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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Transport and Communication

Class 9 Geography Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Differentiate between:

(A) Railways and roadways
Answer:

Basis	Railways	Roadways
(1) Carrying Capacity	Carrying capacity is more	Carrying capacity is limited
(2) Distance	Suitable for long distances	Suitable for short distance
(3) Door to door service	Railway does not provide door to door service.	Roadways provide door to door service.
(4) Traffic	There is no problem of traffic jam on railways.	There is a problem of traffic jam on roadways.
(5) Pollution	Railways do not create a problem of air pollution.	Roadways create a problem of air pollution.

(B) Transportation and communication
Answer:

Basis	Transportation	Communication
(1) Meaning	Transportation is the movement of humans, animals and goods from one location to another.	Communication is the exchange of information, ideas and messages by speaking, writing or some other medium.
(2) Means	It is done through railways, roadways, waterways, airways and pipelines.	It is done through telephones, mobiles, video-conferencing, email and post etc.
(3) Threats	The threats like a traffic jams, accidents, noise pollution, air pollution are associated with transportation.	The threats like technical issues, cyber crimes, etc. are associated with the communication.

(C) Conventional and modern means of communication.
Answer:

Basis	Conventional means of Communication	Modem means of Communication
(1) Meaning	The means of communication – used since olden times – conventional means of communication.	The means of communication – used in modern times – modern means of communication.
(2) Examples	Letter, newspapers, radio, television.	Mobile phone, internet, etc.
(3) Interaction	May not facilitate the direct interaction between – sender and receivers of information.	Facilitates the direct interaction between – sender and the receivers of information.

2. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
‘Newspapers are used for communication’. Explain the statement.
Answer:

• The news related to economic events, politics, social issues, culture, education, etc. are published in newspapers.
• Newspapers arecheap means of communication. Through newspapers information gets spread to masses at a time.
• Newspapers are published in various languages.
• In this way, newspapers are used for communication.

Thus, newspapers are used for communication.

Question 2.
Explain how T.V. is a cheap means of communication.
Answer:

• Various programs, serials, etc. related to entertainment, social issues, culture, education, politics, economic events, sports, weather conditions, etc. are broadcasted on television.
• Through television the information is exchanged to masses at a time with high speed.
• Television can broadcast both audio and video for communication. In this way, television is a cheap means of communication.

Thus, TV is a cheap means of communication.

Question 3.
What types of communications can be done through mobiles?
Answer:

• Calling and SMS (Short message system) facilitates easy one-to-one communication, using mobiles anywhere and at any time.
• Video conferencing and applications like ‘Whatsapp’ allow one to communicate with many people simultaneously.
• Various functions like, money transfer, payment of bills, purchase of goods and services and online trading can be done using smart phones’ various apps like BHIM, SBI anywhere, etc.
• Internet and social media can also be accessed through mobile phones.

3. Name them on the basis of the given information:

Question 1.
Five cities with airways services in Maharashtra
Answer:
Mumbai, Pune, Nagpur, Kolhapur, Aurangabad, Nashik and Nanded.

Question 2.
Services available in post offices
Answer:

• Financial Services: Saving schemes, insurance services and mutual fund.
• Mail services: Speed post, postcard, parcel and courier.

Question 3.
National Highways near your area
Answer:

• Mumbai- Goa Highway (NH 66)
• Mumbai- Bangaluru highway (NH 04)
• Mumbai- Agra Highway (NH 08)
  Note: Answer may vary.

Question 4.
Ports along the coast of Maharashtra
Answer:

• Malvan
• Venture
• Vasai
• Dahanu
• Gharapuri

4. Identify the relation and match the columns making a chain

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Postal services	Roadways	Speed post
(2) Shivneri	World network of connected computers	Exchange of information
(3) Internet	Conventional means of communication	Comfortable journey
(4) RoRo transport	Railways	Energy, time and labour saving

Answer:

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Postal services	Conventional means of communication	Speed post.
(2) Shivneri	Roadways	Comfortable journey.
(3) Internet	World network of connected computers	Exchange of information.
(4) RoRo transport	Railways	Energy, time and labour saving.

5. Read the following maps and answer the questions:

Question 1.
In which region do you find a dense network of transport routes in the map?
Answer:
The central part of the district has dense network of transport routes.

Question 2.
How is the physiography of the region with dense network?
Answer:
The central part of the district has lower and medium elevation as compared to the Western part.

Question 3.
Which region has a sparse network of transport routes?
Answer:
The transport network is sparse in the Eastern part of the district.

Question 4.
How is the physiography of this region?
Answer:
The region with sparse network of transport . routes is comparatively of lower and medium elevations.

Question 5.
Look for the region lacking transport routes.
Answer:
The Western region lacks transport routes.

Question 6.
What kind of obstruction can you find there?
Answer:
Sahyadri Mountains and Shivsagar reservoir of Koyna dam are the obstructions found here.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Intext Questions and Answers

Let’s Recall

Complete the following table:

Transport	Means of	Used for
Route	Transport
Roadways	Rickshaw	Passengers
Roadways	Trucks
	Metro
Waterways
	Helicopter
Airways
	Submarine
Waterways		Freight
	Mules
Railways
Pipelines

Answer:

Transport	Means of Transport	Used for
Roadways	Rickshaw	Passengers
Roadways	Trucks	Goods
Railways	Metro	Passengers
Waterways	Cruise/Boats	Passengers
Airways	Helicopter	Passengers
Airways	Aeroplane	Passengers
Waterways	Submarine	Defence & Research
Waterways	Cargo-ship	Freight / Goods
Roadways	Mules	Goods
Railways	Cargo goods train	Goods
Pipelines	Pipes	Oil, Water and Gas

Can you tell?

We have given some specific conditions. In this context, tell with reasons which means of transport route will you take?

Question 1.
You have to reach Bhopal from Nagpur due to some emergency.
Answer:
Airways : As it is the fastest mode of transport.

Question 2.
You have to reach Kanyakumari carrying the message of cleanliness. There is no time limit for it.
Answer:
Roadways : Since roadways connect even the remotest places the message can reach to all persons.

Question 3.
Send the Alphonso mangoes from Konkan to Arab countries.
Answer:
Airways – Since mango is a perishable commodity, the fastest mode of transportation is used. ,

Question 4.
Indrayani variety of rice has to be exported from Pune to Cape Town of South Africa at low expenditure.
Answer:
In such conditions, we will choose waterways as a route and ship as a means of transport. Because rice is comparatively durable agricultural good in the given situation it has to be transported at low cost.

Question 5.
Large-scale production of vegetables in Nandurbar has taken place but is not fetching a good price. The Nagpur-Surat National Highway and the Surat-Bhusawal Railway line passes through the district.
Answer:
In a given situation, we will choose roadways and railways as a route and truck and goods’ ways/train respectively as a means of transport. Because the highway and railway line that pass through the district, connects the important towns and cities from the district.

Question 6.
You have to go to Singapore from your village/ town. You have 10 days to do the same.
Answer:
Roadway and Airways: I will first reach the nearest airport of a city by road and then take an Airway. It is the fastest mode of transport.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Make a list of various means of communication you are aware of.
Answer:
Letters, radio, television, telephones, mobile phones, newspaper, internet, satellites etc. are the various means of communication.

Question 2.
How many of these do you actually use? Make a box around them.
Answer:

Question 3.
For what do you use them ?
Answer:
We use these means of communication to exchange important information, ideas, opinions etc. with friends, parents, relatives and teachers.

Question 4.
Who uses the remaining means ?
Answer:
The remaining means are used by parents, other relatives, businessmen from locality and government agencies.

Can you do it?

Observe the image and the instructions given on page 87 of the textbook and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which are the dates mentioned in the image?
Answer:
The dates mentioned are 15/5/2017 and 19/5/2017

Question 2.
What does the information in the image tell?
Answer:
The image informs that the person’s email account has been hacked. He cannot access his important files as they have been encrypted and to recover his files, he will have to pay a certain amount to the hacker.

Question 3.
What is the price asked for recovering the files and in what currency?
Answer:
The price asked for recovering the files is 300 US dollars in bitcoins.

Question 4.
What is the type of crime here?
Answer:
This is a cyber crime.

Give it a try
Think about the transport issues you come across during your journeys. Write the innovative changes you would suggest in the transport routes or means in your copy.

Question 1.
Congested city roads and Pollution
Answer:
Electric cars which are smaller and smarter.

Question 2.
Time-consuming travel
Answer:
Dedicated bus corridors, carpooling, more number of Expressways.

Give it a try

Question 1.
Look for the other uses of artificial satellites? Try to understand how they are related to your daily life?
Answer:
(a) The other uses of artificial satellites are as follows:

• Studying about other planets.
• Live broadcasting of a program/event from any region of the earth.
• Studying the resources on the earth’s surface.
• Regional planning.
• Planning defense strategies.
• Forecasting weather etc.

(b) The artificial satellites are directly or indirectly related to personal, social, educational, economic, cultural, political aspects in everyone’s daily life. For eg. through artificial satellites, one can enjoy a live program like award functions/cricket match, etc. on television.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 11 Transport and Communication Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statement choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
The price of the goods can be kept low if the transportation is ………….. .
(a) feasible
(b) expensive
(c) costly
(d) affordable
Answer:
(d) affordable

Question 2.
…………… growth gets a boost due to transportation.
(a) Physical
(b) Culture
(c) Economic
(d) Political
Answer:
(c) Economic

Question 3.
Freight transport through …………… is costlier than railways.
(a) trucks
(b) horses
(c) bullock-cart
(d) yak
Answer:
(a) trucks

Question 4.
The western part of Satara district is occupied by the …………… of its off shoots.
(a) Vindhyas
(b) Satpudas
(c) Sahyadris
(d) Aravallis
Answer:
(c) Sahyadris

Question 5.
The use of RORO (Roll on Roll off) services started in …………… railways in India.
(a) Goa
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Konkan
(d) Pune
Answer:
(c) Konkan

Question 6.
In the modem age, man-made …………… are an important and effective means of communication.
(a) planets
(b) asteroids
(c) satellites
(d) rockets
Answer:
(c) satellites

Question 7.
Satellite images obtained by …………… facilitate study of resources on Earth’s surface and help in regional planning.
(a) GPS
(b) radio
(c) remote sensing1
(d) drones
Answer:
(c) remote sensing

Question 8.
Communication is not just limited to talking on telephones or sending messages but …………… is also available now.
(a) tele-calling
(b) STD-Calling
(c) video-calling
(d) Local-calling
Answer:
(c) Video-calling

Question 9.
There is a correlation between transport routes and the …………… of region.
(a) soil type
(b) rainfall
(c) climate
(d) physiography2
Answer:
(d) physiography

Question 10.
Transport facilities can develop well in …………… region.
(a) mountainous
(b) plain
(c) forest
(d) plateau
Answer:
(b) plain

Question 11.
Shiv sagar reservoir of the …………… dam is located in the Satara district.
(a) Ram Krishna
(b) Bhakra-Nagal
(c) Koyna
(d) Tehri
Answer:
(c) Koyna

Question 12.
The …………… part of Satara district has a dense transport network.
(a) Western
(b) Central
(c) Eastern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(b) central.

Write answers in one sentence

Question 1.
What is transportation?
Answer:
The movement of goods and people from one place to another is called transportation.

Question 2.
Which are the different kinds of transport routes?
Answer:
Roadways, railways, waterways, airways and pipelines are the different kinds of transport routes.*

Question 3.
For what reasons does a region become devoid of any transport route?
Answer:
Due to mountains, valleys, rivers, reservoirs

1. remote sensing – obtaining information regarding any place or an object without actually establishing direct contact with it is called remote sensing.
2. physiography – nature and slope of land and undulating1 topography2 a region becomes devoid of any transport route.

Question 4.
Why does a dense network of transportation develop in some regions?
Answer:
A dense network of transportation develops in some regions due to lower and medium elevation, plains, flat and regular topography, etc.

Question 5.
What does Ro-Ro transport stand for?
Answer:
Ro-Ro transport is Roll-on, Roll-off transport.

Question 6.
Why was the Ro-Ro transport introduced?
Answer:
Freight transport by trucks is costlier than railways, so as a solution the Ro-Ro transport has been introduced.

Question 7.
What are Cyber Crimes?
Answer:
Crimes like website/email hacking, theft of information, economic frauds, wars, terrorism, etc. that are committed by using computers and internet are called ‘cyber crimes’.

Question 8.
How are BHIM app, SBI anywhere app useful?
Answer:
BHIM App, SBI Anywhere app, helps us to pay various bills, sell, buy and carry out various transactions through mobile phones.

Question 9.
Where was Ro-Ro service introduced for the first time in India?
Answer:
Ro-Ro service, was introduced for the first time in India by the Konkan Railway.

Give Reasons:

Question 1.
The development of transportation is an indicator of the development of that region.
Answer:

• With development of transportation there is an increase in the movement of freight and passengers of that region.
• Development of transportation develops industries and markets.
• Per capita Income (PCI) and Gross Domestic product (GDP) increases leading to economic growth.
• So it is said that development of transportation is an indicator of the development of that region.

Question 2.
Green Corridor saves many lives.
Answer:

1. Green Corridor is a route cleared of all traffic obstacles, so that a dead person’s (donor’s) organs can be speedily transported to the receiver
2. It is called ‘green’ corridor because the traffic lights are turned green for the speedy movement of the vehicle carrying the organ.
3. Thus, Green Corridor saves many lives.

Question 3.
Ro-Ro Transport helps to reduce cost of transport.
Answer:

• In Ro-Ro (Roll-on, Roll-off) transport, the trucks loaded with goods are transported to desired railway stations through a goods train.
• From there the trucks take the goods ahead to the desired locations.
• Ro-Ro transport helps to reduce the cost of transport as railways are used for the part of the distance.
• Ro-Ro transport also reduces cost of fuel and pollution caused by trucks.

Answer in details:

Question 1.
Give the Importance of transportation.
Answer:
Transportation is a basic infrastructure.
The development of transportation infrastructure is an indicator of the development of the particular region or a country.

The importance of transportation can be explained with the help of the following points :

• Extending trade and network.
• Rapid industrialisation.
• Availability of employment opportunities.
• Regional connectivity.
• Utility of the site.
• Overcoming scarcity (deficit).
• Decreasing regional imbalance1.
• Tourism development.

Question 2.
Give the Importance of a communication system.
Answer:

• Communication or exchange of information is an important process in today’s era. Communication is basic infrastructure.
• Man-made satellites are an important and effective means of communication.
• The exchange of messages through mobiles, watching progammes on television, getting updates of climatic condition etc. is possible simultaneously through man-made satellites.
• Satellite images obtained by remote sensing facilitate study of resources on earth’s surface and helps in regional planning.
• Many apps which can be used on mobile phones have been developed for the same.
• For e.g. BHIM app, SBI anywhere, etc. By using these communicational facilities, we can pay various bills, sell and buy goods and services and carry other such transactions.
• Nowadays, communication is not just limited to talking on telephone or sending messages but also video calling is available now.

Explain:

Question 1.
Factors to be kept in mind while selecting the route way and the means of transport.
Answer:
The following factors should be kept in mind while selecting the route way and means of transport:

• Distance
• Duration
• Cost
• Time
• Products
• Climate
• Market
• Routes and means
• Physiography

Question 2.
Importance of Transportation.
Answer:

1. The development of transportation infrastructure is an indicator of the development of the country or that region.
2. The reforms in the transport sector enhance the dynamicity of freight and passengers in a region.
3. Industries and markets develop. Economic growth gets a boost. Per Capita Income (PCI) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increases too.
4. Transportation leads to –
   • Extending trade and network
   • Rapid industrialisation
   • Availability of employment opportunities
   • Regional connectivity
   • Utility of the site
   • Overcoming scarcity (weakness)
   • The decrease in regional imbalance
   • Tourism development

Question 3.
Importance of man-made satellites.
Answer:

• In the modern age, man-made satellites are an important and effective means of communication.
• The exchange of messages through mobiles, watching programmes on TV and getting updated information regarding climatic conditions is possible simultaneously through man-made satellites.
• Satellite images obtained by remote sensing facilitate study of resources on earth’s surface and help in regional planning.

Thus, man-made satellites are important.

Question 4.
Green Corridor.
Answer:

• It happens that sometimes a dead person has donated his organs.
• In such cases, such organs need to be transported from the donor’s location to the receiver urgently.
• For this organ transfer, all types of routes are cleared of all obstacles. This is called Green Corridor.
• Consequently, this kind of rapid transport corridor can save the receiver’s life.

Question 5.
Threats associated with means of communication.
Answer:

• Besides facilities, means of communication have a few threats associated with them.
• Many crimes are happening through the internet like website/email hacking, fraud, theft, attack, wars and terrorism. Possibilities of threats like theft of information, economic frauds, attacking important websites etc. arise.
• Therefore, one should take precautions while using social networks.
• One should not reveal personal information before ensuring safety.
• One should not put any sensitive information or personal information on social networking sites, blogs, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Trade

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Classify the trade taking place between the following regions:

(1) Maharashtra and Punjab
(2) India and Japan
(3) Lasalgaon and Pune
(4) China and Canada
(5) India and European Union
Answer:
(1) Internal trade
(2) International trade
(3) Internal trade
(4) International trade
(5) International trade

2. Write the correct word- Import or Export for the following :

(1) India buys crude oil from the Middle-East Asian countries.
(2) Wheat is sent to Asian countries from Canada.
(3) Japan sends machine parts to APEC countries.
Answer:
(1) Import
(2) Export
(3) Export

3. Correct and rewrite the wrong statements:

(A) India is a self-sufficient country.
Answer:
India is not a self-sufficient country as it depends on other countries for crude oil, machinery, etc.

(B) The place where there is excess production does not have demand for those products.
Answer:
The place where there is excess production more creates ‘supply’ for those products.

(C) International trade processes are easier than local trade.
Answer:
International trade processes are relatively more difficult than local trade.

4. Identify and write the type of trade:

(A) Srushti brought sugar from the grocery shop.
Answer:
Retail Trade.

(B) The traders from Surat bought cotton from the farmers of Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

(C) Sameer has exported pomegranates from his farms to Australia.
Answer:
International Trade.

(D) Sadabhau bought 10 sacks of wheat and 5 sacks of rice from Market Yard for selling in his own shop.
Answer:
Wholesale Trade.

5. Write answers in short:

(A) Create a flowchart showing the types of trade
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling for fulfilling each other’s needs.
Trade is divided into two categories:

• On the basis of the quantity of goods.
• On the basis of the extent of trade region.
  

(B) Explain the difference in types of balances of trade.
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.
The different types of balance of trade are:

• Unfavourable Balance of Trade: When the value of imports is more than the value of exports, it is called ‘Unfavourable Balance of Trade.’
  
• Favourable Balance of Trade: When the value of exports is more than the value of imports, it is called ‘Favourable Balance of Trade.’
• Balanced Balance of Trade: When the value of exports and imports is almost the same, it is called ‘Balanced Balance of Trade.’
  

(C) State the objectives of WTO.
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation. The main objectives of WTO are:

• To provide platform for negotiations in international trade.
• To handle the differences related to trade.
• To monitor the trade policies of member states.
• To provide a technological assistance and training to developing countries.

(D) What is the difference between the OPEC and APEC in terms of their functions?
Answer:

OPEC	APEC
(i) OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.	APEC stands for Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).
(ii) OPEC is the organisation of oil-producing and exporting countries.	APEC is the regional organisation of the countries in the Asia Pacific region.
(iii) It keeps control over the international trade of crude oil.	It promotes free trade and economic cooperation among the member countries.
(iv) It keeps control on the rates of crude oil production among member states.	It promotes regional and technical cooperation among members.

(E) Write the functions of the important trade organisations in Asia.
Answer:
Important trade organisations in Asia are:
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)

• To expand social and cultural harmony along with economic growth in South East Asia.
• To promote regional peace.
• To promote tax waivers for trade growth in member states.

Asia Pacific Economic Co-operation (APEC)

• To promote free trade and economic co¬operation in the Asia-Pacific Ocean region.
• To promote regional and technical co-operation among members.

(F) What is the importance of marketing from farmers ‘point of view’?
Answer:
Marketing involves price of a commodity, its sales promotion, its advertising and its proper distribution.

• In the traditional marketing system, the farmers used to sell their products in the local market at whatever price available. This is because the fruits and vegetables are perishable, so the farmers used to incur losses,
• However, the modem farmers have acquired skills in marketing. They are aware of the trends in the market.
• They produce food grains and fruits as per the international standards.
• They undertake grading and packaging of their products. The presentation of any product has become indispensable now.
• They advertise the quality of their product and keep the same for sale, along with samples, in the mall.
• These commercial-minded farmers contact the supermarkets and exporters through the internet.
• As a result, their products are sold at a higher price in the malls. They also fetch a good price from exports.
• Thus marketing is as important as the cultivation of crops. By following modem marketing techniques, the income of the farmers can increase and that can improve their standard of living.

6. In the following table, export-import of some countries in the year 2014-15 is given in million U.S. dollars. Make a compound bar graph of the given statistical information. Read the bar diagram carefully and comment upon the balance of payments of the respective countries.

Country	Export	Import
China	2143	1960
India	272	380
Brazil	190	241
USA	1510	2380

Answer:

• China has a balance of trade.
• India, USA and Brazil have an unfavourable balance of trade.
• The volume of international trade of China and the USA is maximum.
• International trade of India and Brazil is insignificant.
• International trade is dominated by China and the USA.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps!

Find out the names of the member-states of the following organisation with the help of internet. Show these member nations on the outline map given in the figure using different colour for each organisation.
(1) OPEC member – countries
(2) SAARC member – countries
Answer:

(1) OPEC member- countries
Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, Venezuela, Qatar, Libya, The United Arab Emirates, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea (2017).

(2) SAARC countries
Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.

Can you tell?

With a lot of hard work Dhondiba used to grow best varieties of vegetables and other agricultural commodities. But his products could not fetch a good price. His college-going son, saw this situation and he first packed the commodities nicely after cleaning them neatly. Then he contacted the supermarket in the town. Looking at the quality of his product, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Today, Dhondiba’s commodities are being sold for higher prices than before.

Question 1.
Why did Dhondiba’s commodities start getting higher prices?
Answer:
For any commodity to be accepted in the market and fetch a better price, it should have an appropriate presentation. The price of the commodity is determined by its quality, its grading and how it is presented before the customer. Dhondiba’s son who was educated, realized this and took the necessary actions in time which helped Dhondiba to fetch better price.

Question 2.
What did Dhondiba’s son do for that?
Answer:
Dhondiba’s college-going son realised that the agricultural commodities sold by his father lacked proper presentation and marketing. So he adopted modem marketing practices like cleaned the commodities well and packed them nicely. He then got in touch with the supermarket in the town. The supermarket was impressed with the quality of Dhondiba’s products, they advertised the farm product and kept it for sale in the mall. Dhondiba’s commodities were in great demand and sold at higher prices than before.

Question 3.
What measures would you suggest to the farmers near you so that then commodities can fetch a good price?
Answer:
Some of the measures that we can suggest to the farmers so that then commodities can fetch a better price are:

• Clean their vegetables, fruits well.
• Grade the commodities.
• Pack them nicely.
• Advertise their farm products.
• Sell it in the market.

Give it a try.

Obtain information regarding the bilateral trade between India and Japan for any financial year and the value of the export and import of major goods. Write two paragraphs on it.
Answer:
India’s Trade with Japan (April 2016-Jan 2017)

Exports	₹ 20,000 Cr
Imports	₹ 55,000 Cr
Trade Balance	₹ 35,000 Cr

This shows that India has an Unfavourable Balance of Trade with Japan, in which the value of Imports is more than the value of Exports.

India’s major exports to Japan
Petroleum products, Iron ore, Fish Meat (including lobsters, crabs, shrimps etc) Motor parts, Insecticides, Fungicides, Turbo-jets, Gas turbines etc.

India’s major imports from Japan
Iron and Steel Products, Transport Equipments, Plastic, Machinery items like Drilling Platforms, Floating Cranes, Printing machinery etc.

Think about it.

Question 1.
What will happen if there is only one currency used in the whole world?
Answer:
The European Union is an example, which has one common currency ‘Euro’.
Advantages of having one common currency. If the whole world has one common currency, international trade will become much easier and move will increase international trade also. Disadvantages of having one common currency.

If all the countries adopt one common currency, there will be one uniform policy. No country will be able to have their own monetary and fiscal policy.

Find out.

You get products from other places. Similarly, find out where the special products/items made in your village/city are sent?
Answer:
I live in Mumbai.
Special products exported from Mumbai and where they are sent:
Cotton textiles – China, USA
Commercial vehicles – Mexico, South Africa

Try this.

(I) Obtain the following information.

Question 1.
Make a list of commodities which you use daily.
Answer:
Toothpaste, powder, tea, hair oil, biscuits, food grains.

Question 2.
Who uses these commodities?
Answer:
We as consumers use these commodities.

Question 3.
Write the sources of supplies of these commodities.
Answer:
Producers are the source of supplies.

Question 4.
From where do you buy these commodities?
Answer:
Retail Shop.

Question 5.
What do you call the act of buying and selling?
Answer:
Trade.

Question 6.
What does the shopkeeper take in lieu of the commodity?
Answer:
The shopkeeper takes money (currency) in lieu of the commodity.

(II) A list of few goods you regularly use at home, is given here. Write the names of the product, the producer company’s name and the source of information in front of it.

Goods that Name of the you use	Name of the company	Source of information
Colgate Toothpaste	Palmolive	T.V. advertisement
Coffee Nescafe	Nestle	T.V. advertisement
Bathing Soap Lux	Unilever	T.V. advertisement
Hair Oil Parachute	Marica India	T.V. advertisement
Biscuits Parle G	Parle Products	T.V. advertisement

 Choice may vary from consumer to consumer.

(F) Use your brain power! (Textbook Page no. 70) Suppose you are a trader and you want to sell your product in other states of the country and also in other parts of the world

Question 1.
Which of these is an easier way of doing trade?
Answer:
To sell the product in other states of the country, domestic or internal trade is easier. To sell the product in other parts of the world, international trade, i.e. export trade is done

Question 2.
Which trade can bring some limitations?
Answer:
International trade.

Question 3.
Look for reasons behind them
Answer:
Factors like economy of the country, government policis, markets, laws, judicial system, currency, language and political relation between the two trading countries can bring limitations in international trade.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 9 Trade Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing a colored option from the bracket:

Question 1.
…………………. refers to buying and selling goods and services to fulfill each other’s needs.
(a) Trade
(b) Business
(c) Labelling
(d) Branding
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 2.
When there is buying and selling of goods it is called ………………….. trade.
(a) invisible
(b) visible
(c) impossible
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) visible

Question 3.
Buying and selling in large quantities is called ………………….. trade.
(a) wholesale
(b) retail
(c) invisible
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) wholesale

Question 4.
………………….. trade refers to buying and selling in small quantities.
(a) Invisible
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Retail

Question 5.
………………….. trade means buying goods and services from another country
(a) Export
(b) Retail
(c) Wholesale
(d) Import
Answer:
(d) Import

Question 6.
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called ………………….. balance of trade.
(a) favourable
(b) unfavorable
(c) balanced
(d) possible
Answer:
(b) unfavorable

Question 7.
………………….. was formed to control the international trade of crude oil.
(a) OPEC
(b) APEC
(c) ASEAN
(d) WTO
Answer:
(a) OPEC

Question 8.
BRICS stands for …………………. .
(a) Brazil, Russia, Indonesia, China and Sudan
(b) Belgium, Rome, India, China and South Africa
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa
Answer:
(b) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa

Question 9.
………………….. was formed to establish an integrated market2 in member nations in Europe.
(a) EU
(b) ASEAN
(c) BRICS
(d) OPEC
Answer:
(a) EU

Question 10.
………………….. trade means the exchange of goods and services of one country with other countries.
(a) Retail
(b) Wholesale
(c) International
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) International

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) WTO	(a) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
(2) BRICS	(b) World Trade Organisation.
(3) Favourable balance of trade	(c) Value of exports is more than value of imports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – a),
(3 – c)

Question 2.

International organisations	Headquarters
(1) EU (2) WTO (3) SAARC	(a)  Kathmandu (Nepal) (b) Jakarta (Indonesia) (c)  Geneva (Switzerland) (d)  Brussels (Belgium)

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) OPEC	(a) Expanding social and cultural harmony in South East Asia.
(2) APEC	(b) Controlling international trade of crude oil.
(3) ASEAN	(c) Free trade in Asia- Pacific Ocean region.
	(d) When value of imports is more than the value of exports.

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 -a)

Write answers in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What do you mean by trade?
Answer:
Trade refers to buying and selling of goods and services to fulfil each other’s needs.

Question 2.
What is visible trade3?
Answer:
When there is buying and selling of goods it is known as visible trade.

Question 3.
What is invisible trade4?
Answer:
When there is exchange of services, it is known as invisible trade.

Question 4.
Who conducts wholesale trade?
Answer:
Wholesale trade is conducted by wholesalers.

Question 5.
What do you mean by domestic trade?
Answer:
Domestic or internal trade is the trade that takes place within the geographical boundaries of one country. For eg. Trade between Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 6.
What is international trade?
Answer:
International trade means buying and selling of goods and services between two or more countries. For example, trade between USA and India.

Question 7.
What do you mean by import trade?
Answer:
Import trade means buying goods and services from another country. For eg. India imports crude oil from Kuwait.

Question 8.
What is export trade?
Answer:
When country sells its goods and services to another country, it is called export trade. For eg. India exports rice to USA.

Question 9.
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
The difference between the import and export values of a country in a specific period is called balance of trade.

Question 10.
What do you mean by unfavourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of imports is more than the value of exports it is called unfavourable balance of trade.

Question 11.
What is favourable balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports is more than the value of imports it is called favourable balance of trade.

Question 12.
What is balanced balance of trade?
Answer:
When the value of exports and imports is almost same, it is called balanced balance of trade.

Question 13.
What is WTO?
Answer:
WTO stands for World Trade Organisation.

Question 14.
What does EU stand for?
Answer:
EU stands for European Union which comprises of 28 European countries.

Question 15.
What does OPEC stand for?
Answer:
OPEC stands for Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Question 16.
Give extended form of.
(i) SAARC
(ii) ASEAN
(iii) APEC
(iv) BRICS
Answer:
(i) SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
(ii) ASEAN – Association of South-East Asian Nations.
(iii) APEC – Asia-Pacific Economic Co-operation.
(iv) BRICS – Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Some economic organisations of the world

Give Reason

Question 1.
Some international economic organisations were set up
Answer:
Some international economic organisations were set up:

• To smoothen the process of trade between countries of different economic status.
• To facilitate the growth of international trade.

Question 2.
The Consumer Protection Act been enacted
Answer:

1. The Consumer Protection Act has been enacted to protect the consumers from fraudulent traders supplying sub-standard products.
2. Many advertisements make exaggerated statements to cheat the consumers and these advertisements use incorrect information.
3. The Consumer Protection Act empowers consumers with their rights and duties. Consumers have right to complain and seek redressal.

Explain the following:

Question 1.
What do you mean by wholesale trade?
Answer:

• In wholesale trade, the traders buy goods on a large scale from industrialists, farmers, etc. For eg. the orchard owners of mangoes or oranges sell their entire production to wholesale traders.
• The wholesalers in turn sell these commodities to the retail traders.

Question 2.
What is retail trade?
Answer:

• The process of buying in small quantities from wholesalers and selling in small quantities to the consumers is called retail trade.
• For eg. the shopkeepers selling food grains, vegetable vendors in markets.

Question 3.
What is marketing?
Answer:

• An invisible flow develops when a product goes from producer1 to consumer.
• The commercial functions involved in this flow are collectively called marketing.

Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Explain the importance of trade.
Answer:
The importance of trade are:

• Trade is an important economic activity.
• The economic life of people is dependent on each other.
• No region or country is self-sufficient.
• Trade between two regions is necessary to fulfill the needs of the people.
• As each region has different geographical conditions, each region produces specific commodities.

Question 2.
What is barter trade?
Answer:

• In ancient and medieval periods, trade was done through barter system.
• Barter trade means exchange of commodities for commodities without using money, is a medium.
• For eg. grains in exchange of work done or salt exchanged for oil.
• But it created the problem of estimating the price of a commodity correctly. As a result, currency started being used.

Question 3.
Mention the functions of the European Union.
Answer:
The main functions of the European Union are:

• Establishing an integrated market in member nations amongst Europe.
• Free flow of goods, services and capital in Europe.
• Custom duties have been cancelled on exchange of goods within members.
• Common ‘Euro’ currency for the member countries.

Question 4.
Which factors influence trade?
Answer:
The factors which influence trade are:

• Factors like the economy of the country, government policies, markets, laws, judicial systems, currency, language, etc. influence trade.
• Political relations between two countries also influence trade between them.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Current Electricity Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Current Electricity

Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Current Electricity Textbook Questions and Answers

1. The accompanying figure shows some electrical appliances connected in a circuit in a house. Answer the following questions.

A. By which method are the appliances connected?
Answer:
Appliances are connected in parallel.

B. What must be the potential difference across individual appliances?
Answer:
The potential difference across all appliances is same in parallel connection.

C. Will the current passing through each appliance be the same? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, as every appliance has a different load (resistance), the current flowing through each appliance will be different.

D. Why are the domestic appliances connected in this way?
Answer:
The domestic appliances are connected in parallel as the potential difference remains same.

E. If the T.V. stops working, will the other appliances also stop working? Explain your answer.
Answer:
No, the other devices will not stop working as the current flowing through them is along different paths.

2. The following figure shows the symbols for components used in the accompanying electrical circuit.

Which law can you prove with the help of the above circuit?
Answer:

(b) This circuit can be used to prove Ohm’s law.
(c) V = 1R is the expression of Ohm’s law

3. Umesh has two bulbs having resistances of 15 W and 30 W. He wants to connect them in a circuit, but if he connects them one at a time the filament gets burnt. Answer the following.

A. Which method should he use to connect the bulbs?
B. What are the characteristics of this way of connecting the bulbs depending on the answer of A above?
C. What will be the effective resistance in the above circuit?

4. The following table shows current in Amperes and potential difference in Volts.

a. Find the average resistance.
b. What will be the nature of the graph between the current and potential difference? (Do not draw a graph.)
c. Which law will the graph prove? Explain the law.

5. Match the pairs

‘A’ Group – ‘B’ Group
1. Free electrons – a. V/ R
2. Current – b. Increases the resistance in the circuit
3. Resistivity – c. Weakly attached
4. Resistances in series – d. VA/LI

6. The resistance of a conductor of length x is r. If its area of crosssection is a, what is its resistivity? What is its unit?

7. Resistances R₁, R₂, R₃ and R₄ are connected as shown in the figure. S₁ and S₂ are two keys. Discuss the current flowing in the circuit in the following cases.

a. Both S₁ and S₂ are closed.
b. Both S₁ and S₂ are open.
c. S₁ is closed but S₂ is open.
Answer:
(a) When both S₁ and S₂ are dosed, the effective resistance of the circuit decreases and hence, current will increase.
(b) When both S₁ and S₂ are open, the effective resistance of the rircuit increases and hence, current will decrease.
(c) When S₂ is closed and S₂ is open, the effective resistance of the tircuit decreases and hence current will increase. [Current will be more than case (b) but less than in case (a)]

8. Three resistances x₁, x₂ and x₃ are connected in a circuit in different ways. x is the effective resistance. The properties observed for these different ways of connecting x₁, x₂ and x₃ are given below. Write the way in which they are connected in each case. (I-current, V-potential difference, x-effective resistance)

a. Current I flows through x₁, x₂ and x₃
b. x is larger than x₁, x₂ and x₃
c. x is smaller than x₁, x₂ and x₃
d. The potential difference across x₁, x₂and x₃ is the same
e. x = x₁ + x₂ + x₃
\(\text { f. } x=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{x_{1}}+\frac{1}{x_{2}}+\frac{1}{x_{3}}}\)

9. Solve the following problems.

A. The resistance of a 1m long nichrome wire is 6Ω. If we reduce the length of the wire to 70 cm. what will its resistance be? (Answer : 4.2Ω)
Answer:
The resistance of 70cm wire will be 4.2 Ω

B. When two resistors are connected in series, their effective resistance is 80Ω. When they are connected in parallel, their effective resistance is 20Ω. What are the values of the two resistances? (Answer : 40Ω, 40Ω)
Answer:
The values of the two resistances R₁ and R₂ are 40Ω and 40Ω.

C. If a charge of 420 C flows through a conducting wire in 5 minutes what is the value of the current? (Answer : 1.4 A)
Answer:
Given: Electric charge (Q) = 420 C
Time (t) = 5 min = 5 x 60
= 300 sec.
To find: Electric current (1) = ?
Formula:
\(I=\frac{Q}{t}\)
Solution:
\(I=\frac{Q}{t}\)
The current in the circuit is 1.4 A.

Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Current Electricity Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall?

Question 1.
You must have seen a waterfall. Which way does the water flow?
Answer:
Water flows from a certain height of a mountain towards the ground.

Question 2.
Material: Copper and aluminium wires, glass rod, rubber.
Make connection as shown in figure 3.8. First connect a copper wire between points A and B and measure the current in the circuit. Then in place of the copper wire, connect the aluminium wire, glass rod, rubber, etc one at a time and measure the current each time. Compare the values of the current in different cases.

Also take different metal strips (Iron, Copper, Zinc, and Aluminium) and connect it in slot AB. Now observe the difference in the resistance using Ohm meter.
Answer:
When copper and aluminium wires are connected to the circuit, current flows through it, as both are good conductors of electricity. When glass rod or rubber was connected to the circuit, current does not flow through it, as both are bad conductors of electricity.

Copper displays lowest resistance while the resistance increases with aluminium, zinc and iron respectively.

Question 3.
Set up the experiment as shown in figure. Then remove the clamp from the rubber tube.

(a) What happens when the clamp is removed?
Answer:
When the clamp is removed, water flows from higher level to lower level.

(b) Does the water stop flowing? Why?
Answer:
Yes, the water stops flowing. This happens when the level of water becomes equal in both the bottles, i.e., there is no difference in the water levels.

(c) What will you do to keep the water flowing for a longer duration?
Answer:
The difference in the water level has to be maintained till that time. The difference must never be zero.

Question 4.
Point out the mistakes in the figure below:

Answer:
A: Wire is broken at the negative terminal. Bulb will not glow as the circuit is incomplete.
B: Wire is disconnected at the negative terminal. Bulb will not glow as the circuit is incomplete.
C: The circuit is complete. Therefore, bulb will glow.
D: Rubber is a bad conductor of electricity. Hence, it will not allow current to flow and the bulb will not glow.

Question 5.
Why are the bulbs in Figures B, C and D not lighting up?

Answer:

• In B, the blue wire is broken. Hence circuit is incomplete and current does not flow. Therefore, bulb will not light up.
• In C, the red wire is broken. Hence circuit is incomplete and current does not flow. Therefore, bulb will not light up.
• In D, both wires are connected to the same terminal. Hence, there is no potential difference and current does not flow. Therefore, bulb will not light up.

Class 9 Science Chapter 3 Current Electricity Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose and write the correct option:

Question 1.
1mA = …………… A.
(a) 10³
(b) 10^-3
(c) 10⁶
(d) 10^-6
Answer:
(a) 10³

Question 2.
To increase the effective resistance in a circuit the resistors are connected in ………….. .
(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Both ways
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) series

Question 3.
1 kilowatt hr = …………… joules.
(a) 4.6 x 10⁶
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶
(c) 30.6 x 10⁶
(d) 3.6 x 1O⁵
Answer:
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶

Question 4.
The voltage difference in India between the live and neutral wires is about ………….. .
(a) 110 V
(b) 220 V
(c) 440 V
(d) 60 V
Answer:
(b) 220 V

Question 5.
Resistivity is the specific property of a ………….. .
(a) Area of cross-section
(b) Temperature
(c) Length
(d) Material
Answer:
(d) material

Question 6.
If a P.D. of 12 V is applied across a 3Ω resistor then the current passing through it is ………….. .
(a) 36 A
(b) 4 A
(c) 0.25 A
(d) 15 A
Answer:
(b) 4 A.

Question 7.
In order to measure the electric current flowing through a circuit, we connect …………… with the circuit.
(a) a voltmeter in parallel
(b) a voltmeter in series
(c) an ammeter in parallel
(d) an ammeter in series
Answer:
(d) an ammeter in series

Question 8.
P and Q are two wires of same length and different cross-sectional areas and made of same material. Name the property which is same for both the wires.
(a) Resistivity
(b) Resistance
(c) Current
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Resistivity

Question 9.
The following is true for identical bulbs connected in parallel.
(a) All bulbs glow with unequal brightness.
(b) If one bulb is non-functional, all will stop working.
(c) All bulbs glow with equal brightness.
(d) Bulbs function for longer time.
Answer:
(c) All bulbs glow with equal brightness

Question 10.
The …………… wire is either yellow or green in colour.
(a) Live
(b) Neutral
(c) Earth
(d) Fuse
Answer:
(c) earth

Question 11.
A current flows through a circuit due to the difference in …………… between two points in the conductor.
(a) Gravity
(b) Potential
(c) Resistance
(d) Fuse
Answer:
(b) potential

Question 12.
…………… is the amount of charge flowing through a particular cross sectional area in unit time.
(a) Electric current
(b) Ampere
(c) Volt
(d) Force
Answer:
(a) Electric current

Question 13.
The flow of …………… constitutes the electric current in a wire.
(a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gravitons
Answer:
(c) electrons

Question 14.
The conventional direction of flow of current is from …………… terminal to …………… terminal.
(a) Negative to positive
(b) Neutral to positive
(c) Positive to negative
(d) Positive to neutral
Answer:
(c) positive, negative

Question 15.
Current stops flowing when potential difference between two ends of a wire becomes ………….. .
(a) Zero
(b) Positive
(c) Negative
(d) Higher
Answer:
(a) zero

Question 16.
Resistances are connected in …………… so as to pass the same current through them.
(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Reversed
(d) Disconnect
Answer:
(a) series

Question 17.
To decrease the effective resistance in a circuit, the resistances are connected in ………….. .
(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Reversed
(d) Disconnect
Answer:
(b) parallel

Question 18.
1μV = …………… V
(a) 10²
(b) 10^-6
(c) 10⁶
(d) 10³
Answer:
(b) 10^-6

Question 19.
Good conductors contain a large number of ………….. .
(a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gravitons
Answer:
(c) free electrons

Question 20.
Electrons flow from …………… terminal to …………… terminal in a conductor when a potential difference is applied.
(a) Negative to positive
(b) Neutral to positive
(c) Positive to negative
(d) Positive to neutral
Answer:
(a) negative, positive

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Voltmeter, Ammeter, Galvanometer, Thermometer
Answer:
Thermometer

Question 2.
Rubber, Silver, Copper, Gold
Answer:
Rubber

Question 3.
Wood, Glass, Steel, Rubber
Answer:
Steel

Question 4.
Graphite, Diamond, Fullerenes, Coal
Answer:
Fullerenes

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Voltmeter and Ammeter
Answer:

Voltmeter	Ammeter
(i) It is an instrument used to measure the potential difference between two terminals of a cell.	(i) It is an instrument to measure the electric current flowing through a circuit.
(ii) It is connected in parallel with the cell.	(ii) It is connected in series with the cell.
(iii) It has a very high resistance.	(iii) It has a very low resistance.
(iv) Voltmeter has range of volts.	(iv) Ammeter has range of amps.

Question 2.
Ohmic conductors and Non-Ohmic conductors
Answer:

Conductors	Insulators
(i) Substances which have very low electrical resistances are called conductors.	(i) Substances which have extremely high electrical resistances are called Insulators.
(ii) They contain a large number of free electrons.	(ii) They contain practically no free electrons.
(iii) Conductors are mostly metals.	(iii) Insulators are mostly non metals.
(iv) Conductor example iron, copper.	(iv) Insulator example rubber, plastic.

Question 3.
Conductors and Insulators
Answer:

Resistance	Resistivity
(i) The hindrance to the flow of electrons is called resistance.	(i) Resistivity is the specific property of the material of a conductor.
(ii) The S.I. unit of resistance is ohm (Q).	(ii) The S.I. unit of resistivity is ohm-metre (Q – m).
(iii) It depends on temperature, area of cross-section, length of conductor and material of the conductor.	(iii) It depends on material of the conductor.
(iv) Resistance can be changed as it depends of external factor as well.	(iv) Resistivity cannot be changed as it depends of internal factors.

Question 4.
Resistance in Series and Resistance in Parallel
Answer:

Resistance in Series	Resistance in Parallel
(i) Effective resistance of the resistors is equal to the sum of their individual resistances.	(i) Inverse of the effective resistance is equal to the sum of the inverse of individual resistances.
(ii) The same current flows through each resistor.	(ii) The total current flowing through the circuit is the sum of the currents flowing through individual resistors.
(iii) The effective resistance is larger than each of the individual resistances.	(iii) The effective resistance of resistors connected in parallel is less than the least resistance of individual resistors.
(iv) This arrangement is used to increase the resistance in a circuit.	(iv) This arrangement is used to decrease the resistance in a circuit.

Question 5.
Answer:

Electric current	Potential difference
(i) The flow of electric charge per unit time is called electric current.	(i) The difference in potential between the positive and negative terminal of a cell is the potential difference of that cell.
(ii) The S.I. unit of electric current is ampere.	(ii) The S.I. unit of potential difference volt.
(iii) Ammeter is used to measure electric current.	(iii) Voltmeter is used to measure electric current.
(iv) Current is represented by: \(\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{t}}\)	(iv) Potential difference is represented by: \(\mathrm{V}=\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{Q}}\)

Make pair:

Question 1.
Copper : Conductor :: Rubber : ……………….
Answer:
Insulator

Question 2.
Aluminium : ………………. :: Indium oxide : Super Insulator
Answer:
Super conductor

Question 3.
Parallel Connection : \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{p}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\) :: Series Connection : ……………….
Answer:
R_s = R₁ + R₂

(4) Electric Current : ………………. :: Electric charge : Coulomb
Answer:
Ampere

(5) Electric resistance : Ohm :: Potential difference : ……………….
Answer:
Volt

State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the false statements:

(1) The SI unit of charge is volt.
(2) Voltmeter is always connected in series with the device.
(3) The conventional direction of flow of current is from positive terminal to negative terminal.
(4) Silver and copper are good conductors.
(5) Resistivity of pure metals is more than alloys.
(6) Resistance in series arrangement is used to decrease resistance of circuit.
(7) A conducting wire offers less resistance to flow of electrons.
(8) Charges are measured in ampere.
(9) The unit of potential difference is ampere.
(10) Resistance of a conductor is inversely proportional to the length of the conductor.
(11) Ammeter is connected in parallel to the cell to measure current.
(12) Fuse is made of wire having high melting point.
Answer:
(1) False. The SI unit of charge is coulomb.
(2) False. Voltmeter is ahvays connected in parallel with the device.
(3) True
(4) True
(5) False. Resistivity of pure metals is less than alloys.
(6) False. Resistance in series arrangement is used to increase resistance of circuit.
(7) True
(8) False. Charges are measured in coulomb.
(9) False. The unit of potential difference is volt.
(10) False. Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor.
(11) False. Ammeter is connected in series to the cell to measure current.
(12) False. Fuse is made of wire having low melting point.

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which is the unit used to measure large voltages?
Answer:
Kilovolts and Megavolts are the units used to measure large voltages.

Question 2.
What is the SI unit of potential difference?
Answer:
The SI unit of potential difference is volt (V).

Question 3.
What is lightning?
Answer:
Lightning is the electric discharge travelling from clouds at high potential to earth’s surface which is at zero potential.

Question 4.
What is the unit of resistivity.
Answer:
The unit of resistivity is ohm metre (Qm).

Question 5.
Which substances are called conductors of electricity?
Answer:
Those substances which have very low electrical resistance are called conductors of electricity.

Question 6.
What is Earth wire?
Answer:
Earth wire is generally yellow or green colour, it is connected to a metal plate buried deep underground near the house and is for safety purpose.

Write formula:
(1) E1ectriccurrent \(=\frac{Q}{t}\)
(2) Electric charge = It
(3) Potential difference = IR
(4) Electric resistance \(=\frac{V}{I}\)
(5) Current \(=\frac{V}{R}\)
(6) Resistivity \(=\frac{RA}{L}\)

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Free electrons are required for conduction of electricity.
Answer:

• Every atom of a metallic conductor has one or more outermost electrons which are very weakly bound to the nucleus.
• These are called free electrons. These electrons can easily move from one part of a conductor to its other parts. The negative charge of the electrons also gets transferred as a result of this motion.
• The free electrons in a conductor are the carriers of negative charge. Hence, free electrons are required for conduction of electricity.

Question 2.
Wood and glass are good insulators.
Answer:

• Those substances which have infinitely high electrical resistance are called insulators.
• Wood and glass have high resistance and negligible free electrons for conduction of electricity.
• Hence, wood and glass are good insulators.

Question 3.
Connecting wires in a circuit are made of copper and aluminium.
Answer:

• Copper and aluminum are good conductors of electricity.
• They have low electrical resistance and large number of free electrons.
• As they are malleable and ductile, they can be drawn into thin wires. Hence, connecting wires in a circuit are made of copper or aluminum.

Question 4.
A thick wire has a low resistance.
Answer:

• The resistance (R) of a wire is inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area (A) of a wire. i.e., R i
• Thus, greater is the cross-sectional area of a conductor (wire), lower is its resistance. Hence, a thick wire has a low resistance.

Question 5.
A series combination of resistances is used to increase the resistance of a circuit.
Answer:

• When resistances are connected in series, the effective resistance of the resistors is equal to the sum of their individual resistances. R_s = R₁ + R₂ ………….. R_n
• The effective resistance is larger than each of the individual resistances. Hence, This arrangement is used to increase the resistance in a circuit.

Question 6.
A parallel combination of resistances decreases the effective resistance of the circuit.
Answer:

• In a parallel combination, the inverse of the effective resistance is equal to the sum of the inverses of individual resistances. \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{p}}}=\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}+\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}} \ldots \ldots \cdot \frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{n}}}\)
• The effective resistance of resistors connected in parallel is less than the individual resistors.
• Due to this, any addition of an individual resistance in parallel combination will decrease the overall resistance of the circuit. Hence, a parallel combination of resistance decreases the effective resistance of the circuit.

Question 7.
Lightning occurs from sky to earth.
Answer:

• Lightning is the electric discharge travelling from clouds at high potential to the earth’s surface, which is at zero potential.
• The earth is always at lower potential as compared to the clouds.
• Hence, lightning occurs from sky to earth.

Question 8.
In streetlights, bulbs are connected in parallel.
Answer:

1. Even if any one of the several bulbs connected in parallel becomes non-functional because of some damage to its filament, the circuit does not break as the current flows through the other paths, and the rest of the bulbs light up.
2. When several bulbs are connected in parallel, they emit the same amount of light as when they are connected individually in the circuit, while bulbs connected in series emit less light than when connected individually. Hence, streetlights are connected in parallel.

Numerical:
Numericals based on the formula: (1) Q= It (2) W= VQ

Question 1.
A current of 0.4 A flows through a conductor for 5 minutes. How much charge would have passed through the conductor?
Answer:
Given: Current (I) = 0.4 A
Time (t) = 5 min = 5 x 60 = 300 s
To find: Charge (Q) =?
Formula: Q = 1 x
Solution: Q = 0.4 x 300
Q= 120 C.
Charge passing through the conductor is 120

Question 2.
Find the amount of work done if 3 C of charge is moved through a potential difference of 9 V.
Answer:

The work done is 27 joule.

Question 3.
The resistance of the filament of a bulb is 1000Ω. It is drawing a current from a source of 230 V. How much current is flowing through it?
Answer:

The current flowing through the filament of bulb is 0.23 A.

Question 4.
The length of a conducting wire is 50 cm and its radius is 0.5 mm. If its resistance is 30Ω, what is the resistivity of its material?
Answer:


The resistivity of the wire is 4.71 x 10^-5 Qm.

Question 5.
A current of 0.24 A flows through a conductor when a potential difference of 24 V is applied between its two ends. What is its resistance?
Answer:

The resistance of a conductor is 100Ω.

Question 6.
If three resistors 15Ω, 3Ω and 4Ω each are connected in series, what is the effective resistance in the circuit?
Answer:
Given:
R₁ =15Ω
R₂ = 3Ω
R₃ = 4Ω
Effective resistance in series (R_s) = ?
R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
R_s = 15 + 3 + 4
R_s = 22Ω
The effective resistance in the circuit is 22Ω.

Question 7.
Three resistances 15Ω, 20Ω and 10Ω are connected in parallel. Find the effective resistance of the circuit.
Answer:


The effective resistance of the circuit is 4.615 Ω. It is less than the least of the three i.e., 10Ω.

Write a note on the following:

Question 1.
Electric current
Answer:
An electric current is the flow of electrons through a conductor. Quantitatively, current
(I) is defined as the charge passing through a conductor in unit time.
\(T=\frac{Q}{t}\)

Question 2.
1 ampere
Answer:
One ampere current is said to flow in a conductor if one coulomb charge flows through it every second.
\(1 \mathrm{~A}=\frac{1 \mathrm{C}}{1 \mathrm{~s}}\)

Question 3.
1 volt
Answer:
The potential difference between two points is said to be 1 volt if 1 joule of work is done in moving 1 coulomb of electric charge from one point to another.
\(1 \mathrm{~V}=\frac{1 \mathrm{~J}}{1 \mathrm{C}}\)

Question 4.
Potential Difference
Answer:
The amount of work done to carry a unit positive charge from point A to point B is called the electric potential difference between the two points.
\(V=\frac{W}{Q}\)

Question 5.
Conductor
Answer:
Those substances which have very low resistance are called conductors. Current can flow easily through such materials.

Question 6.
Insulators
Answer:
Those substances which have extremely high resistance and through which current cannot flow are called insulators.

Question 7.
1 ohm
Answer:
If one Ampere current flows through a conductor when one Volt potential difference is applied between its ends, then the resistance of the conductor is one Ohm.
\(\frac{1 \text { Volt }}{1 \text { Ampere }}=1 \mathrm{Ohm}\)

Question 8.
Potential
Answer:
The level of electric charge present is known as potential.

Question 9.
Ohm’s Law
Answer:
If the physical state of a conductor remains constant, the current (I) flowing through it is directly proportional to the potential difference (V) between its two ends.
V = IR

Question 10.
Superconductors
Answer:
The resistance of some conductors becomes nearly zero if their temperature is decreased up to a certain value close to 0 K. Such conductors are called superconductors.

Question 11.
Non-ohmic conductors
Answer:
Conductors which do not obey Ohm’s law are called non-ohmic conductors.

Complete the flow charts:

(1) Protection from Electricity

(2) Resistance

(3) Resistivity

Write properties/characteristics/advantages of the following:

Superconductors
Answer:
The resistance of these conductors becomes nearly zero if their temperature is decreased up to a certain value close to 0 K. Aluminium is an example of Super Conductor. Superconductors can be used in space missions to increase/ boost the signal strength. They are also used i in the data fibres to increase the speed of data transfer.

Give explanations of the given statements:

Question 1.
Safety precautions are to be taken while using electricity.
Answer:

• Electric switches and sockets should be fitted at a height at which small children cannot reach and put pins or nails inside. Plug wires should not be pulled while removing a plug from its socket.
• Before cleaning an electrical appliance it should be switched off and its plug removed from the socket.
• One’s hands should be dry while handling an electrical appliance, and, as far as possible, one should use footwear with rubber soles.
• As rubber is an insulator, it prevents the current from flowing’ through our body, thereby protecting it.
• If a person gets an electric shock, you should not touch that person. You should switch off the main switch or remove the plug from the socket if possible.
• If not, then you should use a wooden pole to push the person away from the electric wire.

Question 2.
In a domestic circuit colour code is followed while setting up electrical wiring.
Answer:

• The electricity in our homes is brought through the main conducting cable either from the electric pole or from underground cables.
• Usually, there are three wires in the cable.
  (a) Live wire which brings in the current. It has a red or brown insulation.
  (b) Neutral wire through which the current returns. It is blue or black.
  (c) Earth wire is of yellow or green colour. This is connected to a metal plate buried deep underground near the house and is for safety purposes.
• In India, the voltage difference between the live and neutral wires is about 220 V.
• Live and neutral wires are connected to the electric meter through a fuse.
• They are connected through a main switch, to all the conducting wires inside the home so as to provide electricity to every room.
• In each separate circuit, various electrical appliances are connected between the live and neutral wires.
• The different appliances are connected in parallel and the potential difference across every appliance is the same.

Question 3.
Fuse used in electrical circuit can save electrical objects from damage.
Answer:

• Fuse wire is used to protect domestic appliances.
• It is made of a mixture of substances and has a specific melting point.
• It is connected in series to the electric appliances. If for some reason, the current in the circuit increases excessively, the fuse wire gets heated and melts.
• The circuit gets broken and the flow of current stops, thus protecting the appliance.
• This wire is fitted in a groove in a body of porcelain-like non-conducting material. For domestic use, fuse wires with upper limits of 1 A, 2 A, 3 A, 4 A, 5 A and 10 A are used.

Question 4.
Bulbs arranged in parallel glow brighter than bulbs arranged in series.
Answer:

• The amount of light given out by bulbs in parallel combination will be more than that in series combination.
• In parallel combination the resistance of the overall circuit decreases whereas in series it increases, so the current flowing through the bulbs in parallel circuit is more.
• Due to this, intensity of light given out by bulbs in parallel combination is more than the bulbs in series combination.

Complete the following table:
Answer:

Solve the numerical:

Question 1.
The length of a conducting wire is 50 cm and its radius is 0.5 mm. If its resistance is 30Ω, what is the resistivity of its material?
Answer:

The resistivity of the wire is 4.71 x 10^-5 Ωm.

Question 2.
Determine the current that will flow when a potential difference of 33 V is applied between two ends of an appliance having a resistance of 110 Ω. If the same current is to flow through an appliance having a resistance of 500 Ω, how much potential difference should be applied across its two ends?
Answer:

The current is 0.3 A and potential difference to be applied is 150 V.

Question 3.
Determine the resistance of a copper wire having a length of 1 km and diameter of 0.5 mm.
Answer:
Given: Resistivity of copper (p)
= 1.7 x 10^-8 Ω m
Converting all measures into metres.
Length of wire (L) = 1 km
= 1000 m = 10³ m
Diameter of wire (d) = 0.5 mm
= 0.5 x 10^-3m
To find: Resistance of wire (R) = ?
Formula:
\(R=\rho \frac{L}{A}\)
Solution:
If d is the diameter of the wire then, its area of cross-section

The resistance of a copper wire is 85Ω and area of cross section is 0.2 x 10^-6 m²

Question 5.
Two resistors having resistance of 16 and 14 are connected in series. If a potential difference of 18 V Is applied across them, calculate the current flowing through the circuit and the potential difference across each individual resistor.
Answer:


The current in the circuit is 0.6 A and potential across 16 Ω retor is 9.6 volt and 14 Ω resistor is 8.4 voIt.

Question 6.
If the resistors 5 Ω, 10 Ω and 30 Ω are connected in parallel to battery of 12 V, find the effective resistance in the circuit. Calculate the total current and current in each resistor.
Answer:


(a) The total current is 4 A and current in each resistor is 2.4 A, 1.2 A and 0.4 A respectively.
(b) The effective resistance in the circuit is 3Ω.

Complete the diagram and answer the questions:

Question 1.
The following figure shows the symbols for components used in the accompanying electrical circuit.

(a) Place them at proper places and complete the circuit.
(b) Which law can you prove with the help of the above circuit?
(c) State expression for Ohm’s law
Answer:

(b) This circuit can be used to prove Ohm’s law.
(c) V = IR is the expression of Ohm’s law

Question 3.
Explain with the help of a diagram, what are free electrons and how they move through the conductor?

Answer:

• Every atom of a metallic conductor has one or more outermost electrons which are very weakly bound to nucleus.
• These are called free electrons.
• These electrons can easily move from one part of a conductor to its other parts.

Complete the paragraph:

Question 1.
If resistors are connected in series,
Answer:
The same current flows through each resistor. The effective resistance of the resistors is equal to the sum of their individual resistances. The potential difference between the two extremes of the arrangement is equal to the sum of the potential differences across individual resistors. The effective resistance is larger than each of the individual resistances. This arrangement is used to increase the resistance in a circuit. This type of connection is used in electrical heating equipment like geysers, iron, and hair dryers.

Question 2.
If a number of resistors are connected in parallel,
Answer:
The inverse of the effective resistance is equal to the sum of the inverses of individual resistances. The current flowing through an individual resistor is proportional to the r inverse of its resistance and the total current flowing through the circuit is the sum of the currents flowing through individual resistors. The potential difference across all r resistors is the same. The effective resistance of resistors connected in parallel is less than r the least resistance of individual resistors.

This arrangement is used to reduce the resistance in a circuit. Even if any one of the several bulbs connected in parallel becomes non-functional because of some damage to its filament, the circuit does not break as the current flows, through the other paths, and the rest of the bulbs light up. When several bulbs are connected in parallel, they emit the same amount of light as when they are connected individually in the circuit, while bulbs connected in series emit less light than when connected individually.

Read the paragraph and answer the questions.

Electric switches and sockets should be fitted at a height at which small children cannot reach and put pins or nails inside. Plug wires should not be pulled while removing a plug from its socket. Before cleaning an electrical appliance it should be switched off and its plug removed from the socket. One’s hands should be dry while handling an electrical appliance, and, as far as possible, one should use footwear with rubber soles. As rubber is an insulator, it prevents | the current from flowing through our body, thereby protecting it. If a person gets an electric shock, you should not touch that person. You should switch off the main switch and if the switch is too far or you do not know where it is located, then you should remove the plug from the socket if possible. If not, then you should use a wooden pole to push the person away from the electric wire.

(i) Why should the electrical sockets be fitted at a certain height?
Answer:
Electric switches and sockets should be fitted at a height at which small children cannot reach and put pins or nails inside.

(ii) Why plug wires should not be pulled out while removing any electrical device?
Answer:
Plug wires should not be pulled out while removing any electrical device as it may cause the wire to break causing short circuit which can lead to fire or death.

(iii) Why should a person wear footwear with rubber soles while handling electrical appliances. .
Answer:
As rubber is an insulator, it prevents the current from flowing through our body, thereby protecting it. Hence a person should wear footwear with rubber soles while handling electrical appliances.

(iv) Saee is touching an electrical button socket with wet hands what will you advise her and why?
Answer:
We will advise her to dry her hands before touching any electrical sockets or devices as water on the hands can cause an electrical short circuit producing shock to the person touching it.

(v) Sneha is getting an electrical shock what will you do the save her life?
Answer:
We should switch off the main switch and if the switch is too far or we do not know where it is located, then we should remove the plug from the socket if possible. If not, then we should use a wooden pole to push the person away from the electric wire.

(vi) Give a title to the above passage.
Answer:
Precautions to be taken while using electricity

Answer the questions in details:

Question 1.
Find the expression (i.e., derive the expression) for the resistors connected in series.
Answer:
Expression for the resistance connected in series:
(i) Let R₁, R₂ and R₃ be three resistances connected in series between C and D.
(ii) Let R_s be the effective resistance in circuit and V₁, V₂ and V₃ be the potential difference across R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively.
(iii) Let the potential difference across CD be V.

(iv) In series combination.
v = v₁ + v₂ + v₃ ……………………(i)
By using Ohm’s law
V = IR_s
∴ V₁= IR₁, V₂ = IR₂ and V₃ = 1R₃
Substituting these values in equation (j) we get
IR_s = IR₁ + IR₂ + IR₃
∴ R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
For ‘n’ number of resistors conneded in series we get
R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ + …………………. + R_n

Question 2.
Find the expression (i.e., derive the expression) for the resistors connected in parallel.
Answer:
Expression for the resistance connected in parallel.
(i) Let R₁, R₂ and R₃ be the three resistances connected in parallel combination between points C and D and let R be their effective resistance.
(ii) Let I₁, I₂ and I₃ be the currents flowing through resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively. Let I be the current flowing through the circuit and V be the potential difference of the cell.

(iii) For parallel combination of resistances,

(iv) Substituting the values of (I, I₁, I₂ and I₃) in equation (i) we get

Question 3.
Find the expression for resistivity of a material.
Answer:
(i) At a given temperature, the resistance (R) of a conductor depends on its length (L), area of cross-section (A) and the material it is made of. If the resistance of a conductor is R, then

(ii) p is the constant of proportionality and is called the resistivity of the material.
(iii) The unit of resistivity in SI units is Ohm metre (Ω m).
(iv) Resistivity is a specific property of a material and different materials have different resistivity. ’

Make the concept diagram and explain:

Question 1.
Make the concept diagram of an electrical circuit and explain the working of a fuse.

Answer:

• Fuse wire is used to protect domestic appliances.
• It is made of a mixture of substances and has a specific melting point.
• It is connected in series to the electric appliances. If for some reason, the current in the circuit increases excessively, the fuse wire gets heated and melts. The circuit gets broken and the flow of current stops, thus protecting the appliance.
• This wire is fitted in a groove in a body of porcelain-like non-conducting material. For domestic use, fuse wires with upper limits of 1A, 2A, 3A, 4A, 5A, and lO Aareused.

(2) Show motion of electrons in an circuit and explain precautions while using an electrical device.
Answer:

• Electric switches and sockets should be fitted at a height at which small children cannot reach and put pins or nails inside. Plug wires should not be pulled while removing a plug from its socket.
• Before cleaning an electrical appliance it should be switched off and its plug removed from the socket.
• One’s hands should be dry while handling an electrical appliance, and, as far as possible, one should use footwear with rubber soles.
• As rubber is an insulator, it prevents the current from flowing through our body, thereby protecting it.
• If a person gets an electric shock, you should not touch that person. You should switch off the main switch or remove the plug from the socket if possible.
• 1f not, then you should use a wooden pole to push the person away from the electric wire.

Q.4.4.Complete the incomplete figure and give an explanation:

Answer:

If the physical state of a conductor remains constant, the current (I) flowing through it is directly proportional to the potential difference (V) between its two ends.

I α V
I = kV (k = constant of proportionality)

This is known as Ohm’s law.
We can obtain the SI unit of resistance from the above formula, Potential difference and current are measured in Volts and Amperes respectively. The unit o resistance is called Ohm. It is indicated by the symbol Ω.

The resistance of one Ohm : If one Ampere current flows through a conductor when one Volt potential difference is applied between its ends, then the resistance of the conductor is one Ohm.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Work and Energy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Work and Energy

Class 9 Science Chapter 2 Work and Energy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write detailed answers?

a. Explain the difference between potential energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

Kinetic Energy	Potential Energy
(i) Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by the body due to its motion.	(i) Potential energy is the energy possessed by the body because of its shape or position.
(ii) K.E = 1/2 mv2	(ii) P.E = mgh
(iii) e.g., flowing water, such as when falling from a waterfall.	(iii) e.g., water at the top of a waterfall, before the drop.

b. Derive the formula for the kinetic energy of an object of mass m, moving with velocity v.
Answer:
Suppose a stationary object of mass ‘m’ moves because of an applied force. Let ‘u’ be its initial velocity (here u = 0). Let the applied force be ‘F’. This generates an acceleration a in the object, and after time T, the velocity of the object becomes equal to ‘v’. The displacement during this time is s. The work done on the object is
W = F x s ……………….. (1)
Using Newton’s 2nd law of motion,
F = ma ……………….. (2)
Using Newton’s 2nd equation of motion
\(s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2}\)
However, as initial velocity is zero, u = 0

c. Prove that the kinetic energy of a freely falling object on reaching the ground is nothing but the transformation of its initial potential energy.
Answer:
Let us look at the kinetic and potential energies of an object of mass (m), falling freely from height (h), when the object is at different heights.

As shown in the figure, the point A is at a height (h) from the ground. Let the point B be at a distance V, vertically below A. Let the point C be on the ground directly below A and B. Let us calculate the energies of the object at A, B and C.

(1) Let the velocity of the object be v_B when it reaches point B, having fallen through a distance x.

(2) When the object is stationary at A, its initial velocity is u = 0
∴ K.E = 1/2 mass x velocity2

(3) Let the velocity of the object be vc when it reaches the ground, near point C.

From equations (i) and (iii) we see that the total potential energy of the object at its initial position is the same as the kinetic energy at the ground.

d. Determine the amount of work done when an object is displaced at an angle of 300 with respect to the direction of the applied force.
Answer:
When an object is displaced by displacement ‘s’ and by applying force ‘F’ at an ’angle’ 30°. work done can be given as

e. If an object has 0 momenta, does it have kinetic energy? Explain your answer.
Answer:

• No, it does not have kinetic energy if it does not have momentum.
• Momentum is the product of mass and velocity. If it is zero, it implies that v = 0 (since mass can never be zero).
• Now K.E = ~ mv2, So if v = 0 then K.E also will be zero.
• Thus, if an object has no momentum then it cannot possess kinetic energy.

f. Why is the work done on an object moving with uniform circular motion zero?
Answer:

• In uniform circular motion, the force acting on an object is along the radius of the circle.
• Its displacement is along the tangent to the circle. Thus, they are perpendicular to each other.
  Hence θ = 90° and cos 90 = θ
  ∴ W = Fs cos θ = 0

2. Choose one or more correct alternatives.

a. For work to be performed, energy must be ….
(i) transferred from one place to another
(ii) concentrated
(iii) transformed from one type to another
(iv) destroyed

b. Joule is the unit of …
(i) force
(ii) work
(iii) power
(iv) energy

c. Which of the forces involved in dragging a heavy object on a smooth, horizontal surface, have the same magnitude?
(i) the horizontal applied force
(ii) gravitational force
(iii) reaction force in vertical direction
(iv) force of friction

d. Power is a measure of the …….
(i) the rapidity with which work is done
(ii) amount of energy required to perform the work
(iii) The slowness with which work is performed
(iv) length of time

e. While dragging or lifting an object, negative work is done by
(i) the applied force
(ii) gravitational force
(iii) frictional force
(iv) reaction force

3. Rewrite the following sentences using a proper alternative.

a. The potential energy of your body is least when you are …..
(i) sitting on a chair
(ii) sitting on the ground
(iii) sleeping on the ground
(iv) standing on the ground
Answer:
(iii) sleeping on the ground

b. The total energy of an object falling freely towards the ground …
(i) decreases
(ii) remains unchanged
(iii) increases
(iv) increases in the beginning and then decreases
Answer:
(iii) increases

c. If we increase the velocity of a car moving on a flat surface to four times its original speed, its potential energy ….
(i) will be twice its original energy
(ii) will not change
(iii) will be 4 times its original energy
(iv) will be 16 times its original energy.
Answer:
(ii) will not change

d. The work done on an object does not depend on ….
(i) displacement
(ii) applied force
(iii) initial velocity of the object
(iv) the angle between force and displacement.
Answer:
(iii) initial velocity of the object

4. Study the following activity and answer the questions.

1. Take two aluminium channels of different lengths.
2. Place the lower ends of the channels on the floor and hold their upper ends at the same height.
3. Now take two balls of the same size and weight and release them from the top end of the channels. They will roll down and cover the same distance.

Questions
1. At the moment of releasing the balls, which energy do the balls have?
2. As the balls roll down which energy is converted into which other form of energy?
3. Why do the balls cover the same distance on rolling down?
4. What is the form of the eventual total energy of the balls?
5. Which law related to energy does the above activity demonstrate? Explain.
Answer:
1. At the moment of releasing the ball they possess Potential energy as they are at a height above the ground.
2. As the balls roll down, the Potential energy is converted into Kinetic energy since they are now in motion.
3. Since they have been released from the same height, they will cover the same distance.
4. The eventual form of the total energy of the balls is “Mechanical Energy” i.e, a combination of Potential energy and Kinetic energy
5. The above activity demonstrates the “Law of Conservation of Energy”

5. Solve the following examples.

a. An electric pump has 2 kW power. How much water will the pump lift every minute to a height of 10 m? (Ans : 1224.5 kg)
Answer:
Given:
Power (P) = 2 kW = 2000 W
Height (h) = 10 m
Time (t) = 1 min = 60 s
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Mass of water (m)= ?
Formula:

Water lifted by the pump is 1224.5 kg

b. If the energy of a ball falling from a height of 10 metres is reduced by 40%, how high will it rebound? (Ans : 6 m)
Answer:
Given: Initial height (h₁) = 10m
Let Initial (P.E₁) = 100
Final (P.E₂) = 100 – 40
= 60

To Find:
Final height (h₂) = ?
Formula:
P.E. = mgh
Solution:

The ball will rebound by 6 m.

d. The velocity of a car increase from 54 km/hr to 72 km/hr. How much is the work done if the mass of the car is 1500 kg? (Ans. : 131250 J)
Answer:


Work done to increase the velocity = 131250 J

e. Ravi applied a force of 10 N and moved a book 30 cm in the direction of the force. How much was the work done by Ravi? (Ans: 3 J)
Answer:
Given:
Force (F) = 10 N
θ = 0°, (Since force and displacement are in same direction)
Displacement (s) = 30 cm = 30/100 m
To Find:
Work (W) = ?
Formula:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:
The work done by Ravi is 3J

Numericals For Practice

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Laws of Motion Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are different types of forces? Give examples.
Answer:
Forces are of two types.

• Contact force e.g.: Mechanical force, frictional force, muscular force
• Non-contact force e.g.: gravitational force, magnetic force, electrostatic force

Question 2.
Monashee wants to displace a wooden block from point A to point B along the surface of a table as shown. She has used force F for the purpose.

(a) Has all the energy she spent been used to produce an acceleration in the block?
(b) Which forces have been overcome using that energy?
Answer:
(a) Only part of the energy applied by Minakshee is used in accelerating the block.
(b) Force of friction has been overcome using the energy.

Question 3.
Mention the type of energy used in the following examples.
(i) Stretched rubber string.
(ii) Fast-moving car.
(iii) The whistling of a cooker due to steam.
(iv) A fan running on electricity.
(v) Drawing out pieces of iron from garbage, using a magnet.
(vi) Breaking of a glass window pane because of a loud noise.
(vii) The drackers exploded in Diwali.
Answer:
(i) Potential energy
(ii) Kinetic energy
(iii) Sound energy
(iv) Electrical energy
(v) Magnetic energy
(vi) Sound energy
(vii) Sound energy, light energy and heat energy

Question 4.
Study the pictures given below and answer the questions:

(a) In which of the pictures above has work been done?
(b) From scientific point of view, when do we say that no work was done?
Answer:
(a) Girl studying : No work done
Boy playing with ball: Work is done
Girl watching T.V.: No work done Person lifting sack of grains : Work is done
(b) No work is said to be done when force is applied but there is no displacement.

Question 5.
Make two pendulums of the same length with the help of thread and two nuts. Tie another thread in the horizontal position.

Tie the two pendulums to the horizontal thread in such a way that they will not hit each other while swinging. Now swing one of the pendulums and observe. What do you see?

Answer:
You will see that as the speed of oscillation of the pendulum slowly decreases, the second pendulum which was initially stationary, begins to swing. Thus, one pendulum transfers its energy to the other.

Question 6.
Ajay and Atul have been asked to determine the potential energy of a ball of mass m kept on a table as shown in the figure. What answers will they get? Will they be different? What do you conclude from this?

Answer:

• According to Ajay P.E₁ = mgh₁ and according to Atul P.E₂ = mgh₂.
• Yes, the answer will be different as the two heights are different.
• Potential energy is relative.

Question 7.
Discuss the directions of force and of displacement in each of the following cases.
(i) Pushing a stalled vehicle.
(ii) Catching the ball which your friend has thrown towards you.
(iii) Tying a stone to one end of a string and swinging it round and round by the other end of the string.
(iv) Walking up and down a staircase; climbing a tree.
(v) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes.
Answer:
(i) Force and displacement are in the same direction.
(ii) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.
(iii) Force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.
(iv) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.
(v) Force and displacement are in the opposite direction.

Question 8.
(A) An arrow is released from a stretched bow.
(B) Water kept at a high flows through a pipe into the tap below.
(C) A compressed spring is released.
(a) Which words describe the state of the object in the above examples?
(b) Where did the energy required to cause the motion of the objects come from?
(c) If the obj ects were not brought in those states, would they have moved?
Answer:
(a) Words such as stretched bow, water kept at a height and compressed spring describe the state of the objects.
(b) The energy required for the objects came from its specific state or motion in the form of potential energy.
(c) No, if the objects were not brought in those states, they would have not moved.

Question 9.
Study the activity and answer the following questions.

(a) Figure A – Why does the cup get pulled?
(b) Figure B – What is the relation between the displacement of the cup and the force applied through the ruler?
(c) In Figure C-Why doesn’t the cup get displaced?
(d) What is the type of work done in figures A, B and C?
(e) In the three actions above, what is the relationship between the applied force and the displacement?
Answer:
(a) The cup gets pulled as the force of the nut and the displacement of the cup is in the same direction.
(b) The displacement of the cup and the force applied through the ruler is in the opposite direction.
(c) Tire cup does not get displaced as two equal forces are working in opposite directions.
(d) The work done in figure A is positive, figure B is negative and in figure C is zero.
(e) In figure A the applied force and the displacement is in the same direction, in figure B the applied force and the displacement is in the opposite direction and in figure C the applied force and displacement is perpendicular to each other.

Question 10.
From the following activities find out whether work is positive, negative or zero. Give reasons for your answers.
(a) A boy is swimming in a pond.
(b) A coolie is standing with a load on his head.
(c) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes.
(d) Catching the ball which you friend has thrown towards you.
Answer:
(a) A boy is swimming in a pond: The work done is positive because the direction of applied force and displacement are the same.
(b) A coolie is standing with a load on his head: The work done is zero because the applied force does not cause any displacement.
(c) Stopping a moving car by applying brakes: The work done is negative because the fore applied by the brakes acts in a direction opposite to the direction of motion of car.
(d) Catching the ball which you friend has thrown towards you : Negative work because the force required to stop the ball, acts opposite to the displacement of the ball.

Question 11.
(a) Can your father climb stairs as fast as you can?
(b) Will you fill the overhead water tank with the help of a bucket or an electrical motor?
(c) Suppose Raj ashree, Yash and Ranjeet have to reach the top of a small hill. Raj ashree went by car. Yash went cycling while Ranjeet went walking. If all of them choose the same path, who will reach first and who will reach last? (Think before you answer.
Answer:
(a) No, father takes more time to climb stairs.
(b) Overhead water tank can be filled with the help of one electric motor rather than filling it with bucket.
(c) Raj ashree will reach first, followed by Yash and Ranjeet will reach last because car moves faster than a cycle and a person walking.

Class 9 Science Chapter 1 Laws of Motion Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Choose and write the correct option:

Question 1.
Forces are of …………………… types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 2.
Example of Contact force is ………………….. .
(a) Gravitational Force
(b) Magnetic Force
(c) Electrostatic Force
(d) Muscular Force
Answer:
(d) Muscular Force

Question 3.
Example of Non-contact force is ………………….. .
(a) Mechanical Force
(b) Frictional Force
(c) Muscular Force
(d) Electrostatic Force
Answer:
(d) Electrostatic force

Question 4.
Work is said to be done on a body when a …………………… is applied on object causes displacement of the object.
(a) Direction
(b) Area
(c) Volume
(d) Force
Answer:
(d) force

Question 5.
W = ………………. .
(a) mgh
(b) mdh
(c) mv²
(d) mfe
Answer:
(a) mgh

Question 6.
The energy stored in the dry cell is in of ………………. energy.
(a) Light
(b) Chemical
(c) Solar
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(b) chemical

Question 7.
The work done is zero if there is no ……………… .
(a) Direction
(b) Displacement
(c) Mass
(d) Angle
Answer:
(b) displacement

Question 8.
Flowing water has ………………. energy.
(a) Potential
(b) Chemical
(c) Solar
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(d) kinetic

Question 9.
By stretching the rubber strings of a we store ………………. energy in it.
(a) Potential
(b) Chemical
(c) Electric
(d) Kinetic
Answer:
(a) potential

Question 10.
………………. is the unit of force.
(a) Both B and C
(b) Newton
(c) Dyne
(d) Volts
Answer:
(a) Both B and C

Question 11.
For a freely falling body, kinetic energy is ………………. at the ground level.
(a) Maximum
(b) Minimum
(c) Neutral
(d) Reversed
Answer:
(a) Maximum

Question 12.
Energy can neither be ………………. nor ……………… .
(a) Destroyed
(b) Created
(c) Saved
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(d) Both A and B

Question 13.
Work and …………………… have the same unit.
(a) Energy
(b) Electricity
(c) Force
(d) Both B and C
Answer:
(a) Energy

Question 14.
S.I. unit of energy is ………………….. .
(a) Joule
(b) Ergs
(c) m/s²
(d) Both A and B
Answer:
(a) Joule

Question 15.
Work is the product of ………………….. .
(a) force and distance
(b) displacement and velocity
(c) kinetic and potential energy
(d) force and displacement
Answer:
(d) force and displacement

Question 16.
S.I. unit of work is ………………….. .
(a) dyne
(b) newton-meter or erg
(c) N/m2 or joule
(d) newton-meter or joule
Answer:
(d) newton-meter or joule

Question 17.
…………………… is the capacity to do work.
(a) Energy
(b) Force
(c) Power
(d) Momentum
Answer:
(a) Energy

Question 18.
Kinetic energy of a body (KE) = ………………….. .
(a) mv²
(b) ¹/₂ mv²
(c) mgh
(d) Fs
Answer:
(b) ¹/₂ mv²

Question 19.
Potential energy of a body is given by (P.E.) = ………………….. .
(a) Fs
(b) mgh
(c) ma
(d) mv²
Answer:
(b) mgh

Question 20.
1 hp = ………………….. .
(a) 476 watts
(b) 746 watts
(c) 674 watts
(d) 764 watts
Answer:
(b) 746 watts

Question 21.
…………………… is the commercial unit of power.
(a) kilowatt second
(b) dyne
(c) kilowatt
(d) erg
Answer:
(c) kilowatt

Question 22.
1 kWh = …………………… joules.
(a) 3.6 x 10³
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶
(c) 6.3 x 10⁶
(d) 6.3 x 10³
Answer:
(b) 3.6 x 10⁶

Based on Practicals

Question 23.
The work done by a force is said to be …………………… when the applied force does not produce displacement.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) zero

Question 24.
When some unstable atoms break up, they release a tremendous amount of …………………… energy.
(a) chemical
(b) potential
(c) nuclear
(d) mechanical
Answer:
(c) nuclear.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Unit of energy used for commercial purpose.
Answer:
Kilowatt-hour kW h is the unit of energy used for commercial purpose.

Question 2.
Unit used in industry to measure power.
Answer:
Horse power (hp) is the unit used in industry to express power.

Question 3.
SI unit of energy.
Answer:
SI unit of energy is Joule (J).

Question 4.
Two types of mechanical energy.
Answer:
Potential energy and kinetic energy are the two types of mechanical energy.

Question 5.
An example where force acting on an object does not do any work.
Answer:
In a simple pendulum, the gravitational force acting on the bob does not do any work as there is no displacement in the direction of force.

Question 6.
The relationship between 1 joule and 1 erg.
Answer:
1 joule = 107 erg.

Question 7.
Various forms of energy
Answer:
The various forms of energy are mechanical, heat, light, sound, electro-magnetic, chemical, nuclear and solar.

State whether the following statements are true or false:

(1) The potential energy of a body of mass 1 kg kept at height 1 m is 1 J.
(2) Water stored at some height has potential energy.
(3) Unit of power is joule.
(4) Mechanical energy can be converted into electrical energy.
(5) Work is a vector quantity.
(6) Power is a scalar quantity.
(7) The kilowatt hour is the unit of energy.
(8) The CGS unit of energy is dyne.
(9) The SI unit of work is newton.
(10) Kinetic energy has formula – mv²
Answer:
(1) False
(2) True
(3) False
(4) True
(5) False
(6) True
(7) True
(8) False
(9) False
(10) True

Find the odd man out.

Question 1.
Work, Energy, Power, Force.
Answer:
Force.

Question 2.
A stretched spring, A body placed in at some height, A bullet fired from gun.
Answer:
A bullet fired from gun.

Question 3.
A stretched spring, A rock rolling downhill, A bullet fired from gun.
Answer:
A stretched spring.

Write the formula of the following.

Question 1.
Kinetic energy
Answer:
\(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²

Question 2.
Potential energy
Answer:
mgh

Question 3.
Work
Answer:
Fs or Fs cosθ

Question 4.
Force
Answer:
ma

Question 5.
Power
Answer:
\(\frac{w}{1}\)

One line answer.

Question 1.
(i) When is work done said to be zero?
Answer:
Work done is zero when force acting on the body and its displacement are perpendicular to each other.

(ii) Which quantities are measured in ergs?
Answer:
Work and energy are measured in ergs.

(iii) What is the relationship between newton, meter and joule?
Answer:
1 joule = 1 newton x 1 meter

(iv) What is energy?
Answer:
The ability of a body to do work is called energy.

(v) Give 4 examples of energy
Answer:
Solar, wind, mechanical and heat.

(vi) Which device converts electrical energy into heat?
Answer:
Electric water heater (Geyser) converts electrical energy into heat.

(vii) What is the relationship between second, horsepower and joule?
Answer:
1 horse power = \(\frac{746 \text { joules }}{1 \text { second }\)

Question 2.
Find whether work is positive, negative or zero.

(a) Person moving along circle from A to B.
Answer:
Work done is positive as direction of applied force and displacement are the same.

(b) Person completing one circle and returns to position A.
Answer:
Work done is zero because there is no displacement for the person.

(c) Person pushing a car in the forward direction.
Ans,
Work done is positive as the motion of car is in the direction of the applied force.

(d) A car coming downhill even after pushing it in the opposite uphill direction.
Ans,
Work done is negative as the motion of car is in opposite direction of the applied force.

(e) Motion of the clock pendulum.
Answer:
work done is zero as there is no displacement of the pendulum and it comes back to its original position.

Give Scientific reasons:

Question 1.
A moving ball hits a stationary ball and displaces it.
Answer:

• The moving ball has certain energy.
• When it hits the stationary ball, the energy is transferred to the stationary ball, because of which it moves.
• Hence, a moving ball hits a stationary ball and displaces it.

Question 2.
Flowing water from some height can rotate turbine.
Answer:

• Flowing water has certain energy.
• When it hits the turbine, energy is transferred to the turbine, because of which it rotates.
• Hence, flowing water from some height can rotate a turbine.

Question 3.
A stretched rubber band when released regains its original length.
Answer:

• When we stretch a rubber band we give energy to it.
• This energy is stored in it.
• Hence, when we release it, it regains its original length.

Question 4.
Wind can move the blades of a windmill.
Answer:

• Wind has certain energy.
• When it hits the windmill energy is transferred to the windmill because of which it moves.
• Hence, wind can move the blades of a wind mill.

Question 5.
An exploding firecracker lights up as well as makes a sound.
Answer:

• The exploding firecracker converts the chemical energy stored in it into light and sound respectively.
• Here, energy is converted from one type to another.
• Hence, an exploding firecracker lights as well as makes a sound.

Question 6.
Work done on an artificial satellite by gravity is zero while moving around the earth.
Answer:

• When the artificial satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit, gravitation force acts on it.
• The gravitational force acting on the satellite and its displacement are perpendicular to each other. i.e. 0 = 90°
• For 0 = 90°, work done is zero. [ v cos 90 = 0)
• Hence, work done on an artificial satellite by gravity is zero while moving around the earth.

Difference between :

Question 1.
Work and Power:
Answer:

Work	Power
(i) Work is the product of force and displacement. (ii) Work is given by the formula : W = Fs (iii) MKS unit – joule, CGS unit-erg	(i) Power is the rate of doing work. (ii) Power is given by the formula : \(\mathrm{P}=\frac{\mathrm{W}}{\mathrm{t}}\) (iii) MKS unit – joule/sec, CGS unit – erg/sec

Question 2.
Work and Energy:
Answer:

Work	Energy
(i) It is the product of the magnitude of the force acting on the body and the displacement of the body in the direction of the force. (ii) It is the effect of energy.	(i) It is the capacity to do work. (ii) It is the cause of work.

Solve the following:

Type – A

Formula:
W = Fs cosθ
If force and displacement are in same direction, then θ = 0°, and cos θ = 1
If force and displacement are in opposite direction, then θ = 180°, and cos θ = -1
If force and displacement are perpendiculars, then θ = 90°, and cos θ = 0

Question 1.
Pravin has applied a force of 100 N on an object, at an angle of 60° to the horizontal. The object gets displaced in the horizontal direction and 400 J work is done. What is the displacement of the object? (cos 600 =12)
To Find:
Displacement (s) = ?
Formula:
W = Fs cos θ
Solution:

The object will be displaced through 8 m.

Question 2.
A force of 50 N acts on an object and displaces it by 2 m. If the force acts at an angle of 60° to the direction of its displacement, find the work done.
Answer:
50 J

Question 3.
Raj applied a force of 20 N and moved a book 40 cm in the direction of the force. How much was the work done by Raj?
Answer:
8J

Type -B

Formula:
1) W = K.E = 1/2 mv2
2) W = P.E = mgh
• W = P.E, W = K.E
1 km/hr =
\(\frac{1000}{3600} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}=\frac{5}{18} \mathrm{~m} / \mathrm{s}\)

Question 4.
A stone having a mass of 250 gm is falling from a height. How much kinetic energy does it have at the moment when its velocity is 2 m/s?
Answer:


The kinetic energy of the stone is 0.5 J

Question 5.
500 kg water is stored in the overhead tank of a 10 m high building. Calculate the amount of potential energy stored in the water.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 500 kg
Height (h) = 10 m
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Potential energy (P.E) = ?
Formula:
P.E = mgh
Solution:
P.E = mgh
= 500 x 9.8 x 10
= 500 x 98
= 49000J
The P.E of the stored water is 49000 J

Question 6.
Calculate the work done to take an object of mass 20 kg to a height of 10 m. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = -9.8 m/s²
Displacement (s) = (h) = 10 m.
To Find:
Work done (W) = ?
Formula:
(i) W = P.E = mgh
Solution:
W = mgh
= 20 x (-9.8) x 10
= -1960J
The work done to take an object of mass 20 kg to a height of 10 m is -1960 J.

Question 7.
A body of 0.5 kg thrown upwards reaches a maximum height of 5 m. Calculate the work done by the force of gravity during this vertical displacement.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 0.5 kg
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = -9.8 m/s²
Displacement (s) = 5 m.
To Find:
Work done (W) = ?
Formula:
W = P.E = mgh
Solution:
W = mgh
= 0.5 x (-9.8) x 5
= -24.5 J
The work done by the force of gravity is -24.5 joule.

Question 8.
1 kg mass has a kinetic energy of 2 joule. Calculate its velocity.
Answer:
Given:
Mass (m) = 1 kg
Kinetic Energy (K.E) = 2 J
To Find:
Velocity (v) = ?
Formula:

The velocity is 2 m/s

Question 9.
A rocket of mass 100 tonnes is propelled with a vertical velocity 1 km/s. Calculate kinetic energy.
Answer:

The kinetic energy of the rocket is 5 x 10¹⁰ J

Type – C

Formula:
\(\text { 1) Power }=\frac{\text { work }}{\text { time }}=\frac{\text { mgh }}{t}\)

Power should be expressed in kW
Time should be expressed in hours
1 k Wh = 1 unit

Question 10.
Swaralee takes 20 s to carry a bag weighing 20 kg to a height of 5 m. How much power has she used?
Given:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Height (h) = 5 m
Time (t) = 20s
Acceleration due to gravity (g) = 9.8 m/s²
To Find:
Power (P) = ?
Formula:
\(\mathrm{P}=\frac{\mathrm{mgh}}{\mathrm{t}}\)
Solution:
\(\begin{aligned}
P &=\frac{m g h}{t} \\
&=20 \times 9.8 \times \frac{5}{20} \\
&=9.8 \times 5
\end{aligned}\)
= 49 W
Power used by Swaralee is 49 W

Write notes on the following:

Question 1.
Derive the expression for potential energy.
Answer:
(i) To carry an object of mass ‘m’ to a height ‘h’ above the earth’s surface, a force equal to ‘mg’ has to be used against the direction of the gravitational force.

(ii) The amount of work done can be calculated as follows:
Work = force x displacement
∴ W = mg x h
∴ W = mgh

(iii) The amount of potential energy stored in the object because of its displacement.
PE = mgh (W = P.E)

(iv) Displacement to height h causes energy equal to mgh to be stored in the object.

Question 2.
When can you say that the work done is either positive, negative or zero?
Answer:

• When the force and the displacement are in the same direction, the work done by the force is positive.
• When the force and displacement are in the opposite directions, the work done by the force is negative.
• When the applied force does not cause any displacement or when the force and the displacement are perpendicular to each other, the work done by the force is zero.

Question 3.
Explain the relation between, the commercial and SI unit of energy.
Answer:
The commercial unit of energy is a kilowatt-hour (kWh) while the SI unit of energy is the joule. Their relation is
1 kWh = 1kW x 1hr
= 1000 Wx 3600 s
= 3600000J
(Watt x Sec = Joule)
1 kWh = 3.6 x 106 J.

Question 4.
How is work calculated if the direction of force and the displacement are inclined to each other?
Answer:
If the direction of force and the displacement are inclined to each other then, we must convert the applied force into the force acting along the direction of displacement.

If θ is angle between force and displacement, then force (F₁) in direction of displacement is

Complete the flow chart.

Question 1.
Transformation of energy

Answer:

Question 2.
Transformation of energy

Answer:

Write effects of the following with examples.

Question 1.
Force
Answer:

• A force can move a stationary object. The force of engine makes a stationery car to move.
• A force can stop a moving object. The force of brakes can stop a moving car.
• A force can change the speed of a moving object. When a hockey player hits a moving ball, the speed of ball increases.
• A force can change the direction of a moving object. In the game of carrom ,when we take a rebound then the direction of striker changes because the edge of the carrom board exerts a force on the strike.
• A force can change the shape and size of an object. The shape of kneaded wet clay changes when a potter converts it into pots of different shapes and sizes because the p otter applies force on the kneaded wet clay.

Give two examples in each of the following cases:

Question 1.
Potential energy
Answer:

• Water stored in a dam
• A compressed spring

Question 2.
Kinetic energy
Answer:

• Water flowing
• Bullet fired from a gun

Question 3.
Chemical energy
Answer:

• Chemical in cell
• Explosive mixture of a bomb

Question 4.
Zero work done
Answer:

• A stone tied to a string and whirled in a circular path
• Motion of the earth and other planets moving around the sun

Question 5.
Negative work done
Answer:

• A cyclist applies brakes to his bicycle, but the bicycle still covers some distance.
• When a body is made to slide on a rough surface, the work done by the frictional force.

Question 6.
Positive work done
Answer:
(i) A boy moving from the ground floor to the first floor.
(ii) A fruit falling down from the tree.
= 0.5 hr x 30 days
= 15 hrs
To Find:
Energy consumed = ?

The units of energy consumed in the month of April by the iron is 18 units.

Question 7.
A 25 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours every day. How much electricity does it consume each day?
Answer:
Given:
Power (P) = 25 W
25/1000 kW
Time (E) = 10 hrs
To Find:
Electric energy consumed = ?
Formula:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
Solutions:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
= 25/1000 x 10
= 0.25 kWh
The electric bulb consumes 0.25 kWh of electricity each day.

Question 8.
If a TV of rating 100W is operated for 6 hrs per day, find the amount of energy consumed in any leap year?
Answer:

= 2196 hrs.
To Find:
Electric energy consumed
Formula:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
Solution:
Electric energy consumed = power x time
= 0.1 x 2196
= 219.6 kWh
The amount of energy consumed is 219.6 kWh

Complete the paragraph.

Question 1.
………….. is the measure of energy transfer when a force (F) moves an object through a ………….. (d). So when ………….. is done, energy has been transferred from one energy store to another, and so: energy transferred = ………….. done. Energy transferred and work done are both measured in ………….. (J)
Answer:
Work is the measure of energy transfer when a force (F) moves an object through a distance (d). So when work is done, energy has been transferred from one energy store to another, and so: energy transferred = work done. Energy transferred and work done are both measured in joules (J).

Question 2.
………….. energy and ………….. done are the same thing as much as ………….. energy and work done are the same thing. Potential energy is a state of the system, a way of ………….. energy as of virtue of its configuration or motion, while ………….. done in most cases is a way of channeling this energy from one body to another.
Answer:
Potential energy and work done are the same thing as much as kinetic energy and work done are the same thing. Potential energy is a state of the system, a way of storing energy as of virtue of its configuration or motion, while work done in most cases is a way of channeling this energy from one body to another.

Question 3.
In physics, ………….. is the rate of doing work or, i.e., the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the ………….. equal to one ………….. per second.

Power is a ………….. quantity that requires both a change in the physical system and a specified time interval in which the change occurs. But more ………….. is needed when the work is done in a shorter amount of time.
Answer:
In physics, power is the rate of doing work or, i.e., the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time. In the International System of Units, the unit of power is the watt. equal to one joule per second.

Power is a scalar quantity that requires both a change in the physical system and a specified time interval in which the change occurs. But more power is needed when the work is done in a shorter amount of time.

Activity-based questions

Answer in detail:

Question 1.
State the expression for work done when displacement and force makes an angle θ OR State the expression for work done when force is applied making an angle θ with the horizontal force.

Answer:
Let ‘F’ be the applied force and Fj be its component in the direction of displacement. Let ’S’ be the displacement.

The amount of work done is given by W = F₁s ……………………………………… (1)
The force ‘F’ is applied in the direction of the string.

Let ‘θ’ be the angle that the string makes with the horizontal. We can determine the component ‘F₁‘, of this force F, which acts in the horizontal direction by means of trigonometry.
\(\begin{aligned}
\cos \theta=\frac{\text { base }}{\text { hypotenuse }} \\
\therefore \quad \cos \theta=\frac{\mathrm{F}_{1}}{\mathrm{~F}} \\
\therefore \quad \mathrm{F}_{1}=\mathrm{F} & \cos \theta
\end{aligned}\)
Substituting the value of F₁ in equation 1
Thus, the work done by F₁ is
W cos θ s
∴ W = Fscosθ

Question 2.
When a body is dropped on the ground from some height its P.E is converted into K.E but when it strikes the ground and it stops, what happens to the K.E?
Answer:
When a body is dropped on the ground, its K.E appears in the form of:

• Heat (collision between the body and the ground).
• Sound (collision of the body with the ground).
• The potential energy of change in state of the body and the ground.
• Kinetic energy is also utilized to do work i.e., the ball bounces to a certain height and moves to a certain distance vertically and horizontally till Kinetic energy becomes zero.
• The process in which the kinetic energy of a freely falling body is lost in an unproductive chain of energy is called the dissipation of energy.

Question 3.
Explain the statement “Potential Energy is relative”.
Answer:

• The potential energy of an object is determined and calculated according to a height of the object with respect to the observer.
• So, the person staying on 6th floor more potential energy than those staying on the 3rd floor.
• But, the person on the 6th floor will have lesser potential energy than on the 8th floor. Hence potential energy is relative.

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Urbanisation Human Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Urbanisation Human

Class 9 Geography Chapter 10 Urbanisation Human Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Suggest measures for the following problems:

(A) The slums in the cities are increasing.
Answer:

• Creating more job opportunities in the rural areas so that migration is minimised.
• Poverty alleviation schemes need to be implemented to improve the standard of living of the poor.
• Initiative for improvement of sanitation, housing and other facilities must be facilitated.

(B) Because of the increasing traffic jams within the city, lot of time is consumed in commuting.
Answer:

• To reduce traffic jams, carpooling is a great way to get to and fro work.
• Planning the route in advance will help to avoid any road construction or other traffic jams.
• Making use of public transportation like Railways, BEST, etc. will also help in reducing traffic congestion and precious fuel.

(C) The question of law and order in the urban areas is serious.
Answer:

• Many crimes are due to poverty and unemployment. Poverty alleviation and employment generation programmes should be given priority.
• The semi-literate / educated unemployed persons should be given skill-training and be prepared for self-employment.
• The police and the judicial system “should be strengthened to wipe out criminals.

(D) The problem of pollution is grave because of urbanisation.
Answer:

• Walking or cycling to the work place will not only help in improving the health conditions of individuals but will also help in reducing pollution.
• Cities need to green up (plant more trees) as trees are considered to be the natural purifiers.
• Strict action should be taken against polluting industrial units.

(E) Migration has created questions of health and education in urban areas.
Answer:

• Migration from rural to urban areas can be reduced if employment opportunities are provided in the rural areas.
• Infrastructure like transport, electricity, public distribution system, etc. need to be provided in the rural areas.
• Educational institutes and health centres need to be upgraded in the rural areas.

2. Match the correct pairs :

Group A – Group B
(1) Technological development and mechanization – (A) Urban areas
(2) Permanently staying away from your original place – (B) Lack of planning
(3) 75% males are engaged in non-agricultural occupation – (C) Migration
(4) The problems of solid waste – (D) Urbanisation
Answer:
(1-d),
(2- c),
(3 – a),
(4 – b)

3. Outline the importance/ advantages of the following:

(A) Technology and mechanisation
Answer:

• Technology and mechanisation increase industrial production, creates employment and is useful for urbanisation.
• In recent decades, the use of technology and mechanisation has increased in agriculture.
• Due to the mechanisation of agriculture, the surplus manpower employed in agriculture have become devoid of agricultural work.
• This working class started coming to cities to look for work and as a result urban population started increasing.

(B) Trade
Answer:

• When a place in a region is favourable in terms of transport, loading-unloading and storage of goods, it developes into a trade centre.
• This leads to the growth of business complexes, banks, credit societies, godowns, cold storage, houses, etc.
• For example, Nagpur’s central location has facilitated trade and hence urbanisation has also taken place here.

(C) Industrialisation
Answer:

• Industrialisation leads to increase in the hopes of people who are attracted towards the industries from surrounding areas for employment.
• Rapid growth of Mumbai in the 19th century was due to the textile mills which were started here.
• Many fishing villages (Koliwadas) became part of Mumbai metropolitan2 area due to industrialisation and urbanisation.

(D) Amenities in urban areas
Answer:

• Urbanisation leads to development of a number of amenities and facilities in urban areas.
• Transportation, communication, educational facilities, medical facilities, fire brigade, various sources of entertainment, etc. are examples of amenities in urban areas.
• A good transportation not only makes a journey easier but also has a positive effect on freight transport, development of markets, trade, etc.
• Development of higher educational facilities in urban areas attract students from rural areas to urban areas. E.g. Pune.
• Development of high quality medical facilities in urban areas bring many patients and their family members from different parts of India to these areas.

(E) Social harmony in the cities
Answer:

• Social harmony refers to the exchange of cultural and social customs and traditions as people from different parts live together in the cities.
• An increase in urbanisation leads to an increase in secondary, tertiary and quaternary occupation.
• This results in an increase in employment opportunities due to which people from different parts of the country come to cities and there is an exchange of customs and traditions.

4. Compare the following and give examples:

(A) Transportation system and traffic jams
Answer:

• As cities grow, people start living on the outskirts and in the suburbs of the city.
• People commute to the centre of the city for businesses and industries, trade, jobs, education, etc.
• Public transportation system is insufficient and hence the number of private vehicles increase.
• This results in an increase in traffic jams and a lot of time is consumed in travelling from one place to another.
  e.g. Although Mumbai has a well developed transportation system it is insufficient to fulfil the growing needs of people.

Hence, traffic jams are a frequent site in different pockets of Mumbai.

(B) Industrialisation and air pollution
Answer:

• Industrialisation refers to the growth in number of industries in a particular region.
• As more and more industries crop up, it becomes convenient for the industries to violate the environmental laws.
• Paucity of facilities, insensitivity towards environment are the other factors which leads to an increase in the pollution level.
• Hence, Industrialisation and Air pollution are the two aspects of the same coin.
  e.g. Delhi, Faridabad and Varanasi are the ! victims of rapid industrialisation leading to j severe air pollution.

(C) Migration and slums
Answer:

• The increase in the number of migratory people causes an increase in the slums.
• Generally migration from rural to urban areas takes place in search of job opportunities, which are hard to find.
• The housing facilities do not increase in the same proportion as the population, so the poor migrants can not afford the housing in the cities.
• This encourages the migrants to build illegal temporary and semi-structured houses known as slums, in open spaces. e.g. Slums in Dharavi (Mumbai city)

(D) Amenities and increasing crime
Answer:

• Amenities refers to facilities that provide comfort, convenience or pleasure to people.
• Transportation, communication, educational and medical facilities, fire brigade, etc. are the examples of amenities available in urban areas.
• Unemployed people who have migrated to the cities are unable to avail these amenities.
• This leads to an increase in thefts, burglaries, scuffles5, murders, etc. which disturb the social harmony of the cities.
  e.g. Pick pocketing in the local trains.

5. Complete the table :

Process of urbanisation	Effects
Emergence of slums	Illegal settlements Insufficient facilities
	Increase in population because of attraction of good lifestyle Can be short-term or long-term
Pollution
	Employment opportunities were generated Increase in amenities and facilities
Change from rural to urban

Answer:

Process of urbanisation	Effects
Emergence of Slums	Illegal settlements Insufficient facilities
Migration	Increase in population because of the attraction of good lifestyle. Can be short-term or long term.
Pollution	Adverse effects on urban life.
Industrialisation	Employment opportunities have generated, increase in amenities and facilities.
Change from rural to urban	Formation of Municipal Corporation. better civic amenities, development of occupations.

6. Explain:

(A) The growth of cities takes place in a specific method.
Answer:
Villages are transforming into cities. The growth of cities take place in a particular pattern.

• At first various industries like factories, mills, energy plants, multi-purpose projects3 etc., come up in rural areas.
• People from surrounding areas come to work here and the population of the village increases.
• To fulfill their needs other services develop like medical facilities, food, hospitals, recreation, etc.
• The Gram Panchayat gives way to a Municipal Corporation.
• These bodies provide basic services to citizens like drinking water, roads, transportation, sewerage network, street lighting etc.
• Other facilities develop like town planning recreation facilities, tourist places, parks etc.

(B) A planned city of your imagination
Answer:

• A city which is carefully planned from its inception and is constructed in a previously undeveloped area is a planned city.
• A planned city is one in which there is adequate infrastructural facilities like roads, railways, water supply, power supply, etc.
• Also, there should be open spaces available for recreation facilities.

(C) Industrialisation causes cities to develop.
Answer:

• The development and concentration of industries in a region is a factor contributing towards urbanisation.
• Increase in industries leads to increase in the hopes of people who are attracted towards these industries from surrounding areas.
• An increase in population leads to the development of infrastructural facilities like roadways, railways, power supply, water supply etc. which are the characteristics of a planned city.
• In the 19th century, Mumbai grew rapidly because textile mills started on a large scale.

(D) Pollution- A problem
Answer:

• Pollution is the introduction of contaminants into natural environment that causes adverse changes.
• Pollution can be that of air, water, noise, solid waste, etc.
• Pollution can adversely affect the human health.
• Water pollution can lead to several water borne diseases like typhoid, cholera etc. Air pollution can lead to asthma and other respiratory diseases. Noise pollution can lead to sleep disturbance, hearing impairment etc.

(E) Swachchh Bharat Abhiyan
Answer:

• Swatch Bharat Abhiyan is a cleanliness campaign run by the Government of India.
• ‘One step towards cleanliness’ is the objective of this campaign.
• This campaign aims to keep the streets and infrastructure of the country’s cities, towns and its rural areas clean.
• The funds for this programs are raised by ‘Swachchh Bharat Cess’.

7. Suggest measures for the following problems of urbanisation shown in the following pictures.

(1) Air Pollution:

Answer:

• Switching from coal, oil to natural gas as fuel in the industries.
• Industrial areas should be located at a safe distance from residential areas.

(2) Noise Pollution:

Answer:

• Follow the limits of noise level.
• Shut the door when using noisy machines.
• To restrict noise pollution lower the volume of horns, loudspeakers, etc.

(3) Solid Waste Pollution:

Answer:

• Avoid disposing and littering of solid waste in the open.
• Follow the principle of 4 R’s (Reduce, Recycle, Repair and Reuse) for non-biodegradable things.
• Segregation of dry waste and wet waste for proper disposal.

(4) Water Pollution:

Answer:

• Sewage should not be allowed to mix with water sources without getting treated.
• Avoid mixing industrial wastes and effluents directly into water sources.
• Daily household chores should be avoided at water sources.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 10 Urbanisation Human Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Answer the following questions.

(i) Why is Suresh thinking of going to the factory for work?
Answer:

• Suresh is thinking of going to the factory as it will get him a monthly salary.
• Also, if he works overtime, he will get additional money and a bonus during Diwali.

Question 2.
What is Tatya worried about?
Answer:

• Tatya is worried about the availability of labour in the agricultural field, since his son (Suresh) has decided to work in the factory.
• Also, he is worried whether his son can manage working in the field and the factory simultaneously.

Question 3.
What changes does Suresh think will occur in the village?
Answer:

• Development of goods and facilities like hospitals, schools and colleges, administrative offices, huge buildings are expected in the village.
• The above factors will lead to migration of people from different villages which will bring about rural development.

Question 4.
What other changes do you think will occur in the village?
Answer:
There “will be well planned drainage systems, pure drinking water supply, street lightning, concrete roads, public library, etc. amenities will be provided. There will be fire station to control fires, police stations to control crimes. These changes are likely to occur in the village.

Give it a try.

Question 1.
Give example of villages in your area turning into urban settlement.
Answer:

• Airoli, Nerul, Kopar Khairane, Vashi, Panvel, Taloja, Kamothe etc which comprises of Navi Mumbai (New Bombay) are the examples of villages turning into urban settlement.

Question 2.
Find out the main reason of that rural area turning into urban settlement.
Answer:
City and Industrial Development Corporation (CIDCO) planned and constructed all the railway stations, roads and public spaces in Navi Mumbai. APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committee) which is a wholesale agricultural produce market at Vashi and Construction of Commuter railway line from Mankhurd to Vashi led to growth in economic activities and population in Navi Mumbai.

Question 3.
Obtain information regarding development of settlements, villages, towns, etc. located on the main transport routes in your surroundings in the last five years.
Answer:
In Mumbai along the Metro station route there are 2 settlements which have developed. They are Asalpha and Jagruti Nagar. Neither were very well-known places five years ago. But today they are important metro stations.

Question 4.
Make a list of cities in your district.
Answer:
I live in Thane District – Two of the cities are:

• Bhiwandi
• Badlapur.

Question 5.
Discuss which factors from above are responsible for their development.
Answer:
Factors responsible for development are:-

• Bhiwandi – Industrialisation (Textile industry)
• Badlapur – Transport (Connected to Mumbai – Pune expressway, has railway station on Mumbai – Pune route)

Question 6.
If possible, talk to people who have migrated in your surroundings or the nearest town and find out reasons of migration.
Answer:
People have migrated from Mumbai to Navi Mumbai.

The reasons are:

• Better town planning
• Better standard of living

Write five sentences on each picture after observing them.

Answer:

• In this picture the harmful gases, smoke released by the factory is causing air pollution.
• Any substance that is introduced into the atmosphere and has damaging effects on living things and the environment is called Air Pollutant.
• Air Pollution occurs when any harmful gases, dust, smoke enters into the atmosphere.
• Air Pollution can lead to asthma, respiratory inflammation, decrease in living functioning and other respiratory diseases in humans.
• The Ozone layer on the planet is depleting due to increased Air Pollution.

Answer:

• The picture shows heavy smog in a city causing air pollution.
• Smog is a combination of smoke and fog.
• Usually smog results from large amounts of coal burning in an area and is caused by a mixture of smoke and Sulphur dioxide.
• It is a big problem in Beijing and New Delhi.
• Smogs cause lung diseases.

Answer:

• In this picture we can see untreated polluted water being released into a river causing water pollution.
• Water pollution is the contamination of water . bodies like lakes, rivers, oceans, etc.
• Almost 80% of water pollution is caused by domestic sewage.
• Water pollution can lead to several waterborne diseases like typhoid, cholera, dysentery, jaundice and malaria.
• Water pollution affects marine life and the environment.

Answer:

• The picture shows a washerman washing clothes in a pond, thus polluting the water.
• The soap and detergent used in bathing or washing contains certain chemicals which can pollute the water.
• Water pollution affects the aquatic life.
• Water pollution is a big menace to the economy, the environment and human health.
• We should raise the awareness among the people about the causes and effects of water pollution.

Answer:

• In this picture we can see people are affected due to noise pollution caused by the loudspeakers.
• Noise pollution is excessive noise that harms the balance of human or animal life.
• Outdoor noise can be caused by machines, construction activities, vehicular traffic, sound of train or aircrafts, loudspeakers, etc.
• Noise pollution can cause hypertension, high stress levels, hearing loss, sleep disturbances, etc.
• Thus noise pollution affects both health and behaviour.

Observe the image and answer the following questions?

(i) What does the symbol signify?
Answer:
The symbol signifies an Indian Government campaign called ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’, or ‘Clean India Movement’.

(ii) Obtain information regarding it through internet.
Answer:

• Swachchh Bharat Abhiyan is a cleanliness campaign run by the Government of India.
• The campaign involves the construction of latrines, promoting sanitation programmes in the rural areas, cleaning streets, roads and changing the infrastructure of the country to lead the country ahead.
• It is launched as a responsibility of each and every citizen to make this country a Swachh country.
• It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on the 145th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi on 2nd October, 2014 at Rajghat, New Delhi.

(iii) Write how this programme is related to your daily life.
Answer:
In our daily life we see that in the rural and urban areas people are openly defecating, due to lack of latrines. This is not only an ugly sight, but also there are many adverse effects to it. There is a risk of contracting many diseases. Also it is unsafe for women and young girls.

Think about it.

Question 1.
Which facilities are necessary to be developed in urban areas for fulfilling the needs of the population?
Answer:
Facilities necessary to be developed in urban areas for fulfilling the needs of the population are:

• Adequate water supply
• Proper sewage system
• Better means of transportation
• Regular power supply
• Sanitation
• Health care centres
• Schools and colleges.

Question 2.
Why do the sources of water near the city get polluted?
Answer:
The sources of water near the city gets polluted due to garbage from construction sites, and industrial areas, improper disposal of hazardous materials from garbage disposal companies, chemical spills and improper chemical disposal, sewage leaks, etc.

Question 3.
How is the polluted water disposed off in the cities?
Answer:
Almost 80% of the water pollution is caused by domestic sewage. This untreated sewage mixes with the various water bodies and causes water pollution.

Question 4.
Is the water supplied to the cities good for health?
Answer:

• The cities have a chlorinated central water supply, managed by the government. But people living in illegal slums have been unable to legally connect to this system.
• This forces many of them to illegally tap into city water pipes.
• This has compromised the safety of the water supply through cross-contamination in many places.

Question 5.
What are the adverse effects of water, air and noise pollution on health?
Answer:
Pollution affects the health adversely. The effects are:

• Water pollution can lead to several water borne diseases like typhoid, cholera, dysentery, jaundice and malaria.
• Air pollution can lead to asthma, respiratory inflammation, lung functioning diseases and other respiratory diseases.
• Noise pollution can lead to hearing impairment, hypertension, sleep disturbance and so on.

Use your brain power!

Write a paragraph suggesting measures of these problem of urbanisation.

Question 1.
When heaps of wastes accumulate bad odour and diseases are spread.
Answer:

• To reduce the heaps of wastes reusable bags and containers must be used for shopping, travelling or packing lunches or leftovers.
• Food scraps and garden waste can be combined to form compost.
• Buy items made of recycled content and use and reuse them as much as you can.

Question 2.
Traffic jams are a regular routine.
Answer:

• To reduce traffic jams, carpooling is a great way to get to and from work.
• Planning the route in advance will help to avoid any traffic jams.
• Making use of public transportation like railway, BEST etc will also help in reducing traffic congestion and precious fuel.

Find out.

Question 1.
Look for the changes that have occurred in the technology and mechanisation of agriculture with the help of internet. Write a short paragraph about the information you obtain.
Answer:
Mechanisation was one of the main factors responsible for urbanisation and industrialisation. Besides improving the production efficiency, mechanisation encourages large scale production and also improves the quality of production. On the other hand, mechanisation also displaces unskilled farm labour and causes environmental degradation (such as pollution, deforestation and soil erosion).

Try this.

Question 1.
Using the industrial information given in the table below, draw a line graph of the percentage of urban population. Discuss in terms of urbanisation. After studying this graph write the conclusion about urbanisation in our country from 1961-2011 in your own words.
Answer:
Observations:

• The urban population has been increasing consistently from 1961 to 2011.
• The growth of urban population was about 5.5 % from 1961 to 1981.
• However, the growth of urban population was to 13.7% from 1981 to 2011.
• Industrialisation, trade, mechanisation and technology, transport and communication and migration are factors responsible for increase in urban population.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 10 Urbanisation Human Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing a colored option from the bracket:

Question 1.
In India is the main occupation.
(a) Industries
(b) Agriculture
(c) Banking
(d) Fishing
Answer:
(b) Agriculture

Question 2.
provides public service to the village.
(a) Gram Panchayat
(b) Municipal Council
(c) Government of India
(d) Army
Answer:
(a) Gram Panchayat

Question 3.
or provides public service to the urban areas.
(a) Municipal Council / Municipal Corporation
(b) Gram Panchayat / Gram sabha
(c) High Court / Supreme Court
(d) Government of India
Answer:
(a) Municipal Council or Municipal Corporation

Question 4.
Census of India decided to define ‘Urban’ in the year
(a) 1951
(b) 1961
(c) 1971
(d) 1981
Answer:
(b) 1961

Question 5.
For an urban area more than of the male working population must be engaged in non-agricultural occupation.
(a) 70%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 85%
Answer:
(b) 75%

Question 6.
For an urban area, the population of the settlement should be more than
(a) 3000
(b) 4000
(c) 5000
(d) 6000
Answer:
(c) 5000

Question 7.
For an urban area, the density of population should be more than persons per sq.km.
(a) 400
(b) 300
(c) 500
(d) 700
Answer:
(a) 400

Question 8.
The growth of population from 1961 to 1981 was around
(a) 3.2%
(b) 4.3%
(c) 5.5%
(d) 6.5%
Answer:
(c) 5.5%

Question 9.
The growth of population from 1981 to 2011 was around
(a) 12.73%
(b) 14.73%
(c) 13.73%
(d) 12.83
Answer:
(c) 13.73%

Question 10.
The development and concentration of industries in a region is a factor contributing towards
(a) industrialisation
(b) mechanisation
(c) urbanisation
(d) agriculture
Answer:
(c) Urbanisation

Question 11.
In 19th century Mumbai grew rapidly because of
(a) shopping malls
(b) textile mills
(c) service industries
(d) agriculture
Answer:
(b) Textile mills

Question 12.
is a centrally located part of India.
(a) Nagpur
(b) Bhopal
(c) Bilaspur
(d) Pune
Answer:
(a) Nagpur

Question 13.
In the recent decades, the use of technology has increased in
(a) industries
(b) service
(c) agriculture
(d) engineering
Answer:
(c) agriculture

Question 14.
Manpower employed in agriculture become devoid of agriculture work due to
(a) industrialisation
(b) urbanisation
(c) mechanisation
(d) rains
Answer:
(c) Mechanisation

Question 15.
Convergence of important rail routes through led to its growth.
(a) Shirdi
(b) Pune
(c) Bhusaval
(d) Nagpur
Answer:
(c) Bhusaval

Question 16.
can be short-term, long term or permanent.
(a) Population growth
(b) Migration
(c) Trade
(d) Mechanisation
Answer:
(b) Migration

Question 17.
of a region changes largely due to urbanisation.
(a) Persona
(b) Geographical boundary
(c) Characteristics
(d) Trade
Answer:
(c) Characteristics

Question 18.
An increase in occupations leads to an increase in activities.
(a) non-economic
(b) agricultural
(c) economic
(d) social
Answer:
(c) economic

Question 19.
and social customs and traditions are exchanged as people from different parts live together in the cities.
(a) Political
(b) Economic
(c) Cultural
(d) Technological
Answer:
(c) Cultural

Question 20.
Exchange of culture, customs and traditions among people in the region creates
(a) oneness
(b) brotherhood
(c) social harmony’
(d) conflicts
Answer:
(c) social harmony

Question 21.
Due to, urban settlements get an advantage of new ideas, updated technologies and technological facilities.
(a) Jobs
(b) Modernisation
(c) Crime
(d) Migration
Answer:
(b) Modernisation

Question 22
Due to urbanisation, population iii the city increases rapidly but the do not increase in the same proportion.
(a) Entertainment facilities
(b) Sanitation facilities
(c) Housing facilities
(d) Irrigation facilities
Answer:
(c) housing facilities

Question 23.
give rise to social and health related issues.
(a) Scuffles2
(b) Thetis
(c) Slums
(d) Schools
Answer:
(c) Slums

Question 24.
is a major problem in the cities.
(a) Pollution
(b) Thetis
(c) Education
(d) Entertainment
Answer:
(a) Pollution

Question 25.
is a means to earn money through illegal ways.
(a) Harmony
(b) Crime
(c) Slum
(d) Industries
Answer:
(b) Crime

Match the following:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Private vehicles due to insufficient public transportation.	(a) Crime
(2) Means to earn money through illegal ways.	(b) Pollution
(3) A major problem in the urban area that affects urban life.	(c) Slums
(4) Lack of basic facilities and narrow roads.	(d) Traffic jams

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – a),
(3 – b),
(4 – c)

Answer in one sentences:

Question 1.
What is urbanisation?
Answer:
Urbanisation is a process whereby population move from rural to urban area, enabling cities and towns to grow.

Question 2.
What should be the population density of a settlement, to be defined as an urban area?
Answer:
As per the Census of India (1961), the population density of the settlement should be more than 400 persons per sq.km.

Question 3.
Why did urbanisation start increasing in Nagpur?
Answer:
As Nagpur is centrally located in India, it faciliated trade and hence, urbanisation started increasing here.

Question 4.
What led to the rapid growth of village Savarde (District Ratnagiri)?
Answer:
Savarde’s proximity to the Konkan railway and conversion of important rail routes through Bhusawal (Dist. Jalgaon), led to the rapid growth of the village Savarde.

Question 5.
Which maj or factor has affected urbanisation?
Answer:
Migration is a major factor affecting urbanisation.

Question 6.
Name the types of migration based on time?
Answer:
The types of migration based on time are:

• short-term migration
• long-term migration and
• permanent migration

Question 7.
Name the types of migration based on place?
Answer:
The types of migration based on place are:

• rural to urban
• urban to urban and
• rural to rural

Question 8.
Which kind of occupations increase with urbanisation?
Answer:
There is an increase in secondary, tertiary and quaternary occupations with urbanisation.

Question 9.
How does urbanisation lead to social harmony?
Answer:
As people from different parts start living together in the cities, cultural and social customs as well as traditions are exchanged leading to social harmony.

Question 10.
Give any one reason why modernisation and urbanisation go together.
Answer:
In urban areas, people from different regions of the country migrate and exchange their wisdom, skills and knowledge resulting in modernisation.

Question 11.
Name some amenities and facilities that develop due to urbanisation.
Answer:
Transportation, communication, educational and medical facilities, fire brigade, etc. are some amenities and facilities that develop due to urbanisation.

Question 12.
Why do many students come to Pune city?
Answer:
Many students pursuing higher education come to Pune city, as it is well-known for these facilities.

Question 13.
Why do slums lack basic facilities?
Answer:
Most of the slums are illegal, so they do not get basic facilities from the local self governments.

Question 14.
What is the main reason for increase in the crime rate in the cities?
Answer:
The people who have migrated do not always find employment in the cities and hence crime rate has increased.

Question 15.
Which factors create tension in the cities?
Answer:
Increase in crime rates, enormous increase in land prices, struggle between various groups, etc. create tension in the cities.

Question 16.
Why do the sources of water near the city get polluted?
Answer:
Almost 80% of the water pollution is caused by domestic sewage. This untreated sewage mixes with the various water bodies and causes water pollution. Thus the sources of water near the city get polluted.

Question 17.
How is the polluted water disposed off in the cities?
Answer:
In the cities polluted water is treated in the waste water treatment plants before its disposal.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the types of economies by filling correct information in the place of questions in the circle.

Answer:

2. Give an explanation:

Question 1.
The economy begins at home.
Answer:

• Household finance is related to income and expenditure.
• Every household has unlimited expenditure and the income earned is limited.
• The household has to make a choice regarding how it has to spend its limited resources.
• Management of this limited income to meet the unlimited expenses is Economics.
• As we manage the finance of our family, similarly the villages/cities, states, countries and the whole world needs to have economic management. So we say Economy begins at home.

Question 2.
India’s economy is of mixed type.
Answer:

• Mixed economy is a combination of Capitalism and Socialism.
• India is said to be a Mixed economy because there is a co-existence of both public and the private sectors.
• The private sector undertakes production for the profit motive, whereas the state tries to achieve social welfare.
• India, therefore, tries to achieve a balance between maximum social welfare for its citizens on one hand and profit on the other. Therefore, India’s economy is of Mixed type.

Question 3.
On the basis of economies, we can divide countries into three groups.
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called economy. On the basis of economies, countries are divided into three groups. Capitalist Economy, Socialist Economy and Mixed Economy.

1. Capitalistic Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production is in the hands of the private sector, e.g. Germany, Japan, the U.S.A.
2. Socialist Economy is a kind of economy in which the means of production belongs to the society i.e. the government’s control, e.g. China, Russia.
3. Mixed Economy is a kind of economy in which there is a co-existence of both private and public sectors, e.g. India, Sweden, the U.K.

3. Write the following questions in one line:

Question 1.
To which economic factor is the management of individual or family finances related?
Answer:
Management of individual or family finances is related to the economic factor of ‘income and expenditure.

Question 2.
From which Greek word is the term ‘Economics’ derived?
Answer:
The word ‘Economics’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Oikonomia’ which means family management.

Question 3.
In a capitalistic economy, to whom does the ownership and management of means of production belong?
Answer:
In a Capitalistic Economy, the ownership and management of means of production belong to the private sector.

Question 4.
What do you mean by globalisation?
Answer:
Globalisation means aligning the country’s economy with the world economy.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Suppose this is your expenditure this month and your monthly income is? 20,000. To strike a balance between your income and your expenditure, decide that will be your preferences for expenditure.

Rewrite the table according to your preferences and discuss in class.

Sr.No.	—	Estimated Expenditure (₹)
1.	Daily food	6,000
2.	Buying two sets of Uniform	2,000
3.	School Stationery	500
4.	Medical expenditure	450
5.	Recreation	500
6.	Mobile Bill	1,000
7.	Vegetables, Fruits, etc.	1,000
8.	Public transport (bus, railway, rick-shaw, etc.)	2,600
9.	Electricity Bill	1,500
10.	Tourism	4,000
11.	Bank Installment	3,000
	Total Expenditure	22,550

Answer:
Income And Expenditure Statement

• Preferences have been rearranged to their urgency.
• Most urgent wants are placed on the top. Least urgent wants are placed at the bottom.
• Expenses have been cut down wherever possible.
• Money spent on tourism is nil.
• Mobile bill has been reduced to? 500 from? 1000.
• And Savings equals? 3000.

Can you do it?

Question 1.
Suppose you are the finance minister of an agrarian country. Giving priority to the overall development of the country, make a five-point program.
Answer:
As a Finance Minister of an Agrarian country like India, I would focus on transforming India in five areas:

• Modernization of agriculture, encouragement to export-oriented agro-processing industries.
• Education, skill-building, and healthcare.
• Information and communication technology.
• Infrastructure development for rural industrialization.
• Spirit of Entrepreneurship.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 8 Introduction to Economics Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the statements choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
The term economics’ is derived from Greek word
(a) oikomonia
(b) oikonomica
(c) oikonomia
(d) oikonomics
Answer:
(c) oikonomia

Question 2.
China and Russia have adopted type of economy.
(a) Socialistic
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Mixed
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Socialistic

Question 3.
The main motive of a economy is to earn profit.
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Simple
(d) Socialistic
Answer:
(b) Capitalistic

Question 4.
The main aim of Socialistic economy is to achieve
(a) social welfare
(b) profit
(c) injustice
(d) tolerance
Answer:
(a) social welfare

Question 5.
Germany is an example of a country which has adopted economy.
(a) Simple
(b) Socialistic
(c) Mixed
(d) Capitalistic
Answer:
(d) Capitalistic

Question 6.
Adam Smith has defined economics as the
(a) science of knowledge
(b) science of wealth
(c) science of peace
(d) science of needs
Answer:
(b) science of wealth

Question 7.
means making the country’s economy aligned with world economy.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Globalisation

Question 8.
Economics is an important science.
(a) social
(b) political
(c) physical
(d) alternative
Answer:
(a) social

Question 9.
One of the main functions of the economy is to the production cost
(a) maximize
(b) inflate
(c) increase
(d) minimize
Answer:
(d) minimize

Question 10.
An economy strives to create a balance between resources and needs.
(a) unlimited, limited
(b) limited, unlimited
(c) plentiful, limited
(d) limited, scarce
Answer:
(b) limited, unlimited

Question 11.
is known as the Father of Economics.
(a) Lionel Robbins
(b) Prof. Samuelson
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith

Question 12.
Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between and scarce which have alternative uses.
(a) means, ends
(b) people, resources
(c) money, land
(d) ends, means
Answer:
(d) ends, means

Question 13.
We understand from economics, how to use, money, land and effectively.
(a) minerals, factory
(b) time, labour
(c) food grains, machines
(d) people, power
Answer:
(b) time, labour

Question 14.
On a global level, there are types of economies.
(a) four
(b) two
(c) three
(d) five
Answer:
(c) three

Question 15.
economy is a borderless economy.
(a) State
(b) Town
(c) Village
(d) World
Answer:
(d) World

Question 16.
In Globalisation, there is trade and all restrictions on are set aside.
(a) restricted, economy
(b) free, investments
(c) no, activity
(d) zero, labour
Answer:
(b) free, investments

Match the column

Group A	Group B
(1) Capitalist economy	(a) India
(2) Socialist economy	(b) USA
(3) Mixed economy	(c) Russia

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – c),
(3 – a)

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Define Economics.
Answer:
According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

Question 2.
What is an Economy?
Answer:
The activities related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region is called an economy.

Question 3.
What is a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the ownership and management of the means of production is in the hands of private individuals is called as a Capitalistic Economy.

Question 4.
What is the main aim of a Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Capitalistic Economy is to earn maximum profit.

Question 5.
Which countries have adopted Capitalistic Economy?
Answer:
Germany, Japan and USA are the examples of countries which have adopted Capitalistic economy.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The economy in which the means of production belong to the society as a whole i.e. the government’s control is known as a Socialistic economy.

Question 7.
What is the main aim of a Socialistic economy?
Answer:
The main aim of a Socialistic economy is to achieve social welfare.

Question 8.
Name Adam Smith’s book and year of publication.
Answer:
Adam Smith’s book is titled ‘Wealth of Nations/ and was published in 1776.

Question 9.
What are the types of economy at the global level?
Answer:
Capitalist, Socialist and Mixed Economy are the types of economy at the global level

Question 10.
Which economist is known as Father of Economics?
Answer:
Adam Smith is known as Father of Economics.

Question 11.
How does Adam Smith describe Economics in his ‘Wealth of Nations’?
Answer:
In the book ‘Wealth of Nations’ Adam Smith describes Economics as ‘the science of wealth’.

Question 12.
What is the World Economy?
Answer:
World Economy is a borderless economy in which natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology flow freely across the countries.

Distinguish between Capitalist Economy and Socialist Economy.
Answer:

Capitalist Economy	Socialist Economy
(i) Ownership and management of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals. (ii) To earn maximum profit is the main aim of the Capitalist Economy. (iii) The USA, Germany and Japan have Capitalist Economy.	The means of production belong to the society as a whole and are under the control of the government. To achieve social welfare is the main aim of the Socialist Economy. Russia and China have Socialist Economy.

Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the functions of an economy.
Answer:
Every country has a different economy. But the main functions of an economy are similar. Some of the main functions of an economy are:

• Deciding the product and quantity of its production.
• Deciding for whom will the goods be produced.
• Minimising the production costs as much as possible.
• Distributing national income1 according to social and economic justice2.
• Making appropriate provisions3 for the economic needs of the future.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of Economics.
Answer:
Economics is an important Social Science Subject.

• We use Economics on a large scale in agriculture, trade, finance, administration, law and in our daily life.
• Economics holds a paramount4 importance in the overall social development of humans.

Question 3.
Name the factors affecting an economy.
Answer:
The factors affecting an economy are:

• Geographical area and natural resources.
• Population
• Occupations
• Political Sovereignty

Question 4.
Write a description of Economics given by Lionel Robbins.
Answer:

• According to Lionel Robbins, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.
• Since human wants are unlimited their priority is determined.
• The satisfaction of the basic needs are given priority.
• A scarce resource like land can be used either for agriculture or industries or development of infrastructure.
• In this way, Economics studies human behaviour related to unlimited wants with limited resources that have alternative uses.

Question 5.
Explain the nature of the Capitalist Economy.
Answer:

• The ownership and control of means of production is in the hands of the private individuals in the Capitalist Economy.
• There is no control of the government over economic activities in their ‘Free Market Economy’.
• The objective of economic activities is to earn maximum profit.
• The capitalist economy exists in Germany, Japan and the USA.

Question 6.
Explain the nature of the Socialist Economy.
Answer:

• There is no private ownership of the means of production as these belong to the society as a whole.
• There is total control of the State over the economy.
• The objective of the economic activities is the fulfilment of social needs (social welfare).
• Socialist economy exists in Russia and China.

Question 7.
What are the main features (components) of the economy?
Answer:

1. The economy is a system related to the production, distribution and consumption of goods and services in a specific region.
2. The main features of an economy are :
   • Well defined geographical area.
   • Population, i.e. the people living within that geographical area and undertaking various economic activities.
   • Natural resources to undertake economic activities.
   • Political sovereignty that exercises control over the economy.

Question 8.
Explain the nature of globalisation.
Answer:

• Globalisation means aligning the economy of the country with the world economy.
• There is free trade and all restrictions on (foreign) investments are set aside.
• There is free flow of natural resources, profit, services, capital, labour and technology across the world.
• The aim is to establish a borderless economy.
• The recent economic policies of the government are leading the economy towards globalisation.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 12 Tourism Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 12 Tourism

Class 9 Geography Chapter 12 Tourism Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify the type of tourism from the statement.

(A) Hemant Kumar went to Mexico to learn about the architectural skills of the Mayan culture
Answer:
Cultural Tourism

(B) Portuguese tourists had come to Goa to participate in the Goa Carnival.
Answer:
Cultural Tourism

(C) To seek treatment in a naturopathy centre, John and Amar went to Kerala.
Answer:
Medical Tourism.

(D) Pundalikrao accomplished the Char Dham Yatra with his family
Answer:
Religious Tourism.

(E) Rameshwari from Pune went to enjoy Hurda ( Roasted Grain) party and learn about modern and traditional methods of agriculture
Answer:
Agro-tourism.

(F) Sayyed family went to Ajmer Durgah.
Answer:
Religious tourism.

2. Match the columns identifying the correlation. Make a chain.

	Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1)	Tadoba	Madhya Pradesh	Lake
(2)	Bird Sanctuary	Agra	Butterflies
(3)	Sanjay Gandhi National Park	Manipur	Kailash caves
(4)	Taj Mahal	Nannaj	Film city
(5)	Ramoji Film City	Ellora	World-famous wonder
(6)	Radhanagari	Mumbai	Ancient cave- paintings
(7)	Bimbetka	Hyderabad	Great Indian Bustard (Maaldhok)
(8)	Ancient Caves	Kolhapur	Kanheri Caves
(9)	Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary	Chandrapur	Bison
(10)	Loktak	Arunachal Pradesh	Tiger

Answer:

	Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1)	Tadoba	Chandrapur	Tiger
(2)	Bird Sanctuary	Nannaj	Great Indian Bustard (Maaldhok)
(3)	Sanjay Gandhi National Park	Mumbai	Kanheri Caves
(4)	Taj Mahal	Agra	World-famous wonder
(5)	Ramoji Film City	Hyderabad	Film city
(6)	Radhanagari	Kolhapur	Bison
(7)	Bimbetka	Madhya Pradesh	Ancient cave- paintings
(8)	Ancient Caves	Ellora	Kailash caves
(9)	Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary	Arunachal Pradesh	Butterflies
(10)	Loktak	Manipur	Lake

3. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Differentiate between religious and cultural tourism.
Answer:

Religious tourism	Cultural tourism
(i) religious tourism is a type of tourism in which tourists travel for pilgrimage.	Cultural tourism refers to a type of tourism in which tourists travel to cultural attractions away from residence to gather new information and experience.
(ii) In religious tourism various religious places, temples, churches, etc. are visited for performing religious activities and gaining spiritual peace.	In cultural tourism art, architecture, religion, customs, traditions, lifestyle, etc. of a particular region are experienced and studied.
(iii) For example, a visit to Shirdi, Haji Ali, Mount Mary Church, etc.	For example, Portuguese tourists participating in Goa carnival.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of tourism?
Answer:
Following are the objectives of tourism:

• Getting joy
• Getting entertained
• Trading
• Staying
• Availing health facilities
• Getting a glimpse of agricultural life
• Performing religious activities, etc.

Question 3.
Explain the environmental effects of tourism.
Answer:
Following are the environmental effects of tourism:

• Sometimes, tourists damage tourist place and degrade the environment. Some tourists throw litter and pollute the tourist place.
• Therefore, all tourists must follow the concept of eco-tourism. Eco-tourism includes taking precautions of not degrading and polluting the environment as well as not damaging tourist places.
• Tourism is good for environmental development as the government makes economic investment in developing sanctuaries and national parks for the sake of the tourism industry.
• In eco-friendly tourism, factors like designing houses, resorts, traffic routes are designed in an eco-friendly manner in which electricity and water are used judiciously.
• The concept of recycling and reuse is also applied in eco-friendly tourism.

Question 4.
What opportunities develop with the development of tourism?
Answer:

• Tourism and Economic Development: The development of infrastructural facilities generates employment on an large scale. Eg. transportation, banking, restaurants, shops, resorts, medical services etc.
• Tourism and Environmental development: Due to the Eco-friendly tourism concept, tourist places are developed while caring for the environment. Eg. Eco-tourism.
• Tourism and’ Health: Opportunities to avail health facilities develop with tourism. Eg. Indian Ayurveda, Yoga, Pranayam.
• Tourism and Social Developments: Tourism creates social consciousness among tourists which helps in the development of neglected components of the society. For eg. Visit to Anandwan village.

Question 5.
Suggest measures after explaining the problems arising at the tourist places.
Answer:
(i) The problems that may arise at the tourist places:

• Lack of basic facilities.
• Lack of frequency of means of transportation.
• Lack of medical facilities.
• Lack of communication facilities.
• Petty crimes and security issues.

(ii) Measures to minimize the problems arising at the tourist places:

• Government can provide lodges, eateries, clean drinking water and good sanitation facilities.
• All tourist places can be connected by speedy means of transportation.
• Government can open dispensaries and arrange ambulance facilities.
• Communication facilities can be developed at every tourist place.
• Installation of CCTVs in public places and prompt action by the law and order forces can help tourist immensely.

Question 6.
Explain with the reason the places of interest that can be developed as tourist centers in your district.
Answer:

• In the district of Mumbai, there are many tourists destinations which fascinate the tourists.
• But there are few places which can be developed as tourist centres, which are currently neglected.
• To name a few, there are some small forts on the beaches of Mumbai and some caves in the suburbs of Mumbai.
• The Sion fort and the fort of Mahim are currently in a bad state and need urgent restoration.
• The Mahakali caves situated in western suburbs of Mumbai need to be developed in order to preserve cultural heritage which can attract many tourists.

(Disclaimer: The students can write answer of this above question in their own words as per the district they belong to.)

Question 7.
Local people get employment due to tourism. Give reasons.
Answer:

• Tourism is an important tertiary occupation through which many tourists visit places of interest.
• Many job opportunities are created to serve the tourists.
• When basic infrastructure improves, it leads to generation of employment.
• Many local people get job opportunities from various restaurants, transportation systems and recreational places.

5. Make a notice board containing instructions for the tourists at a tourist place.
Answer:

6. Explain how relevant is the concept of “Atithi Devo Bha va” (Guest is our God) with respect to tourism.
Answer:

1. In Sanskrit “Atithi Devo Bhava” means “Guest is our God”. This is a tag line of India’s, Ministry of Tourism’s campaign to improve the treatment of tourists in India.
2. India attracts millions of tourists every year but it still lags far behind compared to other destinations.
3. With an attempt to improve the number of tourists travelling to India, the Tourism Department of India started this social awareness campaign which provides training and orientation to taxi drivers, guides, immigration officers, police and other personnel who interact directly with the tourists.
4. This campaign educates the citizens of our country about the importance of our cultural heritage, benefits of cleanliness, importance of foreign tourists and maintaining our historical monuments.
5. All these efforts will lead to the economic development of our country.

7. The tourism map of Maharashtra is given. Answer the following questions based on the map.

Question 1.
Make a list of places having hot springs. What are the reasons for these being located here?
Answer:
Say, Vajreshwari, Kapeshwar, Unakeshwar, linhavare, Unapdev are the places that have hot springs.
Reason of hot water springs because geothermally heated ground water rises from the Earth’s crust.

Question 2.
At what places do you find the correlation between transportation routes and the development of tourism?
Answer:

• Aurangabad: The national highway and the airport is located in Aurangabad which facilitates the tourists to visit Ajanta and Ellora caves.
• Shirdi: Since Shirdi has got a railway station, more devotees will visit the temple every year.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 12 Tourism Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

(I) Dear Students, imagine that you have to go on a vacation with your family. Make a list of 15 favourite places in Maharashtra.
After the list is prepared, put your places in the relevant classification.

• Places near the sea
• Historical places
• National parks and sanctuaries
• Hill stations
• Religious places

Select one place from each group which you would like to visit.

Discuss the reasons of your choice in the class.
Answer:
(A) A list of 15 favourite places in Maharashtra

• Mumbai
• Pune
• Nashik
• Alibaug
• Guhagar
• Malvan
• Shirdi
• Shegaon
• Chandoli
• Pench
• Kamala
• Matheran
• Mahabaleshwar
• Jawhar
• Parli Vaijanath.

(B) A relevant classification of 15 favourite places is as follows:
(1) Places near the sea :

• Alibaug
• Guhagar
• Malvan.

(2) Historical places :

• Pune
• Mumbai
• Nashik.

(3) National parks and sanctuaries :

• Chandoli
• Pench
• Kamala.

(4) Hill stations:

• Matheran
• Mahabaleshwar
• Jawhar.

(5) Religious places :

• Parli Vaijanath
• Shirdi
• Shegaon.

(C) Name of a place from each group which we would like to visit with reason :
(1) Name of a place near the sea which we would like to visit: Guhagar.
Reason: Guhagar is famous for its clean white sand beach. ‘Shri Vyadeshwar’ an ancient shiv temple is also located at Guhagar.

(2) Name of a historical place which we would like to visit: Pune.
Reason : Many historical forts are located in Pune.

(3) Name of a national park and sanctuary which we would like to visit: Karnala.
Reason : Karnala bird sactuary houses many species of resident birds.

(4) Name of a hill station which we would like.to visit: Matheran.
Reason : One can reach Matheran by a Toy Train. Horse riding is another tourist attraction of Matheran. There are gardens, waterfalls, temples, markets and many scenic points at Matheran.

(5) Name of a religious place which we would like to visit: Shegaon.
Reason : A famous ‘Gajanan Maharaj Temple’ is located at Shegaon. Anand Sagar’, a spiritual and entertainment park centre is also located at Shegaon.

(II) (i) Which new forms of tourism have developed recently? (Textbook Page no. 92)
(ii) Tell the reasons why new forms of tourism emerge. (Textbook Page no. 92)
Answer:
(i) In recent years, following are the new forms of tourism that have developed:

• Eco-Tourism
• Agro-Tourism
• Film Tourism
• Medical Tourism
• Cultural tourism

(ii) Nowadays people are more aware of new tourist destinations and attractions, have the ability to spend and need break from their routine stressful life. They take breaks to refresh and relax or may travel for some psychological and social needs.

Think about it.

We saw the various types of tourism. Just think, can we go into the space for tourism? What will we have to do for that? Where can we go? Present your ideas in the form of picture or paragraphs, etc.
Answer:
Yes, we can go into the space for tourism. We will require a the most powerful rocket built with a spaceship designed to carry atleast 100 people. We can go to the Red Planet-Mars.

Use your brain power!

Some issues related to tourism development are given below. Rewrite the inappropriate ones after correcting them.
Answer:

• The income of a country should be substantially high for development of tourism. Inappropriate: The income of a country is high due to development of tourism.
• Domestic tourism should be given a boost. Inappropriate: Domestic tourism should be given a boost.
• Tourists from other countries should be banned. Inappropriate: Tourists from other countries should be welcomed for economic development of our country.
• Appropriate: Tourists should be assured of a safe journey.
• Appropriate: The cultural heritage of a country should be preserved.
• Appropriate: We should respect other country’s culture.
• Appropriate: Government subsidies1 and incentives should be given for tourism businesses.
• Appropriate: Participation in international sports should be increased.
• Appropriate: Tourism should be encouraged through advertisements.
• Appropriate: It is necessary to preserve the tourist places.
• Appropriate: We should preserve buildings of famous people who have contributed in various sectors for memorials.
• Appropriate: Services and amenities3 should be developed for tourism.
• Tourist agencies should be banned. Inappropriate: Tourists agencies should be encourage for their businesses.
• There is no ample scope in this field. Inappropriate: There is ample scope in the field of tourism.
• Appropriate: Tourism is a type of invisible trade.
• Appropriate: All types of facilities should be developed for tourists.
• The country’s economy does not benefit at all from tourism. Inappropriate: The country’s economy benefits a lot from tourism.
• Appropriate: The hidden potential of other sites should also be developed.
• Appropriate: The forts and castles should be developed.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 12 Tourism Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by choosing the appropriate alternatives from those given in the brackets:

Question 1.
Visiting various places away from our homes for getting joy, entertainment, trading, staying, etc. is called
(a) boarding
(b) lodging
(c) visiting
(d) tourism1
Answer:
(d) tourism

Question 2.
On the basis of political boundaries, tourism can be of two types and
(a) domestic tourism and local tourism
(b) international tourism and foreign tourism
(c) local tourism and holidays
(d) domestic tourism and international tourism
Answer:
(a) domestic tourism and international tourism

Question 3.
Tourism within the limits of a country is called …………………. .
(a) domestic tourism
(b) international tourism
(c) foreign tourism
(d) abroad tourism
Answer:
(a) domestic tourism

Question 4.
A person from Maharashtra going to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu for tourism, a person from Nagpur visiting Ellora Caves in Aurangabad are examples of
(a) international tourism
(b) abroad tourism
(c) domestic tourism
(d) foreign tourism
Answer:
(c) domestic tourism

Question 5.
Crossing country’s boundaries and visiting some other country for tourism is called
(a) local tourism
(b) international/ foreign tourism
(c) city tourism
(d) state tourism
Answer:
(b) international foreign tourism

Question 6.
Indian going to Switzerland for tourism, an American coming to India for tourism are examples of
(a) city tourism
(b) state tourism
(c) local tourism
(d) intemational/foreign tourism
Answer:
(d) international/ foreign tourism

Question 7.
………………….. tourism should be promoted as it is necessary to preserve the cultural heritage1 of a country.
(a) Mumbai
(b) Local
(c) Andheri
(d) Domestic
Answer:
(d) Domestic tourism

Question 8.
To go to a foreign country, one needs a ………………, ………………, travel insurance and other documents.
(a) passport, train tickets
(b) visa, bus tickets
(c) movie tickets, bus tickets
(d) passport, visa
Answer:
(d) passport and visa

Question 9.
The ……………… system in our smartphones or the GPS instrument is largely used for tourism. For that we need special applications like the
(a) GPRS and atlas
(b) GPS and radio
(c) GPS and google map
(d) google play store and GPRS
Answer:
(c) GPS and google map

Question 10.
Tourism is an important occupation.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(c) tertiary

Question 11.
Besides domestic tourists2, foreign tourists also visit various places of interest and therefore, ……………… currency increases in our economy.
(a) domestic
(b) foreign
(c) FOREX
(d) shares
Answer:
(b) foreign

Question 12.
Tourism should be promoted through in various media which will help in its growth.
(a) slogans
(b) word of mouth
(c) references
(d) advertisements
Answer:
(d) advertisements

Question 13.
……………… has implemented many programmes by providing guest houses, water sports, tourist houses near coastal areas, etc.
(a) Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC)
(b) Maharashtra Transportation Development Corporation (MTDC)
(c) Maharashtra Traffic Development Corporation (MTDC)
(d) Maharashtra Training Development Corporation (MTDC)
Answer:
(a) Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC)

Question 14.
……………… is a train started especially for tourism which is operated in coordination with MTDC, Indian Railways and Ministry of Tourism.
(a) Deccan Chronicle
(b) Deccan Express
(c) Mumbai Local
(d) Deccan Odyssey
Answer:
(d) Deccan Odyssey

Question 15.
………………….. train takes the Delhi-Jaipur-Udaipur-Bharatpur-Agra- Delhi route.
(a) Palace of Tiles
(b) Palace on Train
(c) Palace on Wheels
(d) Palace in Rajasthan
Answer:
(c) Palace on Wheels

Question 16.
The Indian railways have started a new train with coaches having transparent ceiling as a special attraction for tourism.
(a) superdome
(b) astrodome
(c) imax dome
(d) vistadome
Answer:
(d) vistadome

Question 17.
………………….. is an eco-friendly type of tourism.
(a) Medical tourism
(b) Eco-tourism
(c) Social tourism
(d) Religious tourism
Answer:
(b) Eco-tourism

Question 18.
A pollution-free location away from the city holding an agricultural activity where the tourist is shown a glimpse of agricultural life is called
(a) agro-tourism
(b) social tourism
(c) cultural tourism
(d) medical tourism
Answer:
(a) agro-tourism

Question 19.
In and districts of Maharashtra number of agro-tourism centres have been developed.
(a) Pune, Mumbai
(b) Mumbai, Nagpur
(c) Pune, Kolhapur
(d) Kolhapur, Amravati
Answer:
(c) Pune, Kolhapur

Question 20.
Places, where film shooting takes place, are and
(a) Mumbai film city, Ramoji city
(b) Pune city and Mahableshwar
(c) Ramoji city and Pune city
(d) Lonavala and Khandala
Answer:
(a) Mumbai film city, Ramoji City

Question 21.
………………….. in Konkan is famous for its seabed and the biodiversity found there.
(a) Juhu Beach
(b) Tarkali
(c) Alibaugh
(d) Sindhudurg
Answer:
(b) Tarkali

Question 22.
The tribal life in of Maharashtra and visit to model villages like project of the social activist Baba Amte, Ralegan Siddhi, Hiwre Bazaar, etc. creates social consciousness.
(a) Phonda Ghat, Vrindavan
(b) Melghat, Sunderbans
(c) Melghat, Anandwan
(d) Bor Ghat, Anandwan
Answer:
(b) Melghat, Anandwan

Answer in one sentence

Question 1.
What is meant by tourism?
Answer:
Visiting various places away from our homes for getting joy, entertainment, trading, staying etc. is called tourism.

Question 2.
By which name is the tourism within one’s own country’s boundaries is known?
Answer:
The tourism within one’s own country’s boundaries is known as ‘domestic tourism’.

Question 3.
What do mean by International tourism?
Answer:
Crossing country’s boundaries and visiting some other country for tourism is called international tourism.

Question 4.
A visit to which places in Maharashtra creates social consciousness?
Answer:
Visit to Melghat to see the tribal life and visit to model villages like Anandwan, Ralegansiddhi, Hiwre Bazaaro of Maharashtra creates social consciousness.

Question 5.
Anandwan’ is a project of which social activist?
Answer:
Anandwan’ is a project of the social activistt Baba Amte.

Question 6.
What is Cultural Tourism?
Answer:
Cultural tourism is a type of tourism in which tourists travel to collect information and to experience traditions, customs, art, lifestyle of people, etc. of a particular region.

Question 7.
What is Health Tourism?
Answer:
Health tourism is a type of tourism in which tourists travel for availing health facilities, achieving mental peace and physical strength.

Question 8.
What do we require when travelling abroad?
Answer:
To go abroad one requires a passport, visa, travel insurance, other documents and currency of the country where we are going.

Question 9.
Name the agro-tourism centres in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Pune and Kolhapur districts of Maharashtra have agro-tourism centres.

Observe fig. 12.1 and answer the following questions: Use an atlas for reference:

Question 1.
Out of these, which tourist places1 do you know? Make a list.
Answer:
A list of known tourist places :

• Leh
• Shimla
• Mussoorie
• Nainital
• Jaisalmer
• Ajanta
• Ellora
• Tirupati
• Udagamandalam
• Rameshwar
• Jagannath puri
• Konark
• Khajuraho
• Panaji.

Question 2.
For what are the selected places famous?
Answer:
The selected places are famous for the following:

• Leh, Shimla, Mussoorie, Naini Tal, etc. – famous for their natural beauty.
• Rameshwaram, Tirupati, Jagannathpuri – religious places.
• Ajanta, Ellora, Konark, Khajuraho – cultural sites.
• Mumbai, Pune, Delhi, Kolkata – historical sites

Question 3.
Make a list of religious and historical sites from the map.
Answer:

Religious sites	Historical sites
Tirupati	Dwarka
Mathura	Agra
Varanasi	Jhansi
Konark	Jaipur

Question 4.
Make a list of hill stations, places having sanctuaries and places along the coasts.
Answer:
(A) Hill stations –

• Shimla
• Massoorie
• Nainital
• Darjiling

(B) Sanctuaries –

• Maharashtra – Koyna, Wild life Sanctuary
• Goa – Bird sanctuary
• Gujarat – Indina wild Ass. sanctuary
• Karnataka – Bhadra wild life sanctuary

(C) Places along coast –

• Mumbai
• Panaji
• Mangalore
• Chennai

Question 5.
Correlate the physiography and tourist places in India.
Answer:

• There is a close relationship between physiography and tourist places in India.
• Many tourist places are developed at various locations having different physiography.
• The hill stations like Jammu, Srinagar, Nainital, Darjiling, Udagamandalam are developed in mountainous region of India.
• The tourist places like Ujjain, Pune, Jabalpur, etc. are located at plateau region of India.
• The tourist places Jodhpur, etc. are developed in desert area of India.
• The tourist places like Mumbai, Panaji, Mangalore, Kanniyakumari, Chennai, etc. are located in the coastal area of India.

The tourism map of Maharashtra is given below. Answer the following questions based on the map:

Question 3.
Name the ports of Konkan coast and is there any connectivity of ports with tourism?
Answer:
Mumbai, Vijaydurg, Sindhudurg, Ratnagiri, Jaygad, Harne, Shrivardhan.
Yes, there is a close connectivity between ports and tourism as tourists can reach such places by sea without wasting much time in travelling.

Question 4.
Name some of the caves in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Karle, Bhaje, Mhasrul, Ajanta, Verul, Kharosa, Pullar are some of the caves in Maharashtra.

Give reason

Question 1.
Social development be accomplished through tourism.
Answer:

1. When facets1 like rural lifestyle, tribal life and culture are included in tourism then tourism gets a social dimension1 and the neglected components can be included in development.
2. The tribal life of Mel ghat of Maharashtra and visit to model villages like ‘Anandwan’, a project of the social activist Baba Amte, Ralegansidhhi, Hiwre Bazaar, etc. creates social consciousness and gives a fillip to development there.
3. There is a great potential2 for development of such a type of tourism in India through which social development can be accomplished.

Question 3.
Tourism is an invisible Trade’.
Answer:

1. Invisible Trade is a trade in which exchange of services occurs. Example of invisible trade. Tourism is a type of invisible trade.
2. Various restaurants, shops, transportation systems and recreational places are developed because of tourism and contribute directly to the economy.
3. Also, basic infrastructure improves and employment is generated which is an advantage to the economy indirectly.
4. Thus, tourism plays an important role in economic development and hence it is said that tourism is an invisible trade.

Question 4.
Tourism is good for environmental development.
Answer:

• Tourism is good for environmental development.
• Because of eco-friendly tourism concept, tourist places can be developed while caring for the environment.
• Factors like housing, resorts, traffic routes, etc. are also designed in an eco-friendly manner.
• In this type of development process, electricity, water are used very judiciously. The concept of recycle and reuse is also applied.
• Natural environment is maintained and tourism is developed too.

Answer in 2-3 Sentences.

Question 1.
What is the speciality of Deccan Odyssey?
Answer:

• Deccan Odyssey is a luxury train operated in co-ordination with MIDC, Indian Railways and Ministry of Tourism.
• Deccan Odyssey is like a moving palace.
• It originates at Mumbai and takes tourists to Nasik, Ellora, Ajanta, Koihapur, Goa and Ratnagiri.

Question 2.
Write about the luxury train for tourists visiting Northern india.
Answer:

• Palace on wheels” is the luxury train that covers the Northern India.
• This train takes the Deihi-Jaipur, Udaypur, Bharatpur, Agra Delhi route.
• Domestic arid foreign tourists enjoy travelling in this train.

Question 3.
Why is Vistadome a special attraction for tourists?
Answer:

• The coaches of Vistadome have a transparent ceiling which is a special attraction for tourists.
• It runs on the Vishakapatnam Kirandul route.
• As the train has a glass roof, the tourists can enjoy the panaromic view of the beautiful Arakuvalley, Anantgiri Ghat and Borra Coves.

Question 4.
What is Tarkarli in Konkan renowned for?
Answer:

• Tarkarli in Konkan is renowned for its seabed and biodiversity.
• Tourists can do snorkelling and scuba diving here.
• MTDC has set up a ‘scuba diving’ training centre of International standards at Tarkarli.

Question 5.
How is the GPS useful for tourists?
Answer:

• The GPS instrument found in applications like Google App location.
• Information regarding all possible routes of travel, distances, time require according to the type of vehicle, amenities on the way like petrol pump, restaurants etc. becomes available through GPS.

Write short note on:

Question 1.
GPS for tourism
Answer:

• The GPS system in our smartphones or the GPS instrument is largely used for tourism.
• For that we need special applications like the Google Map.
• We can know our exact location with the help of the map.
• Once it is decided where we want to head, then information regarding all the possible routes of travel, distances, time required according to type of vehicle, amenities on the way like petrol pump, restaurants, lodges, etc. becomes available in the app.
• We can use this for tourism.

Question 2.
MTDC
Answer:

• Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC) has implemented many programmes.
• It has provided guest houses, water sports, tourist houses near coastal areas, etc.
• “Deccan Odyssey” is a train started especially for tourism which is operated in coordination with MTDC, Indian Railways and Ministry of Tourism.
• The train originates at Mumbai and takes tourists to places like Nashik, Ellora, Ajanta, Kolhapur, Goa and Ratnagiri and back to Mumbai.

Question 3.
Domestic Tourism.
Answer:

• Tourism within the limits of the country is called Domestic Tourism.
• For example, a person from Maharashtra going to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu for a vacation, a person from Nagpur visiting Ellora Caves in Aurangabad and so on.

Question 4.
International Tourism.
Answer:

• Crossing the country’s boundaries and visiting some other country for tourism is called International Tourism.
  Glossary
• For example, an Indian going to Switzerland 1 for tourism, an American coming to India for tourism and so on.

Question 5.
Things required to travel to a foreign country.
Answer:
Following are the things required to travel to a foreign country:

• A Passport, visa, travel insurance and other documents.
• Currency of the country you are going to visit.

Question 6.
Eco-friendly tourism (Eco tourism).
Answer:

• The concept of eco-friendly tourism came into light when it was realised that due to increasing population, pollution and urbanization, environment is degrading.
• The nature of ecotourism is eco-friendly.
• In ecotourism, the tourists the place are visited by taking precautions of not damaging or degrading the environment.
• Ecotourism includes avoiding sound pollution, and air pollution, not hurting trees, birds, animals, etc. in the forests, etc.

Question 7.
Agro tourism.
Answer:

• Recently the concept of ‘agro-tourism’ has arisen which is visiting a pollution-free location away from the city holding an agricultural activity.
• In agro-tourism, the tourists are shown a glimpse of agricultural life.
• For a change from the urban life, tourists live on the farm and accept the hospitality of the farmers on payment in agro-tourism.
• In Pune and Kolhapur districts of Maharashtra number of agro-tourism centres have been developed.

Question 8.
Film tourism.
Answer:

• In film tourism, the locations where films are shot are shown to the tourists.
• A number of amenities and facilities are provided at such places to attract tourists.
• Mumbai film city, Ramoji film city are the famous film tourist places in India.

Question 9.
Coastal (sea) tourism
Answer:

• Coastal (sea) tourism is a new type of tourism.
• Tarkarli in Konkan is famous for snorkelling and scuba diving. It is also famous for its seabed and the biodiversity.
• MTDC has started a ‘scuba diving training centre’ of international standards at Tarkarli of Malwan taluka in Sindhudurg district.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Which new forms of tourism have developed recently?
Answer:
In recent years, the following are the new forms of tourism that have developed:

• Eco-tourism: While touring a place the environment should not be degraded or damaged by tourists, then it is called Ecotourism.
• Agro-tourism: Concept of ‘agro-tourism’ has arisen where pollution-free location away from the city holding an agricultural activity is visited. There the tourists are shown a glimpse of agricultural life.
• Film Tourism: Film tourism is a new type of tourism. The locations where films are shot are shown to tourists.
• Medical Tourism: The medicinal and surgical treatment in Indian hospitals are cost-effective and therefore, many patients from various developing countries come here for treatment.
• Medical Tourism develops from such facilities required by these tourists.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of tourist development in India.
Answer:

• India is diverse in terms of culture and nature, due to which India has a lot of potential for tourism.
• The richness of natural beauty in India, attractive landscapes and high mountains like Flimalayas exquisite coastal areas attract tourists.
• Also, the diversity of Indian culture, festivals, traditions and customs have resulted in opportunities for tourism in India.

Question 8.
What are the reasons of following medical tourists in India?
Answer:

• Many tourists visit India to avail health facilities, to achieve mental peace and physical strength through Indian Ayurveda, Yoga and Pranayam.
• The medicinal and surgical treatment in Indian hospitals are cost-effective and therefore many patients from various developing countries come here for treatment.
• Hence, medical Tourism develops from the facilities required by these tourists.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 2 Historiography Indian Tradition

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) …………………..…….. was the first Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India.
(a) Alexander Cunningham
(b) William Jones
(c) John Marshall
(d) Friedrich Max Muller
Answer:
(a) Sir Alexander Cunningham

(2) …………………..…….. translated the Sanskrit text of ‘Hitopadesh’ in the German language.
(a) James Mill
(b) Friedrich Max Muller
(c) Mountstuart Elphinstone
(d) Sir John Marshall
Answer:
(b) Friedrich Max Muller

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) ‘Who were the Shudras’ – subaltern History
(2) ‘Stri-Purush Tulana’ – Feminist writing
(3) ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ – Marxist History
(4) Grant Duff – Colonial History.
Answer:
(1) Right Pair: ‘Who were the Shudras’ – subaltern History
(2) Right Pair: ‘Stri-Purush Tulana’ – Feminist writing
(3) Wrong Pair: ‘The Indian War of Independence 1857’ – Marxist History
(4) Right Pair: Grant Duff – Colonial History.

Question 2.
Explain the following with its reason.
(1) Writing of the regional history received a momentum.
Answer:

• Indian historians trained in the British educational system showed an inclination to restore the self-esteem of Indians They started writing Nationalistic historiography.
• Historians from the different regions of India criticised the prejudiced history of India written by the British officers.
• Their attention was drawn towards geographic conditions and history of different regions of India.
• The nationalistic historiography helped in triggering the independence movement.
• It provided a momentum to the writing of regional histories for e.g.
• Nationalistic writings in Maharashtra were inspired by Vishnu Shastri Chiplunkar.

Hence, writing of the regional history received momentum.

(2) Bakhar is an important type of historical documents.
Answer:

• Bakhars are important source of history like coins, inscriptions, texts, copper plates and travelogues.
• Bakhars contain eulogies of the heroes, historic events, stories of lives of great men and description of battles.
• It portrays a picture of prevalent society, religions and economic life.
• Bakhars are of various types which contain biographies of kings, dynastic history, description of events, sects, autobiographies, mythologies, administration of kings, etc.
• These descriptions are helpful for writing historiography.
• Among well-known Marathi. Bakhars ‘Sabhasad Bakhar’ written by Krishnaji Anant Sabhasad requires a special mention Bhausahebanchi Bakhar and Panipatachi Bakhar describe the ‘Battle of Panipat’.

Hence, Bakhars are important type of historical document.

Question 3.
Write detailed Answers the following questions in detail.
(1) What is Marxist History?
Answer:

1. In the post-independence era, new trends emerged in writing Indian historiography. Marxist historiography is prominent among them.
2. Historiography which is based on ideas of Karl Marx is known as Marxist Historiography. In Marxist Historiography, more importance was given to class struggles.
3. Marxist Historiography reflects concerns for means and modes of production as well as the industrial relations. These became centre of writings of the Marxist historians.
4. How every social event affects the life of people was analysed and it became the theme of Marxist historians Marxist historians studied the transitions that took place in the caste system.
5. Notable Indian historians who adopted Marxist ideologies were Damodar Kosambi, Comrade Shripad Dange, Sharad Patil and Ram Sharan Sharma.
6. Their writings reflected Marxist ideology. Comrade Dange was the founder member of the Indian Communist Party

(2) What is the contribution of Itihasacharya V.K. Rajwade to historiography?
Answer:

1. V.K. Rajwade is well-known for his writings in Marathi on subjects like history, linguistics, etymology and grammar. His contributions are as follows:
2. He compiled and edited 22 volumes of Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane.
3. He stated that history is the all-inclusive image of the past societies.
4. V. K. Rajwade was of the view that history does not include only the stories of political images, conspiracies and Wars for seizing power.
5. He was of the firm opinion that we should write our own history and insisted that history . should be written only using the authentic sources.
6. He was of the opinion that description of any human event in historiography should have balanced combination of three factors namely – Time, Space and Personalities.

Question 4.
(a) Complete the following chart.

Historian	Name of the Book
James Mill	‘The History of British India’
James Grant Duff	……………………………………………
……………………………………………	‘The History of India’
S.A. Dange	……………………………………………
……………………………………………	‘Who were the Shudras’

Answer:

Historian	Name of the Book
James Mill	The History of British India
James Grant Duff	A History of Mahrattas
Mountstuart Elphinstone	The History of India
S. A. Dange	Primitive Communism to Slavery
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar	Who Were the Shudras

(b) Complete the following concept chart.

Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Orientalist historiography.
Answer:

1. In the later part of the eighteenth century many European scholars felt curious to know about civilisations and countries of the East.
2. These scholars who studied the Indian Civilization had respect and admiration for it. They were known as ‘Orientalists’.
3. They studied similarities between Sanskrit and some of the European languages, focussing more on Vedic traditions and Sanskrit literature.
4. It resulted in the notion that an ancient language could be the mother of all Indo-European languages.
5. Notable Orientalist scholars are Friedrich Max Muller and William Jones.

(2) Nationalistic historiography.
Answer:

1. English education started in India in the nineteenth century. The Indian historians who were trained in English education system realised the glory of their past.
2. They showed an inclination to restore the pride in the ancient glory of India and the self-esteem of the Indian readers.
3. They laid the foundation of Nationalistic writing. Nationalistic writings in Maharashtra were inspired by ‘Vishnushastri Chiplunkar’.
4. Nationalistic historians opposed the prejudiced history written by the British officers.
5. Mahadev Govind Ranade, Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, Ramesh Chandra Majumdar are renowned Nationalistic historians.
6. Nationalistic historiography inspired freedom struggle against the Britishers and gave momentum to write about regional history. While glorifying the past, at times they are blamed for ignoring to critically analyse the truth.

(3) Subaltern history.
Answer:

• History of deprived classes or communities who were deprived of all rights is known as subaltern history.
• The seeds of subaltern history can be traced in the Marxist history. Italian historian Antonio Gramsci has special importance in writing the subaltern history.
• He presented the idea that history should be written starting from the bottommost ranks of people in the society.
• Ranjit Guha, an Indian historian, has given prominence to subaltern history and played a major role in establishing it as an important academic school of historiography.
• Similar thoughts were expressed by Mahatma Phule and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar which can be found in their writings.

Project
Prepare an illustrated manuscript with the help of the internet giving more information about the historians mentioned in this lesson.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing a correct option:
(a) The first written document found in India was inscribed during the rule of Emperor ……………….. .
(a) Akbar
(b) Harshavardhan
(c) Ashoka Maurya
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer:
(c) Ashoka Maurya

(b) Banabhatta wrote King Harsha’s biography titled ………………… in the 7th century CE.
(a) Meghdoot
(b) Rajtarangini
(c) Rasratnakar
(d) Harshacharit
Answer:
(d) Harshacharit

(c) In the 12th century C.E., ………………… wrote a book ‘Rajtarangini’ about history of Kashmir.
(a) Banabhatta
(b) Kalhana
(c) Ziquddin Barani
(d) Patanjali
Answer:
(b) Kalhana.

(d) The historians in the courts of Muslim rulers were influenced by ………………… historiography.
(a) Greek and Roman
(b) Arabic and Persian
(c) English and French
(d) Arabic and Urdu
Answer:
(b) Arabic and Persian

(e) We get information about the rule of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj from ……………….. .
(a) Bhausahebanchi Bakhar
(b) Panipatachi Bakhar
(c) Sabhasad Bakhar
(d) Holkaranchi Bakhar
Answer:
(c) Sabhasad Bakhar

(f) ‘Bhausahebanchi Bakhar’ describes Battle of ……………….. .
(a) Raigad
(b) Panipat
(c) Plassey
(d) Vasai
Answer:
(b) Panipat

(g) The first book written by a British historian on Indian history is ……………….. .
(a) The History of India
(b) The History of Maharaj
(c) The History of British India
(d) The Sacred Books of the East
Answer:
(c) The History of British India

(h) Nilkanth Janardan Kirtane and V.K. Rajwade exposed the limitations in writings of ……………….. .
(a) Friedrich Max Muller
(b) Colonel Todd
(c) Grant Duff
(d) William Wilson Hunter
Answer:
(c) Grant Duff

(i) …………………, an Indian historian played a major role in establishing subaltern history as an important academic school of historiography.
(a) Comrade Sharad Patil
(b) Ranjit Guha
(c) Dharmanand Kosambi
(d) Ram Sharan Sharma
Answer:
(b) Ranjit Guha.

(j) The writings of British officials on India display strong influence of ……………….. .
(a) Marxism
(b) Colonalism
(c) Feminism
(d) Capitalism
Answer:
(b) Colonalism

(k) The Nationalistic Historiography in Maharashtra was inspired by works of ……………….. .
(a) Vinayak Damotfar Savarkar
(b) Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar
(c) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(d) Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade
Answer:
(c) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar

(l) The two volumes written by ……………….. on Indian history show impartial treatment of the subject.
(a) Colonel Todd
(b) William Wilson Hunter
(c) Grant Duff
(d) James Mill
Answer:
(b) William Wilson Hunter

(m) ‘Primitive Communism to Slavery’, represents ……………….. the historiography.
(a) Colonial
(b) Orientalist
(c) Nationalistic
(d) Marxist
Answer:
(d) Marxist

(n) ‘Stripurush Tulana’ was written by ……………….. is acknowledged as first feminist book in India.
(a) Meera Kosambi
(b) Dr. Sharmila Rege
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Pandita Ramabai
Answer:
(c) Tarabai Shinde.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair and write it:
(1)

Name of the Book	Types of Historiography
(1) Who were the	(a) Subaltern history
Shudras	(July ’19)
(2) Stripurush Tulana	(b) Feminist writing
(3) The Indian War of Independence	(c) Marxist History
(4) Grant Duff	(d) Colonial History

Answer:
Wrong pair: The Indian War of Independence – Marxist History.

(2)

Name of the Book	Historian
(1) The Rise of the Maratha Power	(a) Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade
(2) Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane	(b) Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(3) Maratha Riyasat	(c) Govind Sakharam Sardesai
(4) Gulamgiri	(d) Mahatma Phule

Answer:
Wrong pair: Marathyanchya Itihasachi Sadhane- Vishnushastri Chiplunkar.

(3)

Work	Scholars
(1)  Bharat Itihas Samshodhak Manda	(a)   V. K. Rajwade
(2)  Asiatic Society	(b)   Sir William Jones
(3)  Inspiration for Nationalistic historiography	(c)  Vishnushastri Chiplunkar
(4)  Discovery of Harappan Civilization	(d)  James Mill

Answer:
Wrong pair: Discovery of Harappan CIvilization – James Mill.

(4)

Historiography	Historian
(1) Nationalistic Historiography	(a) V. D. Savarkar
(2) Marxist Historiography	(b) Damodar Kosambi
(3) Subaltern Historiography	(c) Ramchandra Guha
(4) Feminist Historiography	(d) Sharmila Rege

Answer:
Wrong pair: Subaltern Historiography – Bamchandra Guha.

Question 8.
Do as directed:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3) Prepare a flow chart on Literary work of Max Muller:
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the concepts:
(a) Colonial Historiography:
Answer:

• The history written by British officers and Christian missionaries in support of British rule and colonialism is known as Colonial historiography.
• It reflected their prejudiced mindset about Indian culture. They ridiculed the Indian culture as being primitive.
• Their writings justified the colonial British rule.
• The distinct example of colonial historiography is ‘Cambridge History of India’ in five volumes published during 1922-1937.

Question 10.
Write short notes:
(a) Alexander Cunningham:
Answer:

• British rulers started archaeological exploration and research in India in the 20th century.
• They established the Archaeological Survey of India and appointed Sir Alexander Cunningham as its first Director General.
• He mainly chose the sites mentioned in the Buddhist texts for excavations.
• Many other ancient sites were excavated under his supervision.

(b) James Mill:
Answer:

• James Mill, a‘British historian, had written the monumental book ‘The History of British India’. He published it in three volumes in 1817.
• The book is important as it was the first book written by a British officer on Indian history.
• The book: lacks objective perspective and is prejudiced about various aspects of the Indian culture.

(c) Grant Duff:
Answer:

• Grant Duff, a British officer, wrote the book ‘A History of Mahrattas’, in three volumes.
• His name stands out among the British officers who wrote about Maratha history.
• The tendency of the British historians to condemn Indian culture and history is found in Grant Duff’s writing.
• Historians Nilkanth Janardan Kirtane and Vishwanath Kashinath Rajwade exposed the limitations of Grant Duff’s writings.

(d) Indian Feminist Historiography:
Answer:

1. Tarabai Shinde, Pandita Ramabai and Dr. Rukhamabai were feminist historians before independence.
2. They wrote about employment of women, their right to political equality, treatment meted out to women at their workplace and gender discrimination.
3. A lot of literature is available unfolding the viewpoint of Dalit women on problems like social class, caste, etc. In the post-independence era.
4. Dr. Sharmila Rege included her essays on the autobiographies of Dalit women in her book, ‘Writing Caste, Writing Gender: Reading Dalit Women’s Testimonies.’
5. Meera Kosambi’s book, ‘Crossing Thresholds: Feminist Essays in Social History’ contains essays on the life stories of women like Pandita Ramabai and Dr. Rukhamabai, the first practising lady Doctor of India.

Question 11.
Explain the following with reasons:
(a) The history of Indian civilization dates back to 3rd millennium BCE.
Answer:

• Indian civilisation is among the various ancient civilisations in the world.
• Excavations at Harappa took place in 1920 under the supervision of Sir John Marshall, then Director General of Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). This led to the discovery of Harappan Civilization.
• This discovery prqved helpful to trace the antiquity of Indian history which dates back 3rd millennium BCE or earlier.

(b) It became necessary to rethink of women’s position in history.
Answer:

• For a considerable period of time, mainly male scholars were involved in the writing of Indian history.
• It was obvious that the perspective was male-dominated.
• The work of the women historians was neglected for long. So it became important to highlight this fact.
• It was a huge challenge in front of the women: historians to compile the work and do research which would prove to be a medium to put forth their status in society.

Hence, it became necessary to rethink about the position of women in history.

(c) Govind Sakharam Sardesai was addressed as ‘Riyasatkar’.
Answer:

• Govind Sakharam Sardesai had a momentous achievement to his credit by publishing ‘Maratha Riyasat’.
• He published several volumes of Maratha history.
• His work became so popular that people began to address him as ‘Riyasatkar’.

Question 12.
Answer the following in 25-30 words:
(a) Which things are included in the description by Emperor Babur in bis autobiography?
Answer:
Babur, the founder of the Mughal empire, in his autobiography entitled Tuzuk-i-Babari describes:

• The battles fought by him.
• Recordings of minute observations of various regions and cities visited by him noting minute observations.
• Observation of the local customs, economy, fauna and flora of the region travelled by him.

(b) What is the contribution of Swatantryaveer Savarkar to nationalistic historiography?
Answer:

1. The writings of Swatantryaveer Savarkar were infused with nationalistic ideas. He looked at the revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence and wrote the ‘book ‘The Indian War of Independence, 1857’.
2. His book gave inspiration to Nationalistic historiography which helped in triggering independence movement of the Indian people against the British. Even the writing of regional history got momentum.
3. The attention of historians was drawn towards the history and geographic conditions and variations in the South Indian region.

(c) Write about the contribution of Banabhatta in writing historiographies.
Answer:

• It was considered an important step in the Indian historiography to write biographies of kings and dynastic histories.
• Banabhatta wrote Harshacharit, King Harsha’s biography, in the 7th century C.E.
• It portrays a realistic picture of the social, economic, political, religious and cultural life during the period when King Harsha ruled.

(d) Write information on ‘Rajtarangini’.
Answer:

• Rajtarangini was written by Kalhana in the 12th century C.E. It traces the history of Kashmir.
• These eight books contain records of dynasties which ruled Kashmir, local traditions, coins, remains of monuments and inscriptions. Kalhana wrote the text after critically examining the various sources.
• The book is a good example to show how scientific technique is applied in writing history.

(e) Write about historiography in the post-independence period.
Answer:

• In the post-independence period, along with dynastic history, cultural, social and economic histories were also written.
• New schools of thought like Marxist, Subaltern and Feminist History were included in historiography.
• The scholars in this era began to feel the need of writing histories of various communities, sciences, economic systems, political ideologies, cultural aspects, etc.
• They presented the new schools of ideologies. These changes increased the scope of writing historiography.

(f) What are the objectives of writing history according to Ziauddin Barani?
Answer:

• Ziauddin Barani explained the ’ objectives of historiography. According to him, the duty of a historian does not end with recording the ruler’s valour and welfare policies.
• He should also write about the ruler’s failings and incorrect policies.
• He further adds that a historian should also take into account the impact of the teachings of the wise, the learned and the saints on the cultural life of people.

Thus, Ziauddin Barani holds important place as he expanded the scope of historiography.

(g) What are the salient features of writings of historians in the courts of Mughal emperors?
Answer:
The salient features of writings of historians in the courts of Mughal emperors are:

• Historians praised the Mughal emperors in their writings.
• Their loyalty towards the rulers is exhibited.
• The custom of adding suitable poetic quotes was introduced. The historians started to include beautiful pictures as well.

(h) Write about the importance of Tarabai Shinde in writing feminist historiography. *
Answer:

• Tarabai Shinde has a prominent place among the feminist historians who wrote about women in the nineteenth century, i.e. pre-independence era.
• She wrote a book Stripurush Tulana which was published in 1882. It is acknowledged as the first feminist book published in India.
• Her writings attacked the male-dominated social system and the caste system.

Question 13.
Read the given passage and answer the questions given below:
(a) Complete the graphical presentation:

Answer:

(b) What was considered more important by the historians in the Mughal Court?
Answer:
Praising the Mughal emperor and exhibition of loyalty was considered more 8 important by the historians in the Mughal Court.

(c) Why is Abbul Fazl’s writing considered realistic?
Answer:

• Abul Fazl’s Akbarnama reflects his critical viewpoint.
• He collected authentic historical documents for this book.
• He scrutinized these documents to affirm their reliability. Therefore, his method is looked upon as devoid of bias and hence realistic.

Question 14.
Write detailed answers to the following questions:
(a) Write information about historiography in the ancient period of India.
Answer:

• In the ancient period, stories of great deeds of ancestors, mythological lore, memories of social transitions were preserved through oral traditions.
• The art of writing was mastered by Indians as early as 3rd millennium B.C.E. But Harappan script is not deciphered yet.
• The earliest written documents found in India were in the form of inscriptions that are as old as 3rd century B.C.E. during the period of Emperor Ashok. His edicts are inscribed on natural rocks and stone pillars.
• Inscriptions started to occur on coins, metal images and sculptures and also on copper plates from the 1st century B.C.E.
• Epics like Ramayana, Mahabharat, Puranas, Jain and Buddhist texts are important sources of ancient Indian literature.
• Historical accounts by Indian authors and travelogues by foreign travellers are also important sources of history.

(b) Explain the works of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and Mahatma Phule in Subaltern History.
Answer:

• History of the deprived classes expressed in folklore was known as ‘Subaltern History’.
• Similar thoughts were expressed by Mahatma Jotirao Phule and Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
• Mahatma Phule unfolded the history of the Shudratishudra communities in his book ‘Gulamgiri’.
• He drew attention to show how women, Shudras and Atishudras were exploited under the name of religion.
• Dr. Ambedkar focused on the idea that in spite of having a significant role in shaping the cultural and political aspects of India, the role of Dalits was not duly acknowledged in colonial and nationalistic historiography.
• Injustice done to the Dalits was mostly written by him. ‘Who Were the Shudras’ and ‘The Untouchables’ are his books which can be cited as examples of subaltern history.

Question 15.
Observe the given picture and answer the question given below:

(a) Write a short note on Copper-plate inscriptions.

Answer:

• The copper-plate shown in the picture was found at Sohagaura in Gorakhpur district in Uttar Pradesh.
• It is supposed to be from the Mauryan period and the inscription on it is in Brahmi script.
• Many symbols are inscribed on it ‘Tree-in-railing’ and ‘Mountain’ at the beginning of inscription occur on punch marked coins.
• A structure created on four pillars is indicative of a granary.
• The inscriptions have a record of royal order that the grains stored in the granary should be distributed carefully.
• This order is suggestive of precautionary measures taken during famine.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 7 Sports and History

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) The ancient event of Olympic competitions used to be held at ………………………… .
(a) Olympia, Greece
(b) Rome
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Greece

(2) The wooden dolls made in Maharashtra are known as ………………………… .
(a) Thaki
(b) Kalichandika
(c) Gangavati
(d) Champavati
Answer:
(a) Thaki

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Mallakhamb – Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water polo – Water sport
(3) Skating – Adventurous ice sport
(4) Chess – Outdoor game
Answer:
(4) Chess – Outdoor game

Question 2.
Write notes :
(1) Toys and Festivals
Answer:

• Toys and festivals are inter-related since ancient times.
• Toys are used for decoration in different cultures and religions during festivals.
• In some cultures toys are distributed as gifts. Santa Claus gifts children toys during Christmas.
• As part of Diwali celebration in Maharashtra, model forts are made displaying images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, his soldiers and animals which are toys.
• Clay images of snakes and bullocks are- sold during festivals like Bail pola and Nagpanchami.

(2) Sports and movies
Answer:

• The presence of sports was limited to a scene in the movies made earlier.
• In recent times, biographical movies are made on sportspersons and on sports.
• Movies like Lagaan and Dangal are made related to cricket and wrestling respectively.
• Biographical movies are made on Mary Kom, and the Phogat sisters.
• Movies are made on careers of famous sprinter Milkha Singh.
• Bharat Ratna Sachin Tendulkar and Cricketer Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
• Overall, movies and sports are related from the silent era till date.

Question 3.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) Currently the structure of sports economy has been significantly affected.
Answer:

• The process of globalisation has influenced the field of sports in the 20th-21st century.
• International matches of various sports like Cricket, Football, etc. are*telecast in every corner of the world.
• Fans watch these matches for entertainment,r and aspiring players to learn more.
• The citizens of the non-participating countries also watch these matches.
• Retired players get a chance on television channels as commentators.
• Matches garner a large audience, hence the commercial companies look at it as an opportunity to advertise and sell their products.
• All these factors have led to change in the structure of sports economy.

(2) Toys can tell us about cultural history.
Answer:
A tradition of making different type of toys for entertainment is going on since ancient time.

• Toys give us an idea about the cultural and religious development of that period.
• Clay models of forts and the images of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj placed on fort gives us an idea about the structures of forts during that period.
• An ivory doll found at Pompeii, an ancient city in Italy, sheds light on Indo-Roman trade and cultural relations.
• The mention of games, toys and flying and dancing dolls in Kathasaritsagara give us an idea about cultural history of toys. In this way, we come to know about cultural history from toys.

Question 4.
Write detailed answers to the following questions.
(1) Write about the history of sports equipment and toys in ancient India.
Answer:

1. The history of sports equipment and toys dates back to epic age. The ancient Indian literature and epics mention various games such as games of dice, wrestling, horse and chariot race.
2. Sports are of two types ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor games such as chess, card games, dice, carrom, kachkavadya or Indian ludo, Bhatukli were very popular. It can be noted that all of them required equipment to play.
3. Cards to play card games, dice to play game of dice, a board and pieces to play chess, bunch of seeds or stones to play sagargote; (playing house) to play Bhatukli.
4. Likewise, Outdoor games like marbles, lagori (seven stones), vitti-dandu, bhavare (tops) all require material like marbles, stones, tops, a small and large stick to play.
5. A Sanskrit play by Shudraka is named as Mrichchhakatika. It means a clay cart. A clay cart was a toy used to play during Harappan period.
6. Kathasaritsagara has very interesting descriptions of games and toys. There are descriptions of flying dolls. There is a mention that on pressing a key some dolls used to fly, some used to dance and some used to make sounds.

(2) Explain the close tie between sports and history.
Answer:
Sports and history are closely related with each other.

1. It is a must for a sports writer to know the history of the game he chooses to write on.
2. In order to write a review on any sport competition, the critic should have knowledge of competitions held in the past.
3. A comparative study of the skills, techniques and strategies used in the past and developments or improvements in the present makes the review comprehensive.
4. The writer has to resort to history while writing columns or articles on sports events like Olympics or Asiad or any national or international matches.
5. While commentating on Akashvani and Doordarshan, an expert commentator needs to have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records of illustrious and eminent players, statistical analysis and historical anecdotes related to the game and players.
6. Coaches, special experts, selection committee should have information of the players, their strength and weakness and also history of the players in the opposing team. Even players should know history of their competitors.
   In short, it is essential to know the history of all the aspects related to sports.

(3) Explain the difference between indoor and outdoor games.
Answer:

Indoor games	Outdoor games
1. Most of the indoor games are played by sitting at one place. They are played in a closed environment.	1. Outdoor games are played on a field.
2. Indoor games require skills but physical exercise is negligible.	2. Outdoor games need more physical exercise and skill.
3. As there is no exertion in indoor games, so it is not essential to develop stamina.	3. Outdoor games require stamina and strength.
4. Indoor games do not involve adventure.	4. Outdoor games involve adventures at times, e.g.. Auto racing
5. Indoor games includes Chess, Indian Ludo (Playing house) Bhatukli and many more.	5. Outdoor games involve national and international games like Kabaddi, Kho-kho, Hockey, Cricket, etc.
6. With the exception of chess and carrom no competitions are held for rest of the Indoor games.	6. National and international competitions are held of almost all outdoor games.

Project
(1) Collect information about your favorite sports and its players.
(2) Discuss the hardships the sportspersons have to face while training for the sport with the help of information gathered through movies and literature.

Question 5.
Complete the sentences by choosing the correct option:
(a) The activity which combines physical exercise and entertainment is ……………………….. .
(a) Show
(b) Attitude
(c) Sports
(d) Competition
Answer:
(c) Sports

(b) ……………………….. was looked upon as a game and entertainment by ancient people.
(a) Dancing
(b) Playing
(c) Singing
(d) Hunting
Answer:
(d) Hunting

(c) ……………………….. and its various tactics were devised by Balambhat Deodhar, the physical trainer of Peshwa Bajirao II.
(a) Kabaddi
(b) Atyapatya
(c) Khokho
(d) Mallakhamb
Answer:
(d) Mallakhamb.

(d) The Indian Government has honoured Sachin, Tendulkar with ……………………… for his illustrious achievements in the field of cricket.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Khel Ratna
(c) Arjuna Award
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(d) Bharat Ratna

(e) ……………………… is the national game of India.
(a) Hockey
(b) Cricket
(c) Football
(d) Kabaddi
Answer:
(a) Hockey

(f) The National Sports Day of India is celebrated on 29th August which is the birth date of …………………….. .
(a) Khashaba Jadhav
(b) Sachin Tendulkar
(c) Major Dhyan Chand
(d) Bal J. Pandit
Answer:
(c) Major Dhyan Chand

(g) Vishnubhat Godse in his book Maza Pravas wrote that sports and physical activity had great importance in the daily schedule of ………………………
(a) Tatya Tope
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai
(c) Bahadur Shah Jaffar
(d) Nanasaheb Peshwa
Answer:
(b) Queen of Jhansi Lakshmibai

(g) Maruti Mane is known for …………………….. .
(a) Hockey
(b) Kabaddi
(c) Marathon
(d) Wrestling
Answer:
(d) Wrestling.

(h) …………………….. wrote the play Mrichchhakatika which means a clay cart.
(a) Harshvardhan
(b) Shudraka
(c) Bhavbhuti
(4) Kalidas
Answer:
(b) Shudraka

(i) The findings in the excavations of …………………….., an ancient city in Italy includes an ivory doll made by Indian craftsmen.
(a) Rome
(b) Athens
(c) Sparta
(d) Pompeii
Answer:
(d) Pompeii

(j) An interesting description of games and toys is found in ……………………. .
(a) Shakuntal
(b) Panchatantra
(c) Mrichchhakatika
(d) Kathasaritsagara
Answer:
(d) Kathasaritsagara

(k) Major Dhyan Chand was honoured in 1956 with …………………….. for his marvellous achievements in hockey.
(a) Padma Shri
(b) Padma Bhushan
(c) Padma Vibhushan
(d) Bharat Ratna
Answer:
(c) Padma Bhushan

(l) …………………….. was the first Indian female boxer to win a bronze medal in the Olympics.
(a) P 7 Sindhu
(b) Mary Kom
(c) Geeta Phoghat
(d) Saina Nehwal
Answer:
(b) Mary Kom.

Question 6.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

(1) Mallakhamb	Outdoor game based on physical skills
(2) Water Polo	Water sport
(3) Skating	Adventure ice sports
(4) Chess	Outdoor game

Answer:
Wrong pair: Chess – Outdoor game

(2)

(1) Mallakhamb trainer	Balambhat Deodhar
(2) Wizard of Hockey	Milkha Singh
(3) First Indian female boxer	Mary Kom
(4) First Indian female wrestlers	Phogat sisters

Answer:
Wrong pair: Wizard of Hockey – Milkha Singh

Question 7.
Do as directed
(A) Complete the graphical description:
(1)

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

(B) Prepare a Tree-Diagram on typs of games:
Answer:

Question 8.
Write short notes:

(a) Indigenous Games:
Answer:

1. The games which have their origin in India and are an important part of Indian culture are indigenous games.
2. They are of two types – ‘Indoor Games’ and ‘Outdoor Games’. Indoor Games are played within a closed environment and a number of them are played by sitting at one place. Chess, card games, dice, carrom, etc. are indigenous indoor games.
3. An open space or preferably a playground is required to play outdoor games. Kabaddi, Atyapatya, Kho-kho etc. are indigenous outdoor games.
4. The special feature of indigenous games is that they do not require high cost material and hence are less expensive. Phugadi, Zimma, Bhatukali are some of the indigenous games played by girls. In modern times, all national and international games are played by both girls and boys.

Question 9.
Explain the following statements with reasons:

(a) Major Dhyan Chand is called the Wizard of Hockey.
Answer:

• Major Dhyan Chand was part of hockey teams as a player in 1928 and 1932 which won gold medal at Olympics.
• He was also captain of the Indian Hockey team which won a Gold Medal at the Berlin Olympics in 1936.
• He shot 25 goals against America and Japan in the 1932 Olympics.
• He shot more than 400 goals in his entire career which include national and international matches. Owing to his brilliant achievement he is called the ‘Wizard of Hockey’.

(b) Globalisation has influenced sports.
Answer:

1. No sport is limited to any one country. Television and other media channels telecast matches widening the reach of sports in all comejcs, of the world.
2. International competition Asiad, Paralympics, Cricket Wc watched by people irrespective r
   part of the world.
3. World Cup matches of cricket, hockey and football are held.
4. No country has a monopoly on any sport which means that globalisation has influenced sports.

(c) A commentator should know the history of the game.
Answer:

• The mere description of a live match is not enough for commentators.
• A commentator should have good knowledge of the history of the game, previous records (who made or who broke) and eminent players in the past as well as events related to different competitions.
• Along with the history and information of the playground, commentator should narrate records made by the players in different matches.
• It will make his commentary interesting. Therefore, it is essential for the commentator to know the history of the game.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in 25-30 words:
(a) Explain the importance of sports.
Answer:
Sports has gained great importance for the following reasons:

• Sports helps us to overcome our pains, worries and sufferings. We feel relaxed and refreshed by playing games.
• Games which involve a lot of physical activity not only provide good exercise but also help in building a tenacious and strong body.
• One. can develop courage; determination and sportsmanship playing games. A sense of cooperation and teamspirit develops when we participate in games which require collective participation.
• Team games also help in developing a leadership! quality.

(b) Write about the history of sports.
Answer:

• It is a natural instinct in human beings to play. From beginning of civilisation till date man has played different types of games for his entertainment.
• Hunting was a way of obtaining food for the ancient people as well as considered a game.
• Horse and chariot races, wrestling, game of dice (dyut) are mentioned in ancient Indian literary texts and epics.
• Dolls, whistles, toy carts were discovered in the excavations at Harappa. So, it can be said that the history of sports is as old as the history of man.

(c) Write about the importance of sports in education field.
Answer:

• Sports are an integral part „ of education. The making of a player begins at school level.
• Many types of sports events are held at the international level. To make the players competent they are given opportunity to play at district, state and national level.
• They are promoted and sponsored by the government and private sectors. Talented and ranking players get State scholarship or National scholarship.
• Seats are reserved for them in colleges and Universities. It has been observed that the foundation of successful players is laid in school life.

(d) What do we need to know while making movies on sports?
Answer:
While making a movie on sports the makers should have complete information of the. sport as well as its history.

1. Nowadays special research teams are appointed by production houses which do thorough research on the subject of the movie.
2. In order to gather information on the sportsperson or the sport it is essential to study books, articles, columns written by eminent sports writers.
3. If the movie is on a sportsperson, all interviews published in national and international magazines and newspapers should be read.
4. Factors such as period, type of equipment used, sports wear, dressing style, social life needs to be studied.
5. General understanding of the people about the game, practises and famous sportspersons is required.

Question 11.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions:

(a) Complete the Concept Map:

Answer:

(b) How are the experts in history helpful regarding international sports competition?
Answer:
Experts in history are helpful to write and critically analyse the game.

(c) How are professional opportunities available in field of sports?
Answer:
There are many professional opportunities available in the field of sports.

• Writers are in demand who can write on sports and critics to write reviews are in demand.
• Commentators are in demand on Television, radio and various other private channels. Experts and assistants are needed to provide information regularly.
• Coaches train the players, playground staff to maintain the field, umpires, etc.
• Cameramen, computer experts and team of assistants to have uninterrupted transmission. Trained and qualified referees are required to work at district, national and international levels.
• Overall, a great number of job opportunities are available in the field of sports.

Question 12.
Write a detailed answer to the following:

(a) Write about the history of sports literature and toys in ancient India.
Answer:
A new enterprise is developing in publishing related to sports in India. There is extensive written work on various sports.

• Many books related to sports and biographies are published. Encylopaedias are being written on sports.
• An independent encyclopaedia is written on exercise. The History of Mallakhamb is recently published.
• Sports magazines are published fortnightly and monthly.
• Many newspapers have allotted a separate section or last pages for news related to sports.
• ‘Shatkar’ was a sports magazine published some years ago. There is ample of literature available on sports.

(b) Trace the development of toys and their importance.
Answer:

• Toys and games have been essentially part of entertainment from ancient times. Every I developing society has made toys for the 8 entertainment and education of their children.
• Toys were found at archaeological sites at various places. The toys were made of clay, baked clay, terracotta and ivory.
• Either a mould was used to make the toy or it was fashioned by hand.
• Toys and the material used to make them were indicators of the development and advancement of civilisations.
• An interesting description of flying dolls is found in Kathasaritsagara. The dolls used to fly, made some sound and some danced when a key was pressed.
• Toys give us information about the period it was made, how they were made, religious and 8 cultural practices and technical know-how of the 8 people. ’

Question 13.
Observe the picture and write information about the event it is related to:

Answer:

1. This picture is the logo of the modern Olympic Games. The five interlocked rings represent the five continents of the world.
2. The rings coloured blue, yellow, black, green and red on a white field are known as the ‘Olympic rings’. The symbol was originally designed in 1912 by Pierre de Coubertin.
3. Olympic rings are the symbol of games which were first played in the ancient city of Olympia. They were held after every four years.
4. The ancient Olympics had fewer events than the modern games and only Greek men were allowed to participate. Events such as Horse and Chariot race, Footrace, Wrestling, Boxing, Discus Throw, Pentathlon were held.
5. The Greeks standardised rules of the sports were laid which was helpful to organise the games systematically.
6. The modern Olympic games are also held every four years. It is a great honour for sportspersons to participate and win the Olympic medals.

Memory Map

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Electoral Process

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) The Election Commissioner is appointed by the …………………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Loksabha
(d) Vice President
Answer:
(a) President

(2) …………………………. was appointed as the first Chief Election Commissioner of independent India.
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) T.N. Sheshan
(c) Sukumar Sen
(d) Neela Satyanarayan
Answer:
(c) Sukumar Sen

(3) Constituencies are created by …………………………. committee of the Election Commission.
(a) Selection
(b) Delimitation
(c) Voting
(d) Timetable
Answer:
(b) Delimitation

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) The Elections Commission lays down the code of conduct during elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons:

• It ensures free and fair elections.
• Maipractices during the election come under control.
• Due to the strict observance of the code of conduct in the last few’ elections, the common voters have become confident.

(2) Under special circumstances the Election Commission holds re-elections in a particular constituency for a second time.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• Sometimes, the representative of Lok Sabha, Vidhan Sabha or the local self governmènt resigns from his/her constituençy.
• In some cases, death of the representative occurs.
• In such special situations, the Election Commission has to conduct an election for a second time. It is called By-elections.

(3) The state government decides as to when and in how many stages the elections would be held in a particular State.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• The entire process of conducting elections is entrusted upon and managed by the Election Commission.
• If this responsibility is given to the state government it may adopt a biased approach.
• Hence, the Constitution has formed the Election Commission an independent body to carry out the responsibility.

Therefore, it is decided by the Election Commission as to when and in how many stages it will conduct elections.

Question 3.
Explain the concept.
(1) Reorganising the constituencies
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission of India formed constituencies for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly.
(2) The Election Commission had decided upon the constituencies before the first election. As the years passed, there was a lot of migration of the people for business and other activities from the villages to cities.
(3) This changed the demography to large extent. Number of voters in some constituencies reduced while in some it increased to a very great extent. This disturbed the ratio of- seats allotted as compared to population in those constituencies.
(4) Hence, the need to readjust the constituencies arose. The Delimitation Commission of the election commission does the work of reorganising or restructuring of constituencies.

(2) Midterm Elections

Question 4.
Complete the following picture.

Answer:


Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Question 5.
Answer in brief.
(1) Explain the functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
The functions of the Election Commissipn are:
(1) Prepare the voters’ list.
(2) Decide election timetable and decide the entire process of holding elections.
(3) Scrutinize the applications of the candidates.
(4) Conduct free and fair elections and do all the work related to it.
(5) Give recognition and also de-recognize political parties.
(6) Resolve all the disputes and complaints regarding elections.

(2) Write some additional information about post of the Election Commissioner.
Answer:
(1) The Election Commission in India has one Chief Election Commissioner and two other Chief Commissioners.
(2) All the commissioners are appointed by the President.
(3) The Chief Election Commissioner of India is usually a member of the Indian Civil Service or. Indian Administrative Service.
(4) The responsibility of conducting free and fair elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures lies with the Election Commissioner.
(5) In order do safeguard the independence of the Election Commissioner, he cannot be easily removed from the post for any political reasons.

(3) Explain the meaning of Code of Conduct.
Answer:
(1) After the announcement of elections till the declaration of results, the Election Commission enforces the Code of Conduct.
(2) It explains the rules to be followed by the government, political parties candidates and voters before and during elections.
(3) Code of conduct is adopted to control malpractices during elections. It ensure free and fair ecections.

Project
Organise a mock poll in the school to understand the process of voting.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) Article of Indian Constitution created the independent body of Election Commisšion.
(a) 351
(b) 370
(c) 324
(d) 301
Answer:
(c) 324

(b) system exists in India.
(a) Single-party
(b) Two-party
(c) Multi-party
(d) No-party
Answer:
(c) Multi-party.

(c) The right to give recognition or de-recognize a political party lies with ……………….. .
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) Election Commission

(d) There are constituencies of Lok Sabha at present.
(a) 288
(b) 350
(c) 500
(d) 543
Answer:
(d) 543

(e) from the present state of Himachal Pradesh was the first voter.
(a) Sukumar Sen
(b) Sham Sharan Negi
(c) Prem Kumar Ghumal
(d) P N. Chadda
Answer:
(b) Sham Sharan Negi

(f) Due to EVM, people can also vote easily.
(a) elder
(b) salaried
(c) Divyanga
(d) Transgender
Answer:
(c) Divyanga

(g) The first elections in India were held in
(a) 1948-49
(b) 1949-50
(c) 1950-51
(d) 1951-52
Answer:
(d) 1951-52.

Question 7.
State whether following statements are True or False. Give reasons for your answer :
(a) There should be secrecy in Election process.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• Election should be conducted in a free and fair environment.
• If the elections are not held in free environment then there are chances of malpractices and corruption.
• Then, it will be impossible to elect the honest and efficient candidates.

(b) The Election Commission has started awareness campaign for registration of voters.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• The responsibility of preparing and updating electoral roll lies with the Election Commission.
• The Election Commission starts an awareness campaign to create awareness among new eligible voters so that they register themselves in the voter’s list.
• The Indian voter is not -much aware about the election process.
• Special voter’s awareness campaign is run for voter’s registration.
• For their awareness National Voter’s Day is celebrated every year.

(c) Every candidate who fills the nomination form can contest election.
Answer:
The above statement is False. Reasons :

• Every candidate of a party or independent candidate has to be personally present to fill the nomination form.
• It is necessary for him or her to give complete information in the nomination form as decided by the Election Commission.
• The nomination forms are then scrutinized. If there are irregularities in a nomination paper and if the information is found to be false the nomination forms are rejected.

Therefore, it is not possible for every candidate who fills the nomination form to contest election.

(d) Sometimes, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections. OR Explain the concept : Mid-Term Elections.
Answer:
The above statement is True. Reasons :

• If the elected government in power loses its majority before completing its term.
• If no party gets complete majority, then two or more parties come together and form a coalition government.
• Such coalition government collapses if any party withdraws the given support.
• In such situations, the government is left with no option other than resigning.
• If there is no alternative available to form government then the Parliament or Vidhan Sabha is dissolved before completing its term. In such a scenario, the Election Commission has to conduct mid-term elections.

Question 8.
Explain the following concepts :

(a) What is representation?
Answer:
Modern democracy is a representative democracy. In a democracy it is not possible to involve the entire population in the ecision-making process. This resulted in the starting of the practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population
as representatives who would run the government. The representatives who form the government are expected to be responsible to the people and give preference to the welfare of the people.

• Direct and Indirect or representative democracy rire two types of democracy.
• In modem nation-states; the population has increased to a great èxtent.
• So it is impossible to involve all the people in decision-making process.
• Thus, th practice of electing some people on behalf of entire population as representatives started.
• The elected representatives form government and work for the welfare of the people.

(b) Election Commission :
Answer:
In India, the Election Commission is central to the process of elections. Art. 324 of the Indian Constitution has established this autonomous body which consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two other commissioners.

1. One of the most important features of a democratic nation is elections at regular intervals. Holding free and fair elections at regular intervals is essential for a democratic system.
2. Under the Article 324 of the Constitution, Election Commission was formed in 1950. The President appoints one Chief Election Commissioner and two additional commissioners. It is an autonomous body.
3. The rank and powers of all the three commissioners are the same. The declaration of dates of the elections to the announcement of the results the entire procedure is monitored by the Election Commission.
4. The Election Commission does not have its own staff to carry out this procedure. So they carry out the work with help of government employees and teachers. Special provisions are made for all finances incurred by the Election Commission.

Question 9.
Write short notes :
(a) Journey from Ballot box to EVM machine :
Answer:

1. From the first election in 1951-52 till 1999, elections were held using ballot box. Twenty lakh ballot boxes were used in the first election. Voters used to cast his or her vote by stamping in front of the candidate’s name and put them in the metal boxes.
2. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were first used for 5 seats in Rajasthan, 5 seats in Madhya Pradesh and 6 seats in New Delhi 1998 in Legislative Assembly.
3. EVM machines were used at all polling booths in the general elections held in 2004. It proved to be a very useful device.
4. It has been improvised since its first use. Due to the use of EVMs the results are declared early and at a very fast rate.

(b) Recognition to Political Parties :
Answer:

• India has a multi-party system with recognition accorded to national, state and regional level parties by the Election Commission.
• Their recognition depends on the voting percentage received by them in the assembly elections and number of elected representatives of their party.
• If any party does not fulfill these criteria, its recognition is cancelled.
• The Election Commission allots appropriate symbols to parties and independent candidates. All political parties should have recognition of the Election Commission.

Question 10.
Complete the concept map :

(a) Prepare a flow chart on the process of election.
Answer:

(b) Which two conditions among following is the violation of code of conduct?
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use. –
(2) Promises made to resolve the water problem if elected.
(3) To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
(4) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.
Answer:
(1) The candidate distributes items of household use.
(2) To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.

Question 11.
Answer in brief :
(a) Why is it important to conduct elections?
Answer:
It is important to conduct elections because of the following reasons :

• The existence and working of democracy depends on elections.
• All political parties get a chance to rule.
• Elections help to bring a change in power through peaceful meAnswer:
• It not only changes government policies but also society.

(b) What are the conditions for voting?
Answer:
The following are the conditions for voting:

• The person should be a citizen of India.
• He should have completed 18 years of age.
• His name should appear in voters’ list.
• The person should have photo identity card issued by the Election Commission of India.

(c) What action is taken by the Election Commission if disputes arise regarding elections?
Answer:

• If any disputes arise regarding the elections, the Election Commission is empowered to take final decisions.
• The Election Commission conducts a thorough inquiry about the said dispute.
• If there is evidence of any malpractices during elections, in any constituency, it declares the elections invalid and announces re-polls.
• If any candidate breaks the code of conduct and contests elections, he/she is barred by the Election Commission from contesting elections.

(d) What challenges are faced by the Election Commission to conduct free and fair elections?
Answer:
The following challenges are faced by the Election Commission tcx conduct free and fair elections :

• Managing the large geographical landscape and huge electoral population.
• To stop misuse of money and muscle power during elections.
• Barring candidates with criminal background from contesting elections.
• Conducting elections successfully in politically criminalised environment.
• Conducting elections in spite of increasing instances of violence and making them a success.

(e) What are the advantages of EVM machines?
Answer:
The battery operated Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) has more advantages than the ballot box. They are as follows :

• It saves tonnes of paper used to make ballot paper.
• So, it conserves the environment as it stops the reckless cutting of trees required to make paper.
• If the voter does not wish to cast his vote in favour of any candidate contesting, he can make use of NOTA (None Of The Above).
• It makes counting of the votes much faster which enables the election officer to declare result in a short time.
• It is helpful for disabled (Divyanga) people to cast vote.

(f) Explain the features of procedures of voting during the first Lok Sabha Election.
Answer:

• It was a challenge to prepare voters’ list at the time of the first election. Illiteracy rate was very high in our country. Therefore, the procedure to vote and making the voter list was a challenge.
• 20 lac steel boxes were made and election symbols of political parties were stuck on it.
• Blank ballot papers were given to the voters and they were supposed to drop in the box having the election symbols of the party they decide to vote for.
• Even the illiterate people could vote because of this system.

Question 12.
Give your opinion :
(a) When candidates have only the condition of age, why should they give other information to Election Commission? Answer:

• While filling the form candidates should reveal information about his property assets and if there are any criminal charges against him.
• When candidates have only the condition of age as eligibility, why should they give other information to election commission?
• Why are the candidates required to give the information of their property to Election Commission?
• Such candidates if elected can misuse power and amass wealth with corrupt practices.
• With criminal background they can even threaten voters to vote for him.
• His nomination could get cancelled based on the information.

(b) Why is it so?
(A) Some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
Answer:

• It is difficult for the people of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to get representation as they are scattered in different parts.
• Without a representative it is difficult to discuss their problems in Parliament.
• Lack of representative will hinder their progress. Hence some constituencies are reserved for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
• Some constituencies are kept reserved for Scheduled caste and Scheduled tribes.
• Every political party has an election symbol.
• At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
• Recognised parties have equal opportunity to present their side before media such as television and radio.

(B) Why every political party has an election symbol?
Answer:

• After independence, the literacy rate was quite low in India.
• It was not possible for the voters to read the name of the candidate and vote.
• Therefore, the Election Commission gave symbols to political parties and independent candidates which helped the voters to identify and decide whom to vote for.

(C) At the time of voting and counting of votes, the official representatives of political parties remain present.
Answer:

• There are incidences of duplicate voters who register in multiple constituencies.
• There are cases of rigging of EVM or booth capturing.
• Such incidences are brought to light by representatives who are present at polling centres.
• During the counting process, if the EVM machine looks tampered, the representative can raise an objection.

(D) All recognised parties should get an equal opportunity to express their opinion on media such as television and radio.
Answer:

• All political parties should get a fair chance to express their agenda.
• Their ideas and philosophy should reach the people.
• Television and radio are owned by the government.
• Political parties have equal right on both.
• Hence, all the recognised parties can express their opinion on Doordarshan and Radio.

(c) Think!
(A) How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party? OR What are the disadvantages of dynasty rule?
Answer:

1. If only one family has domination on the political party because of dynasty rule then others are not given leadership opportunity.
2. It is impossible to have all the members of the family efficient. An inefficient heir can cause damage to the party.
3. The growth and expansion of party comes to a halt because of such heir. His faults seep into the party making it weak in the long term.
4. The nature of such a party become dictatorial. Opposing views are suppressed and the internal democracy in the party vanishes.
5. If the heir does not have progressive thoughts then the party becomes regressive and of obsolete ideology.
6. How political parties suffer due to family monopoly in the party?
7. What do you understand by the system of ‘one vote one value’?

(B) What do you understand by the system ‘One Vote One Value’?
Answer:

• There is great importance in political and social equality in democracy.
• According to this ideology, ‘One Vote One Value’ is very important.
• In a democracy, each vote has the same value. The value of the vote of a Prime Minister and a common man is same.
• Under military rule or dictatorship or during monarchy the value of a vote for privileged classes was more. There was no importance given to the vote of the common man.
• ‘One Man One Vote’ indicates all the people in the country have same status. This is the gift of democracy.

(d) Voting is our duty as well as responsibility to vote.
Answer:

• It is enshrined in the fundamental principles of our Constitution to vote.
• It is not only our duty but also responsibility.
• Democracy exists because of elections. People should elect honest and efficient representatives through election.
• If voters show no interest in voting then the government will ignore people’s welfare.
• Hence I feel it is not only the duty of every citizen to vote but also his responsibility.
• Government has to observe the code of conduct declared by the Election commission.

(e) What measures should be taken to increase the credibility of elections?
Answer:
To increase the credibility of elections the following measures should be taken :

• 50% seats should be reserved for women candidates by every party.
• Candidates with a criminal background should be permanently barred from contesting any elections.
• The misuse of money should be stopped during elections. The government should incur the expenditure.
• Candidates who resort to malpractices should be immediately booked. A strict inquiry and action should be taken against them by the court.
• Laws and regulations should be followed strictly by the political parties before giving election tickets.
• If the political parties do not co-operate with the above terms, the Election Commission should cancel their recognition.

(f) Which rules would you include in Code of Conduct for voters?
Answer:
The following rules should be included in Code of Conduct for voters :

• The voters who abstain from voting should be fined and government should suspend all the facilities given to them.
• If it is proved that the voter has accepted money or any kind of gifts, he should be punished.
• The action of voters should not instigate common people.
• They should not involve in bogus voting.
• They should not resort to illegal means for voting.
• The candidate distributes items of household use.
• Promise made to resolve the water problem if elected.
• To go from door to door to meet voters and request them to vote.
• To appeal on the basis of caste and religion to get support.