Category: Class 10

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 Political Parties

Question 1.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences.
(1) When people come together and participate in electoral process, to acquire political power, such organisations are called ………………………….. .
(a) Government
(b) Society
(c) Political parties
(d) Social organisations
Answer:
(c) Political parties

(2) National Conference is a party in ………………………….. this region.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(d) Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Justice Party- a non-Brahmin movement was transformed into ………………………….. Political Party.
(a) Assam Gan Parishad
(b) Shivsena
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam
(d) Jammu and Kashmir National Conference
Answer:
(c) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam

Question 2.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(1) Political parties act as a link between government and people.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The political parties convey the demands and complaints of the people to the government.
• Information about various government policies and schemes are conveyed to the people by the political parties.
• People’s reaction to the policies and their expectations are conveyed to the government too by the parties. In this way, political parties act as a link between government and the people.

(2) Political parties are social organisations.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• People who have similar views come together voluntarily and form a party, so it can be said that political parties are an integral part of our society.
• The political parties try to solve the problems of the people.
• Some political parties represent the role of a particular community in society, its ideology and work to achieve it. Hence it can be said that political parties are social organizations.

(3) Coalition politics leads to instability.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• As no single party got majority after the elections held in 1989, coalition government came to power at the centre and many states.
• Parties had to set aside their policies and programmes and concentrate on a common agenda to run the government.
• Both Congress Party and the Bharatiya Janata Party made an experiment of establishing a coalition government.
• The National Democratic Alliance formed by BJP and its partners and the Democratic Front government formed by Congress and its partners ruled at the centre and state level effectively.

Therefore, the belief that the coalition government brings instability was proved wrong.

(4) Shiromani Akali Dal is a national party.
Answer:
The above statement is False.
The Election Commission of India recognises a political party as National or Regional party on the basis of specific criteria namely:

• The number of seats secured in Parliament and Legislative Assembly or percentage of votes secured.
• Shiromani Akali Dal does not meet the criteria listed above.
• As its influence is limited to the state of Punjab and not in any other state.
• The Election Commission has given recognition to it as regional party.

Question 3.
Explain the following concepts.
(1) Regionalism
Answer:

• India is a vast country with great physical diversity. People belonging to different regions have their own language, culture and traditions.
• Along with the physical diversity, we find diversity in literature, education, history and movements.
• Each one feels an affinity for his language, traditions and history of social reforms. This gives rise to linguistic identity.
• This affinity towards all the above-mentioned aspects develops into identity consciousness and gives rise to excessive regional pride.
• People start giving preference only to the development of their language and region.
• This is known as Regionalism.

(2) National Parties
Answer:
A party which functions at the national level is known as National Party.

1. The Election Commission has laid certain criteria for a party to get recognised as a Political party. The political party should secure at least f 6% valid votes in four or more states in the earlier Lok Sabha. OR
2. State Assembly elections and minimum four members should be elected in the Lok Sabha from any state or states in the earlier elections. OR
3. The candidates of a party should be elected from a minimum three states or should be elected from a minimum 2% constituencies of the total Lok Sabha constituencies. OR
4. It is important to get recognition as a state party in at least four states.

Question 4.
Answer the following questions in brief.
(1) What are the major characteristics of political parties?
Answer:
The main features of political parties are as follows:

• Political parties aim at securing power by contesting elections.
• Every political party has some ideology.
• Every party has an agenda. It is based on the party’s ideology.
• The party that gets majority seats in election forms the government and the one that does not secure the majority act as opposition parties.
• Political parties are a link between the people and the government and work to gain the support of the people.

(2) What changes have taken place in the nature of political parties in India?
Answer:
The following changes were seen in the party system in India:

• Indian- National Congress was the only dominant party in states and at the centre after independence.
• All other parties came together and formed a coalition in 1977 and defeated the Congress.
• For the first time in history, the two-party system got importance over one-party system.
• The one-party system came to an end after the 1989 elections.
• Regional parties got importance and the coalition government was formed at the centre and in the states.

Project
(1) In a map of Maharashtra, point out the Loksabha constituency that includes the names of your parents.
(2) In a map of India, point out the places where national political parties have their influence.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 5.
Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the sentences:
(a) The party which fails to secure majority is known as ………………………. party.
(a) Ruling
(b) Opposition
(c) Independent
(c) Coalition
Answer:
(b) Opposition

(b) ‘Bharatiya Janata Party’ which was formed in 1980 after a split with ………………………. a component of Janata Party.
(a) Jan Sangh
(b) Lok Dal
(c) Independent party
(b) Janata Dal
Answer:
(a) Jan Sangh.

(c) Social support received by a political party is called ………………………. .
(a) Democracy
(b) People’s rule
(c) Mass base
(d) Public relation
Answer:
(c) Mass base

(d) Promotion of the Marathi language is the objective of the ………………………. .
(a) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(b) Shiromani Akali Dal
(c) Shiv Sena
(d) Assam Gana Parishad
Answer:
(c) Shiv Sena

(e) There are ………………………. recognised parties in India.
(a) five
(b) seven
(c) nine
(d) six
Answer:
(b) seven

(f) The main objective of the political party is to capture ………………………. and retain it.
(a) publicity
(b) victory
(c) power
(d) information
Answer:
(c) power

(g) The ideology of the Communist Party of India is based on ………………………. Philosophy.
(a) Capitalist
(b) Marxist
(c) Democracy
(d) Imperialist
Answer:
(b) Marxist

(h) Shiromani Akali Dal is a prominent regional party in ………………………. state.
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) Punjab
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 6.
State whether the following statements are true or false. Give reasons for your answer:

(a) Political parties do not need support of the people.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• To secure power is the main aim of political parties.
• Political parties have to implement various policies and programmes for the welfare of people and to gain the support of the people.
• The party which solves the issues related to the welfare of the people get support.
• Without the support of the people they can never get a mandate.

Hence, all political parties require support of the people.

(b) The Communist Party of India was split.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

• The Communist Party of- India was established in 1925. The Communist Parties follow Marxist ideology.
• In 1962, due to differences in the leadership a rift was created in the party.
• The main reason for the split was about which political line to follow.

(c) Sometimes the sentiments of regionalism gets strengthened in the country.
Answer:
The above statement is True.

1. A country like India has diversity of government language, region and culture. This diversity creates affinity towards a region.
2. This affinity gives rise to excessive regional S pride and initiating movements to save it. The significance of such movements is claimed to be for preserving culture.
3. Asserting to be rightful claimant of material resources, job opportunities and development of the region these movements strengthen the regional pride.
4. Thus, this excessive regional pride turns morbid taking the form of regionalism.

(d) Regional parties have no influence on National Politics.
Answer:
The above statement is False.

• No single party got majority in the elections to Lok Sabha held in 1989.
• The national parties formed coalition government at the centre taking help of regional parties.
• As regional parties share power at the centre they have influence on national politics.

Question 7.
Explain the concept:
(a) Regional Parties:
Answer:

1. The groups having a proud feeling about the different identity of their region and who compete to capture power to bring about regional development are ‘Regional Parties’.
2. The influence of such parties are limited to their region. They give importance to regional problems. Development of one’s own region is the prime objective of these parties.
3. Sometimes they demand for independent state or autonomy. They influence the national politics because of their dominance in the region.
4. They have passed through various phases, from separatism to autonomy and have then merged with mainstream national politics.

(b) Political Party:
Answer:

1. A Political Party is a kind of social organisation of like-minded people. The main aim of any political party is to contest election and secure power.
2. The stand taken by various political parties on issues becomes their political ideology.
3. In democracy, political parties are at the centre of all political activities. They are a link that connects common people, democracy, representation and elections.
4. The party that secures a majority becomes the ruling party and the rest are known as the. opposition.

Question 8.
Write short note:
(a) Party System:
Answer:

1. If one party remains in power in a country for a long period and no other party has any kind of influence the party system it is called ‘One- Party System’.
2. When there are two equally strong parties which alternatively come to power. It is called ‘Two-Party System’.
3. In a country where many political parties exist and compete with each other to capture power and have more or less influence in different states is called ‘Multi-Party System’.
4. Democracy develops in Multi-Party System.

(b) Indian National Congress:
Answer:

• The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.
• The party represented the hopes and aspirations of Indians and led the freedom struggle.
• Groups having diverse ideologies became part of the Congress to fight for freedom.
• It believes in democratic socialism, social equality and international peace.
• After independence, the Congress Party was a dominant party for almost four decades and ruled at the centre and in the states.

(c) Communist Party of India:
Answer:

• The Communist Party of India was established in 1925. The Communist Party follows the Marxist ideology.
• The party aims at working to protect the interests of workers and labourers.
• The main objective of this party is to oppose capitalism and protect the interests of workers.
• The party split due to ideological differences in 1964. Those who walked out of the party formed Communist Party (Marxist).

(d) Nationalist Congress Party:
Answer:

• Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) is the splinter or breakaway party from the Congress Party.
• It considers the values like democracy, equality and secularism important.
• It became part of United Progressive Alliance (UPA) and came to power in Maharashtra.
• It was in power in Maharashtra from 1999 to 2014 and at the centre from 2004 to 2014.

(e) Trinamool Congress:
Answer:

• All India Trinamool Congress was established in 1998.
• The Election Commission of India gave it recognition in 2016.
• Democracy, Secularism and protection of the weaker sections of the society are some of the policies of the party.
• Presently (April 2019), this party is in power in the state of West Bengal.

(f) Shiv Sena:
Answer:

1. The Shiv Sena was founded in 1966.
2. The main objective of the party was to fight for the cause of Marathi-speaking people and preservation of Marathi language.
3. They resisted the people from other regions.
4. In 1995, it became the ruling party with BJP in Maharashtra and its strategic tie-up with BJP helped it to enter national politics.
5. It was in power at the centre with BJP from 1998 to 2004. Again it has shared power with the BJP at the centre and state since 2014.

(g) Shiromani Akali Dal:
Answer:

• Shiromani Akali Dal was formed in 1920.
• It is a dominating party in Punjab.
• It gives preference to nurture religious and for the regional pride.
• The party has retained power in Punjab for many years.

(h) Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam:
Answer:

• Justice party, a non-Brahmin movement, started in 1920. In 1944, it transformed into a political party called Dravid Kazhagam.
• In 1949, a group within the party got split and formed Dravid Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK).
• The party works for the protection of Tamil identity.
• This party implemented many policies for welfare of the people and therefore has support from all the sections of society.
• Another group separated from it in 1972 and formed All India Dravid Munnetra Kazhagham.
• It remained in power for a long time in Tamil Nadu and for sometime at the centre.

Question 9.
Do as directed
(a) Complete the concept map:

Answer:

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(b) Complete the Time-line writing the name of the party or the year of establishment:

Answer:

Question 10.
Answer the following questions in brief:

(a) What is called “mass base”?
Answer:

• Every political party is formed with some ideology.
• Political parties take a certain stand towards public issues.
• Their ideology and their stand towards public issues are conveyed to the people through various programmes.
• If the people agree with their role and ideology, they get the support of the people.
• Such social support received by a political – party is called ‘mass base’.

(b) Write about the policies of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
The policies of the Indian National: Congress are as follows:

• Equal rights for the minorities and weaker sections of society.
• Secularism, all-round development and social welfare are its objectives.
• Introduction of socialist democracy.
• Belief in values like international peace and social equality.

(c) Explain the role of Bharatiya Janata Party.
Answer:
Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in 1980 with the following objectives:

• To preserve Indian culture and traditions.
• To create a strong and rich India.
• To give importance to economic reforms for development of India.

(d) Write about the policies of Communist Party of India (Marxist).
Answer:
Communist Party of India (Marxist) was formed in 1964 with the following objectives:

• The party advocates socialism, secularism and democracy.
• The main policy of the party is to work for the welfare of farmers, landless labourers and workers.
• The party opposes imperialism.

(e) Why was Bahujan Samaj Party formed?
Answer:
The Bahujan Samaj Party was formed in 1984 to achieve the following objectives:

• To bring socialist ideology into practice.
• To secure power for ‘majority’ comprising of scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
• To give power in the hands of ‘majority’.

(f) What do the regional parties give preference for?
Answer:
The regional parties give preference to the following issues:

• Importance should be given to regional issues and bring about development.
• Regional issues should be handled* at regional level.
• The power rests in the hands of regional people. ‘
• People living in that region should get preference in administration and jobs. .

(g) What changes are seen in the nature and role of regional parties?
Answer:
The role of regional parties changed over period of time. The changes are as follows:

• After independence, regional identity gave rise to separatists movements and demands were put up by regional parties for separate state.
• They wanted to break away from the Indian union and form a separate state.
• The demands of the regional parties changed gradually and these parties started asking for autonomy.
• In the later period, for the development of their region and people the parties demanded representation of their people in the state and central government.
• Regional parties in the north eastern region also started demanding more autonomy after split up.
• The journey of the regional parties began with a split up and then a demand for autonomy going on to share power in federation and then entry into mainstream national politics.

(h) What are the objectives of Assam Gana Parishad?
Answer:
Assam Gana Parishad was formed in 1985 with the following objectives:

• To preserve the uniqueness of Assam’s culture, language and social identity.
• To make efforts for economical development of Assam.
• To resolve problems of displaced people.

(i) What are the criteria for a regional party to get recognition?
Answer:

• In the last general .elections to the State Assembly, the party should not secure less than 6% of the total number of valid votes polled.
• At least 2 members to be elected to the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
• 3% seats of the total seats of Legislative Assembly or at least 3 seats in Legislative Assembly.

(j) What work is done by political parties?
Answer:
The following work is done by political parties:

• To propagate policies and programmes of the party and contest elections.
• They implement various policies when they come to power.
• If they fail to secure power, they act as opposition party and try to gain support of the people.
• They communicate the demands and complaints of the people to the government and the policies and programmes of the government to the people.

Question 11.
Give your opinion:

(a) Imagine you are opposition party leader and you have observed that the ruling party has not done good work in the field of health. What will you do as a leader of opposition?
Answer:
As opposition leader, I will do the following to make the government realise its negligence in the health field:

• I will question the government in Parliament and point out their shortcomings and ask about the prolonged projects.
• I will create awareness among the people by writing articles in newspapers.
• I will give interviews,on radio and television and criticize the government.
• I will organise rallies and meetings to sensitize among the people.

(b) Think and write
What has to be done to bring partyless democracy in modern times?
Answer:

• The recognition of all the parties should be cancelled. ‘
• People should be given the right to make decisions.
• In order to improve the decision-making power, people should be educated on political issues.
• To improve the moral character of the people who want to take the leadership.
• To initiate direct democracy and prepare the people for the same.
• Stress should be given for decentralization.
• Mahatma Gandhi, Vinoba Bhave and Jayprakash Narayan put forth the idea of partyless democracy.
• What has to be done to bring such democracy in modern times?

Question 12.
What do you understand by the following news in newspapers? Explain in brief.

(a) Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
Answer:

• The ruling party did not undertake any work for the welfare of farmers. Therefore all the opposition parties decided to trap the government on this issue.
• The opposition parties have kept aside their differences and come together for this cause.
• It is the duty of the opposition party to question the negligence of the government.
• This news makes us aware of the line of action taken by the opposition.
• Opposition parties held a meeting in Mumbai to resist the Ruling party. Will take up the issue of farmers?
• Ruling party organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.

(b) Ruling party has organised ‘Samvad Yatra’ in rural areas.
Answer:

• Political parties adopt different ways to popularise their party and influence the people.
• As the means of communication are limited in rural areas they organise the Yatra.
• It shows the efforts of the government to understand problems of people in rural areas.
• It is essential to have dialogue with people to know their problems and opinions.
• As the initiative is taken by the government, people will develop faith in government.
• The news conveys to us that the ruling party is carrying out its duties properly.
• The faith in government becomes profound when people feel that government is sensitive towards them.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 4 History of Indian Arts Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 History Solutions Chapter 4 History of Indian Arts

Question 1.
(A) Choose the correct option from the given options and complete the statement.
(1) The arts of painting and sculpting are …………….……. .
(a) visual arts
(b) performing arts
(c) folk arts
(d) classical arts
Answer:
(a) visual arts

(2) The …………….……. saw the rise of Mathura school.
(a) Kushana period
(b) Gupta period
(c) Rashtrakuta period
(d) Maurya period
Answer:
(a) Kushana period

(B) Identify and write the wrong pair in the following set.
(1) Qutub Minar – Mehrauli
(2) Gol Gumbaz – Vijapur
(3) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus – Delhi
(4) Taj Mahal – Agra
Answer:
(3) Wrong Pair: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus – Delhi

Question 2.
Write short notes.
(1) Art
Answer:

• It is a natural instinct in humans to share their emotions, experience, wisdom acquired with others.
• This act of sharing, results in beautiful creation, called an ‘Art’.
• Art gives us an experience of different elements.
• These elements are expressed through sculpture, singing, painting and dance.
• The crucial factors which are at the root of artistic creation are the imagination power of the artist.
• The sensibility state of his emotions and skills.

(2) Hemadpanti style
Answer:

1. Hemadpanti temples were primarily built in 12th- 13th century.
2. The main feature of this style is its masonry. The walls are built without mortar, by locking stones, using the tenon and mortise joints technique.
3. Hemadpanti temples are built in square¬shaped and star-shaped designs. In the star¬shaped plan, the outer walls of a temple has a zigzag design which gives interesting effect of alternating light and shadow.
4. Tourists are attracted to see these beautiful designs. Hemadpanti temples are found at several places in Maharashtra.

(3) Maratha style of painting
Answer:

• The Maratha style of paintings began to develop in the later half of the 17th century.
• This style consists of coloured paintings which are in form of murals and miniatures used in manuscripts.
• Murals of Maratha style can be seen at the entrance of old wadas, in drawing rooms and on the ceilings of the temples.
• The Maratha style was influenced by the Rajput and European style of paintings.
• The Maratha style of paintings helps us to understand various things about the times in which it was developed such as lifestyle, attires, customs, etc.

Question 3.
Explain the following statements with reasons.
(1) An expert with deep understanding of art history is required in the art market.
Answer:

• There is an independent market for purchase and sale of art objects.
• The authenticity of the object, its standards can only be assessed by an expert.
• Only an artist can know the exact value of an art object or ensure if it is genuine or not.
• So, when art objects are assessed all the above points are considered.
• This requires special expertise. Hence an expert with deep understanding of art history is required for this task.

(2) It is necessary to preserve the tradition like Chitrakathi, which is on the verge of extinction.
Answer:

1. The stories from Ramayana or Mahabharata narrated with the help of wooden puppets and paintings is known as Chitrakathi or Pinguli tradition.
2. It is preserved by the Thakur community.
3. As the Chitrakathi pictures are drawn on papers and painted using col9urs made from natural substances, they deteriorate rapidly if not maintained.
4. Therefore it is necessarý to preserve the tradition like Chitrakathi as it is part of our glorious cultural heritage and is on the verge of extinction.

Question 4.
Complete the following table.

Temple Architecture Naagara	Naagara	Draavida	Hemadpanti
Characteristics
Examples

Answer:

Styles of Temple Architecture	Nagara	Dravid	Hemadpanti
Characteristics	(1) Series of miniature towers are arranged (2) Towers taper towards the top (3) Tower appears to be continuously rising from the base of the temple to the top.	(1) Temple towers resembled pyramid shape. (2) Gopura (main entrance) was large and magnificent than the tower. (3) Mythological stories were carved on walls and ceilings.	(1) The temple structure was star-shaped with outer walls having zigzag design. (2) The walls were built without using any mortar. (3) The stones were locked by using the technique of tenon and mortise joints.
Examples	(1) Konark Sun Temple (2) Lingraj Temple of Bhubaneshwar (3) Kandariya Mahadev temple at Khajuraho	(1) Meenakshi Temple at Madurai (2) Chariot Temple at Mahabalipuram (3) Brihadeeshvara temple at Thanjavur (4) Tirupati Temple	(1) Gondeshwar temple at Sinnar (2) Ambreshwar temple at Ambarnath (3) Aundha Nagnath temple at Hingoli (4) Kopeshwar temple at Khidrapur

Question 5.
Answer the following questions in detail.
(1) Write in detail about folk styles of painting.
Answer:

• The art of rock painting dates back to Stone Age. These rock paintings have preserved the style of folk painting.
• Rock paintings usually depict humans, animals and geometric figures.
• The style of rock paintings seems to be changing according to the cultural changes from Stone age to the beginning of agriculture.
• Man started depicting flora and fauna in a different style and also figures.
• There was difference in colours too. Black and Red were used in rock paintings.
• Colours extracted from natural substances were used.
• The man started using the knowledge he got from the surroundings and nature and depicted it in the pictures.
• In the later stage of development, man started customs such as decorating the walls and courtyards (Rangawali).
• By drawing various figures and symbols or using panels of painting to narrate stories. It helped in the development of folk paintings.

(2) Explain the characteristics of the Islamic architecture in India by giving examples.
Answer:
A blend of Persian, Central Asian, Arabic and pre Islamic native Indian styles created the Islamic architecture of India.
Following are the characteristics of Islamic architecture developed in the medieval period under the patronage of Muslim sultanates:

• Built in Islamic style, the Kutub Minor is the highest minaret in the world. It is 73 metres (240 ft) in height.
• The Taj Mahal built by the Mughal emperor Shah Jah’an is looked’ upon as the paramount* example of Islamic’architecture.
• The Gol Gumbaz at Bijapur in Karnataka built in 17th century is known for its echo which can be heard many times.
• The forts at Agra and Delhi are known for their massive walls of redstone.
• The walls are interrupted by graceful curves and lofty bastions. Red sandstone, domes, arches, minarets, magnificance all combined form characteristics of Islamic architecture.

(3) What kind of professional opportunities are available in the field of arts?
Answer:
Various opportunities are available in different fields of art:

1. Art historian can work in field of journalism. Art students can work in museums, archives, libraries. Information Technology, archaeological research and Indology contribute to recently developed fields like Heritage Management and Cultural Tourism.
2. An expert in art is required to assess the exact value of an art object and also in its sale and purchase. Experts are required in the field of manufacturing of objects for home decoration.
3. Ornaments, artistic creations of metals, earthen pots with colourful designs, objects made from cane and bamboo, beautiful glass objects, attractive textiles and clothing all come are under applied arts.
4. These fields require experts in manufacturing and sales. Hence many opportunities of employment are available in the field of arts.

(4) Observe the illustration of Warli painting on p. 23 and write about:
(a) Depiction of nature
(b) Drawings of human figures
(c) Depiction of occupations
(d) Houses
Answer:

The traditions of Warli painting and Pingul or Chitra Katha in Maharashtra are among the finest examples of folk style of paintings. Divya Somya Mashe, the artist in Thane district has played a great role in making the Warli style of paintings very popular. He has been honored with a number of national and international awards for his paintings. In the year 2011, he was awarded ‘Padmashree’.

Name of the painting tradition:
This picture is from Warli tradition.

Nature’s description:
Artist has sketched trees, leaves and shrubs in the picture. A fish is also drawn.

Sketch of human activities:
Women dancing in a circular pattern is also sketched in the picture.

Designing features:
Pictures of men, women and children are sketched. Warli paintings do not portray the exact objects but only a sketch. Human figures are drawn with the help of a triangle, circle and square which are placed at the tip.

Project
(1) Collect additional information of the World Heritage sites in India.
(2) Observe the sculptors or image-makers at work in your locality and interview them.
Answer:

Memory Map

Question 6.
Complete the sentences by choosing a correct option:
(a) Lalit Kala is also known as …………………… .
(a) Folk art
(b) Aangik Kala
(c) Drik Kala
(d) Nagara art
Answer:
(b) Aangik Kala

(b) Jivya Somya Mashe, an artist in the Thane district played a great role in making the …………………… style of painting very popular.
(a) Chitrakathi
(b) Maratha
(c) Warli
(d) Classical
Answer:
(c) Warli

(c) The Chalukya King, Someshvara, mentioned in …………………… book the tradition of Chitrakathi.
(a) Natyashastra
(b) Kitab-e-Navras
(c) Paintings of Ajanta
(d) Manasollas
Answer:
(d) Manasollas.

(d) The ancient Indian texts mentioned …………………………. styles of Classical Art.
(a) Nine
(b) Thirty-six
(c) Sixty-four
(d) Eighty-four
Answer:
(c) Sixty-four

(e) During the reign, of Mughal Emperor …………………………., the Mughal miniature style showing a blend of Indian and Persian was developed.
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangzeb
(c) Jahangir
(d) Babur
Answer:
(a) Akbar

(f) Some of the drawings of Gangaram Tambat are preserved in …………………………. university.
(a) Stanford
(b) Cambridge
(c) Oxford
(d) Yale
Answer:
(d) Yale

(g) …………………………. is the characteristic of European style of painting.
(a) Sketching
(b) Exact portrayal of object
(c) Natural colours
(d) Landscape
Answer:
(b) Exact portrayal of object

(h) Replicas of Ajanta paintings was made by
(a) Pestonji Bomanji
(b) Gangaram Tambat
(c) Raja Ravi Verma
(d) James Wales
Answer:
(a) Pestonji Bomanji.

(i) The lion capital of the Ashoka pillar found at …………………………. is the national emblem of India.
(a) Bodhgaya
(b) Patliputra
(c) Sanchi
(d) Sarnath
Answer:
(d) Sarnath

(j) The stupa at …………………………. in Indonesia is the largest stupa in the world.
(a) Ubud
(b) Sigiran
(c) Borobudur
(d) Palembang
Answer:
(c) Borobudur

(k) The …………………………. school of art laid the foundation of Indian iconography.
(a) Gandhar
(b) Nagara
(c) Dravid
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(d) Mathura

(l) The temple architecture developed in India around 4th century C.E. during the …………………………. period.
(a) Kushana
(b) Rashtrakuta
(c) Gupta
(d) Chola
Answer:
(c) Gupta

(m) …………………………. is a blend of Nagara style of architecture of North India and Dravid style of South India.
(a) Gandhar
(b) Mathura
(c) Bhoomija
(d) Vesara
Answer:
(d) Vesara.

(n) The two main branches of the Indian classical music are ………………………… .
(a) Folk music and Vocal
(b) Dadraa and Thumri
(c) Bhajans and Qawwalis
(d) Hindustani music and Carnatic music
Answer:
(d) Hindustani music and Carnatic music

(o) The text of …………………………. written by Bharatmuni is supposed to be the earliest one discussing music and theatre.
(a) Manasollas
(b) Abhilasha Chintamani
(c) Natyashastra
(d) Rasratnakar
Answer:
(c) Natyashastra

(p) Every year the …………………………. festival is held in Pune.
(a) Kala Ghoda
(b) Gunidas
(c) Savai Gandharva
(d) Gharapuri
Answer:
(c) Savai Gandharva

(q) The ruler of Bijapur, Ibrahim Adilshah wrote …………………………. text in Persian language.
(a) Tuzuk-i-Babari
(b) Padmavat
(c) Akbarnama
(d) Kitab-e-Navras
Answer:
(d) Kitab- e-Navras

(r) …………………………. is a prominent name among artists who created a new style of fusion of Indian and Western dance.
(a) Pandit Shivkumar Sharma
(b) Pandit Hariprasad Chaurasia
(c) Pandit Uday Shankar
(d) Ustad Zakir Hussain
Answer:
(a) Pandit Uday Shankar.

Question 7.
Identify the wrong pair in the following and write it:
(1)

Architectural structure	Place
(1) Kutub Minar	(a) Mehrauli
(2) Gol Gumbaz	(b) Bijapur
(3) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus	(c) Delhi
(4) Taj Mahal	(d) Agra

Answer:
Wrong pair: Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus – Delhi

(2)

Picture	Style
(1) Murals seen in the old wadas at Wai, Menavali	(a) Miniature style
(2) Bhimbetka	(b) Folk painting
(3) Pictures narrating Ramayana and Mahabharata story	(c) Chitrakathi
(4) Painting style in Thane district	(d) Warli painting

Answer:
Wrong pair: Murals seen in the old wadas at Wai, Menavali – Miniature style

(3)

Architectural structure	Style
(1) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus	(a) Gothic architecture
(2) Gol Gumbaz	(b) Muslim architecture
(3) Temples in South India	(c) Nagara architecture
(4) Gondeshwar Temple	(d) Hemadpanti architecture

Answer:
Wrong pair: Temples in South India – Nagara architecture

(4)

Monument	Emperors
(1) Completed Kutub Minar	(a) Altmash
(2) Construction of Taj Mahal	(b) Emperor Akbar
(3) Gol Gumbaz	(c) Mohammed Adilshah
(4) Built Sanchi Stupa	(d) Emperor Ashoka

Answer:
Wrong pair: Construction of Taj Mahal – Emperor Akbar

Question 3.
Do as directed:
(A) Complete the following concept chart:
(1)

Answer:

(2)

Answer:

(3)

Answer:

(4)

Answer:

(5)

Answer:

(6)

Answer:

(B) Prepare a flow chart on the Development of Indian Iconography.
Answer:

Question 8.
Explain the following concepts:
(a) Style in Art:
Answer:

• Every artist has its own method of working which becomes his style.
• When this style is repeated by several artists over a prolonged period of time it becomes a tradition.
• This tradition is known as an art ‘style’.
• Such traditions are established in every art style. Various art styles are developed over the years in every culture.
• The specific art styles indicate the characteristic of a certain region and period.
• They help us to learn the history of arts of these civilizations.

(b) Classical Style of Paintings:
Answer:

• Art which is expressed within an established frame of consistent rules is known as classical art. The ancient Indian texts mentioned altogether 64 arts.
• The aft of painting is mentioned as alekhyam or alekhya vidya in these texts.
• This alekhya vidya has six main aspects of paintings (Shadange).
• They are shapes and forms (Roopbheda), expressions (Bhava).
• Proportionate depiction of various features of an image (Pramana).
• Aesthetics (Lavanyayojana), resemblance to reality (Sadrushyata) and colour composition (Varnikabhang).
• Agama text of Jainism and in Puranas various arts like painting, sculpting are explained in context of temple architecture.

Question 9.
Write short notes:
(a) Chitrakathi:
Answer:

1. The tradition of narrating stones from Ramayana and Mahabharata with the help of wooden puppets and paintings is known as Chitrakathi. It is also known as Pinguli.
2. This tradition is mentioned in Manasollas, a book written by the Chalukya King Someshvara in the 12th century. People belonging to Thakur community stifi practise this art They are frm village, Pinguli near Kudal in Maharashtra.
3. The Chitrakathi pictures are drawn on paper and painted with natural substances. To complete the narration of a single story it takes around 30 to 50 pictures.
4. These pictures are preserved and are passed on from one generation to another. The artists and government are trying to preserve this tradition which is on the verge of extinction.

(b) Miniature Painting:
Answer:

• Painting in a small size square is called Miniature painting.
• The miniature reached people through manuscripts. The earlier period of miniature painting shows the influence of Persian style.
• The Deccan miniature style was developed under the patronage of the Deccan Sultanate.
• Mughal miniature painting style of painting’ was developed during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar. ¡t shows a blend of Indian and Persian style.

(c) Western style of painting:
Answer:

• Indian artists came under the influence of European style of painting during the British period.
• An art school at Shaniwar Wada at Pune was established under the leadership of Scottish artist James Wales.
• J. J. School of art and industry was established in 1857 to offer the courses in European style of painting.
• Pestonji Bomanji made replicas of Ajanta paintings.
• lames Wales had done a portrait of Savai Madhavrao and Nana Phadnavis.
• Exact portrayal of the object of the painting is a characteristic of European style.

(d) Gangaram Tambat:
Answer:

• An art school was established under the leadership of Scottish artist James Wales at Shanivar Wada in Pune.
• Marathi artist Gangaram Tambat worked with James Wales.
• He made drawings of rock-cut caves at Verul and Karle.
• Some of his drawings are preserved in the Yale Centre of British Art of Yale University.

(e) Temple architecture:
Answer:

1. Temple architecture began to develop in India around 4th century C.E. during the Gupta period. In the initial stage of the Gupta period, the temples had only the Sanctum Sanctorum (Garbhagriha) and a Veranda with four columns.
2. Temple architecture reached its peak by the 8th century C. E. and its example is the Kailas temple of Verul. By medieval period various types of temple architecture had developed in India.
3. The styles of tower (Shikar) determined various styles of temple architecture in India. The Nagara style of North India and Dravid style of South India are two prominent styles of Indian temple architecture. A blend of Nagara and Dravid is known as Vesara style.
4. Bhoomija style seen in temples of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh has very close resemblance to ‘Nagara’ style.

(f) Indo-Gothic Architecture:
Answer:

1. During the British period, a new architectural style arose in India which was a blend of Indian and Gothic known as Indo-Gothic style of architecture.
2. During the British period, buildings like churches, government offices, residences of top officials, railway stations were built in Indo-Gothic style of architecture.
3. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Railway Terminus in Mumbai is the finest example of Indo- Gothic style of architecture.

(g) Ttitab-e-Navras:
Answer:

1. Ibrahim Adilshah II, the ruler of Bijapur, wrote a book in Persian language entitled ‘Kitab- e-Navras’. This text is about Indian classical music.
2. It includes the verses suitable for singing. It is a composition of excellent poetry expressed through Dhrupad style giving the experience of ecstasy to the interested audience.
3. The Ncrvras mentioned in Sanskrit literature are explained in this text.

Question 10.
Explain the following sentences with reasons:
(a) Indian performing arts were enriched over time.
Answer:

• A constant stream of rulers like the Greeks, Arabs, Mughals and the British came to India.
• During their rule, Indian people came into contact with their styles of folk art.
• The culture which they brought along lasted and blended with existing streams of Indian performing arts.
• As a result, many styles of classical vocal music, instrumental music and dance came into existence.
• Therefore Indian performing arts enriched over time.

(b) The field of Applied Arts needs professionals.
Answer:

• An artistic creation is combined with utilitarian purpose to make it economically viable in applied arts.
• Many stages of production are reached before the concept of creation becomes a reality.
• Each field in applied arts requires detailed planning and meticulous management at each stage of production.
• Ornaments, earthen pots with colourful designs, objects made from Cane and Bamboo, beautiful glass objects.
• Attractive textiles and clothing all listed under applied arts essentially require trained and skilled individuals at every stage.
• Some of the production processes of artistic objects have a history of certain traditions. It is important to have knowledge of those traditions.

Hence, it is essential to have trained and skilled professionals at every stage.

Question 11.
Answer the following question in 25-30 words:
(a) Write about follk traditions of sculptural art.
Answer:

• The tradition of folk art dates back to the Stone Ages.
• The custom of making clay images for rituals has been prevalent in India since Harappcin times.
• It has continued even today in many regions of Bengal, Bihar, Gujarat and Rajasthan.
• During the festivals, Ganesh idols are made along with the masks of Goddess Gauri.
• Bull figurines are made for the festival of Bailpola.
• Wooden memorials, Veergals (memorial stones), the decorated clay storage bins, etc.
• Are examples of folk tradition of sculptural art.
• The sculptures made for religious and festival reasons became masterpieces of artists’ creation.

(b) Write about Gandhara School of Art.
Answer:

• The regions around Afghanistan showed great influence of Greeks and Persians from 2nd century B.C.E.
• Gandhara style of art was a fusion of Greek- Roman and Indian style.
• Gandhara school was heavily influenced by Greek methodologies.
• The materials used to make sculptures were Grey sandstone. Mud, Lime and Stucco.
• Grey sandstone is more prominently used in Gandhara School of Art.
• The Gandhara school images are known for their anatomical accuracy, spatial depth and foreshortening.
• The sculptures in Gandhara style are found in Taxila, Peshawar and on the North West Frontier.

(c) Write about development of Indian Iconography.
Answer:

• The Kushana period from the 1st – 3rd century C.E. saw the rise of Mathura School of Art.
• The Mathura School of Art laid the foundation of Indian iconography style.
• The Kushana Kings made use of images of various deities on their coins.
• During the Gupta period, the ieonographic rules were formulated and standards for sculptural- art were set.
• The art of making bronze images was developed under the patronage of Chola Kings during 9th-13tji century.
• Bronze idols of gods and goddesses like Siva-Parvati, Natraj, Lakshmi, Vishnu, etc. were made.

(d) Give information about the rock-cut caves in India.
Answer:

• The tradition of rock-cut caves originated in India in the 3rd century B.C.E.
• The entire composition of a rock-cut cave represents a union of architecture and sculptural art.
• The entrances of such rock-cut caves, interiors with its carved columns and images are excellent specimens of sculptural art.
• The paintings on the walls and ceilings have survived till today.
• The rock-cut caves at Ajanta and Verul in Maharashtra were declared as World Heritage Sites in 1983.

(e) Elaborate on the development of temple architecture.
Answer:

• The temple architecture began to develop in India during the Gupta period in 4th century C.E.
• The temples built at the beginning of the Gupta period had only the sanctum sanctorum (Garbhagriha) and a veranda with four columns.
• The magnificent structure of the Kailas temple of Verul gives testimony that temple architecture had reached its peak by the 8th century C.E.
• Different styles of temple architecture were developed by the medieval period. Some of them are Nagara, Dravid, Vesara and Bhoomija.

(f) What efforts were taken in India to make dance and classical music easily accessible to common people?
Answer:
The following efforts were taken to make dance and music easily accessible to people:

• Dance programmes and musical festivals were organised at various places.
• Many people attend these festivals including Indians and foreigners.
• The Savai Gandharva festival of Pune is very famous.

(g) Write about the work of Pandit Uday Shankar.
Answer:

• Pandit Uday .Shankar created a fusion of Indian classical dance and European operti.
• New styles of dancing were developed.
• He also included various folk dances in his style of fusion.

Thus, the scope of Indian performing arts seems to be constantly expanding.

(h) Which fields are related to applied arts ?
Answer:

1. An artistic creation with a utilitarian purpose is called applied arts. Industry and advertisement. Interior Design and production of ornamental objects, Art Design of stage backdrops, Art Direction for films and television are the fields of applied arts.
2. Layout of books, magazines, production of greeting cards, invitation cards, gift objects, calligraphy are also related to applied arts.
3. Still and animated graphics, created with the help of computers are used for various purposes. This field needs experts with technical knowledge.
4. In short, whichever art is known and is applied to create something new becomes applied art.

Question 12.
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
(a) In which states of India are the sites of rock paintings found?
Answer:
The sites of rock paintings are found in the states of Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Uttarakhand, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.

(b) How old is the tradition of rock paintings?
Answer:
The tradition of rock painting dates back to the Stone Age.

(c) What are the features of rock paintings?
Answer:

• Rock paintings depict humans, animals, geometric figures, flora and fauna in various figures and also in colour.
• Natural colours in black and fed are used in them which are extracted from natural substances.
• The style of rock paintings seems to be changing according to the cultural changes from Stone Age to the beginning of agriculture.
• We get to know about ancient people, their natural surroundings and also the way they exploited available natural resources.

Question 13.
Answer the following questions in detail:

(a) Give information on Indian classical sculptural art.
Answer:
The development of folk styles of sculptural art led to the formation of rules for classical sculptural art and it evolved.

1. The folk style of sculpture-making began during the Harappan period. Seals, stones and bronze statues that were made, gives a testimony that the art of sculpture was known to the Indians.
2. It is about 5000 years old or even older tradition.
3. The tradition of the erected stupa started in the times of Ashoka. The stupa at Borobudur in Indonesia is the largest stupa in the world.
4. Gandhara style of sculptural art came to being in the 2nd century B.C.E. and has Greek and Persian influences.
5. During the Kushana reign, Mathura School of art evolved which was a blend of Gandhara School of Art and indigenous art.
6. The rules of Indian iconography was laid during the rule of the Gupta empire. Thus, Indian sculptural tradition has developed into a rich classical sculptural art.

(b) Differentiate between Classical and Folk: art.:
Answer:
Some differences are noted between Classical and Folk art. They are as follows: Classical Art Folk Art

Classical Art	Folk Art
1. Classical art does not have such a long tradition.	1. The tradition of folk art has continued from the prehistoric times.
2. Classical art is not connected to everyday life.	2. Folk art is an integral part of everyday life.
3. It takes a very long time period to master classical art.	3. The creation of folk art has taken place naturally because of people’s involvement.
4. Classical art developed within the established frame of rules.	4. Folk art developed as an integral part of the religious festivals and social life.
5. As classical art follows set rules, different types of styles, methods and schools are developed.	5. Folk art is not bound by any rules.

Brain Teaser

Across:

• Temples built in Maharashtra in 12-13th centuries in this style
• The text written by the ruler of Bijapur, Ibrahim Adilshah II
• Artist who created a fusion of Indian classical dance and European opera
• His drawings are preserved in the Yale Centre of British Art of Yale University

Down:

• The temple of Kailas at Verul
• An art school was established under his leadership in the times of Savai Madhavrao Peshwe
• The art of painting is mentioned as … in ancient Indian text
• Murals of Maratha style of painting can be seen at this place

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On the basis of the information given in the chapter, figures and maps, complete the table below:

S.No	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
1	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.
2	Semi arid thorny vegetation	1. 2.
3	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.
4	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.
5	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.

Answer:

S. No.	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
(1)	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats. Some parts of North East India.	Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands.
(2)	Semi arid thorny vegetation	(a)     Thorny and shrub type vegetation. (b)   Leaves are small in size. Leaves are modified into thorns to minimise evaporation.	Gujarat, Rajasthan, Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.	North-Eastern part of Brazil.
(3)	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.		Brazilian Highland.
(4)	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.	Central India and South India.	Parana Basin and South Eastern part of Brazil.
(5)	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.	Foothills of Shiwalik hills and Assam.	Southern Brazil.

2. Identify the odd man out:

Question a.
Forest type of Brazil ______.
(a) Thorny bush type vegetation
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) The Himalayan Forests
(d) Deciduous forests
Answer:
(c) The Himalayan Forests

Question b.
With reference to India
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Mediterranean forests
(c) Thorny bush-type vegetation
(d) Equatorial forests
Answer:
(b) Mediterranean forests

Question c.
With reference to Fauna of Brazil.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Tamairin
(c) Red Panda
(d) Lion
Answer:
(c) Red Panda

Question d.
With reference to flora in India.
(a Deodar
(b) Anjan
(c) Orchid
(d) Banyan
Answer:
(c) Orchid

3. Match the Column:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
Evergreen Forests	(a) Sundari trees
Deciduous forests	(b) Pine
Coastal forests	(c) Pau Brasil
Himalayan forests	(d) Khejari
Thorny and bush type vegetation	(e) Teak
	(f) Orchid

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

4. Answer in short:

Question a.
Differentiate between the forest types of Brazil and India.
Answer:

Forest type of Brazil	Forest type of India
1. The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region. It receives ample sunshine and heavy rainfall. So dense evergreen forests are seen here.	1. The location of India is far away from the Equator. Heavy rainfall occurs only in the Western Ghats and North Eastern hilly areas. So evergreen forests are seen in these regions.
2. The Highland region of Brazil receives low rainfall. So tropical grasslands are seen in this region.	2. The Peninsula region of India receives rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm, so they are covered by deciduous forests.
3. As there are no tall and long extending mountains in Brazil, Himalayan type forests are not found here.	3. Owing to presence of Himalayas, Himalayan type forests are found in North and North-East of India that are classified on the basis of altitude.
4. Thorny shrubs are found to the North Eastern part of Brazilian Highlands which is also considered to be a Drought Quadrilateral.	4. Thorny shrubs are found in India receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall. It is majorly found in Gujarat, Rajasthan and rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats.

Question b.
Correlate wildlife and natural vegetation in India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Also depending upon the vegetation we find a variety of wildlife in different regions.

(ii) Grasslands of Brazil like the Savannah and the deciduous forest of India have a large number of herbivores and carnivores.

(iii) The dense evergreen forests of India in the west, north east India and the Amazon Basin of Brazil are a home to a large variety of birds, insects, reptiles along with the herbivores and the carnivores.

(iv) Coastal forests and swampy areas of Pantanal and Sunderbans have mangroves, a variety of birds, fishes and reptiles like crocodiles, alligators and the anacondas in Brazil.

(v) Vegetation provides food and shelter to wildlife but if vegetation is limited like in the Thar desert or the Caatinga it will also limit the variety of animals species.

Question c.
What environmental issues are faced by Brazil and India?
Answer:

• Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and burn agriculture (roca), deforestation, pollution, etc.
• Due to these problems, many endemic species are on the verge of extinction.
• India too faces environmental issues such as poaching, pollution and the fast spreading deforestation.
• Many species of wildlife are on the verge of extinction in India.

Question d.
What are the major causes of degradation of forest in Brazil and India?
Answer:
(i) Forests are being cut down as more area is required to expand the cities. Hence rapid urbanisation is one of the reasons for degradation of forest.

(ii) To ensure continuous food supply to meet the needs of the ever increasing population, more and more area needs to be brought under agriculture. For the expansion of agricultural land, forest areas are being cut down.

(iii) In both India and Brazil, forests are being cut down for firewood and for other domestic needs.

(iv) Slash and Burn agriculture which is also known as Roca in Brazil and Jhum in India is responsible for deforestation.

(v) Apart from all the above reasons, forest fire, pollution, overgrazing, etc. are also responsible for the degradation of forests.

Question e.
Why does the deciduous type vegetation occupy most of India?
Answer:

• Vegetation in a region is affected by the climate and rainfall of the region.
• In dia lies in the tropical zone and it has a monsoon type climate throughout the year.
• Also, a major portion of India receives seasonal rainfall between 1000-2000 mm.
• Deciduous forests thrive well in this condition and these forests shed their leaves during the hot and dry summer so that water is not lost due to evaporation.
• Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are the trees found in deciduous forest of India.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The northern part of Brazil is covered with dense forests.
Answer:

• The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region.
• It receives ample sunlight and about 2000 mm of rainfall throughout the year.
• In this region, the growth of vegetation is very rapid.
• So, the northern part of Brazil is covered with dense and evergreen forests.

Question b.
Vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.
Answer:

• As the altitude increases, the temperature decreases.
• The climate is very cold in the high altitudes. In Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Himalayas temperature drops to -40fiC.
• Also this region is snow-covered for most part of the year.
• Very few species of plants can survive in such extreme conditions. Only seasonally flowering trees are found at higher altitudes.
• Hence, vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.

Question c.
A wide variety of insect species is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• Insects are mostly found in forests, grasslands and swampy lands.
• Many insects eat leaves, grass and nectar from the plant.
• The evergreen rainforests are seen in the northern parts of Brazil. The grasslands are found in the central parts and Paraguay-Parana river basin. Similarly, swampy lands are found in Pantanal region in Brazil. .
• Therefore, a wide variety of insect’s species is found in Brazil.

Question d.
Wild life in India is decreasing day by day.
Answer:
(i) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day because of rapidly occurring deforestation, poaching, pollution.

(ii) Expansion of cities to accommodate the growing population is leading to cutting down of the valuable forest which leads to the loss of the habitat of wildlife.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Poaching of wildlife species have also led to the loss of wildlife in India.

(v) Agricultural practices like shifting cultivation has also reduced the forest cover leading to loss of wildlife habitat.

Question e.
Like India, there is a need for conservation of forests in Brazil too.
Answer:
(i) Like India, Brazil is facing the problem of degradation of environment due to deforestation, pollution, slash and burn agriculture, illegal smuggling of wild animals, etc.

(ii) Trees are being cut down to obtain wood, leading to large scale deforestation in both countries.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Agricultural practices like slash and burn agriculture (roca) has reduced the forest cover in Brazil.

(v) Like India, the problem of illegal smuggling of animals has affected Brazil too.

(vi) Hence there is a need for conservation of forests in both Brazil and India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the images given below and discuss on the basis of the following points and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Can you tell the names of the plants/trees shown in the image?
Answer:
Coffee, cactus, rubber.

Question 2.
Where have you seen these plants before?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 3.
Name the fauna shown in the image.
Answer:
Rufous bellied thrush, leopard, green anaconda.

Question 4.
Where have you seen them before?
Answer:
On the internet and in movies.

Question 5.
In which country do you find a greater diversity of vegetation? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the variation in climatic conditions.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
In which country do equatorial forests occupy a greater area? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
Equatorial forests occupy a greater area in Brazil. This is because the Equator passes through northern part of Brazil. Hence, the climate is generally hot throughout the year. Moreover, this region receives heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Question 2.
Which type of forests found in India are not found in Brazil?
Answer:
Himalayan forests are found in India and not in Brazil.

Question 3.
Which type of forests found in Brazil are found in India too?
Answer:
Evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and thorny shrub type vegetation are found in both Brazil and India.

Question 4.
In which country a greater diversity of vegetation is found? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the equatorial climate, ample sunlight, heavy rainfall, and vast forest expanse.

Question 5.
Considering the climate and vegetation types, in which country will forest-based occupations flourish?
Answer:
Forest-based occupations will flourish more in Brazil.

Activity

Question 1.
Correlate geographical conditions and the flora and fauna there? (India)
Answer:
Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of flora and fauna in India.

(i) In the snow-capped regions of Himalayas where precipitation occurs in the form of snow, we find alpine vegetation. Animals like snow leopards and yaks are found who can sustain the extreme cold of the Himalayas.

(ii) The evergreen forest in the Western Ghats have hot and humid conditions with a temperature of 28°C and annual rainfall more than 2000mm. In such are as animals like lions, tigers, elephants, and a variety of birds are seen.

(iii) The coastal forest are home to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials, etc. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the swampy, marshy lands of Assam. Mangrove vegetation is found in the saline waters.

(iv) In areas where the climate is hot and dry and the rainfall is low, thorny scrub vegetation is found. Animals like wild ass and camels are common here.

(v) In the regions of medium rainfall. We find deciduous forest, wide variety of animals and birds.

Question 2.
Do you know some other animals too ?
Answer:
Four-horned antelope, black buck, Tibetan yak, giant squirrel (shekaru).

Use your Brain:

Question 1.
Find out in which parts of India agricultural practices like the ‘Roca’ is found? By what names are they called?
Answer:

Slash and Burn Farming in India
Name	Regions
Jhumming	Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Pamlou	Manipur
Dipa	Bastar (Chhattisgarh) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Bewar or Dahiya	Madhya Pradesh
Podu or Penda	Andhra Pradesh
Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa	Odisha
Kumara	Western Ghats
Valre or Waltre	South Eastern Rajasthan
Khi	Himalayan belt
Kuruwa	Jharkhand

Answer the following questions on the basis of map given:

Question 1.
How many mm of rainfall does Tropical forests have?
Answer:
Tropical forests receives rainfall of 1600 mm.

Question 2.
How much rainfall does equatorial forests receive?
Answer:
Equatorial forests receive 2000 mm of rainfall.

Question 3.
Name the types of forests shown in figure.
Answer:
Tropical forests, Equatorial forests, Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are shown in the above figure.

Question 4.
Where are tropical and equatorial forests found in Brazil?
Answer:Tropical and equatorial forests are found in Guyana Highlands and Amazon basin respectively.

Question 5.
Where are deciduous forests and temperate forests found in Brazil?
Answer:
Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are found in Parana Basin and Brazilian Highlands respectively.

Question 6.
What kind of wildlife is seen in Brazilian Highlands?
Answer:
Reptiles and grassland animals are seen in Brazilian Highlands.

Question 1.
Which forests are found in western snow¬capped regions?
Answer:
Himalayan Forests are found in western snow-capped regions.

Question 2.
On which coast do you mainly find the coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The coastal vegetation is mainly found along the Eastern Coast.

Question 3.
Which type of forests occupy maximum area in India ? Why?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm Since most of India has rainfall in that range, deciduous forests dominate the Indian subcontinent.

Question 4.
Where do you find thorny and shrub vegetation in India and why?
Answer:
Semi arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are the places where thorny and shrub vegetation are found. The thorny forests are found in these regions as the rainfall is less than 500 mm.

Question 1.
Name the species shown on the map.
Answer:
Some of the major species shown on the map are condor, golden lion tamarin, anaconda, crocodile, sword fish, flamingoes, macaw, parrots, rufous bellied thrush.

Question 2.
In which regions are these animals found? Why are their habitats found in these forests?
Answer:

• The dense equatorial forest region is home to golden lion tamarin, condor, anaconda, etc. This is because these forest lie near the Amazon River and receive rainfall throughout the year.
• Swampy lands of Pantanal is home to anacondas and crocodiles because these conditions are favourable for their habitation.
• Sword fish thrives near the South Atlantic Coast due to the extensive continental shelf.

Question 3.
Classify the forest regions in Brazil with reference to their extent.
Answer:

• Equatorial forests are found in the northern part of Brazil and it covers an extensive area.
• Tropical Grasslands (Savanna) is the next major forest type occupying central part of Brazil.
• Hot deciduous forests occupy the southern Brazil whereas swampy lands of Pantanal occupy a small part of Brazil in the south west.
• Thorny shrubs occupy the north western part of Brazil owing to low rainfall whereas Temperate Grasslands (Pampas) occupy south Brazil.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:
Question 1.

1. Bengal Tiger
2. Lion
3. Great Indian Bustard
4. Gangetic Dolphin
5. Olive Ridley turtles
6. Swamp deers
7. One-horned rhinos
8. Nilgiri Tahr goat
9. Gharials

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In Brazil, _____ varies due to physiography.
(a) soil
(b) rainfall
(c) agriculture
(d) mineral availability
Answer:
(b) rainfall

Question 2.
In most parts of the _____ region, it rains throughout the year.
(a) temperate
(b) tropical
(c) grasslands
(d) equatorial
Answer:
(d) equatorial

Question 3.
As one moves away from the Equator, _______ decreases.
(a) altitude
(b) forest
(c) rainfall
(d) snowfall
Answer:
(c) rainfall

Question 4.
The _______ forests are found where there is rainfall throughout the year.
(a) tropical
(b) thorny
(c) evergreen
(d) temperate
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 5.
Brazil has the/a ______ number of vegetation species in the world.
(a) moderate
(b) largest
(c) low
(d) smallest
Answer:
(b) largest

Question 6.
The rainforests are rightly called the _______.
(a) lungs of the world’
(b) ’limbs of the world’
(c) ’heart of the world’
(d) ’veins of the world’
Answer:
(a) lungs of the world’

Question 7.
Highest biodiversity is found in _____ forests.
(a) thorny
(b) deciduous
(c) evergreen
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 8.
In regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm in India, ______ forests are found.
(a) thorny
(b) evergreen
(c) deciduous
(d) tropical
Answer:
(c) deciduous

Question 9.
In regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall that experience dry summers for a long time in India, ______ and shrub like vegetation are found.
(a) equatorial
(b) evergreen
(c) grasslands
(d) thorny
Answer:
(d) thorny

Question 10.
In _____ areas, coastal type of vegetation is found.
(a) peninsular
(b) mountainous
(c) rocky
(d) swampy
Answer:
(d) swampy

Question 11.
Coastal type of vegetation is called ____ in India.
(a) Bangar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Pantanal
(d) Terai
Answer:
(b) Sunderbans

Question 12.
The wood found in Sunderbans is _____ light and durable.
(a) dry
(b) fragile
(c) oily
(d) soft
Answer:
(c) oily

Question 13.
In areas located in the ____ altitude of Himalayas, seasonly flowering trees are found.
(a) highest
(b) lowest
(c) plains
(d) medium
Answer:
(a) highest

Question 14.
In regions with medium altitude of Himalayas, ______ trees are found.
(a) rubber
(b) evergreen
(c) rose wood
(d) coniferous
Answer:
(d) coniferous

Question 15.
At foothills of the Himalayas _____ forests are found.
(a) mixed
(b) teak –
(c) coniferous
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) mixed

Question 16.
The proportion of ________ trees is higher at the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) sal
(b) deodar
(c) rosewood
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) sal

Question 17.
Teak is mainly found in the _______ type of forest.
(a) Coastal
(b) Thorny and bush
(c) Coniferous
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(d) Deciduous

Question 18.
A greater diversity of wildlife is found in ________ than any other country in the
world.
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Australia
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 19.
In the swampy areas of Pantanal, _______ are found.
(a) cobras
(b) vipers
(c) huge anacondas
(d) Indian pythons
Answer:
(c) huge anacondas

Question 20.
Among fish varieties, ______ is found in seas of Brazil
(a) mackerel
(b) king fish
(c) sword fish
(d) pink dolphins
Answer:
(c) sword fish

Question 21.
In Brazilian rivers, pink dolphins and ______ are found.
(a) gold fish
(b) piranhas
(c) king fish
(d) mackrels
Answer:
(b) piranhas

Question 22.
One of the major bird species found in Brazil includes _______.
(a) ostrich
(b) flamingoes
(c) kiwi
(d) duck
Answer:
(b) flamingoes

Question 23.
Slash and bum agriculture is also called ______ in Brazil.
(a) kumri
(b) roka (roca)
(c) dry farming
(d) bewar
Answer:
(b) roka (roca)

Question 24.
Hot and humid forests are a home for _______
(a) tiger
(b) elephants
(c) dogs
(d) leopard
Answer:
(b) elephants

Question 25.
One horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of ______.
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 26.
Indian bisons, deers, monkeys are found in the _____ region.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Peninsular
(d) Deccan
Answer:
(c) Peninsular

Question 27.
The only country where both lions and tigers are found is ______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Australia
(d) America
Answer:
(b) India

Question 28.
______ which are huge in size fly high in the Brazilian sky.
(a) Macaws
(b) Kingfishers
(c) Condors
(d) Pheasants
Answer:
(c) Condors

Match the Column:

Question 1.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Evergreen Forests	(a) Major portion of Madhya Pradesh
2. Deciduous forests	(b) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Thorny shrubs	(c) Sundarbans
4. Himalayan forests	(d) Western Ghats
5. Coastal forests	(e) Gujarat
	(f) Cold desert in Jammu and Kashmir
	(g) Hot desert in Rajasthan

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Question 2.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Equatorial forests	(a) Caatinga
2. Grasslands	(b) Pantanal
3. Swampy Lands	(c) Pampas
4. Hot deciduous forests	(d) Amazon river basin
5. Thorny shrubs	(e) Escarpment
	(f) Savanna
	(g) Parana basin

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – e
5 – a

Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
With reference to Fauna in India.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Elephants
(c) Lion
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(a) Anaconda

Question 2.
With reference to Flora of Brazil.
(a) Pau Brazil
(b) Rubber
(c) Mahogany
(d) Deodar
Answer:
(d) Deodar

Question 3.
With reference to Himalayan Forests.
(a) Seasonal flowering plants
(b) Orchids
(c) Pine
(d) Mixed Forests
Answer:
(b) Orchids

Question 4.
With reference to birds found in Brazil.
(a) Condors
(b) Flamingoes
(c) Macaws
(d) Peacocks
Answer:
(d) Peacocks

Question 5.
With reference to birds found in India.
(a) Peacock
(b) Kingfisher
(c) Duck
(d) Condors.
Answer:
(d) Condors.

Question 6.
With reference to protection of wildlife, Government of India has setup.
(a) Museums
(b) Biosphere reserves
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer:
(a) Museums

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Where does it rain throughout the year?
Answer:
It rains throughout the year, in most parts of the equatorial region.

Question 2.
As one moves away from the Equator, does the rainfall increase?
Answer:
No, the rainfall decreases as one moves away from the Equator.

Question 3.
Where are evergreen forests found?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in the area where it rains throughout the year.

Question 4.
What effect does rainfall have on vegetation?
Answer:
As the rainfall decreases, the density of the vegetation also decreases.

Question 5.
What kind of vegetation is found in places of less rainfall?
Answer:
Various types of grass, short shrubs and thorny vegetation is found in places of less rainfall.

Question 6.
Where are the largest number of vegetation species found in the world?
Answer:
Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

Question 7.
What kind of trees are found in Brazil?
Answer:
Trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids are found in Brazil.

Question 8.
Why are the evergreen forests called the ‘lungs of the world’?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are called the lungs of the world because they release large amount of oxygen in the environment which helps to reduce the carbon dioxide levels.

Question 9.
Describe the leaves of trees found in evergreen forests.
Answer:
The leaves of trees found in evergreen forests are broad and green.

Question 10.
What quality of wood is found in evergreen forests?
Answer:
The wood found in evergreen forests is hard, heavy and durable.

Question 11.
In which regions are deciduous forests found?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving an average amount of rainfall ranging between 1000mm to 2000mm in India.

Question 12.
Which trees are found in deciduous forests?
Answer:
Trees like teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are found in deciduous forest.

Question 13.
Which regions experience dry summers for a long time in India?
Answer:
Regions that receive less than 500 mm of rainfall experience dry summers for a long time in India.

Question 14.
Which kind of vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Thorny or shrub like vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 15.
How are the leaves of trees in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
The leaves of trees are small in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 16.
Where is coastal vegetation found?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is found in swampy areas, estuaries and lagoons near coastal areas.

Question 17.
What is coastal vegetation called in India?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is called mangroves or Sunderbans in India.

Question 18.
How is the wood of trees found in coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The wood of trees found in coastal vegetation is oily, light and durable.

Question 19.
How many types of forests are there in the Himalayas?
Answer:
There are three types of forests in the Himalayas based on their altitude.

Question 20.
Which kind of trees are found in regions of high altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees are found in regions of high altitude.

Question 21.
Which type of trees are found in regions with medium altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
In regions with medium altitude, coniferous trees like pine, deodar and fir are found.

Question 22.
Where are mixed forests found in India?
Answer:
Mixed forest are found at the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 23.
Where is greater diversity in wildlife found in the world?
Answer:
A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil than any other country in the world.

Question 24.
Which animal is found in the swampy areas of the Pantanal?
Answer:
Huge anacondas are found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 25.
Which are the other animals found in Brazil?
Answer:
Animals like guinea pigs, crocodiles, alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found in Brazil.

Question 26.
Which is the main variety of fish found in the Brazilian sea?
Answer:
Sword fish is mainly found in the Brazilian sea.

Question 27.
Which varieties of fish are found in the rivers of Brazil?
Answer:
Piranhas are found in the rivers of Brazil.

Question 28.
What kind of birds are seen in the Brazilian sky?
Answer:
Condors, parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are found in the Brazilian skies.

Question 29.
Why is degradation of environment happening in Brazil?
Answer:
Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and bum agriculture (roka), deforestation, and pollution.

Question 30.
Where are elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants are found in hot and humid forests of India.

Question 31.
Where are one homed rhinoceroses found?
Answer:
One homed rhinoceroses are found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.

Question 32.
Which animals are found in the arid lands of India?
Answer:
Wild ass and camels are found in the arid lands of India.

Question 33.
Which animal is found in the snow capped regions of Himalayas?
Answer:
Snow leopards are found in the snow capped regions of the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Which animals are found in the peninsular region of India?
Answer:
Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region of India.

Question 35.
Which is the only country where both lions and tigers are found?
Answer:
India is the only country where both lions and tigers are found.

Question 36.
Where are turtles, crocodiles and gharials found in India?
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found in rivers, estuaries, and coastal areas of India.

Question 37.
Which birds are found in the forests and wetlands of India?
Answer:
Birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, peasants, ducks, parakeet, cranes, and pigeons are found in the forests and wetlands of India.

Question 38.
What measures are taken by the Government of India for the protection of wildlife and forests of India?
Answer:
The Government of India has set up a number of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves for the protection of wildlife and forests in India.

Question 39.
Name some plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and a variety of cactus like aloevera and agave are found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The region where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Equatorial region.

Question 2.
The forests which are found where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Evergreen forests.

Question 3.
Kind of vegetation found in places of less rainfall.
Answer:
Grass, short shrubs, thorny vegetation.

Question 4.
Country where the largest number of vegetation species in the world is located.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 5.
The types of trees found in Brazil.
Answer:
Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and variety of orchids.

Question 6.
Other name for rain forests.
Answer:
‘The lungs of the world.’

Question 7.
Trees found in deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal.

Question 8.
Type of vegetation found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Thorny and shrub-like.

Question 9.
Plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and varieties of cactus.

Question 10.
Kind of vegetation found in swampy areas.
Answer:
Coastal type.

Question 11.
Another name of coastal type of vegetation in India.
Answer:
Mangroves or sunderbans.

Question 12.
Kind of trees found in forests located on higher altitudes in the Himalayas.
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees.

Question 13.
Kind of trees which have grown in forests located on medium altitudes in Himalayas. Coniferous trees like Pine, Deodar and Fir.
Answer:
Region where mixed forests are found in Himalayas.

Question 14.
Foothills of Himalayas.
Answer:
Animal found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 15.
Huge anacondas.
Answer:
Any two varieties of animals found in Brazil. Guinea pigs and crocodiles.

Question 16.
Kind of fishes found in seas of Brazil.
Answer:
Sword fish.

Question 17.
Fish varieties found in the rivers of Brazil.
Answer:
Pink dolphins and Piranhas.

Question 18.
Any two species of birds found in Brazil.
Answer:
Condors and macaws.

Question 19.
Causes for degradation of environment.
Answer:
Illegal smuggling of wild animals, roka, deforestation and pollution

Question 20.
Region where elephants are found in India.
Answer:
Hot and humid forests.

Question 21.
Animal which is found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
Answer:
One horned rhinoceroses.

Question 22.
Animals which are found in arid lands of India.
Answer:
Wild ass and camels.

Question 23.
Animals which are found in the snowcapped mountain of Himalayas.
Answer:
Yaks and snow leopards.

Question 24.
Animals found in the Peninsular region of India.
Answer:
Indian bisons, deer, antelopes and monkeys.

Question 25.
Country where both lion and tigers are found.
Answer:
India.

Question 26.
Animals found in rivers, estuaries and coastal areas of India.
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and garials.

Question 27.
Measures taken by the Government of India to protect wildlife.
Answer:
Setting up of National parks, bird sanctuaries, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.

Question 28.
National animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:

1. Evergreen forests
2. Deciduous forest
3. Thorny shrubs
4. Himalayan Forests
5. Coastal Forests

Answer:

Mark the following on the map of Brazil with the given information:

1. Equatorial forests
2. Tropical grasslands
3. Swampy lands
4. Hot deciduous forest
5. Caatinga
6. Temperate grasslands

Answer:

Equatorial Forests Tropical Grasslands:Savanna Swampy Lands Hot Deciduous Forest Thorny Shrubs/Caatinga Temperate Grasslands:Pampas

Question 1.
Show the habitats of tigers in India with their names on a map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is their habitat found in these regions?
Answer:
Tiger’s habitats are found in these regions because here there are various types of forest areas with different types of herbivorous animals.

Answer the Questions Briefly:

Question 1.
Thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall.
Answer:

• The regions where there is less or no rainfall have a hot and dry climate.
• The soils in these regions are also rocky and dry.
• Water evaporation in leaves is more since the surface area of exposure is more than that of thorns
• Hence, thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall to conserve water.

Question 2.
The evergreen rainforests in Brazil are rightly called the ‘Lungs of the world’.
Answer:

• The northern Part of Brazil has dense evergreen forests. .
• These forests release a large amount of oxygen in the environment.
• This helps to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
• Therefore, these rainforests are rightly called the Tungs of the world’.

Question 3.
The largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• The flora of any region depends upon the amount of rainfall and its physiography.
• Brazil has equatorial forests in high rainfall areas, tropical grasslands and deciduous forests in moderate rainfall areas.
• Western part of Brazil has swampy lands, whereas low rainfall regions have thorny shrubs.
• Temperate grasslands are found in temperate regions.
• Thus, the largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.

Question 4.
Suggest measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India?
Answer:
Measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India are as follows:

• Restricting wildlife trading and hunting.
• Declaring more national parks and sanctuaries.
• Giving more importance to the protection of endangered animals.
• Controlling felling of trees.
• Implementing afforestation and social forestry programmes.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Brazilian Vegetation:
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rainfall varies due to physiography. In most parts of the Equatorial region, it rains throughout the year.
(ii) As one moves away from the equator, the number of rainy days as well as amount of rainfall reduces.
(iii) This affects the life cycle of the vegetation too.
(iv) Evergreen forests are found in the areas where it rains throughout the year.
(v) In regions which receive rainfall only during certain seasons, the density of the vegetation reduces.
(vi) Instead of forests, various types of grass, short shrubs,,thorny vegetation, etc. are found.
(vii) Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.
(viii) This includes evergreen vegetation, semi-evergreen, arid, etc.
(ix) One finds trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids.

Question 2.
wildlife of Brazil:
Answer:
(i) A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil compared to any other country in the world.
(ii) In the swampy areas of the Pantanal, huge anacondas are found.
Animals, such as guinea pigs, crocodiles,
alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found.
(iv) Among the fish varieties, mainly swordfish are found in the seas, while pink dolphins and piranhas are found in the rivers .
(v) Condors which are huge in size and fly high in the sky, various types of parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are the major birds found here.
(vi) Millions of insect varieties are also found here.

Question 3.
The wildlife of India:
Answer:
(i) India is also a mega-diverse country in terms of wildlife. There are many species of wildlife in Irdia.
(ii) Elephants are found in hot and humid forests. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
(iii) Wild ass and camels are found in arid lands. Snow leopards and yaks are found in the snow-capped regions of the Himalayas.
(iv) Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region.
(v) India is the only country in the world where both tigers and lions are found.
(vi) Rivers, estuaries and coastal areas are homes to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials (gharials).
(vii) The forests and wetlands are the shelters of variety of birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes, and pigeons.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Maths Solutions covers the Practice Set 6.1 Geometry 10th Class Maths Part 2 Answers Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry.

Practice Set 6.1 Geometry 10th Std Maths Part 2 Answers Chapter 6 Trigonometry

Question 1.
If sin θ = \(\frac { 7 }{ 25 } \), find the values of cos θ and tan θ.
Solution:
sin θ = \(\frac { 7 }{ 25 } \) … [Given]
We know that,
sin² θ + cos² θ = 1

…[Taking square root of both sides] Now, tan θ = \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta}\)

Alternate Method:
sin θ = \(\frac { 7 }{ 25 } \) …(i) [Given]
Consider ∆ABC, where ∠ABC 90° and ∠ACB = θ.
sin θ = \(\frac { AB }{ AC } \) … (ii) [By definition]
∴ \(\frac { AB }{ AC } \) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 25 } \) … [From (i) and (ii)]

LetAB = 7k and AC = 25k
In ∆ABC, ∠B = 90°
∴ AB² + BC² = AC² … [Pythagoras theorem]
∴ (7k)² + BC² = (25k)²
∴ 49k² + BC² = 625k²
∴ BC² = 625k² – 49k²
∴ BC² = 576k²
∴ BC = 24k …[Taking square root of both sides]

Question 2.
If tan θ = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \), find the values of sec θ and cos θ.
Solution:

Alternate Method:
tan θ = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \) …(i)[Given]
Consider ∆ABC, where ∠ABC 90° and ∠ACB = θ.
tan θ = \(\frac { AB }{ BC } \) … (ii) [By definition]
∴ \(\frac { AB }{ BC } \) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \) … [From (i) and (ii)]

Let AB = 3k and BC 4k
In ∆ABC,∠B = 90°
∴ AB² + BC² = AC² …[Pythagoras theorem]
∴ (3k)² + (4k)² = AC²
∴ 9k² + 16k² = AC²
∴ AC² = 25k²
∴ AC = 5k …[Taking square root of both sides]

Question 3.
If cot θ = \(\frac { 40 }{ 9 } \), find the values of cosec θ and sin θ
Solution:

..[Taking square root of both sides]

Alternate Method:
cot θ = \(\frac { 40 }{ 9 } \) ….(i) [Given]
Consider ∆ABC, where ∠ABC = 90° and
∠ACB = θ
cot θ = \(\frac { BC }{ AB } \) …(ii) [By defnition]
∴ \(\frac { BC }{ AB } \) = \(\frac { 40 }{ 9 } \) ….. [From (i) and (ii)]
Let BC = 40k and AB = 9k

In ∆ABC, ∠B = 90°
∴ AB² + BC² = AC² … [Pythagoras theorem]
∴ (9k)² + (40k)² = AC²
∴ 81k² + 1600k² = AC²
∴ AC² = 1681k²
∴ AC = 41k … [Taking square root of both sides]

Question 4.
If 5 sec θ – 12 cosec θ = θ, find the values of sec θ, cos θ and sin θ.
Solution:
5 sec θ – 12 cosec θ = 0 …[Given]
∴ 5 sec θ = 12 cosec θ

Question 5.
If tan θ = 1, then find the value of

Solution:
tan θ = 1 … [Given]
We know that, tan 45° = 1
∴ tan θ = tan 45°
∴ θ = 45°

Question 6.
Prove that:
i. \(\frac{\sin ^{2} \theta}{\cos \theta}+\cos \theta=\sec \theta\)
ii. cos² θ (1+ tan² θ) = 1
iii. \(\sqrt{\frac{1-\sin \theta}{1+\sin \theta}}=\sec \theta-\tan \theta\)
iv. (sec θ – cos θ) (cot θ + tan θ) tan θ. sec θ
v. cot θ + tan θ cosec θ. sec θ
vi. \(\frac{1}{\sec \theta-\tan \theta}=\sec \theta+\tan \theta\)
vii. sin⁴ θ – cos⁴ θ = 1 – 2 cos² θ
viii. \(\sec \theta+\tan \theta=\frac{\cos \theta}{1-\sin \theta}\)

Proof:
i. L.H.S. = \(\frac{\sin ^{2} \theta}{\cos \theta}+\cos \theta\)

ii. L.H.S. = cos² θ(1 + tan² θ)
= cos² θ sec² θ …[∵ 1 + tan² θ = sec² θ]

= 1
= R.H.S.
∴ cos² θ (1 + tan² θ) = 1

iv. L.H.S. = (sec θ – cos θ) (cot θ + tan θ)

∴ (sec θ – cos θ) (cot θ + tan θ) = tan θ. sec θ

v. L.H.S. = cot θ + tan θ

∴ cot θ + tan θ = cosec θ.sec θ

vii. L.H.S. = sin⁴ θ – cos⁴ θ
= (sin² θ)² – (cos² θ)²
= (sin² θ + cos² θ) (sin² θ – cos² θ)
= (1) (sin² θ – cos² θ) ….[∵ sin² θ + cos² θ = 1]
= sin² θ – cos² θ
= (1 – cos² θ) – cos² θ …[θ sin² θ = 1 – cos² θ]
= 1 – 2 cos² θ
= R.H.S.
∴ sin⁴ θ – cos⁴ θ = 1 – 2 cos² θ

viii. L.H.S. = sec θ + tan θ

xi. L.H.S. = sec⁴ A (1 – sin⁴ A) – 2 tan² A
= sec⁴ A [1² – (sin² A)²] – 2 tan² A
= sec⁴ A (1 – sin²A) (1 + sin² A) – 2 tan² A
= sec⁴ A cos²A (1 + sin² A) – 2 tan²A
[ ∵ sin² θ + cos² θ = 1 ,∵ 1 – sin² θ = cos² θ]

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Chapter 6 Trigonometry Intext Questions and Activities

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with reference to the figure given below. (Textbook pg. no. 124)

Solution:

Question 2.
Complete the relations in ratios given below. (Textbook pg, no. 124)

Solution:
i. \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta}\) = [tan θ]
ii. sin θ = cos (90 – θ)
iii. cos θ = (90 – θ)
iv. tan θ × tan (90 – θ) = 1

Question 3.
Complete the equation. (Textbook pg. no, 124)
sin² θ + cos² θ = [______]
Solution:
sin² θ + cos² θ = [1]

Question 4.
Write the values of the following trigonometric ratios. (Textbook pg. no. 124)

Solution:

Maharashtra Board Class 10 Maths Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Maths Solutions covers the Problem Set 7 Geometry 10th Class Maths Part 2 Answers Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration.

Problem Set 7 Geometry 10th Std Maths Part 2 Answers Chapter 7 Mensuration

Problem Set 7 Question 1. Choose the correct alternative answer for each of the following questions.

i. The ratio of circumference and area of a circle is 2 : 7. Find its circumference.
(A) 14 π
(B) \(\frac{7}{\pi}\)
(C) 7π
(D) \(\frac{14}{\pi}\)
Answer:

(A)

ii. If measure of an arc of a circle is 160° and its length is 44 cm, find the circumference of the circle.
(A) 66 cm
(B) 44 cm
(C) 160 cm
(D) 99 cm
Answer:

(D)

iii. Find the perimeter of a sector of a circle if its measure is 90° and radius is 7 cm.
(A) 44 cm
(B) 25 cm
(C) 36 cm
(D) 56 cm
Answer:

(B)

iv. Find the curved surface area of a cone of radius 7 cm and height 24 cm.
(A) 440 cm²
(B) 550 cm²
(C) 330 cm²
(D) 110 cm²
Answer:

(B)

v. The curved surface area of a cylinder is 440 cm² and its radius is 5 cm. Find its height.
(A) \(\frac{44}{\pi}\) cm
(B) 22π cm
(C) 44π cm
(D) \(\frac{22}{\pi}\)
Answer:

(A)

vi. A cone was melted and cast into a cylinder of the same radius as that of the base of the cone. If the height of the cylinder is 5 cm, find the height of the cone.
(A) 15 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 18 cm
(D) 5 cm
Answer:

(A)

vii. Find the volume of a cube of side 0.01 cm.
(A) 1 cm
(B) 0.001 cm³
(C) 0.0001 cm³
(D) 0.000001 cm³
Answer:
Volume of cube = (side)³
= (0.01)³ = 0.000001 cm³
(D)

viii. Find the side of a cube of volume 1 m³
(A) 1 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 1000 cm
Answer:
Volume of cube = (side)³
∴ 1 = (side)³
∴ Side = 1 m
= 100 cm
(C)

Problem Set 7 Geometry Class 10 Question 2. A washing tub in the shape of a frustum of a cone has height 21 cm. The radii of the circular top and bottom are 20 cm and 15 cm respectively. What is the capacity of the tub? = (π = \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 } \))
Given: For the frustum shaped tub,
height (h) = 21 cm,
radii (r₁) = 20 cm, and (r₂) = 15 cm
To find: Capacity (volume) of the tub.
Solution:
Volume of frustum = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) πh (r₁² + r₂² + r₁ × r₂)

∴ The capacity of the tub is 20.35 litres.

10th Geometry Problem Set 7 Question 3. Some plastic balls of radius 1 cm were melted and cast into a tube. The thickness, length and outer radius of the tube were 2 cm, 90 cm and 30 cm respectively. How many balls were melted to make the tube?
Given: For the cylindrical tube,
height (h) = 90 cm,
outer radius (R) = 30 cm,
thickness = 2 cm
For the plastic spherical ball,
radius (r₁) = 1 cm
To find: Number of balls melted.
Solution:

Inner radius of tube (r)
= outer radius – thickness of tube
= 30 – 2
= 28 cm
Volume of plastic required for the tube = Outer volume of tube – Inner volume of hollow tube
= πR²h – πr²h
= πh(R² – r²)
= π × 90 (30² – 28²)
= π × 90 (30 + 28) (30 – 28) …[∵ a² – b² = (a + b)(a – b)]
= 90 × 58 × 2π cm³

∴ 7830 plastic balls were melted to make the tube.

Problem Set 7 Geometry Question 4.
A metal parallelopiped of measures 16 cm × 11cm × 10cm was melted to make coins. How many coins were made if the thickness and diameter of each coin was 2 mm and 2 cm respectively?
Given: For the parallelopiped.,
length (l) = 16 cm, breadth (b) = 11 cm,
height (h) = 10 cm
For the cylindrical coin,
thickness (H) = 2 mm,
diameter (D) 2 cm
To find: Number of coins made.
Solution:
Volume of parallelopiped = l × b × h
= 16 × 11 × 10
= 1760 cm³
Thickness of coin (H) = 2 mm
= 0.2 cm …[∵ 1 cm = 10 mm]
Diameter of coin (D) = 2 cm

∴ 2800 coins were made by melting the parallelopiped.

Mensuration Problem Question 5.  The diameter and length of a roller is 120 cm and 84 cm respectively. To level the ground, 200 rotations of the roller are required. Find the expenditure to level the ground at the rate of ₹ 10 per sq.m.
Given: For the cylindrical roller,
diameter (d) =120 cm,
length = height (h) = 84 cm
To find: Expenditure of levelling the ground.
Solution:
Diameter of roller (d) = 120 cm

Now, area of ground levelled in one rotation = curved surface area of roller
= 3.168 m²
∴ Area of ground levelled in 200 rotations
= 3.168 × 200 =
633.6 m²
Rate of levelling = ₹ 10 per m²
∴ Expenditure of levelling the ground
= 633.6 × 10 = ₹ 6336
∴ The expenditure of levelling the ground is ₹ 6336.

Question 6.
The diameter and thickness of a hollow metal sphere are 12 cm and 0.01 m respectively. The density of the metal is 8.88 gm per cm3. Find the outer surface area and mass of the sphere, [π = 3.14]
Given: For the hollow sphere,
diameter (D) =12 cm, thickness = 0.01 m
density of the metal = 8.88 gm per cm³
To find: i. Outer surface area of the sphere
ii. Mass of the sphere.

Solution:
Diameter of the sphere (D)
= 12 cm
∴ Radius of sphere (R)
= \(\frac { d }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 } \) = 6 cm
∴ Surface area of sphere = 4πR²
= 4 × 3.14 × 6²
= 452.16 cm²
Thickness of sphere = 0.01 m
= 0.01 × 100 cm …[∵ 1 m = 100 cm]
= 1 cm
∴ Inner radius of the sphere (r)
= Outer radius – thickness of sphere
= 6 – 1 = 5 cm
∴ Volume of hollow sphere
= Volume of outer sphere – Volume of inner sphere

∴ The outer surface area and the mass of the sphere are 452.16 cm² and 3383.19 gm respectively.

Question 7.
A cylindrical bucket of diameter 28 cm and height 20 cm was full of sand. When the sand in the bucket was poured on the ground, the sand got converted into a shape of a cone. If the height of the cone was 14 cm, what was the base area of the cone?
Given: For the cylindrical bucket,
diameter (d) = 28 cm, height (h) = 20 cm
For the conical heap of sand,
height (H) = 14 cm
To find: Base area of the cone (πR²).
Solution:
Diameter of the bucket (d) = 28 cm


The base area of the cone is 2640 cm².

Question 8.
The radius of a metallic sphere is 9 cm. It was melted to make a wire of diameter 4 mm. Find the length of the wire.
Given: For metallic sphere,
radius (R) = 9 cm
For the cylindrical wire,
diameter (d) = 4 mm
To find: Length of wire (h).
Solution:

∴ The length of the wire is 243 m.

Question 9.
The area of a sector of a circle of 6 cm radius is 157t sq.cm. Find the measure of the arc and length of the arc corresponding to the sector.
Given: Radius (r) = 6 cm,
area of sector = 15 π cm²
To find: i. Measure of the arc (θ),
ii. Length of the arc (l)
Solution:

∴ The measure of the arc and the length of the arc are 150° and 5π cm respectively.

Question 10.
In the adjoining figure, seg AB is a chord of a circle with centre P. If PA = 8 cm and distance of chord AB from the centre P is 4 cm, find the area of the shaded portion.

(π = 3.14, \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = 1.73)
Given: Radius (r) = PA = 8 cm,
PC = 4 cm
To find: Area of shaded region.
Solution:

Similarly, we can show that, ∠BPC = 60°
∠APB = ∠APC + ∠BPC …[Angle sum property]
∴ θ = 60° + 60° = 120°


Area of shaded region = A(P-ADB) – A(∆APB)
= 66.98 – 27.68
= 39.30 cm²
∴ The area of the shaded region is 39.30 cm².

Question 11.
In the adjoining figure, square ABCD is inscribed in the sector A-PCQ. The radius of sector C-BXD is 20 cm. Complete the following activity to find the area of shaded region.

Solution:
Side of square ABCD
= radius of sector C-BXD = [20] cm
Area of square = (side)² = 20² = 400 cm² ….(i)
Area of shaded region inside the square = Area of square ABCD – Area of sector C-BXD

Radius of bigger sector
= Length of diagonal of square ABCD
= \(\sqrt { 2 }\) × side
= 20 \(\sqrt { 2 }\) cm
Area of the shaded regions outside the square
= Area of sector A-PCQ – Area of square ABCD
= A(A – PCQ) – A(꠸ABCD)

Alternate method:

□ABCD is a square. … [Given]
Side of □ABCD = radius of sector (C-BXD)
= 20 cm
Radius of sector (A-PCQ) = Diagonal
= \(\sqrt { 2 }\) × side
= \(\sqrt { 2 }\) × 20
= 20 \(\sqrt { 2 }\) cm

Now, Area of shaded region
= A(A-PCQ) – A(C-BXD)
= 628 – 314
= 314 cm²
∴ The area of the shaded region is 314 cm².

Question 12.
In the adjoining figure, two circles with centres O and P are touching internally at point A. If BQ = 9, DE = 5, complete the following activity to find the radii of the circles.

Solution:
Let the radius of the bigger circle be R and that of smaller circle be r.
OA, OB, OC and OD are the radii of the bigger circle.
∴ OA = OB = OC = OD = R
PQ = PA = r
OQ + BQ = OB … [B – Q – O]
OQ = OB – BQ = R – 9
OE + DE = OD ….[D – E – O]
OE = OD – DE = [R – 5]
As the chords QA and EF of the circle with centre P intersect in the interior of the circle, so by the property of internal division of two chords of a circle,
OQ × OA = OE × OF
∴ (R – 9) × R = (R – 5) × (R – 5) …[∵ OE = OF]
∴ R² – 9R = R² – 10R + 25
∴ -9R + 10R = 25
∴ R = [25units]
AQ = AB – BQ = 2r ….[B-Q-A]
∴ 2r = 50 – 9 = 41
∴ r = \(\frac { 41 }{ 2 } \) = 20.5 units

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.3 On Wings of Courage Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.3 On Wings of Courage

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.3 Warming Up Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The ranks of officers in Indian Army, Navy and Air Force are jumbled up. Discuss with your group and put them in the appropriate boxes.

Commander, Brigadier, Wing-Commander, Vice-Admiral, Squadron-Leader, Major, Colonel, Field Marshal, Air Marshal, Admiral of Fleet, Lieutenant-General, Flying Officer, Commodore, Rear Admiral, Air-Commodore.

ARMY	NAVY	AIR FORCE

Answer:

Army	Navy	Air Force
Brigadier,	Commander,	Wing-
Major, Colonel,	Vice-Admiral,	Commander,
Field Marshal,	Admiral	Squadron-
Lieutenant-	of Fleet,	Leader, Air
General	Commodore,	Marshal, Flying
	Rear Admiral	Officer, Air-Commodore

Question 2.
Homophones/ Homographs
(A) Make sentences to bring out the difference between-
(1) (a) wear ……………………………………..
(b) ware ……………………………………..
(2) (a) here ……………………………………..
(b) hear ……………………………………..
(3) (a) there ……………………………………..
(b) their ……………………………………..
(4) (a) cell ……………………………………..
(b) sell ……………………………………..
Answer:
(1) (a) wear: The little girl wanted to wear a pink, frilly dress.
(b) ware: The silver ware laid out on the King’s table was exquisite.

(2) (a) here: “You must sit here,” said the man to his guest.
(b) hear: The children could hear the sound of the planes quite clearly.

(3) (a) there: “I had kept my bag there,” said the woman to the policeman.
(b) their: The girls picked up their bags and went home.

(4) (a) cell: The prisoner sat in the dark cell without talking.
(b) sell: The hawker wanted to sell all his wares before evening.

(B) Write what the underlined Homographs in the following sentences mean.
(1) (a) A bear is an omnivorous animal. ……………………………………..
(b) She could not bear the injustice. ……………………………………..
(2) (a) A bat is the only bird which is a mammal. ……………………………………..
(b) His bat broke as it struck the ball. ……………………………………..
(3) (a) He had to pay a fine for breaking the traffic signal. ……………………………………..
(b) Use a fine cloth for the baby’s clothes. ……………………………………..
(4) (a) We enjoyed a lot at the temple fair. ……………………………………..
(b) She has a fair complexion. ……………………………………..
Answer:
(1) (a) A bear is an omnivorous animal.
bear – a large, heavy animal
(b) She could not bear the injustice,
bear – to tolerate

(2) (a) A bat is the only bird which is a mammal.
bat – a mammal that flies
(b) His bat broke as it struck the ball.
bat – a wooden implement used for hitting the ball in many games.

(3) (a) He had to pay a fine for breaking the traffic signal.
fine – penalty
(b) Use a fine cloth for the baby’s clothes,
fine – delicate, soft

(4) (a) We enjoyed a lot at the temple fair.
fair – a gathering of stalls and amusements for public entertainment
(b) She has a fair complexion, fair – light, not dark

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Unit 1.3 Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the text and fill in the flow chart of the promotions received by Arjan Singh.

Answer:

Question 2.
With the help of facts given in the text prepare a Fact file of Air Marshal Arjan Singh.
(a) Date of Birth
(b) Place of Birth
(c) Education
(d) First Assignments
(e) Important posts held
(a) In Air Force
(b) After retirement
(f) Awards
(g) Most outstanding contribution in IAF
(h) Retirement
Answer:
(a) Date of birth: April 15, 1919
(b) Place of birth: Lyalpur
(c) Education: at Montgomery; Empire Pilot Training Course at RAF (Cranwell)
(d) First Assignment: to fly Westland Wapiti biplanes in the North-Western Frontier Province as a member of the No. 1 RIAF Squadron
(e) Important posts held:
(1) In Air Force: Member of No. 1. RIAF, Flying Officer, Squadron Leader, Wing Commander, Group Captain, Air Commodore, Air Officer Commanding, Air Vice Marshal, Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Deputy Chief of Air Staff, Vice Chief of Air Staff, Chief of Air Staff, Air Chief Marshal.
(2) After retirement: Ambassador to Switzerland Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
(f) Awards: Distinguished Flying Cross (1944); Padma Vibhushan
(g) Most outstanding contribution in IAF: Transforming the IAF into one of the most potent air forces globally and the fourth biggest in the world.
(h) Retirement: in August 1969.

Question 3.
Fill in the web.

Answer:
(1) Singh had successfully led a young IAF during the 1965 Indo-Pak war.
(2) Singh played a major role in transforming the IAF into one of the most potent air forces globally and the fourth biggest in the world.
(3) Singh was honoured with the rank of Marshal on the Republic Day in 2002.
(4) Singh’s contribution was most outstanding during the 1965 Indo-Pak war.

Question 4.
Say what actions preceded the following promotions of Arjan Singh in his career in the IAF.
(a) Selected for Empire Pilot training course at RAF
(b) Promoted to Squadron Leader
(c) Leader of a flypast of over 100 aircraft at Red Fort, Delhi
(d) Awarded Padma Vibhushan
(e) First Air Chief Marshal of Indian Air Force
Answer:
(a) The authorities selected Singh for the Empire Pilot training course.
(b) He flew against the tribal forces and moved back to No. 1 Squadron as a Flying Officer to fly the Hawker Hurricane.
(c) On 15th August 1947, Arjan Singh achieved the unique honour of leading a fly-past of over a hundred IAF aircraft over the Red Fort in Delhi.
(d) He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan for his astute leadership of the Air Force and for inspiring the IAF to victory in the 1965 Indo-Pak war.
(e) He was a source of inspiration to all the personnel of the Armed Forces through the years.

Question 5.
Replace the underlined words/phrases with the appropriate ones, to retain the proper meaning.
(be the epitome of, gear up, a brief stint, play a major role, in recognition of, take over reins)
(a) He contributed notably in bringing up the school.
(b) Our school cricket team got ready for the final match against P. Q. R. High School.
(c) After a short period of working as a lecturer, Ravi took up an important post in a multi-national company.
(d) Our class monitor is a perfect symbol of duty and discipline.
(e) Accepting the great value of his research; they awarded him with a Ph.D. (degree)
(f) After the murder of King Duncan, Macbeth took over the control of Scotland.
Answer:
(a) He played a major role in bringing up the school.
(b) Our school cricket team geared up for the final match against P.Q.R.High School.
(c) After a brief stint as a lecturer, Ravi took up an important post in a multinational company.
(d) Our class monitor is the epitome of duty and discipline.
(e) In recognition of his research, they awarded him with a Ph.D. (degree)
(f) After the murder of King Duncan, Macbeth took over the reins of Scotland.

Question 6.
Build the word wall with the words related to ‘Military’.

Answer:

Question 7.
(A) State the different meanings of the following pairs of Homophones and make sentences of your own with each of them.

Word	Meaning	Sentence
(a) led lead(b) role roll(c) air heir (d) feat feet (e) reign rein rain	………………………….. ………………………………………………………… ……………………………………………………… ………………………….. ………………………….. ………………………….. ………………………….. …………………………..	………………………….. ………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………. ………………………….. ………………………….. ………………………….. ………………………….. …………………………..

Answer:

Word	Meaning	Sentence
(a) led	past participle of lead (to guide or conduct)	The captain led his team to safety.
lead	graphite used as part of a pencil	Do you have a lead pencil?
(b) role	a part (in a play, film, etc.)	Marie got the leading role in the new movie.
roll	move in a particular direction by turning over and over	The boy wanted to roll in the mud while playing.
(c) air	the invisible gaseous substance surrounding the earth	There Is a lot of humidity in the air during the monsoon.
heir	successor or inheritor	The family did not know who the heir to the property was.
(d) feat	a great achievement	Climbing Mt. Everest is a feat.
feet	a unit of measurement	The girl saw to her shock that the lion was only a few feet away.
(e) reign	rule as king or queen	Queen Elizabeth’s reign has been a long one.
rein	a restraining influence	The new manager kept a tight rein on her employees.
rain	water that falls In drops from clouds in the sky	Children love to play in the rain.

(B) The following Homographs have the same spelling and pronunciation but can have different meanings. Make sentences of your own to show the difference.

Answer:
(a) firm: (i) My neighbour recently Joined an electronics firm as Sales Executive.
(ii) Many people feel that they must be firm with their children when they are growing.

(b) train: (i) The train left from platform 2 at seven p.m. sharp.
(ii) You must always train your pets to obey you.

(c) type: (i) The man asked his secretary to type the letter immediately.
(ii) Cows eat only a particular type of grass.

(d) post: (i) My aunt quit her job because she felt that the post was not suitable for her.
(ii) The little boy ran to the post office to post the letter to Santa Claus.

(e) current : (i) The minister was disturbed when he read about the current situation of unrest In the country.
(ii) It is a difficult task to row against the current in a river.

Question 8.
Glance through the text and prepare notes from the information that you get. Take only relevant points. Don’t use sentences. Arrange the points in the same order. You may use symbols or short forms. Present the points sequentially. Use highlighting techniques.
Answer:
Air Force Marshal Arjart Singh—Icon of India’s Military History

1. Date of Birth: 15 April, 1919
2. Qualifications: Empire Pilot Training Course at RAF (Cranwell)
3. Responsibilities:

• first assignment to fly Westland Wapiti biplanes in No.l RIAF Squadron
• brief stint in No.2 RIAF Squadron; moved back to No. 1 RIAF Squadron as Flying Officer
• overall commander of ‘Shiksha’
• led the IAF during the 1965 Indo-Pak war
• led a squadron against the Japanese during the Arakan Campaign; assisted the advance of Allied Forces to Yangoon
• led a fly-past on August 15, 1947
• commanded Ambala in the rank of Group Captain; took over as AOC of an operational command
• took over reins of the IAF
• ambassador to Switzerland; Lieutenant Governor of Delhi

(4) Achievements:

• selected for the Empire Pilot Training Course at RAF (Cranwell) in 1938, at age 19
• promoted to the rank of Squadron Leader in 1944
• led a fly-past over the Red Fort on August 15, 1947
• promoted to the rank of Wing Commander; promoted to the rank of Air Commodore in 1949
• longest tenure as AOC (1949-1952 and 19571961)
• appointed as Deputy Chief of Air Staff at the end of the 1962 war; appointed as Vice Chief of Air Staff in 1963
• rank of Air Marshal in August 1964; took over reins of IAF
• successfully led the IAF in 1965 Indo-Pak war
• promoted as Air Vice Marshal; appointed as AOC-in-C of an operational command
• first Air Chief to keep his flying currency till his CAS rank; has flown more than 60 different types of * aircraft
• first and only Air Chief Marshal of the IAF

(5) Awards:

– Distinguished Flying Cross (1944)
– Padma Vibhushan

(6) After retirement: Ambassador to Switzerland; Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
(Students can put these points attractively in boxes and use highlighting techniques.)

Question 9.
Develop a story suitable to the conclusion/end given below. Suggest a suitable title.
………………………………………………….. (Title)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………….. and so, with tears of joy and pride, the 10 year old Sanyogita More received the National Bravery Award from the Prime Minister.
Answer:
A WONDERFUL ACT OF BRAVERY
It was the 26th of July in Mumbai. It was raining cats and dogs. Ten-year-old Sanyogita More stood at the door of her hut. The street was flooded with water. Sanyogita was frightened. Her parents had not returned from work and she was all alone.

Suddenly, she saw two little boys, Rohan and Sohan, come out from the neighbouring hut to play in the water. As Sanyogita watched, there came a sudden gush of water and the boys were dragged towards an open manhole, which had been marked with a pole. They caught hold of the pole, but the pole began to tilt. It would soon fall—and the boys would go down the manhole!

Sanyogita ran as fast as she could towards the boys. Pulling a rope from a nearby door, she looped it around a large stone. She held onto the rope and extended her hand towards the boys. “Catch my hand, Sohan, Rohan,” she shouted. “Catch! Catch soon!”

The boys were in a panic but they did as they were told. Sohan held Rohan’s leg, Rohan held Sanyogita’s hand, and Sanyogita held onto the rope.

“Help! Help! she shouted, knowing that if the rope broke or the stone was dislodged, they would all go into the manhole.

She stood there shivering, her arms numb, for nearly 15 minutes before help arrived. Sanyogita collapsed after the incident. The news of her brave deed spread far and wide, and reached the ears of 1 the Prime Minister, who decided to honour her with an award. And so, with tears of joy and pride, the 10- I year-old Sanyogita More received the National Bravery ‘ Award from the Prime Minister.

Question 10.
You wish to join any one of the Indian Armed Forces. Fill in the following application form.
To
The Advertiser
N/AF Recruitment Service
Purangaon – 456 789

Affix recent
passport size
photograph

Application For Recruitment
Rect notice No 1234

1. Post applied for
2. Name and surname of Candidate (in Block letters)
3. Father’s Name ………………………………… Mother’s Name …………………………………
4. Date of Birth
5. Contact details :
Tel. No. (Res) ………………….. . Mobile No.
Email ID ………………….. .
6. Permanent Address :
House No./Street/Village ………………….. .
Post Office ………………….. .
District ………………….. State ………………….. .
Pincode ………………….. .
7. Educational Qualifications :

Serial Number	Qualification	Name of School/College	Name of Board/University	Percentage obtained

8. Whether registered at any employment exchange Yes/ No ………………….. (If yes, mention registration number and the name of the Employment Exchange.)

9. Outstanding achievements in extra-curricular activities/ sports/ games, etc.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. Why you wish to join Armed Forces. …………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Maths Solutions covers the Problem Set 5 Geometry 10th Class Maths Part 2 Answers Solutions Chapter 5 Co-ordinate Geometry.

Problem Set 5 Geometry 10th Std Maths Part 2 Answers Chapter 5 Co-ordinate Geometry

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks using correct alternatives.

i. Seg AB is parallel to Y-axis and co-ordinates of point A are (1, 3), then co-ordinates of point B can be _______.
(A) (3,1)
(B) (5,3)
(C) (3,0)
(D) (1,-3)
Answer: (D)
Since, seg AB || Y-axis.
∴ x co-ordinate of all points on seg AB
will be the same,
x co-ordinate of A (1, 3) = 1
x co-ordinate of B (1, – 3) = 1
∴ Option (D) is correct.

ii. Out of the following, point lies to the right of the origin on X-axis.
(A) (-2,0)
(B) (0,2)
(C) (2,3)
(D) (2,0)
Answer: (D)

iii. Distance of point (-3, 4) from the origin is _________.
(A) 7
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) -5
Answer: (C)
Distance of (-3, 4) from origin
\(\begin{array}{l}{=\sqrt{(-3)^{2}+(4)^{2}}} \\ {=\sqrt{9+16}} \\ {=\sqrt{25}=5}\end{array}\)

iv. A line makes an angle of 30° with the positive direction of X-axis. So the slope of the line is ________.
(A) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
(B) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
(C) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(D) \(\sqrt { 3 }\)
Answer: (C)

Question 2.
Determine whether the given points are collinear.
i. A (0, 2), B (1, -0.5), C (2, -3)
ii. P(1,2), Q(2,\(\frac { 8 }{ 5 } \)),R(3,\(\frac { 6 }{ 5 } \))
iii L (1, 2), M (5, 3), N (8, 6)
Solution:

∴ slope of line AB = slope of line BC
∴ line AB || line BC
Also, point B is common to both the lines.
∴ Both lines are the same.
∴ Points A, B and C are collinear.

∴ slope of line PQ = slope of line QR
∴ line PQ || line QR
Also, point Q is common to both the lines.
∴ Both lines are the same.
∴ Points P, Q and R are collinear.

∴ slope of line LM ≠ slope of line MN
∴ Points L, M and N are not collinear.
[Note: Students can solve the above problems by using distance formula.]

Question 3.
Find the co-ordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining P (0,6) and Q (12,20).
Solution:
P(x₁,y₁) = P (0, 6), Q(x₂, y₂) = Q (12, 20)
Here, x₁ = 0, y₁ = 6, x₂ = 12, y₂ = 20
∴ Co-ordinates of the midpoint of seg PQ

∴ The co-ordinates of the midpoint of seg PQ are (6,13).

Question 4.
Find the ratio in which the line segment joining the points A (3, 8) and B (-9, 3) is divided by the Y-axis.
Solution:
Let C be a point on Y-axis which divides seg AB in the ratio m : n.
Point C lies on the Y-axis
∴ its x co-ordinate is 0.
Let C = (0, y)
Here A (x₁,y₁) = A(3, 8)
B (x₂, y₂) = B (-9, 3)
∴ By section formula,


∴ Y-axis divides the seg AB in the ratio 1 : 3.

Question 5.
Find the point on X-axis which is equidistant from P (2, -5) and Q (-2,9).
Solution:
Let point R be on the X-axis which is equidistant from points P and Q.
Point R lies on X-axis.
∴ its y co-ordinate is 0.
Let R = (x, 0)
R is equidistant from points P and Q.
∴ PR = QR

∴ (x – 2)² + [0 – (-5)]² = [x – (- 2)]² + (0 – 9)² …[Squaring both sides]
∴ (x – 2)² + (5)² = (x + 2)² + (-9)²
∴ 4 – 4x + x² + 25 = 4 + 4x + x² + 81
∴ – 8x = 56
∴ x = -7
∴ The point on X-axis which is equidistant from points P and Q is (-7,0).

Question 6.
Find the distances between the following points.
i. A (a, 0), B (0, a)
ii. P (-6, -3), Q (-1, 9)
iii. R (-3a, a), S (a, -2a)
Solution:
i. Let A (x₁, y₁) and B (x₂, y₂) be the given points.
∴ x₁ = a, y₁ = 0, x₂ = 0, y₂ = a
By distance formula,

∴ d(A, B) = a\(\sqrt { 2 }\) units

ii. Let P (x₁, y₁) and Q (x₂, y₂) be the given points.
∴ x₁ = -6, y₁ = -3, x₂ = -1, y₂ = 9
By distance formula,

∴ d(P, Q) = 13 units

iii. Let R (x₁, y₁) and S (x₂, y₂) be the given points.
∴ x₁ = -3a, y₁ = a, x₂ = a, y₂ = -2a
By distance formula,

∴ d(R, S) = 5a units

Question 7.
Find the co-ordinates of the circumcentre of a triangle whose vertices are (-3,1), (0, -2) and (1,3).
Solution:
Let A (-3, 1), B (0, -2) and C (1, 3) be the vertices of the triangle.
Suppose O (h, k) is the circumcentre of ∆ABC.

∴ (h + 3)² + (k – 1)² = h² + (k + 2)²
∴ h² + 6h + 9 + k² – 2k + 1 = h² + k² + 4k + 4
∴ 6h – 2k + 10 = 4k + 4
∴ 6h – 2k – 4k = 4 – 10
∴ 6h – 6k = – 6
∴ h – k = -1 ,..(i)[Dividing both sides by 6]
OB = OC …[Radii of the same circle]

∴ h² + (k + 2)² = (h – 1)² + (k – 3)²
∴ h² + k² + 4k + 4 = h² – 2h + 1 + k² – 6k + 9
∴ 4k + 4 = -2h + 1 – 6k + 9
∴ 2h+ 10k = 6
∴ h + 5k = 3 …(ii)
Subtracting equation (ii) from (i), we get

∴ The co-ordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle are (\(\frac { -1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \))

Question 8.
In the following examples, can the segment joining the given points form a triangle? If triangle is formed, state the type of the triangle considering sides of the triangle.
i. L (6, 4), M (-5, -3), N (-6, 8)
ii. P (-2, -6), Q (-4, -2), R (-5, 0)
iii. A(\(\sqrt { 2 }\),\(\sqrt { 2 }\)),B(-\(\sqrt { 2 }\),-\(\sqrt { 2 }\)),C(\(\sqrt { 6 }\),\(\sqrt { 6 }\))
Solution:
i. By distance formula,

∴ d(M, N) + d (L, N) > d (L, M)
∴ Points L, M, N are non collinear points.
We can construct a triangle through 3 non collinear points.
∴ The segment joining the given points form a triangle.
Since MN ≠ LN ≠ LM
∴ ∆LMN is a scalene triangle.
∴ The segments joining the points L, M and N will form a scalene triangle.

ii. By distance formula,


∴ d(P, Q) + d(Q, R) = d (P, R) …[From (iii)]
∴ Points P, Q, R are collinear points.
We cannot construct a triangle through 3 collinear points.
∴ The segments joining the points P, Q and R will not form a triangle.

iii. By distance formula,

∴ d(A, B) + d(B, C) + d(A, C) … [From (iii)]
∴ Points A, B, C are non collinear points.
We can construct a triangle through 3 non collinear points.
∴ The segment joining the given points form a triangle.
Since, AB = BC = AC
∴ ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.
∴ The segments joining the points A, B and C will form an equilateral triangle.

Question 9.
Find k, if the line passing through points P (-12, -3) and Q (4, k) has slope \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \).
Solution:
P(x₁,y₁) = P(-12,-3),
Q(X₂,T₂) = Q(4, k)
Here, x₁ = -12, x₂ = 4, y₁ = -3, y₂ = k

But, slope of line PQ (m) is \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) ….[Given]
∴ \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac { k+3 }{ 16 } \)
∴ \(\frac { 16 }{ 2 } \) = k + 3
∴ 8 = k + 3
∴ k = 5
The value of k is 5.

Question 10.
Show that the line joining the points A (4,8) and B (5, 5) is parallel to the line joining the points C (2, 4) and D (1 ,7).
Proof:

∴ Slope of line AB = Slope of line CD
Parallel lines have equal slope.
∴ line AB || line CD

Question 11.
Show that points P (1, -2), Q (5, 2), R (3, -1), S (-1, -5) are the vertices of a parallelogram.
Proof:
By distance formula,

In ꠸PQRS,
PQ = RS … [From (i) and (iii)]
QR = PS … [From (ii) and (iv)]
∴ ꠸ PQRS is a parallelogram.
[A quadrilateral is a parallelogram, if both the pairs of its opposite sides are congruent]
∴ Points P, Q, R and S are the vertices of a parallelogram.

Question 12.
Show that the ꠸PQRS formed by P (2, 1), Q (-1, 3), R (-5, -3) and S (-2, -5) is a rectangle.
Proof:
By distance formula,


In ꠸PQRS,
PQ = RS …[From (i) and (iii)]
QR = PS …[From (ii) and (iv)]
꠸PQRS is a parallelogram.
[A quadrilateral is a parallelogram, if both the pairs of its opposite sides are congruent]

In parallelogram PQRS,
PR = QS … [From (v) and (vi)]
∴ ꠸PQRS is a rectangle.
[A parallelogram is a rectangle if its diagonals are equal]

Question 13.
Find the lengths of the medians of a triangle whose vertices are A (-1, 1), B (5, -3) and C (3,5).
Solution:

Suppose AD, BE and CF are the medians.
∴ Points D, E and F are the midpoints of sides BC, AC and AB respectively.
∴ By midpoint formula,


∴ The lengths of the medians of the triangle 5 units, 2\(\sqrt { 13 }\) units and \(\sqrt { 37 }\) units.

Question 14.
Find the co-ordinates of centroid of the triangle if points D (-7, 6), E (8, 5) and F (2, -2) are the mid points of the sides of that triangle.
Solution:

Suppose A (x₁, y₁), B (x₂, y₂) and C (x₃, y₃) are the vertices of the triangle.
D (-7, 6), E (8, 5) and F (2, -2) are the midpoints of sides BC, AC and AB respectively.
Let G be the centroid of ∆ABC.
D is the midpoint of seg BC.
By midpoint formula,

E is the midpoint of seg AC.
By midpoint formula,

Adding (i), (iii) and (v),
x₂ + x₃ + x₁ + x₃ + x₁ + x₂ = -14 + 16 + 4
∴ 2x₁ + 2x₂ + 2x₃ = 6
∴ x₁ + x₂ + x₃ = 3 …(vii)
Adding (ii), (iv) and (vi),
y₂ + y₃ + y₁ + y₃ + y₁ +y₂ = 12 + 10 – 4
∴ 2y₁ + 2y₂ + 2y₃ = 18
∴ y₁ + y₂ + y₃ = 9 …(viii)
G is the centroid of ∆ABC.
By centroid formula,

∴ The co-ordinates of the centroid of the triangle are (1,3).

Question 15.
Show that A (4, -1), B (6, 0), C (7, -2) and D (5, -3) are vertices of a square.
Proof:
By distance formula,


∴ □ABCD is a square.
[A rhombus is a square if its diagonals are equal]

Question 16.
Find the co-ordinates of circumcentre and radius of circumcircle of AABC if A (7, 1), B (3,5) and C (2,0) are given.
Solution:
Suppose, O (h, k) is the circumcentre of ∆ABC


∴ h² – 6h + 9 + k² – 10k + 25 = h² – 4h + 4 + k²
∴ 2h + 10k = 30
∴ h + 5k = 15 … (ii)[Dividing both sides by 2]
Multiplying equation (i) by 5, we get
25h + 5k = 115 …(iii)
Subtracting equation (ii) from (iii), we get

Substituting the value of h in equation (i), we get

∴ The co-ordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle are (\(\frac { 25 }{ 6 } \),\(\frac { 13 }{ 6 } \)) and radius of circumcircle is \(\frac{13 \sqrt{2}}{6}\) units.

Question 17.
Given A (4, -3), B (8, 5). Find the co-ordinates of the point that divides segment AB in the ratio 3:1.
Solution:
Suppose point C divides seg AB in the ratio 3:1.
Here; A(x₁, y₁) = A (4, -3)
B (x₂, y₂) = B (8, 5)
By section formula,

∴ The co-ordinates of point dividing seg AB in ratio 3 : 1 are (7, 3).

Question 18.
Find the type of the quadrilateral if points A (-4, -2), B (-3, -7), C (3, -2) and D (2, 3) are joined serially.
Solution:

Slope of AB = slope of CD
∴ line AB || line CD
slope of BC = slope of AD
∴ line BC || line AD
Both the pairs of opposite sides of ∆ABCD are parallel.
∴ ꠸ ABCD is a parallelogram.
∴ The quadrilateral formed by joining the points A, B, C and D is a parallelogram.

Question 19.
The line segment AB is divided into five congruent parts at P, Q, R and S such that A-P-Q-R-S-B. If point Q (12, 14) and S (4, 18) are given, find the co-ordinates of A, P, R, B.
Solution:

Points P, Q, R and S divide seg AB in five congruent parts.
Let A (x₁, y₁), B (x₂, y₂), P (x₃, y₃) and
R (x₄, y₄) be the given points.
Point R is the midpoint of seg QS.
By midpoint formula,
x co-ordinate of R = \(\frac { 12+4 }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac { 16 }{ 2 } \) = 8
y co-ordinate of R = \(\frac { 14+18 }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac { 32 }{ 2 } \) = 16
∴ co-ordinates of R are (8, 16).
Point Q is the midpoint of seg PR.
By midpoint formula,

∴ 28 = y₃ + 16
∴ y₃ = 12
∴ P(x₃,y₃) = (16, 12)
∴ co-ordinates of P are (16, 12).
Point P is the midpoint of seg AQ.
By midpoint formula,

∴ co-ordinates of A are (20, 10).
Point S is the midpoint of seg RB.
By midpoint formula,

∴ 36 = y₂ + 16
∴ y₂ = 20
∴ B(x₂, y₂) = (0, 20)
∴ co-ordinates of B are (0, 20).
∴ The co-ordinates of points A, P, R and B are (20, 10), (16, 12), (8, 16) and (0, 20) respectively.

Question 20.
Find the co-ordinates of the centre of the circle passing through the points P (6, -6), Q (3, -7) and R (3,3).
Solution:
Suppose O (h, k) is the centre of the circle passing through the points P, Q and R.

∴ (h – 6)² + (k + 6)² = (h – 3)² + (k + 7)²
∴ h² – 12h + 36 + k² + 12k + 36
= h² – 6h + 9 + k² + 14k + 49
∴ 6h + 2k = 14
∴ 3h + k = 7 …(i)[Dividing both sides by 2]
OP = OR …[Radii of the same circle]

∴ (h – 6)² + (k + 6)² = (h – 3)² + (k – 3)²
∴ h² – 12h + 36 + k² + 12k + 36
= h² – 6h + 9 + k² – 6k + 9
∴ 6h – 18k = 54
∴ 3h – 9k = 27 …(ii)[Dividing both sides by 2]
Subtracting equation (ii) from (i), we get

Substituting the value of k in equation (i), we get
3h – 2 = 7
∴ 3h = 9
∴ h = \(\frac { 9 }{ 3 } \) = 3
∴ The co-ordinates of the centre of the circle are (3, -2).

Question 21.
Find the possible pairs of co-ordinates of the fourth vertex D of the parallelogram, if three of its vertices are A (5, 6), B (1, -2) and C (3, -2).
Solution:

Let the points A (5, 6), B (1, -2) and C (3, -2) be the three vertices of a parallelogram.
The fourth vertex can be point D or point Di or point D₂ as shown in the figure.
Let D(x₁,y₁), D, (x₂, y₂) and D₂ (x₃,y₃).
Consider the parallelogram ACBD.
The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
∴ midpoint of DC = midpoint of AB


Co-ordinates of point D(x₁, y₁) are (3, 6).
Consider the parallelogram ABD₁C.
The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
∴ midpoint of AD₁ = midpoint of BC

∴ Co-ordinates of D₁(x₂,y₂) are (-1,-10).
Consider the parallelogram ABCD₂.
The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other.
∴ midpoint of BD₂ = midpoint of AC

∴ co-ordinates of point D₂ (x₃, y₃) are (7, 6).
∴ The possible pairs of co-ordinates of the fourth vertex D of the parallelogram are (3, 6), (-1,-10) and (7,6).

Question 22.
Find the slope of the diagonals of a quadrilateral with vertices A (1, 7), B (6,3), C (0, -3) and D (-3,3).
Solution:
Suppose ABCD is the given quadrilateral.

∴ The slopes of the diagonals of the quadrilateral are 10 and 0.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.5 Joan of Arc Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.5 Joan of Arc

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Solutions Unit 1.5 Warming Up

Question 1.
Discuss in groups/pairs and make a list of the weapons used in the old times and in the present times.

Weapons used in the past	Weapons used nowadays

Answer:

Weapons used in the past	Weapons used nowadays
stones, bow and arrows, spears, swords, lances, catapults, axes, daggers, cutlasses, etc.	missiles, hand grenades, bombs, machine guns, tanks, nuclear weapons, etc.

Question 2.
Imagine that you are the captain of your school Kabaddi team. Your final match is against a very strong team. Your team members are sure that you will lose. How will you boost their morale? Work in groups and prepare a short list of what can encourage the team.
Answer:
(Some points: pointing out your team’s strong points—the opponent’s weak points—the hard practice you have put in—the various occasions where underdogs have won unexpectedly, etc.)

Question 3.
Adding different prepositions to the same action verb changes the meaning of the phrases, thus formed.
For example,
call out – announce
call at – visit
call for – summon
call up – make a telephonic call
call off – cancel

Guess the difference in meanings of the underlined phrases.
(1) (a) He promised to look into the matter …………………….. .
(b) He asked me to look for his lost book …………………….. .
(c) I shall look forward to your arrival …………………….. .
Answer:
(a) He promised to look investigate into the matter.
(b) He asked me to look search for his lost book.
(C) I shall look forward await eagerly to your arrival

(2) (a) An epidemic of cholera broke out in the village …………………….. .
(b) The thieves broke into the locked house …………………….. .
(c) They broke up their friendship …………………….. .
Answer:
(a) An epidemic of started sudden’y cholera broke out in
(b) The thieves broke entered illegally a Into the locked house. forcibly
(c) They broke up their ended friendship.

(3) (a) You must carry out your duty faithfully …………………….. .
(b) Please carry on with your work …………………….. .
(c) They carried off the trophy in the football matches …………………….. .
(d) Carry forward the remaining balance to the next page …………………….. .
Answer:
(a) You must carry out complete: execute your duty faithfully.
(b) Please carry on with continue tork
(c) They carried off the won trophy in the football matches.
(d) You may carry forward to transfer the remaining balance to the next page.

Phrasal verbs : A phrasal verb is a verb that is made up of a main verb together with an adverb or preposition or both.

Maharashtra Board Class 10 English Kumarbharati Unit 1.5 Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the extract from G. B. Shaw’s play on Joan of Arc and fill in the Tree diagram.
Joan of Arc

Answer:

Question 2.
(A) Pick out from the extract of the play two lines that provide evidence for each of the following.
Joan of Arc
(a) Her confidence
(1) …………………….
(2) …………………….
Answer:
(1) The Dauphin will give me all I need to free Orleans.
(2) I will teach them all to fight for France.

(b) Her courage
(1) …………………….
(2) …………………….
Answer:
(1) She really doesn’t seem to be afraid of anything.
(2) The Squire’s glare neither frightens her nor stops her.

(c) Her optimism
(1) …………………….
(2) …………………….
Answer:
(1) If she can put some fight into him, she can put it into anybody.
(2) I don’t think it can be very difficult if God is on your side.

(d) Her determination
(1) …………………….
(2) …………………….
Answer:
(1) I have arranged it all. You have only to give the order.
(2) Yqu said that you would not see me. But here I am.

(e) Her patriotism
(1) …………………….
(2) …………………….
Answer:
(1) I will teach them all to fight for France.
(2) You and Polly will live to see the day when there will not be a single English soldier on the soil of France.

(B) Using the above points, frame a character-sketch of Joan of Arc, in your own words and write it in your notebook. Suggest an attractive title for the same.
Answer:
The Heroine of France-Joan of Arc Joan, a well-built, strong country girl of 17 to 18 years, _is brave and courageous and unafraid of anything. She is confident and asks directly for whatever she wants and is sure of getting It. She is optimistic and feels that if God is on one’s side, one can do anything. She is determined to go to Orleans and motivate the Dauphin to fight the English and save OrleAnswer: Squire Robert and the others feel that if anyone can put some fight into the Dauphin, It is Joan. She ¡s extremely patriotic and confidently says that she will motivate the French soldiers to fight, and soon there will not be a single English soldier left on the soil of France.

Question 3.
From the extract, find what the following are compared to and why:
(a) as easy as …………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………….
Answer:
as easy as chasing a cow out of the meadow. This comparison is made because Joan was a country girl and had probably chased many cows out of the meadows. Besides, cows are docile creatures and can be driven away very easily.

(b) as mad as …………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………….
Answer:
as mad as Joan, for Joan was planning to go to the Dauphin, who was frightened, and motivate him to fight for Orleans.

(c) The Dauphin in Chinon is like …………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………….
Answer:
The Dauphin in Chinon Is like a rat In a corner, for just like a cornered rat gives up, he too had given up and refused to fight to save Orleans.

(d) The (enemy) soldiers will be driven away like …………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………….
Answer:
The enemy soldiers will be driven away like sheep. This comparison is made because sheep, always move in flocks and their herd mentality forces them to free if the leading ones flee.

(e) Joan of Arc is a bit of …………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………….
Answer:
Joan of Arc is a bit of a miracle because she is courageous, confident and determined enough to go to the Dauphin and motivate him to fight for Orleans, when everybody else had given up.

Question 4.
Say WHY? Write it in your notebook.
(a) Joan wanted to meet Captain Squire.
(b) Joan did not ask for many soldiers from the Captain Squire.
(c) Poulengey, Jack and Dick had offered to accompany Joan.
(d) French soldiers were always beaten in war.
(e) Captain Squire Robert said, “I wash my hands off it.”
Answer:
(a) Joan wanted Captain Squire to give her a ’ horse, an armour and some soldiers and send her to meet the Dauphin. That was the reason she wanted to meet him.

(b) Joan did not ask for many soldiers from the Captain Squire because the Dauphin would give her all that she needed.

(c) Poulengey, Jack and Dick felt there was something about Joan, and that she was a bit of a miracle. Her words had put fire into them. They also felt that it was their last chance of saving OrleansHence they offered to accompany her.

(d) The French soldiers were always trying to save their lives, and would run away from the battlefield. Hence they were always beaten in war.

(e) Captain Robert Squire was uncertain about allowing Joan to go to the Dauphth. He could not believe that Joan would be successful In her mission. Even then, he could not withstand her determination and confidence; he also felt that this was the last chance of saving Orleans, and that there was something special about Joan. However, he did not want to be held responsible for anything; hence he said “I wash my hands of it.”

Question 5.
Using a dictionary, find the difference between the following pairs of phrases. Make sentences of your own with each of them.

Phrases	Meaning	Own Sentences
1. cut in cut out	………………………………………… …………………………………………	………………………………………… …………………………………………
2. be held by be held up	………………………………………… …………………………………………	………………………………………… …………………………………………
3. run away run for	………………………………………… …………………………………………	………………………………………… …………………………………………
4. be known as be known for	………………………………………… …………………………………………	………………………………………… …………………………………………
5. go with go after	………………………………………… …………………………………………	………………………………………… …………………………………………
6. put fire into put fire out	………………………………………… …………………………………………	………………………………………… …………………………………………

Answer:

Phrases	Meaning	Own Sentences
1. (a) cut in (b) cut out	(a) interrupt (b) reduce or stop something	(a) The teacher asked Rohan not to cut in when she was teaching. (b) Planting a line of trees along the road will cut out the noise from vehicles.
2. (a) be held by (b) be held up	(a) before (b) delayed	(a) The mayor wanted the elections to be held by the end of the month. (b) The marriage party was held up in the traffic jam.
3. (a) run away (b) run for	(a) escape; go off (b) to compete in an election	(a) The kind king allowed the captured deer to run away. (b) The film star wanted to run for the post of Mayor.
4. (a) be known as (b) be known for	(a) to be called as (b) to be famous for	(a) The new boss wanted to be known as a good and kind person. (b) Nagpur is known for its oranges.
5. (a) go with (b) go after	(a) suit each other (b) pursue; follow	(a) Don’t you think these shoes go with this dress? (b) You will never be happy if you go after money all the time.
6. (a) put fire into. (b) put fire out	(a) inspire, motivate (b) extinguish	(a) The Chief Guest’s words put fire into the young students. (b) Seeing trouble brewing, the minister advised his team to put the fire out before it spread everywhere.

Question 6.
From an Indian History Book or Internet find out information about Indian Women (queens) who led battles. (For example, Rani of Jhansi and Rani Karnawati of Mewad). Write 3 points of similarity and 3 points of contrast between any one of the above Indian Queens and Joan of Arc. Write in your own words.

Similarities Contrast
(a) …………………… (i) ……………………
(b) …………………… (ii) ……………………
(c) …………………… (iii) ……………………

Question 7.
Read the script from :
Joan (Girl) : Good morning, Captain
Squire …………………… up to
Joan : (simply) ……………………
Polly and Jack have promised to come with me.

Write a summary of that part of the script (in the indirect speech) in 15 to 20 lines. Do it in your notebook.
Answer:
Joan asked the Squire to give her a horse, an armour and some soldiers, and send her to the Dauphin. On hearing this, Robert angrily asked the steward why he had not told him that she was mad.

The steward told Robert to give Joan what she wanted. Robert then told Joan that he would send her back to her father with orders to lock her up. Joan replied that it wouldn’t happen that way; Robert had not wanted to see her, yet she had managed to see him.

Joan then asked him for a horse which would cost 16 francs. It was a big amount of money, but she would save It on the armour, as she did not need a beautiful, fitting armour. A soldier’s armour would do. She said that she would not want many soldiers, for the Dauphin would give her what she needed to free Orleans. Three men would be enough for him to send with her. She adds that Polly and Jack had promised to go with her.

Question 8.
(A) Make the following sentences Affirmative without change of meaning.
(a) Negative : I am not so sure, now.
Affirmative : …………………………………………
(b) Negative : He will not be able to stop them.
Affirmative : …………………………………………
(c) Negative : I don’t remember.
Affirmative : …………………………………………
(d) Negative : I can do no more.
Affirmative : …………………………………………
(e) Negative : Sir, do not anger her.
Affirmative : …………………………………………
(f) Negative : I shall not want many soldiers.
Affirmative : …………………………………………
Answer:
(a) I am a bit doubtful, now.
(b) He will be unable to stop them.
(c) I fail to remember.
(d) I can do only this much.
(e) Sir, please refrain from angering her.
(f) I shall want only a few soldiers.

(B) Fill in the gaps in the table.
Word-Forms

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb
1. success	succeed	successful	successfully
2. ……………………..	inspire	……………….	……………….
3. ……………………..	……………….	safe	……………….
4. ……………………..	harm	……………….	……………….
5. thought	……………….	……………….	……………….
6. ……………………..	……………….	……………….	brightly
7. courage	……………….	……………….	……………….
8. ……………………..	……………….	……………….	hastily

Answer:

Noun	Verb	Adjective	Adverb
1. success	succeed	successful	successfully
2. inspiration	inspire	inspirational	—
3. safety	—	safe	safely
4. harm	harm	harmful/harmless	harmfully/harmlessly
5.’thought	think	thoughtful/thoughtless	thoughtfully/thoughtlessly
6. brightness	brighten	bright	brightly
7. courage	encourage	courageous	courageously
8. haste	hasten	hasty	hastily

Question 9.
Fill in the blanks with the correct alternatives: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) The steward is called a ‘blockhead’ by the squire. (Robert/steward)
(2) The squire’s name is Robert. (Robert/Dauphin)
(3) The price of a horse is sixteen francs. (17 to 18 francs / sixteen francs)
(4) The Dauphin will give the girl whatever she needs to free Orleans: (Dauphin/Squire)

Question 10.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) The Hundred Years War was fought between 1337 and 1453.
(2) All of northern France and some parts of the south-west were under foreign control.

Question 11.
Classify the following words into adjectives and nouns and complete the table given below:
armed, courage, brave, armour, orders, well-built, squire, strong, amount, beautiful, Orleans
Answer:
Adjectives – Nouns
armed, brave, well-built, courage, armour, orders, strong, beautiful sqtiire, amount, Orleans

Question 12.
Write the verb forms of the following words:
(1) strong
(2) mad
(3) beautiful
(4) afraid
Answer:
(1) strengthen
(2) madden
(3) beautify
(4) fear

Question 13.
You have fifty armed soldiers and dozens of strong servants to carry out my orders.
Answer:
You have fifty armed soldiers as well as dozens of strong servants to carry out my orders.

Question 14.
You are to give me a horse and armour and some soldiers.
Answer:
You are to give me a horse and armour as well as some soldiers.

Question 15.
What, according to you, is the steward’s opinion about Joan?
Answer:
The steward has a high opinion of Joan. He feels that she isn’t afraid of anything, and she puts courage in others. He feels that she should not be angered and be given what she wants.

Question 16.
Write if the following statements are True or False: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) Joan is angry when Robert tells her to get out. False
(2) Joan feels that Squire Jack is kind. True
(3) The steward’s name is Bertrand de Poulengey. False
(4) Robert thinks that the girl’s idea is crazy. True

Question 17.
Name the persons needed by Joan to free Orleans:
Answer:
Joan needed the following persons to free Orleans Bertrand de Poulengey, Squire Jack, John Godsave, Dick the Archer, and their servants John of Honecourt and Julian.

Question 18.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) The squire wants the steward to go with Joan, stay within call and keep an eye on her.
(2) Joan’s aim was to meet the Dauphin and free Orleans.

Question 19.
Pick out four adverbs of manner from the passage.
Answer:
simply, willingly, eagerly, brightly (hastily, seriously). ,

Question 20.
Pick out the antonyms of the following words from the passage:
(1) exit
(2) request
(3) advance
(4) slowly
Answer:
(1) exit x enter
(2) request x order
(3) advance x retreat
(4) slowly x hastily

Question 21.
Polly and Jack have promised to come with me. (Rewrite using ‘that’.)
Answer:
Polly and Jack have promised that they will come with me.

Question 22.
You have only to give the order. (Rewrite using ‘nothing’.)
Answer:
You have to do nothing but give the order.

Question 23.
‘I have arranged it all’. What does this statement tell you about Joan?
Answer:
It tells us that Joan had good leadership qualities. She had the ability to inspire others and make them do as she wished. She was also a good organiser.

Question 24.
What/Whom do the underlined pronouns stand for?
Answer:
(1) Her words have put fire into me. Poultney
(2) I feel sure enough to take her to Chinon. Joan
(3) He beat the English at Montargis. Dauphin
(4) ! feel like a fool. Robert

Question 25.
Complete the following: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:
(1) The Squire’s opinion of miracles was that though they were airight, they did not happen in their time.
(2) Robert accused Poulengey of being as mad as Joan.

Question 26.
The Dauphin was not fit to be the king and heir.
Answer:
The Dauphin was not fit to be the king and heir because he was a coward and retreated to Chinon and spent time there like a rat in a corner. He was not able to motivate his men or stop the English from taking Orleans’

Question 27.
Make sentences of your own using the words/ expressions given below:
(1) cowed
(2) obstinately
(3) worth hying
(4) out of your mind
Answer:
(1) We should not be cowed when we are threatened by bullies.
(2) The little girl obstinately refused to answer the teacher.
(3) “Your idea will keep the neighbourhood clean. It is worth trying,” said the minister.
(4) “You are out of your mind,” I told my friend when she wanted to save the stray dog.

Question 28.
I tell you nothing cai save our side now but a miracle. (Rewrite using ‘only’.)
Answer:
I tell you only a rriracle can save our side now:

Question 29.
After talking to Poulengey what change do you notice In Robert?
Answer:
Robert was initially unwilling even to listen to Joan.. But after talking to Poulengey, he agreed that it was their last chance of trying to free Qrleans and there was no other hope for them. Poulengey’s certainty about Joan made him waver and change his mind and give her a chance.

Question 30.
Pick out the statements that are True:
(1) Joan was unsure about her ideas.
(2) Joan had no belief in God.
(3) The soldiers called Joan ‘the Maid’.
(4) Robert had a poor opinion of English soldiers.
Answer:
True statements:
(3) The soldiers called Joan ‘the Maid’.
(4) Robert had a poor opinion of English soldiers.

Question 31.
how one knows that Joan is a person of immense faith.
Answer:
Joan’s statement ‘I don’t think soldiering can be difficult if God Is on your side’ shows that she is a person of immense faith.

Question 32.
Pick out the words ending In -ing from the passage and classify them Into gerunds and participles.
Answer:
Gerunds – Participles
raising, chasing. soldiering, fighting, plundering, burning, – turning, fighting

Question 33.
Pick the odd man out from each group:
(1) gravely, always. heard, very
(2) they, see, you. them
Answer:
(1) heard- (this is a verb; the other words are adverbs.)
(2) see-(this is a verb; the other words are pronouns.)

Question 34.
Rewrite the following as Assertive sentences:
(1) Have you ever seen English soldiers fighting?
Answer:
You have never seen English soldiers fighting.

Question 35.
Have you ever seen them plundering, burning, turning the countryside into a desert?
Answer:
You have never seen them plundering, burning, turning the countryside into a desert.

Question 36.
Do you think that soldiers should run away to ‘save their skins’?
Answer:
No, I don’t think so. Soldiers must fight till their last breath. No soldier worth his sa1t should run away from the scene of battle to save his/her own life.

Question 37.
What dress did Joan want?
Answer:
Joan wanted a soldier’s dress.

Question 38.
Robert finally agreed to the plan.
Answer:
Robert thought that Joan might be able to motivate the Dauphin and the troops to fight. He felt that she had the courage and determination to succeed. He also felt that there was something special about her. Hence he finally agreed to the plan.

Question 39.
Pick out the modal auxiliary and state its function.
Even the Dauphin might believe it.
Answer:
might—showing possibility.

Question 40.
Do you think that Joan succeeds in her plan?
Answer:
I would not be sure only by reading the play; but history tells us that she did succeed and led the French army to victory in several battles during the Hundred Years War. Her bravery, determination and confidence won the day.

Question 41.
I can do no more.
Answer:
I can do only this much.

Question 42.
Pick out the modal auxiliary and state its function.
Even the Dauphin might believe it.
Answer:
might—showing possibility.

Question 43.
Do you think that Joan succeeds in her plan?
Answer:
I would not be sure only by reading the play; but history tells us that she did succeed and led the French army to victory In several battles during the Hundred Years War. Her bravery, determination and confidence won the day.

Question 44.
(1) WrIte two compound words from the text.
(2) Use the following word as a gerund in your own sentence : chasing
(3) Find out two hidden words from the given word : confidently
(4) Make a sentence of your own using the phrase: to save their skins.
(5) Spot the error and rewrite the correct sentence: I is taking a big chance.
(6) Identify the type of sentence: I don’t think it can be very difficult.
(7) Write the following words in alphabetical order : understand, steward, window, squire.
(8) Write the present and past participles of ‘stop’.
(9) Prepare a word chain using the following nouns: Denmark, France, Austria, England, Korea, Alaska. France →
Answer:
(1) courtyard, blockhead
(2) I would not even think of chasing a defenceless animal.
(3) confidently — confident, confide
(4) The thieves jumped into the lake to save their skins.
(5) I am taking a big chance.
(6) Assertive (negative).
(7) squire. steward, understand, window.
(8) stop: stopping, stopped.
(9) France → England → Denmark → Korea → Austria → Alaska.

Question 45.
(1) Use the following word and its homograph in two separate sentences: lock
(2) The Dauphin will give me all I need. (Rewrite using the future progressive tense of the verb.)
(3) Prepare a word register of 4 words relating to war from the lesson.
Answer:
(1) (i) There was a lock of hair on the table.
(ii) The lock and the key were both missing.
(2) The Dauphin will be giving me all I need.
(3) War : soldier, armour, fight, siege, plundering, soldiering, troops. captain. (any 4)

Question 46.
(1) I used to think so. (Pick out the modal auxiliary and state its function).
(2) Analyse the sentence: Stay within a11 and keep your cyc on her.
Answer:
(1) used to — past habit
(2) Compound Sentence.
Stay within call — coordinate (main) clause: keep your eye on h& — coordinate (main) clause.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Population

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Are the following sentences right or wrong? Correct the wrong ones.

Question a.
Literacy rate is higher in Brazil than India.
Answer:
Right.

Question b.
In Brazil, people prefer living in the south east as compared to the north east.
Answer:
Right.

Question c.
The life expectancy of Indians is decreasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question d.
The north-western part of India is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question e.
The western part of Brazil is densely populated.
Answer:
Wrong

2. Answer the following questions as per the instructions:

Question a.
Arrange the following states of India in descending order of their population. Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh.
Answer:
Descending order: Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh.

Question b.
Arrange the states of Brazil in ascending order of their population: Amazonas, Rio de Janeiro,
Alagoas, Sao Paulo, Parana.
Answer:
States of Brazil: Alagoas, Amazonas, Parana, Rio de Janeiro, Sao Paulo.

Question c.
Classify the factors affecting the distribution of population into favourable and unfavourable.
Answer:

Favourable Factors	Unfavourable Factors
(1) Nearness to Sea	Lack of roads
(2) Temperate Climate	Lack of Industries
(3) New cities and towns	Tropical moist forests
(4) Minerals	Semi arid climate
(5) Cultivable land

3. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Explain the similarities and differences between the population distribution in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(a) Similarities in population distribution in Brazil and India:

• In Brazil as well as in India, population is very unevenly distributed.
• Inaccessible dense forests and absence of facilities are the barriers to human settlements.
• North, north west and north east of both the countries are the regions of low population.
• Population is concentrated in flat fertile regions which have abundant water resources, transport facilities, mild climate and development of agriculture industries and trade in the plain region.
• Coastal regions are densely populated in Brazil and in India.

(b) Differences between population distribution in Brazil and India.

• The average density of population in India is 382 persons per sq.km, and that of Brazil is about 23 persons per sq.km.
• Though the area of both the countries is occupied by vast river basins, the distribution of population is extremely opposite in both the river basins.
• The Amazon River Basin is sparsely populated while the Ganga River Basin is densely populated.

Question b.
Giving examples, correlated to, climate and population distribution
Answer:
Climate and population distribution are closely interreleted. Temperature and rainfall, the two elements of climate greatly influence the population concentration.

(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the coastal plains of Brazil, the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. the interiors of the Amazon Basin in Brazil, north eastern states in India.

(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.

(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Thar desert of Rajasthan and the Drought Quadrilateral region of Brazil.

4. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Population is an important resource.
Answer:

• The qualitative aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
• Natural resources of any country gets utilised properly because of the population.
• Economic growth and development will be slow if population resource is not utilised properly.
• Thus an optimum and quality population can bring about a country’s development.

Question b.
Brazil’s population density is very less.
Answer:

• Brazil is the fifth largest country in the world with respect to area and has a population of about 19 crores (Census 2010).
• It occupies 5.6% of world’s total land area and accounts for only 2.78% of the world’s total population.
• Thus Brazil occupies more percent of world’s land and less percent of world’s total population. Therefore,
• the density of population is very less in Brazil, i.e. around 23 persons per sq.km.

Question c.
India’s population density is high.
Answer:

• India is the second most populous country in the world, with a population of about 121 crores (Census 2011).
• India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, but supports 17.5% of the world’s population.
• Thus India has less percent of world’s land and supports high percent of world’s population.
• Hence, India’s average population density is high i.e. 382 persons per sq. km.

Question d.
The density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.
Answer:

• The interior part of the Amazon Basin has a very unfavourable hot and humid climate.
• It receives heavy rainfall of nearly 2000 mm and has dense inaccessible forests.
• Transportation, agricultute and industries are not well developed here.
• All these factors are barriers to the development of human settlements.
• So, the density of population is sparse in the Amazon Basin.

Question e.
Population density is high in the Ganga plains.
Answer:

• Ganga plains are fertile low lying plains formed due to the deposition work of River Ganga and its tributaries.
• Mild climate, moderate rainfall and fertile soil have led to the development of agriculture and industries.
• This region also has a dense network of roadways and railways.
• So, the population density is high in the Ganga Plains.

5. Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions:

Question 5A.
Compare and classify the population densities shown in the figure ‘a’ and ‘b’ representing 1 sq. km. of area.
Answer:
In the fig. (a) density of population is 7 persons per sq. km. The region is sparsely populated.
In the fig. (b), the density of population is 18 persons per sq. km. The region is densely populated.

Question 5B.
If in figure B one sign = 100, then what will be the sex ratio?
Answer:
One symbol = 100 persons
There are 10 female symbols.
Number of females = 100 x 10
= 1000
There are 8 male symbols
Number of males = 100 x 8
= 800

Males	800	1000
Females	1000	?

Number of females = \(\frac { 1000 X 1000 }{ 800 }\)
= 1250
Sex Ratio is 1250 females per 1000 males.

Question 6.
Comment upon the population density of fig (b).
(i) fig (b) shows the population density of India as per 2011.
(ii) The density of population is divided into four categories. They are:
(a) Less than 100 persons per sq.km. .
(b) 101-250 persons per sq.km.
(c) 251-500 persons per sq.km.
(d) more than 500 persons per sq.km.
Answer:

S.No.	Population Density (per sq.km.)	Name of the States / Union Territories
(1)	less than 100	Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2)	101 to 250	Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3)	251 to 500	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4)	more than 501	West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh,Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Intext Questions and Answers

Study the maps and answer the following questions

Question 1.
States with the highest population density.
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
On the basis of maps given above, classify the distribution population in India in the following table.
Answer:

S.No.	Population Density (per sq.km.)	Name of the States / Union Territories
(1)	less than 100	Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim.
(2)	101 to 250	Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh.
(3)	251 to 500	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Odisha, Jharkhand, Assam, Tripura.
(4)	more than 501	West Bengal, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, Delhi, Chandigarh, Puducherry, Diu, Daman, Dadra Nagar, Haveli, Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Question 3.
States with lowest population density.
Answer:
Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Mizoram.

Question 4.
Correlate the climate and physiography of India with its population distribution and write a note on it.
Answer:
(i) Climate and population distribution are closely inter-related.

(ii) Temperature and rainfall are the two elements of climate which greatly influence the population distribution.

(iii) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall.
E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India

(iv) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population.
E.g. northeastern states in India.

(v) The snow-covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population.
E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu and Kashmir.

(vi) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse.
E.g. Westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.

Question 1.
In which area is population greatly concentrated?
Answer:
Population is greatly concentrated in the south eastern part of Brazil.

Question 2.
In which area is the distribution of population sparse?
Answer:
The Amazon Basin in the nothern part and the central and western parts of Brazil have sparse distribution of population.

Question 3.
Prepare a note on factors responsible for the uneven distribution of population based on the study of Brazil you have made so far.
Answer:
The distribution of population in Brazil is uneven:

• There is sparse population in the Amazon Basin due to hot and humid climate, heavy rainfall, dense forests, inaccessibility.
• The population is low in the swampy areas of Pantanal.
• Low population is found in the central and western part of Brazil due to lack of minerals, low rainfall, hot and dry climatic conditions.
• The distribution of population is moderate in Brazilian Highlands.
• High population is found in the coastal regions and the southern part of Brazil. This is due to flat fertile land and abundant availability of minerals due to which agriculture, industries and trade have developed.

Question 4.
Identify the type of map showing distribution fig. (a) of textbook.
Answer:
The type of map showing distribution of population is a dot map.

Question 5.
On the basis of the map (b), classify the distribution of population in Brazil in the following table.:

S. No.	Population Density	Names of the places
(1)	Less than 50	Acre, Amazonas, Roraima, Rondonia, Para, Amapa, Mata Grasso, Mato Grasso Do Sul, Goias, Tocantins, Maranhao, Piaui, Bahia, Minas Gerais, Rio Gande Do Sul
(2)	51 -100	Paraiba, Pamambuco, Parana, Santa Catarina, Sergipe, Rio Grande Do Norte, Ceara
(3)	101 -150	Alagoas
(4)	151 – 300	Sao Paulo
(5)	More than 300	Rio de Janerio, Brasilia

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Calculate the population density of the area shown in 1 sq.km, of square in ‘a’ and ‘b’ each

Answer:
(a) In fig. (a) there are 16
Each = 80 people
Total number of people = 16 x 80 = 1280
Fig. (a) has a population density of 1280 people per sq. km.

(b) In fig. (b) there are 23
Each = 80 people
Total number of people = 23 x 80 = 1840
Fig. (b) has a population density of 1840 people per sq. km.

GIVE IT A TRY

Question 1.
What could be the reasons of lower sex ratio in any region?
Answer:
With reference to both the countries, the characteristics of population are prominently notable.

• The sex ratio of Brazil has been more than 1000 since decades.
• Considering the sex ratio of Brazil, the number of women have considerably increaesed than men since 2001.
• In India men outnumber women.
• In India we see fluctuations in the sex ratio since few decades. There has been a slight increase in the sex ratio after 1991.

Question 2.
Write a similar conversation using the graph

Answer:
A: What do these graphs show?

B: These graphs show the literacy rate of India and Brazil.

A: What do you mean by literacy rate?

B: It means the total percentage of the population of an area at a particular time aged seven years or above ‘ who can read and write with understanding.

A: It means that, as on today’s date, the literacy rate of our country is 72.2%.

B: But, Brazil had an even higher literacy rate decades back in 1981, i.e. 74.6% and it has touched 92.6 as of today (2018), which is quite commendable.

A: Yes, definitely But, we have also seen a steady growth in the literacy rate of the country, especially, during the period between 1991 and 2011.

B: Still, though we are growing, we are way behind Brazil today with 72.2% because they have a much higher literacy percentage of 92.6.

A: What measures can be adopted to increase the literacy rate of our country?

B: We can make people aware of the need and importance of education, help in teaching them, introducing various literacy campaigns by making use of free calls, free sms services, etc.

Question 3.
Study the indices of density maps of both the countries. What difference do you find? What conclusions can you draw?

Answer:
(i) India’s density of population is proportionately catered while Brazil’s density of population is concentrated only on the eastern coast.
(ii) After studying the indices of the density maps of both the countries, we can conclude that India’s population density is much higher than that of Brazil.
(iii) The lowest value on the map of India indicates less than 100 whereas on the Brazil map it is less than 50.
(iv) Places in Brazil which are highest in density is grouped in the category of more than 300 people’ per sq. km. whereas in India it is more than 500 persons per sq. km.

Question 4.
Considering the above discussion, what should be done so that our manpower is utilized properly, sex ratio improves and population growth is controlled? Write two to three sentences on each.
Answer:
(i) Measures to utilise man power properly:

• Good education, health and training facilities are the basic requirements to improve human resources.
• The focus of education should not just be to chum out jobseekers but also to chum out job creators.
• The young population should be encouraged to be entrepreneurs.

(ii) Measures to improve sex ratio:

• Build an environment to save and protect the girl child.
• Ban sex determination test.

(iii) Measures to control population growth:

• Family planning measures to be encouraged through media.
• Spread of education among illiterate masses, especially about the benefits of having a small family.
• Child marriage should be strictly prohibited.

TRY THIS

Age and Sex Pyramid:

Question 1.
What is this figure called? What is it always known as?
Answer:
The figure is called the Age-Sex Pyramid. It is also known as Population Pyramid.

Question 2.
What does the graph depict?
Answer:
The graph depicts the percentage of male and female population of various age groups in Brazil & India for the year 2016.

Question 3.
In which country is the proportion of adults more?
Answer:
The proportion of adults is comparatively more in India.

Question 4.
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older’. Which country is being referred to? Why?
Answer:
‘This country’s population is getting slowly older – The country being referred to is Brazil. As compared to India, a larger percentage of Brazil’s population falls in the above 60 years age group. So it is said that Brazil’s population is getting slowly older.

Question 5.
In which country are the number of children comparatively more?
Answer:
The proportion of children is comparatively more in India.

Question 6.
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, which pyramid has a broader base?
Answer:
While comparing the age-sex pyramids, India’s pyramid has a broader base.

USE YOUR BRAIN POWER

Question 1.
Is there a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population ? How?
Answer:
(i) Yes, there is a relationship between increase in life expectancy and growth of population.
(ii) Increased life expectancy means there are more people who live longer, which means healthier and better quality of life.
(iii) This kind of population generally prefers fewer children which leads to decreased birth rates.

Question 2.
If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, how will it affect the economy of a country?
Ans.
(i) If the proportion of dependent age groups increases in the composition of population, it will have an adverse effect on the economy of a country.
(ii) The reason is if the working population is less, the economic activities will reduce and will have a direct impact on the economic growth and development of that nation.
(iii) The production will decrease in comparison to consumption leading to inflation also the per capita income and GDP will decrease.
(iv) Export will reduce and imports will increase.
(v) The proportion of the working population will increase, slowing down the pace of development.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 Population Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ aspects of a population are important for a nation’s economic and social progress.
(a) quantitative
(b) qualitative
(c) measurable
(d) calculable
Answer:
(b) qualitative

Question 2.
India is the ________ most populous country in the world.
(a) second
(b) fifth
(c) seventh
(d) sixth
Answer:
(a) second

Question 3.
Due to farming, industries and trade, the proportion of the population got in _____ a few places.
(a) distributed
(b) sparse
(c) concentrated
(d) equal
Answer:
(c) concentrated

Question 4.
In mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas and densely forested areas, population density is __________ because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.
(a) high
(b) very high
(c) sparse
(d) moderate
Answer:
(c) sparse

Question 5.
Brazil is the _______ populated country in the continent of South America.
(a) second most
(b) third most
(c) fifth most
(d) most
Answer:
(d) most

Question 6.
With a population of around 19 crores, according to Census 2010, Brazil ranks _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 7.
With respect to area, Brazil stands _______ in the world.
(a) 3rd
(b) 5th
(c) 7th
(d) 9th
Answer:
(b) 5th

Question 8.
A majority of Brazilians have concentrated within 300 kilometers of the ________.
(a) Guyana highlands
(b) Amazon river,
(c) Eastern coastal areas
(d) Pantanal wetlands
Answer:
(c) Eastern coastal areas

Question 9.
The interior of the Amazon basin is ____ populated.
(a) densely
(b) moderately
(c) highly
(d) very sparsely
Answer:
(d) very sparsely

Question 10.
The central and western parts of Brazil is ______ populated.
(a) densely
(b) sparsely
(c) moderately
(d) less
Answer:
(d) less

Question 11.
The density of population in the _______ of Brazil is moderate.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) coastal lowlands
(c) highlands
(d) forested areas
Answer:
(c) highlands

Question 12.
In India, there has been a _______ in the sex ratio, after 1991.
(a) decrease
(b) slight increase
(c) consistency
(d) steep increase
Answer:
(b) slight increase

Question 13.
The proportion of _______ in India is more.
(a) middle-aged people
(b) old people
(c) children
(d) youth
Answer:
(d) youth

Question 14.
The rate of population growth is now ______ in India.
(a) increasing
(b) declining
(c) stable
(d) stagnant
Answer:
(b) declining

Question 15.
It is observed that Brazil’s population may not increase in the next ______ decades.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 16.
The eastern coastal areas of Brazil are also called the coastal ________.
(a) lowlands
(b) highlands
(c) ravines
(d) badlands
Answer:
(a) lowlands

Question 17.
In most of the developing countries life expectancy is still less, but with socio economic development it is ________.
(a) decreasing
(b) increasing
(c) gradually declining
(d) steeply increasing
Answer:
(b) increasing

Match the columns:

S.No	Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)	Coastal lowlands	(a) sparsely populated
(2)	Amazon Basin interior	(b) moderately populated
(3)	Highlands	(c) densely populated (within 300 kms. of the area)

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b

Answer the following questions in one or two sentence.

Question 1.
According to Census 2011, what is India’s population and how much is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2011 India’s population is around 121 crores, and its average population density is 382 persons per sq. km.

Question 2.
What percentage of the total land area of the world is occupied by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India occupies only 2.41% of the land area of the world, whereas Brazil occupies 5.6% of the world’s total land area.

Question 3.
What is the difference in the percentage of the world population supported by India and Brazil?
Answer:
India supports 17.5% of the world’s population, whereas Brazil supports 2.78% of the world’s total population. The difference is 14.72% (India has a large population than Brazil)

Question 4.
According to Census 2010, what is the total population of Brazil and what is its average population density?
Answer:
According to Census 2010, Brazil’s total population is around 19 crores and its average population density is 23 persons per sq. km.

Question 5.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio means, the number of females per 1000 males in a region.

Question 6.
What is a population pyramid?
Answer:
A population pyramid, also called age-sex pyramid, is a graphical illustration that shows the age and sek/gender related aspects of various age groups in a population.

Question 7.
How is the population pyramid useful? OR State the uses of a population pyramid.
Answer:

• The population pyramid is used to study the age and sex related aspects of a region’s population
• We can know the number/percentage of various age groups of males and females in a country.
• It also helps us to know the proportion of children, youth and old people in a country.

Question 8.
What is life expectancy?
Answer:
Life expectancy means the average number of years, a person born in a country is expected to live.

Question 9.
Which factors lead to an increase in average life expectancy?
Answer:
Improvement in medical facilities, progress in the medical field and access to nutritious food lead to an increase in average life expectancy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Indian cities that are densely populated.
Answer:
Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai.

Question 2.
Factors that play an important role in the distribution of population.
Answer:
Physiography and climate.

Question 3.
Factors due to which human settlements have been established for many centuries.
Answer:
Fertile land, plain land and availability of water.

Question 4.
Factors due to which population got concentrated in a few places, in India.
Answer:
Farming, industries and trade.

Question 5.
Areas which have sparse population density in India.
Answer:
Mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas.

Question 6.
Factors due to which population density is sparse in a few areas.
Answer:
Inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Question 7.
The most populated country in South American.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 8.
Brazil’s rank in the world with regard to population as well as land area.
Answer:
Fifth.

Question 9.
The part of Brazil has the maximum concentration of population
Answer:
Eastern coastal areas or coastal lowlands.

Question 10.
The part of Brazil that is sparsely populated.
Answer:
Amazon River Basin.

Question 11.
The region of Brazil that is moderately populated.
Answer:
The Highlands.

Question 12.
The parts of Brazil that are less populated.
Answer:
Central, western and interior of Amazon basin.

Question 13.
Out of Brazil and India, the country where men outnumber women.
Answer:
India.

Question 14.
Increase in this factor is an indicator of development of that society.
Answer:
Life expectancy, Sex Ratio and Literacy Rate.

Question 15.
The development of this aspect of an economy leads to an increase in average life expectancy.
Answer:
Socio-economic development.

Are the following sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India is the fifth most populous country in the world.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
India’s average population density is 832 persons per sq. km. as per the 2011 Census.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
Brazil is the second-most populous country in the World.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 4.
Brazil ranks fifth in the world with respect to area.
Answer:
Right.

Question 5.
The total population of Brazil is around 91 crores.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 6.
In Brazil and India, population is evenly distributed.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 7.
The central and western part of Brazil are less populated.
Answer:
Right.

Question 8.
The sex ratio of Brazil has been less than 1000 since centuries.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 9.
It is observed that in Brazil, the rate of population growth is increasing.
Answer:
Wrong.

Fill the map with the given information:

Question 1.
On a map of India, show the following.

1. Largest state areawise.
2. Smallest state areawise.
3. State with highest population.
4. State with lowest population.
5. State having highest density of population.
6. State having lowest density of population.
7. State having highest sex ratio.
8. State having lowest sex ratio.
9. State having highest literacy rate.
10. State having lowest literacy rate.

Answer:

Question 2.
On a map of Brazil, show the following.

1. Largest state areawise.
2. Smallest state areawise.
3. State with highest population.
4. State with lowest population.
5. State having highest density of population,
6. State having lowest density of population.

Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
Answer:
(i) In India, population is very unevenly distributed.
(ii) Physiography and climate play an important role in the distribution of population.
(iii) Due to fertile land, plain land and availability of water, human settlements have been established in some parts for many centuries.
(iv) Due to farming, industries and trade, the . proportion of the population has become concentrated in a few places.
(v) For example, the Northern Plains of the country, Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Pune, Bengaluru, Chennai, etc.
(vi) On the contrary, in mountainous / hilly regions, dry desert areas, dense forest areas, density is sparse because of inaccessibility, absence of facilities and tough life.

Question 2.
The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The distribution of population is very uneven in Brazil. .
(ii) A majority of the Brazilians are concentrated within 300 kilometers of the eastern coastal areas also called the coastal lowlands because agriculture and industries are well developed here.
(iii) In the interior of the Amazon Basin population is very sparse due to.
(iv) Unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall,
inaccessibility and dense forests which are the barriers to development of human settlements here.
(v) The central and western part of Brazil is less moderate.

Question 3.
The average life expectancy in India is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Earlier the average life expectancy in India was low due to, lack of medical facilities which lead to high incidence of diseases and epidemics like chicken pox, malaria, cholera, etc.
(ii) Today with improvement in access to medical facilities and improvement in technology, diseases and epidemics are controlled.
(iii) Also today people in India have an improved standard of living, they eat nutritious food and there is awareness of good health.
All this has led to increase in average life expectancy in India.

Question 4.
In north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.
Answer:
(i) North East India comprises of dense forests and uneven topography.
(ii) There exist unfavourable climatic conditions in this part.
(iii) There is less development of transport, communication and industries here.
So, in north-eastern India, sparse distribution of population is found.

Question 5.
In India, number of men outnumber women. Is this condition found in all the states of India?
Answer:
In India, men outnumber women, on an average. But in Kerala women outnumber men. Sex Ratio of Kerala is 1084 females per 1000 males (2011 Census).

Question 6.
Explain the reasons of low sex ratio in India.
Answer:
Some of the reasons for lower sex ratio in any region are:

• Illiteracy: Narrow mindedness and lack of education leads to gender bias in the society.
• Preference for a male child : There is preference of a boy child over a girl child. Nutrition to girls is ignored.
• Poverty: Povertystruck families do not prefer a girl child as they consider female child a burden due to practices like dowry prevalent in the society.
• Female foeticide and female infanticide: Female foeticide and female infanticide are on the rise due to the wrong use of modem technology.
• Maternity deaths: Higher maternity deaths have lowered the sex ratio.

Question 7.
Explain – The growth rate of population in India is decreasing but population is increasing.
Answer:
(i) Growth rate of population is calculated on the basis of difference between birth rate and death rate.
(ii) Earlier the difference between birth rate and death rate was high, so the growth rate was high.
(iii) Today the growth rate is decreasing because the difference between birth rate and death rate is not as high as it was earlier.
So it is said that in India the growth rate of population is decreasing, but the population is increasing.

Question 8.
Explain the uneven distribution of population in India.
Answer:
(i) Dense population is found in regions with mild climate and moderate rainfall. E.g. the northern plain as well as the coastal plains of India
(ii) Places with heavy rainfall, inaccessibility and dense forests have low population. E.g. north eastern states in India.
(iii) The snow covered regions due to extremely cold climatic conditions have less population. E.g. the northernmost part of Jammu & Kashmir.
(iv) In certain regions, due to less rainfall and extreme climatic conditions population is sparse. E.g. westernmost part of India in the Thar desert, Rajasthan.
(v) Moderate population is found in the plateau regions of Narmada valley.

Try this

Population growth rate graphs :
Look at the graphs in Fig. indicating the population growth rate of Brazil and India and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What is the common feature in both the graphs?
Answer:
Both the graphs are indicating a downward trend in population growth rate of Brazil and India.

Question 2.
What is India’s growth rate of population in 2011?
Answer:
India’s population growth rate in 2011 is 1.5%.

Question 3.
In which two decades has the population growth rate of India remained almost stable?
Answer:
The population growth rate of India has remained almost stable during the two decades 1971 to 1981 and 1981 to 1991.

Question 4.
From which time period has Brazil seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate?
Answer:
From 1980-1990, Brazil has seen a sharp decline in the population growth rate.

Question 5.
What is the main point of difference between the two graphs?
Answer:
(i) In the first decade between 1961-1971 the growth rate in India showed an upward trend whereas Brazil has a downward trend throughout.
(ii) Also the decline in Brazil is more sharp but India’s decline in the growth rate is marginal.

Question 6.
What is the interesting feature of Brazil’s growth rate of population?
Answer:
The interesting feature of Brazil’s population growth rate is that it is about to touch 0.0 and then will begin its negative growth rate i.e. the population will start decreasing.

Observe the figure carefully and answer the following questions given below.

Question 1.
What is the class interval of the data?
Answer:
The class interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which decade was India’s life expectancy the highest?
Answer:
Highest life expectancy in India was in the decade of 1960-1970.

Question 3.
In which year has the difference in the life expectancy between Brazil and India been the maximum? By how much?
Answer:
In the year I960, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has been the maximum by 13 years. (54 – 51)

Question 4.
Has the difference in life expectancy been increasing or decreasing?
Answer:
During the past 36 years, i.e. from 1980 onwards, the difference between the life expectancy of Brazil and India has remained constant. It has been 7 to 8 years.

Question 5.
What is the similarity between both the graphs?
Answer:
Both India and Brazil have experienced an increase in the life expectancy. Both the graphs indicate an upward trend continuously.

Question 6.
Is the increase in life expectancy a positive or a negative indicator of an economy? Why?
Answer:
The increase in life expectancy is a positive indicator for any economy because longer the people’s average age, longer is their contribution towards the growth of an economy.

Based on the figure, observe carefully and answer the questions given below.

Question 1.
What do the graphs indicate?
Answer:
The graphs indicate the literacy rate of India and Brazil (in percentage).

Question 2.
What is this general conclusion that you can come to, after observing both the graphs?
Answer:
On observing both the graphs, we can conclude that Brazil is and has always been way ahead of India with regard to literacy rate.

Question 3.
Which country has higher literacy rate?
Answer:
Brazil has a higher literacy rate.

Question 4.
What was the literacy rate of Brazil in 2011?
Answer:
Brazil had a literacy rate of 91.4% in 2011.

Question 5.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of Brazil and India in 2016?
Answer:
Literacy rate of Brazil and India had a difference of 20.4% (92.6 – 72.2) in 2016.

Question 6.
What is the difference in the literacy rate of India between the years 2001 and 2011?
Answer:
The difference in the literacy rate of India is 8.3% (69.3 – 61) between the years 2001 and 2011.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No	Human settlements in the Ganga river basin	Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i)	Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin.	(i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii)	Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement.	(ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii)	The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries.	(iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.


Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No	Amentity	Available in Villages	Available in Cities
(1)	Petrol Pump	✓	✓
(2)	Theatre		✓
(3)	Weekly Market	✓
(4)	Primary Health Centre	✓
(5)	Police Outpost	✓	✓
(6)	Art Gallery		✓
(7)	Gram Panchayat	✓
(8)	Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)	✓
(9)	Primary School	✓	✓
(10)	Senior School		✓
(11)	College		✓
(12)	Shop	✓	✓
(13)	Multi-speciality Hospital		✓
(14)	Metro station		✓
(15)	Bus station	✓	✓
(16)	University		✓

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.


Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)

Answer:

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No.	Urban population percentage category	States /UTs falling in the category
(1)	0-20	Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2)	21-40	Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3)	41-60	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4)	61-80	Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5)	81 -100	Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.

Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Most urbanised state in India	(a)	Sao Paulo
(2)	Most urbanised state in Brazil	(b)	Goa
(3)	Least urbanised state in India	(c)	Mato Grosso
(4)	Least urbanised	(d)	Himachal Pradesh
	state in Brazil	(e)	Delhi
		(f)	Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.