Category: Class 7

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Prepare a chain by matching the following:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Waves	(a) 8th phase of the moon (Quarter)	(i) Objects get thrown towards the outer side.
(2) Centrifugal force	(b) Newmoon day	(ii) Highest high tide occurs on this day.
(3) Gravitational force	(c) Rotation of the earth	(iii) These are also generated due to earthquakes and volcanoes.
(4) Spring Tide	(d) The moon, the sun and the earth	(iv) The forces of the sun and the moon operate in different directions.
(5) Neap tide	(e) Wind	(v) Operates in the direction towards the centre of the earth.

Answer:

1 – e – iii
2 – c – i
3 – d – v
4 – b – ii
5 – a – iv

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.
Answer:

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth is one of the factor responsible for occurrence of tides.
• But compared to the sun, the moon is closer to the earth.
• Due to this the gravitational force of the moon becomes more effective than that of the sun.
• Therefore, tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.

Question 2.
At some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.
Answer:
(i) Generally the areas along the sea coast are low lying and get flooded easily by the sea water during high tide.

(ii) This leads to accumulation of sea water over a long period of time leading to formation of swamps & marshes.

(iii) The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity here.

(iv) Certain areas near the sea coast being low lying & waters being shallow also lead to sediment deposition by sea waves leading to formation of lagoons.

(v) In this way, at some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.

Question 3.
Place located on the opposite meridian experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.
Answer:
(i) The gravitational force of moon, the sun & the earth and the centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth are two major factors responsible for the occurrence of tides.

(ii) When a place (meridian) faces the moon the gravitational force of the moon exceeds the centrifugal force of the earth leading to high tide here as the water is pulled towards the moon.

(iii) At the same time the place on the earth located at the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high tide, the centrifugal force of the earth exceeds the gravitational force of the moon. Thus, the water is pulled in the direction away from the moon leading to high tide.

(iv) The water required for the high tide moves in from places that are at right angles to those having high tides causing a low tide at those places.

(v) Thus, place located on the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.

3. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
If there is high tide at 7 am, find the timings of the next high and low tides on the same day at a given place.
Answer:

• There is high tide & low tide twice a day i.e. in 24 hours.
• One cycle of high tide & low tide is completed after every 12 hours & 25 minutes.
• If there is a high tide at 7 am, the next low tide will be at 1.12 pm (after 6 hrs & 12 min.) & the next high tide will be at 7.25 pm (after 12 hrs & 25 min.)

Question 2.
If at Mumbai (73° E meridian), there is high tide at 1.00 pm on Thursday, then on which other meridian will there be a high tide too? State with reasons.
Answer:
The other meridian which will experience high tide will be 107°W (180°-73°) because it is exactly 180° opposite from 73°E.

Question 3.
Explain the reasons for the generation of waves.
Answer:

• The main reason of wave generation is the force of the wind i.e. water appears to be moving.
• But at times waves get generated due to earthquake or volcanic eruptions occurring below the floor of the sea.
• Large or small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural and regular phenomenon.

4. In what way will the following depend on the tides:

Question 1.
Swimming:
Answer:
A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Question 2.
Steering a ship:
Answer:
Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.

Question 3.
Fishing:
Answer:
With the high tide, fish moves into the creeks and this helps the fishing activity.

Question 4.
Salt Pans:
Answer:
During high tide, seawater can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.

Question 5.
Going to coastal areas for trips:
Answer:
Plan for going to trips after full moon or new moon day. Also one must have details about the timings of the tides for better enjoyment.

5. Observe figure of neap tide and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which phase of the moon does it show?
Answer:
The diagram shows the phase of the quarter moon.

Question 2.
What are the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth?
Answer:
The moon, the earth and the sun make an angle of 90° (right angle)

Question 3.
What effect will it have on the tides?
Answer:
It will lead to neap tide. Due to such conditions during high tide the water level will rise less than usual while during low tide water level will fall less than usual.

6. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
High tide and low tide:
Answer:

High tide	Low Tide
(i) The rise in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.	(i) The fall in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.
(ii) At the time of high tide, sea water is very close to the coast.	(ii) At the time of low tide, sea water is far away from the coast.

Question 2.
Spring tide and neap tide.
Answer:

Spring tide	Neap Tide
(i) It occurs on the new moon day and the full moon day.	(i) It occurs on the the first and the third quarter days.
(ii) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth are in a straight line and act in the same direction.	(i) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun are at right angle.
(iii) Spring tides are a little higher than the average high tides and a little lower than the average low tides.	(iii) Neap tides are a little lower than the average high tides and little higher than the average low tides.

7. Describe the positive and negative effects of tides:
Answer:
The positive effects of tides are as follows:

• The tides clear the waste and hence the coasts become clean.
• Ports do not get filled with sediments .
• Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.
• During high tide, sea water can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.
• The tidal force can be used to generate electricity.
• With the high tide, fish move into the creeks and this helps fishing activity.
• The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.

The negative effects of tides are as follows:

• A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Activities:

1. Visit the nearest sea coast. From a higher location, observe the waves approaching the coast. See if the approaching waves change their direction. With the help of your teacher find the answer to why this change occurs.
2. Collect information from the internet about how electricity is generated from waves. Find places where such electricity is being generated.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides InText Questions and Answers

Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Centrifugal force and Gravitational
Answer:

Centrifugal force	Gravitational force
(i) Due to rotation, the earth gets a type of power of force. This force works away from the centre. It is called centrifugal force. (ii) Centrifugal force works away from the centre. (iii) Due to centrifugal force an object on the earth would be thrown into the space.	(i) Gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth. This force is many times greater than the centrifugal force. (ii) Gravitational force works towards the centre. (iii) Due to gravitational force an object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Spring tide
Answer:
(i) On new moon & full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction due to which the total pull increases.

(ii) Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

(iii) This is known as spring tide.

Question 2.
Neap tide
Answer:
(i) While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun, twice a month.

(ii) This position occurs on the first and third quarter of each month. On both these days the forces of both the sun & the moon operate at right angles on the earth.

(iii) At the places where the sun causes high tide, the gravitational pull of the moon which is at right angles also acts on the water.

(iv) Due to such conditions the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide. Similarly, fall in water level is less than usual at the time of low tide.

(v) Such tides are called neap tides.

Question 3.
Waves
Answer:

• The sea water gets pushed by the wind and ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.
• The sea water moves up & down or slightly forward & backward due to the waves.
• The waves bring the energy contained in them to the coast.
• Large & small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural & regularly occurring phenomenon.

Question 4.
Struture of the waves
Answer:
(i) The sea water gets pushed up & down because of the wind. The raised up portion of the wave is called crest & the depressed one is called trough.

(ii) The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave whereas the distance between two successive crests or troughs is called wave length.

(iii) The wave length, its amplitude & its velocity depend on the velocity of the wind.

Formative Assessment:
Observe the activity on pages 9, 10 of the textbook & discuss the result of the activities and answer the question given below:

Question 1.
In which direction will the piece of chalk fall? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The chalk will fall to the right.

Question 2.
Where did the water in the glass show a bulge? (fig. 2)
Answer:
At the sides of the glass.

Question 3.
What effect did the movement have on the things attached to the keyring? (fig. 3)
Answer:
The things attached to the keyring will move round.

Question 4.
What happened to the water in the container and the mixer? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The water will swirl round forming a bulge at the sides and a depression in the centre.

Question 5.
Which forces could be operating in activities listed above?
Answer:
In the first activity (fig. 1) gravitational force acted and in the fig. 2, fig. 3 centrifugal force.

Question 6.
In the following activities, which force is greater, centrifugal or gravitational?
Answer:
The centrifugal force was greater than the gravitational force.

Can you tell?
Answer the following of questions with the help of figure

Question 1.
How do the tides occur?
Answer:
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun, and the earth.

Question 2.
Which force is applied when the moon is closer to the earth?
Answer:
Gravitational force becomes more effective than that of the sun when the moon is closer to the earth.

Question 3.
If it is high tide those having high tide at 0° and 180° meridian then at which meridians will low tide occur?
Answer:
The meridians that are at right angle to those having high tide will experience low tide at the same time ie. at 90°E & 90°W.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
Due to rotation, the force that works away from the centre of the earth is the ______force. (gravitational, rotational, centrifugal)
Answer:
centrifugal

Question 2.
Neap tide occurs on the days of the ______ and _______ quarter of each month. (first, second, third)
Answer:
first, third

Question 3.
The tidal range in open seas is ______ cms. (20, 30, 40)
Answer:
30

Question 4.
The highest tidal range in the world is observed at _______.(Bay of Fundy, Bay of Biscay, Bay of Bengal)
Answer:
Bay of Fundy

Question 5.
The main reason for wave generation is ______ (wind, gravitational force, centrifugal force)
Answer:
wind

Question 6.
The raised up portion of a wave is called a _______ .(trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
crest

Question 7.
The depressed portion of a wave is called a ______. (trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
trough

Question 8.
The vertical distance between a crest and a trough is called the _____.(wave length, amplitude, tide)
Answer:
amplitude

Question 9.
The distance between a crest or trough is called _____ (amplitude, wave length, tide)
Answer:
wave length

Question 10.
Tall sea waves caused by earthquakes below the floor of the sea are called _____.(cyclones, tsunamis, eruption)
Answer:
tsunamis

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’	‘B’
(1)  Bay of Fundy (2)  Gulf of Khambhat (3)  Open Seas (4)  Peninsular India	(a)  1100 cm (b)  100 -150 cm (c)  1600 cm (d)  30 cm

Answer:
1 – c
2- a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
High and low tides are _______ phenomena.
Answer:
Natural

Question 2.
_________ are movements of sea water occurring daily and regularly.
Answer:
Tides

Question 3.
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place due to the ______ force.
Answer:
Gravitational

Question 4.
The meridians that are at right angles to those having high, tide will experience tide _______.
Answer:
Low

Question 5.
On the days of the first and the third quarter, the high tide is at its _____.
Answer:
Minimum

Question 6.
On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon acting the ______ direction.
Answer:
Same

Question 7.
At every ______ a cycle of high tide and low tide gets completed.
Answer:
12 hrs & 25 min

Name the following:

Question 1.
Movement of sea water.
Answer:
Tides.

Question 2.
Two forces directly related with tides.
Answer:
Gravitational and Centrifugal forces.

Question 3.
Two types of tide.
Answer:
Spring tide and Neap tide.

Question 4.
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide.
Answer:
Tidal range.

Question 5.
The region with highest tidal range in India.
Answer:
The Gulf of Khambhat.

Question 6.
Tall waves caused by earthquakes in the shallow waters near the coast, which are very destructive.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Question 7.
Place where tsunami waves were generated in 2004.
Answer:
Sumatra islands of Indonesia.

Question 8.
Type of tide occuring on full moon day.
Answer:
Spring tide.

Question 9.
Type of tide occuring when sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.
Answer:
Neap tide.

Question 10.
Distance between two successive crests or troughs.
Answer:
Wavelength.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Tide:
Answer:
The alternate rising and falling of the sea water after a specific period is called tide.

Question 2.
Centrifugal force:
Answer:
Due to the earth’s rotation, the earth gets a type of power or force. This force works away from the centre. It is called the centrifugal force.

Question 3.
Tidal range:
Answer:
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide is called tidal range.

Question 4.
Waves:
Answer:
The sea water gets pushed by the wind and so ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.

Question 5.
Amplitude of the wave:
Answer:
The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave.

Question 6.
Wave length:
Answer:
The wave length is the distance between two successive crests or troughs.

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The gravitational force is many times greater than the centrifugal force.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Spring tides are lower than average high tides.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Centrifugal force is generated due to the revolution of the earth.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
When there is high tide at 0° meridian, the 180° meridian also experiences high tide.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The tides clean the waste and hence the coastal areas become clean.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The tides worsen the maintaining of mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Generation of waves is a natural and regularly occurring phenomenon.
Answer:
True

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.
Answer:

• Due to the earths rotation, it gets a type of power or force
• The force acting in the centre is centrifugal force.
• Due to this force any object on the earth would be thrown into the space.
• But the gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth at the same time.
• This force is greater than the centrifugal force.
• Hence, any object on the surface of earth remains at the place where it exists.

Question 2.
On new moon and full moon days the tides are higher than average.
Answer:

• On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction.
• Due to this, the total pull increases.
• Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

Question 3.
Neap tides are a little lower than average high tides.
Answer:

• While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun.
• This position occurs on the first and the third quarter of each month.
• On both these days, the forces of both the sun and the moon operate at right angles on the earth.
• The attraction of the sun and the moon are not complementary but at right angles to each other.
• Due to this, the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Which factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides?
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides.

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth.
• Revolution of the earth around the sun and the indirect revolution of the moon around the sun.
• Centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth.

Draw a neat labelled diagram of:

Question 1.
The structure of a wave:
Answer:

Question 2.
Springtide:
Answer:

Question 3.
Neap tide:
Answer:

Question 4.
Occurrence of tides:
Answer:

Observe the following pictures and answer the following questions given below and discuss:


Question 1.
Do the above photographs show the same place or different places?
Answer:
Both the photographs show the same place.

Question 2.
Observe and note the spread of water seen in both the photographs.
Answer:
The level of water is higher in the first picture and lower in the second.

Question 3.
What is this natural event called?
Answer:
This natural event is called tide.

Try this:

Take a wide open large dish.
Keep the dish on a table or a flat surface.
Fill water in the dish up to the rim,(we have to generate waves in the dish).

Question 1.
Is it possible to generate waves without touching or shoving the dish? Try doing so.
Answer:
By blowing air with your mouth on the water surface of the dish.

Question 2.
In what different ways can you generate waves in the dish?
Answer:

• By dropping an object in the dish.
• By blowing air on the water surface.
• By strong fan breeze.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How can the distribution of the height and landform in a region be shown?
Answer:
(i) While studying different landforms on the surface of the earth, one has to consider various facets of landforms like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) For this maps prepared using mathematical survey methods are used.
(iii) These maps help us to understand the above characteristics of the landforms.

Question 2.
To whom are contour maps useful?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps are useful to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers.
(ii) The nature of the ground and its shape can be estimated .
(iii) Defence officers use contour maps for strategic planning.
(iv) It is possible to identify suitable site for any project from the contour map of the region.

Question 3.
What do you understand by observing contour lines?
Answer:
(i) Contour lines are isolines of height.
(ii) These are drawn by joining the places of equal altitude.
(iii) These help in identification of land forms and their altitude from sea level.
(iv) These lines also help us to understand the nature and direction of the slope.

Question 4.
How will a contour map be useful to a fanner?
Answer:
(i) It is helpful selecting the type of farming to be practiced plantation farming in hilly regions, intensive farming in low lying region.
(ii) In order to reduce the erosion of soil, trenches are dug out in the direction perpendicular to the slope of the land.
(iii) Trees are planted along such trenches. When the farmer digs out such trenches, he will be careful in maintaining the level.

2. Fill the blanks with appropriate words:

Question 1.
If the contour lines are closer to each other, the slope is ______.
Answer:
steep

Question 2.
The contour lines on the map represent ______.
Answer:
places of same altitude

Question 3.
The slope can be understood from the distance between the ______.
Answer:
contour lines

Question 4.
If the distance between two contour lines is more then the ______ is gentle.
Answer:
slope

3. Identify the landforms in the following map:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms InText Questions and Answers

A model of the relief in an area is shown in fig. Observe it carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which landforms do you seen in the model?
Answer:
Mountains & river valleys are seen in the model.

Question 2.
Which colours have been used on them?
Answer:
Yellow & blue colours have been used in the model.

Model of the Earth’s surface:

Question 1.
What all you seen in the map?
Answer:
We can see many contour lines on the map showing a hilly region. We can see the altitude of the hill ranges as well as its slope.

Question 2.
What is the general direction of the ranges shown in the map?
Answer:
The general direction of the ranges shown in the map is east-west

Question 3.
Towards which direction is the flat land located in the map?
Answer:
The flat land is located towards the east.

Question 4.
What are the maximum and minimum values of the lines in the map?
Answer:
The maximum value of the lines in the map is 800 & minimum value is 600.

Question 5.
What do these values indicate?
Answer:
These lines indicate the altitude of the region from the sea level.

Question 6.
Do you find any similarities in the map and the model in fig. (a)? What are those?
Answer:
The model in figure (a) & the contour line map in figure (b) are of the same region. The values of latitudes & longitudes are same on both the maps.

Question 7.
Which figure give us more information and what is that information?
Answer:
Fig. (b) Contour line map gives more information. It gives us information about the altitude of the landforms slope of the land forms with latitudes & longitudes

Question 8.
Is there any similarity between this map and the sketch map of the potato hill?
Answer:
Yes, similar to the sketch map of the potato hill,
the contour line map too is a 3D figure (Model of earth’s surface) which has been converted into a 2D map. The Contour line map is depicting contour line intervals.

Consider you have gone for mountaineering. You have to conquer a peak on the hill “A”. A map of this hill is given below. Studying the contour lines in the map, find the side from which you will reach the peak safely and easily. Mark your path on the map with a pencil.

Answer:
I will climb from eastwards to reach the peak safely as the slope eastwards is gentle and not steep. Lesser distance between the contour lines, indicates steep slope. The distance between the lines is greater eastwards, which shows the slope is more gentle on that side.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 11 Contour Maps and Landforms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Contour lines join places with the same on a map.
Answer:
altitude

Question 2.
Generally, contour lines do not _______ each other.
Answer:
cross.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How are contour maps helpful to us?
Answer:
(i) Contour maps help us to understand various facets of landforms, like altitude, relief, slope, direction of slope and the drainage.
(ii) These maps are of immense use to mountaineers, trekkers, soldiers, defence officers, etc.
(iii) These maps prove to be of great use in planning of a region.

Question 2.
Contour lines generally do not cross each other. Give reason.
Answer:
(i) Contour lines join places with the same altitude on a map.
(ii) Therefore they generally do not cross each other.

Observe the model and the map given below and answer the following questions:

A 3D model is given in fig. (a) The northern part of the model shows the basin of the rivers Mula-Mutha. To its south is the Katraj. Diveghat range extending from the west to the east. Beyond that some portion of Karha basin is seen.

Question 1.
In which direction does fort Purandar lie?
Answer:
Fort Purandar lies in the south direction.

Question 2.
What is the direction of flow of the river Karha?
Answer:
River Karha flows from west to east.

Question 3.
In which parts are the hill ranges not observed?
Answer:
The hill ranges are not observed in the eastern parts.

Question 4.
Which part of the model is not seen in the map? Why?
Answer:
The Karha river & the direction of its flow, the contour height and the slope of the land are part of map & not seen in the model.

Question 5.
In which direction does the altitude of Katraj- Diveghat range decrease?
Answer:
The altitude of katraj-Diveghat range decreases from west to east.

Question 6.
In which direction are higher hill ranges located?
Answer:
Higher hill ranges are located in the southern direction.

Use your brain!

When one sees a landform on a contour map, what is the observer’s position with respect to landform? For example, a hill is shown with the help of contours on a map. From where do you think you are looking at it?
Answer:
Aerial view. From somewhere above, may be from an aeroplane or helicopter.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Correct the wrong statements. Write down the corrected ones.

Question 1.
The moon revolves around the sun.
Answer:
Wrong – The moon revolves around the earth.

Question 2.
On a full moon day, the moon, the sun and the earth are positioned in this sequence.
Answer:
Wrong – On a full moon day, the sun, the earth and the moon are positioned in this sequence.

Question 3.
The revolutionary orbits of the earth and the moon are in the same plane.
Answer:
Wrong – The revolutionary orbits of the earth and the moon are not in the same plane. The moon’s revolutionary orbit makes an angle of about 5° with that the earth.

Question 4.
In one revolution of the moon, its orbit intersects the earth’s orbit only once.
Answer:
Wrong – In one revolution of the moon, its orbit intersects the earth’s orbit twice.

Question 5.
It is alright to observe a solar eclipse without protecting the eyes.
Answer:
Wrong – It is necessary to view the sun disc through dark glasses or through special goggles made for that purpose, otherwise the intense light of the sun can be harmful to the naked eye.

Question 6.
An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon is in the perigee position.
Answer:
Wrong – An annular solar eclipse occurs when the moon is in the apogee position.

2. Select the correct option.

Question 1.
Solar eclipse

Answer:
(b)

Question 2.
The shape of sun disc at the time of annular solar eclipse.

Answer:
(a)

Question 3.
Apogee position of the moon.

Answer:
(c)

3. Complete the following table.

Details	Lunar Eclipse	Solar Eclipse
Phase of the moon	…………	…………….
Sequence	Moon-Earth- Sun	………….
Type of Eclipse	………….	…………..
Maximum duration of total eclipse	107 minutes	…………….

Answer:

Details	Lunar Eclipse	Solar Eclipse
Phase of the moon	Full Moon Day	New Moon Day
Sequence	Moon-Earth-Sun	Moon-Earth-Sun
Type of Eclipse	Total and Partial	Total, Partial, Annular
Maximum duration of total eclipse	107 minutes	440 Seconds

4. Draw and label the diagrams.

Question 1.
Total and partial solar eclipse:
Answer:

Question 2.
Total and partial lunar eclipse:
Answer:

5. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Why do the sun, the moon and the earth not lie in one and the same line on every full moon and new moon day?
Answer:
(i) The orbital path of the earth and that of moon are not in the same plane.
(i) The moon’s revolutionary orbit makes an angle of about 5° with that of the earth.
(iii) On each new moon day, the lines joining the earth and the sun and the moon make an angle of 0° whereas on each full moon day, this angle is 180°.
(iv) So, the sun, the earth and the moon may not be in one straight line in the same plane on every new moon or full moon day.

Question 2.
When a total solar eclipse occurs why is the partial eclipse also seen from the earth?
Answer:
(i) On a new moon day if the sun, the moon & the earth fall in one line & are in the same plane, the shadow of the moon falls on the earth
(ii) This shadow is of two types – the central portion of the shadow is darker & the periphery is light.
(iii) In the area where the dark shadow falls, the sun becomes completely invisible. Such an area experiences a total solar eclipse.
(iv) However during the same period, at the places where the shadow is lighter, the sun disc appears partially covered. Such an area experience partial solar eclipse. Thus when a total solar eclipse occurs a partial eclipse is also seen from the earth.

Question 3.
Suggest measures that can be taken to eradicate the superstitions related to the eclipses.
Answer:
The following measures can be taken to eradicate superstition related to eclipses:

• Use of media to create awareness.
• Parental guidance to help think logically.
• Teachers guidance to help students develop a scientific outlook.
• Campaigns, public meetings and lectures especially in rural areas to eradicate superstitions.

Question 4.
What precautions should we take while observing a solar eclipse?
Answer:
The precautions to be taken while observing a solar eclipse are:

• We should not observe a solar eclipse with naked eyes as the intense light of the sun can harm them.
• We must use dark glasses or goggles that are specially designed for viewing the solar eclipse.

Question 5.
What types of Solar eclipses will occur in perigee conditions?
Answer:
Total and Partial solar eclipse will occur in perigee condition.
(1) Total solar eclipse :

• On a new moon day, the sun, the moon the earth are in a straight line & the shadow of the moon falls on the earth
• The area of dark shadow falls on the earth, the sun becomes completely invisible. This condition is known as total solar eclipse.

(2) Partial solar eclipse:

• However during the same period at places where the shadow is lighter, the sun disc appears partially covered,
• This condition is described as partial solar eclipse.

Activities:

1. Collect paper cuttings about eclipses and paste them in a notebook.
2. Write a note on an eclipse that you have seen.
3. Using the internet, ‘Panchanga’ and calendar collect information about the eclipses that are likely to occur this year.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth InText Questions and Answers

Use your brain power:

Question 1.
On the day of solar eclipse, in which part of the earth will it not be seen?
Answer:
Solar eclipse will not be seen where there is night.

Question 2.
Can we see total and annular solar eclipses on the same occasion?
Answer:
No, total and annular solar eclipses cannot be seen on the same occasion.

Question 3.
Why is an annular lunar eclipse not seen?
Answer:
An annular lunar eclipse cannot be seen because:

• The size of the earth is bigger than that of the moon.
• As compared to the sun, the moon is close to the earth.
• Therefore, it is not possible that a dark shadow of the earth is cast in space & does not reach the moon.

Question 4.
Which eclipses will you see from the moon?
Answer:
Solar eclipses can be seen from the moon.

Question 5.
Why are solar eclipses caused by the other planets not seen from the earth?
Answer:
(i) A Solar eclipse occurs when the moon comes in between the sun & the earth & all of them are in the same plane & fall in one line on a new moon day.
(ii) Similarly, when Venus & Mercury come in between the earth & the sun, they make a small speck against the surface of the sun as they are too far away.
(iii) The other planets have orbits outside the earth’s & cannot fall in line between the earth & the sun.
(iv) Hence, the solar eclipse caused by other planets are not seen from the earth.

Think about it:

Question 1.
Figure shows positions of the moon as seen from the space and as seen from the earth. How will you identify which are which?

Answer:
Half of the moon’s portion is illuminated by the sun, and the other half remains dark. However, only some part of this illuminated portion of the moon can be seen from the earth. The position of the moon from the Earth is as follows:

• New moon
• Waxing crescent
• 1st Quarter
• Waxing Gibbous
• Full moon
• Waning Gibbous
• Last quarter
• Waning crescent

Question 2.
Like sunlight and moonlight, is there anything called the earth light? If yes, where do you think it is found?
Answer:
Yes, Earthlight is the partial illumination of the dark portion of the moon’s surface by light reflected from the earth’s airglow.

Question 3.
When solar eclipses do not occur on a new moon day, does it mean that the moon does not have any shadow at all?
Answer:
The moon casts a shadow on every new moon day, but solar eclipse occurs only when the moon’s shadow falls on the earth.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 2 The Sun, the Moon and the Earth Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
The shape of the moon’s orbit is _________. (round, elliptical, square)
Answer:
elliptical

Question 2.
The moon has _____ and ______ motions. (axial, orbital, elliptical)
Answer:
axial, orbital

Question 3.
When the moon is closest to the earth it is said to be in ________. (apogee, perigee, orbit)
Answer:
perigee

Question 4.
When the moon is farthest to the earth it is said to be in ______. (apogee, perigee, arial)
(round, elliptical, square)
Answer:
apogee

Question 5.
Solar Eclipse occurs on the _______ day. (full moon, new moon, quarter moon)
Answer:
new moon

Question 6.
Lunar Eclipse occurs on the ______ day. (full moon, new moon, quarter)
Answer:
full moon

Question 7.
_______ solar eclipse is a rare phenomenon. (Total, Partial, Annular)
Answer:
Annular

Question 8.
When the shadow of the moon on the central portion of the earth is darker while the periphery is lighter it is known as a _______ solar eclipse.
(partial, total, lunar)
Answer:
total

Question 9.
When the shadow of the moon on the central portion of the earth is lighter and the sun disc appears to be partially covered, it is known _________ solar eclipse.
(total, partial, solar)
Answer:
partial

Question 10.
The moon is ________ when the earth, the moon and the sun make an angle of 90°. (full, semicircular, crescent)
Answer:
semicircular

Question 11.
Occultation occurs with reference to the _____. (sun, moon, earth)
Answer:
moon

Question 12.
Transit is associated with the _______ .(sun, moon, earth)
Answer:
sun

Question 13.
During the period of _______ eclipse, a large number of birds and animals get confused. (solar, lunar, annular)
Answer:
solar

Correct the wrong statements. Write down the correct ones:

Question 1.
When the moon is closest to the earth it is said to be in apogee and when it is the farthest, the position is called perigee.
Answer:
Wrong – When the moon is closest to the earth it is said to be in perigee and when it is the farthest, the position is called apogee.

Question 2.
The moon wanes from the new moon day to the full moon day and waxes from the full moon to the new moon day.
Answer:
Wrong – The moon waxes from the new moon day to the full moon day and wanes from the full moon to the new moon day.

Select the correct options:

Question 1.

Answer:
(c)

Question 2.

Answer:
(c)

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Details	Numerical facts
1. Perigee distance	……….
2. Apogee distance	……….
3. Angular distance between the moon’s and the earth’s orbit	………..
4. Maximum duration of a total solar eclipse	……….
5. Maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse	…………
6. Number of solar eclipse (types)	………….
7. Number of lunar eclipse (types)	……………

Answer:

Details	Numerical facts
1. Perigee distance	3,56,000 km
2. Apogee distance	4,07,000 km
3. Angular distance between the moon’s and the earth’s orbit	5°
4. Maximum duration of a total solar eclipse	7 minutes 20 seconds
5. Maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse	107 minutes
6. Number of solar eclipse (types)	3
7. Number of lunar eclipse (types)	2

Name the following:
Question 1.
Motions of the moon.
Answer:
Axial and orbital motion.

Question 2.
Types of solar eclipse.
Answer:
Total solar eclipse, Partial solar eclipse, Annular solar eclipse.

Question 3.
Types of lunar eclipse.
Answer:
Total lunar eclipse and Partial lunar eclipse.

Question 4.
Eclipse that confuses animals and birds.
Answer:
Solar eclipse.

Question 5.
An example of occultation.
Answer:
Total solar eclipse.

Question 6.
The event of the occurrence of solar eclipse or lunar eclipse.
Answer:
Astronomical event.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Perigee:
Answer:
When the moon is the closest to the earth in its orbit, it is perigee.

Question 2.
Apogee:
Answer:
When the moon is at the farthest from the earth in its orbit, it is apogee.

Question 3.
Occultation:
Answer:
The moon revolves around the earth. While doing so, it obscures1 a star or a planet and that celestial2 body appears to hide behind the moon. This is called occultation.

Question 4.
Transit:
Answer:
If an inner planet like Mercury or Venus comes in between the line of the earth and the sun, a transit occurs. At that time a small dot appears to move across the sun’s disc.

Question 5.
Phases of the moon:
Answer:
The illuminated portion of the moon disc observed from the earth that keeps on changing every day within a lunar month are called the phases of the moon.

Question 6.
Solar Eclipse:
Answer:
If the moon comes between the earth and the sun in a straight line on new moon day, the shadow of the moon falls on the earth and the sun becomes totally or partially invisible in the shadow zone. This phenomenon is called the solar eclipse.

Question 7.
Lunar Eclipse:
Answer:
On a full moon day, the . moon’s path of revolution passes through the thick shadow of the earth and the moon becomes totally or partially invisible. This phenomenon is called lunar eclipse.

Question 8.
Annular Solar eclipse
Answer:
Sometimes when the moon is in apogee position, a deep shadow of the moon is cast in space & does not reach the earth. From a very small region of the earth, only an illuminated edge of the sun disc is seen in the form of a ring. This is called annular solar eclipse.

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the period of waxing moon?
Answer:
The period of waxing moon is the fortnight from new moon to full moon in which the illuminated part of the moon from the earth keeps on increasing (waxing)

Question 2.
What is the period of waning moon?
Answer:
The period of waning moon is the fortnight from full moon to new moon in which the illuminated part of the moon seen from the earth keeps on decreasing (waning)

Question 3.
Why can we see the phases of the moon from the earth?
Answer:
We can see the phases of the moon from the earth due to the sunlight reflected from the moon.

Question 4.
When does the moon appear semi-circular in shape in the sky?
Answer:
On the first and the third quarter days, the moon, the earth & the sun make an angle of 90° due to which we see half the portion of the illuminated moon in a semi-circular shape in the sky.

Question 5.
What types of solar eclipses occur in perigee position?
Answer:
Total & Partial Solar eclipses occur in perigee position.

Question 6.
When does a lunar eclipse occur?
Answer:
A lunar eclipse occurs when the moon enters the shadow of the earth while revolving around it.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
We constantly see only one and the same side of the moon.
Answer:

• The time, the moon takes to make one revolution around the earth and one rotation around itself is the same.
• As the axial and the orbital motions of the moon are almost of the same duration, only one, the same side of the moon faces the earth.
• Therefore, we constantly see only one and the same side of the moon.

Question 2.
The distance between the moon and the earth keeps on changing.
Answer:

• The moon’s orbit of the revolution is elliptical to that of the earth.
• Hence the distance of the moon from the earth is not the same everywhere along its orbit while revolving.
• When it is the closest to the earth it is said to be in perigee and when it is at the farthest, the position is called apogee.

Question 3.
Eclipses do not occur on each new moon or full moon day.
Answer:

• The orbital path of the earth and that of the moon are not in the same plane.
• The moon’s revolutionary orbit makes an angle of about 5° with that of the earth.
• So, the sun, the earth and the moon may not be in one straight line in the same plane on every new moon or full moon day.
• Hence, eclipses do not occur on each new moon or full moon day.

Question 4.
The Annular solar eclipse is rarely seen.
Answer:
The Annular solar eclipse is rarely seen because

• The moon is in apogee position.
• The deep shadow of the moon is cast in space and does not reach the earth.
• From a very small region of the earth, only an illuminated edge of the sun disc is seen in the form of a ring.

Question 5.
Birds and animals are confused during the solar eclipse.
Answer:
Birds and animals are confused during the solar eclipse because –

• Untimely darkness sets in.
• The event does not suit their biological clock.
• Their response to the event is also unusual.

Question 6.
On the first and third quarter days, the moon appears semicircular in shape.
Answer:

• On the first and third quarter days, the moon, the earth and the sun make an angle of 90°
• At these positions, we see half the portion of an illuminated moon.
• Hence, in the sky, the moon appears semi-circular in shape.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
What precautions should we take while observing a solar eclipse?
Answer:
The precautions to be taken while observing a solar eclipse are:

• We should not observe a solar eclipse with naked eyes as the intense light of the sun can harm them.
• We must use dark glasses or goggles that are specially designed for viewing the solar eclipse.

Question 2.
What types of Solar eclipses will occur in perigee condition?
Answer:
Total and Partial solar eclipse will occur in perigee condition.
(i) Total solar eclipse :

• On a new moon day, the sun, the moon the earth are in a straight line & the shadow of the moon falls on the earth
• The area of dark shadow falls on the earth, the sun becomes completely invisible. This condition is known as total solar eclipse.

(ii) Partial solar eclipse:

• However during the same period at places where the shadow is lighter, the sun disc appears partially covered,
• This condition is described as partial solar eclipse.

Question 3.
How are lunar eclipses formed?
Answer:
(i) A lunar eclipse occurs when the moon enters the shadow of the earth while revolving around it.
(ii) On a full moon day if the sun, the earth & the moon, are in a straight line, the orbital path of the moon passes through the dark shadow of the earth.
(iii) If the moon is totally hidden within the shadow, a total lunar eclipse is seen & if only a part of the moon is in the shadow, a partial lunar eclipse is seen.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Characteristics of solar eclipse.
Answer:

• A solar eclipse occurs on a new moon day, but not on every new moon day.
• If and only if, the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same plane and fall in one line, the solar eclipses occur.
• The maximum duration of a total solar eclipse is 7 minutes and 20 seconds Question 40 seconds).

Question 2.
Characteristics of lunar eclipse.
Answer:

• A lunar eclipse occurs on a full moon day, but not on every full moon day.
• A lunar eclipse occurs if and only if the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same plane and fall in one line.
• The maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse is 107 minutes.

Question 3.
Occupation.
Answer:

• This is a typical event occurring in space.
• The moon revolves around the earth, while doing so, it obscures a star or a planet and that celestial body appears to hide behind the moon. This is called occultation.

Question 4.
What is a Transit?
Answer:

• If an inner planet like a Mercury or Venus comes in between the line of the earth and the sun, a transit occurs.
• At that time, a small dot appears to move across the sun’s disc.
• Transit is a type of solar eclipse.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Solar eclipse and Lunar eclipse :
Answer:

Solar eclipse	Lunar eclipse
(i) A solar eclipse occurs on a new moon day. (ii) If and only if the sun, the moon and the earth are in the same plane and fall in one line, the solar eclipse occurs. (iii) The maximum duration of total solar eclipse is 7 minutes and 20 seconds (440 seconds).	(i) A lunar eclipse occurs on a full moon day. (ii) A lunar eclipse occurs if and only if the sun, the earth and the moon are in the same plane and fall in one line. (iii) The maximum duration of a total lunar eclipse is 107 minutes.

Question 2.
Total Solar eclipse and Annular Solar eclipse.
Answer:

Total Solar eclipse	Annular Solar eclipse
(i) When the moon is between the sun and the earth all the three celestial objects are on the same plane and fall in one line.	(i) moon is in apogee position. This means it is farthest from the earth.
(ii) The central portion of the shadow of the moon is darker and the periphery is light.	(ii) A deep shadow of the moon is cast in space and does not reach the earth.
(iii) In the area of dark shadow on the earth, the sun becomes completely invisible. This condition is known as total solar eclipse	(iii) From a very small region of the earth, only an illuminated edge of the sun as a disc is seen in the form of a ring. This is called an annular eclipse.

Draw and label the diagrams:

Question 1.
Moon’s Positions:
Answer:

Question 2.
Angle between the planes of orbit.
Answer:

Question 3.
Consider the relative positions of the sun, the moon, and the earth on the new moon day and both the quarters. What will be the angle between the lines joining the earth and the moon as well as the earth and the sun? How many times will this angle be formed in a month?
Answer:
The angle between the lines joining the earth and the moon as well as the earth and the sun is 90°. This angle will be formed twice a month.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find the following words in the grid:

Question 1.
A sense of ‘we-feeling’ and empathy towards fellow citizens
Answer:
Fraternity.

Question 2.
A system in which sovereign power is in the hands of the people
Answer:
Democracy.

Question 3.
Introduction to the Constitution
Answer:
Preamble.

Question 4.
A system in which all religions are considered equal
Answer:
Secular

2. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What are the provisions in a secular Constitution?
Answer:

• In a Secular State, all religions are considered as equal.
• No religion is considered to be the state religion. The citizens are free to follow their own religion.
• The state cannot discriminate among citizens on the basis of religion.

Question 2.
What is meant by adult franchise?
Answer:

• Adult franchise means all citizens completing 18 years of age have the right to vote in the elections.
• This enables equal participation of citizens in the running of our country.

Question 3.
What right does economic justice ensure?
Answer:
Economic justice ensures our right to a source of livelihood so as to look after oneself and one’s family.

Question 4.
How will human dignity be established in a society?
Answer:
When every individual respects another and honours their freedom and rights, dignity of the individual will be established.

3. How should we make use of our freedom ? Write your views about it.
Answer:

• Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru has rightly said. ‘We have to assume the responsibility ourselves of what we do’.
• Freedom must be exercised with care, with a sense of responsibility.
• Our freedom and independence which we gained after innumerable sacrificies must be safeguarded.
• We should use the different freedoms endowed on us by our Constitution to bring out the best in us and build a better nation, a better world
• The future lies in our hands.

4. Explain the following concepts.

Question 1.
Socialist State
Answer:

• A Socialist State is such a State where the gap between the rich and the poor is minimum.
• All have a right over the wealth of the country.
• It is ensured that wealth is not concentrated in the hands of a few people.

Question 2.
Equality
Answer:
(i) The Preamble guarantees the Indian citizens equality of status and there will be no discrimination based on caste, creed, race, sex, place of birth, etc.

(ii) The guarantee of equality means that there should be no discrimination between people in terms of high-low, superior-inferior.

Question 3.
Sovereign State
Answer:
The word sovereign means that a state is not under the control of a foreign power. The most important goal of our freedom struggle was to acquire sovereignty. ‘Sovereignty’ means the ultimate authority to govern oneself. In a democracy, sovereignty rests with the people

Question 4.
Equality of opportunity.
Answer:
Equality means the state of being equal in status, rights or opportunities. Equality of status, and of opportunity means that all have equal human status and there will be no discrimination based on caste, creed, race, sex, place of birth, etc. All will get the opportunities for development without any discrimination.

5. Make a list of the key words in the Preamble. Look for their meanings in a dictionary. Prepare a chart in the following way:

Answer:

Activities:

1. Visit your Tehsil office with your teacher to understand how a vote is cast and how the electronic voting machine works.
2. Make a list of newspapers available in your locality.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution InText Questions and Answers

Answer the following concepts:

Question 1.
Liberty
Answer:
(i) Liberty implies that there should be no coercive, unfair restrictions upon us and that ’ there should be an atmosphere conducive to the development of our inherent capacities.

(ii) In a democracy, citizens enjoy liberty. In fact, democracy becomes mature only if the citizens enjoy freedom.

Discuss:

Question 1.
Some statements regarding freedom have been given below for discussion. Express your views.
(a) While publicly celebrating our festivals, we need to follow some rules. That does not restrict our freedom,
(b) Freedom means behaving in a responsible way, not as per our whims and fancies.
Answer:
Yes, With freedom comes responsibilities. Rules should be followed while exercising freedom for a smooth life and to ensure that we work towards responsible citizenship.

Question 2.
Read what Deepa has written on the topic: “My Family’.
Answer:
Democracy does not only imply elections. My parents do all the household work together. We also participate in it. We ensure that we talk cordially with each other. Even if we happen to fight, we try to listen to each others views by stopping the fight as soon as possible. If any change has to be made, even the grandparents are consulted. Anuja wants to take up agricultural research as her career. Her decision was appreciated by everybody.

Question 3.
Do you think that Deepa’s house functions in a democratic way? Which features of democracy can be found in this passage.
Answer:
Yes. They function in a democratic way and the features of democracy displayed here are:

• Carrying out responsibilities collectively as a unit.
• Mutual respect.
• Honouring opinions which are not in line with our views.
• Consensus in decision making.
• Freedom of thought and expression.
• Freedom of occupation.

Activities:

Question 1.
Visit your Tehsil office with your teacher to understand how a vote is cast and how the electronic voting ntachine (EVM) works.
Answer:
The voting machines used in India are a combination of two components. First component is called the Balloting unit on which the voters press the button. The other part is called the Control unit. This unit gives supervising power to the polling officer stationed at the poll booth.

The two units are connected by a five-meter cable. The voter places his /her vote on the Balloting unit which is placed inside the Voting compartment.

An EVM runs on 6-volt batteries to eliminate the need of any external power source. It is designed to record 64 candidate names and 3,840 votes at the max. The 64 candidate names can be split across (a maximum of) 4 balloting units connected in parallel, with 16 candidate names on each of the unit.

Question 2.
Make a list of newspapers available in your locality.
Answer:

English News Papers:

• The Times of India
• Economic Times
• Financial Express
• Indian Express
• Mumbai Mirror
• Mid-day
• DNA (Daily News and Analysis)
• Business- Standard
• Hindustan Times
• Free Press Journal

Hindi News Papers (Including Urdu Daily):

• Hindi Mid-Day
• Tehalka News
• Navbharat Times
• Humara Mahanagar
• Aaj Ka Anand
• YashoBhoomi
• Dopahar
• Saamna
• Hindmata
• Mumbai Sandhya

Marathi News Papers:

• Loksatta
• Maharashtra Times
• Navshakti
• Navakal
• Vartahar
• Saamna (saamana)
• Sakai
• Sandesh
• Lokmat
• Divyabhaskar
• Mumbai Mitra
• Sandhyanand
• Punya Nagri
• Samrat

Class 7 Civics Chapter 2 Preamble to the Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The _______ to the Indian Constitution is called the ‘Preamble’. (Preface, Preview, Annexure)
Answer:
Preface

Question 2.
The Preamble sets out the ______ of our Constitution. (declaration, objectives, theme of the Articles)
Answer:
objectives

Question 3.
It talks about the resolve of the Indians to constitute India into a ‘Sovereign, Socialist, _______ Democratic Republic’. (Theocratic, Autocratic, Secular)
Answer:
Secular

Question 4.
Our country became independent on _______. (15th August 1947, 26th January 1950, 26th November 1949)
Answer:
15th August 1947

Question 5.
The word _______ means that a state is not under the control of a foreign power. (Sovereign, Secular, Socialist)
Answer:
Sovereign

Question 6.
A Socialist State is such a State where the gap between the rich and the poor ______. (is maximum, is minimum, does not exist)
Answer:
is minimum

Question 7.
In _________ State, all religions are considered equal and no religion is considered as a State religion. (secular, socialist, sovereign)
Answer:
secular

Question 8.
In a _______ the sovereign power is in thehands of the people. (democracy, autocracy, monarchy)
Answer:
democracy

Question 9.
Elections are conducted in India after a fixed period when voters elect their ______. (President, Vice-president, Representatives)
Answer:
Representatives

Question 10.
The Parliament or Legislature and the Executive take decisions for the entire population as per the procedure laid down by the ______.(High Court, Supreme Court, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 11.
________ implies removal of injustice and ensuring that everybody has the opportunity for progress. (Liberty, Justice, Equality)
Answer:
Justice

Question 12.
________ ensures that as human beings all have the right to the same dignity and respect, the same status. (Political justice, Social justice, Economic justice)
Answer:
Social justice

Question 13.
Since we have adopted universal adult franchise, all citizens completing ________ years of age have the right to vote in the elections. (18, 20, 21)
Answer:
18

Question 14.
The liberty of belief, faith and worship implies ______ freedom. (economic, social, religious)
Answer:
religious

Question 15.
_____ implies a ‘we-feeling’ towards one another. (Fraternity, Empathy, Sympathy)
Answer:
Fraternity

Question 16.
________ implies equal respect to each (Human Rights, Equality, Dignity)
Answer:
Equality

Match the following:

Question 1.

(1) Sovereignty (2) Socialist State (3) Secular (4) Democratic

(a) Equal right over the wealth of the country. (b) No discrimination on the basis of religion. (c) Sovereign power is in the hands of the people. (d) Public positions elected by the people. (e) Ultimate authority to govern ownself.

Answer:
1 – e
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c

Name the following:

Question 1.
The fundamental and the highest law of the land which is an important document clarifying the rules of the administration.
Answer:
Constitution.

Question 2.
A systematic arrangement of all the aims and objectives of a law which is the preface to the Constitution.
Answer:
Preamble

Question 3.
The words with which the Preamble begins,
Answer:
’We, the people of India’.

Question 4.
The word that means that a State is not under the control of a foreign power.
Answer:
Sovereign

Question 5.
A state where the gap between the rich and poor is minimum.
Answer:
Socialist.

Question 6.
A state wherein all religions are considered equal.
Answer:
Secular state.

Question 7.
In this form of governance, the sovereign power is in the hands of the people.
Answer:
Democracy.

Question 8.
Institutions in India created by our Constitution.
Answer:

• Parliament
• Legislature
• Executive.

Question 9.
In this form of government, all positions are elected by the people and no public position is occupied on the basis of hereditary succession.
Answer:
Republic.

Question 10.
Three types of Justice talked of in the Constitution.
Answer:
Social Justice, Economic Justice, Political Justice.

Question 11.
This implies that there should be no coercive, unfair restrictions upon us and that there should be an atmosphere conducive to the development of our inherent capacities.
Answer:
Liberty

Question 12.
The most fundamental freedom of an individual.
Answer:
Freedom of Thought and Expression.

Question 13.
The liberty of belief, faith and worship implies this value.
Answer:
Religious freedom.

Question 14.
The goal which is included in the Constitution which implies a ‘we-feeling ‘ and feeling of empathy.
Answer:
Fraternity.

State whether the following statements are true or false with reason:

Question 1.
The Preamble begins with the mention that the people of India have given the Constitution to themselves.
Answer:
False : The Preamble begins with the words ‘We, the People of India’.

Question 2.
In a democracy, the sovereign power is in the hands of the people.
Answer:
True: Democracy is the Government of the people, by the people and for the people.

Question 3.
In a democracy, citizens enjoy liberty.
Answer:
True : In fact democracy becomes mature only if citizens enjoy liberty.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
The Preamble guarantees the Indian citizens equality of status and of opportunity. Explain.
Answer:

• It means that all have equal human status and there will be no discrimination based on caste, creed, race, sex, place of birth, high or low status or superior-inferior.
• The Preamble has given great importance to equality of opportunity as well.
• Each one gets the opportunities for development without discrimination.

Answer the following concepts:

Question 1.
Constitution and Preamble
Answer:

• Our Constitution is the fundamental and the highest law of the land.
• There are definite aims or purposes in making any law.
• Basic provisions in the law are made, after clarifying these objectives.
• A systematic arrangement of all the aims and objectives of a law is the Preface to the law.
• The Preface to the Indian Constitution is called the ‘Preamble’. The Preamble sets out the objectives of our Constitution.

Question 2.
Republic and how is it different from Monarchy.
Answer:

• Along with being a democracy, we are a Republic. All public positions in a Republic are elected by the people.
• No public position is occupied on the basis of hereditary succession.
• The position like the President, the Prime Minister, the Governor, the Chief Minister, the , Mayor, the Sarpanch, etc. are public positions.
• Any Indian citizen fulfilling the prescribed age criterion can get himself/herself elected to any of these positions.

Question 3.
Fraternity
Answer:

• Fraternity implies a ‘we-feeling’ towards one another.
• It creates a feeling of empathy.
• People become more understanding towards each other’s problems and needs.

Explain the terms:

Question 1.
Justice
Answer:

• Justice implies removal of injustice and ensuring that everybody has the opportunity for progress.
• Establishing justice is adopting such policies that will promote public good.

Question 2.
Social Justice
Answer:

• There should be no discrimination among individuals on the basis of caste, creed, race, language, region, place of birth or sex.
• As human beings, all have the right to the same dignity and respect, the same status.

Question 3.
Economic Justice
Answer:

• Poverty leads to the evils of hunger, hunger -deaths or malnourishment.
• If poverty is to be eradicated, everyone should have the right to a source of livelihood so as to look after oneself and one’s family.
• Our Constitution has given this right to every citizen without any discrimination.

Question 4.
Political Justice
Answer:

• We have adopted universal adult franchise to enable equal participation in the running of the country.
• Accordingly, all citizens completing 18 years of age have the right to vote in elections.

Give reason:

Question 1.
India is a sovereign state.
Answer:

• India was ruled by Britain for a long period.
• The British rule ended on 15th August, 1947. Our country became independent and India became sovereign i.e a state not under the control of a foreign power.

Question 2.
India is a secular state.
Answer:

• In India, all religions are considered as equal.
• No one religion is considered to be a state religion. The citizens are free to follow their own religion. So, India is a secular state.

Question 3.
Freedom of thought and expression is the most fundamental freedom for an individual.
Answer:

• Freedom of thought and expression is the most fundamental freedom for an individual.
• Everyone is free to express their own views and opinions. A give-and-take of ideas enhances the spirit of cooperation and unity amongst us.
• Similarly, it also enables us to understand the various dimensions of any problem.

Question 4.
Promotions of fraternity has been included in the Preamble as a goal.
Answer:

• The makers of the Constitution believed that merely guaranteeing justice, freedom and equality would not lead to establishing equality in Indian society.
• No amount of laws would help us achieve these goals if fraternity is lacking among Indians.
• Hence the promotion of fraternity has been included in the Preamble as a goal.

Question 5.
Fraternity is closely related with human dignity.
Answer:

• Human dignity implies equal respect to each individual as a human being. .
• It does not depend upon the criteria of caste, creed, race, sex, language, etc.
• Just as we would like to be treated with dignity and respect by others, we should treat others with the same dignity and respect.
• When every individual respects another and honours their freedom and rights, dignity of the individual will get established.
• This will also develop fraternity, a ‘we-feeling’ towards one another.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 7 Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Provisions in the Constitution
Answer:
It is the basic or fundamental law that is stated directly in the Constitution. Therefore, the rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land. The government is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 2.
Constitution Day
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November, 1949. Therefore, 26th November is observed as ‘Constitution Day’ in India.

2. Discuss:

Question 1.
A Constituent Assembly was established.
Answer:
(i) The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in 1946.

(ii) The leaders of the freedom movement insisted that independent India will be governed not by the laws made by the British, but by laws made by Indians themselves.

(iii) A Committee was established to prepare the Constitution of Independent India and it came to be known as Constituent Assembly.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.
Answer:
(i) The draft of the Constitution was prepared by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and presented to the Constituent Assembly after an in-depth contemplation and study of the Constitution of different countries of the world.

(ii) It was discussed Article by Article. Many amendments were suggested by different members.

(iii) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar would present the draft, answer the various questions raised on them and make changes in the draft as per the suggestions of the Constituent Assembly in order to make every provision of the Constitution flawless.

(iv) Due to his contribution towards the making of the Constitution, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ‘Architect of the Indian Constitution’.

Question 3.
What is included in the administration of a country?
Answer:
(i) The Government has to make laws relating to several subjects such as defending the boundaries, protecting the people from external aggression, eradication of poverty, creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries, protection of the weaker sections, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people, etc.

(ii) In short, governments in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is included in the administration of a country

3. Choose the right option:

Question 1.
The Constitution of this country is primarily unwritten
(a) America
(b) India
(c) England
(d) None of these
Answer:
England

Question 2.
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly
(a) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Durgabai Deshmukh
(d) B.B. Rai
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 3.
Who among these was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Moulana Azad I
(c) RajkumariAmritKaur
(d) Hansaben Mehta I
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(d) J.B. Kripalani
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

4. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
On what subjects does the Government have to make laws?
Answer:
Government has to make laws relating to several subjects:

• Defending the boundaries.
• Protecting the people from external aggression.
• Eradication of poverty.
• Creating employment, education and health services, encouragement to commerce and industries.
• Protection of the weaker section, making policies for the progress of women, children and the tribal people.

Question 2.
Why do we celebrate 26th January as Republic Day?
Answer:

• Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.
• The Indian Republic came into existence from this day.
• Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of running the government as per the provisions of the Constitution?
Answer:
There are several advantages of governing a country with the help of rules or provisions included in a Constitution:

(i) The Government has to function within a set of rules. This reduces the possibility of the misuse of the power and authority they have been given.

(ii) A Constitution includes the rights and freedom of the citizens. The Government cannot take away these rights. Therefore, people’s rights and freedoms are safeguarded.

(iii) Running a country as per the provisions of the Constitution is the same as establishing the rule of law, so there is no scope for the misuse of power or high-handed administration.

(iv) If a country is run as per the Constitution, the faith that the common people have in the government increases. They then become more keen on participating in the activities of the government. Democracy is strengthened due to the increased participation of the people.

(v) The Constitution presents some political ideals before the country. The nation is also bound to act in that direction. It creates an atmosphere conducive to attain world peace and security, and preservation of human rights.

(vi) Since the Constitution also includes the list of citizens’ duties, it fixes the responsibility of the citizens as well.

Activities

1. Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the Constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
2. Prepare a report on how you celebrated Constitution Day in your school.
3. Make a collection of the photos of the members of the Constituent Assembly.

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution InText Questions and Answers

In-text questions.

Question 1.
Do you wish to ask the questions that puzzled Sameer and Vandana?
Answer:
Yes, I wish to ask such questions.

Question 2.
Where can we find all the rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out?
Answer:
The rules according to which the administration of the country is carried out are found mentioned in a country’s constitution.

Question 3.
Who makes those rules?
Answer:
These rules are made by the Constituent Assembly which consist of the representatives of the states and provinces and the leaders of that country.

Question 4.
Is it binding on us to follow them?
Answer:
Yes. All the rules mentioned in the Constitution are binding on every citizen of the country.

Let’s find out:

Find out some information about the Constitution of any one country of your choice with the help of the following points.

Question 1.
Name of the country
Answer:
India

Question 2.
Year of the making of the Constitution:
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly enacted the Constitution and adopted it on 26th November 1949. However the country began to be actually governed according to the provisions of the Constitution only from 26th January 1950.

Question 3.
Two features of the Constitution:
Answer:
(a) The lengthiest Constitution in the world: The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest and the most detailed of all the written Constitutions of the world containing 449 articles in 25 parts, 12 schedules, 5 appendices and 101 Amendments.

(b) Parliamentary form of Government: The constitution of India establishes a parliamentary form of a government both at the Centre and the State. The essence of the parliamentary government is its responsibility to the Legislature. The President is the constitutional head of the State but the real executive power is vested in the council of ministers whose head is the Prime Minister.

Activity:

Question 1.
Several committees were established for the effective functioning of the constituent Assembly. Find out more information about them and discuss the role of different committees.
Answer:

1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure: Rajendra Prasad
2. Steering Committee : Rajendra Prasad
3. Finance and Staff Committee: Rajendra Prasad
4. Credential Committee: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
5. House Committee: B. Pratibha Sitaramayya
6. Order of Business Committee: K.M. Munsi
7. Adhoc Committee on the National Flag: Rajendra Prasad
8. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent Assembly: G.V. Mavalankar
9. States Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
10. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas:Vallabhbhai Patel
11. Minorities Sub-Committee: H. C. Mookherjee
12. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee: J. B. Kripalani
13. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Excluded & Partially Excluded Areas Sub¬Committee: Gopinath Bardoloi
14. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than those in Assam) Sub-Committee: A.V. Thakkar
15. Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
16. Union Constitution Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
17. Drafting Committee: B.R. Ambedkar

Class 7 Civics Chapter 1 Introduction to Our Constitution Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The administration of our village or city is carried out in accordance with _______. (will of the majority, rules, orders of the Collector)
Answer:
rules

Question 2.
The book in which all the provisions regarding the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systematic way is called a ______ . (Law book, Guide, Constitution)
Answer:
Constitution

Question 3.
Democracy is _____ due to increased participation of the people. (strengthened, maintained, weakened)
Answer:
strengthened

Question 4.
The process of the making of the Indian Constitution started in the year _____. (1952,1947,1946)
Answer:
1946

Question 5.
A committee which was established to prepare the Constitution of independent India was the _______ (Drafting Committee, StandingCommittee, Constituent Assembly)
Answer:
Constituent Assembly

Question 6.
There were a total of ______ members in the Constituent Assembly. (298, 299, 289)
Answer:
299

Question 7.
_____ was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee. (Durgabai Deshmukh, J.B. Kripalani, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar)
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar

Question 8.
Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar is called the ______ of the Indian Constitution’. (Architect, Visionary, Inspiration)
Answer:
Architect

Question 11
_____is observed as ‘Constitution Day’. (26th November, 26th January, 15th August)
Answer:
26th November

Question 10.
26th January is celebrated as ______ Day. (Independence, Republic, Constitution)
Answer:
Republic

Question 11.
Our Constitution is a/an _________ document of the provision related to the administration of the country. (written, oral, inspirational)
Answer:
written

Match the following:

Question 1.

(1) 15th August	(a) Constitution Day
(2) 26th November	(b) Republic Day
(3) 26th January	(c) Independence Day
(4) 26th January 1950	(d) Country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – b
4 – d

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we follow norms and rules?
Answer:
We follow norms and rules in order that the activities in the family, our school, our village or city are carried out smoothly.

Question 2.
How is the administration of our country carried out?
Answer:
The administration of our country is carried out through a system of rules.

Question 3.
Explain the term ‘Constitution’.
Answer:
The book in which all the provisions related to the administration of the country are mentioned together in a systemic way is called Constitution.

Question 4.
What are the basic or fundamental law of the land?
Answer:
The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.

Question 5.
How were decisions made in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion.

Question 6.
What is governance?
Answer:
Government in modem times have to take decisions related to different issues right from space research to public cleanliness. This is governance.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Name the well-known members of the constituent assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, Sarojini Naidu, J. B. Kriplani, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, Durgabai Deshmukh, Hansaben Mehta and others.

Question 2.
The President of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 3.
The States in pre-independence period where the local princes carried out the administration.
Answer:
Princely states.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
We celebrate 26th January as Republic Day.
Answer:
(i) Our country began to be governed according to the provisions of the Constitution from 26th January, 1950.

(ii) The Indian Republic came into existence from this day. Therefore, 26th January is celebrated as Republic Day.

Question 2.
Nature of the Constitutions of different countries is different.
Answer:

• There are differences of history, social structures, culture, traditions, etc., between the countries.
• Similarly, their needs and objectives also might be different.
• Each country tries to create a Constitution that is not only suited to its needs and objectives, but also is in tune with its distinct nature.

Explain in detail:

Question 1.
If the government does not follow the Constitution while making laws, the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional. Explain.
Answer:

• The Government is established by the representatives elected by the people.
• It is bound to carry out the administration of the country as per the provisions of the Constitution.
• The rules and provisions in the Constitution are the basic or fundamental law of the land.
• While making laws, the government is bound to follow the Constitution.
• If it does not do so, then the Judiciary can declare those laws null and void or unconstitutional.

Question 2.
How long did it take to write the Constitution?
OR
Why is it the lengthiest Constitution in the world?
Answer:
(i) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to ! complete the writing of the Constitution.

(ii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules in the original Constitution, thus making it the lengthiest Constitution in the world.

Question 3.
Write about the wide range of issues in the Constitution which were contributed by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s contribution was in a wide range of issues like water conservation, foreign policy, national security, journalism, economics, social justice, etc.

Question 4.
We are proud of our Constitution.
Answer:
(i) Decisions in the Constituent Assembly were made on the basis of debate and discussion. A respect for opposing view points and the acceptance of the appropriate suggestions were a characteristic of the working of the Constituent Assembly.

(ii) It took 2 years, 11 months and 17 days to complete the writing of the Constitution.

(iii) There were 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 schedules in the original Constitution

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Agriculture Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Agriculture

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
In which of the following type of farming
are the crops rotated?
(a) Intensive.
(c) Commercial.
(b) Plantation.
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Intensive.

Question 2.
Agriculture requires the following:
(a) Only ploughing
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.
(c) Use of only manpower.
(d) Just cultivate the crop.
Answer:
(b) Use of animals, implements, machines and manpower.

Question 3.
In India, agriculture has developed because…
(a) There are two seasons of agriculture in India.
(b) Majority of the people depend on agriculture.
(c) Traditional agriculture is practised in India.
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.
Answer:
(d) In India factors like climate, soils, water, etc. are conducive.

Question 4.
It is necessary that modern methods and technology be used in agriculture in India because…
(a) There are factories producing improved seeds.
(b) There are industries producing fertilizers
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.
(d) Modern means and machines are available.
Answer:
(c) Population is growing and there are agro-based industries.

2. Give short answers for the following questions:

Question 1.
Describe the importance of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:
(i) Irrigation means the process of supplying of water through artificial means such as pipes, canals, sprinklers, etc.
(ii) Irrigation helps the farmers to be less dependent on rain water for the purpose of agriculture.
(iii) Since monsoons are uncertain & highly variable, farming cannot entirely depend upon rains
(iv) Hence irrigation is needed to grow assured crops & also to grow crops in the months after the monsoon season.

Question 2.
Distinguish between intensive farming & shifting cultivation.
Answer:

intensive farming	Shifting Cultivation
(i) Intensive farming is carried out in one and the same farm for years together. (ii) This type of farming is mostly seen in the developing regions. (iii) In this type of farming the cultivator and his family are totally dependent on farming. Farm production is sufficient only for the requirement of the family.	(i) In shifting Cultivation, every year a new area is chosen for cultivation. (ii) This type of cultivation is practised in the tropics in densely forested areas or hilly tracts. (iii) The production obtained from shifting cultivation is not sufficient to fulfill the food requirement. So people undertake hunting, fishing and gathering of bulbs and roots from forest.

Question 3.
Mention the major types of farming and give information about intensive farming and extensive grain farming?
Answer:
Broadly the following types of farming are identified

Intensive farming:

• Intensive farming is a type of traditional farming. It is carried out in one and the same farm for years together.
• Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of Intensive farming.
• Due to large population or limited availability of land, per head holding is small.
• This type of farming is mostly seen in developing region.
• The cultivator and his family are totally dependent on farming. The farm production is sufficient only for the requirements of the cultivators family.
• As farm production is low hence the economic condition of the cultivator is also poor.

Extensive farming:

• Extensive grain farming is a type of commercial farming.
• Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
• Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Helicopters or planes are used for spraying pesticides.
• Mono crop cultivation is the main characteristic.
• Crops like wheat, corn, barley, oats, soyabean are cultivated.
• Heavy capital investment is necessary. Since huge expenditures are needed for purchase of machinery, fertilisers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• Droughts, attack by pests, locusts, market fluctuation, etc. are the problems in extensive grain farming.
• This type of farming is carried out in the temperate grassland regions.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of plantation farming.
Answer:
(i) Plantation farming is a type of commercial farming.
(ii) Farm size is 40 hectares or above.
(iii) As plantation agriculture is practised in hilly tracts of tropical regions, use of machines are not possible hence local manpower is used.
(iv) This is a single crop cultivation practice.
(v) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, coconut, cocoa, spices, etc. are planted.
(vi) This type of farming requires large scale capital investment.
(vii) Major issues faced are climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems.
(viii) Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America.

Question 5.
Which are the crops cultivated in your area? What are the geographical reasons for that?
Answer:
(i) I live in the konkan region of the state of Maharashtra
(ii) The main crops cultivated in our area are mangoes, rice, coconut, cashew, etc.
(iii) Konkan region has hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall which favours the growth of these crops.
(iv) This region has fertile laterite soil which is suitable for cultivation of fruits.

Question 6.
Why is the agriculture in India seasonal in nature? What are the difficulties for perennial agriculture?
Answer:
(i) Most of the agriculture in India is dependent on monsoon rainfall. 80% of the rainfall in India is received from south west monsoon winds from June to September.
(ii) Since monsoon in India is seasonal; agriculture in India is also seasonal in nature.
Difficulties for perennial agriculture
(i) Rainfall in India is highly irregular & uncertain. Also there is lack of irrigation facilities.
(ii) There is lack of capital investment, godowns, transportation, etc.
(iii) There is lack of awareness with respect to scientific methods of crop cultivation.

Activity:

Visit a farm where modern technology is used for agriculture. Collect information about it.

Use of ICT

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of improved seeds and means of irrigation from the internet.
Question 2.
Collect information regarding agricultural in Israel from the internet. and present it.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?
Observe the picture and briefly describe the type of agriculture shown.

Question 1.

Answer:
(a) For the growth of fruits a large number of similar trees are grown in a vast area. Such land areas are called farms or orchards, for e.g. mango, coconut.
(b) In this type of farming modern as well as traditional methods are used.
(c) Use of irrigation, chemical fertilizers, green houses, etc. is being made for getting more profit.

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) One single crop is grown in a large area.
(b) The use of man power is less, whereas most of the farmwork is done with the help of machines like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc.
(c) Heavy capital investment is necessary for this type of farming.

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) One single tree crop is grown on a large scale.
(b) Only commercial crops like tea, rubber, coffee, cocoa, coconut, spices, etc. are planted.
(c) It requires lot of capital investment due to the long duration of crops, use of scientific methods, exportable production, processing,

Question 4.

Answer:
(a) Crops are grown on small farm lands with the help of bovine (animal) and human resources.
(b) The profits earned are very low despite intensive care taken.
(c) The crops that are grown are used for home consumption and the excess, if any, is sold in the local market.

Observe the picture and answer:

Question 1.
What all do you see in the picture?
Answer:
A farmer’s house, a farmer keeps cows, hens, sheep, goats and cattle, a standing crop, a plough share, farmers wife grazing the cattle.

Question 2.
Why has the family kept goats and hens?
Answer:
Farmer gets milk from goats and eggs from the hens.

Question 3.
Which implements are seen in the picture?
Answer:
The spade and plough are seen in the picture

Question 4.
How are these implements used?
Answer:
Spade is a hand tool used to dig or loosen ground or break lumps in the soil. A plough is used for ploughing the fields. Ploughing turns organic matter into soil to increase decomposition and add nutrients from organic matter to the soil.

Question 5.
In which major occupation type will the activities shown here be included?
Answer:
The activities shown in the picture mostly fall under the occupation of agriculture.

Question 6.
What could be the main occupation of these people?
Answer:
The main occupation of these people could be cultivation of crops.

Question 7.
Who could be the owner of the house?
Answer:
The farmer himself could be the owner of the house.

Question 8.
Which products shown in the above picture do you use?
Answer:
Milk and dairy products, eggs are used in our day to day lives.

Give it a try:

Observe the pictures and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What differences do you observe these pictures?
Answer:
In the pictures we can observe the changes in agricultural practices. It shows the transition from traditional to modern agriculture.
(a) Initially man cultivated crops using only manual labour. Later he started using various animals like bullocks to cultivate crops.
Today we use modern machines for various agricultural practices.

(b) Irrigation too has changed – from water allowed to flow freely in the field though pipes, man now uses modern methods like sprinkler & drip irrigation.

(c) Poultry farming is supplementary to cultivation of crops & is included in agriculture. Initially hens were reared in small numbers in open areas. But today hens are reared on a large scale. With use of modem techniques it leads to large scale production of eggs.

Question 2.
What changes have taken place in traditional agricultural practices?
Answer:
Traditionally agriculture was carried out using manual labour & bovine power. Today modem methods of agriculture include using machines tractors, harvests, fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, etc. for better yield of crop.

Irrigation is used for ample water supply throughout the year to maximize crop production. Modern, scientific techniques & use of hybrid seed, leads to more productivity of land, (more crop production in limited land area)

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which improper practices arising out of man’s greed are observed in agriculture.
Answer:
In order to produce the fruits and vegetables early and sell them quickly, man uses artificial chemical, which harms the soil & hampers the quality of production.

Question 2.
What means of irrigation are available in your area?
Answer:
(a) Drip and Sprinkler irrigation is used in many orchards across the konkan region of Maharashtra.
(b) Wells & tube wells are other methods used on large scale.

Question 3.
Have you observed the wastage of water in agriculture? If yes, describe it.
Answer:
There was a field in my native place. The farmer would water the field leaving the water pipe on the field. Lot of water would be wasted. But now the same farmer waters the field using sprinkler irrigation method. As a result there is no wastage of water, any more.

Question 4.
Which steps can easily be taken to avoid improper practices in agriculture?
Answer:
(a) System of Agricultural Produce Market committee should be established at taluka level and farmers should be encouraged to bring their produce and sell to the traders here

(b) As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale to avoid,wastage.

(c) Institutes like farmer’s organizations, consumer societies, etc. help and try to protect farmers from exploitation by agents, mediators and others.

(d) Farmers should not use artificial chemicals and pesticides.

Use your brainpower:

Question 1.
Why does extensive commercial farming need more capital?
Answer:
(a) Farm size is greater than 200 hectares.
(b) Due to large farm size and sparse population in the region, this type of farming is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
(c) Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
(d) Since huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc. So extensive commercial farming needs more capital.

Question 2.
Why does plantation farming need skilled and experienced labour?
Answer:
(a) Farm size in plantation farming is 40 hectares or above.
(b) Plantation farming is practised in hilly tracts, so use of machines is not possible.
Hence, plantation farming needs skilled and experienced labour.

Question 3.
In what different ways is ground water obtained for agriculture?
Answer:
(a) Ground water is the water that is found underground.
(b) When it rains, about 20% of the rain water seeps into the ground, forming a water table.
(c) A well as deep as the water table is dug, in order for it to pump water to the fields for agriculture.
(d) Now days use of tube wells have become popular too

Class 7 Geography Chapter 9 Agriculture Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the bracket:

Question 1.
Commercial dairy fanning is mainly undertaken for _________. (milk and fish, meat and milk, meat and poultry)
Answer:
meat and milk

Question 2.
Sheep rearing is carried out to obtain ________. (cotton, silk, wool)
Answer:
wool

Question 3.
In order to achieve the best growth of fish, ________ methods are employed. (pisciculture, scientific, electronic)
Answer:
scientific

Question 4.
Silk thread is obtained from the ______ of the silk moth. (cocoon, mulberry, skin)
Answer:
cocoon

Question 5.
Leaves of the ______ trees are the main food for the silk worms. (mulberry, pepal, coconut)
Answer:
mulberry

Question 6.
______ farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era. (Intensive, Subsistence, Modern)
Answer:
Greenhouse

Question 7.
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in ______ farming. (extensive, traditional, intensive)
Answer:
traditional

Question 8.
Shifting cultivation is a ________ type of cultivation, (primitive, extensive, intensive)
Answer:
primitive

Question 9.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of _______ gardening. (market, organic, plantation)
Answer:
market

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_______ is a new field of tourism.
Answer:
Agrotourism

Question 2.
Most of the farmers are ________ weak and cannot market their product on their own.
Answer:
economically

Question 3.
As farm produce is ______ there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.
Answer:
perishable

Question 4.
Some of the farm produce is directly used by industries as ______.
Answer:
raw material

Question 5.
_____ is a major exporter of fresh farm produce.
Answer:
Israel

Question 6.
International markets are now becoming easily available for farm produce due to _____.
Answer:
globalization

Question 7.
France and Italy are famous for ________.
Answer:
horticulture

Question 8.
____ is obtained from organic waste.
Answer:
Vermicompost

Select the proper option for the following statements:

Question 1.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for
(a) Subsistence farming
(b) Extensive grain farming
(c) Shifting cultivation
(d) Dairy farming
Answer:
(b) Extensive grain farming

Question 2.
Getting maximum production from a minimum area is the characteristic of
(a) Plantation farming
(b) Intensive farming
(c) Horticulture
(d) Extensive grain farming
Answer:
(b) Intensive farming

Complete the following sentence:

Question 1.
For our basic needs of food and clothing ______.
Answer:
we make use of plants and animals

Question 2.
In agricultural occupation, resources like _______.
Answer:
manpower, animals, implements, etc. are used

Question 3.
In the past primitive man had to wander in the forest to ______.
Answer:
sustain himself on the collected forest produce

Question 4.
Bees in order to collect honey, _______.
Answer:
hover around the plants that bear flowers

Question 5.
Silk thread is obtained from the _________.
Answer:
cocoon of the silk moth

Question 6.
Greenhouse farming facilitates _______.
Answer:
getting maximum product from the land

Question 7.
Greenhouse farming is ________.
Answer:
highly specialized type of farming of the modern era

Question 8.
Different types of agriculture has evolved due to _______.
Answer:
geographical and cultural diversity and technological differences in different regions

Question 9.
Intensive farming is carried out in ________.
Answer:
one and the same farm for years together

Question 10.
In shifting cultivation, ________.
Answer:
every year a new area is chosen for cultivation

Question 11.
The problems in extensive grain farming are ______.
Answer:
droughts, attacks by pests, locusts, etc. and also market fluctuation

Question 12.
Market gardening has developed mainly as a _______.
Answer:
result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres

Question 13.
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a ________.
Answer:
subtype of market gardening

Question 14.
As farm produce is perishable, _________.
Answer:
there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale

Question 15.
Most of the farmers are ______.
Answer:
economically weak and cannot market their production on their own.

Question 16.
By advertising on the internet, ______.
Answer:
the agricultural products get sold in local as well as international markets

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What do we depend on for our basic needs of food and clothing?
Answer:
For our basic needs of food and clothing, we make use of plants and animals.

Question 2.
What is considered to be the main and the most important occupation in agriculture?
Answer:
In agriculture, cultivation of crops is considered to be the main and the most important occupation.

Question 3.
Why had the primitive man to wander in the forest in the past?
Answer:
Primitive man had to wander in the forest to sustain himself on the collected forest produce.

Question 4.
What is the core of animal husbandry?
Answer:
Rearing different animals and obtaining various products from them for subsistence is the core of animal husbandry.

Question 5.
On what do sheep and goats survive?
Answer:
Sheep and goats survive on short grass, shrubs and acacia, grown in remote hilly areas away from urban settlements.

Question 6.
What do we obtain from Beekeeping occupation?
Answer:
We obtain honey and wax from Beekeeping.

Question 7.
What is Pisciculture?
Answer:
Pisciculture is also called fish farming in which fish seeds are released in the pond to achieve the best growth of fish.

Question 8.
Name the fish reared in fish farms.
Answer:
Warn, Roha, Rawas, Kolambi are reared in fish farms.

Question 9.
What is used to weave soft silk cloth?
Answer:
Fine and strong silk thread obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth are used to weave soft silk cloth.

Question 10.
Which is the highly specialized type of farming of the modem era?
Answer:
Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

Question 11.
Which are the two types in traditional farming?
Answer:
Intensive farming and shifting cultivation are the two types in traditional farming.

Question 12.
What is the characteristic of intensive farming?
Answer:
Getting maximum production from a minimum area of land is the characteristic of intensive farming.

Question 13.
Where is shifting cultivation practised?
Answer:
Shifting cultivation is practised in the tropics in densely forested areas or hilly tracts.

Question 14.
Name the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.
Answer:
Extensive grain farming and plantation agriculture are the two major types of farming covered under commercial farming.

Question 15.
What are the problems in extensive grain farming?
Answer:
The problems in extensive grain farming are droughts, attack by pests, locusts, etc. and market fluctuations.

Question 16.
What are the major issues faced by the plantation farming?
Answer:
Climate, manpower, deterioration of environment, economic and managerial problems are the major issues faced by the plantation farming.

Question 17.
Where is plantation farming practised?
Answer:
Plantation farming is practised in India and other South Asian countries, Africa, South and Central America, etc.

Question 18.
What is a subtype of market gardening?
Answer:
Cultivation of flowers and fruits is a subtype of market gardening.

Question 19.
What are the major products of horticulture?
Answer:
Major products of horticulture are flowers like lily, gerbera, tulip, dahlia, chrysanthemum, marigold, etc.

Question 20.
Name some native and exotic fruits cultivated in fruit farming.
Answer:
Different native and exotic fruits like mangoes, custard apples, grapes, bananas, pomegranates, dragon fruits, cherries, oranges, strawberries, raspberries, etc.

Question 21.
What is organic farming?
Answer:
When farming is done using all vestal matter mixed in the soil, it is called organic farming.

Question 22.
Why do city dwellers visit the rural areas?
Answer:
City dwellers are curious about the farmers life and environment so they visit the rural areas to see the rural life, local customs and culture.

Question 23.
Why are some fruits and vegetables harmful to health?
Answer:
Some fruits and vegetables may have been produced using artificial chemicals, and pesticides for quicker production. Such fruits and vegetables are harmful to health.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The system of Agricultural Produce Market Committees is established at the Taluka level.
Answer:

• Most of the farmers are economically weak.
• These farmers cannot market their production on their own.
• At these places, farmers bring their produce and sell to the traders.
• Hence, the system of Agricultural produce market committee is established at taluka level.

Question 2.
Poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.
Answer:

• Running a poultry on commercial basis requires a lot of care.
• For this scientific methods are employed.
• Areas in big cities provide a ready market for this occupation.
• Hence poultry occupation is generally located in big cities.

Question 3.
Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.
Answer:

• Beekeeping occupation is undertaken to obtain honey and wax.
• In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination .
• Pollination helps the trees to bear large number of fruits and increase the yield of crops. Hence, Bee keeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture.

Question 4.
Specific type of fish species are reared separately.
Answer:

• During fishing, different types of fish and other aquatic organisms get caught in the fishing nets.
• Separating them becomes a major task.
• All organisms do not fetch the same price. Due to the above factors specific type of fish species are reared separately.

Question 5.
The expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.
Answer:

• Leaves of mulberry trees are the main food for the silk worms.
• Once planted, the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Hence, the expenditure of planting mulberry trees every year is saved.

Question 6.
Last few years, has seen the development of nurseries.
Answer:

• In the last few years, the area under floriculture cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants and horticulture has increased.
• These plantations require a high standard of seedlings, cuttings, bulbs and seeds.
• Nurseries give good returns.
• This has led to the development of nurseries.

Question 7.
Heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain fanning.
Answer:

• Extensive grain farming Is carried out with the help of machines like tractors and crushers.
• Pesticides are sprayed with the help of helicopters or planes.
• Huge expenditures are needed for the purchase of machinery, fertilizers, pesticides, godowns, transport cost, etc.
• So heavy capital investment is necessary for extensive grain farming.

Question 8.
Market gardening is also known as truck farming.
Answer:

(i) Market gardening has developed as a result of urbanization and the ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables and other items in the vicinity of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) Market gardening is dependent on good transport network.

(iv) The quality and price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence, market gardening is also known as ‘truck farming’.

Question 9.
Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• In the tropics, various types of agricultural products are cultivated.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmer’s life and environment.
• Many of the city dwellers visit the rural areas to see this. So, Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer and his village.

Question 10.
In intensive farming the economic condition of the cultivator is poor.
Answer:

• Intensive farming is practised in areas of high population.
• Due to large population per head holding is small.
• Because of small land holding & traditional methods of cultivation farm production is sufficient only for the requirement of the family.
• As the farm production is low, the economic conditions of the cultivator is poor.

Question 11.
How do farmers grow their crops?
Answer:

• After deciding what to grow, farmers often till the land by loosening the soil.
• The soil is then mixed with fertilizers.
• Then they sow seeds or plant seedlings.
• When the crops are growing farmer must water the seed and kill crop pests.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Greenhouse farming:
Answer:
(i) Greenhouse farming is a highly specialized type of farming of the modem era.

(ii) For erecting a greenhouse galvanized iron pipes and plastic sheets are used. It can have total control on natural factors like climate, heat, atmospheric moisture as well as soil moisture.

(iii) Its main aim is to control pest attack by controlling water, light & temperature.

(iv) Green house farming facilitates getting maximum product from land. It assists in getting maximum economic benefit

(e) Greenhouses are used on large scale for growing flowers like lily & gerbera to igive maximum returns.

Question 2.
Market gardening:
Answer:
(i) Market gardening is a type of cultivation developed mainly as a result of urbanization & ready markets available in urban centres.

(ii) Farmers cultivate vegetables & other items in the vicinity1 of urban centres to cater to the demands of city dwellers.

(iii) The landholding is small. Use of irrigation, organic & chemical fertilizers, low investment, use of manpower, demand of markets, use of science & technology are the characteristics of market gardening.

(iv) It is dependent on good transport network. The quality & price of the product is determined by rapid transport. Hence this type of farming is also called truck farming.

Question 3.
Organic farming:
Answer:

(i) The nutrient requirements of the crops is fulfilled by soil & therefore replenishment of used up nutrients is necessary.

(ii) Nutrients are also used abundantly to increase the yield. Organic fertilizers are prepared for this purpose

(iii) The litter should be decomposed in the ground. Grass like resbania or jute are also buried in the soil for making manures Cowdung & compost manures are used. Vermicompost is obtained from organic waste.

(iv) When farming is done using all the vestal matter mixed in the soil it is called organic farming

(v) The crop obtained from organic farming is high in quality.

Question 4.
Agrotourism:
Answer:

• Agrotourism is a new field in tourism.
• Vicinity – the area near or surrounding a particular place.
• In the tropics various types of agricultural products are cultivated. Hence there is greater scope for agrotourism.
• In agrarian countries the rural life, local customs & culture are utilized for agrotourism.
• City dwellers are curious about the farmers’ life & environment and many of them visit rural areas just to see this.
• Agrotourism is financially beneficial for the farmer & his village.

Question 5.
Importance of marketing system in India:
Answer:
The following points explain the importance of marketing systems in countries like India:

• Agriculture in India is scattered over vast areas.
• All farmers are not organized.
• Most of the farmers are economically weak & cannot market their production on their own.
• As farm produce is perishable, there has to be a proper arrangement for its sale.

Question 6.
Beekeeping.
Answer:

• Beekeeping is an important occupation with respect to agriculture
• It is undertaken to obtain honey & wax. In order to collect honey, bees hover around the plants that bear flowers.
• This promotes the process of pollination.
• As a result, the trees bear large number of fruits & the crop yields increase.

Question 7.
Pisciculture or Fish farming:
Answer:

• Farm ponds are dug out for the purpose of pisciculture. Water is stored in such ponds.
• Fish seeds are released in the ponds. For this seeds of fresh water species are used.
• In order to achieve the best growth of fish, scientific methods are employed.

Question 8.
Give comparative account of any two methods of irrigation
Answer:
Well irrigation, canal irrigation, drip & sprinkler irrigation, tank irrigation etc. are various methods of irrigation. Wells & canals have been used for irrigation since ancient times.

Well irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, a well is dug in the ground from which ground water is taken out for irrigation,
• The area required for digging wells is less,
• It is a cheap, dependable & popular method of irrigation in India.

Canal irrigation:-

• In this type of irrigation, dams are constructed on rivers & water of the river is stored in the reservoir,
• The stored water is then supplied to fields with the help of canals,
• Canal irrigation requires vast area for construction of dam as well as constructing network of canals,
• Canal irrigation is dependable but costly method of irrigation.

Question 9.
Sericulture:
Answer:

• Rearing of silkworm in order to obtain silk is sericulture.
• Leaves of the mulberry trees are the main food for these silk worms.
• Once planted the mulberry trees survive for a minimum period of 15 years.
• Silk thread is obtained from the cocoon of the silk. These threads are very fine & strong. They are used to weave silk cloth.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name the following:

Question 1.
The Queen of Gondvana –
Answer:
Rani Durgavati

Question 2.
The son of Udaysingh –
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 3.
The founder of Mughal dynasty –
Answer:
Babur

Question 4.
The first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom–
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 5.
The fighting force established by Guru Gobindsingh –
Answer:
Khalsa Dal

2. Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Sultan Mahmud, Qutubuddin Aibak, Muhammad Ghuri, Babur
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud

Question 2.
Adilshahi, Nizamshahi, Sultanate,Baridshahi
Answer:
Sultanate

Question 3.
Akbar, Humayun, Shershah, Aurangzeb
Answer:
Shershah

3. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How did the kingdoms of Vijaynagar and Bahamani emerge?
Answer:
(i) During the reign of Sultan Muhammad Tughlaq of Delhi, there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
(ii) From these revolts arose the formidable Vijaynagar and Bahamani kingdoms.

Question 2.
What reforms did Mahmud Gawan make?
Answer:
(i) Mahmud Gawan strengthened the Bahamani kingdom.
(ii) He started paying the soldiers their salary in cash instead of through land grants.
(iii) He brought discipline in the army.
(iv) He introduced many reforms in the land revenue system. He opened a Madarsa at Bidar for Arabic and Persian studies.

Question 3.
Why did it become impossible for the Mughals to strengthen their base in Assam?
Answer:
(i) While Aurangzeb ruled, the Ahoms had a prolonged struggle with the Mughals.
(ii) The Mughals attacked the Ahoms’ region.
(iii) The Ahoms united under the leadership of Gadadharsinha. Commander Lachit Borphukan gave an intense battle against the Mughals.
(iv) The Ahoms used the guerilla technique in the conflict against the Mughals.
(v) It became impossible for Mughals to create a strong base in Assam.

4. Write about them briefly in your own words.

Question 1.
Krishnadevaraya
Answer:
(a) Krishnadevaraya, ascended the throne of Vijaynagar in 1509 CE. He conquered Vijaywada, Rajmahendri and annexed the regions to his kingdom.
(b) He successfully took on the armies of the Sultans who had united under the leadership of the Bahamani Sultan Mahmud Shah.
(c) During his reign the Vijaynagar kingdom extended far and wide.
(d) He built the Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple in Vijaynagar.
(e) A scholar he wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu compendium on polity.
(f) Decline of the Vijaynagar kingdom began with his death in the year 1530 CE.

Question 2.
Chandbibi was murdered.
Answer:
(a) Chandbibi, the capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadnagar, bravely defended the fort displaying courage and valour.
(b) At this time, there was an internal strife among the factions of the Sardars in Nizamshahi’s kingdom resulting in the murder of Chandbibi.

Question 3.
Rani Durgavati
Answer:
(a) Rani Durgavati, bom in the dynasty Chandel Rajput became the queen of Gondvana after her marriage.
(b) She was an excellent administrator. Her struggle against the Mughals is important in Medieval history.
(c) After her husband’s death, Durgavati laid down her life but refused to surrender while fighting against Akbar.

5. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Bahamani Kingdom disintegrated into five fragments.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Mahmud Gawan, factionsim increased among the Bahamani Sardars.
(b) The conflict with the Vijaynagar kingdom had an adverse effect on the Bahamani kingdom.
(c) The provincial Governors began to act more independently. This led to the disintegration of the Bahamani kingdom into five small power-Imadshahi of Varhad, Baridshahi of Bidar, Adilshahi of Bijapur, Nizamshahi of Ahmadnagar and Qutubshahi of Golconda.

Question 2.
Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.
Answer:
(a) After the battle of Panipat, Rana Sanga of Mewad brought all Rajput kings together.
(b) There was a battle between Babur and Rana Sanga at Khanua.
(c) Babur’s artillery and reserved force played a key role in this battle and Rana Sanga’s army was defeated.

Question 3.
Rana Pratap has become immortal in history.
Answer:
(a) After the death of Udaysingh, Maharana Pratap ascended the throne of Mewad.
(b) He continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
(c) Till the very end he struggled with Akbar to maintain his independence.
(d) He has become immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 4.
Aurangzeb imprisoned Guru Tegh Bahadur.
Answer:
(a) Guru Tegh Bahadur, protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
(b) Aurangzeb imprisoned him and beheaded him in 1675.

Question 5.
The Rajputs fought against the Mughals.
Answer:
(a) Akbar had secured the cooperation of the Rajputs with his policy of amicable relations.
(b) Aurangzeb could not obtain the cooperation of Rajputs. After the death of Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad, Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
(c) Durgadas Rathod crowned Jaswantsingh’s minor son of Ajitsingh of Marwad.
(d) Durgadas Rathod fought hard against the Mughals and continued his struggle against the Mughals for the existence of Marwad.

6. Complete the timeline.

Answer:

7. Using the internet, find out more about any one of the personalities you have studied here, and fill in the box below.

Activity

Obtain more information about the personalities mentioned in this chapter.Use reference books, the internet, newspapers, etc. Prepare a collage of the pictures information in your activity book and display it in the history cell.

Class 7 History Chapter 2 India before the Times of Shivaji Maharaj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentences by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
‘Pal’ in the ______ was a famous dynasty in Bengal. (seventh century, eight century, ninth century)
Answer:
eight century

Question 2.
Prithviraj Chauhan belonged to _______ dynasty. (Rajput dynasty, Chauhan dynasty, Chola dynasty)
Answer:
Chauhan dynasty

Question 3.
The _____ period is considered to be the golden period of Marathi language. (Yadava, Rashtrakuta, Chola)
Answer:
Yadava

Question 4.
In the eleventh Century CE, the _____ began to invade India and reached the north-western frontier of India. (Afghans, Mughals, Turks)
Answer:
Turks

Question 5.
______ was the last Sultan and he was defeated by Babur, bringing the Sultanate to an end. (Muhammad Ghuri, Bulban, Ibrahim Lodi)
Answer:
Ibrahim Lodi

Question 6.
Hampi in today’s ______ was the capital of the kingdom of Vijaynagar. (Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu)
Answer:
Karnataka

Question 7.
Krishnadevaraya wrote ‘Amuktamalyada’, a Telugu Compendium on _______. (polity, economics, sociology)
Answer:
polity

Question 8.
______ was the first Sultan of the Bahamani kingdom. (Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, Mahmud Gawan, Hasan Gangu)
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 9.
In ______ the Sultanate of Delhi came to an end. (1526 CE, 1556 CE, 1605 CE)
Answer:
1526 CE

Question 10.
_______ was the Governor of Punjab under the Sultanate. (Babur, Ibrahim Lodi, Daulatkhan Lodi)
Answer:
Daulatkhan Lodi

Question 11.
_______ was the most powerful king of the Mughal dynasty. (Shahajahan, Akbar, Jahangir)
Answer:
Akbar

Question 12.
The struggle of Gondvana queen Durgavati against Mughals is important in ______ history. (modern, medieval, ancient)
Answer:
medieval

Question 13.
______ became the emperor in 1658 CE. (Shahajahan, Aurangzeb, Akbar)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Question 14.
In the thirteenth century CE, the people of the Shaan community settled down in the valley of river ______. (Ganga, Brahmaputra, Yamuna)
Answer:
Brahmaputra

Question 15.
The ninth Guru of the Sikhs was ______.(Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 16.
______ organised the Sikh youths into a fighting force called Khalsa Dal. (Guru Gobind Singh, Guru Tegh Bahadur, Guru Nanak)
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh

Question 17.
Akbar had secured the co-operation of the ______ with his policy of amicable relations. (Rajputs, Marathas, Ahoms)
Answer:
Rajputs

Question 18.
In Maharashtra, the ______ Marathas offered stiff resistance to and defended their independence. (Babur, Humayun, Aurangzeb)
Answer:
Aurangzeb

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Imadshahi	(a) Bidar
(2) Baridshahi	(b) Ahmadnagar
(3) Adilshahi	(c) Golconda
(4) Nizamshahi	(d) Varhad
(5) Qutubshahi	(e) Bijapur

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Name the following:

Question 1.
Two important dynasties among the Rajput dynasties in North India.
Answer:
(a) The Gahadwal dynasty
(b) Parmar dynasty

Question 2.
Eminent rulers belonging to the Chola dynasty in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Rajaraj I
(b) Rajendra I

Question 3.
The king belonging to the Hoysala dynasty.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 4.
The King who conquered the whole of Karnataka.
Answer:
King Vishnuvardhan

Question 5.
The Varkari movement emerged in
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 6.
During his reign Rashtrakuta dynasty in Maharashtra the Rashtrakut power spread from Kanauj up to Rameshwar.
Answer:
Govind III

Question 7.
The last prosperous power before the period of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:
TheYadavas

Question 8.
The capital of Bhillam V of the Yadava dynasty which was near Aurangabad.
Answer:
Deogiri

Question 9.
The golden period of the Marathi Language.
Answer:
The Yadava period

Question 10.
The Arab General attacked the Sindh province in the eighth century.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Qasim

Question 11.
The power which began to invade India in eleventh century CE.
Answer:
The Turks

Question 12.
He invaded India many times and plundered the rich temples at Mathura, Vrindavan Kanauj and Somnath and carried away enormous wealth with him.
Answer:
Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni

Question 13.
In 1775 CE and 1178 CE, the Sultan of Ghur from Afghanistan who invaded India.
Answer:
Muhammad Ghuri

Question 14.
During his reign there were many revolts in the South against the central power of Delhi.
Answer:
Sultan Muhammad-bin-Tughluque

Question 15.
The brothers from South India who were Sardars in the service of Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:
(a) Harihar
(b) Bukka

Question 16.
The Hazar Ram temple and Vitthal temple were built in Vijaynagar during his reign.
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Question 17.
He defeated the army of the Sultan of Delhi.
Answer:
Hasan Gangu

Question 18.
The Chief Wazir of the Bahamani kingdom who started paying the soldiers their salaries in cash instead of giving land grants.
Answer:
Mahmud Gawan

Question 19.
The king of Farghana in Central Asia.
Answer:
Babur

Question 20.
After the battle of Panipat, he brought all Rajput kings together.
Answer:
Rana Sanga of Mewad

Question 21.
After ascending the throne of Mewad, he continued the struggle for Mewad’s existence.
Answer:
Maharana Pratap

Question 22.
The capable daughter of Husain Nizamshah of Ahmadn^gar who defended the fort of Ahmadnagar.
Answer:
Chandbibi

Question 23.
The Ahoms united under his leadership.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 24.
The commander who gave intense battle against the Mughals.
Answer:
Commander Lachit Borphukan

Question 25.
The ninth Guru of Sikhs who protested strongly against Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance.
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadur

Question 26.
There was an attempt on the life of Guru Gobind Singh in 1708 CE at this place.
Answer:
Nanded

Question 27.
After his death Aurangzeb annexed his kingdom to the Mughal empire.
Answer:
Rana Jaswantsingh of Marwad.

Question 28.
In Maharashtra, Swaraj was established under his leadership.
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj

Find out the odd man out:

Question 1.
Gadadharsinha, Rana Jaswantsingh, Durgadas Rathod, Ajit Singh.
Answer:
Gadadharsinha

Question 2.
Babur, Humayun, Krishnadevaraya, Jahangir
Answer:
Krishnadevaraya

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
Name the regions upto which the Gurjar- Pratihar power spread.
Answer:
The Gurjar-Pratihar power spread up to Andhra, Kalinga, Vidarbha, West Kathewad, Kanauj and Gujarat.

Question 2.
Which places did the Cholas conquer using their naval strength?
Answer:
The Cholas conquered the Maidive Islands and Sri Lanka using their naval strength.

Question 3.
In which period did the Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerge?
Answer:
The Mahanubhav Panth and the Varkari movement emerged in the Yadava period.

Question 4.
Why did the Arab rulers turn towards India?
Answer:
The Arab rulers turned towards India to expand their empire.

Question 5.
Write the extent of the kingdom of Vij aynagar during Krishnadevaraya’s reign?
Answer:
During Krishnadevaraya’s reign, the kingdom of Vijaynagar extended from Cuttack in the east up to Goa in the West and from the Raichur Doab in the North up to the Indian Ocean in the South.

Question 6.
Who opposed Akbar when he tried to bring India under his central authority?
Answer:
When Akbar tried to bring India under his central authority he had to face the opposition of Maharana Pratap, Chandbibi and Rani Durgavati.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Maharana Pratap made him immortal in history?
Answer:
Maharana Pratap became immortal in history due to his qualities of valour, courage, self-respect and sacrifice.

Question 8.
Which regions together formed the Gondvana?
Answer:
Gondvana can be broadly said to comprise the eastern part of Vidarbha, part of Madhya Pradesh to its North, the Western part of today’s Chhattisgarh, Northern part of Andhra Pradesh and Western part of Odisha.

Question 9.
How did the Marathas defend their independence?
Answer:
Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Babur invaded India.
Answer:
(a) The reigning Sultan of Delhi at that time was Ibrahim Lodi.
(b) Daulatkhan Lodi, was the governor of Punjab under the Sultanate.
(c) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi was strained.
(d) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march to India. Taking this opportunity, Babur invaded India.

Write briefly in your own words:

Question 1.
The First Battle of Panipat
Answer:
(a) Ibrahim Lodi was the Sultan of Delhi and Daulat Khan Lodi was the Governor of Punjab.
(b) The relationship between Ibrahim Lodi and Daulatkhan Lodi became strained.
(c) Daulatkhan Lodi invited Babur to march on India.
(d) Taking advantage of this opportunity, Babur invaded India.
(e) To repel Babur’s invasion Ibrahim Lodi started with his army.
(f) There was a battle between Ibrahim Lodi and Babur on 21st April 1526 at Panipat.
(g) Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi’s army. This is known as the First Battle of Panipat.

Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write in brief about the conflict of the Mughals with the Marathas.
Answer:
(i) In Maharashtra, Sivaraj was established under the leadership of Shivaji Maharaj.
(ii) In his efforts to establish Swaraj, Shivaji Maharaj had to fight the Mughals too along with the other enemies.
(iii) Aurangzeb came down to the Deccan after the death of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj with the intention of conquering the whole of South India.
(iv) But the Marathas offered stiff resistance to Aurangzeb and defended their independence.

Complete the following diagrams:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

S.No	Political Power	Founders / Rulers	Capital

Answer:

S.No	Political Power	Founders / Rulers	Capital
(1)	Yadava	Bhillam V	Deogiri
(2)	Vijaynagar	Harihar & Bukka	Hampi
(3)	Bahamani	Hasan Gangu	Gulbarga
(4)	Mughal	Babur	Delhi

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Part 1 Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 InText Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
How do day and nigbt occur on the earth?
Answer:
Day and night occur on the earth because of the earths rotation.

Question 2.
What term is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun?
Answer:
The term orbital motion is used to describe the earth’s revolution around the sun.

Question 3.
How long does the earth take to do so?
Answer:
The earth takes 365 days and 6 hours to complete one revolution.

Question 4.
In which hemispheres is our country located?
Answer:
Our country lies in the northeastern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Why don’t the sun’s rays fall perpendicularly at all places on the earth?
Answer:
The sun’s rays do not fall perpendicularly at all the places on the earth because the earth is not flat but spherical in shape.

2. Can you tell?

Records of the entries of sunrise and sunset for the month of June are given below. Answer the questions, that follow.

Date	Sunrise	Sunset	Day	Night	Source of Information
19th June	06.01	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
20th June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
21st June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
22nd June	06.02	19:18	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
23rd June	06.02	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
24th June	06.02	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
25th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
26th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 16 Min.	10 Hrs. 44 Min.	Time and date
27th June	06.03	19:19	13 Hrs. 15 Min.	10 Hrs. 45 Min.	Time and date
28th June	06.04	19:19	13 Hrs. 15 Min.	10 Hrs. 45 Min.	Time and date

Question 1.
Refer to the table above and state which are the longest days?
Answer:
The longest days are from 19th June to 26th June.

Question 2.
What difference do you notice in the duration of the nights from 19th June to 28th June?
Answer:
The duration of the nights keeps on increasing day by day.

Question 3.
What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
The sun is now moving southwards.

Question 4.
How did you find out the duration of the night?
Answer:
The duration of the day is subtracted from 24 hours to get the duration of the night.

Question 5.
Which two dates have days and nights of the same duration?
Answer:
March 22 and September 23 have the same duration of days and nights.

Question 6.
With the help of the table, you saw how the duration of the day and the night changes. Do you think such a change occurs everywhere on the earth?
Answer:
Yes, duration of day and night changes everywhere on the earth.

Question 7.
Use the above format to record the duration of daytime from 19th to 28th of every month from September to December.
Answer:
Students should expected to attempt the activity & answer on their own.

3. Think about it:

Question 1.
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, in which direction does the location of sunrise or sunset appear to shift?
Answer:
If the position of the shadow on the wall moves towards the north, the location of sunrise or sunset will shift southwards.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 1 How Seasons Occur Part 1 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
The earth’s _______ has enabled us to measure time in terms of days. (revolution, rotation, orbital motion)
Answer:
rotation

Question 2.
The earth rotates from _________ (north to south, east to west, west to east)
Answer:
west to east

Question 3.
The Earth takes _______ hours to rotate around itself. (365,144, 24)
Answer:
24

Question 4.
India lies in the ____ hemisphere. (northeastern, northwestern, southeastern)
Answer:
northeastern

Question 5.
The ________of sunrise and the sunset on the horizon³ for the whole year keep on changing. (position, shadow, rotation)
Answer:
position

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Air Pressure Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Air Pressure

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.
Answer:

• The proportion of dust in the air, water vapour, heavy gases, etc. is higher in the air and closer to the surface of the earth.
• This proportion decreases with increasing altitude.
• As one moves higher and higher from the surface of the earth, the air becomes thinner and thinner.
• As a result, the air pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

Question 2.
Pressure belts oscillate.
Answer:

• The duration and the intensity of sunrays varies during particular periods of the year in both the hemispheres.
• So, the locations of the temperature zones and the pressure belts dependent on the sun’s heat also vary.
• This change is of the order of 5° to 7° towards the north in Uttarayan1 and 5° to 7° south in Dakshinayan2.
• In this way pressure belts oscillate.

2. Give short answers to the following questions.

Question 1.
What effect does temperature have on air pressure?
Answer:

• Temperature and air pressure are closely related. Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low.
• As the temperature rises, the air gets heated, expands, and becomes lighter.
• This lighter air in the vicinity of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky
• As a result, the air pressure in such areas decreases.

Question 2.
Why is the subpolar low pressure belt formed?
Answer:

• Due to earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles.
• This results in lesser friction1 of the air with the earth’s surface.
• Air in this region is thrown out because of this reduced friction and also because of the earth’s rotational motion.
• This leads to the development of a low pressure belt in the sub polar region i.e. in area between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

3. Write notes on:

Question 1.
Mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.
• Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier.
• This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.
• This leads to the formation of high pressures, belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.
• This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Question 2.
Horizontal distribution of air pressure.
Answer:

• The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions.
• The distribution of temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles.
• This difference can lead to difference in air pressure.
• There are four air pressure belts formed on the earth surface.
• Equatorial low-pressure belt between 5°N and 5°S parallels as the temperature is high here.
• Mid latitudinal high-pressure belt between 25° and 35° parallels due to descending heavier air.
• Subpolar low-pressure belt formed between 55° and 65° parallels due to friction and rotation.
• Polar high-pressure belt formed between 80° and 90° parallels due to low temperatures.

4. Fill in the gaps with the appropriate option.

Question 1.
At higher altitudes air becomes ________. (thicker, thinner, hotter, more humid)
Answer:
thinner

Question 2.
Air pressure is expressed in _______ .(millibars, millimeters, milliliters, milligrams)
Answer:
millibars

Question 3.
On the earth, air pressure is _______.(uniform, uneven, high, low)
Answer:
uneven

Question 4.
The ______ pressure belt spreads between 5° North and 5° South parallel. (equatorial low, polar high, subpolar low, mid-latitudinal high)
Answer:
equatorial low

5. How does a high-pressure belt get formed near 30 ° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

6. Draw a neat diagram showing pressure belts. Label the diagram.
Answer:

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagram Fig. (a) and (b) carefully and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which pressure belt is mainly found in the Tropics?
Answer:
Equatorial low pressure belt is mainly found in the tropics.

Question 2.
With which pressure belt are the polar winds associated? In which temperature zone are they observed?
Answer:
The polar winds are associated with polar high pressure belt and sub polar low pressure belt. It is observed in the frigid zone.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind a low pressure belt in the Tropics?
Answer:
Low pressure belt is formed in the tropics because the temperature is high.

Question 4.
With which pressure belts are the winds in the Temperate zone associated?
Answer:
The winds in temperate zone are associated with mid latitudinal high pressure belt.

Question 5.
Write the latitudinal extent of the low pressure belts.
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of Equatorial low pressure belt is between 50°N & 50°S parallel & the latitudinal extent of the sub polar low pressure belt is between 55° & 65° parallel in both the hemispheres.

Observe the map given above and study the distribution of air pressure and answer the following

Question 1.
The nature of the isobars.
Answer:
The isobars are joining places of equal air pressure on the map.

Question 2.
High and low pressure belts and their latitudinal position.
Answer:
(i) The latitudinal position of high pressure belt is between 25° & 35° parallels and between 80° & 90° parallels in both the hemisphere
(ii) The latitudinal position of low pressure belt is between 0° & 5° parallels and between 55° & 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 3.
The direction of the isobars and the distance between successive isobars over the oceans and continents.
Answer:
(i) In the northern hemisphere most of the isobars are in southwest to north east direction over the continents. Also the distance between the isobars varies.

(ii) Closely spaced isobars indicate large pressure changes over a small area. Widely spaced isobars indicate gentle or gradual pressure change.

(iii) In the southern hemisphere, the isobars extend  in east-west direction. The distance between the isobars is fairly constant over the oceans & so the isobars are fairly parallel to each other.

Question 4.
Comparison of the isobars in the northern and the southern hemispheres.
Answer:
In the northern hemisphere the isobars are far spaced and uneven, whereas in the southern hemispheres it is closely spaced and parallel.

Use your brainpower !

Question 1.
If there is low pressure at the equator, what will be the condition of air pressure in the Arctic Zone?
Answer:
The Arctic zone will experience high pressure as the temperature is lower than 0°C.

Try this:

Question 1.

• Take a flying lantern.
• Tie an approximately 5m long thread to the flying lantern so that you can bring the lantern down whenever required.
• After carefully reading the instructions given on the package of the lantern open it and light the candle placed in it.
• After some time, bring the lantern down with the help of the thread and put off the candle.

Question 2.
Did the flying lantern start ascending immediately after the candle was lit?
Answer:
Yes

Question 2.
What would have happened to the flying lantern had the candle got extinguished after the lantern had gone up in the air?
Answer:
The lantern would have fallen back on the earth.

Give it a try: 

Question 1.
Study the temperative distribution map given in your std VI textbook and the pressure distribution map in this lesson to find the correlation between air temperature and air pressure.
Answer:

• The temperature deceases continuously from the equator to the poles but the air pressure varies alternately.
• In the equatorial region the average temperature is high. Hence, the air pressure is low.
• In the polar regions, the temperature is low & hence the air pressure is comparative high.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 4 Air Pressure Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Pressure belts oscillates between ______ parallels. (5° to 7°, 10° to 20°, 80° and 90°, 25° to 30°)
Answer:
5° to 7°

Question 2.
The instrument used to measure air pressure is ______ .(barometer, thermometer, hygrometer, seismometer)
Answer:
barometer

Question 3.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below ________ throughout the year. (5°C, 0°C, 7°C, 6°C)
Answer:
0°C

Question 4.
The line that joins the places of equal pressure on the map is called an _______. (isotherm, isohytes, millibars, isobar)
Answer:
isobar

Match the following:

Question 1.

A (Pressure Belt)	B (Parallels)
(1) Sub Polar low pressure (2) Mid latitudinal high pressure (3) Polar high pressure (4) Equatorial low pressure	(a) 25° to 35° (b) 5°N and 5°S (c) 55° to 65° (d) 80° to 90°

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of the temperate zones is much _____ while belts are narrower.
Answer:
Larger

Question 2.
The extent of air pressure belt is upto ______ parallel.
Answer:
10°

Question 3.
Pressure belts are formed between the _______ and the pole.
Answer:
Equator

Question 4.
The sun rays fall perpendicular between the ______and ________.
Answer:
Tropic of Cancer, Tropic of Capricorn

Question 5.
Due to the earths curvature, the area betweentwo parallels gets ______ as we move towards the poles.
Answer:
reduced

Question 6.
The air pressure at sea level is ______ millibars.
Answer:
1013.2

State whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
Air pressure is uniform on all places on the earth’s surface.
Answer:
false

Question 2.
Whenever the temperature is high, the air pressure is also high.
Answer:
false

Question 3.
The heat received from the sun, is uneven in different regions.
Answer:
true

Question 4.
In both the polar regions, the temperature is low throughout the year.
Answer:
true

Question 5.
Air pressure is measured in units of millimetres.
Answer:
false

Answer the following questions in one to two sentence:

Question 1.
Which factors influence air pressure?
Answer:
The altitude of a region, temperature of the air and the amount of water vapour in the air are some factors influencing air pressure.

Question 2.
What is the extent of air pressure belt?
Answer:
The extent of air pressure belt is generally upto 10° parallel.

Question 3.
What is the latitudinal extent of temperate zone?
Answer:
The latitudinal extent of temperate zone is from 23°30’N to 66°30’N and 23° 30’S to 66° 30’S.

Question 4.
What is the temperature in the polar region?
Answer:
In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0°C throughout the year.

Question 5.
Why do all things in and on the earth stay earth bound?
Answer:
All things in and on the earth stay bound due to the earth’s gravity.

Question 6.
Why are temperature zones created on the surface of the earth?
Answer:
The heat received from the sun is uneven in different regions. Hence the distribution of the temperature is uneven from the equator to the poles. As a result, temperature zones are created.

Question 7.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in which region?
Answer:
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in the mid latitudinal high pressure belt ie; between 25° to 30° parallels in both hemispheres.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Air pressure is maximum at sea level.
Answer:

• All things in and on the earth stay earthbound because of the earth’s gravity. This includes air which is in the gaseous form.
• Due to the earth’s gravity, air is pulled to the earth’s surface.
• Also as one moves higher & higher from the earth’s surface the air becomes thinner & thinner.
• Therefore, the air pressure is maximum at sea- level.

Question 2.
A low pressure belt is formed near the equator.
Answer:

• The sunrays can be perpendicular between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.
• The temperature is higher in this region.
• Hence air in this region gets heated, expands and becomes lighter and moves towards the sky.
• As this process operates continuously, a low pressure belt gets formed in the central part of this region between the parallels 5° N and 5° S, near the equator.

Question 3.
High pressure belt is formed near the polar region.
Answer:

• In both the polar regions, the temperature is below 0° throughout the year.
• The air is cold.
• Hence, high pressure belt is formed in the polar region.

Question 4.
Low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.
Answer:

• Due to the earth’s curvature, the area between two parallels gets reduced as we move towards the poles. This results in lesser friction of the air with the earth’s surface.
• The air between 55° and 65° parallels is thrown out because of the reduced friction and also due to the earth’s rotation.
• Therefore, a low pressure belt is observed between 55° and 65° parallels in both the hemispheres.

Question 5.
Temperature and air pressure are closely related.
Answer:

• Wherever the temperature is high, the air pressure is low. As the temperature rises the air gets heated, expands, and become lighter.
• Thin, lighter air in the vicinity3 of the earth’s surface starts moving up towards the sky. As a result the air pressure in such area decreases.
• Hence, temperature and air pressure are closely related.

Question 6.
Most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid-latitudinal high pressure belts.
Answer:

• The air in mid-latitudinal high pressure belt (between 25° to 35° parallels in both hemisphere) is found to be dry.
• The amount of water vapour is very low & hence this region gets extremely scarce or no rainfall.
• Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in mid latitudinal high pressure belts.

Give short answers to the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of air pressure?
Answer:
Air pressure has the following effects.

• Origin of winds.
• Generation of storms
• Convectional type of rain.

Question 2.
What is the difference between the temperature zones and pressure belts?
Answer:
(i) The difference between the temperature zones & pressure belts is that the latitudinal extent of temperature zones is much larger while pressure belts are narrower.

(ii) For example, the Temperate zone extends from 23°30′ to 66°30′ in both hemisphere. Compared to this the pressure belt has limited extent which is generally upto 10° parallel.

(iii) Also the temperature zones are continuous & spread from the equator to the poles from Torrid to Frigid.

(iv) Pressure belts are not continuous & areas of high & low pressure are found in different regions from the equator to the poles.

Question 3.
How does a high pressure belt get formed near 30° parallel? Why does this region have hot deserts?
Answer:
(i) The heated air from the equatorial region becomes lighter, starts ascending and after reaching higher altitudes, moves towards the polar region, i.e., towards the North and the South Pole.

(ii) Due to low temperatures at the higher altitudes, the air cools down and becomes heavier. This heavier air descends down in both the hemispheres in the region between 25° to 35° parallels.

(iii) This leads to the formation of high pressures belts in these parallels of latitudes in both the hemispheres.

(iv) This air is dry, hence the region does not get rainfall. Consequently, most of the hot deserts on the earth are found in these regions.

Think about it:

Question 1.
What will be the effect on air pressure if the temperature drops? Why?
Answer:
If the temperature drops, the air pressure will increase as the air becomes heavy.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj

Class 7 History Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Pune, Supe, Chakan, Bengaluru
Answer:
Bengaluru

Question 2.
Jadhavs of Phaltan, Mores of Javali, Ghorpades of Mudhol, Sawants of Sawantwadi
Answer:
Jadhavs of Phaltan

Question 3.
Torana, Murumbdev, Sinhgad,Sindhudurg
Answer:
Sindhudurg.

2. Write about in your words:

Question 1.
The efforts Veermata Jijabai took for Shivaji Maharaj’s education.
Answer:
The following were the efforts Veermata Jijabai took for Shivaji Maharaj’s education.
(i) She instilled in Shivaji the values like modesty, vigilance, truthfulness, oratory, courage and fearlessness.
(ii) She inspired the will to win the dream of Swaraj.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj started his work of founding Swaraj in the Maval region.
Answer:
(i) The Maval terrain was full of hills and valleys and was not easily accessible.
(ii) He made use of these geographical features of Maval very skilfully for the purpose of the foundation of the Swaraj.

3. List the companions and associates of Shivaji Maharaj.
Answer:

1. Yesaji Kank
2. Baji Pasalkar
3. Bapuji Mudgal
4. Kavji Kondhalkar
5. Jiva Mahala
6. Tanaji Malusare
7. Kanhoji Jedhe
8. Bajiprabhu Deshpande
9. Dadaji Narasprabhu Deshpande.
10. Narhekar Deshpande brothers

4. Find out and write:

Question 1.
Why Shahaji Maharaj is termed Swaraj visionary.
Answer: .
(i) Shahajiraje was valiant, courageous, intelligent a great political expert.
(ii) He was an excellent archer.
(iii) He was also an expert in using the sword, patta and spear.
(iv) He loved his subjects.
(v) He had won many regions in Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. South India was in awe of him.
(vi) While Shivaji and Jijabai were at Bengaluru he had arranged for providing excellent education to Shivaji so as to enable him to become a king.
(vii) He himself aspired to established Swaraj by ousting the powers of foreign people. That is why he is known as Swaraj visionary.

Question 2.
Shivaji Maharaj paid attention to building a Navy.
Answer:
(i) After the conquest of Javali, Kalyan, Bhiwandi, Shivaji Maharaj came in contact with the Siddi, Portuguese and British power on the western Coast.
(ii) He realized that in order to fight these powers, it was necessary to have a strong naval force. Hence Shivaji Maharaj paid attention to raise a Navy.

Question 3.
Shivaji Maharaj entered into a treaty with the Adilshah.
Answer:
(i) On one hand, Aurangzeb had Sent Shaistakhan to invade the Pune Province and on other hand the conflict with Adilshah continued.
(ii) Therefore, Shivaji Maharaj realized that it would hot be prudent to fight both the enemies at the same time.
Therefore Shivaji Maharaj entered into a treaty with the Adilshah.

Question 4.
How did Shivaji Maharaj escape from Panhalgad?
Answer:
(i) When Shivaji Maharaj took shelter in Panhala fort, Siddi soldiers laid siege to the fort for about five months.
(ii) Shivaji Maharaj found himself trapped inside the fort.
(iii) Netoji Palkar tried to raise the siege by attacking Siddi’s army from outside.
(iv) He couldn’t succeed as his forces were meagre (inadequate)
(v) Siddi showed no sign of relenting so he decided to have open talks with him.
(vi) Shiva Kashid, a brave youth who resembled Shivaji Maharaj in looks came forward.
(vii) He dressed up like Shivaji Maharaj and sat in a palanquin.
(viii) The palanquin left by the Raj-dindi gate and was captured by Siddi’s army and Kashid sacrificed himself for Swaraj.
(ix) In the meanwhile, Shivaji Maharaj left the fort using another route.

Activities:

1. Describe a fort you have seen. Suggest measures for conserving a historical site.
2. Find out what a 7/12 extract means and relate it to the words in the chapter.

Class 7 History Chapter 5 The Foundation of the Swaraj Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj started the work of establishing Swaraj in the ______ region. (Maval, Javali, Chakan)
Answer:
Maval

Question 2.
Jijabai was the daughter of the great Sardar ______ (Shahajiraje, Netaji Palkar, Lakhujiraje)
Answer:
Lakhujiraje

Question 3.
______ was the first capital of Swaraj. (Pratapgad, Rajgad, Panhala)
Answer:
Rajgad

Question 4.
Shivaji Maharaj renamed Khelna as ______.(Vishalgad, Pratapgad, Rajgad)
Answer:
Vishalgad

Question 5.
The Adilshah gave Siddi the title of _____ (Salabatkhan, Adilshahi, Nizamshahi)
Answer:
Salabatkhan

Question 6.
Badi Sahiba sent ______ to curb Shivaji Maharaj. (Nizamshah, Afzalkhan, Shaistakhan)
Answer:
Afzalkhan

Question 7.
________ was a pre-eminent Sardar in the Deccan.(Lakhujiraje, Bajiprabhu Deshpande, Shahajiraje)
Answer:
Shahajiraje

Question 8.
The Nizamshahi came to an’end in _______. (1636 CE, 1648 CE, 1630 CE)
Answer:
1636 CE

Question 9.
Shahajiraje sent ______ and _______ from Bangalore to Pune with some loyal and competent associates. (Yesaji Rank and Jiva Mahala, Dalvi and Surve, Shivaji and Jijabai)
Answer:
Shivaji and Jijabai

Question 10.
Shivaji Maharaj took shelter in the _______ Fort. (Rajgad, Panhala, Vishalgad)
Answer:
Panhala

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Nizamshahi came to an end	(a) 1660 CE
(2) Shivaji’s birth date	(b) 10th November 1659
(3) A meeting between Shivaji and Afzalkhan	(c) 1636 CE
(4) Siddi Jauhar attacked on Shivaji Maharaj	(d) 19th February 1630.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – d
3 – b
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Shivneri	(a) Javali Valley
(2) Pratapgad	(b) Siege by Siddi Jauhar
(3) Raigad	(c) Birth place of Shivaji Maharaj
(4) Panhalgad	(d) The first capital of the Swaraj

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Arrange in chronological order:

Question 1.
(i) A treaty with Adilshah
(ii) Defeat of Afzalkhan
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj captured Javali
(iv) Shivaji Maharaj escaped from Panhala Fort
Answer:
(i) Shivaji Maharaj captured Javali
(ii) Defeat of Afzalkhan
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj escaped from Panhala Fort
(iv) A treaty with Adilshah

Question 2.
(i) Meeting with Afzalkhan
(ii) End of Nizamshahi
(iii) Siege to Panhala
(iv) Attack on Javali
Answer:
(i) End of Nizamshahi (1636 CE)
(ii) Attack on Javali (1656 CE)
(iii) Meeting with Afzalkhan (1659 CE)
(iv) Siege to Panhala (1660 CE)

Question 3.
(i) Siddi Jauhar marched against Shivaji Maharaj
(ii) Birth of Shivaji Maharaj
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj built Pratapgad
(iv) Shahajiraje became a Sardar of Adilshah
Answer:
(i) Birth of Shivaji Maharaj
(ii) Shahajiraje became a Sardar of Adilshah
(iii) Shivaji Maharaj built Pratapgad
(iv) Siddi Jauhar marched against Shivaji Maharaj

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What were the extraordinary qualities of Shahajiraje.
Answer:
Shahajiraje was a valiant, courageous, intelligent and a great political leader.

Question 2.
Which Jagirs were granted to Shahajiraje from Nizamshah?
Answer:
Shahajiraje was granted the jagirs of Pune, Supe, Indapur and Chakan parganas located between the Bheema and Neera rivers.

Question 3.
Who was Afzalkhan?
Answer:
Afzalkhan was a powerful and experienced Adilshahi General.

Question 4.
Which forts did Shivaji Maharaj capture while laying the foundation of Swaraj?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj captured the forts of Torana, Murumbdev, Kondhana and Purandar while laying the foundation of Swaraj.

Question 5.
Whom did Shahajiraje entrust the jagir of Pune?
Answer:
Shahajiraje entrusted the jagir of Pune to Shivajiraje and Veermata Jijabai.

Question 6.
Who was looking after the administration of the Adilshahi?
Answer:
Badi Sahiba was looking after the administration of the Adilshahi.

Question 7.
Whom did Badi Sahiba send to curb Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
Badi Sahiba sent Afzalkhan, a powerful and experienced Adilshahi General to curb Shivaji Maharaj.

Question 8.
What is inscribed on the Royal Seal?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaja’s objective of establishing Swaraj was clearly expressed in his Royal Seal.

Question 9.
Who was Chandrarao More?
Answer:
Chandrarao More of Javali in Satara district was a powerful Sardar in the Adilshahi, who was against the founding of the Swaraj.

Question 10.
When was Shivaji Maharaj bom?
Answer:
Shivaji Maharaj was bom on 19th February, 1630 and as per Hindu Calendar on Phagun Vadya Tritiya, Shaka year 1551.

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Yesaji Kank, Baji Pasalkar, Tanaji Malusare the Mores of Javali
Answer:
The Mores of Javali.

Question 2.
Portuguese, Siddi, British, Mughals
Answer:
Mughals

Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Shivaji Maharaj decided to acquire the forts that were within his own jagir.
Answer:

• The forts situated within the jagir of Shivaji Maharaj were not under his control but were under the control of Adilshah.
• In those days, forts were of special significance.
• With a firm hold over a fort, it was possible to control the surrounding area. Hence, Shivaji Maharaj decided to acquire the forts that were within his own jagir.

Question 2.
Conquest of Javali increased Shivaji Maharaj strength in all respects.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj attacked Javali and captured the region in 1656 CE.
• Shivaji Maharaj established his post in Javali.
• He also captured Raigad. He attained a huge wealth from Javali.
• After this victory, his activities in Konkan increased.
• He built the Pratapgad fort in the Javali valley.
• In this way, the conquest of Javali increased his strength in all respects.

Question 3.
Bajiprabhu dies a hero’s death.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj left the fort using another difficult route.
• He was accompanied by Bajiprabhu Deshpande and some chosen soldiers.
• Bajiprabhu army pursued Shivaji Maharaj.
• Shivaji Maharaj entrusted the responsibility of stopping Siddi’s army at the foot of Vishalgad to Bajiprabhu Deshpande.
• Bajiprabhu Deshpande checked Siddi’s army at the Ghod pass near Gajapur.
• He fought with the greatest valour.
• Bajiprabhu died a hero’s death in the battle.

Find out and write:

Question 1.
Adilshah sent Siddi Jauhar, the Sardar of the Kamul region against Shivaji Maharaj in 1600 CE.
Answer:

• Shivaji Maharaj captured the Adilshahi forts of Panhala, Vasantgad and Khelna.
• Shivaji Maharaj had posed a big challenge before the Adilshahi.
• Therefore, Adilshah sent Siddi Jauhar, the Sardar of the Kamul region against Shivaji Maharaj in 1660 CE.

Write in short about:

Question 1.
Defeat of Afzalkhan
Answer:

• Badi Sahiba sent the powerful and experienced Afzalkhan to curb Shivaji Maharaj.
• A meeting between Afzalkhan and Shivaji was arranged at the foot of Pratapgad near Wai.
• At the meeting, Afzalkhan attempted treachery.
• In return, Shivaji Maharaj killed Afzalkhan and routed the Adilshahi army.

Question 2.
Royal Seal (Rajmudra)
Answer:

• The objective of Shivaji Maharaj of establishing of Swaraj is expressed in his Royal Seal.
• The meaning expressed is that this seal will grow in splendour like the new moon. The seal of Shivaji, the son of Shivaji receiving homage from the whole world denotes the welfare of the people.

Question 3.
Veermata Jijabai
Answer:

• Jijabai was daughter of the great Sardar Lakhujiraje Jadhav of Sindkhedraja in Buldhana district.
• At a young age, she had received military education along with learning various arts.
• She helped and encouraged Shahaji Maharaj to realise his dream of establishing Swaraj
• She was a competent and visionary political expert.

Let’s Learn:

Observe the official seal of our country.

Question 1.
What features do you observe?
Answer:

• Official seal is called the National Emblem of India.
• Elephant is in East, Horse in west (left), Bull south (right) and lion in North.
• There are four lions standings back to back, but in the emblem three are seen.
• There is a wheel under the lions.
• Underneath there are the words “Satyameva Jayate’ in Devnagri script.

Question 2.
In which places is the official seal used?
Answer:
Coins, currency notes, postcards, envelops, passport and Government documents.