves travel through the mantle as well as the core of the earth.
2. While travelling through the core of the earth, the direction of the primary earthquake waves gets altered.
3. While travelling through the core, the speed of the primary earthquake waves decreases.
4. The secondary earthquake waves can travel only through the mantle of the earth. These waves get absorbed in the core of the earth. Thus, these waves cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Write short notes on the following:

Question A.
The crust.
Answer:
1. The uppermost layer of the interior of the earth is called the crust. Continental crust and the oceanic crust are the two parts of the crust.

2.The thickness of the continental crust is approximately 16 km to 45 km. On the other hand, the thickness of the oceanic crust is approximately 7 km to 10 km

3. The density of the continental crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm. On the other hand, the density of the oceanic crust is approximately 2.65 to 2.90 gm/cm³.

4. Silica and aluminium are the main elements found in the continental crust. Therefore, it is also called Sial. On the other hand, Silica and Magnesium are the main elements found in the oceanic crust. Therefore, it is also called Sima.

Question B.
The mantle.
Answer:
1. The mantle is located below the crust of the earth. The mantle is divided into the upper mantle and the lower mantle.

2. The thickness of the mantle is approximately 2870 km. The average density of mantle is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³.

3. The rocks in the upper 100 to 200 km of the mantle melt due to the heat and magma is created. Magma chambers are found in this layer of the earth. Due to the heat and pressure, the energy waves are created in mantle. These energy waves move in vertical direction and magma comes out on the surface of the earth by volcanic eruptions.

4. These endogenitic movements continuously occur in the upper layer of the mantle. Therefore, the upper layer of the mantle is known as the asthenosphere.

5. The average thickness of mantle is approximately 2870 km. Its average density is approximately 4.5 gm/cm³. The temperature at the depth of 2400 to 2900 km is around 2200° to 2500° C. The density of the lower mantle is approximately 5.7 gm / cm³.

Question B.
The outer core.
Answer:
1. The outer core is located below the lower mantle.
2. It is located at the depth from 2900 km to 5100 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the outer core of the earth is around 5000° C. The density of the outer core of the earth is approximately 9.8 gm/cm.

4. The secondary earthquake waves cannot travel from the core of the earth. Therefore, it is inferred that the outer core of the earth must be in liquid or semi-liquid form. The primary earthquake waves can travel from the outer core of the earth.
5. The vertical currents originate in the outer core of the earth.

Question C.
The inner core.
Answer:

1. The inner core is located below the upper core.
2. It is located at the depth from 5150 km to 6371 km from the surface of the earth.
3. The average temperature of the inner core of the earth is around 6000° C. The density of the inner core of the earth is approximately 13.3 gm/cm³.
4. The elements, viz. Iron (Ferrous) and Nickel (Ni) are mainly found in the inner core of the earth. Therefore, it is also called Nife.
5. The temperature at the centre of the earth is almost equivalent to the surface temperature of the sun.

Give geographical reasons for the following:

Question A.
The secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.
Answer:

1. The secondary waves of earthquake can travel only through the solid state of the interior of the earth.
2. The outer core of the centre of the earth is in liquid state. Therefore, the secondary waves of earthquake cannot travel through the core of the earth.

Question B.
The inner core is called Nife.
Answer:

1. The inner core predominantly comprises iron and nickel.
2. The word Nife is derived from the word Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Ferrous) (Fe). Therefore, the inner core is called (Ni + Fe) Nife.

Question C.
The upper layer of the crust is called Sial.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the upper layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and aluminium.
2. The word Sial is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al). Therefore, the upper layer of the crust is called (Si + Al) Sial.

Question D.
The lower layer of the crust is called Sima.
Answer:

1. The rocks in the lower layer of the crust have predominance of the compounds of silicon and magnesium.
2. The word Sima is derived from the word Silica (Si) and Magnesium. (Ma). Therefore, the lower layer of the crust is called (Si + Ma) Sima.

Study the following map/ figure /graph and answer the following questions : 

Question A.
At what depth does the curve of the secondary waves seem to have ended in figure (A)?
Answer:
The curve of the secondary waves seems to have ended around the depth of 2900 km in figure (A).

Question B.
What is the velocity of the secondary waves around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the secondary waves is 6 to 8 km/sec around the boundary of the outer core shown in figure (A).

Question C.
What conclusion can be drawn on the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of 2900 km?
Answer:
On the basis of the curve of the secondary waves stopping around the depth of2900 km, it can be concluded that secondary waves do not enter the core.

Question D.
What is the velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A)?
Answer:
The velocity of the primary waves at the time of entering the outer core shown in figure (A) is 8 km/sec.

Question E.
What conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B)?
Answer:
The following conclusions can be drawn about the intensity of the gravitational force shown in Figure (B):

1. Gravitational force increases at certain depth from the surface of the earth and then it reduces according to the depth.
2. At the centre of the earth, the gravitational force is zero.

Thought-Provoking Question:

Think about it:

Question 1.
Imagine about the earth’s interior and- write 10-12 sentences on it.
Answer:

1. The interior of the earth will be very hot.
2. Huge sized rocks will be present I in the upper layers of the interior of the earth.
3. Due to extreme heat and pressure, the rocks must be melting in the interior of the earth.
4. Due to the melting of the rocks, magma will be created in the interior of the earth.
5. Due to endogenous movements in the interior of the earth, volcanic eruptions will occur on the surface of the earth.
6. The primary earthquake waves will be travelling through the mantle and the core of the earth.
7. The secondary earthquake waves will be travelling only through the mantle of the earth.
8. The temperature in the interior of the earth will get increased with the depth.
9. The highest temperature will be found at the centre of the earth.
10. The elements like silica, aluminium, magnesium, iron and nickel will be found in the various layers of the interior of the earth.

Open-Ended Question:

Question A.
What precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes?
Answer:
The following precautions can be taken to reduce the damage caused by earthquakes:

1. Taking cover under a desk or a table or sturdy piece of furniture to protect oneself.
2. Finding clear spot away from buildings, trees and power lines. Dropping to the ground and staying there until the shaking stops.
3. Switching off the power supply, gas in-home/office, etc.
4. Helping the victims at the earliest.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

Answer:

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Field Visit Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Field Visit

Class 8 Geography Chapter 10 Field Visit Textbook Questions and Answers

Question a.
Prepare a questionnaire for a visit to a NGO working for cleanliness of marine beaches.
Answer:
A questionnaire for a visit to a NGO working for cleanliness of marine beaches is as follows :

1. What is the year of establishment of this NGO?
2. What are the aims and objectives of this NGO?
3. Which activities/programmes are carried out for the cleanliness of marine beaches?
4. How are the people from surrounding areas involved in those various activities and programmes?
5. What are the future plans of this NGO?

Field trip:

• Nature: Field trip is an important study method in geography.
• Importance: Field trip helps in understanding various geographical concepts, elements and processes through direct experiences. It helps in understanding the correlation between humans and environment.
• Planning: Planning of field trip includes deciding the aim, place, duration, etc. about the field trip.
• Preparations : Preparations of field trip includes deciding the place of field visit, maintaining essential materials like notebook, pen, pencil, camera, etc., deciding the schedule for field visit, preparing questionnaire, etc.
• Precautions : One should ensure that there is no harm to the environment in any way during field trip /visit.

Report writing:

• Nature : A field report should be written on the basis of information obtained after field visit is complete.
• Basis : The field report can be written on the basis of information gathered from field visit, photographs, maps, informative charts, questionnaire, etc.
• Points : The field report can be written with the help of the following points :
  (a) Introduction
  (b) Presentation of information obtained
  (c) Conclusion, etc.

Field trips help in enhancing the understanding and sensitivity about the historical, economic, social, and cultural facts about the selected field. Report on field visit should be presented in the classroom.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 5 India and Other Countries

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The country that has a free international border with India _______.
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(c) Nepal

Question 2.
The countries that have tense relations with India _______.
(a) Pakistan and China
(b) Nepal and Bhutan
(c) Myanmar and Maldives
(d) Afghanistan and America
Answer:
(a) Pakistan and China

Question 3.
Factors that have an influence on the relations between India and Pakistan _____.
(a) Difference in the world view of both the countries
(b) Kashmir issue
(c) Nuclear Rivalry
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
India has an important position among the South Asian countries.
Answer:
True.

• India’s position in Asia is geographically and politically important.
• Afghanistan, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Nepal, Bhutan, China and Maldives are India’s neighbours.
• The values of equality and mutual respect have a great importance in India’s foreign policy. India has established relations with neighbouring countries on the basis of these values.
• India is the biggest country in the Indian subcontinent. Similarly, India is economically and technologically more advanced. It is thus natural that India has a great influence among the South Asian countries.

Question 2.
Sino-Indian relations are friendly.
Answer:
False.

• The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues : (a) Border issue and (b) The status of Tibet.
• The border dispute between India and China is related to the Aksai Chin area and the Macmahon line.
• China claims that the area, South of Aksai Chin and Macmahon line (Arunachal Pradesh) is Chinese Territory. China is not willing to agree that Macmahon Line is an international border.
• India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue, but it has not met with much success. In 1962, China Attacked India.
• When China was stepping up its military control in Tibet, Dalai Lama took asylum in India. This issue has been responsible for the conflict between the two countries.

Question 3.
India sent a peacekeeping force to help the Sri Lankan government.
Answer:
True.

• India has friendly relations with the southern neighbour Sri Lanka.
• Political instability in Sri Lanka after 1985 was a result of the differences between the Tamil and the Sri Lankan Government. At that time,
  India had sent a peace keeping force to help the Sri Lankan government.
• Friendly relations with Sri Lanka are important from the point of view of security in the Indian Ocean.

3. Complete the following chart.

Question 1.

Answer:

4. Write short notes :

Question 1.
Shimla Agreement
Answer:
(i) India tried to solve Indo-Pak conflict bi-laterally. The Shimla Agreement of 1972 was based on these principles.

(ii) Pakistan considers Kashmir as the biggest hurdle in establishing relations with India.

(iii) The first Indo-Pak war took place in 1965, over Kashmir. The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966, but nothing much came out of it.

(iv) Even though the 1971 war was about the creation of Bangladesh, it also had the dimension of the Kashmir problem to it.

(v) The Shimla Agreement in 1972 provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.

Question 2.
Indo-Nepalese Friendship Treaty
Answer:
(i) The foundation of friendship between India and Nepal was laid with Indo-Nepalese Friendship Treaty in 1950.

(ii) According to this treaty, Nepalese citizens can not only enter India, but they are also permitted to take up government jobs and carry on trade in India.

(iii) The year 1990 marked the beginning of Nepal’s transition to democracy.

(iv) Nepal is dependent upon India for economic progress, basic facilities, food related needs, trade and energy needs.

(v) India sent a lot of help to Nepal at the time of the 2015 earthquake.

Question 3.
MacMahonLine
Answer:
(i) The conflict between India and China is connected to two issues :

• Border issue
• The status of Tibet

(ii) The border dispute between India and China is related to Aksai Chin area and the Macmahon line.
(iii) China claims that the area South of Aksai Chin and Macmahon line (Arunachal Pradesh) is Chinese Territory.
(iv) China is not willing to agree that Macmahon Line is an international border.
(v) India made several efforts to sort this border dispute by means of dialogue, but it has not met with much success.
(vi) In 1962, China attacked India.

Question 4.
Indo-Afghanistan Relation
Answer:
(i) There is a lot of political instability in Afghanistan.

(ii) The dominance of the terrorist organisation, Taliban is responsible for this.

(iii) India has extended help to bring peace, security and stability, curb violence and establish a democratic government.

(iv) Similarly, India is also helping Afghanistan in re-establishing communication facilities that have got destroyed due to war, build roads, cooperate in the fields of science and technology, build schools, health facilities and irrigation projects.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Explain the background of cooperative relations between India and America.
Answer:
India and America are two powerful nations who have democratic political systems. Right from the beginning, America was India’s most important trading partner.

(i) Many Indians have gone to America for education or work. Due to the presence of these non-resident Indians, the cultural, social and economic relations between America and India have been increasing.

(ii) After the end of Cold War, the military relations between India and America have increased on a large scale.

(iii) After India accepted free market economy, the speed of economic progress slowly increased. It resulted in further strengthening the trade relations between India and America.

(iv) When India conducted nuclear tests in 1998, there was tension in the relations between the two countries.

(v) Many rounds of discussions took place after that to improve the relations. Through these rounds of talks, America came to believe that India will use its nuclear weapons with responsibility. This completely transformed the Indo-American relations.

(vi) The Civil Nuclear Agreement signed in 2005 that was approved by the U.S. Congress in 2008 was an important landmark in Indo-American relations.

Question 2.
Give some information about the efforts taken by India for the establishment of democracy in neighbouring countries with examples.
Answer:
India upheld sovereignty and democratic values in Nepal, Afghanistan, Sri Lanka and Pakistan.

(i) Nepal was a Hindu Kingdom which adopted democratic government in 2006. India backed up its decision of adopting popular rule by helping Nepal with constitutional guidelines.

(ii) India also extended friendly relations to Ashraf Ghani through SAARC and other international platforms after the collapse of Taliban there.

(iii) India sent a peacekeeping force to Sri Lanka to bring about a cease fire between Sinhalese and Tamils and enforce peace and democracy.

(iv) The regime of Pervez Musharraf had adopted aggressive foreign policies and oppressed public opinion in Pakistan which led to violence and chaos. India had also criticised military rule in Pakistan.

Question 3.
What is the role of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation?
Answer:
SAARC is a regional organisation established by the South Asian countries in 1985.

(i) The aim of this organisation is to encourage economic co-operation between South Asian nations and thereby achieve the development of the South Asian region.

(ii) The organisation of SAARC is a platform for South Asian countries to come together and discuss common questions and interests.

(iii) Some common interests of South Asian countries are alleviation of poverty, development of agriculture and technological revolution.

(iv) Some treaties were signed on the SAARC platform to make it easy for South Asian countries to trade with each other.

(v) As a part of this, it has been decided that South Asia should be made into a free trade area. For an equitable development of South Asian nations, a treaty about forming South Asian Free Trade Area was signed and South Asian University was established.

6. Give your own opinion about :

Question 1.
What remedies would you suggest in order to reduce the tensions in the relations between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
(i) To reduce tensions in the relations between India and Pakistan, I suggest that

(ii) Cultural exchange between the two nations must be enhanced by allowing and inviting artists of these nations to perform in each other’s countries. Films and sports would also work wonders to improve relations between them.

(iii) Since India is the largest democracy in the world, it should assist and uphold establishment of democratic systems in Pakistan, where government is either overpowered or practically governed by military.

(iv) Pakistan should be convinced through world opinion at international summits, conferences and organisations such as the UN.

(v) India should ascertain that the media does not mislead people in both the nations, by telecasting exaggerated content which might negatively influence the relations.

(vi) India should appeal the Pakistani Government for preservation of Hindu and Sikh pilgrimage places and cultural sites. India must also promote tourism in both the countries, so that civilians across borders have cordial relations.

(vii) Incidents of cross-border terrorism, violence and infiltration must be taken to international forums. Government of India should frame suitable policies for retrieval of Indian subjects, Prisoners of War and fishermen held in captivity of Pakistani Government.

Question 2.
Do you agree with the statement: ‘Hurdles are created in the way of internal development due to tense relations of India with neighbouring countries/ Explain with reasons.
Answer:
(i) Yes, I agree that hurdles are created in the way of internal development due to tense relations of India with neighbouring countries. Due to tense relations with the neighbours, India is unable to focus on the internal law and order situation and social welfare.

(ii) Non-cordial relations with the neighbours will force India to embark on military and nuclear mobilisation to retaliate the pressure of foreign aggression. This might culminate into a war.

(iii) War with neighbours will disturb the peace in the Indian subcontinent and compel India to divert its resources and efforts towards defence and manufacturing weapons.

(iv) Money and resources which should be invested for constructive purposes like health, education and infrastructure would be diverted towards destruction.

(v) A war with her neighbours can put tremendous pressure on India’s economy giving rise to problems like scarcity and inflation.

Question 3.
Do you think that strong healthy relations of India with America are conducive to India’s economic development?
Answer:
(i) Yes, I believe that strong healthy relations of India with America are conducive to India’s economic development.

(ii) America is an undisputable super power of the world and India is on its way to become a super power. Co-operation between these two countries can thwart terrorism in the world, which is a big challenge in the path of economic development.

(iii) Both countries follow democratic systems of government and free market economies. Co-operation from America is a must to enhance India’s economic prospects.

(iv) The non-resident Indians in America have helped to improve on Indian Foreign Reserves. With Indians taking up more employment in America, India can boost its foreign exchange.

(v) Call centres of American MNCs and other ways of outsourcing have provided employment opportunities to the Indian youth. American companies such as Coca Cola, Colgate and MacDonald established their franchises in India, whereas Indian IITians have dominated the Silicon Valley. An Indian – Sundar Pichai, today is the CEO of ‘Google’ – an American company.

(vi) As American companies find Indian economy very promising, FDI has also increased. The ’Make in India’ drive is now seeking empowerment of Indian economy and employment of Indians through such FDI’s.

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 5 India and Other Countries Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
in l972,______ provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.
(a) Tashkent Agreement
(b) Shimla Agreement
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement
(d) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
Answer:
(b) Shimla Agreement

Question 2.
Aung Sang Su Kyi is credited with having established democracy in ______.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Myanmar
(c) Cambodia
(d) the Maldives
Answer:
(b) Myanmar

Question 3.
The border dispute between India and China is related to ______ area and the Macmahon line.
(a) Sir Creek Area
(b) Siachien
(c) Aksai Chin
(d) Baltistan
Answer:
(c) Aksai Chin

Question 4.
Due to a series of tripartite talks between ____, China and India, Sino-Indian relations are improving slowly.
(a) Pakistan
(b) America
(c) Russia
(d) Japan
Answer:
(b) America

Question 5.
When China was stepping up its military control in Tibet,_____ took asylum in India.
(a) Dalai Lama
(b) Avalokiteshwara
(c) Bodhisattvas
(d) Vajarayana followers
Answer:
(a) Dalai Lama

Question 6.
The ______ signed in 2005 that was approved by the U.S. Congress in 2008 was an important landmark in Indo-American relations.
(a) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(b) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement
(d) Treaty of Friendship and Co-operation
Answer:
(c) Civil Nuclear Agreement

Question 7.
The policy of increasing trade with South-East Asian nations is known as the ______ policy.
(a) Act East
(b) Pact East
(c) Look East
(d) Seek East
Answer:
(c) Look East

Question 8.
The Summit Conference of India and Africa was held in 2015 with representatives from all _____ African nations attending it.
(a) 54
(b) 56
(c) 58
(d) 53
Answer:
(a) 54

Question 9.
India has co-operated in the project to produced ______ on a large scale, using the water source in Bhutan.
(a) Irrigation facilities
(b) Hydel power
(c) Tube wells
(d) Water reservoirs
Answer:
(b) Hydel power

Question 10.
_______has agreed to extend cooperation and technological help to India in the development and security of coastal areas.
(a) Malaysia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Brunei
(d) Japan
Answer:
(d) Japan

Question 11.
European Nations, especially ______ invest on a large scale in the field of technology in India.
(a) Greece and Italy
(b) Germany and France
(c) Belgium and Netherlands
(d) Spain and Portugal
Answer:
(b) Germany and France

Question 12.
The dominance of the terrorist organisation _______ is responsible for political instability in Afghanistan.
(a) Lashkar-e-Taiba
(b) Jamaat-ud-Dawa
(c) Taliban
(d) Al-Qaeda
Answer:
(c) Taliban

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Write about India’s relation with Maldives.
Answer:
(i) India’s relations with Maldives have been friendly right from the beginning. This small nation to the South of India is dependent on India for a lot of reasons.

(ii) Trade relations have been established between the two since 1981.

(iii) India has helped Maldives in the development of basic facilities or infrastructure, health and communication.

(iv) From 2006 onwards, co-operation in the military field also started between the two countries.

(v) They have entered into treaties with respect to cooperation in space research, conservation of historical objects and tourism. Similarly, they have decided to co-operate in the area of fighting against terrorism.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
SAARC
Answer:
(i) SAARC is a regional organisation established by the South Asian countries in 1985.

(ii) The aim of this organisation is to encourage economic co-operation between South Asian nations and there by, achieve the development of the South Asian region.

(iii) The organisation of SAARC is a platform for South Asian countries to come together and discuss common questions and interests.

(iv) Some common interests of South Asian countries are alleviation of poverty, development of agriculture and technological revolution.

(v) Some treaties were signed on the SAARC platform to make it easy for South Asian countries to trade with each other.

Do as directed:

Complete the following charts:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Prepare the following flow charts:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
Illustrate the differences in world views between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
(i) India and Pakistan have totally different world views.

(ii) In line with the Indian world view, India opposed the military alliances of the Cold War and tried to solve the Indo-Pak conflict bilaterally.

(iii) On the other hand, Pakistan tried to maintain relations with the Islamic world and China entered into a military agreement with America.

Question 2.
Describe the Kashmir issue between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
(i) Pakistan considers Kashmir as the biggest hurdle in establishing relations with India.

(ii) The first Indo-Pak war took place in 1965 over Kashmir.

(iii) The Tashkent Agreement was signed in 1966, but nothing much came out of it.

(iv) Even though the 1971 war was about the creation of Bangladesh, it also had the dimension of the Kashmir problem to it.

(v) The Shimla Agreement in 1972 provided a new format to the interaction between India and Pakistan.

(vi) In 1999, there was a conflict between India and Pakistan over the infiltration by Pakistan in the Kargil region.

(vii) Even today, the Kashmir question is the basic cause of conflict between the two countries.

Question 3.
Sino-Pak Friendship has affected the security of India. Explain.
Answer:
(i) The threat to India’s security is increasing due to friendship between China and Pakistan, supply of weapons from China to Pakistan and also transfer of missile and nuclear weapons technology.

(ii) The increasing friendship between China and Pakistan and increasing influence of China over India’s other neighbours is a cause of concern for India.

Question 4.
How is India trying to resolve its differences with China?
Answer:
(i) India has always made efforts to improve relations with China.

(ii) A joint executive group has been set up to solve the Sino-Indian border dispute.

(iii) When the rate of economic growth of both India and China increased, the trade relations between both the countries began to get strengthened.

(iv) Because of improvement in economic and trade relations between India and China and a series of tripartite talks between Russia, China and India, Sino-Indian relations are improving slowly.

(v) Even though the border dispute is not completely resolved, it has taken a back seat and relations in other areas have become more important.

Question 5.
How was Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Today’s Bangladesh is the erstwhile East Pakistan. When Pakistan was created, it had two parts: West and East Pakistan.

(ii) There was linguistic difference between them. There were other political conflicts as well.

(iii) The movement to liberate Bangladesh emerged out of this.

(iv) This movement tried to free Bangladesh from the dominance of West Pakistan.

(v) India helped Bangladesh in its freedom struggle. Bangladesh was formed in 1971.

Question 6.
How could India and African nations benefits from each other?
Answer:
(i) Having close relations with Africa will be beneficial from the point of view of both.

(ii) Many countries in Africa are developing rapidly.

(iii) MaharashtraBoardSoLutions.com diness to help in the all-round development of African youth. India has also agreed to give economic help and even grants to bring about development in different areas like technology, agriculture, tourism, etc.

(iv) India’s energy needs can be fulfilled by the energy rich countries like Egypt, Nigeria, Angola and Sudan.

(v) India is making efforts to increase trade with Africa.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
She took the charge of the Indore administration.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 2.
The most capable and brave man in Nagpurkar Bhosale family.
Answer:
Raghuji

Question 3.
He reinstated the Emperor on the throne of Delhi.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 4.
He managed politics in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

2. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Ashti.
• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

Answer:

• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The battle of Ashti.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

3. Write briefly:

Question 1.
The work done by Ahilyabai Holkar.
Answer:

• She created new laws for agricultural tax and tax recovery.
• She brought barren land under cultivation.
• Dug wells for farmers.
• She promoted trade and industry.
• Built water reservoirs.
• She constructed mandirs, ghats, matts and dharamshalas.
• Provided water facilities over India.
• She brought cultural integration in the country.

Question 2.
The valour shown by Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
(a) He played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha power in the North after the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat.

(b) He realised that guerilla tactics would not be any more useful so he trained and modernised his army under a French military expert de Boigne.

(c) With this trained army, he defeated the Rohillas, the Jats, the Rajputs and the Bundellas.

(d) Mahadji managed the difficult affairs with strong determination and looked after the Delhi affairs during CE 1784 to CE 1794.
The Mughal Emperor honoured him with the title Vakil-i-Mutlak.

Question 3.
The Maratha rule in Gujarat.
Answer:
(a) General Khanderao Dabhade and his son laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat.

(b) After the death of Khanderao, his wife Umabai took the charge, bravely fought the battle with Mughal Sardar at Ahmadabad and captured a fort.

(c) The Gaikwads made Vadodara their centre of power.

4. Discuss the reasons behind the end of the Maratha rule.
Answer:
The reasons behind the end of Maratha rule were:

(a) After the death of Mahadji Shinde and Nana Phadnavis, the Maratha power started declining.

(b) Raghunathrao’s son, Bajirao II the Peshwa did not have leadership qualities which could create solidarity among the Maratha Sardars.

(c) Maratha power got weakened due to these differences among the Maratha Sardars.

(d) The supremacy of the Marathas declined in the North and the South during the period of Bajirao II.

(e) The British dethroned the Maratha power and became the rulers

Activity:

Create a pictorial chart to show the families that contributed to the expansion of the Maratha power. Exhibit it in your school.

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Gaikwads made _______ in Gujarat a seat of their power. (Vadodara, Ahmadabad, Surat)
Answer:
Vadodara

Question 2.
_____ was the founder of the Holkar rule in Indore. (Mahadji, Malharrao, Raghunathrao)
Answer:
Malharrao

Question 3.
_____ managed to take care of the politics in the South. (Nana Phadnavis, Kanhoji, Khanderao)
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 4.
________ strengthened the naval power of Shivaji. (Patwardhan, Bhosale of Nagpur,Kanhoji Tulaji Angre)
Answer:
Kanhoji Tulaji Angre

Question 5.
During the reign of _____ there was a complete breakdown of the Maratha power. (Ahilyabai, Bhosale, Bajirao-ll)
Answer:
Bajirao-ll

Question 6.
_____ laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat. (Khanderao Dabhade, Madhavrao, Raghuji)
Answer:
Khanderao

Question 7.
Malharrao Holkar was well versed in ________ (Sword fighting, Martial art, Guerrilla Warfare)
Answer:
Guerrilla warfare

Question 8.
The British managed to get the rights of the _______ of the Bengal region. (Diwani, Chauthai, Sardeshmukhi)
Answer:
Diwani

Question 9.
Delhi was under the influence of Maratha power till ______. (1803 CE, 1807 CE, 1819 CE)
Answer:
1803 CE

Question 10.
British defeated the Marathas in the battle of Ashti in Solapur in _________. (CE 1818, CE 1820, CE 1814)
Answer:
1818 CE

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one word:

Question 1.
Title conferred to Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
Vakil-i-Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor)

Question 2.
An expert in guerilla tactics.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 3.
She was the wife of Khanderao, Malharrao’s son.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 4.
Managed the supremacy in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 5.
Peshwa who didn’t have leadership qualities.
Answer:
Bajirao II

Question 6.
Appointed as Sardar in the North.
Answer:
Ranoji Shinde

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which regions were given as jagirs to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj?
Answer:
Varhad and Gondawan were given to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj.

Question 2.
What rights were assigned to Raghuji?
Answer:
Raghuji Bhosale was assigned the Chauthai rights of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.

Question 3.
Who laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat?
Answer:
Khanderao Dabhade and his son Trimbakrao laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat.

Question 4.
Why did Mahadji Shinde train his army?
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde trained his army because the Marathas generally used the guerrilla tactics in 1 the hilly regions of the South. But would not be
suitable in the plains of the North.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Punyashloka Ahilyabai?
Answer:
(a) Punyashloka Ahilyabai ruled for twenty-eight years and enhanced the Maratha prestige in the North.
(b) She brought peace and order in her kingdom and made her people happy.

Question 6.
What was crystal clear amongst the British and Marathas?
Answer:
It was crystal clear that whoever will rule India will be ultimately decided by the war between the Marathas and the British.

Give reason:

Question 1.
Mahadji Shinde conferred the title of Vakil-i- Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor).
Answer:
British wanted to take the Delhi Emperor in their captivity. Even though the conditions were unfavourable, Mahadji Shinde defeated the British and again reinstated the Emperor on the throne. The Emperor was pleased with his bravery and conferred the title of Vakili- Mutlak. (Chief Agent of the Emperor).

Question 2.
The Maratha Sardars became successful in establishing the supremacy in North and South India.
Answer:
After the death of Madhavrao Peshwa, the Maratha Empire went in a disarray, Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde brought it back to normal. Mahadji was busy in the North to establish the supremacy of Marathas, Nana Phadnavis managed to take care of the politics in South. Leadership and capability helped the Maratha power to reach to a new pinnacle. Hence the Maratha Sardar became successful in establishing the supremacy in north and south India.

Question 3.
The supremacy of Marathas in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.
Answer:
Bajirao II became the Peshwa. He didn’t have any leadership qualities. On the contrary he had many vices. He couldn’t create solidarity amongst the Maratha Sardars. Because of many such reasons, the supremacy of the Maratha power in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Malharrao Holkar
Answer:

• He was the founder of the Holkar rule at Indore.
• He served the Maratha kingdom for a long time.
• He was expert in guerilla warfare.
• He proved his valour in the eras of Bajirao I and Nanasaheb Peshwa.
• He played a major role in establishing the supremacy of the Marathas in Malwa and Rajputana.
• He greatly helped Madhavrao Peshwa in re-establishing the Maratha supremacy after the defeat at Panipat.

Question 2.
Mahadji Shinde
Answer:

• Madhavrao Peshwa was conferred the title of Vakil-i-Mutlak by the Emperor. He was brave and an astute statesmen.
• After the Maratha defeat at Panipat, he played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha dominance and prestige in the Northern India.
• He realised that the guerilla tactics of Marathas would not be useful in the plains of the northern region.
• He trained his army under the French military expert de-Boigne and updated his artillery.
• With the help of his trained army, he subdued the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs, Bundellas, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Industries Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Industries

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Industries Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Mark ✓ in the box next to the right alternative:
(Note: The answers are given directly.)

Question A.
Which factors among those mentioned below does not directly impact industrial development?
(i) Water [ ]
(ii) Electricity [ ]
(iii) Labour [ ]
(iv) Air [ ]
Answer:
(iv) Air [✓]

Question B.
Which of the following is a small industry?
(i) Machine parts industry [ ]
(ii) Book binding industry [ ]
(iii) Silk industry [ ]
(iv) Sugar industry [ ]
Answer:
(ii) Book binding industry [✓]

Question C.
Which of the following cities is not an IT centre?
(i) Old Delhi [ ]
(ii) New Delhi [ ]
(iii) Noida [ ]
(iv) Bangaluru [ ]
Answer:
(i) Old Delhi [✓]

Question D.
An amount of 2% of the profits have to be utilized for which purpose by industries?
(i) Income tax [ ]
(ii) Corporate social responsibility [ ]
(iii) Goods and service tax [ ]
(iv) Sales tax [ ]
Answer:
(ii) Corporate social responsibility [✓]

2. State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the incorrect Statements.

Question a.
Small and medium industries of a country are harmful to heavy industries.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Small and medium industries of a country are supportive to heavy industries.

Question b.
The level of industrialization is an indicator of the economic development of a country.
Answer:
Correct.

Question c.
The aim of the industrial development corporations is to decentralize industrialization.
Answer:
Correct.

Question d.
Corporate social responsibility is compulsory for every industries.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Corporate social responsibility is not compulsory for every industries.

3. Answer the following questions in three to four lines.

Question a.
What are the facilities provided by the government to industrial estates?
Answer:
The following are the facilities provided by the government to industrial estates:

1. Government gives concessional rates to the estates for electricity, water and taxes.
2. Estates are also provided piece of land at concessional rates by the government.

Question b.
Write in your words how industrial development impacts national development.
Answer:

1. Industrial development generates employment opportunities.
2. Due to increased employment level, people get jobs and per capita income increases. This further increases the standard of living of people.
3. Industrial development increases the value of the Gross National Product.
4. Industrial development increases the production of various goods. By exporting the surplus goods, country can earn foreign exchange. In this way, industrial development positively impacts national development.

Question c.
Give your opinion in short on the usefulness of corporate social responsibility.
Answer:
1. Corporate social responsibility is responsibility shown by the industrialists by working for the betterment of the society and for conserving environment.

2. Industries making annual profit of more than 5 crores are expected to spend 2% of their profits on some of the following acts:

• Providing educational or health facilities
• Establishing centres for mentally or physically challenged, widows, other needy people
• Developing a particular village or region
• Establishing environmental development centres, etc.

3. Corporate social responsibility increases the welfare of people and so proves beneficial to the society.

Question d.
Mention three features of small industries.
Answer:
Three features of small industries ! are as follows:

1. Small industries require comparatively less amount of inputs like capital, machinery and manpower.
2. Small industries require comparatively less premise for its day-to-day operations.
3. Generally, the goods produced in small industries have local/regional markets.

4. Write detailed answers to the following questions.

Question a.
Explain the factors affecting industrial development.
Answer:
The factors affecting industrial development are as follows:
1. Scientific and technological advancement, quantity and quality of labour, speedy transportation facilities, ready markets, availability of raw materials, government policies, political stability, etc. are factors that influence the industrial development of a nation.

2. For example, dense forest areas, mountainous areas, desert regions have extreme physiographical features. Transport facilities are found to be limited in such regions. Therefore, industrial development is found to be limited in such regions.

3. For example, agriculture is developed on a large scale in the fertile plains and the regions of moderate rainfall. Agriculture provides raw materials to many industries. Therefore, industrial development is found to be high in such regions.

Question b.
State the advantages of the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation.
Answer:
The advantages of the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation are as follows:

1. The state government of Maharashtra established Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation (MIDC) on 1st August, 1962.
2. Through MIDC, government has set  up industries in all districts of Maharashtra. MIDC supports the industrial growth and decentralization of industries.
3. Government gives concessional rates to the estates/industries for electricity, water and taxes. Estates/industries are also provided piece of land at concessional rates by the government.
4. MIDC has been playing an important role in generating employment opportunities in all the 36 districts of Maharashtra.
5. MIDC has been playing an important indirect role in increasing the per capita income and standards of living of people in Maharashtra.

Question c.
Explain the importance of I.T. industry.
Answer:
1. Information technology industry includes various components like searching for technical information, obtaining information, analyzing information, compiling information, graphic presentation of information and providing information.

2. Information technology industry provides various types of information through internet on computers, mobiles and other devices. This industry provides information at comparatively less cost, time and efforts.

3. The obtained information can be used for personal, economic, social, cultural, etc. development. India has made rapid progress in this industry.

Question d.
Considering India’s population, the development of industries is a good solution to the problem of unemployment. Explain.
Answer:
1. According to Census, 2011, the population of India was nearly 121 crores.

2. In India, majority of people are engaged in agriculture. In India, agriculture is seasonal in nature. Therefore, the unemployment rate is found to be high in India. Therefore, it is essential to develop industries in India.

3. By developing small industries, unemployed people will get employment opportunities. Small industries will help in providing jobs to less skilled, less educated people.

4. By developing medium and large industries in rural areas, the process of urbanisation can be boosted in villages. It will also restrict migration of people from villages to towns and cities. The employment level in a nation can be raised by developing industries. Thus, considering India’s population, the development of industries is a good solution to the problem of unemployment.

5. Prepare a flow chart for the following statements:

Question a.
The journey of clothes we use from the farm to ourselves.
Answer:

Question b.
Essential factors for the location of any one industry.
Answer:

6. Highlight the differences.

Question a.
Medium industries and heavy industries.
Answer:

Question b.
Agro-based industries and Information technology industries.
Answer:

Projects:

Collect information about any one project undertaken in your village/city under the Corporate Social Responsibility and present it in the class.

Class 8 Geography Chapter 8 Industries Additional Important Questions and Answers

Mark ✓ in the box next to the right alternative:

Question A.
Which of the following is a medium industry?
(i) Sugar industry [ ]
(ii) Textile industry [ ]
(iii) Cement industry [ ]
(iv) Food processing industry [ ]
Answer:
(iv) Food processing industry [✓]

Examine the following statements and correct the incorrect ones:

Question a.
Localization of sugar industry is found near Jamshedpur.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: Localization of iron and steel industry is found near Jamshedpur.

Question b.
India is predominantly manufacturing country.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct sentence: India is predominant¬ly agrarian country. ,

Question c.
Poverty decreases the speed of industrial growth.
Answer:
Correct.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question a.
What is manufacturing?
Answer:
The process of converting raw materials into finished goods is called manufacturing. ‘

Question b.
What is called factory?
Answer:
A place where raw materials are converted into finished goods is called a factory.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question a.
Mention three features of large industries.
Answer:
Three features of large industries ; are as follows:

1. Large industries require huge amount of inputs like capital, machinery and manpower.
2. Large industries require huge premise for its day-to-day operations.
3. The goods produced in large industries have wide markets.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question a.
Give information about agro-based industries in India.
Answer:
1. India is predominantly agrarian country. Agriculture is the main occupation of majority of people in India.

2. In India, food crops, cash crops, fruits, flowers, vegetables, etc. are cultivated on a large scale. The agricultural produce provides raw material to many industries in India. For example, sugar cane is raw material for sugar industry. Thus many industries in India are agro-based industries. RIES 83

3. The industries processing agricultural products like fruit processing industries, food processing industries, dairy industries, etc. have also flourished in India.

5. Agro based industries play an important role in rural economy by generating employment opportunities in rural areas.

Highlight differences/Distinguish between the following:

Question a.
Small industries and Medium industries.
Answer:

Study the following map/figure/graph and answer the following questions:

Can you tell? 

Study the Figure and answer the following questions :

Question a.
Name the industry at Jamshedpur.
Answer:
The name of the industry at Jamshedpur is Iron and steel industry.

Question b.
Which raw material is required for this industry?
Answer:
Raw material required for this industry is iron, manganese, limestone, coal, etc.

Question c.
From which areas is this raw material obtained?
Answer:
This raw material is obtained from the areas of Jamshedpur, Kulaisila, Gurumahisani, Jgharia, etc.

Question d.
Why is coal used in this industry?
Answer:
Coal is used in this industry as fuel to heat iron to a certain temperature.

Question e.
State with reasons if it would be feasible to set up an iron and steel industry in your district.
Answer:
It would not be feasible to set up an iron and steel industry in our district as there are no reserves of iron ore, manganese, limestone, etc. found in our district.
(Note : Students, here it is assumed that you stay in Thane district. Write answer to j the above question as per the district in which you live.)

Give it a try.

Observe the picture and answer the following questions:

Question a.
In what context is this logo?
Answer:
This logo is about ‘Make in India’ programme.

Question b.
What will be the benefit of this programme?
Answer:
This programme will boost the production of various industries located all over India.

Question c.
What is correlation between this programme and employment?
Answer:
This programme will generate employment opportunities on a large scale.

Question d.
Which are the Navratna industries in India?
Answer:
The Navratna industries in India are as follows :

1. Gas Authority of India
2. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
3. Coal India Limited
4. Indian Oil Corporation Limite
5. National Thermal Power Corporation
6. Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, etc.

Question e.
Why do you think they have been accorded this status of Navratna?
Answer:
Navratna industries have been accorded the status of Navratna to function effectively to fulfill various needs of public.

Show the following details on the outline map of India with index:

Give it a try. (Textbook page 58)

Question a.
Important information technology centres are called IT hubs. Find out with the help of the internet in which cities such hubs have developed and mark them on an outline map of India.
Answer:
Important information technology centres known as IT hubs:

1. Bangaluru
2. Hyderabad
3. Chennai
4. Mumba
5. New Delhi
6. Pune
7. Kolkata
8. Ahmadabad.

Thought-Provoking Questions:

Let’s recall.

1. In Figure, the sequence of two industrial processes has been given. Arrange the pictures in proper sequence and write the sequential number in the boxes given below and answer the following questions:

Questions:

Question a.
Name the two industries.
Answer:
The two industries are:

1. Sugar industry
2. Textile industry.

Question b.
Name the raw material and the finished product of both these industries.
Answer:
The raw material and finished product in sugar industry are sugarcane and sugar respectively. Similarly the raw material and finished product in textile industry are cotton and cloth.

Question c.
How is the raw material converted into the finished product?
Answer:
The raw material is converted into the finished product by processing the raw material at various level.

Question d.
Why is it necessary to convert the raw material into finished goods?
Answer:
The raw material in its original form, cannot satisfy human wants directly. Therefore it is necessary to convert the raw material into finished goods.

2. Study the following figure showing the factors affecting the location of an industry. Taking into account the factors shown in the figure, note in different colours the favourable factors required for (1) Iron and steel (2) Textiles and (3) Sugar industry and answer the following questions:

Questions:

Question a.
For each industry, prepare a list of necessary factors.
Answer:
A list of necessary factors for each industry:

1. Iron and steel industry: Iron ore, manganese, coal, water, etc.
2. Textile industry: Cotton, transportation services, water, electricity, etc.
3. Sugar industry: Sugar cane, water, electricity, etc.

Question b.
For each industry give an explanation for the location suggested by you.
Answer:
1. Iron and steel industry: The raw material of iron and steel industry is bulky in nature. The transportation of this raw material is not feasible. Therefore, the location of iron and steel industry is suggested near mineral field.

2. Textile industry: The raw material of textile industry is cotton. Cotton is light in weight. Therefore, it can be transported easily. Therefore, the location of textile industry is suggested near highway and at a place where labours are available.

3. Sugar industry: The raw material of sugar industry is sugar cane. This raw material is comparatively less durable. Therefore, its transport at a distant location is difficult. Therefore, the location of sugar industry is suggested near the cultivation area.

Question c.
In a similar manner for which other industries can you decide a suitable location?
Answer:
In a similar manner, a suitable location can be decided for the industries like fruit processing industry, cement industry, etc.

Give it a try. 

Study the factors given below and state which industries could develop in these regions:

Question a.
Excellent transport facilities, skilled labours, uninterrupted supply of electricity,
Answer:
Textile industries, vehicle manufacturing industries, fertilizer manufacturing industries, etc. could develop in the regions of excellent transport facilities, skilled labours, uninterrupted supply of electricity.

Question b.
Limestone deposits, cheap labour, uninterrupted supply of water and electricity, increasing urbanisation,
Answer:
Mining industries could develop in the regions of limestone deposits, cheap labour, uninterrupted supply of water and electricity, increasing urbanisation.

Question c.
Fruit orchards, labour, excellent transportation facilities, unlimited water supply, uninterrupted electricity and ready market.
Answer:
Fruit processing industries could develop in the regions of fruit orchards, labour, excellent transportation facilities, unlimited water supply, uninterrupted electricity and ready market.

Use your brainpower! 

Question a.
Identify the industries shown in the pictures given on page 54 of the textbook and state their suitable locations.
Answer:
A. The industries shown in the pictures given on page 54 of the textbook are as follows:

1. Information technology industry
2. Fish canning industry
3. Milk industry.

B. The suitable locations for these industries are as follows:

1. Information technology industry: A place connected with transportation facilities
2. Fish canning industry: A place near coastal region
3. Milk industry: A place near the cattle rearing is practised.

Think about it. 

Examine pictures (A), (B) and (C) given on page 54 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question a.
Name the industry shown in picture (A).
Answer:
The name of the industry shown in picture (A) is Papad making industry.

Question b.
What is the difference between the industries shown in pictures (A) and (B)?
Answer:
(A) Industry requires comparatively less amount of capital, manpower, machinery and space. On the other hand, (B) industry requires comparatively more amount of capital, manpower, machinery and space.

Question c.
What is distinctive about the industry in picture (C)?
Answer:
The industry in picture (C) requires capital, manpower, machinery and space on a very large scale.

Question d.
Identify the industry shown in each picture.
Answer:
The industries shown are as follows:

1. Industry shown in picture (A) is Small industry
2. Industry shown in picture (B) is Medium industry
3. Industry shown in picture (C) is Large industry

Question d.
Name some more similar industries.
Answer:

1. Small industries: Cane products and handicraft industry, earthen pot making industry, etc.
2. Medium industry: Fruit processing industry, jaggery making industry, etc.
3. Large industry: Sugar manufacturing industry, fertilizer manufacturing industry, Automobile manufacturing industry, etc.

Give it a try. 

Question a.
Complete the following list with reference to industries:
(Note: The answer is given directly.)

Answer:

Can you tell? 

Question a.
Study the factors given in Figure 8.7 given on page 56 of the textbook and classify them as per their advantages and disadvantages in relation to industry:
Answer:
1. Advantages in relation to industry: Employment, Development of agriculture, Population, Stable prices of commodities, Skilled manpower, Improvement in the standard of living, Supply of labour, the Market, More land under irrigation, Development of transport facilities, Communication, Cultural development, Literacy, Boost to urbanization, Ample water, Uninterrupted power supply.

2. Disadvantages in relation to industry: Depletion of forest land, Pollution, Increasing land prices, Slums, Number of migrants, poverty.

Think about it.

Question a.
Talk about the interrelationship between human resource and industry.
Answer:

1. The optimum level and high quality of human resource increases the industrial growth.
2. Shortage and low quality of human resource decreases the industrial growth.

Use your brainpower!

Question a.
Which type of industries can stem the flow of people towards urban areas?
Answer:
Large industries can stem the flow of people towards urban areas.

Question b.
Where is it necessary to establish these industries?
Answer:
It is necessary to establish these industries in rural areas.

Think about it. 

Question
If you become an industrialist, which of the following would you do?:

1. Only make profits
2. Start a second industry from the earlier one as a supplementary industry
3. Will spend some amount for the society after the deduction of tax
4. Provide help for the creation of new industrialist.

Answer:
If become industrialist, will do the following:

1. Start a second industry from the earlier one as a supplementary industry
2. Will spend some amount for the society after the deduction of tax
3. Provide help for the creation of new industrialist.

Open-Ended Question:

Use your brainpower! 

Question 1.
Which industries could be profitably set up in your surrounding area/locality?
Answer:
As fruits like mangoes, jackfruits, cashew nuts are largely grown, the fruit processing industries could be profitably set up in our surrounding area/locality.
(Note: Students here it is assumed that you live in Sindhudurg district of Maharashtra.
Write answer to the above question as per the district in which you live.)

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Natural Resources Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Natural Resources

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

A. What is the use of the following resources?

Question 1.
Water
Answer:

• Right from the time we get up in the morning, we keep on using water till we go to bed at night.
• We obtain salt from sea water.
• Plants and aquatic animals like fish also live in water.

Question 2.
Forests
Answer:

• We collect wood from the forest for various purposes.
• In order to fulfill our needs we also obtain products like rubber, resin, fruits, medicinal plants, etc. from forests.
• Forests are the habitat of many animals.

Question 3.
Animals
Answer:

• Man uses animals for a variety of reasons.
• Horses, oxen, camel, asses, etc. are animals employed for ploughing, riding, transporting goods, etc.
• Goats, cows, buffaloes are used as milch animals.
• Animals provide meat, eggs, bone powder, hide, etc.

Question 4.
Minerals
Answer:

• We get different metals and chemicals from minerals.
• Some chemicals are used in preparing different medicines.
• Metallic minerals are used for obtaining different metals such as iron, bauxite, etc.
• Non-metallic minerals are used in obtaining various chemicals like gypsum, rock salt, calcite, etc.

Question 5.
Land.
Answer:

• Living things that are bom on land, grow, live and die on the land itself.
• Land is used for construction as well as trade.

B. Complete the following flow chart:

Answer:

C. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What factors influence the formation of soil?
Answer:
The formation of soil mainly depends on the original rock, climate, organic components, slope of the land and time.

Question 2.
Which products are obtained from forests?
Answer:
We obtain products like wood, rubber, resin, fruits, medicinal plants, etc. from forests.

Question 3.
What are the uses of minerals?
Answer:
Metallic minerals are used for obtaining different metals such as iron, bauxite, etc. and non-metallic minerals are used in obtaining various chemicals like gypsum, rock salt, calcite, etc.

Question 4.
What are the purposes for which land is used?
Answer:

• Living things that are bom on land, grow, live and die on land itself.
• Construction and trade are some other purposes for which land is used.

Question 5.
Why are various living things found on the land in different proportions?
Answer:
Depending on the characteristics of land and climate, various living things are found on land in different proportions.

Activity:

Collect the pictures of and information about the sources of freshwater.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Observe the picture given in figure 8.1. and answer the following question.

Question 1.
What do you see in the pictures?
Answer:
I can see different animals and plants in the given pictuers.

Question 2.
How many of these animals or plants do you know?
Answer:
I know all these animals and plants in the given picture.

Question 3.
Which of these things have you seen in reality?
Answer:
I have seen all the cotton ball, mango and horse in reality.

Question 4.
Have you ever used these things or seen them being used?
Answer:
Yes, I have.

Question 5.
Which of our needs do some of these fulfill?
Answer:

• Horse is used in transportation
•  Mango is a fruit we eat from
• Cotton is used to make cloth.

Question 6.
What probable use of the unused things can you think of?
Answer:

• Octopus can be kept in aquarium
• Lizards can be kept in the gardens to eat tiny insects.

Observe all the figures and discuss them in the class:



Can you tell?

Question 1.
What different activities are the individuals in the pictures engaged in?
Answer:
The different activities that the individuals in ; the pictures are engaged in are: agriculture, ; fishing, collection of honey, drawing water, ! gathering wood, mining, masonry, extraction i of salt, collection of rubber latex, gathering of resin from trees, converting wind into usable energy, transportation by pack animals.

Question 2.
What things will they obtain through these activities?
Answer:
They will obtain foodgrains, fish, honey, water, wood, minerals, house to live, salt, rubber, resin and energy which can be used for various purposes.

Question 3.
What are the animals in the picture doing?
Answer:
While the bullocks are ploughing the fields, j the donkey is used as a pack animal, for transporting heavy loads.

Question 4.
What is the use of the tall device in figure 8.12 raised on the ground?
Answer:
The tall device is a windmill which converts i wind into usable energy through the rotation ; of wheel which are adjustable. The energy thus i created can be used for a variety of purposes I such as generating electricity, grinding grains or spices, pumping water, sawing wood, aerating ponds, etc.

Question 5.
What is being loaded in the truck? What are we going to get from it?
Answer:
is being loaded into a truck from the mining area. We get minerals from the same.

Question 6.
Where are all these human activities being performed other than fishing?
Answer:
All these human activities are being performed on land.

Think a little!

Question 1.
List the various things for which we use water. Identify the things that lead to wastage of water.
Answer:
(a) Use of water.

• For agricultural and industrial purposes.
• For drinking and cooking.
• For personal hygiene.
• For our pets.
• Washing clothes and utensils.
• Cleaning houses, vehicles, etc.
• Watering plants in the garden.

(b) Identify the things that leads to wastage of water.

• When we pollute water.
• When we don’t save water by building dams, water wells and irrigation systems.
• When we waste water by using it excessively in flushes, bathrooms, etc.
• When we don’t use water-efficient faucets (taps), showers, etc.
• When we don’t repair faulty faucets.
• When we don’t close the tap when not required.
• When we use fountains and sprinklers in the gardens.

Question 2.
Name the different metals from which the things in your house are made. Make a chart of things and metals.
Answer:

Question 3.
List the occupations carried out on land.
Answer:

• Farming.
• Mining.
• Lumbering (Cutting down of trees).
• Extraction such as salt extraction, etc.
• Construction
• Beekeeping, etc.

Observe figure (Textbook Page no. 48) and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which vegetations do you find in the following location.
Answer:

Question 2.
In which forest do we find tall trees?
Answer:
Equatorial Evergreen forest.

Question 3.
Name the grassland shown in the picture.
Answer:
Tropical grassland and temperate grassland.

Question 4.
Which vegetation indicate hot deserts?
Answer:
Thorny scrubs

Class 6 Geography Chapter 8 Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements using appropriate options:

Question 1.
_____ is a resource which never depletes. (Air, ‘Water, Animals)
Answer:
Air

Question 2.
Formation of mature soil is a very ______ process. (sudden, fast, slow)
Answer:
slow

Question 3.
Rock is a mixture of ________ (stone, black pebbles, minerals)
Answer:
minerals

Question 4.
The proportion of land on earth is ________%.
Answer:
29.20

Question 5.
_______ are the habitats for many animals. (Grassland, Vegetation,Thorny scrubs)
Answer:
Grassland

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Name the following:

Question 1.
The natural things that man uses:
Answer:
Natural resources.

Question 2.
A resource that is available in plenty:
Answer:
Air.

Question 3.
The basins along which man began to live a settled life in the past:
Answer:

• Huang He
• Sindhu (Indus)
• Nile and Euphrates

Question 4.
Habitats of animals:
Answer:
Forest or grasslands.

Question 5.
Any two products we get from animals:
Answer:

• Meat
• Eggs

Question 6.
Metallic minerals used for obtaining different metals:
Answer:

• Iron
• Bauxite

Question 7.
Non-metallic minerals used in obtaining various chemicals:
Answer:

• Gypsum
• Rock salt
• Calcite

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Why are natural resources invaluable?
Answer:
Most of the natural resources are limited in nature and therefore they are invaluable.

Question 2.
What do we need air for?
Answer:
We need air for various purposes right from breathing to burning.

Question 3.
Why do the farmers plough the soil?
Answer:
The farmers plough the soil to make the land cultivable.

Question 4.
How are plants classified?
Answer:
Plants are broadly classified into grass, shrubs and trees.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
Soil is a very important resource for agriculture.
Answer:

• The farmer ploughs the soil and makes the land cultivable.
• In this cultivable land, he grows various crops and fulfills his own and other’s need for food.
• For this purpose, he uses the ‘soil’ that is naturally available on land as a resource.
• Therefore soil is very important resource of agriculture.

Question 2.
Man began to live a settled life.
Answer:

• Man has successfully experimented with some grasses to obtain food grains.
• This helped him to avoid painful wandering for gathering food.
• Therefore, man began to lead a settled life.

Question 3.
It is necessary to conserve the natural resources.
Answer:

• Every living thing makes use of natural resources according to its need.
• However, man started using many of these resources for himself alone with the help of his intellectual power.
• Later, the increase in population and the greed of humans led to exploitative use of resources.
• This began to upset the balance in nature.
• So, it is necessary that man also must use the natural resources only according to his need, that is judiciously and thus conserve the natural resources.

Question 4.
Land is an invaluable resource.
Answer:

• All the activities of obtaining natural resources are being carried out on land.
• Land obtained at strategic location is used for construction as well as trade.
• Hence, land is an invaluable resource.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Why are various living things found on the land in different proportions?
Answer:
Depending on the characteristics of land and climate, various living things are found on land in different proportions.

Question 2.
Which are the various geographical conditions which all living things try to adapt to?
Answer:
All living things try to adapt to various geographical conditions like rocky terrain, steep slopes, flat plains, mountainous regions, forest-covered areas, river basin, etc.