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Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 6 Chemical Kinetics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 6 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 6 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct option.

Question i.
The rate law for the reaction aA + bB → P is rate = k[A] [B]. The rate of reaction doubles if
a. concentrations of A and B are both doubled.
b. [A] is doubled and [B] is kept constant
c. [B] is doubled and [A] is halved
d. [A] is kept constant and [B] is halved.
Answer:
b. [A] is doubled and [B] is kept constant

Question ii.
The order of the reaction for which the units of rate constant are mol dm^-3 s^-1 is
a. 1
b. 3
c. 0
d. 2
Answer:
c. 0

Question iii.
The rate constant for the reaction 2N₂O₅(g) → 2N₂O₄(g) + O₂(g) is 4.98 × 10^-4 s^-1. The order of reaction is
a. 2
b. 1
c. 0
d. 3
Answer:
b. 1

Question iv.
Time required for 90 % completion of a certain first order reaction is t. The time required for 99.9 % completion will be
a. t
b. 2t
c. t/2
d. 3t
Answer:
d. 3t

Question v.
Slope of the graph ln[A]_t versus t for first order reaction is
a. -k
b. k
c. k/2. 303
d. -k/2. 303
Answer:
a. -k

Question vi.
What is the half life of a first order reaction if time required to decrease concentration of reactant from 0.8 M to 0.2 M is 12 h?
a. 12 h
b. 3 h
c. 1.5 h
d. 6 h
Answer:
d. 6 h

Question vii.
The reaction, 3ClO^3Θ ClO₃^Θ + 2 Cl^Θ occurs in two steps,
(i) 2 ClO^– → ClO₂^Θ
(ii) ClO₂^Θ + ClO^Θ → ClO₃^Θ + Cl^Θ

The reaction intermediate is
a. Cl^Θ
b. ClO₂^Θ
c. ClO₃^Θ
d. ClO^Θ
Answer:
b. ClO₂^Θ

Question viii.
The elementary reaction O₂(g) + O(g) → 2O₂(g) is
a. unimolecular and second order
b. bimolecular and first order
c. bimolecular and second order
d. unimolecular and first order
Answer:
c. bimolecular and second order

Question ix.
Rate law for the reaction, 2NO + Cl₂ → 2 NOCl is rate = k[NO₂]²[Cl₂]. Thus k would increase with
a. increase of temperature
b. increase of concentration of NO
c. increase of concentration of Cl₂
d. increase of concentrations of both Cl₂ and NO
Answer:
a. increase of temperature

Question x.
For an endothermic reaction, X ⇌ Y. If E f is activation energy of the forward reaction and Er that for reverse reaction, which of the following is correct?
a. E_f = E_r
b. E_f < E_r
c. E_f > E_r
d. ∆H = E_f – E_r is negative
Answer:
(c) Ef → Er

2. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question i.
For the reaction,
N₂(g) + 3 H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g), what is the relationship among \(\frac{\mathrm{d}\left[\mathrm{N}_{2}\right]}{\mathrm{dt}}\)\(\frac{\mathrm{d}\left[\mathrm{H}_{2}\right]}{\mathrm{dt}} \text { and } \frac{\mathrm{d}\left[\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right]}{\mathrm{dt}} ?\)
Answer:
N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) → 2NH_3(g)
From the above reaction, when 1 mole of N₂ reacts, 3 moles of H₂ are consumed and 2 moles of NH₃ are formed.

If the instantaneous rate R of the reaction is represented in terms of rate of the consumption of N₂ then, \(R=-\frac{d\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2}\right]}{d t}\)

Hence the rate of reaction in terms of concentration changes in N₂, H₂ and NH₃ may be represented as,

Question ii.
For the reaction,
CH₃Br(aq) + OH-(aq) → CH₃OH^Θ (aq) +Br^Θ (aq), rate law is rate = k[CH₃Br][OH^Θ]
a. How does reaction rate changes if [OH^Θ] is decreased by a factor of 5?
b. What is change in rate if concentrations of both reactants are doubled?
Solution :
Given :
(a) Rate = R = k [CH₃Br] x [OH^–]
If R₁ and R₂ are initial and final rates of reaction then,

Rate will be increased 4 time.

Question iii.
What is the relationship between coeffients of reactants in a balanced equation for an overall reaction and exponents in rate law. In what case the coeffients are the exponents?
Answer:
Explanation : Consider the following reaction, aA + bB → products

If the rate of the reaction depends on the concentrations of the reactants A and B, then, by rate law,
R α [A]^a [B]^b
∴ R = k [A]^a [B^b
where [A] = concentration of A and
[B] = concentration of B

The proportionality constant k is called the velocity constant, rate constant or specific rate of the reaction.

a and b are the exponents or the powers of the concentrations of the reactants A and B respectively when observed experimentally.

The exponents or powers may not be necessarily a and b but may be different x and y depending on experimental observations. Then the rate R will be,
R = k [A]^x [B]^y
For example, if x = 1 and y = 2, then,
R = k [A] x [B]²

Question iv.
Why all collisions between reactant molecules do not lead to a chemical reaction?
Answer:
(i) Collisions of reactant molecules : The basic re-quirements of a reaction is that the reacting species (atoms, ions or molecules) must come together and collide for a reaction to occur. Therefore the rate of the reaction shall depend on the rate and frequency of collisions which increase with the amount of reacting species and temperature.

However it is observed that the rate of reaction is very low as compared to the rate of collisions between reacting species in gaseous phase or liquid phase. This suggests that all the collisions are not fruitful leading to a reaction. Hence it is necessary to consider another factor like energy of colliding species along with collision frequency.

(ii) Energy requirement (Activation energy) : The colliding molecules must possess a certain mini-mum energy called activation energy required far breaking and making bonds resulting in the reaction. This implies that the colliding molecules must have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy. The colliding molecules with less energy do not react.

(iii) Orientation of reactant molecules : The concept of activation energy is satisfactory in case of simple molecules or ions but not in case of complex or higher polyatomic molecules. It is observed that the rates of reaction are less as compared to the rates of collisions between activated molecules with activation energy.

This suggests that in addition, the colliding molecules must have proper orientations relative to each other during collisions. For example, consider the reaction, A – B-l-C → A + B – C. For the reaction to occur, C must collide with B while collisions with A will not be fruitful. Since B has to bond with C.

Question v.
What is the activation energy of a reaction?
Answer:
Activation energy : The energy required to form activated complex or transition state from the reactant molecules is called activation energy.
OR
The height of energy barrier in the energy profile diagram is called activation energy.

Question vi.
What are the units for rate constants for zero order and second order reactions if time is expressed in seconds and concentration of reactants in mol/L?
Answer:
(a) For a zero order reaction, the rate constant has units, molL^-1s^-1.
(b) For second order reaction,
Rate = k x [Reactant]²

Question vii.
Write Arrhenius equation and explain the terms involved in it.
Answer:
Arrhenius equation is represented as k = A x e^-E_a/RT
where
k = Rate constant at absolute temperature T
E_a = Energy of activation R = Gas constant
A = Frequency factor or pre-exponential factor.

Question viii.
What is the rate determining step?
Answer:
Many chemical reactions take place in a series of elementary steps. Among many steps of the reaction, one of the steps is the slowest step compared to other steps.

Rate determining step : The slowest step in the reaction mechanism which involves many steps is called the rate-determining step.

Question ix.
Write the relationships between rate constant and half life of fist order and zeroth order reactions.
Answer:
(a) For first order reaction, half-life period t_1/2 is, \(t_{1 / 2}=\frac{0.693}{k}\) where k is the rate constant.
(b) For zeroth-order reaction, half half period (t_1/2) is, \(t_{1 / 2}=\frac{[\mathrm{A}]_{0}}{2 k}\) where k is the rate constant and [A]₀ is initial concentration of the reactant.

Question x.
How do half lives of the fist order and zero order reactions change with initial concentration of reactants?
Answer:
(A) For the first order reaction, half life, t_1/2 is given by, \(t_{1 / 2}=\frac{0.693}{k}\) where k is rate constant. Hence it is independent of initial concentration of the reactant.

(B) Zero order reaction,
\(t_{1 / 2}=\frac{[\mathrm{A}]_{0}}{2 k}\) where [A]₀ is initial concentration of the reactant.

Hence, half life period increases with the increase in concentration of the reactant.

3. Answer the following in brief.

Question i.
How instantaneous rate of reaction is determined?
Answer:
(1) The instantaneous rate is expressed as an infinite¬simal change in concentration (- dc) of the reactant with the infinitesimal change in time (dt).
For a reaction, A → B, let an infinitesimal change in A be – dc in time dt, then Rate \(=\frac{d[\mathrm{~A}]}{d t}\).

Hence, it is represented as,
∴ Instantaneous rate \(=-\frac{d[\mathrm{~A}]}{d t}\)

The negative sign indicates a decrease in the concentration of A.

It is obtained by drawing a tangent to the curve obtained by plotting the concentration against the time. Hence, the slope at a given point represents the instantaneous rate of the reaction.

(2) The instantaneous rate can also be expressed as an infinitesimal change (or increase) in the concentration of the product with the infinitesimal change in time (dt).

Let dB be an infinitesimal change in the concentration of product B in time dt, then Rate \(=\frac{d[\mathrm{~B}]}{d t}=\frac{d x}{d t}\).

Hence,
Instantaneous rate \(=\frac{d x}{d t}\)

It is obtained from the slope of the curve obtained by plotting the concentration of the product against time.

The instantaneous rate is more useful in obtaining the rate law integrated equations.

Question ii.
Distinguish between order and molecularity of a reaction.
Answer:

Question iii.
A reaction takes place in two steps,
1. NO(g) + Cl₂(g) NOCl₂(g)
2. NOCl₂(g) + NO(g) → 2NOCl(g)
a. Write the overall reaction.
b. Identify reaction intermediate.
c. What is the molecularity of each step?
Solution :
Given :
(1) NO_(g) + Cl_2(g) → NOCl_2(g)
(2) NOCl_2(g) + NO_(g) → 2NOCl_(g)

(a) Overall reaction is obtained by adding both the reactions
2NO_(g) + Cl_2(g) → 2NOCl_2(g)
(b) The reaction intermediate is NOCl₂, since it is formed in first step and consumed in the second step.
(c) Since the first step is a slow and rate determin­ing step, the molecularity is two.

Since the second step is a fast step its molecularity is not considered.

Question iv.
Obtain the relationship between the rate constant and half-life of a fist order reaction.
Answer:
Consider the following reaction,

If [A]₀ and [A]t are the concentrations of A at start and after time t, then [A]₀ = a and [A]_t = a – x.

The velocity constant or the specific rate constant k for the first order reaction can be represented as,

where, a is the initial concentration of the reactant A, x is the concentration of the product B after time t, so that (a – x) is the concentration of the reactant A after time t.

Half-life of a reaction : The time required to reduce the concentration of the reactant to half of its initial value is called the half-life period or the half-life of the reaction.

If t_1/2 is the half-life of a reaction, then at t = t_1/2, x = a/2, hence a – x = a – a/2 = a/2

Hence, for a first order reaction, the half-life of the reaction is independent of the initial concentration of the reactant.

Question v.
How will you represent zeroth-order reaction graphically?
Answer:
(1) A graph of concentration against time : In case of a zero-order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant. The concentration [A]_t of the reactant at a time t is given by
[A]_t = – kt + [A]₀ (y = – mx + c)
where [A]₀ is the initial concentration of the reactant and k is a rate constant.

Hence in case of zero order reaction, when the concentration of the reactant is plotted against time, a straight line with the slope equal to – k is obtained. The concentration of the reactants de-crease with time. The intercept on the concentration axis gives the initial concentration, [A]₀.

(2) A graph of rate of a reaction against the concen-tration of the reactant: Rate of a zero order reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant.

Rate, R = k [A]⁰ = k

Hence even if the concentration of the reactant decreases, the rate of the reaction remains constant.

Therefore if the rate of a zero order reaction is plotted against concentration, then a straight line with zero slope is obtained indicating, no change in the rate of the reaction with a change in the concentration of the reactants.

(3) A graph of half-life period against concentration : The half-life period of a zero-order reaction is given by, \(t_{1 / 2}=\frac{[\mathrm{A}]_{0}}{2 k}\) where [A]₀ is initial con-centration of the reactant and k is the rate constant. Hence the half-life period is directly proportional to the concentration.

When a graph of t_1/2 is plotted against concentration, a straight line passing through origin is obtained, and the slope gives \(\frac{1}{2 k}\), where k is the rate constant.

Question vi.
What are pseudo-fist order reactions? Give one example and explain why it is pseudo-fist order.
Answer:
Pseudo-first-order reaction : A reaction which has higher-order true rate law but is experimentally found to behave as first order is called pseudo first order reaction.
Explanation : Consider an acid hydrolysis reaction of an ester like methyl acetate.
CH₃COOCH_3(aq) + H₂O₍₁₎ \(\stackrel{\mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}}{\longrightarrow}\) CH₃COOH_(aq) + CH₃OH_(aq)
Since the reaction involves two substances, ester and water, it is a bimolecular reaction and the true rate law should be, Rate = k’ [CH₃COOCH₃] x [H₂O]

Hence the reaction is expected to follow second order kinetics. However experimentally it is found that the reaction follows first order kinetics.

This is because solvent water being in a large excess, its concentration remains constant. Hence, [H₂O] = constant = k”
Rate = k [CH₃COOCH₃] x [H₂O]
= k [CH₃COOCH₃] x k”
= k’ x k” x [CH₃COOCH₃]
If k’ x k” = k, then Rate = k [CH₃COOCH₃],

This indicates that second-order true rate law is forced into first order rate law. Therefore this bimolecular reaction which appears of second order is called pseudo first order reaction.

Question vii.
What are the requirements for the colliding reactant molecules to lead to products?
Answer:
Collisions of reactant molecules : The basic re­quirements of a reaction is that the reacting species (atoms, ions or molecules) must come together and collide for a reaction to occur. Therefore the rate of the reaction shall depend on the rate and frequency of collisions which increase with the amount of reacting species and temperature.

However it is observed that the rate of reaction is very low as compared to the rate of collisions between reacting species in gaseous phase or liquid phase. This suggests that all the collisions are not fruitful leading to a reaction. Hence it is necessary to consider another factor like energy of colliding species along with collision frequency.

Energy requirement (Activation energy) : The colliding molecules must possess a certain mini­mum energy called activation energy required far breaking and making bonds resulting in the reac­tion. This implies that the colliding molecules must have energy equal to or greater than the activation energy. The colliding molecules with less energy do not react.

Orientation of reactant molecules : The concept of activation energy is satisfactory in case of simple molecules or ions but not in case of complex or higher polyatomic molecules. It is observed that the rates of reaction are less as compared to the rates of collisions between activated molecules with activa­tion energy.

This suggests that in addition, the colliding mole­cules must have proper orientations relative to each other during collisions. For example, consider the reaction, A – B + C → A + B – C. For the reaction to occur, C must collide with B while collisions with A will not be fruitful. Since B has to bond with C.

Question viii.
How catalyst increases the rate of reaction? Explain with the help of a potential energy diagram for catalyzed and uncatalyzed reactions.
Answer:
(i) A catalyst is a substance, when added to the reactants, increases the rate of the reaction without being consumed. For example, the decomposition of KClO₃ in the presence of small amount of MnO₂ is very fast but very slow in the absence of MnO₂.

2KClO_3(s) \(\frac{\mathrm{MnO}_{2}}{\Delta}\) 2KCl_(s) + 3O_2(g)

(ii) The phenomenon of catalysed reaction is called catalysis and depends on nature of the catalyst. In heterogeneous catalysis, the reactant molecules are adsorbed on the solid catalyst surface while in case of homogeneous catalysis, the catalyst reacts with one of the reactants, forms intermediate and decomposes reforming original catalyst and the products.

(iii) The catalyst provides alternative and lower energy path or mechanism for the reaction.

(iv) In the presence of the catalyst, the activation energy of the reaction is lowered. The height of activation energy barrier is less than that in the uncatalysed reaction.

(v) Due to lowering of energy of activation, (E_a) the number of molecules possessing E_a increases, hence the rate of the reaction increases.

(vi) The rate constant = k = A x e^-E_a/RT where A is a frequency factor and hence the rates of the catalysed reaction are higher than those of un-catalysed reactions.

(vii) The catalyst does not change the extent of the reaction but hastens the reaction.

(viii) The catalyst enters the reaction but does not appear in the balanced equation since it is consumed in one step and regenerated in the another.

Question ix.
Explain with the help of the Arrhenius equation, how does the rate of reaction changes with (a) temperature and (b) activation energy.
Answer:
(a) By Arrhenius equation, k = Ax e^-E_a/RT where k is rate constant, A is a frequency factor and Ed is energy of activation at temperature T. As E_a increases, the rate constant and rate of the reaction decreases.

(b) As temperature increases E_a/RT decreases but due to negative sign, k and rate increase with the increase in temperature.

Question x.
Derive the integrated rate law for first order reaction.
Answer:
Consider following gas phase reaction,

Let initial pressure of A be P₀ at t = 0. If after time t the pressure of a A decreases by jc then the partial pressures of the substances will be, P_A = P_Q – x; P_B = x and P_c = x

Total pressure will be,

P_T + P₀ – x + x + x = Po + x
∴ x = P_T – P_n

The partial pressures at time t will be,

Question xi.
How will you represent first-order reactions graphically.
Answer:
(1) A graph of rate of a reaction and concentra­tion : The differential rate law for first-order reac­tion, A → Products is represented as, Rate = [/latex]-\frac{d[\mathrm{~A}]}{d t}=k[\mathrm{~A}]\(

∴ Rate = k x [A]_t (y = mx). When the rate of a first order reaction is plotted against concentration, [A]_t, a straight line graph is obtained.

With the increase in the concentration [A]_t, rate R, increases. The slope of the line gives the value of rate constant k.

(2) A graph of concentration against time : When the concentration of the reactant is plotted against time t, a curve is obtained. The concentration [A], of the reactant decreases exponentially with time. The variation in the concentration can be represented as,

where [A]₀ and [A]_t are initial and final concentra­tions the reactant and k is the rate constant. The time required to complete the first order reaction is infinity.

(3) A graph of log₁₀ (a – x) against time t :

When log₁₀(a – x) is plotted against time t, a straight line with negative slope is obtained, from which the velocity constant k can be calculated.

(4) A graph of half-life period and concentration : The half-life period, t_1/2 of a first order reaction is given by, where k is the rate constant.

For the given reaction at a constant temperature, t_1/2 is constant and independent of the concentration of the reactant.

Hence when a graph of t_1/2 is plotted against concentration, a straight line parallel to the concen­tration axis (slope = zero) is obtained.

(5) A graph of log₁₀ [latex]\left(\frac{a}{a-x}\right)\) against time : The rate constant, for a first order reaction is represented as, where [A₀] and [A]_t are the respective initial and final concentrations of the reactant after time t.


When \(\log _{10}\left(\frac{a}{a-x}\right)\) is plotted against time t, a straight line graph passing through the origin is obtained and the slope gives the value of k/2.303. From this slope, the rate constant can be calculated.

Question xii.
Derive the integrated rate law for the first order reaction, A(g) → B(g) + C(g) in terms of pressure.
Answer:
Consider following gas phase reaction,

Let initial pressure of A be P₀ at t = 0. If after time t the pressure of a A decreases by jc then the partial pressures of the substances will be, P_A = P_Q – x; P_B = x and P_c = x

Total pressure will be,

P_T + P₀ – x + x + x = Po + x
∴ x = P_T – P_n

The partial pressures at time t will be,

Question xiii.
What is zeroth-order reaction? Derive its integrated rate law. What are the units of rate constant?
Answer:
Definition : Zero order reaction : A reaction in which the rate of the reaction does not depend on the concentration of any reactant taking part in the reaction is called zero order reaction.

Consider a zero order reaction, A → Products
The rate of the reaction is, Rate \(=\frac{-d[\mathrm{~A}]}{d t}\)

By rate law,
Rate = k x [A]⁰ = k
∴ – d[A] = k x dt

If [A]₀ is the initial concentration of the reactant A at t = 0 and [A]_t is the concentration of A present after time t, then by integrating above equation,

This is the integrated rate law expression for rate constant for zero order reaction.
∴ k x t = [A]₀ – [A]_t
∴ [A]_t = – kt + A₀

For a zero order reaction :
The rate of reaction is R = k [A]⁰ = k
Hence, the velocity constant k has the unit of the rate of the reaction, i.e., mol dm^-3 s^-1.

Question xiv.
How will you determine activation energy: (a) graphically using Arrhenius equation (b) from rate constants at two different temperatures?
Answer:
(a) By Arrhenius equation,
Rate constant = = A x e^-E_a/RT where A is a fre-quency factor.

When log₁₀k is plotted against 1/T a straight line with negative slope is obtained. From the slope of the graph, energy of activation E_a, is obtained as follows :
Slope = \(\frac{E_{\mathrm{a}}}{2.303 R}\)
∴ Ea = 2303R x sloPe

(b) For the given reaction, rate constants k₁ and k₂ are measured at two different temperatures T₁ and T₂ respectively. Then \(\log _{10} \frac{k_{2}}{k_{1}}=\frac{E_{\mathrm{a}}\left(T_{2}-T_{1}\right)}{2.303 R \times T_{1} \times T_{2}}\) where E_a is the energy of activation.

Hence by substituting appropriate values, energy of activation E_a for the reaction is determined.

Question xv.
Explain graphically the effect of temperature on the rate of reaction.
Answer:
(i) It has been observed that the rates of chemical reactions increase with the increase in temperature.
(ii) The kinetic energy of the molecules increases with the increase in temperature. The fraction of molecules possessing minimum energy barrier,
i. e. activation energy E_a increases with increase in temperature.
(iii) Hence the fraction of colliding molecules that possess kinetic energy (E_a) also increases, hence the rate of the reaction increases with increase in temperature.

(iv) The above figure shows that the area that represents the fraction of molecules with kinetic energy exceeding E_a is greater at higher temperature T₂ than at lower temperature T₁. This explains that the rate of the reaction increases at higher temperature.
(v) The shaded area to the right of activation energy E_a represents fraction of collisions of activated molecules having energy E_a or greater.

Question xvi.
Explain graphically the effect of catalyst on the rate of reaction.
Answer:
(i) The phenomenon of catalysed reaction is called catalysis and depends on nature of the catalyst. In heterogeneous catalysis, the reactant molecules are adsorbed on the solid catalyst surface while in case of homogeneous catalysis, the catalyst reacts with one of the reactants, forms intermediate and decomposes reforming original catalyst and the products.
(ii) The catalyst provides alternative and lower energy path or mechanism for the reaction.
(iii) In the presence of the catalyst, the activation energy of the reaction is lowered. The height of activation energy barrier is less than that in the uncatalysed reaction.

Question xvii.
For the reaction 2A + B → products, find the rate law from the following data.

Solution :
Given : 2A + B → Products
Rates : R₁ = 0.15 Ms^-1 R₂ = 0.3 Ms^-1
[A]₁ = 0.3 M [A]₂ = 0.6 M
[B]₁ = 0.05 M [B]₂ = 0.05 M
(i) If order of the reaction in A is x and in B is y then, by rate law,

∴ y = 1. Hence the reaction has order one in B.
The order of overall reaction = n = n_A + n_B = 1 + 1 = 2

Answer:
(i) Rate law : Rate = fc [A] x [B]
Rate constant = k = 10M^-1s^-1
Order of the reaction = 2

4. Solve

Question i.
In a first order reaction, the concentration of reactant decreases from 20 mmol dm^-3 to 8 mmol dm^-3 in 38 minutes. What is the half life of reaction? (28.7 min)
Solution :
Given: [A]₀ =20 mmol dm^-3;
[A]_t=8 mmol dm^-3; t=38 mm;

Answer:
Half life period = 28.74 min

Question ii.
The half life of a first order reaction is 1.7 hours. How long will it take for 20% of the reactant to react? (32.9 min)
Solution :
Given : t_1/2 = 1.7 hr; [A]₀ = 100;
[A]_t = 100 – 20 = 80; t =?
\(t_{1 / 2}=\frac{0.693}{k}\)

Answer:
Time required = t = 32.86 min

Question iii.
The energy of activation for a first order reaction is 104 kJ/mol. The rate constant at 25 0C is 3.7 × 10^-5 s^-1. What is the rate constant at 30⁰C? (R = 8.314 J/K mol) (7.4 × 10^-5)
Solution :

Answer:
k₂ = 7.382 x 10^-5 s^-1

Question iv.
What is the energy of activation of a reaction whose rate constant doubles when the temperature changes from 303 K to 313 K? (54.66 kJ/mol)
Solution :
Given : k₂ = 2k_t, T₁ = 303 K; T₂ = 313 K; E_a = ?

Answer:
Energy of activation = E_a = 54.66 kJ

Question v.
The rate constant of a reaction at 5000C is 1.6 × 10³ M^-1 s^-1. What is the frequency factor of the reaction if its activation energy is 56 kJ/mol. (9.72 × 106 M^-1 s^-1)
Solution :

Answer:
Frequency factor = A = 9.727 x 10⁶ M^-1s^-1

Question vi.
Show that time required for 99.9% completion of a first order reaction is three times the time required for 90% completion.
Solution :
Given : For 99.9 % completion, if [A]₀ = 100,

If t₁ and t₂ are the times required for 99.9 % and 90 % completion of reaction respectively, then

Answer:
Time required for 99.9 % completion of a first order reaction is three time the time required for 90 % completion of the reaction.

Question vii.
A first order reaction takes 40 minutes for 30% decomposition. Calculate its half life. (77.66 min)
Solution :

Answer:
Half life period = 77.70 min.

Question viii.
The rate constant for the first order reaction is given by log₁₀ k = 14.34 – 1.25 × 10⁴ T. Calculate activation energy of the reaction. (239.3 kJ/mol)
Solution :
Given : log₁₀ k = 14.34 – \(\frac{1.25 \times 10^{4}}{T}\) ……………………. (1)
From Arrhenius equation we can write,
\(\log _{10} k=\log _{10} A-\frac{E_{\mathrm{a}}}{2.303 R \times T}\) ……………………. (2)
By comparing equations (1) and (2),
\(\frac{E_{\mathrm{a}}}{2.303 \times R}\) = 1.25 x 10⁴
∴ Ea = 1.25 x 10⁴ x 2.303 x R
= 1.25 x 10⁴ x 2.303 x 8.314
= 23.93 x 10⁴ = 239.3 kJ mol^-1

[Note : Frequency factor A may also be calculated as follows : log₁₀ A = 14.34
∴ A = Antilog 14.34 = 2.188 x 10⁴
Answer:
Energy of activation = E_a = 239.3 kJ mol^-1.

Question ix.
What fraction of molecules in a gas at 300 K collide with an energy equal to activation energy of 50 kJ/mol? (2 × 10^-9)
Solution :
Given : T = 300 K; E_a = 50 kJ mol^-1
= 50 x 10³ mol^-1
The fraction of molecules undergoing fruitful collisions is

Answer:
Fraction of molecules undergoing collision = 2 x 10^-9

Activity :
1. If you wish to determine the reaction order and rate constant for the reaction, 2AB₂ → A₂ + 2B₂.
a) What data would you collect?
b) How would you use these data to determine whether the reaction is zeroth or first order?

2. The activation energy for two reactions are E_a and E’_a with E_a > E’_a. If the temperature of reacting system increases from T₁ to T₂, predict which of the following is correct?

k values are rate constants at lower temperatures and k values at higher temperatures.

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 6 Chemical Kinetics Intext Questions and Answers

(Textbook Page No 121)

Question 1.
Write the expressions for rates of reaction for :
2N₂O_5(g) → 4NO_2(g) + O_2(g)?
Answer:
For the given reaction, Rate of reaction =
\(=R=-\frac{1}{2} \frac{d\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{5}\right]}{d t}\)
\(\begin{aligned}
&=+\frac{1}{4} \frac{d\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]}{d t} \\
&=+\frac{d\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}{d t}
\end{aligned}\)

Problem 6.1: (Textbook Page No 121)

Question 1.
For the reaction,
\(\mathbf{3 I}_{(a q)}^{-}+\mathbf{S}_{2} \mathbf{O}_{8(a q)}^{2-} \longrightarrow \mathbf{I}_{3(\text { (aq) }}^{-}+2 \mathbf{S O}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)
Calculate (a) the rate of formation of I₃^–,
(b) the rates of consumption of 1 and S₂O and (c) the overall rate of reaction if the rate of formation of \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\) is 0.O22 moles dm^-3 sec^-1.
Answer:


∴ (a) Rate of formation of \(\mathrm{I}_{3}^{-}\) = 0.011 mol dm^-3 s^-1
(b) Rate of consumption of I^– = 0.033 mol dm^-3 s^-1
(c) Rate of consumption of \(\mathrm{S}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{8}^{2-}\) = 0.011 mol dm^-3 s^-1
(d) Overall rate of reaction = Rate of consumption of reactant = Rate of formation of product

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 122)

Question 1.
For the reaction :
NO_2(g) + CO_(g) → NO_(g) + CO_2(g), the rate of reaction is experimentally found to be proportional to the square of the concentration of NO2 and independent that of CO. Write the rate law.
Answer:
Since the rate of the reaction is proportional to [NO₂]² and [CO]⁰, the rate law is R = k[NO₂]² x [CO]⁰
∴ R = k[NO₂]².

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 124)

Question 1.
The reaction,
CHCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) → CCl_4(g) + HCl_(g) is first order in CHCl₃ and 1/2 order in Cl₂. Write the rate law and overall order of reaction.
Answer:
Since the reaction is first order in CHCl₃ and 1/2 order in Cl₂, the rate law for the reaction will be, Rate = k[CHCl₃] X [Cl₂]^1/2
The overall order (n) of the reaction will be, n = l + = \(\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{2}\)

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 124)

Question 1.
The rate of the reaction 2A + B → 2C + D is 6 x 10^-4 mol dm^-3 s^-1 when [A] =[B] = O.3 mol dm^-3 If the reaction is of first order in A and zeroth order in B, what is the rate constant?
Answer:
For the reaction,
2A + B → 2C + D,

(Problem 6.7) (Textbook Page No 126)

Question 1.
A reaction occurs in the following steps :
(i) NO_2(g) + F_2(g) → NO₂F_(g) + F_(g) (slow)
(ii) F_(g) + NO_2(g) → NO₂F_(g) (fast)
(a) Write the equation of overall reaction.
(b) Write down rate law.
(c) Identify the reaction intermediate.
Solution :
(a) The addition of two steps gives the overall reaction as
2NO_2(g) + F_2(g) → 2NO₂ F_(g)
(b) Step (i) is slow. The rate law of the reaction is predicted from its stoichiometry. Thus, rate = k [NO₂] [F₂]
(c) F is produced in step (i) and consumed in step (ii) hence F is the reaction intermediate.

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 126)

Question 1.
A complex reaction takes place in two steps :
(i) NO_(g) + O_3(g) → NO_3(g) + O_(g)
(ii) NO_3(g) + O_(g) → NO_2(g) + O_2(g)
The predicted rate law is rate = k [NO] [O₃]. Identify the rate-determining step. Write the overall reaction. Which is the reaction inter-mediate? Why?
Answer:
(i) NO_(g) + O_3(g) → NO_3(g) + O_(g)
(ii) NO_3(g) + O_(g) → NO_2(g) + O_2(g)
(a) The first step is slow and rate determining step since the rate depends on concentrations of NO_(g) and O_3(g). (Given : Rate = k [NO] x [O])
(b) The overall reaction is the combination of two steps.
NO_(g) ⁺ O_3(g) → NO_2(g) + O_2(g)
(c) NO_3(g) and O_(g) are reaction intermediates. They are formed in first step (i) and removed in the second step (ii).

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 129)

Question 1.
The half-life of a first-order reaction is 0.5 min. Calculate (a) time needed for the reactant to reduce to 20% and (b) the amount decomposed in 55 s.
Answer:

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 123)

Question 1.
For the reaction 2A + 2B → 2C + D, if concentration of A is doubled at constant [B] the rate increases by a factor of 4. If the concentration of B is doubled with [A] being constant the rate is doubled. Write the rate law of the reaction.
Answer:
Rate = R₁ = k[A]^x [B]^y
When concentration of A = [2A] and

Hence order with respect to A is 2 and with respect to B is 1. By rate law,
Rate = A: [A]² [B]

Question 2.
The rate law for the reaction A + B → C is found to be rate = k [A]² x [B]. The rate constant of the reaction at 25 °C is 6.25 M^-2 S^-1. What is the rate of reaction when [A] = 1.0 mol dm^-3 and [B] = 0.2 mol dm^-3?
Answer:
Rate = k x [A]² x [B]
= 6.25 x 1² x 0.2
Rate = 1.25 x 10² mol dm^-3 s^-1

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Solid State Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Electrochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Electrochemistry Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 5 Electrochemistry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct option.

Question i.
Two solutions have the ratio of their concentrations 0.4 and ratio of their conductivities 0.216. The ratio of their molar conductivities will be
(a) 0.54
(b) 11.574
(c) 0.0864
(d) 1.852
Answer:
(a) 0.54

Question ii.
On diluting the solution of an electrolyte,
(a) both ∧ and κ increase
(b) both ∧ and κ decrease
(c) ∧ increases and κ decreases
(d) ∧ decreases and κ increases
Answer:
(c) ∧ increases and κ decreases

Question iii.
1 S m² mol^-1 is equal to
(a) 10^-4 S m² mol^-1
(b) 10⁴ Ω^-1 cm² mol^-1
(c) 10^-2 S cm² mol^-1
(d) 10² Ω^-1 cm² mol^-1
Answer:
(b) 10⁴Ω^-1 cm² mol^-1

Question iv.
The standard potential of the cell in which the following reaction occurs
H₂₊ (g, 1 atm) + Cu²⁺ (1 M) → 2H (1 M) + Cu_(s), (\(E_{\mathrm{Cu}}^{0}\) = 0.34 V) is
(a) – 0.34 V
(b) 0.34 V
(c) 0.17 V
(d) -0.17 V
Answer:
(b) 0.34 V

Question v.
For the cell, Pb_(s)|Pb²⁺ (1 M)|| Ag⁺ (1 M)|Ag_(s), if concentration of an ion in the anode compartment is increased by a factor of 10, the emf of the cell will
(a) increase by 10 V
(b) increase by 0.0296 V
(c) decrease by 10 V
(d) decrease by 0.0296 V
Answer:
(d) decrease by 0.0296 V

Question vi.
Consider the half reactions with standard potentials

The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are
(a) Ag and Fe²⁺
(b) Ag⁺ and Fe
(c) Pb²⁺ and I^–
(d) I₂ and Fe²⁺
Answer:
(b) Ag⁺ and Fe

Question vii.
For the reaction
Ni_(s) + Cu²⁺ (1 M) → Ni²⁺ (1 M) + Cu_(s), \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) = 0.57 V. Hence ΔG⁰ of the reaction is
(a) 110 kJ
(b) -110 kJ
(c) 55 kJ
(d) -55 kJ
Answer:
(b) -110 kJ

Question viii.
Which of the following is not correct ?
(a) Gibbs energy is an extensive property
(b) Electrode potential or cell potential is an intensive property.
(c) Electrical work = -ΔG
(d) If half reaction is multiplied by a numerical factor, the corresponding E⁰ value is also multiplied by the same factor.
Answer:
(d) If half reaction is multiplied by a numerical factor, the corresponding E⁰ value is also multiplied by the same factor.

Question ix.
The oxidation reaction that takes place in lead storage battery during discharge is

Answer:
(c) \(\mathrm{Pb}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}{ }^{2-} \longrightarrow \mathrm{PbSO}_{4(\mathrm{~s})}+2 \mathrm{e}^{-}\)

Question x.
Which of the following expressions represent molar conductivity of Al₂(SO₄)₃ ?

Answer:
(b) \(2 \lambda_{\mathrm{Al}^{3+}}^{0}+3 \lambda_{\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}}^{0}\)

2. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question i.
What is a cell constant ?
Answer:
(A) Cell constant of a conductivity cell is defined as the ratio of the distance between the electrodes divided by the area of cross section of the electrodes.

In SI units it is expressed as m-1.

Question ii.
Write the relationship between conductivity and molar conductivity and hence unit of molar conductivity.
Answer:
If k is conductivity and ∧_m is molar conductivity then, ∧_m = \(\frac{\kappa \times 1000}{C}\)
Unit of molar conductivity is, Ω^-1 cm² mol^-1 or S cm² mol^-1.

Question iii.
Write the electrode reactions during electrolysis of molten KCl.
Answer:

Question iv.
Write any two functions of salt bridge.
Answer:
The functions of a salt bridge are :

• It maintains the electrical contact between the two electrode solutions of the half cells.
• It prevents the mixing of electrode solutions.
• It maintains the electrical neutrality in both the solutions of two half cells by a flow of ions.
• It eliminates the liquid junction potential.

Question v.
What is standard cell potential for the reaction
3Ni_(s) + 2Al³⁺ (1M) → 3NI²⁺ (1M) + 2Al_(s)
if \(\boldsymbol{E}_{\mathrm{Ni}}^{0}\) = – 0.25 V and \(\boldsymbol{E}_{\mathrm{Al}}^{0}\) = -1.66V?
Solution :
Given : E⁰_Ni²⁺/Ni = -0.25 V
E⁰_Al³⁺/Al = – 1.66 V; E⁰_cell = ?
Since Ni is oxidised and Al³⁺ is reduced,
\(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}=E_{\mathrm{Al}^{3+} / \mathrm{Al}}^{0}-E_{\mathrm{Ni}^{2+} / \mathrm{Ni}}^{0}\)
= – 1.66 – (-0.25)
= – 1.41 V
Ans. \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) = -1.41 V
[Note : Since \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) is negative, the given reaction is not possible but reverse reaction is possible.]

Question vi.
Write Nerst equation. What part of it represents the correction factor for nonstandard state conditions ?
Answer:
(1) Nernst equation for cell potential is,

(2) The part of equation namely,

represents the correction factor for nonstandard state conditions.

Question vii.
Under what conditions the cell potential is called standard cell potential ?
Answer:
In the standard cell, the active masses of the substances taking part in the electrochemical reaction have unit value, i.e., 1 M solution or ions and 1 atm gas.

Question viii.
Formulate a cell from the following electrode reactions :
\(\mathbf{A u}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{3+}+\mathbf{3 e}^{-} \longrightarrow \mathbf{A} \mathbf{u}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
\(\mathbf{M g}_{(\mathbf{s})} \longrightarrow \mathbf{M g}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}+\mathbf{2 e}^{-}\)
Answer:
An electrochemical cell from above electrode reactions is,

Question ix.
How many electrons would have a total charge of 1 coulomb ?
Answer:
Given : 1 Faraday = charge on 1 mol of electrons
= 6.022 × 10²³ electrons and 1 Faraday = 96500 C
∵ 96500 C = 6.022 × 10²³ electrons 6 022 × 10²³
∴ 1 C ≡ \(\frac{6.022 \times 10^{23}}{96500}\) = 6.24 × 10¹⁸ electrons
Ans. Number of electrons = 6.24 × 10¹⁸

Question x.
What is the significance of the single vertical line and double vertical line in the formulation galvanic cell.
Answer:
(i) Consider representation of Daniell cell,

Single vertical line represents separation of two phases, solid Zn_(s) and solution of ions.
(ii) Double vertical lines represent a salt bridge.

3. Answer the following in brief

Question i.
Explain the effect of dilution of solution on conductivity ?
Answer:

• The conductance of a solution is due to the presence of ions in the solution. More the ions, higher is the conductance of the solution.
• Conductivity or the specific conductance is the conductance of unit volume (1 cm³) of the electrolytic solution.
• The conductivity of the electrolytic solution always decreases with the decrease in the concentration of the electrolyte or the increase in dilution of the solution.
• On dilution, the concentration of the solution decreases, hence the number of (current carrying) ions per unit volume decreases. Therefore the conductivity of the solution decreases, with the decrease concentration or increase in dilution. (It is to be noted here that, molar conductivity increases with dilution.)

Question ii.
What is a salt bridge ?
Answer:
A salt bridge is a U-shaped glass tube containing a saturated solution of a strong electrolyte, like KCl, NH₄NO₃, Na₂SO₄ in a solidified agar-agar gel. A hot saturated solution of these electrolytes in 5% agar solution is filled in the U-shaped tube and allowed it to cool and solidify forming a gel.

Fig. 5.9 : Salt bridge
It is used to connect two half cells or electrodes forming a galvanic or voltaic cell.

Question iii.
Write electrode reactions for the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl.
Answer:
Reactions in electrolytic cell :
(i) Reduction half reaction at cathode : There are Na⁺ and H⁺ions but since H⁺ are more reducible than Na⁺, they undergo reduction liberating hydrogen and Na⁺ are left in the solution.
2H₂O_(l) + 2e^– → H_2(g) + 2OH^–_(aq) (reduction) E⁰ = -0.83 V

(ii) Oxidation half reaction at anode : At anode there are Cl^– and OH^–. But Cl^– ions are preferably oxidised due to less decomposition potential.

Net cell reaction : Since two electrons are gained at cathode and two electrons are released at anode for each redox step, the electrical neutrality is maintained. Hence we can write,

Since Na⁺ and OH^– are left in the solution, they form NaOH_(aq).

Question iv.
How many moles of electrons are passed when 0.8 ampere current is passed for 1 hour through molten CaCl₂ ?
Answer:
Given : I = 0.8 A; t = 1 × 60 × 60 = 3600 s
Number of moles of electrons = ?
Q = I × t
= 0.8 × 3600
= 2880 C
1 Faraday = 1 mol electrons
1 Faraday = 96500 C
∵ 96500 C = 1 mol electrons
∴ 2880 C ≡ \(\frac{2880}{96500}\)
= 0.02984 mol electrons
Ans. Number of moles of electrons = 0.02984

Question v.
Construct a galvanic cell from the electrodes Co³⁺|Co and Mn²⁺|Mn. \(\boldsymbol{E}_{\mathrm{Co}}^{0}\) = 1.82 V,
\(\boldsymbol{E}_{\mathrm{Mn}}^{0}\) = – 1.18V. Calculate \(\boldsymbol{E}_{\text {cell }}^{0}\).
Answer:

Question vi.
Using the relationsip between ∆G⁰ of cell reaction and the standard potential associated with it, how will you show that the electrical potential is an intensive property ?
Answer:
(1) For an electrochemical cell involving n number of electrons in the overall cell reaction,
ΔG⁰ = -nF\(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\)
where ΔG⁰ is standard Gibbs energy change and \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) is a standard cell potential.
(2) ∴ \(E_{\mathrm{cell}}^{0}=\frac{-\Delta G^{0}}{n F}\)
Since ΔG⁰ changes according to number of moles of electrons involved in the cell reaction, the ratio, ΔG⁰/nF remains constant.
(3) Therefore \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) is independent of the amount of substance and it represents the intensive property.

Question vii.
Derive the relationship between standard cell potential and equilibrium constant of cell reaction.
Answer:
For any galvanic cell, the overall cell reaction at equilibrium can be represented as,
Reactants ⇌ Products.
[For example for Daniell cell,
\(\mathrm{Zn}_{(s)}+\mathrm{Cu}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}+\mathrm{Cu}_{(\mathrm{s})}\) ]
The equilibrium constant, K for the reversible reaction will be, \(K=\frac{[\text { Products }]}{[\text { Reactants }]}\)

The equilibrium constant is related to the stan-dard free energy change Δ G⁰, as follows,
ΔG⁰ = -RTlnK
If \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) is the standard cell potential (or emf) of the galvanic cell, then ΔG⁰ = -nFE⁰_cell
By comparing above equations,

Question viii.
It is impossible to measure the potential of a single electrode. Comment.
Answer:
(1)

Fig 5.12(a) : Measurement of single electrode potential

Fig 5.12(b) : Measurement of cell potential
According to Nemst theory, electrode potential is the potential difference between the metal and ionic layer around it at equilibrium, i.e. the potential across the electric double layer.

(2) For measuring the single electrode potential, one part of the double layer, that is metallic layer can be connected to the potentiometer but not the ionic layer. Hence, single electrode potential can’t be measured experimentally.

(3) When an electrochemical cell is developed by combining two half cells or electrodes, they can be connected to the potentiometer and the potential difference or cell potential can be measured.
E_cell = E₂ – E₁
where E₁ and E₂ are reduction potentials of two electrodes.

Question ix.
Why do the cell potential of lead accumulators decrease when it generates electricity ? How the cell potential can be increased ?
Answer:
Working of a lead accumulator :
(1) Discharging : When the electric current is withdrawn from lead accumulator, the following reactions take place :

(2) Net cell reaction :
(i) Thus, the overall cell reaction during discharging is

OR
Pb_(s) + PbO_2(s) + 2H₂SO_4(aq) → 2PbSO_4(s) + 2H₂O_(l)
The cell potential or emf of the cell depends upon the concentration of sulphuric acid. During the operation, the acid is consumed and its concentration decreases and specific gravity decreases from 1.28 to 1.17. As a result, the emf of the cell decreases. The emf of a fully charged cell is about 2.0 V.

(ii) Recharging of the cell : When the discharged battery is connected to external electric source and a higher external potential is applied the cell reaction gets reversed generating H₂SO₄.
Reduction at the -ve electrode or cathode :
PbSO4_(s) + 2e^– → Pb_(s) + \(\mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)
Oxidation at the + ve electrode or anode :

The emf of the accumulator depends only on the concentration of H₂SO₄.

Question x.
Write the electrode reactions and net cell reaction in NICAD battery.
Answer:
Reactions in the cell :
(i) Oxidation at cadmium anode :
Cd_(s) + 2OH^–_(aq) → Cd(OH)_2(s) + 2e^–
(ii) Reduction at NiO_2(s) cathode :
NiO_2(s) + 2H₂O_(l) + 2e^– → Ni(OH)_2(s) + 2OH^–_(aq)
The overall cell reaction is the combination of above two reactions.
Cd_(s) + NiO_2(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → Cd(OH)_2(s) + Ni(OH)_2(s)

4. Answer the following :

Question i.
What is Kohrausch law of independent migration of ions? How is it useful in obtaining molar conductivity at zero concentration of a weak electrolyte ? Explain with an example.
Answer:
(A) Statement of Kohlrausch’s law : This states that at infinite dilution of the solution, each ion of an electrolyte migrates independently of its co-ions and contributes independently to the total molar conductivity of the electrolyte, irrespective of the nature of other ions present in the solution.

(B) Explanation : Both the ions, cation and anion of the electrolyte make a definite contribution to the molar conductivity of the electrolyte at infinite dilution or zero concentration (∧₀).
If \(\lambda_{+}^{0}\) and \(\lambda_{-}^{0}\) are the molar ionic conductivities of cation and anion respectively at infinite dilution, then
∧₀ = \(\lambda_{+}^{0}\) + \(\lambda_{-}^{0}\).
This is known as Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions.
For an electrolyte, B_xA_y giving x number of cations and y number of anions,
∧₀ = x\(\lambda_{+}^{0}\) + y\(\lambda_{-}^{0}\).

(C) Applications of Kohlrausch’s law :
(1) With this law, the molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte at zero concentration can be determined. For example,
\(\wedge_{0(\mathrm{KCl})}=\lambda_{\mathrm{K}^{+}}^{0}-\lambda_{\mathrm{Cl}^{-}}^{0}\)
(2) ∧₀ values of weak electrolyte with those of strong electrolytes can be obtained. For example,

Molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution or zero concentration cannot be measured experimentally.
Consider the molar conductivity (∧₀) of a weak acid, CH₃COOH at zero concentration. By Kohlrausch s law,

where λ⁰CH₃COO^– and λ⁰_H⁺ are the molar ionic conductivities of CH₃COO^– and H⁺ ions respectively.
If ∧_0CH3COONa, ∧_0HCl and ∧_0NaCl are molar conductivities of CH₃COONa, HCl and NaCl respectively at zero concentration, then by
Kohlrausch’s law,

Hence, from ∧₀ values of strong electrolytes, ∧₀ of a weak electrolyte CH₃COOH, at infinite dilution can be calculated.

Question ii.
Explain electrolysis of molten NaCl.
Answer:
(1) Construction of an electrolytic cell : It consists of a vessel containing molten (fused) NaCl. Two graphite (carbon) inert electrodes are dipped in it, and connected to an external source of direct electric current (battery). The electrode connected to a negative terminal of the battery is a cathode and that connected to a positive terminal is an anode.

(2) Working of the cell :
(A) In the external circuit, the electrons flow through the wires from anode to cathode of the cell.
(B) The fused NaCl dissociates to form cations (Na⁺) and anions (Cl^–).
\(\mathrm{NaCl}_{\text {(fused) }} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{l})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{l})}^{-}\)
Na⁺ migrate towards cathode and Cl^– migrate towards anode.

Fig. 5.7 : Electrolysis of fused sodium chloride

(C) Reactions in electrolytic cell :
(i) Reduction half reaction at cathode : The Na⁺ ions get reduced by accepting electrons from a cathode supplied by a battery and form metallic sodium.
\(\mathrm{Na}^{+}+\mathrm{e}^{-} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})} \text { (reduction) }\)

(ii) Oxidation half reaction at anode : The Cl^– ions get oxidised by giving up electrons to the anode forming neutral Cl atoms in the primary process, and these Cl atoms combine forming Cl₂ gas in the secondary process.

The released electrons in the anodic oxidation half reaction return to battery through the metallic wires.

Net cell reaction : In order to maintain the electrical neutrality, the number of electrons gained at cathode must be equal to the number of electrons released at anode. Hence the reduction half reaction is multiplied by 2 and both reactions, oxidation half reaction and reduction half reaction are added to obtain a net cell reaction.

Results of electrolysis :

• A molten silvery white Na is formed at cathode which floats on the surface of molten NaCl.
• A pale green Cl₂ gas is liberated at anode.

Question iii.
What current strength in amperes will be required to produce 2.4g of Cu from CuSO₄ solution in 1 hour ? Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol^-1.
Answer:
Given : W_Cu = 2.4 g; t = 1 hr = 1 × 60 × 60 s
M_Cu = 63.5 g mol^-1; I = ?

Ans. Current strength = I = 2.026 A

Question iv.
Equilibrium constant of the reaction,
2Cu⁺_(aq) → Cu²⁺_(aq) + Cu_(s)
is 1.2 × 10⁶. What is the standard potential of the cell in which the reaction takes place ?
Answer:
For the cell reaction, n = 1

Question v.
Calculate emf of the cell
Zn_(s)|Zn²⁺ (0.2M)||H⁺(1.6M)|H₂(g, 1.8 atm)|Pt at 25°C.
Answer:
Given : Zn_(s)|Zn²⁺(0.2M)||H⁺(1.6M)|H₂(g, 1.8 atm)|Pt


= 0.763 – 0.0296 × (- 0.8521)
= 0.763 + 0.02522
= 0.7882
Ans. \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) = 0.7882 V

Question vi.
Calculate emf of the following cell at 25°C.
Zn_(s)| Zn²⁺(0.08M)||Cr³⁺(0.1M)|Cr
E⁰_Zn = – 0.76 V, E⁰_Cr = – 0.74 V
Answer:

Question vii.
What is a cell constant ? What are its units? How is it determined experimentally?
Answer:
(A) Cell constant of a conductivity cell is defined as the ratio of the distance between the electrodes divided by the area of cross section of the electrodes.

In SI units it is expected as m^-1.

The resistance of an electrolytic solution is measured by using a conductivity cell and Wheatstone

Fig. 5.6 : Measurement of conductance
The measurement of molar conductivity of a solution involves two steps as follows :
Step I : Determination of cell constant of the conductivity cell :
KCl solution (0.01 M) whose conductivity is accurately known (κ = 0.00141 Ω^-1 cm^-1) is taken in a beaker and the conductivity cell is dipped. The two electrodes of the cell are connected to one arm while the variable known resistance (R) is placed in another arm of Wheatstone bridge.

A current detector D’ which is a head phone or a magic eye is used. J is the sliding jockey (contact) that slides on the arm AB which is a wire of uniform cross section. A source of A.C. power (alternating power) is used to avoid electrolysis of the solution.

By sliding the jockey on wire AB, a balance point (null point) is obtained at C. Let AC and BC be the lengths of wire.

If R_solution is the resistance of KCl solution and R_x is the known resistance then by Wheatstone’s bridge principle,
\(\frac{R_{\text {solution }}}{\mathrm{BC}}=\frac{R_{x}}{\mathrm{AC}}\)
∴ \(R_{\text {solution }}=\mathrm{BC} \times \frac{R_{x}}{\mathrm{AC}}\)
Then the cell constant ‘ b ’ of the conductivity cell is obtained by, b = κ_Kcl × R_solution.

Step II : Determination of conductivity of the given solution :
KCl solution is replaced by the given electrolytic solution and its resistance (R_s) is measured by Wheatstone bridge method by similar manner by obtaining a null point at D.
The conductivity (κ) of the given solution is,
κ = \(\frac{\text { cell constant }}{R_{\mathrm{s}}}=\frac{b}{R_{\mathrm{s}}}\)

Step III: Calculation of molar conductivity :
The molar conductivity (∧_m) is given by,

Since the concentration of the solution is known, ∧_m can be calculated.

Question viii.
How will you calculate the moles of electrons passed and mass of the substance produced during electrolysis of a salt solution using reaction stoichiometry.
Answer:
Calculation of moles of electrons passed : The charge carried by one mole of electrons is referred to as one faraday (F). If total charge passed is Q C, then moles of electrons passed = \(\frac{Q(\mathrm{C})}{F\left(\mathrm{C} / \mathrm{mol} \mathrm{e}^{-}\right)}\)

Calculation of mass of product : Mass, W of product formed is given by,
W = moles of product × molar mass of product (M)
= \(\frac{Q}{96500}\) × mole ratio × M
= \(\frac{I \times t}{96500}\) × mole ratio × M 96500
When two electrolytic cells containing different electrolytes are connected in series so that same quantity of electricity is passed through them, then the masses W₁ and W₂ of products produced are given by,

Question ix.
Write the electrode reactions when lead storage cell generates electricity. What are the anode and cathode and the electrode reactions during its recharging?
Answer:
Recharging of the cell : When the discharged battery is connected to external electric source and a higher external potential is applied the cell reaction gets reversed generating H₂SO₄.
Reduction at the – ve electrode or cathode :
\(\mathrm{PbSO}_{4(\mathrm{~s})}+2 \mathrm{e}^{-} \rightarrow \mathrm{Pb}^{(s)}+\mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)
Oxidation at the + ve electrode or anode :

The emf of the accumulator depends only on the concentration of H₂SO₄.

Question x.
What are anode and cathode of H₂-O₂ fuel cell ? Name the electrolyte used in it. Write electrode reactions and net cell reaction taking place in the fuel cell.
Answer:
Construction :
(i) In fuel cell the anode and cathode are porous electrodes with suitable catalyst like finely divided platinum.

(iii) H₂ is continuously bubbled through anode while O, gas is bubbled through cathode.

Working (cell reactions) :
(i) Oxidation at anode : At anode, hydrogen gas is oxidised to H₂O.
2H_2(g) + 4OH^–_(aq) → 4H₂O_(l) + 4e^– (oxidation half reaction)
(ii) Reduction at cathode : The electrons released at anode travel to cathode through external circuit and reduce oxygen gas to OH^–.
O_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l) + 4e^– → 4OH^–_(aq) (reduction half reaction)

(iii) Net cell reaction: Addition of both the above reactions at anode and cathode gives a net cell reaction.
2H_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2H₂O_(l) (overall cell reaction)

Question xi.
What are anode and cathode for Leclanche’ dry cell ? Write electrode reactions and overall cell reaction when it generates electricity.
Answer:
A dry cell has zinc vessel as anode and graphite rod as cathode and moist paste of ZnCl₂, MnO₂, NH₄Cl as electrolytes.
At anode :
Zn_(s) → \(\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}\) + 2e^– (Oxidation half reaction)
At graphite (c) cathode :
\(2 \mathrm{NH}_{4(\mathrm{e})}^{+}\) + 2e^– → 2NH_3(aq) + H_2(g) (Reduction half reaction)
2MnO_2(s) + H₂ → Mn₂O_3(s) + H₂O_(l)
There is a side reaction inside the cell, between Zn²⁺ ions and aqueous NH₃.
\(\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}+4 \mathrm{NH}_{3(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow\left[\mathrm{Zn}\left(\mathrm{NH}_{3}\right)_{4}\right]_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}\)

Question xii.
Identify oxidising agents and arrange them in order of increasing strength under standard state conditions. The standard potentials are given in parenthesis.
Al(- 1.66 V), Cl₂ (1.36 V), Cd²⁺ (-0.4 V), Fe (-0.44 V), I₂ (0.54 V), Br^– (1.09 V).
Answer:
The oxidising agents are I₂, Br^– and Cl₂. The increasing strength is

(Note : Actually Br₂ acts as an oxidising agent but not Br^–.)

Question xiii.
Which of the following species are reducing agents? Arrange them in order of increasing strength under standard state conditions. The standard potentials are given in parenthesis.
K (-2.93V), Br₂(1.09V), Mg(-2.36V), Co³⁺(1.61V), Ti²⁺(-0.37V), Ag⁺(0.8V), Ni (-0.23V).
Answer:
Lower the standard reduction potential, higher is reducing power. The reducing agents are Ni, Mg and K. Their increasing strength is,

(Note : Cations don’t act as reducing agent since they are already in oxidised state.)

Question xiv.
Predict whether the following
reactions would occur spontaneously
under standard state conditions.
a. Ca_(s) + Cd²⁺_(aq) → Ca²⁺_(aq) + Cd_(s)
b. 2 Br-_(s) + Sn²⁺(aq) → Br_2(l) + Sn_(s)
c. 2Ag_(s) + Ni²⁺_(aq) → 2 Ag⁺_(aq) + Ni_(s)
(use information of Table 5.1)
Answer:

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 5 Electrochemistry Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does electrical resistance depend on the dimensions of an electronic (metallic) conductor?
Answer:
The electrical resistance of an electronic conductor is linearly proportional to its length (l) and inversely proportional to its cross section area a.

Fig. 5.3 : Electronic conductor
Thus, R ∝ l; R ∝ \(\frac{1}{a}\)
∴ R ∝ \(\frac{l}{a}\) or R = ρ × \(\frac{l}{a}\)
where the proportionality constant p is called specific resistance. IUPAC recommends the term resistivity for specific resistance.

Question 2.
What are the units of resistivity ?
Answer:
For an electronic conductor of length l, and cross section area a, the resistance R is represented as
R = ρ × \(\frac{l}{a}\)
where ρ is the resistivity of the conductor.
∴ ρ = R × \(\frac{a}{l}\)
If l = 1 m, a = 1 m², ρ = R

Hence, resistivity is the resistance of a conductor of volume of 1 m³.
(In C.G.S. units, the units of ρ are ohm cm. Hence, ρ is the resistance of a conductor of unit volume or 1 cm³.)

Question 3.
Define resistivity. What are its units ?
Answer:
Resistivity (or specific resistance) : It is the resistance of a conductor that is 1 m in length and 1 m² in cross section area in SI units. (In C.G.S. units, it is the resistance of a conductor that is 1 cm in length and 1 cm² in cross section area.) Hence, the resistivity is the resistance of a conductor of unit volume. (In case of electrolytic solution, ρ is the resistivity i.e., resistance of a solution of unit volume.)
It has SI units, ohm m and C.G.S. units, ohm cm.

Question 4.
Why is alternating current used in the measurement of conductivity of the solution ?
Answer:
If direct current (D.C.) by battery is used, there will be electrolysis and the concentration of the solution is changed. Hence alternating current (A.C.) with high frequency is used.

Try this… (Textbook page No. 93)

Question 1.
What must be the concentration of a solution of silver nitrate to have the molar conductivity of 121.4 Ω^-1 cm² mol^-1 and the conductivity of 2.428 × 10^-3 Ω^-1 cm^-1 at 25 °C ?
Answer:

∴ Concentration of a Solution = 0.02 M

Try this… (Textbook page No. 96)

Question 1.
Obtain the expression for dissociation constant in terms of ∧_c and ∧₀ using Ostwald’s dilution law.
Answer:
Consider a solution of a weak electrolyte, BA having concentration C mol dm^-3. If α is the degree of dissociation, then by Ostwald’s theory of weak electrolytes,

If K is the dissociation constant of the weak electrolyte, then by Ostwald’s dilution law,
K = \(\frac{\alpha^{2} C}{(1-\alpha)}\)
If ∧_m is the molar conductivity of the electrolyte BA at the concentration C and ∧₀ is the molar conductivity at zero concentration or infinite dilution, then

Hence by measuring ∧_m at the concentration C and knowing ∧₀, the dissociation constant can be calculated.
If \(\lambda_{+}^{0}\) and \(\lambda_{-}^{0}\) are the ionic conductivities, then by Kohlrauseh’s law, ∧₀ = \(\lambda_{+}^{0}\) + \(\lambda_{-}^{0}\).

Learn this as well…

Question 1.
How is the cell constant of a conductivity cell determined?
Answer:
The cell constant of a given conductivity cell is obtained by measuring the resistance (R) (or the conductance) of a standard solution whose conductivity (f_c) is accurately known by using Wheatstone’s bridge (discussed in Q. 37). For this purpose, KCl solution of accurately known conductivity is used.
\(\kappa_{\mathrm{KCl}}=\frac{1}{R_{\mathrm{KCl}}} \times \frac{l}{a}\) where \(\frac{l}{a}\) is a cell constant, represented by b.
∴ \(\kappa_{\mathrm{KCl}}=\frac{b}{R_{\mathrm{KCl}}}\)
or b = κ_KCl × R_KCl
For example, the conductivity of 0.01 M KCl is 0.00141 Ω^-1 cm^-1 (S cm^-1). Hence by measuring R KCl the cell constant b can be obtained.

Try this… (Textbook page No. 95)

Question 1.
Calculate ∧₀ (CH₂ClCOOH) if ∧₀ values for HCl, KCl and CH₂ClCOOK are respectively, 4.261, 1.499 and 1.132 Ω^-1 m² mol^-1.
Solution :

Adding equations (i) and (ii) and subtracting equation (iii) we get equation (I).

Can you tell ? (Textbook page No. 103)

Question 1.
You have learnt Daniel cell in XIth standard. Write notations for anode and cathode. Write the cell formula.
Answer:
Daniel cell is represented as,

Try this… (Textbook page No. 104)

Question 1.
Write electrode reactions and overall cell reaction for Daniel cell you learnt in standard XI.
Answer:
Reactions for Daniell cell:

Question 1.
Describe different types of reversible electrodes with examples. (1 mark for each type)
Answer:
A reversible electrochemical cell or a galvanic cell consists of two reversible half cells or electrodes. There are four types of reversible electrodes according to their compositions.
(1) Metal-metal ion electrode : This electrode is set up by dipping a metal in a solution containing its own ions, e.g. Zn rod dipped into ZnSO₄ solution containing Zn⁺⁺ ions of concentration C.
It is represented as,
\(\mathrm{Zn}^{2+}{ }_{(\mathrm{aq})} \mid \mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
The reduction reaction at the electrode is,
Zn⁺⁺_(aq) + 2e^– → Zn_(s)

(2) Metal-sparingly soluble salt electrode : This electrode consists of a metal coated with one of its sparingly soluble salts and immersed in a solution containing an electrolyte having a common anion as that of the salt. For example, silver electrode coated with sparingly soluble AgCl dipped in KCl solution with common anion Cl^–. This electrode is represented as,
Cl^–_(aq) | AgCl_(s) | Ag_(s)
The reduction reaction is,
AgCl_(s) + e → Ag_(s) + Cl^–_(aq)

(3) Gas electrode : This is developed by bubbling pure and dry gas around a platinised platinum foil dipped in the solution containing ions (of the gas) reversible with respect to the gas bubbled.
The gas is adsorbed on the surface of platinum foil and establishes an equilibrium with its ions in the solution. Pt electrode provides electrical contact and also acts as a catalyst.
Some of the gas electrodes are represented as follows :
(i) Hydrogen gas electrode :
H⁺_(aq) | H₂(g, P_H2) | Pt
Reduction reaction : H⁺_(aq) + e^– → \(\frac {1}{2}\)H_2(g)
(ii) Chlorine gas electrode :
Cl^–_(aq) | Cl₂(g, PCl₂) | Pt
Reduction reaction : \(\frac {1}{2}\)Cl_2(g) + e- → Cl^–_(aq)

(4) Redox electrode (Oxidation reduction electrode) : This electrode consists of a platinum wire dipped in a solution containing the ions of the same metal (or a substance) in two different oxidation states, like Fe²⁺ – Fe³⁺, Sn²⁺ – Sn⁴⁺, Mn⁺⁺ – MnO^–₄, etc.
A platinum electrode which provides an electrical contact and acts as catalyst aquires an equilibrium between two ions in the solution, due to their tendency to undergo a change from one oxidation state to another. The electrodes are represented as,
Fe²⁺_(aq), Fe³⁺_(aq) | Pt
Reduction reaction : Fe³⁺_(aq) + e^– → Fe²⁺_(aq)
SnCl_2(aq), SnCl_4(aq) | Pt
Reduction reaction : Sn⁴⁺_(aq) + 2e^– →Sn²⁺_(aq)

Use your brain power! (Textbook page No. 98)

Question 1.
Distinguish between electrolytic and galvanic cells.
Answer:
Electrolytic cell:

1. This device is used to bring about a non-spontaneous chemical reaction by passing an electric current.
2. It is used to bring about a chemical reaction generally for the dissociation (electrolysis) of compounds.
3. In this cell, electrical energy is converted into chemical energy.
4. In this cell, the cathode is negative and the anode is positive.
5. Electrolytic cells are irreversible.
6. Oxidation takes place at the positive electrode and reduction at the negative electrode.
7. The electrons are supplied by the external source and enter through cathode and come out through anode.
8. It is used for electroplating, electrorefining, etc.

Electrochemical cell (Galvanic cell or Voltaic cell):

1. This device is used to produce electrical energy by a spontaneous chemical reaction.
2. It is used to generate electricity.
3. In this cell, chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.
4. In this cell, the cathode is positive and the anode is negative.
5. Electrochernical cells are reversible.
6. Oxidation takes place at the negative electrode and reduction at the positive electrode.
7. The electrons move from anode to cathode in the external circuit.
8. It is used as a source of electric current.

Try this… (Textbook page No. 107)

Question 1.
Write expressions to calculate equilibrium constant from
i. Concentration data
ii. Thermochemical data
iii. Electrochemical data
Answer:
(i) Consider following a reversible cell reaction.
aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD
If [A], [B], [C] and [D] represent concentrations of reactants and products then the equilibrium constant K is,
K = \(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{c} \times[\mathrm{D}]^{d}}{[\mathrm{~A}]^{a} \times[\mathrm{B}]^{b}}\)
(ii) If ΔG⁰ is the standard Gibbs free energy change at temperature T then,
ΔG⁰ = – RTlnK = – 2.303 RTlog₁₀K
(iii) From electrochemical data,
if \(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}\) is the standard cell potential and K is the equilibrium constant for the cell reaction at a temperature T, then,
\(E_{\text {cell }}^{0}=\frac{0.0592}{n} \log _{10} K\)

Learn this as well…

Question 1.
The construction and working of the calomel electrode.
Answer:
(1) Since standard hydrogen electrode (SHE) is not convenient for experimental use, a secondary reference electrode like calomel electrode is used.
(2) Construction : It consists of a glass vessel with side arm B for dipping in a desired solution of another electrode like, ZnSO_4(aq) for an electric contact. The vessel is filled with mercury, a paste of Hg and Hg₂Cl₂ (calomel) and saturated KCl solution.

Fig. 5.15 : Determination of standard electrode potential using calomel electrode
(3) The potential developed depends upon the concentration of Cl^– or KCl solution. When saturated KCl solution is used, its reduction potential is 0.242 V.
(4) Consider following cell :
Zn_(s) | ZnSO_4(aq) || KCl_(aq) | Hg₂Cl_2(s) | Hg
OR Zn_(s) | ZnSO_4(aq) || Calomel electrode
Reduction reaction for calomel electrode :
Hg₂Cl_2(s) + 2e^– → 2Hg_(l) + 2Cl^–_(aq)
Hence potential of calomel electrode depends on the concentration of Cl^– or KCl solution.

Can you tell ? (Textbook page No. 114)

Question 1.
In what ways are fuel cells and galvanic cells similar and in what ways are they different ?
Answer:
Similarity between fuel cells and galvanic cells :

• In both the cells, there is oxidation at anode and j reduction at cathode.
• The cell potential is developed due to net redox reactions.
• Both are galvanic cells.

Difference in fuel cells and galvanic cells :

• Fuel cells involve electrodes with large surface area while galvanic cells involve electrodes with j compact surface area.
• Fuel cells involve gaseous materials on a large scale while galvanic cells involve gaseous materials at a definite pressures along with electrolytes or there may not be gases.
• In fuel cells, the cell potential is developed due to exothermic combustion reactions while in galvanic cell, cell potential is developed due to normal redox reactions.
• In fuel cells gaseous electrode materials are continuously supplied from outside while in galvanic cells electrode materials have constant concentration or may change due to reactions.

Use your brain power (Textbook page No. 114)

Question 1.
Indentify the strongest and the weakest oxidizing agents from the electrochemical series.
Answer:
From the electrochemical series,
(a) The strongest oxidising agent is fluorine since it has the highest standard reduction potential (\(E_{\mathrm{F}_{2} / \mathrm{F}^{-}}^{0}\) = + 2.87 V).
(b) The weakest oxidising agent (or the strongest reducing agent) is lithium since it has the lowest standard reduction potential, (\(E_{\mathrm{Li}^{+} / \mathrm{Li}}^{0}\) = -3.045 V).

Use your brainpower (Textbook page No. 115)

Question 1.
Identify the strongest and the weakest reducing agents from the electrochemical series.
Answer:
(a) From the electrochemical series, the strongest reducing agent is lithium since it has the lowest standard reduction potential (\(E_{\mathrm{Li}^{+} / \mathrm{Li}}^{0}\) = -3.045 V).
(b) The weakest reducing agent is fluorine since it has the highest standard reduction potential,
(\(E_{\mathrm{F}_{2} / \mathrm{F}^{-}}^{0}\) = +2.87 V).

Question 2.
From E° values given in Table 5.1, predict whether Sn can reduce I₂ or Ni²⁺.
Answer:
From the electrochemical series,

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Solid State Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Electrochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Chemical Thermodynamics Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions

1. Select the most appropriate option.

Question 1.
The correct thermodynamic conditions for the spontaneous reaction at all temperatures are
(a) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0
(b) ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0
(c) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0
(d) ΔH < 0 and ΔS = 0
Answer:
(a) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0

Question ii.
A gas is allowed to expand in a well-insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5 bar from an initial volume of 2.5 L to a final volume of 4.5 L. The change in internal energy, ΔU of the gas will be
(a) -500 J
(b) +500J
(c) -1013 J
(d) +1013 J
Answer:
(a) -500 J

Question iii.
In which of the following, entropy of the system decreases ?
(a) Crystallisation of liquid into solid
(b) Temperature of crystalline solid is increased from 0 K to 115 K
(c) H_2(g) → 2H_(g)
(d) 2NaHCO_3(s) → Na₂CO_3(s) + CO_2(g) + H₂O_(g)
Answer:
(a) Crystallisation of liquid into solid

Question iv.
The enthalpy of formation for all elements in their standard states is
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) less than zero
(d) different elements
Answer:
(b) zero

Question v.
Which of the following reactions is exothermic ?
(a) H_2(g) → 2H_(g)
(b) C(s) → C_(g)
(c) 2Cl_(g) → Cl_2(g)
(d) H₂O_(s) → H₂O_(l)
Answer:
(c) 2Cl_(g) → Cl_2(g)

Question vi.
6.24 g of ethanol are vaporized by supplying 5.89 kJ of heat. Enthalpy of vaporization of ethanol will be
(a) 43.4 kJ mol^-1
(b) 60.2 kJ mol^-1
(c) 38.9 kJ mol^-1
(d) 20.4 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
(a) 43.4 kJ mol^-1

Question vii.
If the standard enthalpy of formation of methanol is -238.9 kJ mol^-1 then entropy change of the surroundings will be
(a) -801.7 JK^-1
(b) 801.7 JK^-1
(c) 0.8017 JK^-1
(d) -0.8017 JK^-1
Answer:
(b) 801.7 JK^-1

Question viii.
Which of the following are not state functions ?
1. Q + W 2. Q 3. W 4. H-TS
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 2 and 3

Question ix.
For vaporization of water at 1 bar, ΔH = 40.63 kJ mol^-1 and ΔS =108.8 JK^-1 mol^-1. At what temperature, ΔG = 0?
(a) 273.4 K
(b) 393.4 K
(c) 373.4 K
(d) 293.4 K
Answer:
(c) 373.4 K

Question x.
Bond enthalpies of H – H, Cl – Cl and H – Cl bonds are 434 kJ mol^-1, 242 kJ mol^-2 and 431 kJ mol^-1, respectively. Enthalpy of formation of HCl is
(a) 245 kJ mol^-1
(b) -93 kJ mol^-1
(c) -245 kJ mol^-1
(d) 93 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
(b) -93 kJ mol^-1

2. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question i.
Comment on the statement: No work is involved in an expansion of a gas in vacuum.
Answer:
(1) When a gas expands against an external pressure Pex, changing the volume from V₁ to V₂, the work obtained is given by
W = -P_ex (V₂ – V₁).
(2) Hence the work is performed by the system when it experiences the opposing force or pressure.
(3) Greater the opposing force, more is the work.
(4) In free expansion, the gas expands in vaccum where it does not experience opposing force, (P = 0). Since external pressure is zero, no work is obtained.
∴ W = -P_ex (V₂ – V₁)
= -0 × (V₂ – V₁)
= 0
(5) Since during expansion in vacuum no energy is expended, it is called free expansion.

Question ii.
State the first law of thermodynamics.
Answer:
The first law of thermodynamics is based on the principle of conservation of energy and can be stated in different ways as follows :

1. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, however, it may be converted from one form into another.
2. Whenever, a quantity of one kind of energy is consumed or disappears, an equivalent amount of another kind of energy appears.
3. The total mass and energy of an isolated system remain constant, although there may be interconservation of energy from one form to another.
4. The total energy of the universe remains constant.

Question iii.
What is enthalpy of fusion?
Answer:
Enthalpy of fusion (Δ_fusH) : The enthalpy change that accompanies the fusion of one mole of a solid into a liquid at constant temperature and pressure is called enthalpy of fusion.
For example,

This equation describes that when one mole of ice melts (fuses) at 0 °C (273 K) and 1 atmosphere, 6.1 kJ of heat will be absorbed.

Question iv.
What is standard state of a substance?
Answer:
The thermodynamic standard state of a substance (compound) is the most stable physical state of it at 298 K and 1 atmosphere (or 1 bar). The enthalpy of the substance in the standard state is represented as Δ_fH⁰.

Question v.
State whether ∆S is positive, negative or zero for the reaction 2H_(g) → H_2(g). Explain.
Answer:
(i) The given reaction, 2H_(g) → H_2(g) is the formation of H_2(g) from free atoms.
(ii) Since two H atoms form one H₂ molecule, ∆n = 1 – 2= -1 and disorder is decreased. Hence entropy change ∆S < 0 (or negative).

Question vi.
State second law of thermodynamics in terms of entropy.
Answer:
The second law of thermodynamics states that the total entropy of the system and its surroundings (universe) increases in a spontaneous process.
OR
Since all the natural processes are spontaneous, the entropy of the universe increases.
It is expressed mathematically as
∆ S_Total = ∆ S_system + ∆S_surr > 0
∆ S_Universe = ∆ S_system + ∆ S_surr > 0

Question vii.
If the enthalpy change of a reaction is ∆H how will you calculate entropy of surroundings?
Answer:
(i) For endothermic reaction, ∆H > 0. This shows the system absorbs heat from surroundings.
∴ ∆_surr H < 0.
∵ Entropy change = ∆_surr S = \(\frac{-\Delta_{\text {surr }} H}{T}\)
There is decrease in entropy of surroundings.
(ii) For exothermic reaction, ∆H < 0, hence for surroundings, ∆_surr H > 0

∴ ∆_surr > 0.

Question viii.
Comment on spontaneity of reactions for which ∆H is positive and ∆S is negative.
Answer:
Since ∆H is +ve and ∆S is -ve, ∆G will be +ve at all temperatures. Hence reactions will be non-spontaneous at all temperatures.

3. Answer in brief.

Question i.
Obtain the relationship between ∆G° of a reaction and the equilibrium constant.
Answer:
Consider following reversible reaction, aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD
The reaction quotient Q is,
Q = \(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]^{c} \times[\mathrm{D}]^{d}}{[\mathrm{~A}]^{a} \times[\mathrm{B}]^{b}}\)
The free energy change ∆G for the reaction is ∆G = ∆G° + RT in Q
Where ∆G° is the standard free energy change.
At equilibrium
Q = \(\frac{[\mathrm{C}]_{e}^{c} \times[\mathrm{D}]_{e}^{d}}{[\mathrm{~A}]_{e}^{a} \times[\mathrm{B}]_{e}^{b}}=\mathrm{K}\)
∴ ∆G = ∆G° + RT In K
∵ at equilibrium ∆G = 0
∴ 0 = AG° + RT In K
∴ ∆G° = -RT In K
∴ ∆G°= -2.303 RT log₁₀K.

Question ii.
What is entropy? Give its units.
Answer:
(i) Entropy : Being a state function and thermodynamic function it is defined as entropy change (∆S) of a system in a process which is equal to the amount of heat transferred in a reversible manner (Q_rev) divided by the absolute temperature (T), at which the heat is absorbed. Thus,

(ii) Units of entropy are JK^-1 in SI unit and cal K^-1 in c.g.s. units. It is also expressed in terms of entropy unit (e.u.). Hence 1 e.u. = 1 JK^-1.
(iii) Entropy is a measure of disorder in the system. Higher the disorder, more is entropy of the system.

Question iii.
How will you calculate reaction enthalpy from data on bond enthalpies?
Answer:
(i) In chemical reactions, bonds are broken in the reactant molecules and bonds are formed in the product molecules.
(ii) Energy is always required to break a chemical bond while energy is always released in the formation of the bond.
(iii) The enthalpy change of a gaseous reactions (Δ_fH⁰) involving substances with covalent bonds can be calculated with the help of bond enthalpies of reactants and products. (In case of solids we need lattice energy or heat of sublimation while in case of liquids we need heat of evaporation.)

If the energy required to break the bonds of reacting molecules is more than the energy released in the bond formation of the products, then the reaction will be endothermic and ∆H⁰ reaction will be positive. On the other hand if the energy released in the bond formation of the products is more than the energy required to break the bonds of reacting molecules then the reaction will be exothermic and ∆H⁰ reaction will be negative.

Question iv.
What is the standard enthalpy of combustion ? Give an example.
Answer:
Standard enthalpy of combustion or standard heat of combustion : it is defined as the enthalpy change when one mole of a substance in the standard state undergoes complete combustion in a sufficient amount of oxygen at constant temperature (298 K) and pressure (1 atmosphere or 1 bar). It is denoted by ∆_cH⁰.
E.g. CH₃OH_(l) + \(\frac {3}{2}\) O_2(g) = CO_2(g) + 2H₂O
∆_cH⁰= -726 kJ mol^-1
(∆_cH⁰ is always negative.)
[Note : Calorific value : It is the enthalpy change or amount of heat liberated when one gram of a substance undergoes combustion.

Question v.
What is the enthalpy of atomization? Give an example.
Answer:
Enthalpy of atomisation (∆_atomH) : it is the enthalpy change accompanying the dissociation of one mole of gaseous substance into its atoms at constant temperature and pressure.
For example : CH_4(g) → C_(g) + 4H_(g) ∆_atomH = 1660 kJ mol^-1

Question vi.
Obtain the expression for work done in chemical reaction.
Answer:
Consider n₁ moles of gaseous reactants A of volume V₁ change to n₂ moles of gaseous products B of volume V₂ at temperature T and pressure P.

In the initial state, PV₁ = n₁RT
In the final state, PV₂ = n₂RT
PV₂ – PV₁ = n₂RT – n₁RT = (n₂ – n₁)RT = ∆nRT
where ∆n is the change in number of moles of gaseous products and gaseous reactants.
Due to net changes in gaseous moles, there arises change in volume against constant pressure resulting in mechanical work, -P∆V.
∴ W = -P∆V = -P(V₂ – V₁) = – ∆nRT
(i) If n₁ – n₂, ∆n = 0, W = 0. No work is performed.
(ii) If n₂ > n₁, ∆n > 0, there is a work of expansion by the system and W is negative.
(iii) If n₂ < n₁, ∆n < 0, there is a work of compression, hence work is done on the system and W is positive.

Question vii.
Derive the expression for PV work.
Answer:
Consider a certain amount of an ideal gas enclosed in an ideal cylinder fitted with massless, frictionless rigid movable piston at pressure P, occupying volume V₁ at temperature T.

Fig. 4.8 : Work of expansion
As the gas expands, it pushes the piston upward through a distance d against external force F, pushing the surroundings.
The work done by the gas is,
W = opposing force × distance = -F × d
-ve sign indicates the lowering of energy of the system during expansion.
If a is the cross section area of the cylinder or piston, then,
W = \(-\frac{F}{a}\) × d × a
Now the pressure is P_ex = \(\frac{F}{a}\)
while volume change is, ΔV = d × a
∴ W = -P_ex × ΔV
If during the expansion, the volume changes from V₁ and V₂ then, ΔV = V₂ – V₁
∴ W= -P_ex(V₂ – V₁)
During compression, the work W is +ve, since the energy of the system is increased,
W = +P_ex(V₂ – V₁)

Question viii.
What are intensive properties? Explain why density is intensive property.
Answer:
(A) Intensive property : It is defined as a property of a system whose magnitude is independent of the amount of matter present in the system.
Explanation :

1. Intensive property is characteristic of the system, e.g., refractive index, density, viscosity, temperature, pressure, boiling point, melting point, freezing point of a pure liquid, surface tension, etc.
2. The intensive properties are not additive.

(B) Density is a ratio of two extensive properties namely, mass and volume. Since the ratio of two extensive properties represents an intensive property, density is an intensive property. It does not depend on the amount of a substance.

Question ix.
How much heat is evolved when 12 g of CO reacts with NO₂ ? The reaction is :
4 CO_(g) + 2 NO_2(g) → 4CO_2(g) + N_2(g), ∆H⁰ = -1200 kJ

4. Answer the following questions.

Question i.
Derive the expression for the maximum work.
Answer:

Consider n moles of an ideal gas enclosed in an ideal cylinder fitted with a massless and frictionless movable rigid piston. Let V be the volume of the gas at a pressure P and a temperature T.
If in an infinitesimal change pressure changes from P to P – dP and volume increases from V to V + dV. Then the work obtained is, dW = -(P-dP) dV
= -PdV + dPdV
Since dP.dV is negligibly small relative to PdV
dW= -PdV
Let the state of the system change from A(P₁, L₁) to B (P₂, V₂) isothermally and reversibly, at temperature T involving number of infinitesimal steps.

Then the total work or maximum work in the process is obtained by integrating above equation.

At constant temperature,

where n, P, V and T represent number of moles, pressure, volume and temperature respectively. For the process,
ΔU = 0, ΔH = 0.
The heat absorbed in reversible manner
Q_rev, is completely converted into work.
Q_rev = -W_max.
Hence work obtained is maximum.

Question ii.
Obtain the relatioship between ∆H and ∆U for gas phase reactions.
Answer:
Consider a reaction in which n₁ moles of gaseous reactant in initial state change to n₂ moles of gaseous product in the final state.
Let H₁, U₁, P₁, V₁ and H₂, U₂, P₂, V₂ represent enthalpies, internal energies, pressures and volumes in the initial and final states respectively then,

The heat of reaction is given by enthalpy change ΔH as,
ΔH = H₂ – H₁
By definition, H = U + PV
∴ H₁ = U₁ + P₁V₁ and H₂ = U₂+ P₂V₂
∴ ΔH = (U2 + P₂V₂) – (U₁ + P₁V₁)
= (U2 – U₁) + (P₂V₂ – P₁V₁)
Now, ΔU = U₂ – U₁
Since PV = nRT,
For initial state, P₁V₁= n₁RT
For final state, P₂V₂ = n₂RT
∴ P₂V₂ – P₁V₁ = n₂RT – n₁RT
= (n₂ – n₁) RT
= ΔnRT
where Δn

∴ ΔH = ΔU + ΔnRT
If Q_P and Q_V are the heats involved in the reaction at constant pressure and constant volume respectively, then since Q_P = ΔH and Q_V = ΔU.
∴ Q_P = Q_V = ΔnRT

Question iii.
State Hess’s law of constant heat summation. Illustrate with an example. State its applications.
Answer:
Statement of law of constant heat summation : It states that, the heat of a reaction or the enthalpy change in a chemical reaction depends upon initial state of reactants and final state of products and independent of the path by which the reaction is brought about (i.e. in single step or in series of steps).
OR
Heat of reaction is same whether it is carried out in one step or in several steps.
Explanation :
Consider the formation of CO_2(g).

Hess’s law treats thermochemical equations mathematically i.e., they can be added, subtracted or multiplied by numerical factors like algebraic equations.

Applications : Hess’s law is used for :

1. To calculate heat of formation, combustion, neutralisation, ionization, etc.
2. To calculate the heat of reactions which may not take place normally or directly.
3. To calculate heats of extremely slow or fast reactions.
4. To calculate enthalpies of reactants and products.

Question iv.
Although ∆S for the formation of two moles of water from H₂ and O₂ is -327 JK^-1, it is spontaneous. Explain. (Given ∆H for the reaction is -572 kJ).
Answer:
Given : ΔS= -327 JK^-1; ΔH = -572 kJ
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS, and ΔH << ΔS
∴ ΔG < 0, and hence the formation of H₂O_(l) is spontaneous.

Question v.
Obtain the relation between ∆G and ∆S_Total. Comment on spontaneity of the reaction.
Answer:
(i) Gibbs free energy, G is defined as,
G = H – TS
where H is the enthalpy, S is the entropy of the system at absolute temperature T.
Since H, T and S are state functions, G is a state function and a thermodynamic function.

(ii) At constant temperature and pressure, change in free energy ΔG for the system is represented as, ∆G = ∆H – T∆S

This is called Gibbs free energy equation for ∆G. In this ∆S is total entropy change, i.e., ∆S_Total.

(iii) The SI units of ∆G are J or kJ (or Jmol^-1 or kJmol^-1).
The c.g.s. units of ∆G are cal or kcal (or cal mol^-1 or kcal mol^-1.)

The second law explains the conditions of spontaneity as below :
(i) ∆S_total > 0 and ∆G < 0, the process is spontaneous.
(ii) ∆S_total < 0 and ∆G > 0, the process is nonspontaneous.
(iii) ∆S_total = 0 and ∆G = 0, the process is at equilibrium.

Question vi.
One mole of an ideal gas is compressed from 500 cm³ against a constant external pressure of 1.2 × 10⁵ Pa. The work involved in the process is 36.0 J. Calculate the final volume.
Answer:
Given : V₁ = 500 cm³ = 0.5 dm³;
P_ex = 1.2 × 10⁵ Pa = 1.2 bar; W= 36 J;
1 dm³ bar = 100 J; V₂ = ?
W = -P_ex (V₂ – V₁)
36 J = – 1.2 (V₂ – 0.5) dm³ bar
= -1.2 × 100 (V₂ – 0.5) J
∴ V₂ – 0.5 = \(\frac{-36}{1.2 \times 100}=-0.3\)
∴ V₂ = 0.5 -0.3 = 0.2 dm³ = 200 cm³
Ans. Final volume = 200 cm³.

Question vii.
Calculate the maximum work when 24g of O₂ are expanded isothermally and reversibly from the pressure of 1.6 bar to 1 bar at 298 K.
Answer:
Given : W₀₂ = 24 g, P₁ = 1.6 bar, P₂ = 1 bar
T = 298 K, W_max = ?

Question viii.
Calculate the work done in the decomposition of 132 g of NH₄NO₃ at 100 °C.
NH₄NO_3(s) → N₂O_(g) + 2 H₂O_(g)
State whether work is done on the system or by the system.
Answer:
NH4₄NO_3(s) → N₂O_(g) + 2 H₂O_(g)
m_NH4NO3 = 132 g; M_NH4NO3 = 80 g mol^-1
T = 273 + 100 = 373 K; Δn = ?
For the reaction,
Δn = Σn_{2 gaseous products} – Σn_{1 gaseous reactants}
= 3 – 0 = 3 mol
Since there is an increase in number of gaseous moles, the work is done by the system.
n_NH4NO3 = \(\frac{m_{\mathrm{NH}_{4} \mathrm{NO}_{3}}}{M_{\mathrm{NH}_{4} \mathrm{NO}_{3}}}\)
= \(\frac{132}{80}\)
= 1.65 mol
For 1 mol NH₄NO_3(s) Δn = 3 mol
∴ For 1.65 mol NH₄NO_3(s) Δn = 3 × 1.65 = 4.95 mol
W = -ΔnRT = -4.95 × 8.314 × 373
= – 15350 J
= – 15.35 kJ
Ans. Work is done by the system.
Work done = – 15.35 kJ

Question ix.
Calculate standard enthalpy of reaction,
Fe₂O_3(s) + 3CO_(g) → 2 Fe_(s) + 3CO_2(g),
from the following data.
∆_fH⁰(Fe₂O₃) = -824 kJ/mol,
∆_fH⁰(CO) = -110 kJ/mol,
∆_fH⁰(CO₂) = -393 kJ/mol
Answer:
Given : ∆_fH⁰Fe₂O₃ = -824 kJ/mol^-1;
∆_fH⁰(CO) = – 110 kJ mol^-1
∆_fH⁰(CO₂) = – 393 kJ/mol^-1; ∆_fH⁰ = ?
Required equation,
Fe₂O_3(s) + 3CO_(g) → 2Fe_(s) + 3CO_2(g)
∆H₁ = ? – (I)
Given equations :

= -(-824) -3 (-110) + 3(-393)
= 824 + 330 – 1179
∆_fH⁰ = -25 kJ
Ans. ∆_fH⁰ = -25 kJ

Question x.
For a certain reaction ∆H⁰ =219 kJ and ∆S⁰ = -21 J/K. Determine whether the reaction is spontaneous or nonspontaneous.
Answer:
Given : ∆H⁰ = 219 kJ; ∆S⁰ = -21 J/K, ∆G⁰ = ?
For standard state, T = 298 K
∆G⁰ = ∆H⁰ – T∆S⁰
= 219 – 298 × (-21) × 10^-3
= 219 + 6.258
= 225.3 kJ
Since ∆S < 0 and ∆G⁰ > 0, the reaction is non-spontaneous.

Question xi.
Determine whether the following reaction is spontaneous under standard state conditions.
2 H₂O_(l) + O_2(g) → 2H₂O_2(l)
if ∆H⁰ = 196 kJ, ∆S⁰ = -126 J/K
Does it have a cross-over temperature?
Answer:
Given : 2H₂O_(l) + O_2(g) → 2H₂O_2(l)
∆H⁰ = +196 kJ
∆S⁰ = -126 JK-1 =0.126 kj K-1
T= 298 K
∆G⁰ = ?
Cross over temperature = T = ?
∆G⁰ = ∆H⁰ – T∆S⁰
= 196 – 298 (-0.126)
= 196 + 37.55
= + 233.55 kJ
∵ ∆G⁰ > 0, the reaction is non-spontaneous.
∆H⁰ > 0, ∆S⁰ < 0,
Since at all temperatures, ∆G⁰ > 0, there is no cross over temperature.
Ans. The reaction is non-spontaneous.
There is no cross-over temperature for the reaction.

Question xii.
Calculate ∆U at 298 K for the reaction,
C₂H_4(g) + HCl_(g) → C₂H₅Cl_(g), ∆H = -72.3 kJ
How much PV work is done?
Answer:
Given : C₂H_4(g) + HCl_(g) → C₂H₅Cl_(g)
T = 298 K; ∆H = -72.3 kJ; PV = ?;
∆U = ?
∆n = Σn_{2gaseous products} – Σn_{1gaseous reactants}
= 1 – (1 + 1)= -1 mol
For PV work :
W = -∆nRT
= – (- 1) × 8.314 × 298
= 2478 J = 2.478 kJ
∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT
∴ ∆U = ∆H – ∆nRT
= – 72.3 – (-2.478)
= – 69.82 kJ
Ans. PV work = 2.478 kJ
∆U = -69.82 kJ

Question xiii.
Calculate the work done during synthesis of NH₃ in which volume changes from 8.0 dm3 to 4.0 dm³ at a constant external pressure of 43 bar. In what direction the work energy flows?
Answer:
Given : V₁ = 8.0 dm³; V₂ = 4.0 dm³; P_ex = 43 bar
W = ? What direction work energy flows ?
W = -P_ex(V₂ – V₁)
= -43 (4 – 8)
= 172 dm³ bar
= 172 × 100 J
= 17200 J
= 17.2 kJ
In this compression process, the work is done on the system and work energy flows into the system.

Question xiv.
Calculate the amount of work done in the
(a) oxidation of 1 mole HCl_(g) at 200 °C according to reaction.
4HCl_(g) + O_2(g) → 2 Cl_2(g) + 2 H₂O_(g)
(b) decomposition of one mole of NO at 300 °C for the reaction
2 NO_(g) → N_2(g) + O₂
Answer:
Given :
(a) 4HCl_(g) + O_2(g) → 2Cl_2(g) + 2H₂O_(g)
n_HCl = 1 mol; T = 273 + 200 = 473 K, W = ?
For 4 mol HCl ∆n = (2 + 2) – (4 + 1) = – 1 mol
∴ For 1 mol HCl ∆n = –\(\frac {1}{4}\) = -0.25 mol
W = -∆nRT = – (-0.25) × 8.314 × 473 = 983.11
(b) ∆n = (1 + 1) – 2 = 0 mol
W = -∆nRT = -(0) × 8.314 × 473 = 0
Ans. (a) W = 983.1 J
(b) W = 0.0 J

Question xv.
When 6.0 g of O₂ reacts with CIF as per
2CIF_(g) + O_2(g) → Cl₂O_(g) + OF_2(g)
The enthalpy change is 38.55 kJ. What is standard enthalpy of the reaction ?
Answer:
Given : The given reaction is for 1 mol O₂ or 32 g O₂.
∵ For 6.0 g O₂
∆ H⁰ = 38.55 kJ
∴ For 32 g O₂
∆ H⁰ = \(\frac{32 \times 38.55}{6}\)
= 205.6 kJ
Ans. ∆H⁰ = 205.6 kJ

Question xvi.
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CH₃OH_(l) from the following data:
i. CH₃OH_(l) + \(\frac {3}{2}\) O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l), ∆H⁰ = -726 kJ mol^-1
ii. C (Graphite) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g), ∆_cH⁰ = -393 kJ mol^-1
iii. H_2(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\) O_2(g) → H₂O_(l), ∆_fH⁰ = -286 kJ mol^-1
Answer:


∴ ∆H⁰
= –\(\Delta H_{2}^{0}\) + \(\Delta H_{3}^{0}\) + 2∆\(\Delta H_{4}^{0}\)
= – (- 726) + (- 393) + 2(- 286)
= 726 – 393 – 572
= – 239 kJ mol^-1
Ans. Standard enthalpy of formation = ∆_fH⁰= -239 kJ mol^-1

Question xvii.
Calculate ∆H0 for the following reaction at 298 K
H₂B₄O_7(s) + H₂O_(l) → 4HBO_2(aq)
i. 2H₃BO_3(aq) → B₂O_3(s) + 3H₂O_(l), ∆H⁰ = 14.4 kJ mol^-1
ii. H₃BO_3(aq) → HBO_2(aq) + H₂O_(l), ∆H⁰ = -0.02 kJ mol^-1
iii. H₂B₄O_7(s) → 2B₂O_3(s) + H₂O_(l), ∆H⁰ = 17.3 kJ mol^-1
Answer:
Given equations :
i. 2H₃BO_3(aq) → B₂O_3(s) + 3H₂O_(l), ……….(i)
∆H⁰ = 14.4 kJ mol^-1
ii. H₃BO_3(aq) → HBO_2(aq) + H₂O_(l) ……….(ii)
∆H⁰ = -0.02 kJ mol^-1
iii. H₂B₄O_7(s) → 2B₂O_3(s) + H₂O_(l), ……….(iii)
∆H⁰ = 17.3 kJ mol^-1
Required equation :
(iv) H₂B₄O_7(s) + H₂O_(l) → 4HBO_2(aq) ……. (iv)
\(\Delta H_{4}^{0}=?\)
To obtain eq. (iv) add 4 times equation (ii) and eq.
(iii) and subtract 2 times equation (i).
∴ eq. (iv) = 4 eq. (ii) + eq. (iii) – 2eq. (i)
∴ \(\Delta H_{4}^{0}=4 \Delta H_{2}^{0}+\Delta H_{3}^{0}-2 \Delta H_{1}^{0}\)
= 4(-0.02) + 17.3 – 2(14.4)
= -0.08 + 17.3 – 28.8
= -11.58 kJ
∴ Enthalpy change for the reaction
= ∆_rH⁰ = -11.58 kJ
Ans. ∆_rH⁰ for the given reaction = -11.58 kJ

Question xviii.
Calculate the total heat required (a) to melt 180 g of ice at 0 °C, (b) heat it to 100 °C and then (c) vapourise it at that temperature. Given ∆_fusH_(ice) = 6.01 kJ mol^-1 at 0 °C, ∆_vapH_(H2O) = 40.7 kJ mol^-1 at 100 °C specific heat of water is 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1.
Answer:
Given : Mass of ice = m = 180 g
T₁ = 273 + 0 °C = 273 K
T₂ = 273 + 100 °C = 373 K
∆_fusH_(ice) = ∆_fusH_(H2O)(s) = 6.01 kJ mol^-1
∆_vapH_H2O(l) = 40.7 kJ mol^-1
Specific heat of water = C = 4.18 J g^-1 K^-1
For converting 180 g ice into vapour, ∆ H_Total = ?
Number of moles of H₂O = \(\frac {180}{18}\) = 10 mol
The total process can be represented as,

(i) ∆H₁ = ∆_fusH = 10 mol × 6.01 kJ mol^-1
= 60.1 kJ
(ii) When the temperature of water is raised from 0 °C to 100 °C (i.e., 273 K to 373 K), then
∆ H₂ = m × C × ∆T
= m × C × (T2 – T1)
= 180 g × 4.18 Jg^-1K^-1 × (373 – 273) × 10^-3 kJ = 75.24 kJ
∆ H₃ = ∆_vapH = 10 mol × 40.7 kJ mol^-1 = 407 kJ
Hence total enthalpy change,
∆ H_Total = ∆H₁ + ∆H₂ + ∆H₃
= 60.1 + 75.24 + 407
= 542.34 kJ
Ans. Total heat required = 542.34 kJ

Question xix.
The enthalpy change for the reaction,
C₂H_4(g) + H_2(g) → C₂H_6(g)
is -620 J when 100 ml of ethylene and 100 mL of H₂ react at 1 bar pressure. Calculate the pressure volume type of work and ∆U for the reaction.
Answer:
Given :
\(\begin{aligned}
&\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{4(\mathrm{~g})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{~g})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{6(\mathrm{~g})} \\
&100 \mathrm{~mL} \quad 100 \mathrm{ml} \quad 100 \mathrm{ml}
\end{aligned}\)
∆H = – 620 J; V_C2H4 = 100 mL; V_H2 = 100 mL
P_ex= 1 bar; W=?; ∆U = ?
∆V = 100 – (100 + 100) = -100 mL = -0.1 dm³
W = -P_ex(V₂ – V₁)
= -P_ex × ∆V
= -1 × (-0.1)
= 0.1 dm³ bar
= 0.1 × 100 J
= +10 J
∆H = ∆U + P∆V
∴ ∆U = ∆H – P∆V = -620 – (+10) = -610 J
Ans. W = +10 J; ∆U = -610 J

Question xx.
Calculate the work done and comment on whether work is done on or by the system for the decomposition of 2 moles of NH₄NO₃ at 100 °C
NH₄NO_3(s) → N₂O_(g) + 2H₂O_(g)
Answer:
Given : NH₄NO_3(s) → N₂O_(g) + 2H₂O_(g)
n_NH4NO3 = 2 mol; T = 273 + 100 = 373 K
W = ? Comment on work = ?
∆n_reaction = (1 + 2) – 0 = 3 mol
∵ For 1 mol of NH₄NO₃ ∆n_reaction = 3 mol
∴ For 2 mol of NH₄NO₃ ∆n_reaction = 6 mol
Due to 6 moles of gaseous products from 2 mol NH₄NO₃, there is work of expansion, hence work is done by the system.
W = -∆nRT
= – 6 × 8.314 × 373 = -18606 J
= -18.606 kJ
Ans. Work is done by the system.
W= -18.606 kJ

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 4 Chemical Thermodynamics Intext Questions and Answers

(Textbook page No. 73)

Question 1.
Under what conditions ∆H = ∆U ?
Answer:
(a) ∆H = ∆U + P∆V
when ∆V = 0, ∆H = ∆U
(b) ∆H = ∆U + ∆nRT
when ∆n = 0, ∆H = ∆U

Try this… (Textbook page No. 71)

Question 1.
25 kJ of work is done on the system and it releases 10 kJ of heat. What is ∆U?
Answer:
W = 25 kJ; Q= -10 kJ
∆U = Q + W = -10 + 25
∆U = + 15 kJ

Try this… (Textbook page No. 75)

Question 1.
For KCl, ∆_LH = 699 kJ/mol^-1 and ∆_hydH = -681.8 kJ/mol^-1. What will be its enthalpy of solution?
Answer:
Enthalpy of solution :
∆_solnH = ∆_LH + ∆_hydH
= 699 + (-681.8)
∆_solnH = +17.2 kJ mol^-1

Try this… (Textbook page No. 76)

Question 1.
Given the thermochemical equation,
C₂H_2(g) + \(\frac {5}{2}\) O_2(g) → 2CO_2(g)+ H₂O_(l), ∆_rH⁰ = -1300 kJ
Write thermochemical equations when
i. Coefficients of substances are multiplied by 2.
ii. equation is reversed.
Answer:
(i) 2C₂H_2(g) + 5O_2(g) → 4CO_2(g) + 2H₂O_(l)
∆_rH⁰ = -2 × 1300 kJ
= – 2600 kJ
(ii) 2CO_2(g) + H₂O_(l) → C₂H_2(g) + \(\frac {5}{2}\)O_2(g)
∆_rH⁰ = +1300 KJ

Try this… (Textbook page No. 78)

Question 1.
(i) Write thermochemical equation for complete oxidation of one mole of H_2(g). Standard enthalpy change of the reaction is -286 kJ.
(ii) Is the value -286 kJ, enthalpy of formation or enthalpy of combustion or both? Explain.
Answer:
(i) H_2(g) + \(\frac {1}{2}\)O_2(g) → H₂O_(l) ∆_cH⁰ = -286 KJ mol^-1
(ii) The value -286 kJ is the standard enthalpy of formation of H₂O_(l) or standard enthalpy of combustion of H_2(g).

Question 2.
Write equation for bond enthalpy of Cl-Cl bond in Cl₂ molecule ∆_rH⁰ for dissociation of Cl₂ molecule is 242.7 kJ.
Answer:
Equation for bond enthalpy :
Cl_2(g) → 2Cl_(g) ∆_rH⁰ = 242.7 kJ mol^-1
∴ Bond enthalpy of Cl₂ = 242.7 kJ mol^-1

Try this… (Textbook page No. 82)

Question 1.
State whether ∆S is positive, negative or zero for the following reactions.
i. 2H_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2H₂O_(l)
ii. CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)
Answer:
(i) 2H_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2H₂O_(l)
Since the system is converted from gaseous state to a liquid state, the disorder is decreased, hence ∆S < O (negative).

(ii) CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)
Since molecules of solid CaCO₃ break giving gaseous CO₂, disorder is increased hence ∆S > O (positive).

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Solid State Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Electrochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Biomolecules Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 6 Biomolecules Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 6 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 6 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A)
Sugar, amino acids, and nucleotides unite to their respective subunits to form ________
(a) bioelements
(b) micromolecules
(c) macromolecules
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) macromolecules

Question (B)
Glycosidic bond is found in __________ .
(a) Disaccharide
(b) Nucleosides
(c) Polysaccharide
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question (C)
Amino acids in a polypeptide are joined by _______ bond.
(a) Disulphide
(b) glycosidic
(c) hydrogen bond
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question (D)
Lipids associated with cell membrane are _________ .
(a) Sphingomyelin
(b) Isoprenoids
(c) Phospholipids
(d) Cholesterol
Answer:
(c) Phospholipids

Question (E)
Linoleic, Linolenic and ________ acids are referred as essential fatty acids since they cannot be synthesized by the body and hence must be included in daily diet.
(a) Arachidonic
(b) Oleic
(c) Steric
(d) Palmitic
Answer:
(a) Arachidonic

Question (F)
Hemoglobin is a type of ________ protein, which plays indispensable part in respiration.
(a) simple
(b) derived
(c) conjugated
(d) complex
Answer:
(c) conjugated

Question (G)
When inorganic ions or metallo-organic molecules bind to apoenzyme, they together form
(a) isoenzyme
(b) holoenzyme
(c) denatured enzyme
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) holoenzyme

Question (H)
In enzyme kinetics, Km = Vmax/2. If Km value is lower, it indicates _______
(a) Enzyme has less affinity for substrate
(b) Enzyme has higher affinity towards substrate
(c) There will be no product formation
(d) All active sites of enzyme are saturated
Answer:
(b) Enzyme has higher affinity towards substrate

2. Solve the following questions

Question (A)
Observe the following figures and write the differences between them.

Answer:

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
What are building blocks of life?
Answer:
Life is composed of four main building blocks: Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.

Question (B)
Explain the peptide bond.
Answer:
1. The covalent bond that links the two amino acids is called a peptide bond.
2. Peptide bond is formed by condensation reaction.

Question (C)
How many types of polysaccharides you know?
Answer:
There are two types of polysaccharides:
1. Homopolysaccharides: It contains same type of monosaccharides. E.g. Starch, glycogen, cellulose.
2. Heteropolysaccharides: It contains two or more different monosaccharides. E.g. Hyaluronic acid, heparin, hemicellulose.

Question (D)
Enlist the significance of carbohydrates.
Answer:
Significances of carbohydrates are as follows:

1. Carbohydrates provide energy for metabolism.
2. Glucose is the main substrate for ATP synthesis.
3. Lactose, a disaccharide present in the milk provides energy to babies.
4. Polysaccharide serves as a structural component of cell membrane, cell wall and reserved food as starch and glycogen.

Question (E)
What is reducing sugar?
Answer:
1. A sugar that serves as a reducing agent due to presence of free aldehyde or ketone group is called a reducing sugar.
2. These sugars reduce the Benedict’s reagent (Cu²+ to Cu⁺) since they are capable of transferring hydrogens (electrons) to other compounds, a process called reduction.
3. All monosaccharides are reducing sugars.

Question (F)
Enlist the examples of simple proteins and their significance.
Answer:
Examples of simple proteins are: E.g.: Albumins and histones.
Significance:
1. Albumin:
a. % It is the main protein in the blood.
b. It maintains the pressure in the blood vessels.
c. It helps in transportation of substances like hormone and drugs in the body.
2. Histones:
a. It is the chief protein of chromatin.
b. They are involved in packaging of DNA into structural units called nucleosomes.

Question (G)
Describe the secondary structure of protein with examples.
Answer:

1. There are two types of secondary structure of protein: a-helix and P-pleated sheets.
2. The polypeptide chain is arranged in a spiral helix. These spiral helices are of two types: a-helix (right handed) and P-helix (left handed).
3. This spiral configuration is held together by hydrogen bonds.
4. The sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain determines the location of its bend or fold and the position of formation of hydrogen bonds between different portions of the chain or between different chains. Thus, peptide chains form an a-helix structure.
5. Example of a-helix structure is keratin.
6. In some proteins two or more peptide chains are linked together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds. Such structures are called P-pleated sheets.
7. Example of P-pleated sheet is silk fibres.
8. Due to formation of hydrogen bonds peptide chains assume a secondary structure.

Question (H)
Explain the induced fit model for mode of enzyme action.
Answer:
1. The induced fit model shows that enzymes are flexible structures in which the active site continually reshapes by its interactions with the substrate until the time the substrate is completely bound to it. It is also the point at which the final form and shape of the enzyme is determined.
2. Three-Dimensional conformation:
a. All enzymes have specific 3-dimensional conformation.
b. They have one or more active sites to which substrate (reactant) combines.
c. The points of active site where the substrate joins with the enzyme is called substrate binding site.

Question (I)
What is RNA? Enlist types of RNA.
Answer:
1. RNA stands for Ribonucleic Acid. It is a long single stranded polynucleotide chain which helps in protein synthesis, functions as a messenger and translates messages coded in DNA into protein.
2. There are three types of RNA:
mRNA (messenger RNA), rRNA (ribosomal RNA) and tRNA (transfer RNA)

Question (J)
Describe the concept of metabolic pool.
Answer:
1. Metabolic pool is the reservoir of biomolecules in the cell on which enzymes can act to produce useful products as per the need of the cell.
2. The concept of metabolic pool is significant in cell biology because it allows one type of molecule to change into another type E.g. Carbohydrates can be converted to fats and vice-versa.

Question (K)
How do secondary metabolites useful for mankind?
Answer:
1. Drugs developed from secondary metabolites have been used to treat infectious diseases, cancer, hypertension and inflammation.
2. Morphine, the first alkaloid isolated from Papaver somniferum is used as pain reliver and cough suppressant.
3. Secondary metabolites like alkaloids, nicotine, cocaine and the terpenes, cannabinol are widely used for recreation and stimulation.
4. Flavours of secondary metabolites improve our food preferences.
5. Tannins are added to wines and chocolate for improving astringency.
6. Since most secondary metabolites have antibiotic property, they are also used as food preservatives.
7. Glucosinolates is a secondary metabolite which is naturally present in cabbage imparts a characteristic flavour and aroma because of nitrogen and sulphur-containing chemicals. It also offers protection to these plants from many pests.

4. Solve the following questions

Question (A)
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question (B)
Answer the following with reference

i. Name the type of bond formed between two polypeptides.
ii. Which amino acid is involved in the formation of such bond?
iii. Amongst I, II, III and IV structural level of protein, which level of structure includes such bond? Answer:
i. Disulfide bond.
ii. Cysteine
iii. Tertiary structure.
[Note: Quaternary structure of protein also have disulfide bond, for stabilization of protein structure.!

Question (C)
Match the following items given in column I and II.

Answer:

5. Long answer questions

Question (A)
What are biomolecules? Explain the building blocks of life.
Answer:
Biomolecules are essential substances produced by our body which are necessary for life.
The building blocks of life are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids.
1. Carbohydrates:
a. Carbohydrates are biomolecules made from carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
b. The general formula of carbohydrates is (CH20) n.
c. They contain hydrogen and oxygen in the same ratio as in water (2:1).
d. Carbohydrates can be broken down to release energy.
e. Based on sugar units, carbohydrates are classified into three types: Monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides.

2. Lipids:
a. These are group of substances with greasy consistency with long hydrocarbon chain containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
b. In lipids hydrogen to oxygen ration is greater than 2:1.
c. Lipid is a broader term used for fatty acids and their derivatives.
d. They are soluble in organic solvents (non-polar solvents).
e. Fatty acids are organic acids which are composed of hydrocarbon chain ending in carboxyl group (COOH) ….
f. These are divided into: Saturated fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids.
g. Fatty acids are basic molecules which form different kinds of lipids.
h. Lipids are classified into three types:
Simple lipids, Compound lipids, Derived lipids.

3. Proteins:
a. Proteins are large molecules containing amino acid units ranging from 100 to 3000.
b. They have higher molecular weight.
c. In proteins, amino acids are linked together by peptide bonds which join the carboxyl group of one amino acid residue to the amino group of another residue.
d. A protein molecule consists of one or more polypeptide chains.
e. Proteins contain any or all twenty naturally occurring amino acid types.
f. Proteins have different structures like primary structure, secondary structure, tertiary structure and quaternary structure.
g. Proteins are classified into three types:
Simple proteins: Simple proteins on hydrolysis yield only amino acids. E.g. Histones and albumins. Conjugated proteins: It consists of a simple protein united with some non-protein substance. E.g. Haemoglobin.
Derived proteins: These proteins are not found in nature as such but are derived from native protein molecules on hydrolysis. E.g. Metaproteins, peptones.

4. Nucleic Acids:
a. Nucleic acids are macromolecules composed of many small units or monomers called nucleotides.
b. Each nucleotide is formed of three components i.e. pentose sugar, a nitrogen base and a phosphate (phosphoric acid).
c. When sugar combine with nitrogenous base it forms nucleoside. Nucleotides can be called as nucleoside phosphate.
d. There are two types of nucleic acids, i.e. DNA and RNA.
DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) is a genetic material of a cell. It is double stranded helix. Each strand of helix is made up of deoxyribose nucleotides.
RNA (Ribonucleic Acid) is a single stranded structure having fewer nucleotides as compared to DNA. The strands may be straight or variously folded upon itself. It is made up of nucleotides.

Question (B)
Explain the classes of carbohydrates with examples.
Answer:
Based on number of sugar units, carbohydrates are classified into three types namely, monosaccharides, disaccharides and polysaccharides.
1. Monosaccharides:
a. Monosaccharides are the simplest sugars having crystalline structure, sweet taste and soluble in water.
b. They cannot be further hydrolyzed into smaller molecules.
c. They are the building blocks or monomers of complex carbohydrates.
d. They have the general molecular formula (CH20)n, where n can be 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7.
e. They can be classified as triose, tetrose, pentose, etc.
f. Monosaccharides containing the aldehyde (-CHO) group are classified as aldoses e.g. glucose, xylose, and those with a ketone(-C=0) group are classified as ketoses. E.g. ribulose, fructose.

2. Disaccharides:
a. Disaccharide is formed when two monosaccharide react by condensation reaction releasing a water molecule. This process requires energy.
b. A glycosidic bond forms and holds the two monosaccharide units together.
c. Sucrose, lactose and maltose are examples of disaccharides.
d. Sucrose is a nonreducing sugar since it lacks free aldehyde or ketone group.
e. Lactose and maltose are reducing sugars.
f. Lactose also exists in beta form, which is made from P-galactose and p-glucose.
g. Disaccharides are soluble in water, but they are too big to pass through the cell membrane by diffusion.

3. Polysaccharides:
a. Monosaccharides can undergo a series of condensation reactions, adding one unit after the other to the chain till a very large molecule (polysaccharide) is formed. This is called polymerization.
b. Polysaccharides are broken down by hydrolysis into monosaccharides.
c. The properties of a polysaccharide molecule depends on its length, branching, folding and coiling.
d. Examples: Starch, glycogen, cellulose.

Question (C)
Describe the types of lipids and mention their biological significance.
Answer:
Lipids are classified into three main types:
1. Simple lipids:
a. These are esters of fatty acids with various alcohols. Fats and waxes are simple lipids.
b. Fats are esters of fatty acids with glycerol (CH₂OH-CHOH-CH₂OH).
c. Triglycerides are three molecules of fatty acids and one molecule of glycerol.
d. Unsaturated fats are liquid at room temperature and are called oils. Unsaturated fatty acids are hydrogenated to produce fats e.g. Vanaspati ghee.

Biological significance:
a. Fats are a nutritional source with high calorific value and they act as reserved food materials.
b. In plants, fat is stored in seeds to nourish embryo during germination.
c. In animals, fat is stored in the adipocytes of the adipose tissue.
d. Fats deposited in subcutaneous tissue act as an insulator and minimize loss of body heat.
e. Fats deposited around the internal organs act as cushions to absorb mechanical shocks.
f. Wax is another example of simple lipid. They are esters of long chain fatty acids with long chain alcohols.
g. They are found in the blood, gonads and sebaceous glands of the skin.
h. Waxes are not as readily hydrolyzed as fats.
i. They are solid at ordinary temperature.
j. Waxes form water insoluble coating on hair and skin in animals, waxes form an outer coating on stems, leaves and fruits.

2. Compound lipids:
a. These are ester of fatty acids containing other groups like phosphate (Phospholipids), sugar (glycolipids), etc.
b. They contain a molecule of glycerol, two molecules of fatty acids and a phosphate group or simple sugar.
c. Some phospholipids such as lecithin also have a nitrogenous compound attached to the phosphate group.
d. Phospholipids have both hydrophilic polar groups (phosphate and nitrogenous group) and hydrophobic non-polar groups (hydrocarbon chains of fatty acids).
e. Glycolipids contain glycerol, fatty acids, simple sugars such as galactose. They are also called cerebrosides.
Biological significance:
a. Phospholipids contribute in the formation of cell membrane.
b. Large amounts of glycolipids are found in the brain white matter and myelin sheath.

3. Derived Lipids:
a. They are composed of fused hydrocarbon rings (steroid nucleus) and a long hydrocarbon side chain.
b. One of the most common sterols is cholesterol.
Biological significance:
a. It is widely distributed in all cells of the animal body, but particularly in nervous tissue.
b. Cholesterol exists either free or as cholesterol ester.
c. Adrenocorticoids, sex hormones (progesterone, testosterone) and vitamin D are synthesized from cholesterol.
d. Cholesterol is not found in plants.
e. Sterols exist as phytosterols in plants.
f. Yam Plant (Dioscorea) produces a steroid compound called diosgenin. It is used in the manufacture of antifertility pills, i.e. birth control pills.

Question (D)
Explain the chemical nature, structure and role of phospholipids in biological membrane.
Answer:
Chemical nature: Phospholipids are amphiphilic in nature. As they have hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail.
Structure: It contains an alcohol, two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group.
Role: Phospholipids forms the membranes around the cells and cellular organelles. They form a lipid bilayer membrane. The phospholipids are arranged tail to tail. It serves as a barrier against movement of any ions or polar compounds into and out of the cell.

Question (E)
Describe classes of proteins with their importance.
Answer:
On the basis of structure, proteins are classified into three categories:
1. Simple proteins:
a. Simple proteins on hydrolysis yield only amino acids.
b. These are soluble in one or more solvents.
c. Simple proteins may be soluble in water.
d. Histones of nucleoproteins are soluble in water.
e. Globular molecules of histones are not coagulated by heat.
f. Albumins are also soluble in water but they get coagulated on heating.
g. Albumins are widely distributed e.g. egg albumin, serum albumin and legumelin of pulses are albumins.
Importance: They are involved in structural components; they also act as a storage kind of protein.
Some are associated with nucleic acids in nucleoproteins of cell.

2. Conjugated proteins:
a. Conjugated proteins consist of a simple protein united with some non-protein substance.
b. The non-protein group is called prosthetic group e.g. haemoglobin.
c. Globin is the protein and the iron containing pigment haem is the prosthetic group.
d. Similarly, nucleoproteins have nucleic acids.
e. Proteins are classified as glycoproteins and mucoproteins.
f. Mucoproteins are carbohydrate-protein complexes e.g. mucin of saliva and heparin of blood.
g. Lipoproteins are lipid-protein complexes e.g. conjugate protein found in brain, plasma membrane, milk etc. Importance: They are involved in structural components of cell membranes and organelles.
They also act as a transporter.
Some conjugated proteins are important in electron transport chain in respiration.

3. Derived proteins:
a. These proteins are not found in nature as such.
b. These proteins are derived from native protein molecules on hydrolysis.
c. Metaproteins, peptones are derived proteins.
Importance: They act as a precursor for many molecules which are essential for life.

Question (F)
What are enzymes? How are they classified? Mention example of each class.
Answer:
1. Enzymes are biological macromolecules which act as a catalyst and accelerates the reaction in the body.
2. Enzymes are classified into six classes:
a. Oxidoreductases: These enzymes catalyze oxidation and reduction reactions by the transfer of hydrogen and/or oxygen, e.g. alcohol dehydrogenase

b. Transferases: These enzymes catalyse the transfer of certain groups between two molecules, e.g. glucokinase

c. Hydrolases: These enzymes catalyse hydrolytic reactions. This class includes amylases, proteases, lipases etc. e.g. Sucrase

d. Lyases: These enzymes are involved in elimination reactions resulting in the removal of a group of atoms from substrate molecule to leave a double bond. It includes aldolases, decarboxylases, and dehydratases, e.g. fumarate hydratase.

e. Isomerases: These enzymes catalyze structural rearrangements within a molecule. Their nomenclature is based on the type of isomerism. Thus, these enzymes are identified as racemases, epimerases, isomerases, mutases, e.g. xylose isomerase.

f. Ligases or Synthetases: These are the enzymes which catalyze the covalent linkage of the molecules utilizing the energy obtained from hydrolysis of an energy-rich compound like ATP, GTP e.g. glutathione synthetase, Pyruvate carboxylase.

Question (G)
Explain the properties of enzyme? Describe the models for enzyme actions.
Answer:
1. Proteinaceous Nature:
All enzymes are basically made up of protein.

2. Three-Dimensional conformation:
a. All enzymes have specific 3-dimensional conformation.
b. They have one or more active sites to which substrate (reactant) combines.
c. The points of active site where the substrate joins with the enzyme is called substrate binding site.

3. Catalytic property:
a. Enzymes are like inorganic catalysts and influence the speed of biochemical reactions but themselves remain unchanged.
b. After completion of the reaction and release of the product they remain active to catalyze again.
c. A small quantity of enzymes can catalyze the transformation of a very large quantity of the substrate
into an end product.
d. For example, sucrase can hydrolyze 100000 times of sucrose as compared with its own weight.

4. Specificity of action:
a. The ability of an enzyme to catalyze one specific reaction and essentially no other is perhaps its most significant property. Each enzyme acts upon a specific substrate or a specific group of substrates.
b. Enzymes are very sensitive to temperature and pH.
c. Each enzyme exhibits its highest activity at a specific pH i.e. optimum pH.
d. Any increase or decrease in pH causes decline in enzyme activity e.g. enzyme pepsin (secreted in stomach)shows highest activity at an optimum pH of 2 (acidic)

5. Temperature:
a. Enzymes are destroyed at higher temperature of 60-70°C or below, they are not destroyed but become inactive.
b. This inactive state is temporary and the enzyme can become active at suitable temperature.
c. Most of the enzymes work at an optimum temperature between 20°C and 35°C.

There are two types of models:
1. Lock and Key model:
a. Lock and Key model was first postulated in 1894 by Emil Fischer.
b. This model explains the specific action of an enzyme with a single substrate.
c. In this model, lock is the enzyme and key is the substrate.
d. The correctly sized key (substrate) fits into the key hole (active site) of the lock (enzyme).

2. Induced Fit model (Flexible Model):
a. Induced Fit model was first proposed in 1959 by Koshland.
b. This model states that approach of a substrate induces a conformational change in the enzyme.
c. It is the more accepted model to understand mode of action of enzyme.
d. The induced fit model shows that enzymes are rather flexible structures in which the active site continually reshapes by its interactions with the substrate until the time the substrate is completely bound to it.
e. It is also the point at which the final form and shape of the enzyme is determined.
[Note: Temperature is a factor affecting enzyme activity and not a property of enzyme.]

Question (H)
Describe the factors affecting enzyme action.
Answer:
The factors affecting the enzyme activity are as follows:
1. Concentration of substrate:
a. Increase in the substrate concentration gradually increases the velocity of enzyme activity within the limited range of substrate levels.
b. A rectangular hyperbola is obtained when velocity is plotted against the substrate concentration.
c. Three distinct phases (A, B and C) of the reaction are observed in the graph.
Where V = Measured velocity, V_max = Maximum velocity, S = Substrate concentration,
K_m = Michaelis-Menten constant.
d. K_m or the Michaelis-Menten constant is defined as the substrate concentration (expressed in moles/lit) to produce half of maximum velocity in an enzyme catalyzed reaction.
e. It indicates that half of the enzyme molecules (i.e. 50%) are bound with the substrate molecules when the substrate concentration equals the Km value.
f. K_m value is a constant and a characteristic feature of a given enzyme.
g. It is a representative for measuring the strength of ES complex.
h. A low K_m value indicates a strong affinity between enzyme and substrate, whereas a high Km value reflects a weak affinity between them.
1. For majority of enzymes, the K_m values are in the range of 10_-5 to 10_-2 moles.

2. Enzyme Concentration:

a. The rate of an enzymatic reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of the substrate.
b. The rate of reaction is also directly proportional to the square root of the concentration of enzymes.
c. It means that the rate of reaction also increases with the increasing concentration of enzyme and the rate of reaction can also decrease by decreasing the concentration of enzyme.

3. Temperature:

a. The temperature at which the enzymes show maximum activity is called Optimum temperature.
b. The rate of chemical reaction is increased by a rise in temperature but this is true only over a limited range of temperature.
c. Enzymes rapidly denature at temperature above 40°C.
d. The activity of enzymes is reduced at low temperature.
e. The enzymatic reaction occurs best at or around 37°C which is the average normal body temperature in homeotherms.

4. Effect of pH:

a. The pH at which an enzyme catalyzes the reaction at the maximum rate is known as optimum pH.
b. The enzyme cannot perform its function beyond the range of its pH value.

5. Other substances:
a. The enzyme action is also increased or decreased in the presence of some other substances such as co-enzymes, activators and inhibitors.
b. Most of the enzymes are combination of a co-enzyme and an apo-enzyme.
c. Activators are the inorganic substances which increase the enzyme activity.
d. Inhibitor is the substance which reduces the enzyme activity.

Question (I)
What are the types of RNA? Mention the role of each class of RNA.
Answer:
There are three types of cellular RNAs:
1. messenger RNA (mRNA),
2. ribosomal RNA (rRNA),
3. transfer RNA (tRNA). ‘

1. Messenger RNA (mRNA):
a. It is a linear polynucleotide.
b. It accounts 3% of cellular RNA.
c. Its molecular weight is several million. , d. mRNA molecule carrying information to form a complete polypeptide chain is called cistron.
e. Size of mRNA is related to the size of message it contains.
f. Synthesis of mRNA begins at 5’ end of DNA strand and terminates at 3’ end.

Role of messenger RNA:
It carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes, which are the sites of protein synthesis.

2. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA):
a. rRNA was discovered by Kurland in 1960.
b. It forms 50-60% part of ribosomes.
c. It accounts 80-90% of the cellular RNA.
d. It is synthesized in nucleus.
e. It gets coiled at various places due to intrachain complementary base pairing.
Role of ribosomal RNA: It provides proper binding site for m-RNA during protein synthesis.

3. Transfer RNA (tRNA):
a. These molecules are much smaller consisting of 70-80 nucleotides.
b. Due to presence of complementary base pairing at various places, it is shaped like clover-leaf.
c. Each tRNA can pick up particular amino acid.
d. Following four parts can be recognized on tRNA
1. DHU arm (Dihydroxyuracil loop/ amino acid recognition site
2. Amino acid binding site
3. Anticodon loop / codon recognition site
4. Ribosome recognition site.
e. In the anticodon loop of tRNA, three unpaired nucleotides are present called as anticodon which pair with codon present on mRNA.
f. The specific amino acids are attached at the 3′ end in acceptor stem of clover leaf of tRNA.
Role of transfer RNA: It helps in elongation of polypeptide chain during the process called translation.

Question (J)
What is metabolism? How metabolic pool is formed in the cell.
Answer:

1. Metabolism is the sum of the chemical reactions that take place within each cell of a living organism and provide energy for vital processes and for synthesizing new’ organic material.
2. Metabolic pool in the cell is formed due to glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
3. The catabolic chemical reaction of glycolysis and Krebs cycle provides ATP and biomolecules. These biomolecules form the metabolic pool of the cell.
4. These biomolecules can be utilized for synthesis of many important cellular components.
5. The metabolites can be added or withdrawn from the pool according to the need of the cell.

Question 6.
If double stranded DNA has 14% C (cytosine) what percent A (adenine), T (thymine) and G (guanine) would you expect?
Answer:
A purine always pairs with pyrimidine.
Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with guanine.
Therefore, as per the given data If cytosine = 14% then guanine = 14%.
According to Chargaff s rule,
(C+G) = 14+ 14 = 28%
Therefore, (A+T) = 72%
So, A= 36%, T= 36%, G = 14%.

Question 7.
Name
1. The reagent used for testing for reducing sugar.
2. The form in which carbohydrate is transported in a plant.
3. The term that describes all the chemical reactions taking place in an organism.
Answer:
1. Benedict’s reagent
2. Sucrose
3. Metabolism

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Perform an experiment to study starch granules isolated from potato.
Answer:
Isolation of starch granules from potato:

1. Peal the potato with a clean knife.
2. Grind the potato till the homogenous mixture is formed.
3. Then strain the mixture through a cheese cloth into a beaker.
4. Keep it standing for some time.
5. Throw the supernatant and fill the beaker containing starch with water.
6. Stir it well and again allow the starch to settle.
7. After sometime, again through the supernatant.
8. Repeat this for 2-3 times.
9. Collect the white starch in the watch glass and keep it in the oven for drying.

To study the isolated starch granules:
1. Examination under microscope:
Examine starch granules under microscope by using a mixture of equal volumes of glycerol and distilled water.
Result: The potato starch granules appears transparent granules. They are irregularly shaped.
2. Using Iodine solution:
Boil a little amount of starch with water. Cool it. Add iodine solution to it.
Result: The solution changes colour to blue. This indicates the presence of starch.

Question 2.
Study the action of enzyme urease on urea.
Answer:
Urease is an enzyme which exists in a dimer form. It has two active sites which are highly specific and only bind to urea or hydroxy urea. The active sites of urease contain nickel atoms. Urease catalyzes the hydrolysis of substrate urea into carbon dioxide and ammonia. It attacks the nitrogen and carbon bond in amide compounds and forms alkaline product like ammonia.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 6 Biomolecules Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 59)

(i) Which are different cell components?
Answer:
a. The three main components of any cell are: Cell membrane, Cytoplasm, Nucleus.
b. The components present in both plant and animal cells are: Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, mitochondria, vacuoles.
c. The components present in plant cell and not in animal cell: Cell wall and plastids.
d. The components present in animal cell and not in plant cell: Cilia and flagella.

(ii) What is the role of each component of cell?
Answer:
The role of each component of a cell is as follows:
a. Cell membrane: Cell membrane separates the cytoplasmic contents from external environment.
b. Cytoplasm: Site for metabolic activities and organelles.
c. Nucleus: It is the control center of the cell. Genetic material is present in the nucleus.
d. Endoplasmic reticulum: It produces, processes and transports proteins and lipids.
e. Ribosomes: Ribosome is the site for protein synthesis.
f. Golgi apparatus: It is involved in modifying, sorting and packing of proteins for secretion. It also transports lipids around the cell.
g. Lysosomes: It is involved in digestion of worn out organelles and waste removal.
h. Mitochondria: It is responsible for production of energy.
i. Vacuoles: It has various functions like storage, waste disposal, protection and growth.
j. Cell wall: It provides strength and support to the cell.
k. Plastids: They are responsible for production and storage of food. It also contains photosynthetic pigments (Chloroplasts).
l. Cilia and flagella: Help in motility.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 62)

What are carbohydrates?
Answer:

1. The word carbohydrates mean ‘hydrates of carbon’.
2. They are also called saccharides.
3. They are biomolecules made from just three elements: carbon, hydrogen and oxygen with the general formula C_x(H₂0)y.
4. They contain hydrogen and oxygen in the same ratio as in water (2:1).
5. Carbohydrates can be broken down (oxidized) to release energy.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 62)

(i) Enlist the natural sources, structural units and functions of the following polysaccharides.
a. Starch
b. Cellulose
c. Glycogen
Answer:
a. Starch:
1. Natural Sources: Cereals (wheat, maize, rice), root vegetables (potato, cassava etc.)
2. Structural units: Starch consist of two types of molecules – Amylose and amylopectin.
3. Functions: It acts as a reserve food and supply energy.

b. Cellulose:
1. Natural sources: Plant fibers (cotton, flax, hemp, jute, etc.), wood.
2. Structural units: It is made from p glucose molecules.
3. Functions: It in a major component of cell wall. It provides structural support.

c. Glycogen:
1. Natural sources: Fruits, starchy vegetables, whole grain foods.
2. Structural units: It consists of linear chains of glucose residues. The glucose is linked linearly by a (1 → 4) glycosidic bonds and branches are linked to the linear chain by a (1 → 6) glycosidic bonds.
3. Functions: It is stored in liver and muscles and it readily provides energy when the blood glucose level decreases.

(ii) The exoskeleton of insects is made up of chitin. This is a ________.
(A) mucoprotein
(B) lipid
(C) lipoprotein
(D) polysaccharide
Answer:
polysaccharide

(iii) List names of structural polysaccharides.
Answer:
Arabinoxylans, cellulose, chitin, pectin.

(iv) Write a note on oligosaccharide and glycosidic bond.
Answer:
Oligosaccharides:
a. A carbohydrate polymer comprising of two to six monosaccharide molecules is called oligosaccharide.
b. They are linked together by glycosidic bond.
c. They are classified on the basis of monosaccharide units:
Disaccharides: These are the sugars containing two monosaccharide units and can be further hydrolysed into smaller components. E.g.: Sucrose, maltose, lactose, etc.
Trisaccharides: These contain three monomers. E.g. Raffmose.
Tetrasaccharides: These contain four monomers. E.g.: Stachyose.

Glycosidic bond:
a. Glycosidic bond is a covalent bond that forms a linkage between two monosaccharides by a dehydration reaction.
b. It is formed when a hydroxyl group of one sugar reacts with the anomeric carbon of the other.
c. Glycosidic bonds are readily hydrolyzed by acid but resist cleavage by base.
d. There are two types of glycosidic bonds: a-glycosidic bond and P-glycosidic bond.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 63)

What are lipids? Classify them and give at least one example of each.
Answer:
Lipids:
Lipids are a group of heterogeneous compounds like fats, oils, steroids, waxes, etc.
They are macro-biomolecules.
These are group of substances with greasy consistency with long hydrocarbon chain containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

Lipids are classified into:
1. Saturated fatty acids: They contain single chain of carbon atoms with single bonds.
E.g. Palmitic acid, stearic acid
2. Unsaturated fatty acids: They contain one or more double bonds between the carbon atoms of the hydrocarbon chain.
a. Simple lipids: These are esters of fatty acids with various alcohols.
E.g. Fats, wax.
b. Compound lipids: These are ester of fatty acids containing other groups like phosphate (Phospholipids), sugar (glycolipids), etc.
E.g. Lecithin
c. Sterols: They are derived lipids. They are composed of fused hydrocarbon rings (steroid nucleus) and a long hydrocarbon side chain.
E.g. Cholesterol, phytosterols.

Find out (Textbook Page No. 63)

(i) Why do high cholesterol level in the blood cause heart diseases?
Answer:
a. When there is high level of cholesterol in the blood, the cholesterol builds up on the walls of arteries causing a condition called atherosclerosis (a form of heart disease).
b. Because of this the arteries are narrowed and the blood flow to the heart is slowed down.
c. The blood carries oxygen to the heart, but because of this condition enough blood and oxygen does not reach to the heart and causes heart diseases.
d. If the condition increases, the supply of oxygen and blood is completely cut off to the heart and this can lead to heart attack.

(ii) Polyunsaturated fatty acids are believed to decrease blood cholesterol level. How?
Answer:
a. The liver converts polyunsaturated fatty acids into ketones instead of cholesterol.
b. Therefore, polyunsaturated fatty acids are transported directly to tissues for oxidation without leaving behind any lipoprotein in the form of cholesterol as it is seen in the case of saturated fatty acids.
c. Thus, polyunsaturated fatty acids are believed to decrease blood cholesterol level.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 64)

Which of the following is a simple protein?
(A) nucleoprotein
(B) mucoprotein
(C) chromoprotein
(D) globulin
Answer:
Globulin

Can you tell? Textbook Page No. 64)

What are conjugated proteins? How do they differ from simple ones? Give one example of each.
Answer:
1. Conjugated proteins consist of a simple protein attached with some non-protein substance. The non-protein group is called prosthetic group.
2. The conjugated protein functions in interaction with other chemical group whereas simple proteins contain only amino acids and no other chemical group attached to it.
3. Example of conjugated protein is haemoglobin. Globin is the protein and iron containing pigment and haem is the prosthetic group.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 64)

All Proteins are made up of the same amino acids; then how proteins found in human beings and animals may be different from those of other?
Answer:
The proteins found in human beings and animals may be different from those of others because the ratio of amino acids present in the protein differs.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

What is a nucleotide? How is it formed? Mention the names of all nucleotides.
Answer:
1. Nucleotide is a unit which consists of a sugar, phosphate and a base. Nucleotides are basic units of nucleic acids.
2. The nitrogen base and a sugar form a nucleoside. In a nucleoside, nitrogenous base is attached to the first carbon atom (C-1) of the sugar and when a phosphate group gets attached with that of the carbon (C-5) atom of the sugar molecule a nucleotide molecule is formed.
3. The names of all nucleotides are:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

Describe the structure of DNA molecule as proposed by Watson and Crick.
Answer:

1. According to Watson and Crick, DNA molecule consists of two strands twisted around each other in the form of a double helix.
2. The two strands i.e. polynucleotide chains are supposed to be in opposite direction so end of one chain having 3′ lies beside the 5′ end of the other.
3. One turn of the double helix of the DNA measures about 34A.
4. It consists paired nucleotides and the distance between two neighboring pair nucleotides is 3.4A.
5. The diameter of the DNA molecule has been found be 20A.

Can you tell (Textbook Page No. 70)

Name the chemical found in the living cell which has necessary message for the production of all enzymes required by it.
Answer:
DNA found in the nucleus of a living cell has necessary message for the production of all enzymes required by it. DNA forms mRNA through the process of transcription. This mRNA through the process of translation forms proteins.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

Difference between DNA and RNA is because of
(A) sugar and base
(B) sugar and phosphate
(C) phosphate and base
(D) sugar only
Answer:
Sugar and base

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 67)

Differentiate between DNA and RNA.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 70)

Co-enzyme is ________
(A) often a metal
(B) often a vitamin
(C) always as organic molecule
(D) always an inorganic molecule
Answer:
Always as organic molecule

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 70)

(i) Which enzyme is needed to digest food reserve in castor seed?
(A) Amylase
(B) Diastase
(C) Lipase
(D) Protease
Answer:
Lipase

(ii) List the important properties of enzymes.
Answer:
a. Proteinaceous Nature
b. Three-Dimensional conformation
c. Catalytic property
d. Specificity of action
e. Temperature

Try this: (Textbook Page No. 70)

To demonstrate the effect of heat on the activities of inorganic catalysts and enzymes.
Answer:
1. Using MnO₂ and Enzymes without any heat treatment:
Mn0₂ and cellular enzymes (catalase/peroxidase) causes breakdown of H₂0₂ and evolution of oxygen.
2. Using Mn0₂ and Enzymes after heat treatment:
Oxygen evolves in the H₂0₂ solution containing boiled and cooled Mn0₂. But oxygen does not evolve in the tube containing the enzyme.
3. This confirms that heat affects the enzyme and inactivates it whereas heat does not have any effect on inorganic catalyst.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Ionic Equilibria Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct answer :

Question i.
The pH of 10^-8 M of HCl is
(a) 8
(b) 7
(c) less than 7
(d) greater than 7
Answer:
(c) less than 7

Question ii.
Which of the following solution will have pH value equal to 1.0?
(a) 50 mL of 0.1M HCl + 50mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(b) 60 mL of 0.1M HCl + 40mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(c) 20 mL of 0.1M HCl + 80mL of 0.1 M NaOH
(d) 75 mL of 0.2M HCl + 25mL of 0.2 M NaOH
Answer:
(d) 75 mL of 0.2M HCl + 25mL of 0.2 M NaOH

Question iii.
Which of the following is a buffer solution ?
(a) CH₃COONa + NaCl in water
(b) CH₃COOH + HCl in water
(c) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa in water
(d) HCl + NH₄Cl in water
Answer:
(c) CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa in water

Question iv.
The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AX is 5.2 x 10^-13. Its solubility in mol dm^-3 is
(a) 7.2 × 10^-7
(b) 1.35 × 10^-4
(c) 7.2 × 10^-8
(d) 13.5 × 10^-8
Answer:
(a) 7.2 × 10^-7

Question v.
Blood in human body is highly buffered at pH of
(a) 7.4
(b) 7.0
(c) 6.9
(d) 8.1
Answer:
(a) 7.4

Question vi.
The conjugate base of [Zn(H₂O)₄]²⁺ is
(a) [Zn(H₂O)₄]²⁺ NH3
(b) [Zn(H₂O)₃]²⁺
(c) [Zn(H₂O)₃OH]⁺
(d) [Zn(H₂O)H]³⁺
Answer:
(c) [Zn(H₂O)₃OH]+

Question vii.
For pH > 7 the hydronium ion concentration would be
(a) 10^-7 M
(b) < 10^-7 M
(c) > 10^-7 M
(d) ≥ 10^-7 M
Answer:
(b) < 10^-7 M

2. Answer the following in one sentence :

Question i.
Why cations are Lewis acids ?
Answer:
Since cations are deficient of electrons they accept a pair of electrons, hence they are Lewis acids.

Question ii.
Why is KCl solution neutral to litmus?
Answer:

1. Since KCl is a salt of strong base KOH and strong acid HCl, it does not undergo hydrolysis in its aqueous solution.
2. Due to strong acid and strong base, concentrations [H₃O⁺] = [OH^–] and the solution is neutral.

Question iii.
How are basic buffer solutions prepared?
Answer:

1. Basic buffer solution is prepared by mixing aqueous solutions of a weak base like NH₄OH and its salt of a strong acid like NH₄Cl.
2. A weak base is selected according to the required pH or pOH of the solution and dissociation constant of the weak base.

Question iv.
Dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.8 × 10^-5. Calculate percent dissociation of acetic acid in 0.01 M solution.
Answer:
Given : K_a = 1.8 x 10^-5; C = 0.01 M
Percent dissociation = ?

∴ Percent dissociation = α × 100
= 4.242 × 10^-2 × 10²
= 4.242%
Percent dissociation = 4.242%

Question v.
Write one property of a buffer solution.
Answer:
Properties (or advantages) of a buffer solution :

• The pH of a buffer solution is maintained appreciably constant.
• By addition of a small amount of an acid or a base pH does not change.
• On dilution with water, pH of the solution doesn’t change.

Question vi.
The pH of a solution is 6.06. Calculate its H⁺ ion concentration.

Question vii.
Calculate the pH of 0.01 M sulphuric acid.
Answer:
Given : C = 0.01 M H₂SO₄, pH = ?
\(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow 2 \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)
∴ [H₃O⁺] = 2 × 0.01 = 0.02 M
PH = -log₁₀ [H₃O⁺]
= -log₁₀ 0.02
= –\((\overline{2} .3010)\)
= 2 – 0.3010
= 1.6990
pH = 1.6990.

Question viii.
The dissociation of H₂S is suppressed in the presence of HCl. Name the phenomenon.
Answer:
The weak dibasic acid H₂S is dissociated as follows :

When HCl is added, it increases the concentration of common ion H₃O⁺.
\(\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{l})} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
Hence by Le Chaterlier’s principle, the equilibrium is shifted from right to left, suppressing the dissociation of weak electrolyte H₂S.

Question ix.
Why is it necessary to add H₂SO₄ while preparing the solution of CuSO₄?
Answer:
CuSO₄ is a salt of strong acid H₂SO₄ and weak base Cu(OH)₂. CuSO₄ in aqueous solution undergoes hydrolysis and forms a precipitate of Cu(OH)₂ and solution becomes turbid.
CuSO₄ + 2H₂O ⇌ CU(OH)₂↓ + H₂SO₄
OR
CuSO₄ + 4H₂O ⇌ Cu(OH)₂ + 2H₃O⁺ + \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\)
When H₂SO₄ is added, the hydrolysis equilibrium is shifted to left hand side and Cu(OH)₂ dissolves giving clear solution.

Question x.
Classify the following buffers into different types :
a. CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa
b. NH₄OH + NH₄Cl
c. Sodium benzoate + benzoic acid
d. Cu(OH)₂ + CuCl₂
Answer:
(a) Acidic buffer (CH₃COOH + CH₃COONa)
(b) Basic buffer (NH₄OH + NH₄Cl)
(c) Acidic buffer (Sodium benzoate + benzoic acid)
(d) Basic buffer (Cu(OH)₂ + CuCl₂)
[Note : Cu(OH)₂ being insoluble is not used to prepare a buffer solution.]

3. Answer the following in brief :

Question i.
What are acids and bases according to Arrhenius theory ?
Answer:
According to Arrhenius theory :
Acid : It is a substance which contains hydrogen and on dissolving in water produces hydrogen ions (H⁺) E.g. HCl
\(\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)

Base : It is a substance which contains OH group and on dissolving in water produces hydroxyl ions (OH^–). E.g. NaOH
\(\mathrm{NaOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{OH}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)

Question ii.
What is meant by conjugate acid-base pair?
Answer:
Conjugate acid-base pair : A pair of an acid and a base differing by a proton is called a conjugate acid-base pair.

Question iii.
Label the conjugate acid-base pair in the following reactions
a. HCl + H₂O ⇌ H₃O⁺ + Cl^–
b. \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{2-}\) + H₂O ⇌ OH^– + \(\mathrm{HCO}_{3}^{-}\)
Answer:

Question iv.
Write a reaction in which water acts as a base.
Answer:

Since water accepts a proton, it acts as a base.

Question v.
Ammonia serves as a Lewis base whereas AlCl₃ is Lewis acid. Explain.
Answer:

• Since ammonia molecule, NH3 has a lone pair of electrons to donate it acts as a Lewis base.
• AlCl₃ is a molecule with incomplete octet hence it is electron deficient and acts as a Lewis acid.

Question vi.
Acetic acid is 5% ionised in its decimolar solution. Calculate the dissociation constant of acid.
Answer:
Given : C = 0.1 M; Dissociation = 5%, K_a=2 Percent dissociation

Dissociation constant of acid = K_a = 2.63 × 10^-4

Question vii.
Derive the relation pH + pOH = 14.
Answer:
The ionic product of water, Kw is given by,
Kw = [H₃O⁺] × [OH^–]
At 298 K, K_w = 1 × 10^-14
∴ pK_w = -log₁₀K_w = log₁₀ 1 x 10^-14 = 14
∵ [H₃O⁺] × [OH^–] = 1 × 10^-14
Taking logarithm to base 10 of both sides,
log₁₀ [H₃O⁺] + log₁₀ [OH^–] = log₁₀ 1 x 10^-14
Multiplying both the sides by -1,
-log₁₀ [H₃O⁺] -log₁₀ [OH^–] = -log₁₀ 1 x 10^-14
∵ pH = -log₁₀ [H₃O⁺]; pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–];
pKw = – log₁₀ K_w
∴ pH + pOH = pK_w
OR pH + pOH =14

Question viii.
Aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is alkaline whereas aqueous solution of ammonium chloride is acidic. Explain.
Answer:
(A) (i) Sodium carbonate is a salt of weak acid and strong base.
(ii) In aqueous solution it undergoes hydrolysis.

(iii) Strong base dissociates completely while weak acid dissociates partially since [OH^–] > [H₃O⁺], the solution is basic.

(B) (i) Ammonium chloride is a salt of strong acid and weak base.
(ii) In aqueous solution it undergoes hydrolysis

(iii) Since [H⁺] or [H₃O⁺ ] > [OH^–] the solution is acidic.

Question ix.
pH of a weak monobasic acid is 3.2 in its 0.02 M solution. Calculate its dissociation constant.
Answer:
Given : pH = 3.2; C = 0.02 M; K_a = ?
pH = -log₁₀ [H⁺]
∴ [H⁺] = Antilog – pH
= Antilog – 3.2
= Antilog \(\overline{4} .8\)
= 6.31 × 10^-4M

K_a = cα²
= 0.02 × (0.0315)²
= 1.984 × 10^-5
Dissociation constant = K_a = 1.984 × 10^-5

Question x.
In NaOH solution [OH^–] is 2.87 × 10^-4. Calculate the pH of solution.
Answer:
Given : [OH^–] = 2.87 × 10^-4 M, pH = ?
pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–]
= -log₁₀ 2.87 × 10^-4
= –\((\overline{4} .4579)\)
= (4 – 0.4579)
= 3.5421
∵ pH + pOH = 14
∴ pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 3.5421 = 10.4579
pH = 10.4579.

4. Answer the following :

Question i.
Define degree of dissociation. Derive Ostwald’s dilution law for the CH₃COOH.
Answer:
(A) Degree of dissociation :
It is defined as a fraction of total number of moles of an electrolyte that dissociate into its ions at equilibrium.
It is denoted by a and represented by,
α = \(\frac{\text { number of moles dissociated }}{\text { total number of moles of an electrolyte }}\)
Or α = \(\frac{\text { Per cent dissociation }}{100}\)
∴ Per cent dissociation = α × 100

(B) Consider V dm³ of a solution containing one mole of CH₃COOH. Then the concentration of acid is, C = \(\frac{1}{V}\) mol dm³. Let α be the degree of dissociation


This is Ostwald’s dilution law.

Question ii.
Define pH and pOH. Derive relationship between pH and pOH.
Answer:
(1) pH : The negative logarithm, to the base 10, of the molar concentration of hydrogen ions, H⁺ is known as the pH of a solution.
pH = -log₁₀ [H⁺]

(2) pOH : The negative logarithm, to the base 10, of the molar concentration of hydroxyl ions, OH^– is known as the pOH of a solution.
pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–]

Relationship between pH and pOH:
The ionic product of water, Kw is given by,
K_w = [H₃O⁺] × [OH^–]
At 298 K, K_w = 1 × 10^-14
∴ pK_w = -log₁₀K_w = log₁₀ 1 x 10^-14 = 14
∵ [H₃O⁺] × [OH^–] = 1 × 10^-14
Taking logarithm to base 10 of both sides,
log₁₀ [H₃O⁺] + log₁₀ [OH^–] = log₁₀ 1 x 10^-14
Multiplying both the sides by -1,
-log₁₀ [H₃O⁺] – log₁₀ [OH^–] = -log₁₀ 1 x 10^-14
∵ pH = -log₁₀ [H₃O⁺]; pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–];
pK_w = – log₁₀ K_w
∴ pH + pOH = pK_w
OR pH + pOH =14

Question iii.
What is meant by hydrolysis ? A solution of CH₃COONH₄ is neutral. why ?
Answer:
Hydrolysis : A reaction in which the cations or anions or both the ions of a salt react with water to produce acidity or basicity or sometimes neutrality is called hydrolysis.

A salt of weak acid and weak base for which K_a = K_b:
Consider hydrolysis of CH₃COONH₄.

Since K_a = K_b, the weak acid CH₃COOH and weak base NH₄OH dissociate to the same extent, hence, [H₃O⁺] = [OH^–] and the solution reacts neutral after hydrolysis.

Question iv.
Dissociation of HCN is suppressed by the addition of HCl. Explain.
Answer:
The weak acid HCN is dissociated as follows :
\(\mathrm{HCN}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{l})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{CN}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
The dissociation constant K_a is represented as,
K_a = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}^{+}\right] \times\left[\mathrm{CN}^{-}\right]}{[\mathrm{HCN}]}\)
When HCl is added, it increases the concentration of H₃O⁺, hence in order to keep the ratio constant, then by Le Chatelier’s principle, the equilibrium is shifted from right to left, suppressing the dissociation of HCN.

Question v.
Derive the relationship between degree of dissociation and dissociation constant in weak electrolytes.
Answer:
Expression of Ostwald’s dilution law in the case of a weak electrolyte : Consider the dissociation of a weak electrolyte BA. Let V dm³ of a solution contain one mole of the electrolyte. Then the concentration of a solution is, C = \(\frac{1}{V}\)mol dm^-3. Let α be the degree of dissociation of the electrolyte.

Applying the law of mass action to this dissociation equilibrium, we have,

As the electrolyte is weak, α is very small as compared to unity, ∴ (1 – α) ≈ 1.

This is the expression of Ostwald’s dilution law. Thus, the degree of dissociation of a weak electrolyte is directly proportional to the square root of the volume of the solution containing 1 mole of an electrolyte.

Question vi.
Sulfides of cation of group II are precipitated in acidic solution (H₂S + HCl) whereas sulfides of cations of group IIIB are precipitated in ammoniacal solution of H₂S. Comment on the relative values of solubility product of sulfides of these.
Answer:
(1) In qualitative analysis, the cations of group II are precipitated as sulphides, namely HgS, CuS, PbS, etc., while cations of group IIIB are precipitated as sulphides, namely, CoS, NiS, ZnS.

(2) The sulphides of group II have extremely low solubility product (K_sp) about 10^-29 to 10^-53 while the sulphides of group IIIB have slightly higher K_sp values about 10^-20 to 10^-23.

(3) In group II, sulphides are precipitated by adding H₂S in acidic solution while in IIIB group they are precipitated in a basic solution like ammonical solution.

(4) In acidic medium due to common ion H⁺, H₂S is dissociated to very less extent but gives sufficient S^2- ion to exceed solubility product of group II sulphides of cations and precipitate them.
\(\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-} ; \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{~S}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{S}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)

(5) In basic medium, H⁺ from H₂S are removed by OH^– in solution, or by NH₄OH, increasing the dissociation of H₂S and concentration of S^2-, so that IP > K_sp.

(6) Therefore group II cations are precipitated in an acidic medium while cations of group IIIB are precipitated in ammonical solution.

Question vii.
Solubility of a sparingly soluble salt get affected in presence of a soluble salt having one common ion. Explain.
Answer:
Consider the solubility equilibrium of a sparingly soluble salt, AgCl.
\(\mathrm{AgCl}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
The solubility product, K_sp is given by,
K_sp = [Ag⁺] × [Cl^–]
Consider addition of a strong electrolyte AgNO₃ with a common ion Ag⁺.
\(\mathrm{AgNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{NO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
The concentration Ag⁺ in the solution is increased, hence by Le Chatelier’s principle the equilibrium of AgCl is shifted to left hand side since the value of K_sp is constant.
Thus in the presence of a common ion, the solubility of a sparingly soluble salt is suppressed.

Question viii.
The pH of rain water collected in a certain region of Maharashtra on particular day was 5.1. Calculate the H₃O⁺ ion concentration of the rain water and its percent dissociation.
Answer:
Given : pH = 5.1, [H₃O⁺] = ?
PH = -log₁₀ [H₃O⁺]
∴ log₁₀ [H₃O⁺] = -pH
∴ [H₃O⁺] = Antilog – pH
= Antilog – 5.1
= Antilog \(\overline{6} .9\)
= 7.943 × 10^-6 M
(H₃O⁺ in rainwater is due to dissolved gases, CO₂, SO₂, etc. forming acids which dissociate giving H₃O⁺ and acidity to rainwater.)
[H₃O⁺] = 7.943 × 10^-4 M

Question ix.
Explain the relation between ionic product and solubility product to predict whether a precipitate will form when two solutions are mixed?
Answer:
If ionic product and solubility product are indicated by IP and K_sp respectively then,
(I) When IP = K_sp, the solution is saturated.
(II) When IP > K_sp, the solution is supersaturated and hence precipitation will occur, when two solutions are mixed.
(Ill) When IP < K_sp, the solution is unsaturated and precipitation will not occur, when two solutions are mixed.

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 3 Ionic Equilibria Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 47)

Question 1.
Which of the following is a strong electrolyte ?
HF, AgCl, CuSO₄, CH₃COONH₄, H₃PO₄.
Answer:
CH₃COONH₄ is a strong electrolyte since in aqueous solution it dissociates completely. Sparingly soluble salts AgCl, CuSO₄ are also strong electrolytes.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 49)

Question 1.
All Bronsted bases are also Lewis bases, but all Bronsted acids are not Lewis acids. Explain.
Answer:
NH₃ is a Bronsted base since it can accept a proton while it is also a Lewis base since it has a lone pair of electrons to donate.

(2) HCl is a Bronsted acid since it can donate a proton but it is not a Lewis acid since it can’t accept a pair of electrons.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 53)

Question 1.
Suppose that pH of monobasic and dibasic acid is the same. Does this mean that the molar concentrations of both acids are identical ?
Answer:
Even if monobasic acid and dibasic acid give same pH, their molar concentrations are different. One mole of monobasic acid like HCl gives 1 mol of H⁺ while one mole of dibasic acid gives 2 mol of H⁺ in solution. Hence the concentration of dibasic acid will be half of the concentration of monobasic acid. For example, for same pH. [Monobasic acid] = [Dibasic acid]/2

Question 2.
How does pH of pure water vary with temperature ? Explain.
Answer:
Since the increase in temperature, increases the dissociation of water, its pH decreases.

Can you tell ? (Textbook Page No. 54)

Question 1.
Why (i) an aqueous solution of NH₄Cl is acidic.
(ii) while that of HCOOK basic ?
Answer:
(i) (i) Ammonium chloride is a salt of strong acid and weak base.
(ii) In aqueous solution it undergoes hydrolysis

(iii) Since [H⁺] or [H₃O⁺] > [OH^–] the solution is acidic.

(ii) HCOOK is a salt of weak acid HCOOH and strong base KOH. In aqueous solution it undergoes hydrolysis giving weak acid and strong base KOH which dissociates completely,

∴ [OH^–] > [H₃O⁺], and the solution reacts basic.

Can you think ? (Textbook Page No. 56)

Question 1.
Home made jams and jellies without any added chemical preservative additives spoil in a few days whereas commercial jams and jellies have a long shelf life. Explain. What role does added sodium benzoate play ?
Answer:
Sodium benzoate added to jams and jellies in commercial products maintains the pH constant and acts as a preservative. Hence jams and jellies are not spoiled for a very long time unlike homemade products.

Can you tell ? (Textbook Page No. 56)

Question 1.
It is enough to add a few mL of a buffer solution to maintain its pH. Which property of buffer is used here ?
Answer:
The important property of reserve acidity and reserve basicity of a buffer solution is used to maintain constant pH. Weak acid or weak base along with ions (cations or anions) from salt react with excess of added acid (H⁺) or base [OH^–] and maintain pH constant.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 59)

Question 1.
What is the relationship between molar solubility and solubility product for salts given below : (i) Ag₂CrO₄ (ii) Ca₃(PO₄)₂ (iii) Cr(OH)₃.
Answer:

Can you tell ? (Textbook Page No. 60)

Question 1.
How is the ionization of NH₄OH suppressed by addition of NH₄Cl to the solution of NH₄OH ?
Answer:
Ionisation of NH₄OH is represented as follows :
\(\mathrm{NH}_{4} \mathrm{OH}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{NH}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{OH}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
It has ionisation constant,
K_b = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NH}^{4+}\right] \times\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{NH}_{4} \mathrm{OH}\right]}\)
K_b has constant value at constant temperature. When strong electrolyte NH₄Cl is added to its solution, it dissociates completely.
\(\mathrm{NH}_{4} \mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{NH}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
Due to common ion \(\mathrm{NH}_{4}^{+}\), by Le Chatelier’s principle, the equilibrium is shifted from right to left, suppressing the ionisation of NH₄OH.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Solid State Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Electrochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 5 Cell Structure and Organization Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 5 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A)
Growth of cell wall during cell elongation takes place by ………….
(a) Apposition
(b) Intussusception
(c) Both a & b
(d) Superposition

Question (B)
Cell Membrane is composed of
(a) Proteins and cellulose
(b) Proteins and Phospholipid
(c) Proteins and carbohydrates
(d) Proteins, Phospholipid and some carbohydrates
Answer:
(d) Proteins, Phospholipid and some carbohydrates

Question (C)
Plasma membrane is Fluid structure due to presence of
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Lipid
(C) Glycoprotein
(D) Polysaccharide
Answer:
(B) Lipid

Question (D)
Cell Wall is present in
(a) Plant cell
(b) Prokaryotic cell
(c) Algal cell
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question (E)
Plasma membrane is
(a) Selectively permeable
(b) Permeable
(c) Impermeable
(d) Semipermeable
Answer:
(a) Selectively permeable

Question (F)
Mitochondria DNA is
(a) Naked
(b) Circular
(c) Double stranded
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question (G)
Which of the following set of organelles contain DNA?
(a) Mitochondria, Peroxysome
(b) Plasma membrane, ribosome
(c) Mitochondria, chloroplast
(d) Chloroplast, dictyosome
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria, chloroplast

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Plants have no circulatory system? Then how cells manage intercellular transport?
Answer:
1. Plant cells show presence of plasmodesmata which are cytoplasmic bridges between neighbouring cells.
2. This open channel through the cell wall connects the cytoplasm of adjacent plant cells and allows water, small solutes, and some larger molecules to pass between the cells.
In this way, though plants have no circulatory system, plant cells manage intercellular transport.

Question (B)
Is nucleolus covered by membrane?
Answer:
A nucleolus is specialized structure present in the nucleus which is not covered by the membrane.

Question (C)
Fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson replaced Sandwich model proposed by Danielli and Davson? Why?
Answer:

1. The Davson-Danielli model of the plasma membrane of a cell, was proposed in 1935 by Hugh Davson and James Danielli.
2. The model describes a phospholipid bilayer that lies between two layers of globular proteins.
3. This model was also known as a Tipo-protein sandwich’, as the lipid layer was sandwiched between two protein layers.
4. But through experimental studies membrane proteins were discovered to be insoluble in water (representing hydrophobic surfaces) and varied in size. Such type of proteins would not be able to form an even and continuous layer around the outer surface of a cell membrane.
5. In case of Fluid-mosaic model, the experimental evidence from research supports every major hypothesis proposed by Singer and Nicolson.

This hypothesis stated that membrane lipids are arranged in a bilayer; the lipid bilayer is fluid; proteins are suspended individually in the bilayer; and the arrangement of both membrane lipids and proteins is asymmetric. Therefore, Fluid mosaic model proposed by Singer and Nicolson replaced Sandwich model proposed by Danielli and Davson.

Question (D)
The RBC surface normally shows glycoprotein molecules. When determining blood group do they
play any role?
Answer:

1. Glycoproteins are protein molecules modified within the Golgi complex by having a short sugar chain (polysaccharide) attached to them.
2. The polysaccharide part of glycoproteins located on the surfaces of red blood cells acts as the antigen responsible for determining the blood group of an individual.
3. Different polysaccharide part of glycoproteins act as different type of antigens that determine the blood groups.
4. Four types of blood groups A, B, AB, and O are recognized on the basis of presence or absence of these antigens.

Question (E)
How cytoplasm differs from nucleoplasm in chemical composition?
Answer:

1. A thick liquid enclosed by cell membrane which surrounds the central nucleus in eukaryotes or nucleoid region in prokaryotes is known as cytoplasm.
2. The cytoplasm shows presence of minerals, sugars, amino acids, t-RNA, nucleotides, vitamins, proteins and enzymes.
3. The liquid or semiliquid substance within the nucleus is called the nucleoplasm.
4. Nucleoplasm shows presence of various substances like nucleic acid, protein molecules, minerals and salts.

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Distinguish between smooth and rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer:
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER):
1. Depending on cell type, it helps in synthesis of lipids for e.g. Steroid secreting cells of cortical region of adrenal gland, testes and ovaries.
2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum plays a role in detoxification in the liver and storage of calcium ions (muscle cells).

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER):

1. Rough ER is primarily involved in protein synthesis. For e.g. Pancreatic cells synthesize the protein insulin in the ER.
2. These proteins are secreted by ribosomes attached to rough ER and are called secretory proteins. These proteins get wrapped in membrane that buds off from transitional region of ER. Such membrane bound proteins depart from ER as transport vesicles.
3. Rough ER is also involved in formation of membrane for the cell.

The ER membrane grows in place by addition of membrane proteins and phospholipids to its own membrane. Portions of this expanded membrane are transferred to other components of endomembrane system.

Question (B)
Why do we call mitochondria as power house of cell? Explain in detail.
(Hint: Refer chapter Cellular Respiration.)
OR
Mitochondria are power house of the cell. Give reasons.
Answer:
a. Mitochondria possess oxysomes on its inner membrane. These oxysomes take active part in synthesis of ATP molecules.
b. During cellular respiration, ATP molecules are produced and get accumulated in the mitochondria. They play an important role in cellular activities.
c. only mitochondria can convert pyruvic acid to carbon dioxide and water during cell respiration. Therefore, mitochondria are called ‘power house of the cell’.

Question (C)
What are the types of plastids?
Answer:
1. Plastids are classified according to the pigments present in it. Three main types of plastids are – leucoplasts, chromoplasts and chloroplasts.
2. Leucoplasts do not contain any photosynthetic pigments they are of various shapes and sizes. These are meant for storage of nutrients:
a. Amyloplasts store starch.
b. Elaioplasts store oils.
c. Aleuroplasts store proteins.

3. Chromoplasts contain pigments like carotene and xanthophyll etc.
a. They impart yellow, orange or red colour to flowers and fruits.
b. These plastids are found in the coloured parts of flowers and fruits.

4. Chloroplasts are plastids containing green pigment chlorophyll along with other enzymes that help in production of sugar by photosynthesis. They are present in plants, algae and few protists like Euglena.

Question 4.
Label the diagrams and write down the details of concept in your words.


Answer:
A.

B.

C.

D.

Structure of chloroplast:

1. In plants, chloroplast is found mainly in mesophyll of leaf.
2. Chloroplast is lens shaped but it can also be oval, spherical, discoid or ribbon like.
3. A cell may contain single large chloroplast as in Chlamydomonas or there can be 20 to 40 chloroplasts per cell as seen in mesophyll cells.
4. Chloroplasts contain green pigment called chlorophyll along with other enzymes that help in production of sugar by photosynthesis.
5. Inner membrane of double membraned chloroplast is comparatively less permeable.
6. Inside the cavity of inner membrane, there is another set of membranous sacs called thylakoids.
7. Thylakoids are arranged in the form of stacks called grana (singular: granum).
8. The grana are connected to each other by means of membranous tubules called stroma lamellae.
9. Space outside thylakoids is filled with stroma.
10. The stroma and the space inside thylakoids contain various enzymes essential for photosynthesis.
11. Stroma of chloroplast contains DNA and ribosomes (70S).

Question 5.
Complete the flow chart.

Answer:

Question 6.
Identify labels A, B, C in the given diagram. Explain how lysosomes perform intracellular and extracellular digestion.

Answer:
1. A: Food vacuole
B: Golgi complex
C: Lysosome

2. Intracellular digestion:
The intracellular digestion is brought about by autophagic vesicle or secondary lysosomes which contain foreign materials brought in by processes like phagocytosis. E.g. Food vacuole in amoeba or macrophages in human blood that engulf and destroy harmful microbes that enter the body.

3. Extracellular digestion:
Extracellular digestion is brought about by release of lysosomal enzymes outside the cell. E.g. acrosome, a cap like structure in human sperm is a modified lysosome which contain various enzymes like Hyaluronidase. These enzymes bring about fertilization by dissolving protective layers of ovum.

Question 7.
Identify each cell structures or organelle from its description below.

1. Manufactures ribosomes
2. Carries out photosynthesis
3. Manufactures ATP in animal and plant cells.
4. Selectively permeable.

Answer:

1. Nucleolus
2. Chloroplast
3. Mitochondria
4. Plasma membrane

Question 8.
Onion cells have no chloroplast. How can we tell they are plants?
Answer:

1. The bulb of an onion is a modified form of leaves.
2. While photosynthesis takes place in the leaves (present above the ground) of an onion containing chloroplast, the little glucose that is produced from this process is converted in to starch (starch granules) and stored in the bulb.
3. Starch act as reserved food material in plants.
4. Using an iodine solution, we can test for the presence of starch in onion cells. If starch is present, the iodine changes from brown to blue-black or purple. Hence, we can say that though onion cells have no chloroplast they are considered as plants.

Project/ Practical:

Question 1.
Observe the cells of onion root tip under microscope.
Answer:
The cells of onion root tip will show various stages of cell division when observed under micrscope.

Question 2.
Observe the cells from buccal epithelium stained with Giemsa under microscope.
Answer:
The following observations are made when cells from buccal epithelium stained with Giemsa:
1. Cheek cells are flat and irregular in shape.
2. These cells lack cell wall. A distinct blue nucleus can be observed on viewing the cells under the microscope after Geimsa staining.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 5 Cell Structure and Organization Intext Questions and Answers

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 44)

(i) Who observed cells under the microscope for the first time?
Answer:
Robert Hooke observed cells under the microscope for the first time.
[Note. Cell walls were first observed by Robert Hooke (1665) as he looked through a microscope at dead cells from the bark of an oak tree. But Anton van Leeuwenhoek was first to visualize living cells using a single-lens microscope of his own construction.]

(ii) Who made the first microscope?
Answer:
The first microscope was made by two Dutch spectacle makers Hans and Zacharias Janssen.
[Note: The Dutch scientist Anton van Leeuwenhoek made microscopes capable of magnifying single-celled organisms in a drop of pond water.]

Find Out (Textbook Page No. 44)

(i) How do a combination of lenses help in higher magnification?
Answer:
a. In a light microscope, visible light is passed through the specimen and then through two glass lenses.
b. The first lens focuses the magnified image of the object on the second lens, which magnifies it again and focuses it on the back of the eye.
c. The glass lenses bend (refract) the light in such a way that the image of the specimen is magnified.
In this way, a combination of lenses helps in higher magnification.

(ii) When do we use plane and concave mirror and diaphragm?
Answer:
a. Concave mirror is used when low-power objective lenses (useful for examining large specimens or many smaller specimens) or high-power objective lenses (useful for observing fine detail) are used, whereas plane mirror is used when oil immersion objective lens is used.
b. The amount of light passing on to the specimen from the condenser (which concentrates and controls the light that passes through the specimen) is regulated by using iris diaphragm.
c. Light is reduced by closing the diaphragm partially for use with dry objectives.
d. Oil immersion objectives require maximum light and this can be achieved by keeping the iris diaphragm fully open.

(iii) What is the difference between magnification and resolution?
Answer:
a. Magnification is the ratio of an object’s image size to its actual size.
b. Resolution is a measure of the clarity of the image; it is the minimum distance two points can be
separated and still be distinguished as separate points.

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 44)

(i) Why bacterial nucleus is said to be primitive?

(ii) Draw neat and labelled diagram of Prokaryotic cell.
Answer:
1. The DNA-containing central region of bacterial nucleus (prokaryotic cells) i.e. nucleoid, has no nuclear membrane separating it from the cytoplasm. Therefore, bacterial nucleus is said to be primitive.
2. Prokaryotic cell:

Find Out (Textbook Page No. 46)

Why do basal body of bacterial flagella considered as smallest motor in the world?
Answer:
1. The bacterial flagellum is an organelle for motility made up of three parts:
a. The basal body that spans the cell envelope and works as a rotary motor;
b. The helical fdament that acts as a propeller;
c. The hook that acts as a universal joint connecting these two to transmit motor torque to the propeller.
2. The motor i.e. basal body drives the rotation of the long, helical filamentous propeller at hundreds of hertz to produce thrust that allows bacteria to swim in liquid environments.
Therefore, basal body of bacterial flagella considered as smallest motor in the world.

Use your Brainpower (Textbook Page No. 46)

Describe major differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Answer:

Use Your Brain Power! (Textbook Page No. 52)

Are mitochondria present in all eukaryotic cells?
Answer:
a. Mitochondria are found in nearly all eukaryotic cells, including plants, animals, fungi, and most unicellular eukaryotes.
b. Some of the cells have a single large mitochondrion, but frequently a cell has hundreds of mitochondria.
c. The number of mitochondria correlates with the cell’s level of metabolic activity. For e.g. cells that move or contract have proportionally more mitochondria than metabolically less active cells.
d. However, mature red blood cells in humans lack mitochondria.

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 54)

(i) Consider the following cells and comment about the position, shape and number of nuclei in a eukaryotic cell. Add more examples from your previous knowledge about cell and nucleus. Cuboidal epithelial cell, different types of blood corpuscles, skeletal muscle fibre, adipocyte.
Answer:

(ii) Why nucleus is considered as control unit of a cell?
Answer:
a. Nucleus contains the genetic material of an organism.
b. This genetic material is present in the form of Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) which is responsible for synthesis of various proteins and enzymes.
c. These proteins and enzymes in turn regulate metabolic activities of the cells.
Therefore, nucleus is considered as control unit of a cell.

(iii) Can cells like Xylem or mature human RBCs called living?
Answer:
a. Xylem is a complex tissue consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres. From these components of xylem, tracheids are dead cells and xylem parenchyma is the only living tissue,
b. RBCs do not possess nuclei once they reach maturity as they have to accommodate haemoglobin in them. They do not require a nucleus to function as they do not reproduce but only serve as a vehicle for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood.

(iv) What is a syncytium and coenocyte?
Answer:
Syncytium: It refers to mass of cells formed by fusion of multiple uninuclear cells and followed by dissolution of the cell membrane.
Coenocyte: It is a multinucleate cell resulted from multiple nuclear divisions without undergoing cytokinesis.

Can You Recall? (Textbook Page No. 44)

How do onion peel cells and our body cells differ?
Answer:
1 – (a, b, d, e,f g)

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 4 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A)
Which of the following belongs to a minor phylum?
(a) Comb jelly
(b) Jellyfish
(c) Herdmania
(d) Salpa
Answer:
(a) Comb jelly

Question (B)
Select the animal having venous heart.
(a) Crocodile
(b) Salamander
(c) Rohu
(d) Toad
Answer:
(c) Rohu

Question (C)
In Ascaris, _______ .
(a) mesoglea is present
(b) endoderm is a discontinuous layer
(c) mesoderm is present in patches
(d) body cavity is absent
Answer:
(c) mesoderm is present in patches

Question (D)
Which of the following is INCORRECT in case of birds?
(a) Presence of teeth
(b) Presence of scales
(c) Nucleated RBCs
(d) Hollow bones
Answer:
(a) Presence of teeth

Question (E)
Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic of ________ .
(a) Dentalium
(b) Antedon
(c) Millipede
(d) Sea urchin
Answer:
(c) Millipede

2. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
Reptiles are known for having three chambered heart. Which animal shows a near four chambered condition in reptiles?
Answer:
Crocodiles have a four chambered heart.

Question (B)
The circulatory system has evolved from open to closed type in Animal Kingdom. Which Phylum can be called first to represent closed circulation?
Answer:
Phylum Annelida is the first phylum to represent closed circulation.

Question (C)
Pinna is part of external ear and it is found in mammals. Do Aves and Reptiles show external ear in any form?
Answer:
No, Aves and Reptiles do not show external ear in any form. They possess tympanum which represents the ear.

Question (D)
Fish and frog can respire in water. Can they respire through their skin? If yes, why do they have gills?
Answer:
1. Yes, fishes and frogs can respire through their skin.
2. The larval stage of frog i. e. tadpole respires through gills. During metamorphosis, tadpoles lose their gills and develop lungs.
3. Frogs do not have scales and breathe through their skin underwater.
4. Fishes respire primarily via gills. The body of fishes is covered with scales which limits cutaneous respiration in them.

Question (E)
Birds need to keep their body light to help in flying. Hence, they show presence of some organs only on one side. How their skeleton helps in reducing their weight?
Answer:

1. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
2. They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
3. Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
4. In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
5. Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Question (F)
Cnidarians and Ctenophorans are both diploblastic. Which other character do they have in common, which is not found in other phyla?
Answer:
Cnidarians and ctenophorans show tissue level of body organization. They have blind sac body plan and radially symmetrical body.

Question (G)
Crab and Snail both have a protective covering. Is it made up of the same material?
Answer:
No, the protective covering is not made up of same material in crab and snail. The protective covering of crabs is made up of chitin and that of snails is made up of calcium carbonate.

Question (H)
Sponge and sea star show calcareous protective material. Do they belong to the same Phylum?
Answer:
No, they do not belong to same phylum. Sponges belong to phylum Porifera and sea star belongs to phylum Echinodermata.
1. Adult echinoderms are radially symmetrical but larval forms are bilaterally symmetrical.
2. Larvae of echinoderms are free-swimming.

Question (I)
Fish and snake both have scales. How do these scales differ from each other?
Answer:
Fishes have dermal scales covering the body surface whereas snakes have epidermal scales or scutes.

Question (J)
Lower Phyla like Arthropods and Cnidarians show metamorphosis. Is it also found in any class of Phylum Chordata?
Answer:
Yes, it is also found in class Amphibia of phylum Chordata.

Question 3.
Draw neat labelled diagram.
A. Sycon
B. Aurelia
C. Amphioxus
D. Catla
E. Balanoglossus
F. Scolidon
Answer:
A. Sycon

B. Aurelia

C. Amphioxus

D. Catla

E. Balanoglossus

F. Scolidon

Question 4.
Match the following.

Answer:

5. Identify the animals given in pictures and write features of its phylum/class.

Question 1.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Comb jelly (Red midwater Comb jelly) and it belongs to phylum Ctenophora.

Question 2.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Eel and it belongs to phylum Chordata.

Question 3.

Answer:
The given organism in the given picture is Dolphin and it belongs to class Mammalia.

Question 4.

Answer:
The given organism is Snake and it belongs to class Reptilia

Question 5.

Answer:
The given organism is Sea urchin and belongs to phylum Echinodermata.

Question 6.

Answer:
The given organism is flying lizard and belongs to class Reptilia.

Question 7.

Answer:
The organism is Herdmania and belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Urochordata).

Question 8.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Nautilus and it belongs to phylum Mollusca.

Question 9.

Answer:
The organism in the given picture is Amphioxus and it belongs to Phylum Chordata (Subphylum Cephalochordata).

6. Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Question 1.
Observe and identify body symmetry of given animals.

Answer:
Fig i. represents asymmetry
Fig ii. represents radial symmetry
Fig iii. represents bilateral symmetry

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study different animals in kingdom Animalia and prepare the chart with detail scientific information.
Answer:
Phylum Porifera (Pori = Pores: feron = bearing): Members of the phylum Porifera are also called sponges. Characteristic features of the phylum:

1. Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine but few species are found in fresh water.
2. Forms: They are sedentary animals (attached to substratum or rock).
3. Body shape: They have asymmetrical body. Body of these animals consists of many cells with minimal
   division of labour among cells. Hence, their body is considered as a colony of different types of cells.
4. Body surface: Their body bears minute pores called ‘ostia’ through which water enters the spongocoel (body cavity). Water leaves the body through a large opening called ‘osculum’. Beating of flagella creates water current.
5. Circulation: Water is circulated in the body through the ‘canal system’. When the water enters the body of poriferans, cells absorb the food, exchange respiratory gases and release excretory products.
6. Digestive system: The body cavity of sponges (spongocoel) is lined by unique type of flagellated cells called choanocytes or collar cells for digestion.
7. Endoskeleton: The body of sponges consists of calcareous / siliceous spicules and proteinaceous ‘spongin fibres’.
8. Reproduction: Sponges reproduce asexually as well as sexually. Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation and gemmule formation. Sexual reproduction is by formation of gametes. Fertilization is internal and development is indirect through larval stage.
9. Sponges have great power of regeneration.
   e.g. Scypha, Euspongia (Bath sponge), Euplectella (Venus’ flower basket).

Characteristics of members belonging to phylum Cnidaria:

1. Habitat: They are aquatic, mostly marine and few of them are fresh – water forms.
2. Forms: They are sessile or free swimming.
3. Cnidoblasts: Presence of cnidoblasts or stinging cells are present on the tentacles for anchorage, offence and defence.
4. Body Symmetry: They have radially symmetrical body.
5. Germ layer: They are diploblastic.
6. Body cavity: Cnidarians have a central cavity called coelenteron or gastrovascular cavity, which helps in digestion and circulation. They have blind-sac body plan i.e., single pore opening to the exterior in the digestive system.
7. Body form: Members of this phylum exhibit two body forms. The cylindrical form, known as polyp e.g. Hydra and the umbrella – like form (.Aurelia – jelly fish) is known as medusa.
8. Digestion: They have extracellular and intracellular digestion.
9. Reproduction: Cnidarians reproduce asexually and sexually.

Asexual reproduction takes place by budding and regeneration. Sexual reproduction takes place gamete formation. They exhibit metagenesis i.e. alternation of polypoid generation with medusoid generation. Polyps produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyps sexually, e.g. Obelia
e.g. Hydra, Aurelia (Jellyfish), Physalia (Portuguese man-of-war), Adamsia (Sea anemone), Diploria (Brain coral), Gorgonia (sea fan).

The members of this phylum are commonly known as comb jellies and sea walnuts. They are also known as acnidarians as they lack cnidoblasts. The phylum is considered as one of the minor phyla as it is represented by very few members.

Salient features of phylum Ctenophora:

1. Habitat: They are exclusively marine.
2. Forms: They are free swimming animals.
3. Germ layers: Members of this phylum are diploblastic.
4. Body Symmetry: They are radially symmetrical.
5. Body plan: The animals of this phylum show blind-sac body plan.
6. Body organization: They show tissue level organization.
7. Locomotion: It is earned out by eight rows of ciliated comb plates.
8. Bioluminescence: It is the characteristic feature of the members of this phylum.
9. Digestion: It is extracellular and intracellular.
10. Reproduction: Reproduction is sexual with indirect development.
11. Colloblasts: These sticky cells are used to capture prey, e.g. Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana

11th Biology Digest Chapter 4 Kingdom Animalia Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 29)

(i) What is the basis for classification?
Answer:
Grades of organization, body symmetry, body cavity, germ layers and segmentation form the basis for classification.

(ii) Who proposed Five kingdom classification system?
Answer:
Robert Whittaker proposed the five kingdom system of classification.

(iii) What is the need and importance of classification?
Answer:
Need and importance for classification:
a. Classification facilitates the identification of animals with great accuracy.
b. The study of animals becomes convenient.
c. It helps in understanding the relationship of animals with other living organisms.
d. It helps to understand the habitat of each animal along with its role in nature.
e. By studying few animals from a group, we can gain a better understanding about the entire group.
f. It helps in understanding different adaptations shown by animals.
g. It gives an idea about evolution of animals.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 29)

Discuss the criteria of classification.
Answer:
1. The given diagrams represents the number of germ layers and body symmetry used as criteria for animal classification.
2. Number of germ layers:
(a) When an organism shows only two germ layers, they are called diploblastic animals. In this case, the outer ectoderm is separated from the inner endoderm by a non-living substance called mesoglea.
(b) When an organism shows three germinal layers, they are called triploblastic animals. The three layers are namely – outer ectoderm, middle mesoderm and inner endoderm.
3. Body symmetry:
Body symmetry implies to the similarity in shape, size and number of parts on the opposite sides of a median line when body is divided into two halves by an imaginary line along different plane. Animals may be asymmetrical, radially symmetrical or bilaterally symmetrical.
(a) Asymmetrical animals:
An animal is said to be asymmetrical when its body cannot be divided into two identical halves in any plane.
(b) Radially symmetrical animals:
In certain animals, body can be cut or divided into two similar halves in a number of planes wherein, all the cuts (planes) pass through the centre. This type of symmetry is called radial symmetry.
(c) Bilaterally symmetrical animals:
In this type, the body of the animal can be bisected or divided in two equal or identical halves by a single median or vertical plane.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 30)

Which are the larval stages of Porifera.
Answer:
Larval stages of Porifera:
Parenchymula – Flagellate larvae of calcinean sponges
Amphiblastula – Free swimming larval stage of Sycon and many other calcareous sponges. Rhagon— Larval stage which give rise to the leuconoid condition in demospongiae.
[Students are expected to find more information about the larval stages of Porifera on internet.]

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 31)

Information about coral reefs and sea fan.
Answer:
Coral reefs:

1. A coral reef is an underwater ecosystem characterized by reef building corals.
2. Coral reefs constitute 25% of all marine species on the planet.
3. They belong to phylum Cnidaria.
4. There are three main types of coral reefs – fringing, barrier and atoll. Coral reefs provide ecosystem services for tourism, fisheries and shoreline protection.
5. They cannot survive in high temperatures, thus due to climate change there is a sharp decline in their population.

Sea fan or Gorgonia:

1. It is a soft coral composed of numerous polyps – cylindrical, sessile (attached) forms that grow together in a flat, fan-like pattern.
2. It belongs to phylum Cnidaria.
3. It does not produce calcium carbonate skeletons.
[Students can find out more information about coral reefs and sea fan using internet ]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 32)

(i) State the parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke and Ascaris.
Answer:
Parasitic adaptations in Liver fluke:
a. Presence of hooks and suckers
b. Body covered with cuticle
c. Lacks digestive system
d. They are hermaphrodites

Parasitic adaptations in Ascaris:
a. Presence of muscular pharynx for sucking the food.
b. Body covered by tough, thick and resistant cuticle.
c. Secretes enzymes against the enzymes secreted by the host.
d. Respiration is anaerobic.
e. Reproductive system is highly developed.

(ii) Give example of free living platyhelminth.
Answer:
Planaria

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 33)

What are the merits and demerits of hermaphroditism?
Answer:
Hermaphroditism is the condition in which an organism possesses reproductive organs of both the sexes.

Merits of hermaphroditism:
a. Assured fertilization which reduces the risk of a species to become extinct due to unavailability of mating partner.
b. Energy required for searching out mating partner is conserved.
c. Frequency of mating is maximized.

Demerits of hermaphroditism:
a. More energy is required to maintain both the reproductive systems.
b. Limited gene diversity.
[Source: http://floydbiology. blogspot. com/2012/06/httpmattc-thinks. html]
[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Why are leeches used in Ayurveda?
Answer:
a. Leeches are used in blood purification therapy to treat many diseases as they suck impure blood from the affected site of the patient’s body.
b. The anticoagulant – hirudin present in saliva of leech, inhibits the coagulation of blood and makes blood thinner. This dissolves the clots found in vessels and facilitates the blood supply.

What is the role of earthworms in agriculture? What is vermicompost?
Answer:
Role of earthworms in agriculture:
a. Earthworms loosen the soil by burrowing deep into it, thus they help to aerate the soil.
b. This continuous digging of soil also helps the water to reach the roots quickly.
c. Earthworms can decompose the organic matter from the soil and convert it into rich manure.
d. This helps in increasing the fertility of soil which ultimately increases the crop production.
e. Earthworm castings are rich in nutrients which act as natural fertilizer.
Vermicompost:
Vermicompost is the product of vermicomposting. It is organic manure produced as vermicast by earthworm feeding on biological waste material and plant residues.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Explain the term metameric segmentation.
Answer:
In some animals, body consists of many segments arranged along the length of the body. When the external segmentation coincides with the internal segmentation, it is called as metameric segmentation and the phenomenon is called metamerism.

(ii) Give characteristics of Arthropoda.
Answer:
Arthropoda (Arthros: Joint, Podos: leg): Arthropoda forms the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. Characteristics of Arthropoda:
a. Habitat: Arthropods are omnipresent.
b. Forms: Solitary or colonial, most of them are free-living. Barnacles are sedentary. Few are parasitic and sanguivorous, (e.g. Female mosquito, bed bug.)
c. Body symmetry: Body is bilaterally symmetrical.
d. Germ layers: They are triploblastic.
e. Body cavity: Arthropods are eucoelomates.
f. Body plan: They show tube within tube body plan.
g. Level of body organization: They show organ system level of organization.
h. Special features: The members of this phylum have jointed appendages. Hence, they are known as arthropods. Some insects like honey bee, ants, termites, etc. exhibit polymorphism.
i. Exoskeleton: Body is covered by a tough, non – living chitinous exoskeleton. As the exoskeleton does not allow body growth, arthropods shed off their exoskeleton periodically during growth. This process is called moulting or ecdysis.
j. Body division: Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
k. Segmentation: Body shows metameric segmentation.
l. Digestion: Digestive system is complete and divided into foregut, midgut and hindgut.
m. Circulation: Circulatory system is of open type wherein, blood flows through body cavity called haemocoel.
n. Respiration: Respiration occurs through respiratory organs like gills, trachea, book lungs or book
gills.
o. Excretion: Excretion takes place by green glands, Malpighian tubules or coxal glands.
p. Nervous system: Nervous system consists of nerve ring and double, ventral ganglionated nerve cord.
q. Sense organs:Arthropods have well developed sense organs in the form of antennae, simple or compound eye and various receptors.
r. Sexual reproduction: Sexes are generally separate in arthropods with distinct sexual dimorphism.
s. Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silk worms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

(iii) Enlist the harmful Arthropods.
Answer:
Significance:
Beneficial arthropods: Some arthropods are of economic importance. For example, Honey bees (Apis) are important for their honey and wax, silkworms for the production of silk. Lobsters, prawns, crabs are edible. Harmful arthropods: Some arthropods are harmful and act as vectors to spread various diseases, e.g., Mosquitoes. Locusta (locust) is a gregarious pest. Limulus (King crab) is a living fossil.
Other examples: Cockroach (Periplaneta), butterfly, scorpion (Hottentotta) and millipede (Archispirostreptus) prawn.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 34)

(i) Why is phylum Arthropoda considered as most successful phylum?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda is considered as most successful phylum because of the following reasons:
a. Phylum Arthropoda is the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia. It includes various forms like lobsters, prawns, crabs, insects, millipedes, locust, honeybees, etc.
b. They are omnipresent (present everywhere). Arthropods show great variety of adaptations as their habitat varies from terrestrial to aquatic habitat.
c. Several others factors also contribute to the success of the phylum which includes:
1. The exoskeleton of arthropods is made up of tough chitinous exoskeleton. This enables them to survive on lands in almost all environment and is a great defense against predators.
2. They possess jointed appendages which allow complex movements.
3. They exhibit moulting or eedysis.
4. They have metamerically segmented body helping in movement around diverse environments.

(ii) What do we mean by parthenogenesis?
Answer:
Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization is known parthenogenesis. It is found in many non-vertebrates such as bees, rotifers and even some lizards and birds (turkey).

(iii) What do we mean by living fossil?
Answer:
A member of a living animal or plant species that is almost identical to species known from the fossil record (not the recent fossil record), i.e. they have changed very little over a long period.
[Source:https://www. encyclopedia, com/earth-and-environment/ecology-and- environmentalism/environmental-studies/living-fossil]

(iv) How the bees produce honey?
Answer:
a. Bees produce honey using the nectar of flowering plants. A bee sucks the nectar and stores it in a honey sac until it returns to the hive.
b. The nectar is then transferred to worker bees in the hive who suck the nectar from the honey sac through their proboscis. This nectar contains 70% water and 20% honey. Honeybees get rid of excess water by swallowing and regurgitating the nectar again and again. They also fan their wings over filled cells of honeycomb.

When most of the water has evaporated from the honeycomb, the bee seals the comb with a secretion of liquid from its abdomen which eventually hardens into beeswax. This is how the honey bees use nectar to produce a thick, sticky and sweet honey.

(v) What will happen if arthropods do not moult?
Answer:
a. Moulting or eedysis is a periodic shedding of the outer cuticle layer of body in arthropods.
b. The outer layer of body of arthropods is formed of tough, non-living chitinous substance.
c. If arthropods do not moult, they cannot grow and mature into adult forms

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 34)

Why do Molluscs have shell?
Answer:
Molluscs are soft-bodied animals. Thus, the calcareous shell provides supports and protects the organisms from predators.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Give salient features of phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:
Salient features of phylum Echinodermata (Echinus – spines, derma – skin)

1. Habitat: These are exclusively marine.
2. Forms: Members of this phylum are solitary, sedentary or free-living and gregarious, benthic.
3. Body symmetry: These animals are radially symmetrical with pentamerous symmetry.
4. Shape: Members of Echinodermata are spherical, elongated or star-shaped.
5. Body: The endoskeleton is made up of calcareous ossicles. Spines are formed on the body. Hence, they are known as echinoderms. The body has two sides oral and aboral and lacks definite divisions. Mouth is ventrally present on oral surface and anus on aboral surface.
6. Water vascular system: Presence of water vascular system is the peculiar character of echinoderms. The madrepOrite is the opening of water vascular system through which water enters. Water vascular system is useful in locomotion, food capturing, respiration.
7. Digestion: Digestive system is complete.
8. Respiration: Peristomial gills, papillae, respiratory tree, etc. are used for respiration.
9. Circulatory and excretory systems: Absent in echinoderms.
10. Nervous system: Nervous system is simple with a nerve ring around the mouth and radial nerves in arms.
11. Reproduction and development: Sexes are separate (sometimes bisexual). Fertilization is external.
12. Development is indirect, i.e. through larval stages. They show high power of regeneration.

e.g. Sea lily (Antedon), Sea star (Asterias), Sea cucumber (Cucumaria), Brittle star (Ophiothrix), Sea urchin (Echinus).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 36)
Answer:
1. Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
2. It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
3. Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
4. Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Why Balanoglossus is considered as connecting link between Non-chordates and chordates?
Answer:
Balanoglossus belongs to phylum Hemiehordata. For Explanation:

1. Hemiehordata was earlier considered as sub phylum of Chordata because the buccal diverticulum was considered as notochord. It is now placed as a separate phylum under Non-Chordata.
2. It possesses certain characteristics of both Chordates and Non-chordates.
3. Absence of notochord worm-like body, heart located on the dorsal side are the Non-chordate like characteristics seen in Hemiehordata.
4. Presence of nerve chord, pharyngeal gill slits are some of the Chordate-like characters seen in Hemiehordata. Hence, Hemiehordata is considered as a connecting link between Non-chordata and Chordata.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 36)

Compare and contrast between Non-Chordates and Chordates.

Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Herdmania is called a Chordate. Explain.
Answer:
1. Herdmania belongs to phylum Urochordata.
2. It is called a chordate as it shows the following features:
a. Presence of notochord at least in early embryonic life. (In Herdmania, notochord is present in the tail of the larval forms).
b. Presence of hollow, dorsal nerve chord, running throughout the length of the body.
c. Presence of pharyngeal gill slits.
d. Presence of post-anal tail.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 37)

Give characteristics of Petromyzon. Comment on its mode of nutrition.
Answer:
Characteristic features of class Cyclostomata (Cyclos: Circular, stoma-mouth) Lat/Grk

1. Members of class Cyclostomata are jaw-less and eel like organisms.
2. Their skin is devoid of scales, soft and smooth, containing unicellular mucus glands.
3. Median fms are present but paired fins are absent.
4. They are ectoparasites on fishes.
5. They have sucking circular mouth, without jaws.
6. Cranium and vertebral column are made up of cartilage.
7. Their digestive system lacks stomach.
8. Respiration occurs by 6 – 15 pairs of gill slits. Gills slits are without operculum.
9. Heart is two chambered with one auricle and one ventricle.
10. Gonad is single, large and without gonoduct.
11. Fertilization is external. They are anadromous as they migrate for spawning to fresh – water from marine habitat.
12. After spawning, they die within few days. Larvae metamorphosize and migrate to ocean.
    e.g Petromyzon (Lamprey), Myxine (Hagfish).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 38)

(i) What is the lateral line system?
Answer:
a. Lateral line system is the system with mechanoreceptors called neuromasts, for the detection of watei current.
b. These neuromasts are arranged in an interconnected network along the head and body.
c. Lateral line system also known as lateralis system.

(ii) Why Piscian heart is called a venous heart?
Answer:
a. Pisces have two-chambered heart. They have single and closed circulation.
b. Heart of Pisces receives blood only from veins and thus always shows presence of deoxygenated blood which it pumps directly to the gills for oxygenation.
Thus, the heart of Pisces is called a venous heart.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Amphibians do not have exoskeleton. Give reason.
Answer:
1. Amphibians live in both water and on land.
2. They perform cutaneous respiration (i. e. gaseous exchange across the skin or outer integument.) under water and when on land, they respire through lungs.
Thus, to facilitate cutaneous respiration, amphibians do not have exoskeleton.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 40)

Why are amphibians and reptilians called poikilotherms?
Answer:
Amphibians and reptilians are called poikilotherms as they cannot maintain a constant body temperature. Their body temperature changes according to the change in surrounding temperature.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

Give adaptations in Aves for flying.
Answer:

1. In birds, the forelimbs are modified into wings for flying.
2. They possess stream-lined body to reduce resistance during flight.
3. Bones are hollow or pneumatic to reduce body weight.
4. In order to reduce body weight, urinary bladder is absent. Also, females possess only left ovary and oviduct.
5. Body is covered by feathers to facilitate flying.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 41)

(i) Aves and mammals are homeotherms. Give reason.
Answer:
a. Aves and mammals can generate heat to maintain their body temperature.
b. They keep their body temperature constant, irrespective of fluctuations in environmental temperature. Thus, Aves and mammals are homeotherms.

(ii) How mammals differ from other groups of animals?
Answer:
Features of class Mammalia (mammae: breasts, nipple):

1. Special feature: Presence of mammary glands (milk-producing glands) for the nourishment of young ones. Mammary glands are modified sweat glands.
2. Habitat: Mammals are omnipresent (present everywhere). These are mostly terrestrial, some are aquatic and few are aerial and arboreal (living on trees).
3. Locomotion: Limbs are the organs of locomotion and are modified for walking, climbing, burrowing, swimming, etc.
4. Body division: Body is differentiated into head, neck, trunk and tail. They have external ear (pinna).
5. Body temperature: Mammals are homeotherms or warm-blooded animals.
6. Exoskeleton: It is in the form of hair, fur, nails, hooves, horns, etc.
7. Skin: Skin is glandular and has sweat glands and sebaceous (oil) glands.
8. Mouth cavity: Mammals show heterodont dentition (various types of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars).
9. Circulation: Heart is ventral in position, four chambered with two auricles and two ventricles. RBCs are biconcave and enucleated (except camel). Blood is red in colour.
10. Respiration: Respiration takes place by lungs.
11. Nervous system: Brain is highly developed. Cerebrum shows a transverse band called corpus callosum.
12. Reproduction and development: Only few mammals are oviparous, e.g. Duck billed platypus. Some have pouches for development of immature young ones. These are called marsupials, e.g. Kangaroo. Most of the mammals are placental and viviparous.

Do yourself. (Textbook Page No. 41)

Observe different animals in your surrounding, write a detailed classification and write down the characteristics of animals in the following format.
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 3 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Which is the dominant phase in Pteridophytes?
(a) Capsule
(b) Gametophyte
(c) Sporophyte
(d) Embryo
Answer:
(c) Sporophyte

Question (B)
The tallest living gymnosperm among the following is
(a) Sequoia sempervirens
(b) Taxodium mucronatum
(c) Zamia pygmaea
(d) Ginkgo biloba
Answer:
(a) Sequoia sempervirens

Question (C)
In Bryophytes
(a) sporophyte and gametophyte generation are independent
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte
(c) gametophyte is dependent upon sporophyte
(d) inconspicuous gametophyte
Answer:
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte

Question (D)
A characteristic of Angiosperm is
(a) Collateral vascular bundles
(b) Radial vascular bundles
(c) Seed formation
(d) Double fertilization
Answer:
(d) Double fertilization

Question (E)
Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having
(a) Vessels in wood
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Siphonogamy
(d) Enclosed seed
Answer:
Both (a) Monocotyledons and (d) Enclosed seed

Question 2.
How you place the pea, jowar and fern at its proper systematic position? Draw a flow chart.
Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following table.

Answer:

Question 4.
Differentiate between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae based on the following characters:
a. Type of roots
b. Venation in the leaves
c. Symmetry of flower
Answer:

Characters Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae
1. Type of roots Tap roots Fibrous roots
2. V enation in the leaves Reticulate venation Parallel venation
3. Symmetry of flower Tetramerous or Pentamerous symmetry Trimerous symmetry

5. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
We observe that land becomes barren soon after monsoon. But in the next monsoon it flourishes again with varieties we observed in season earlier. How you think it takes place?
Answer:

1. After monsoon, plants like mosses (bryophytes), ferns (pteridophytes), small herbaceous plants, etc become dry, due to which land becomes barren.
2. However, spores of bryophytes, pteridophytes and seeds of herbaceous plants, grass remain in barren land.
3. During next monsoon, these spores and seeds germinate due to availability of water and other favourable conditions.
4. Bryophytes and pteridophytes require water for reproduction. Hence they flourish during monsoon season.
5. Along with bryophytes and pteridophytes varieties of higher plants like grasses, some seasonal herbs or shrubs grow on barren land during monsoon due to favourable conditions.

Question (B)
Fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams. Why?
Answer:

1. Fern belongs to sub-kingdom Cryptogamae.
2. Cryptogams produce spores but do not produce seeds.
3. Also, in cryptogams the sex organs are concealed.
4. Phanerogams are seed producing plants and their sex organs are visible.
5. Hence, fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams.

Question (C)
Chlamydomonas is microscopic whereas Sargassum is macroscopic; both are algae. Which characters of these plants includes them in one group?
Answer:

1.  Both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum belong to division Thallophyta.
2. Members of Thallophyta range from unicellular (e.g. Chlamydomonas) to multicellular (e.g. Sargassum).
3. Both are aquatic plants containing photosynthetic pigments.
4. In both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum plant body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
5. The stored food is mainly in the form of starch and its other forms.
6. Cell wall is made up of cellulose and other components. Due to these characters, both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum are included in one group i.e. Thallophyta.

Question 6.
Girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time. Justify.
Answer:

1. Maize plant belongs to class monocotyledonae.
2. In monocotyledonous plants, vascular bundles are closed type.
3. Thus, cambium is absent between xylem and phloem, due to which secondary growth does not occur in these plants.
4. Increase in girth of a stem occurs by secondary growth. Thus, girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time.

Question 7.
Radha observed a plant in rainy season on the compound wall of her school. The plant did not have true roots but root like structures were present. Vascular tissue was absent. To which group the plant may belong?
Answer:
The plant observed by Radha belongs may belong to division Bryophyta, as it shows root like structures i.e. rhizoids and absence of vascular tissue.

8. Draw neat labelled diagrams

Question 1.
Draw neat and labelled diagram of:
(A) Spirogyra
(B) Chlamydomonas
Answer:

Question (C)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Funaria.
Answer:

Question (D)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Nephrolepis.
Answer:

[Note: Frond: Fern leaf, originating from rhizome. It consists of blade and petiole, Blade: Main part of the frond which is rich in chlorophyll]

Question (E)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Haplontic and Haplo-diplontic life cycle.
Answer:

Question 9.
Identify the plant groups on the basis of following features:
A. Seed producing plants
B. Spore producing plants
C. Plant body undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves
D. Plant needs water for fertilization
E. First vascular plants
Answer:
1. Phanerogams (Angiospermae and Gymnospermae)
2. Cryptogams (Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta)
3. Thallophyta, Bryophyta
4. Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta
5. Pteridophytes

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study the Nephrolepis plant in detail.
Answer:

1. Nephrolepis belongs to division pteridophyta.
2. They grow abundantly in cool, shady, moist places.
3. Roots are adventitious (fibrous) growing from the underground stem.
4. Leaves are well developed on the stem (Rhizome).
5. They show presence of well-developed conducting system for transportation of water and food.
6. They reproduce asexually by spores produced within sporangia, which are present in sori. These sori are located along the posterior surface of leaflets.
7. These plants have neither fruits nor flowers.
8. Some ferms are used as food, medicine or as ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Study the coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas in detail.
Answer:
1. Coralloid roots of Cycas:
Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae for nitrogen fixation.
Coralloid roots are coral-like, dichotomously branched and fleshy. They grow upward toward the surface of the soil. These roots arise from the lateral branches of normal roots.
2. Scale leaf of Cycas:
In Cycas leaves are dimorphic i.e. foliage leaves and scale leaves. Scale leaves are minute, membranous and brown. These are non- photosynthetic and provide protection to the stem apex.
3. Megasporophyll of Cycas:
Megasporophylls are usually arranged in compact structures called female cones or female strobili. Megasporophyll contains megasporangia (ovule) which produce megaspores.
[Students are expected to collect more information about coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas.]

Question 10.
Observe the following diagram. Correct it and write the information in your words.

Answer:

1. The given figure indicates alternation of generation.
2. The life cycle of a plant includes two generations, sporophytic (diploid = 2n) and gametophytic (haploid = n)
3. Some special diploid cells of sporophyte divide by meiosis to produce haploid cells.
4. These haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametophyte.
5. On maturation, gametophyte produces male and female gametes which fuse during fertilization and produce diploid zygote.
6. Diploid zygote divides by mitosis and forms diploid sporophyte.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Why do we call plants as producers on land?
Answer:
Plants can prepare their own food by the process of photosynthesis. Hence, they are called as producers on land.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

What are differences between sub-kingdoms cryptogamae and Phanerogamae?
Answer:

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 19)

Collect different water samples of fresh water. Mount them on a glass slide and observe under a compound microscope. Try to identify the organisms which are visible under it.
Answer:
Micro-organisms like Paramoecium, Amoeba, blue-green algae, unicellular algae, filamentous algae can be observed under compound microscope.
[Students are expected to observe different water samples of fresh water under compound microscope and identify the organisms.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Give salient features of algae.
Answer:
Algae belongs to division Thallophyta.
Salient features of algae:
1. Habitat: Algae are mostly aquatic, few grow on other plants as epiphytes and some grow symbiotically. Some algae are epizoic i.e. growing or living non-parasitically on the exterior of living organisms.
Aquatic algae grow in marine or fresh water. Most of them are free-living while some are symbiotic.

2. Structure: Plant body is thalloid i.e. undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves. They may be small, unicellular, microscopic like Cblorella (non-motile), Chlamydomonas (motile). They can be multicellular, unbranched, filamentous like Spirogyra or branched and filamentous like Chara. Sargassum is a huge macroscopic sea weed which measures more than 60 meters in length.

3. Cell wall: The algal cell wall contains either polysaccharides like cellulose / glucose or a variety of proteins or both.
Reserve food material: Reserve food is in the form of starch and its other forms.

4. Photosynthetic pigments: Photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll – a, chlorophyll – b, chlorophyll – c, chlorophyll – d, carotenes, xanthophylls, phycobilins are found in algae.

5. Reproduction: Reproduction takes place by vegetative, asexual and sexual method.

6. Life cycle: The life cycle shows phenomenon of alternation of generation, dominant haploid and reduced diploid phases.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)

Write different pigments found in algae.
Answer:
Various types of photosynthetic pigments are found in algae.
1. Chlorophyll-a (Essential photosynthetic pigment) is present in all groups of algae.
2. The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Name the accessory pigments of algae.
Answer:
The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Differentiate between Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No.21)

Enlist examples of Chlorophyceae and Rhodophvceae.
Answer:
1. Examples of Chlorophyceae:
Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Char a, Volvox, Ulothrix, etc.
2. Examples of Rhodophyceae:
Chondrus, Batrachospermum, Porphyra, Gelidium, Gracillaria, Polysiphonia, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Different forms of green, red, brown and blue green algae.
Answer:
1. Forms of green algae:
Unicellular motile: e.g. Chlamydomonas Unicellular non-motile: E.g. Chlorella Colonial forms: e.g. Volvox Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra

2. Forms of red algae:
The red thalli of most of the red algae are multicellular, macroscopic, e.g. Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphonia, etc. .

3. Forms of brown algae:
Simple, branched and filamentous: Sargassum, Fucus, Ectocarpus Profusely branched: Laminaria, Dictyota, Kelps (Seaweed)

4. Forms of blue-green algae:
Unicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater or marine water or terrestrial algae.
[Note: Blue-green algae are cyanobacteria which are photosynthetic autotrophs.]
[Students are expected to collect more information from internet.]

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)
Enlist the forms of filamentous algae.
Answer: The forms of filamentous algae:
1. Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara, Ectocarpus, Dictyota, etc.
2. Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Economic importance of algae.
Answer:
(a) Many species of algae are used as food. For e.g. Chlorella (rich in cell proteins hence used as food supplement, even by space travelers), Sargassum, Laminaria, Porphyra, etc.
(b) Alginic acid is produced commercially from Kelps.
(c) Hydrocolloids like algin and carrageen are obtained from brown algae and red algae respectively.
(d) ‘Agar’ which is used as solidifying agent in tissue culture is obtained from red algae like Gelidium and Gracilaria.
(e) Brown algae like sea weeds are used a fodder for sheep, goat, etc.
[Students are expected to collect more information about the economic importance of algae.]
(f) Role of algae in environment.
Answer:
(a) Being photosynthetic, algae help in increasing the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment.
(b) Algae are primary producers of energy rich compounds which forms the basis of food cycles in aquatic animals.
[Students are expected to find out more information about the role of algae in environment on internet.]

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Differentiate between Thallophytes and Bryophytes.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Why Bryophyta are called amphibians of Plant Kingdom?
Answer:
Members of Bryophyta are mostly terrestrial plants which depend on water for fertilization and completion of their life cycle. Hence, they are called ‘amphibians of Plant Kingdom’.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 21)

You may have seen Funaria plant in rainy season. Why is it called amphibious plant?
Answer:
Funaria belongs to division Bryophyta.
It is a terrestrial plant but requires water for fertilization and completion of its life cycle. Hence, it is called as an amphibious plant.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

You may have seen the various plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds but they have well developed root, stem and leaves. Discuss.
Answer:
1. The plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds, but have true roots, stem and leaves belong to division Pteridophyta.
2. These plants are cryptogams as they do not produce seeds and flowers.
3. They have primitive conducting system.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams – Justify.
Answer:
1. The reproductive organs of pteridophytes are hidden.
2. Pteridophytes do not produce flowers, fruits and seeds. They reproduce asexually by forming spores and sexually by forming gametes, hence they belong to Cryptogamae.
3. These plants possess a primitive conducting system. Thus, conduction of water and food occurs through vascular tissue.
Hence, Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Give one example of aquatic and xerophytic Pteridophytes.
Answer:
Habitat: Pteridophytes grow in moist and shady places, e.g. Ferns, Horsetail. Some are aquatic (Azolla, Marsilea), xerophytic (Equisetum) and epiphytic (Lycopodium).

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Give any two examples of Pteridophyta.
Answer:
Nephrolepis, Selaginella, Azolla, Marsilea, Equisetum, Lycopodium, Psilotum, Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

Give general characters of Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:
1. General characters of Gymnosperms:
(a) Types: Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen, shrubs or woody trees.
(b) Vascular tissues: They are vascular plants having xylem with tracheids and phloem with sieve cells.
(c) Flower: These are primitive group of flowering plants producing naked seeds.
(d) Body: The plant body is sporophyte. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
(e) Roots: The root system is tap root type. In some gymnosperms, the roots form symbiotic association with other life forms. Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae and roots of Pinus show association with endophytic fungi called mycorrhizae.
(f) Stem: In gymnosperms, stem is mostly erect, aerial, solid and cylindrical. Secondary growth is seen in Gymnosperms due to the presence of cambium. In Cycas it is usually unbranched, while in conifers it is branched, (e.g. Pinus, Cedrus).
(g) Leaves: The leaves are dimorphic. The foliage leaves are green, simple needle like or pinnately compound, whereas scale leaves are small, membranous and brown.
(h) Spores: Spores are produced by microsporophyll (Male) and megasporophyll (Female).

(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Observe all garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna and compare them. Note similarities and dissimilarities among them.
Answer:
1. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following similarities can be observed:
Plant body is divided into root, stem and leaves.
2. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following dissimilarities can be observed:
(a) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus seeds are not enclosed within a fruit, whereas in Sunflower and Canna seeds are enclosed within a fruit.
(b) Plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus show cones bearing microsporophylls and megasporophylls, whereas sunflower and Canna plant bear flowers.
(c) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus green, simple needle like or pinnately compound foliage leaves and brown, membranous scaly leaves can be observed, whereas in Sunflower, Canna green foliage leaves can be observed.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What are the salient features of angiosperms?
Answer:
(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What is double fertilization?
Answer:
(a) Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.
(b) In this process one male gamete fuses with egg cell and another male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus, to form an embryo and endosperm respectively.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

Explain in brief the two classes of Angiosperms? Draw and label one example of each class.
Answer:
Two classes of Angiosperms are Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
а. Dicotyledonae:

1. These plants have two cotyledons in their embryo.
2. They have a tap root system and the stem is branched.
3. Leaves show reticulate venation.
4. Flowers show tetramerous or pentamerous symmetry.
5. Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type.
6. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
7. In dicots, secondary growth is commonly found. e. g. Helianthus annuus (Sunflower)

b. Monocotyledonae:

1. These plants have single cotyledon in their embryo.
2. They have adventitious root system and stem is rarely branched.
3. Leaves generally have sheathing leaf base and parallel venation.
4. Flowers show trimerous symmetry.
5. The vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type.
6. Cambium is absent between xylem and phloem.
7. In Monocots, except few plants secondary growth is absent, e.g. Zea mays (Maize)

Try This (Textbook Page No. 24)

Study the leaves of Hibiscus, Peepal, Canna, Grass and Tulsi. Classify them as Monocot and Dicot.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

(i) Distinguish between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
Answer:
Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.

(ii) Why do Dicots show secondary growth while Monocots don’t?
Answer:
(a) In dicots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
(b) Whereas in monocots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type. Thus, due to absence of cambium, secondary growth does not occur in majority of monocots.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Which differences did you notice between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms?
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

What is alternation of generations?
Answer:
The sporophytic and gametophytic generations generally occur alternately in the life cycle of a plant. This phenomenon is called alternation of generations.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

Which phase is dominant in the life cycle of Bryophyta and Pteridophyta?
Answer:
In the life cycle of Bryophyta, gametophyte is the dominant phase whereas in the life cycle of Pteridophyta, sporophyte is the dominant phase.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Solutions Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 2 Solutions Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 2 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct answer.

Question i.
The vapour pressure of a solution containing 2 moles of a solute in 2 moles of water (vapour pressure of pure water = 24 mm Hg) is
(a) 24 mm Hg
(b) 32 mm Hg
(c) 48 mm Hg
(d) 12 mm Hg
Answer:
(d) 12 mm Hg

Question ii.
The colligative property of a solution is
(a) vapour pressure
(b) boiling point
(c) osmotic pressure
(d) freezing point
Answer:
(c) osmotic pressure

Question iii.
In calculating osmotic pressure the concentration of solute is expressed in
(a) molarity
(b) molality
(c) mole fraction
(d) mass per cent
Answer:
(a) molarity

Question iv.
Ebullioscopic constant is the boiling point elevation when the concentration of solution is
(a) 1 m
(b) 1 M
(c) 1 mass%
(d) 1 mole fraction of solute
Answer:
(a) 1 m

Question v.
Cryoscopic constant depends on
(a) nature of solvent
(b) nature of solute
(c) nature of solution
(d) number of solvent molecules
Answer:
(a) nature of solvent

Question vi.
Identify the correct statement
(a) vapour pressure of solution is higher than that of pure solvent.
(b) boiling point of solvent is lower than that of solution
(c) osmotic pressure of solution is lower than that of solvent
(d) osmosis is a colligative property.
Answer:
(b) boiling point of solvent is lower than that of solution

Question vii.
A living cell contains a solution which is isotonic with 0.3 M sugar solution. What osmotic pressure develops when the cell is placed in 0.1 M KCl solution at body temperature ?
(a) 5.08 atm
(b) 2.54 atm
(c) 4.92 atm
(d) 2.46 atm
Answer:
(c) 4.92 atm

Question viii.
The osmotic pressure of blood is 7.65 atm at 310 K. An aqueous solution of glucose isotonic with blood has the percentage (by volume)
(a) 5.41%
(b) 3.54%
(c) 4.53%
(d) 53.4%
Answer:
(a) 5.41%

Question ix.
Vapour pressure of a solution is
(a) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
(b) inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solute
(c) inversely proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
(d) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent
Answer:
(d) directly proportional to the mole fraction of the solvent

Question x.
Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because
(a) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
(b) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
(c) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
(d) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature
Answer:
(a) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased

Question xi.
Henry’s law constant for a gas CH₃Br is 0.159 mol dm^-3 atm at 250°C. What is the solubility of CH₃Br in water at 25 °C and a partial pressure of 0.164 atm?
(a) 0.0159 mol L^-1
(b) 0.164 mol L^-1
(c) 0.026 M
(d) 0.042 M
Answer:
(c) 0.026 M

Question xii.
Which of the following statement is NOT correct for 0.1 M urea solution and 0.05 M sucrose solution ?
(a) osmotic pressure exhibited by urea solution is higher than that exhibited by sucrose solution
(b) urea solution is hypertonic to sucrose solution
(c) they are isotonic solutions
(d) sucrose solution is hypotonic to urea solution
Answer:
(c) they are isotonic solutions

2. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question i.
What is osmotic pressure ?
Answer:
(1) Definition : The osmotic pressure is defined as the excess mechanical pressure required to be applied to a solution separated by a semipermeable membrane from pure solvent or a dilute solution to prevent the osmosis or free passage of the solvent molecules at a given temperature. The osmotic pressure is a colligative property.

Osmosis and osmotic pressure

(2) Explanation : Consider an inverted thistle funnel on the mouth of which a semipermeable membrane is firmly fastened. It is filled with the experimental solution and immersed in a solvent like water. As a result, solvent molecules pass through the membrane into the solution in the funnel causing rising of level in the arm of thistle funnel. This increases the hydrostatic pressure. At a certain stage this rising level stops indicating an equilibrium between the rates of flow of solvent molecules from solvent to solution and from solution to solvent. The hydrostatic pressure at this stage represents osmotic pressure of the solution in the thistle funnel.

Question ii.
A solution concentration is expressed in molarity and not in molality while considering osmotic pressure. Why ?
Answer:

1. While calculating osmotic pressure by equation, π = CRT, the concentration is expressed in molarity but not in molality.
2. This is because the measurements of osmotic pressure are made at a certain constant temperature.
3. Molarity depends upon temperature but molality is independent of temperature.
4. Hence in osmotic pressure measurements, concentration is expressed in molarity.

Question iii.
Write the equation relating boiling point elevation to the concentration of solution.
Answer:
The elevation in the boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to the molal concentration (expressed in mol kg^-1) of the solution.
Hence, if ΔT_b is the elevation in the boiling point of a solution of molal concentration m then,
ΔT_b ∝ m
∴ ΔT_b = K_b m
where K_b is a proportionality constant.
If m = 1 molal,
ΔT_b = K_b
K_b is called the ebullioscopic constant or molal elevation constant. K_b is characteristic of the solvent.

Question iv.
A 0.1 m solution of K₂SO₄ in water has freezing point of -0.43 °C. What is the value of van’t Hoff factor if K_f for water is 1.86 K kg mol^-1?
Answer:
Given : m = 0.1 m, ΔT_f = 0 – (-0.43) = 0.43 °C
K_f = 1.86 K kg mol^-1, i = ?
ΔT_f = i × K_f × m
∴ i = \(\frac{\Delta T_{\mathrm{f}}}{K_{\mathrm{f}} \times m}=\frac{0.43}{1.86 \times 0.1}\) = 2.312
van’t Hoff factor = i = 2.312

Question v.
What is van’t Hoff factor?
Answer:
Definition of the van’t Hoff factor, i : It is defined as a ratio of the observed colligative property of the solution to the theoretically calculated colligative property of the solution without considering molecular change.

The van’t Hoff factor can be represented as,

This colligative property may be the lowering of vapour pressure of a solution, the osmotic pressure, the elevation in the boiling point or the depression in the freezing point of the solution. Hence,

• When the solute neither undergoes dissociation or association in the solution, then, i = 1
• When the solute undergoes dissociation in the solution, then, i > 1
• When the solute undergoes association in the solution, then i < 1

From the value of the van’t Hoff factor, the degree of dissociation of electrolytes, degree of association of nonelectrolytes can be obtained.

van’t Hoff factor gives the important information about the solute molecules in the solution and chemical bonding in them.

Question vi.
How is van’t Hoff factor related to degree of ionization?
Answer:
Consider 1 dm³ of a solution containing m moles of an electrolyte AxBy. The electrolyte on dissociation gives x number of A^y+ ions and y number of B^x- ions. Let α be the degree of dissociation.

At equilibrium,
AxBy ⇌ xA^y+ + yB^x-
For 1 mole of electrolyte : 1 – α,  xα,  yα
and For ‘m’ moles of an electrolyte : m(1 – α), mxα, myα are the number of particles.
Total number of moles at equilibrium, will be,
Total moles = m(1 – α) + mxα + myα
= m[(1 – α) + xα + yα]
= m[1 + xα + yα – α]
= m[1 + α(x + y – 1)]

The van’t Hoff factor i will be,

If total number of ions from one mole of electrolyte is denoted by n, then (x + y) = n
∴ i = 1 + α(n – 1)
∴ α(n – 1) = i – 1
∴ α = \(\frac{i-1}{n-1}\) ……(1)
This is a relation between van’t Hoff factor i and degree of dissociation of an electrolyte.

Question vii.
Which of the following solutions will have higher freezing point depression and why ?
a. 0.1 m NaCl b. 0.05 m Al₂(SO₄)₃
Answer:
(1) Freezing point depression is a colligative property, hence depends on the number of particles in the solution.
(2) More the number of particles in the solution, higher is the depression in freezing point.
(3) The number of particles (ions) from electrolytes are,

(4) Therefore Al₂(SO₄)₃ solution will have higher freezing point depression.

Question viii.
State Raoult’s law for a solution containing a nonvolatile solute.
Answer:
Statement of Raoult’s law : The law states that the vapour pressure of a solvent over the solution of a nonvolatile solute is equal to the vapour pressure of the pure solvent multiplied by mole fraction of the solvent at constant temperature.

Question ix.
What is the effect on the boiling point of water if 1 mole of methyl alcohol is added to 1 dm³ of water? Why?
Answer:

• The boiling point of water (or any liquid) depends on its vapour pressure.
• Higher the vapour pressure, lower is the boiling point.
• When 1 mole of volatile methyl alcohol is added to 1 dm³ of water, its vapour pressure is increased decreasing the boiling point of water.

Question x.
Which of the four colligative properties is most often used for molecular mass determination? Why?
Answer:

1. Since osmotic pressure has large values, it can be measured more precisely.
2. The osmotic pressure can be measured at a suitable constant temperature.
3. The molecular masses can be measured more accurately.
4. Therefore, it is more useful to determine molecular masses of expensive substances by osmotic pressure.

3. Answer the following.

Question i.
How vapour pressure lowering is related to a rise in boiling point of solution?
Answer:
(1) The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid becomes equal to the external pressure, generally 1 atm (101.3 × 10³ Nm^-2).

(2) When a liquid is heated, its vapour pressure rises till it becomes equal to the external pressure.
If the liquid has a low vapour pressure, it has a higher boiling point.

Vapour pressure curve showing elevation in boiling point

(3) When a nonvolatile solute is added to a solvent, its vapour pressure decreases, hence the boiling point increases.
This is explained by graphical representation of the vapour pressure and the boiling point of the pure solvent and the solution.

If T₀ and T are the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution, then the elevation in the boiling point is given by,
ΔT_b = T – T₀
The curve AB, represents the variation in the vapour pressure of a pure solvent with temperature while curve CD represents the variation in the vapour pressure of the solution.

(4) This elevation in the boiling point is proportional to the lowering of the vapour pressure, i.e., P₀ – P, where P₀ and P are the vapour pressures of the pure solvent and the solution.
[ΔT_b ∝ (P₀ – P) or ΔT_b ∝ ΔP]

Question ii.
What are isotonic and hypertonic solutions?
Answer:
(1) Isotonic solutions : The solutions having the same osmotic pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic solutions.

Explanation : If two solutions of substances A and B contain n_A and n_B moles dissolved in volume V (in dm³) of the solutions, then their concentrations are,
C_A = \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{A}}}{V}\) (in mol dm^-3) and
C_B = \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{B}}}{V}\) (in mol dm^-3)

If the absolute temperature of both the solutions is T, then by the van’t Hoff equation,
π_A = C_ART and π_B = C_BRT, where π_A and π_B are their osmotic pressures.
For the isotonic solutions,
π_A = π_B
∴ C_A = C_B
∴ \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{A}}}{V}=\frac{n_{\mathrm{B}}}{V}\)
∴ n_A = n_B
Hence, equal volumes of the isotonic solutions at the same temperature will contain equal number of moles (hence, equal number of molecules) of the substances.

(2) Hypertonic solutions : When two solutions have different osmotic pressures, then the solution having higher osmotic pressure is said to be a hypertonic solution with respect to the other solution.

Explanation : Consider two solutions of substances A and B having osmotic pressures π_A and π_B. If π_B is greater than π_A, then the solution B is a hypertonic solution with respect to the solution A.
Hence, if C_A and C_B are their concentrations, then C_B > C_A. Hence, for equal volume of the solutions, n_B > n_A.

Question iii.
A solvent and its solution containing a nonvolatile solute are separated by a semipermable membrane. Does the flow of solvent occur in both directions? Comment giving reason.
Answer:

1. When a solvent and a solution containing a non-volatile solute are separated by a semipermeable membrane, there arises a flow of solvent molecules from solvent to solution as well as from solution to solvent.
2. Due to higher vapour pressure of solvent than solution, the rate of flow of solvent molecules from solvent to solution is higher.
3. As more and more solvent passes into solution due to osmosis, the solvent content increases, and the rate of backward flow increases.
4. At a certain stage an equilibrium is reached where both the opposing rates become equal attaining an equilibrium.

Question iv.
The osmotic pressure of CaCl₂ and urea solutions of the same concentration at the same temperature are respectively 0.605 atm and 0.245 atm. Calculate van’t Hoff factor for CaCl₂.
Answer:
Given : π_Cacl2 = 0.605 atm;
π_Urea = 0.245 atm
For urea solution, van’t Hoff factor, i = 1
π_Cacl2 = i × (CRT)_Cacl2
π_Urea = (CRT)_Urea

van’t Hoff factor = i = 2.47

Question v.
Explain reverse osmosis.
Answer:
Reverse osmosis : The phenomenon of the passage of solvent like water under high pressure from the concentrated aqueous solution like seawater into pure water through a semipermeable membrane is called reverse osmosis.

The osmotic pressure of seawater is about 30 atmospheres. Hence when pressure more than 30 atmospheres is applied on the solution side, regular osmosis stops and reverse osmosis starts. Hence pure water from seawater enters the other side of pure water.

Purification of seawater by reverse osmosis

For this purpose of suitable semipermeable membrane is required which can withstand high pressure conditions over a long period.
This method is used successfully in Florida since 1981 producing more than 10 million litres of pure water per day.

Question vi.
How molar mass of a solute is determined by osmotic pressure measurement?
Answer:
Consider V dm³ (litres) of a solution containing W₂ mass of a solute of molar mass M₂ at a temperature T.
Number of moles of solute, n₂ = \(\frac{W_{2}}{M_{2}}\)
The osmotic pressure π is given by,
π = \(\frac{W_{2} R T}{M_{2} V}\)
∴ M₂ = \(\frac{W_{2} R T}{\pi V}\)
By measuring osmotic pressure of a solution, the molar mass of a solute can be calculated.
Since osmotic pressure can be measured more precisely, it is widely used to measure molar masses of the substances.

Question vii.
Why vapour pressure of a solvent is lowered by dissolving a nonvolatile solute into it?
Answer:
Lowering of vapour pressure of a solution :
When a nonvolatile solute is added to a pure solvent, the surface area is covered by the solute molecule decreasing the rate of evaporation, hence its vapour pressure decreases. This decrease in vapour pressure is called lowering of vapour pressure.

If P₀ is the vapour pressure of a pure solvent (liquid) and P is the vapour pressure of the solution, where P < P₀, then, (P₀ – P) is the lowering of the vapour pressure.

Question viii.
Using Raoult’s law, how will you show that ∆P = \(\boldsymbol{P}_{1}^{0}\)x₂ ? Where x₂ is the mole fraction of solute in the solution and \(\boldsymbol{P}_{1}^{0}\) vapour pressure of pure solvent.
Answer:
If x₁ and x₂ are the mole fractions of solvent and solute respectively, then
x₁ + x₂
By Raoult’s law,
P = x₁ × P₀
where P⁰ is the vapour pressure of a pure solvent and P is the vapour pressure of the solution at given temperature.

Question ix.
While considering boiling point elevation and freezing point depression a solution concentration is expressed in molality and not in molarity. Why?
Answer:

• Boiling point elevation and freezing point depression involve temperature changes, (ΔT_b and ΔT_f).
• Since molarity depends on temperature but molality is independent of temperature we use molality and not molarity in considering boiling point elevation and freezing point depression.

Question 4.
Derive the relationship between degree of dissociation of an electrolyte and van’t Hoff factor.
Answer:
Consider 1 dm³ of a solution containing m moles of an electrolyte AxBy. The electrolyte on dissociation gives number of A^y+ ions and y number of B^x- ions. Let α be the degree of dissociation.

At equilibrium,
AxBy ⇌ xA^y+ + yB^x-
For 1 mole of electrolyte : 1 – α, xα, yα and
For ‘m’ moles of an electrolyte : m(1 – α), mxα, myα are the number of particles.
Total number of moles at equilibrium, will be,
Total moles = m(1 – α) + mxα + myα
= m[(1 – α) + xα + yα]
= m[1 – xα + yα – α]
= m[1 + α(x + y – 1)]
The van’t Hoff factor i will be,

If total number of ions from one mole of electrolyte is denoted by n, then (x + y) = n
∴ i = 1 + α(n – 1)
∴ α(n – 1) = i – 1
∴ α = \(\frac{i-1}{n-1}\) ……..(1)
This is a relation between van’t Hoff factor i and degree of dissociation of an electrolyte.

Question 5.
What is effect of temperature on solubility of solids in water? Give examples.
Answer:
The solubility of a solid solute depends upon temperature.

Variation of solubilities of some ionic solids with temperature

• Generally rise in temperature increases the solubility. This is due to expansion of holes or empty spaces in the liquid solvent. Generally 10 °C rise in temperature, increases the solubility of solids two fold.
• Dissolution process may be endothermic or exothermic.
• The solubility of the substances like NaBr, NaCl, KCl, etc. changes slightly with the increase in temperature.
• The solubility of the salts like NaNO₃, KNO₃, KBr, etc. increases appreciably with the increase in temperature.
• The solubility of Na₂SO₄ first increases and after 30 °C decreases with the increase in temperature.

This variation in solubility with temperature can be used to separate the salts from the mixture by fractional crystallisation.

Question 6.
Obtain the relationship between freezing point depression of a solution containing nonvolatile nonelectrolyte and its molar mass.
Answer:
The freezing point depression, ΔT_f of a solution is directly proportional to molality (m) of the solution.
∴ ΔT_f ∝ m
∴ ΔT_f = K_f m
where Kf is a molal depression constant.
The molality of a solution is given by,

If W₁ grams of a solvent contain W₂ grams of a solute of the molar mass M₂, then the molality m of the solution is given by,

If the weights are expressed in kg then,
ΔT_f = K_f × \(\frac{W_{2}}{W_{1} M_{2}}\)
The unit of K_f is K kg mol^-1
Hence, from the measurement of the depression in the freezing point of the solution, the molar mass of the substance can be determined.

Question 7.
Explain with diagram the boiling point elevation in terms of vapour pressure lowering.
Answer:
(1) The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which the vapour pressure of the liquid becomes equal to the external pressure, generally 1 atm (101.3 × 10³ Nm^-2).

(2) When a liquid is heated, its vapour pressure rises till it becomes equal to the external pressure.
If the liquid has a low vapour pressure, it has a higher boiling point.

Vapour pressure curve showing elevation in boiling point

(3) When a nonvolatile solute is added to a solvent, its vapour pressure decreases, hence the boiling point increases.
This is explained by graphical representation of the vapour pressure and the boiling point of the pure solvent and the solution.

If T₀ and T are the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution, then the elevation in the boiling point is given by,
ΔT_b = T – T₀
The curve AB, represents the variation in the vapour pressure of a pure solvent with temperature while curve CD represents the variation in the vapour pressure of the solution.

(4) This elevation in the boiling point is proportional to the lowering of the vapour pressure, i.e., P₀ – P, where P₀ and P are the vapour pressures of the pure solvent and the solution.
[ΔT_b ∝ (P₀ – P) or ΔT_b ∝ ΔP]

Question 8.
Fish generally needs O₂ concentration in water at least 3.8 mg/L for survival. What partial pressure of O₂ above the water is needed for the survival of fish? Given the solubility of O₂ in water at 0 °C and 1 atm partial pressure is 2.2 × 10^-3 mol/L (0.054 atm)
Answer:
Given : Required concentration of O₂
= 3.8 mg/L
= \(\frac{3.8 \times 10^{-3}}{32} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1}\)
Solubility of O₂ = 2.2 × 10^-3 mol L^-1
P = 1 atm
Partial pressure of O₂ needed = Po₂ = ?

Pressure needed = Po₂ = 0.05397 atm.

Question 9.
The vapour pressure of water at 20 °C is 17 mm Hg. What is the vapour pressure of solution containing 2.8 g urea in 50 g of water? (16.17 mm Hg)
Answer:
Given : Vapour pressure of pure solvent (water) = P0
= 17 mm Hg
Weight of solvent = W₁ = 50 g
Weight of solute (urea) = 2.8 g
Molecular weight of a solvent = M₁ = 18
Molecular weight of a solute (urea) = M₂
= 60 g mol^-1
\(\frac{P_{0}-P}{P_{0}}=\frac{W_{2} \times M_{1}}{W_{1} \times M_{2}}\)
∴ \(\frac{17-P}{17}=\frac{2.8 \times 18}{50 \times 60}\) = 0.0168
∴ 17 – P = 17 × 0.0168
17 – P = 0.2856
∴ P= 17 – 0.2856
= 16.7144 mm Hg
Vapour pressure of solution = 16.7144 mm Hg

Question 10.
A 5% aqueous solution (by mass) of cane sugar (molar mass 342 g/mol) has freezing point of 271K. Calculate the freezing point of 5% aqueous glucose solution.
Answer:
Given : W₂ = 5 g cane sugar; W₁ = 100 – 5 = 95 g
M₂ = 342 g mol^-1; T_f1 = 271 K;
ΔT_f1 = 273 – 271 = 2 K; T_f = ?
W₂ = 5 g glucose, W’₁ = 100 – 5 = 95 g,
M’₂ = 180 g mol-1, ΔT_f2 = ?

= 12.996 K kg mol^-1
≅ 13 K kg mol^-1

∴ Freezing point of solution = T_f
= 273 – 3.801 = 269.2 K
Freezing point of solution = 269.2 K.

Question 11.
A solution of citric acid C₆H₈O₇ in 50 g of acetic acid has a boiling point elevation of 1.76 K. If K_b for acetic acid is 3.07 K kg mol^-1, what is the molality of solution?
Answer:
Given : W₁ = 50 g acetic acid
ΔT_b = 1.76 K
K_b = 3.07 K kg mol^-1
m = ?
ΔT_b = K_b × m
∴ m = \(\frac{\Delta T_{\mathrm{b}}}{K_{\mathrm{b}}}\)
= \(\frac{1.76}{3.07}\)
= 0.5733 m
Molality of solution = 0.5733 m

Question 12.
An aqueous solution of a certain organic compound has a density of 1.063 gmL^-1, an osmotic pressure of 12.16 atm at 25°C and a freezing point of -1.03°C. What is the molar mass of the compound? (334 g/mol)

Question 13.
A mixture of benzene and toluene contains 30% by mass of toluene. At 30°C, vapour pressure of pure toluene is 36.7 mm Hg and that of pure benzene is 118.2 mm Hg. Assuming that the two liquids form ideal solutions, calculate the total pressure and partial pressure of each constituent above the solution at 30°C.
Answer:
Given : 30% by mass of toluene (T) and 70% by mass of benzene (B).
W_T = 30 g; W_B = 70g
\(P_{\mathrm{T}}^{0}\) = 36.7 mm Hg; \(P_{\mathrm{B}}^{0}\) = 118.2 mm Hg
M_T = 92 g mol^-1; MB = 78 g mol^-1
P_T = ?, P_B = ?, P_soln = ?

Total number of moles = n_Total = n_T + n_B
= 0.326 + 0.8974
= 1.2234 mol

Mole fractions :
x_T = \(\frac{n_{\mathrm{T}}}{n_{\text {Total }}}=\frac{0.326}{1.2234}\) = 0.2665
x_B = 1 – 0.2665 = 0.7335
Psoln = x_T + \(P_{\mathrm{T}}^{0}\) + x_B × \(P_{\mathrm{B}}^{0}\)
= 0.2665 × 36.7 + 0.7335 × 118.2
= 9.780 + 86.7
= 96.48 mm Hg

Partial pressures :
P_T = x_T × P_soln
= 0.2665 × 96.48
= 25.71 mm Hg
P_B = x_B × P_soln
= 0.7335 × 96.48
= 70.77 mm Hg
Total pressure P_soln = 96.48 mm Hg
Partial pressures : P_Toluene = 25.71 mm Hg
P_Benzene = 70.77 mm Hg