Category: Class 6

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 1 The Indian Subcontinent and History Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 History Solutions Chapter 1 The Indian Subcontinent and History

Class 6 History Chapter 1 The Indian Subcontinent and History Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is history?
Answer:
History is a coherent account of the significant past events in the progress of human culture.

Question 2.
Where do human settlements flourish?
Answer:
Human settlements have flourished wherever the means of living are plentiful.

Question 3.
What do the people in the hilly region j depend on for their food?
Answer:
In the hilly regions people depend more on hunting and gathering for their food.

Question 4.
Which was the earliest civilization in India?
Answer:
The Harappan civilization was the earliest civilization in India.

2. Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What does human life depend on?
Answer:
Human life in any region depends to a large extent on its geographical characteristics, diet, clothing, housing and occupation.

Question 2.
What features of our surroundings form the means of our livelihood?
Answer:
The climate, rainfall, agricultural produce, flora and fauna of the region where we live form the source or means of our livelihood.

Question 3.
Which region is known as the Indian subcontinent?
Answer:
Afghanistan, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and India together form the region known as south Asia. Considering the expanse and significance of India in this region, it is also known as the Indian subcontinent.

3. Give reasons:

Question 1.
There is a close relation between history and geography.
Answer:

• Time, place, society and individuals are four major pillars without which history cannot be written.
• Of these four components ‘place’ is related to geography or geographical conditions.
• This makes history and geography inseperable i.e. very closely related.

Question 2.
People are forced to leave their settlements.
Answer:

• Sometimes reasons like degradation of the environment, drought, invasion, etc. leads to scarcity of means.
• Therefore, people are forced to leave their settlements in their fight for survival.

4. Explain the difference in the human life in the hilly regions and that on the plains.
Answer:

5. Observe the physical map of India and answer the questions based on it:

Question 1.
Which mountain ranges lie in the north of India?
Answer:
The Hindukush and the Himalayan mountain ranges.

Question 2.
Which are the routes to India from the north-east?
Answer:
The route to India from the north east is by sea.

Question 3.
Where do the Ganga and Brahmaputra meet?
Answer:
The Ganga and Brahmaputra meet in Bangladesh.

Question 4.
Name the islands to the east of the Indian peninsula.
Answer:
The Andaman and Nicobar islands are the Indian islands to the east of the Indian peninsula.

Question 5.
In which part of India do we see the Thar Desert?
Answer:
We see the Thar Desert in the north western part of India.

Activity:

• Obtain information about the lakes or reservoirs in your locality.
• Show the following on a world map :
  1. The Himalaya Mountain
  2. The Silk Road
  3. Arabia

Class 6 History Chapter 1 The Indian Subcontinent and History Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
________ is a coherent account of the significant past events in the progress of human culture.
(a) History
(b) Geography
(c) Civics
Answer:
History

Question 2.
Not much fertile land is available in the ______ region.
(a) plains
(b) hilly
(c) plateau
Answer:
hilly

Question 3.
Grains and vegetables are _______ in the hilly areas.
(a) scarce
(b) plenty
(c) moderate
Answer:
scarce

Question 4.
In the ______ regions, people depend more on hunting and gathering for their food.
(a) plateau
(b) plains
(c) hilly
Answer:
hilly

Question 5.
Human settlements have flourished wherever the means of living are _______.
(a) scarce
(b) plentiful
(c) moderate
Answer:
plentiful

Question 6.
_____ lies to the north of India.
(a) Andaman
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Himalayas
Answer:
Himalayas

Question 7.
_____ lies to the east of India.
(a) Bay of Bengal
(b) Eastern ghats
(c) Lakshadweep
Answer:
Bay of Bengal

Question 8.
_________ lies to west of India.
(a) Himalayas
(b) Arabian sea
(c) Brahmaputra
Answer:
Arabian sea

Question 9.
______ lies to the south of India.
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Pacific Ocean
Answer:
Indian Ocean

Question 10.
The Hindukush and Himalayan ranges have created an impenetrable wall on the nothern side of the ________ subcontinent.
(a) Indian
(b) Foreign
(c) Asian
Answer:
Indian

Question 11.
There is a land route through the Khyber and Bolan passes in the ______ mountains.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Satpuda
(c) Hindukush
Answer:
Hindukush

Question 12.
The _____ desert spreads across Rajasthan, Haryana and some parts of Gujarat.
(a) Bhor
(b) Thar
(c) Arabian
Answer:
Thar

Question 13.
The _______ river that originates in Himachal Pradesh reaches the Thar desert.
(a) Ganga
(b) Sindhu
(c) Ghaggar
Answer:
Ghaggar

Question 14.
A region that is bound by sea on three sides is called a ______.
(a) peninsula
(b) plateau
(c) island
Answer:
peninsula

Question 15.
A major part of the Indian peninsula is occupied by the_______ plateau.
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bengal
(c) Deccan
Answer:
Deccan

Question 16.
The mountain ranges of the Vindhya and Satpuda are located to the of the ________ Deccan Plateau.
(a) east
(b) north
(c) west
Answer:
north

Question 17.
Deccan plateau was a part of the ______ empire, the largest in ancient India.
(a) Maurya
(b) Gupta
(c) Chola
Answer:
Maurya

Question 18.
Lakshadweep is a group of Indian islands in the _____ Sea.
(a) Red
(b) Dead
(c) Arabian
Answer:
Arabian

Question 19.
The Harappan civilization had spread mainly in the ________ part of the Indian subcontinent.
(a) southeastern
(b) northwestern
(c) southwestern
Answer:
north western

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b

Question 2.

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – e
4 – c
5 – d

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Give the four major pillars without which history could not have been written.
Answer:
Time, place, society and individuals are the four major pillars of history, without which history could not have been written.

Question 2.
What has created an impenetrable wall on j the northern side of the Indian subcontinent? j
Answer:
Two mountain ranges, the Hindukush and Himalayan ranges have created an impenetrable wall on the northern side of the Indian subcontinent.

Question 3.
Which passes form a route in the Hindukush mountains?
Answer:
The Khyber and the Bolan passes form a land route in the Hindukush mountains.

Question 4.
What is known as ‘Hakra’ in Pakistan?
Answer:
The Ghaggar river that originates in Himachal Pradesh reaches the Thar desert. It is known as ‘Hakra’ in Pakistan.

Question 5.
Which plateau occupies a major part of the Indian peninsula?
Answer:
The Deccan plateau occupies a major part of the Indian peninsula.

Question 6.
Which mountain range is to the north of the Deccan plateau?
Answer:
The Vindhya and Satpuda mountain ranges are located to the north of the Deccan plateau.

Question 7.
Name the Indian islands in the Bay of Bengal.
Answer:
Andaman and Nicobar are the Indian islands in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 8.
Which manuscript mentions the Indian islands?
Answer:
The manuscript ‘Periplus of the Erythrean Sea’ or ‘Handbook of the Red Sea’ by an unknown Greek sailor, makes a mention of Indian islands.

Question 9.
Which two ancient cities are in today’s Pakistan?
Answer:
The cities of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro are in today’s Pakistan.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
State the extent of our country, India.
Answer:
Our country India, extends far and wide:

• To its north lies the Himalayas.
• To the east, the Bay of Bengal.
• To the west, the Arabian Sea.
• And to the south, the Indian ocean.
• Except for the islands of Andaman, Nicobar and Lakshadweep, the rest of the country is contiguous.

Question 2.
Describe the trade route from China to Arabia.
Answer:

• There is a land route through the Khyber and Bolan passes in the Hindukush mountains.
• This land route was connected to an ancient trade route.
• The trade route from China in the east passed through central Asia and reached Arabia in the west.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
The trade route from west to east was also called the silk route.
Answer:

• Silk was the main commodity exported to the western countries using this trade route.
• Therefore this trade route from west to east was called the ‘silk route’ or ‘silk road’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Shell, fish, crab, ship
Answer:
ship

Question 2.
Arabian Sea, Mediterranean Sea, Dead Sea, Caspian Sea
Answer:
Dead Sea

Question 3.
Sri Lanka, India, Norway, Peru
Answer:
Sri Lanka

Question 4.
Southern Ocean, Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean, Bay of Bengal
Answer:
Bay of Bengal

Question 5.
Natural gas, salt, gold, manganese
Answer:
Natural gas

B. Write the answers:

Question 1.
Which items does man get from the oceans?
Answer:
Salt, fish, shells and other products, minerals like iron, lead, cobalt, sodium, manganese, chromium, zinc, mineral oil and natural gas are the items man gets from oceans.

Question 2.
Why It is economic to carry out transport by water ways.
Answer:

• Waterways is a cost-effective, fuel efficient and relatively more environment friendly means of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods can be carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc. at a low cost.
• So it is economic to carry out transport by waterway.

Question 3.
Why There is a difference in the climate of regions close to the oceans and regions far away from the oceans.
Answer:
(i) The oceans influence the climatic condition of a place. Coastal areas are cooler and wetter than regions away from the ocean.

(ii) There is a difference in the maximum and minimum temperature with the difference being less in coastal region (nearness to the sea) while it is more in the region far away from the sea (continentality).

(iii) The temperature in coastal areas remains equable due to the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air. This vapour absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

Question 4.
Which continents are located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Asia, Australia, North America and South America are the continents located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean.

Activity:

Colour the different oceans on an outline map of the world and prepare an index for the map. (See inside front cover, figure B.)

Project:

Group work: Make five groups. Each group should collect some information and pictures of one ocean. With the help of the information collected, each group should make a poster and make presentation.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans InText Questions and Answers

Think a little!

Question 1.
Where does the water flowing through the rivers go in the end?
Answer:
The water flowing through the rivers goes into the oceans in the end.

Question 2.
Are there volcanic eruptions in the seas?
Answer:
Yes, volcanic eruptions take place in the seas.

Question 3.
What would have happened if man had not discovered sea routes?
Answer:

• If there were no sea routes, we would lose out on the most economic option of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods would become inconvenient.
• International trade too would suffer.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Where did all this water on the earth come from?
Answer:
While some scientists believe that water was created due to the impact of comets there are others who believe that Earth’s waters have existed since the birth of planet earth.

Find out:

Question 1.
Collect information about how a natural pearl is formed.
Answer:

• Natural pearls form when an irritant- usually a parasite and not the proverbial grain of sand – works its way into an oyster, mussel, or clam.
• As a defense mechanism, a fluid is used to coat the irritant.
• Layer upon layer of this coating called ‘nacre’ is deposited until a pearl is formed.

Question 2.
Which oceanic organism develops in it?
Answer:
The oceanic organism oyster develops in it.

Question 3.
In which sea is it found in India?
Answer:
The Arabian Sea.

What will you do?

Question 1.
Different marine animals like the blue whale, turtle, starfish, etc. appear before you in your dream and complain to you. They say, “You humans are not allowing us to live properly. You throw the waste and chemicals that you do not want into our house. The youngsters in our house are falling ill due to this. Some are getting killed. You must think about this situation and remove the pollution from the seas.” Now tell what you will do.
Answer:
“Environmental problems begin with people as the cause and end with people as the victims.” Different ways to remove pollution from sea are:

• Creating awareness amongst people.
• Organising a clean-up operation.
• Insisting that government take steps to prevent marine pollution caused due to waste disposal.
• Following the principle of recycling waste and proper treatment of sewage before its disposal into water bodies.
• Generating a sense of responsibility amongst the citizens.

Can you do it?

Question 1.
Sameer and Sania are playing a game of showing the waterways on a map of the world. Their routes are going in opposite directions. One of the following the eastern route while the other is making a route that takes to the west.

From Mumbai port some goods are to be taken to London in UK. On a map of the world, show at least two such routes with a pencil.
Write down the names of the ports of different nations that fall on the route followed by each.

Ports on the route followed by Sameer:

Answer:

• JNPT – India
• Nish tun – Yemen
• Salal – Oman
• Port of Berbera – Somalia
• Port of A1 Qusayr – Egypt
• Port of Said – Egypt Suez
• port – Egypt
• Port of Tenes – Algeria
• Port of Tunis – Tunisia
• Port of Bone facia – France
• Port of Aguilas – Spain
• Port of Adra – Spain
• Port of Gibraltar – Gibraltar
• Port of Sines – Portugal
• Swange Pier – UK
• Whitstable harbour – UK
• Purfleet Thames Terminal – UK
• Port of London – UK

Ports on the route followed by Sania:

• Port of Mergui – Myanmar
• Port of Ramong – Thailand
• Port of Krueng Raya – Indonesia, etc.

Question 2.
Which of the routes you feel is shorter? That of Sameer’s or Sania’s?
Answer:
Sameer’s route is shorter.

Question 3.
Which oceans does one have to pass through if one follows Sameer’s route or Sania’s route?
Answer:
If one follows Sameer’s route one has to pass through the Indian Ocean and North Atlantic Ocean. If Sania’s route is taken she has to pass through the Pacific and North Atlantic Ocean.

Question 4.
What are Panama and Suez? For what purpose were they constructed?
Answer:

• Panama and Suez are the canals in the sea built for commercial purpose.
• It helped in saving time, money and energy and gave a fillip to international trade due to the shorter distance and easy accessibility.

Question 5.
Have they been used in Sameer’s and Sania’s routes?
Answer:
Yes, Suez Canal is used in Sameer’s route while Panama Canal is used in Sania’s route.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 6 Importance of Oceans Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill the blanks choosing the correct alternatives from the brackets:

Question 1.
The ______ includes all the water bodies like oceans, seas, rivers and their tributaries, lakes, reservoirs and also ground water that exist on the earth.
(lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere)
Answer:
hydrosphere

Question 2.
Total global water 97.7% is contained in ______ (lakes, oceans, seas)
Answer:
oceans

Question 3.
The ocean with an area 166,240,977 sq. km is the _______ ocean. (Indian, Atlantic, Pacific)
Answer:
Pacific

Question 4.
All rivers flowing from mountains or hilly areas finally meet in the ________.(lakes, seas, oceans)
Answer:
oceans

Question 5.
Salinity is expressed in terms of ______.(mils, ml, gms)
Answer:
mils

Question 6.
The average salinity of oceanic water is _______.(80%, 332%, 35%)
Answer:
35%

Question 7.
The salinity of the Dead Sea is _____.(332 %, 35%, 60%)
Answer:
332 %

Question 8.
About ________ of the surface of the earth is occupied by water. (90%, 95%, 70.8%)
Answer:
70.8%

Question 9.
Salt as a substance is obtained by constructing ______. (sea bed, salt pan, river bunds)
Answer:
salt pan

Question 10.
________ is conducted on a much higher scale as compared to the other modes of transport. (Water transport, Air transport, Road transport)
Answer:
Water transport

Question 11.
Pollution of _________ water is caused due to oil spills. (river, lake, oceanic)
Answer:
oceanic

Question 12.
Winds blowing due to pressure difference in the belts is called ______. (planetary winds, oceanic winds, minerals)
Answer:
planetary winds

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – b
4 – a
5 – d

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Pearls, corals, diamonds, medicinal plants
Answer:
diamonds

Question 2.
Spain, Norway, Japan, India
Answer:
India

Question 3.
Blue whale, sea turtles, seerfish, dolphins
Answer:
seerfish

Name the following:

Question 1.
Water bodies which are a part of the . hydrosphere.
Answer:
Oceans, seas, rivers and their tributaries, lakes, reservoirs, ground water.
Question 2.
Percentage of global waters contained in oceans.
Answer:
97.7%

Question 3.
Two aquatic animals found in the ocean.
Answer:

• Microscopic planktons
• Huge whales

Question 5.
Places where volcanic eruptions occur.
Answer:

• Land
• Ocean

Question 6.
Two minerals obtained from the sea.
Answer:

• Phosphates
• Sulphates

Question 7.
Two uses of marine animals.
Answer:

• Production of fertilisers
• Production of pharmaceuticals

Question 8.
Two countries with coastline which largely depends on the sea for their livelihood.
Answer:

• Seychelles
• Mauritius

Question 9.
The controller of global temperature and source of rains.
Answer:
Oceans.

Question 10.
The beginning and end of the water cycle takes place here.
Answer:
Oceans.

Question 11.
Two minerals obtained from the ocean floor.
Answer:

• Cobalt
• Sodium

Question 12.
Precious items obtained from the seas.
Answer:

• Pearls
• Corals

Question 13.
Mode of transport used for large scale transportation of goods.
Answer:

• Ships
• Trawlers

Question 14.
Two actions by man which has lead to large scale pollution in oceanic waters.
Answer:

• Oil spills
• Exploitative fishing

Answer the following in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What happens when aquatic animals die?
Answer:
When aquatic animals die, their remains accumulate in the oceans.

Question 2.
What enters the ocean with the rain water?
Answer:
Sediments from eroded lands, trees and bushes flowing with water, dead remains, etc. enter the ocean with the river water.

Question 3.
What happens when the dead remains in the ocean decompose?
Answer:
When the dead remains in the oceans decompose it releases various minerals and salts in the ocean water.

Question 4.
Where do we find maximum salinity?
Answer:
The Dead Sea is known to have the maximum salinity of 332%.

Question 5.
How is salt obtained?
Answer:
Salt as a substance is obtained by constructing salt pans in the coastal areas.

Question 6.
Which is one of the ancient occupations of human beings and what is the major purpose of his activity?
Answer:
Fishing is one of the ancient occupation and the major purpose of this activity is to obtain food.

Question 7.
How does the earth get rainfall?
Answer:
The oceans have a vast expanse, therefore huge amounts of vapour get created and this process goes on continuously and from this vapour the earth gets rainfall.

Question 8.
How is pollution caused in oceanic water?
Answer:
In order to fulfill his requirements, man undertakes many activities that lead to the production of huge amounts of different types of waste materials which cause pollution.

Question 9.
Write anyone cause of pollution of oceanic waters.
Answer:
Cutting of mangroves forests in coastal areas is one of the main cause of pollution in oceanic waters.

Question 10.
How does oceanic pollution affect the aquatic animals?
Answer:
Due to oceanic pollution many aquatic animals are under the threat of being extinct. For example, the blue whale, some types of sea turtles, dolphins, etc.

Question 11.
Which items does man get from the oceans?
Answer:
Salt, fish, shells and other products, minerals like iron, lead, cobalt, sodium, manganese, chromium, zinc, mineral oil and natural gas are the items man gets from oceans.

Question 12.
Which continents are located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Asia, Australia, North America and South America are the continents located along the coast of the Pacific Ocean.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
The ocean water is saltier than drinking water.
Answer:

(i) In drinking water, the proportion of salts is quite low. Water from oceans and seas has a greater amount of salt. Hence it tastes salty.

(ii) Volcanic eruptions leads to increase in the level of salts and minerals in ocean water.

(iii) Volcanic eruptions takes place in the oceans. During volcanic eruptions different minerals, ashes, salts and gases are added to the water. This increases the level of salts and minerals in ocean water.

(iv) Due to continuous evaporation of oceanic water, the proportion of salt increase.

Question 2.
The temperature in coastal areas remains equable.
Answer:

(i) In regions close to the oceans, seas or large reservoirs, there is not much of a difference in the temperature throughout the day.

(ii) The main reason for this is the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air.

(iii) This vapour in the air absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

(iv) Hence, the temperature in coastal regions remain equable.

Question 3.
It is economic to carry out transport by water ways.
Answer:

• Waterways is a cost-effective, fuel efficient and relatively more environment friendly means of transportation.
• Large scale transport of goods can be carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc. at a low cost.
• So it is economic to carry out transport by waterway.

Question 4.
There is a difference in the climate of regions close to the oceans and regions far away from the oceans.
Answer:
(i) The oceans influence the climatic condition of a place. Coastal areas are cooler and wetter than regions away from the ocean.

(ii) There is a difference in the maximum and minimum temperature with the difference being less in coastal region (nearness to the sea) while it is more in the region far away from the sea (continentality).

(iii) The temperature in coastal areas remains equable due to the mixing of vapour released through evaporation of water from these water bodies into air. This vapour absorbs and stores the heat released from the land.

Question 5.
Oceans act as the controller of global temperature.
Answer:

(i) Winds move the oceanic water in the form of currents.

(ii) Ocean currents move from the equatorial region to polar regions and from polar regions to the equatorial region.

(iii) This leads to the redistribution of heat on the earth.

(iv) The cold currents moving towards the equatorial region making the temperature of coastal areas in that zone milder whereas the warm currents coming in the colder region cause the temperature in coastal areas to rise. Hence, the oceans act as the controller of global temperature.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What are planetary winds?
Answer:

• Equatorial regions receives perpendicular sunrays.
• As a result these areas get more heat whereas the polar regions receive highly slant rays.
• This differential heating creates imbalance in the temperature of air in different parts leading to formation of belts of high and low pressure on earth.
• Winds blow1 due to the pressure differences in these belts. These winds are called Planetary Winds.

Question 2.
Write in brief about oceanic transport.
Answer:

• Oceans have provided us the most economic option of transportation.
• Large scale transportation of goods is carried out with the help of ships, trawlers, boats, etc.
• International trade is carried out on a large scale using waterways.
• Countries like Spain, Norway, Japan have a good coastline due to which goods are transported by ocean routes, making these countries important.

Question 3.
How do ocean currents aid water transport?
Answer:

• Ocean currents are quite important in water transport.
• As far as possible water transport is carried out along ocean currents.
• They accelerate the speed of the ships and also save fuel to a considerable extent.

Question 4.
List the causes that lead to large scale pollution of oceanic water.
Answer:
The causes that lead to large scale pollution of oceanic water are:

• Oil spills.
• Releasing the waste produced in the coastal cities into the seas.
• Materials thrown out from ships.
• Exploitative fishing.
• Cutting of mangrove forests in coastal areas.
• Disasters caused by the water mines.
• Sewage released by industries and cities.
• Excavation carried out in the seas.

Do it yourself!

Question 1.
Calculate the difference between the mean maximum and minimum temperature and write in the last column

Question 2.
Highlight the rows for the places having a range of temperatures over 10°C with red colour, other rows in blue colour (Refer the above table)
Question 3.
Find the locations of these places from an atlas. (Students activity)
Question 4.
Which places are closer to the oceans? Tell whether the range of temperature at these
places is l ess or more?
Answer:
Istanbul and New York are closer to the oceans. These places which are closer to the oceans have lesser range of temperature.

Question 5.
What might be the main reason leading to differences in the temperature range in different places?
Answer:
The main reason leading to differences in temperature range in different places is because of the location of the place on the planet earth. Other factors like latitude, altitude, atmosphere, ocean currents, planetary winds etc. too have their impact.

Question 6.
In which thermal zone are all these places located?
Answer:
All these places are located in the temperate thermal zone.

Question 7.
Which places are fai away from the oceans?
Do these places have a greater or smaller temperature range?
Answer:
Istanbul, Denver, Kabul and Baghdad are far away from the ocean as these places have a greater temperature range.

Question 8.
Mention the places having the smallest and greatest temperature ranges.
Answer:
Istanbul and New York have the smallest temperature range while Baghdad has the greatest temperature range.

Question 9.
Draw a graph for the above data. Use a proper colour scheme.
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 10 Human Occupations

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Select the correct option:

Question 1.
Serving as a ______ is a tertiary type of occupation.(bus conductor, veterinary doctor, brick kiln worker)
Answer:
bus conductor

Question 2.
In the tropical areas, we mainly see ________ occupations. (primary; secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 3.
Amol’s Granny sells papads and pickles. This is a _______ occupation. (primary, secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
secondary

B. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The type of occupation determines a person’s
income.
Answer:
(i) Occupation is a job, a person’s role in society wherein a regular activity is carried out for income.

(ii) Certain occupations bring greater economic benefits to the society and the nation at large while certain occupations bring relatively less economic benefits.

(iii) Similarly some occupations require higher level of knowledge and skill while some can be carried out with little or no skill or expertise. Person’s income is proportionate to the economic benefit his occupation brings with it and the land of his knowledge and skill. So the type of occupation determines a person’s income.

Question 2.
Primary occupations are associated with developing countries while tertiary, with developed countries.
Answer:
(i) Countries which are developing have low income as they are in a state of development and their main source of income comes from production carried out in primary sector.

(ii) Developed countries are rich with high income and so they practice tertiary occupation. They have enough money to invest in business which creates tertiary occupations which requires huge investment.

Question 3.
Quaternary occupations are not commonly seen.
Answer:
Quaternary occupations are occupations which require special knowledge, skills and expertise. This sectorevolves in well-developed countries and requires skilled workforce apart from sufficient money to invest in fields like IT, research and development, quality testing, etc.

Activity:

• Visit a secondary occupation in your area.
• Gather information related to that occupation
• using the following points and note it down.
• Name of the occupation
• Raw material used
• Source of raw material
• Finished product
• Market for finished product
• Tertiary occupations required in it.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations InText Questions and Answers

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:




Question 1.
What are the cows and buffaloes in picture A doing?
Answer:
The animals, cows and buffaloes are grazing in the pasture, i.e. land covered with grass and other low plants.

Question 2.
What is being obtained in picture B?
Answer:
Milk is being obtained in picture B.

Question 3.
What is happening at the Milk Collection Centre in picture C?
Answer:
Milk is being filled for storage and sold at the milk collection centre.

Question 4.
In picture D, what is being transported? Where could the tanker be going?
Answer:
Milk is being transported to the milk processing centre. The tanker is on the truck

Question 5.
Which products are seen in picture E? From what have these products been made?
Answer:
Curd, ghee, butter, cheese and shrikhand are the products seen in picture E and these products have been made from milk.

Question 6.
What else is happening in picture E?
Answer:
In picture E, person is testing the quality of the prepared milk products.

Question 7.
Out of the products shown in picture F, which products do you use?
Answer:
I use all the products shown in picture F as milk products are high on nutrients and good for health.

Question 8.
What would be main difference between milk and milk products?
Answer:
Milk is a beverage obtained from nature, directly from different animals. While milk products are obtained by processing milk into different products.

Question 9.
Do these products perish quickly like milk?
Answer:
No, they have a longer life unlike milk.

Look at the figure and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which of these activities is undertaken to obtain a product from nature?
Answer:
Obtaining milk from the cow is the activity undertaken to obtain a product from nature.

Question 2.
How long does this product last?
Answer:
If refrigerated it will last for about five days to one week.

Question 3.
In which picture is the product obtained from nature being collected?
Answer:
In picture C, the product obtained from nature is being collected.

Question 4.
Which service did the milk producer get through this activity?
Answer:
Transport and unloading of milk, a tertiary service is the service which the milk producer received.

Question 5.
Where is milk being taken? What happens to the milk thereafter?
Answer:
The milk is being taken to the milk processing centre for processing milk to make milk products.

Question 6.
What milk products are seen in the picture?
Answer:
Ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand are the products seen in the picture.

Question 7.
Who inspects these products?
Answer:
A food inspector, a person with special skill and expertise inspects these products.

Question 8.
What does the shopkeeper do with these products?
Answer:
The shopkeeper sells these products to the consumer.

Question 9.
Which of these products are perishable and which are non- perishable?
Answer:
All are the products, even after proper storage will deteriorate and perish over a period of time.

Question 10
Will the price and weight of these products be same as that of the milk?
Answer:
The price and weight of these products will be higher after processing. These products will be more durable and its quality too will be enhanced and so their price will be also higher.

Use your brainpower!

Question 1.
Milk is available at ₹ 40 per litre while dahi at ₹ 60 per kg and paneer at ₹ 200 per kg. If both are obtained from milk, why is there so much difference in their prices?
Answer:
Milk is being processed, obtained from nature and made it into different products. These products are more durable. Their quality its enhanced and therefore their price is higher.

Answer the following questions based on the pie charts:

Question 1.
Which country has more manpower engaged in primary occupation?
Answer:
Bangladesh.

Question 2.
Which country has more manpower engaged in secondary occupation?
Answer:
Turkey.

Question 3.
Which country has more manpower engaged in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
United Arab Emirates.

Question 4.
Which country has almost equal manpower engaged in all the occupations?
Answer:
Turkey.

Think a little!

Who am I?

Question 1.
Who examines us when we fall ill?
Answer:
Doctor

Question 2.
Who checks our examination papers?
Answer:
Teacher

Question 3.
Who prepares the designs of buildings?
Answer:
Architect

Question 4.
Who produces machines and looks after their maintenance and repairs?
Answer:
Engineer

Observe figure and answer the questions related to sugar production:



Question 1.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary
Answer:

Question 2.
Which raw material is used in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugarcane is the raw material used in the secondary occupation.

Question 3.
Which is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation?
Answer:
Sugar is the finished product obtained in the secondary occupation.

Question 4.
What are the services in tertiary occupations?
Answer:
Transport of sugarcane, sacks of sugar being carried and sales of goods are the services in tertiary occupations.

Question 5.
Which picture is related to a quaternary occupation? Can you name the occupation?
Answer:
Picture G is related to a quaternary occupation. The occupation is quality testing.

Think and discuss:

What effect does nature have on our occupations? Think a little. Give a thought to the following issues. Discuss them in the class. Write two paragraphs about it.

• There have been no rain at all (drought).
• A storm strikes
• There was an earthquake.
• Untimely rains
• Good rains
• Excessive rains and floods
• All of a sudden, a volcano erupts
• A tsunami hits.

Answer:
Primary occupations like agriculture can be totally disrupted if there are no rains or excessive rains while good rains will usher with good agricultural output. When we receive good agricultural yield it will have a positive input on all secondary occupations which rely on agriculture. It will bring about all-round growth in both agricultural and industrial sector.

Natural calamities like storms, earthquake, volcanoes and tsunami can have adverse impact on various occupations. It can bring all the primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary occupations to a standstill. Occupations related to production, storage, distribution, etc. will be greatly affected as rescue and rehabilitation of the people and reconstruction of the damaged caused, becomes a priority.

Do it yourself!

Question 1.
Which occupations are found in your area?
Answer:
I live in Maharashtra and occupations like textile manufacture, manufacture of sugar, pharmaceutical, petrochemicals, electronics, automobiles, engineering services, food processing, etc. are practised here.

Question 2.
Which occupation is practised on a large scale?
Answer:
Sugar manufacturing is an occupation which is practised on a large scale.

Question 3.
Find the reason behind it.
Answer:
Advantageous location of Maharashtra, progressive government policies, availability of raw material, i.e. sugarcane, good infrastructure and above all the ownership given to farmers in sugar factories are the reasons why this occupation is practised on a large scale.

Question 4.
Both human and natural factors affect occupations. Can you find those factors?
Answer:
Development of industries, availability of technical know-how and skilled manpower, existing labour laws and government policies pertaining to occupations development of infrastructure are the human factors that affect occupations.
Climate, terrain of a region, fertility of soil, susceptibility to natural calamities, availability of raw materials, etc. are the natural factors which affect occupations.

Question 5.
Obtain information about the damage caused to the environment through different occupations.
Answer:
Pollution of the environment in all its form – air, water, soil and land, deforestation, soil erosion, depletion of the ozone layer, etc. are some of the damages caused due to different occupations practised.

While practising occupations we should be careful not be cause of hazardous air emissions, land contamination leading to soil pollution, marine and coastal pollution caused due to untreated waste water, etc. Sustainable development, let us remember should be the need of the hour.

Visit a secondary occupation in your area gather information related to that occupation using the following points and note it down:
Answer:

Class 6 Geography Chapter 10 Human Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following statements by choosing the correct options:

Question 1.
Occupations which are dependent on nature are called _______ occupations. (secondary, primary, tertiary)
Answer:
primary

Question 2.
Processed products are ________.(non-perishable, more durable, less durable)
Answer:
more durable

Question 3.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations are called ______ occupations. (primary, secondary, quaternary)
Answer:
secondary

Question 4.
The occupations which provide complimentary services to the other two occupations are called _________ occupations. (tertiary, secondary, primary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 5.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in _______ activities are considered to be developed countries. (primary , secondary, tertiary)
Answer:
tertiary

Question 6.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities are considered to be _____ countries. (developed, developing, under developed)
Answer:
developing

Question 7.
transactions decide the country’s ______.(production, occupation, manpower)
Answer:
primary

Arrange the following in proper order:

• Selling milk products in the market.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centres.
• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.

Answer:

• Rearing of domestic animals.
• Obtaining milk and selling milk.
• Processing milk at milk processing centre.
• Making ghee, butter, cheese, shrikhand, paneer, milk powder, etc.
• Selling milk products in the market.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – b
4 – c
5 – f

Name the following:

Question 1.
Any two products obtained after processing milk at milk processing centre:
Answer:

1. Butter
2. Cheese

Question 2.
Any two animals domesticated by man:
Answer:

1. Cow
2. Buffalo

Question 3.
Occupation which is directly dependent on nature:
Answer:
Primary occupations.

Question 4.
Occupations dependent on primary occupations:
Answer:
Secondary occupations.

Question 5.
Occupations which provide complementary services to primary and secondary occupations:
Answer:
Tertiary occupations.

Question 6.
Occupations like sale of goods
Answer:
Tertiary occupations or service occupations

Question 7.
Occupations which requires special expertise:
Answer:
Quaternary occupations.

Question 8.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in tertiary activities:
Answer:
Developed countries.

Question 9.
Countries which have more manpower engaged in primary activities:
Answer:
Developing countries.

Complete the table:

Answer:

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Why does man undertake various activities?
Answer:
Man undertakes various activities to satisfy his need.

Question 2.
How are activities undertaken by man classified?
Answer:
Activities undertaken by man are classified on the basis of their nature and the products they yield.

Question 3.
Where are raw materials supplied to the industries often obtained from?
Answer:
Raw materials supplied to the industries are often obtained from nature.

Question 4.
Which occupations require special skills and expertise?
Answer:
Quaternary occupations requires special skills and expertise.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Why are the prices of processed milk products higher?
Answer:

• Milk obtained from nature is processed and made into different products which involves high cost.
• These products are more durable.
• Their quality too is enhanced.
• Therefore their price is also higher.

Question 2.
Explain the term “Service occupation”.
Answer:

• The occupations which provide complementary services to the other two occupations, i.e., primary and secondary occupations are tertiary occupations.
• These occupations are complementary i.e., supportive to all other occupations.
• These occupations are called as service occupation e.g., transport of goods, loading and unloading of goods and sale of goods, etc.

Question 3.
A person testing the quality of a product is practising a quaternary occupation. Elaborate.
Answer:

• To test the quality of a product, a person must have some special skills.
• This service is not an ordinary one but the one which requires special expertise.
• Such services which requires special skills and expertise are called quaternary occupations.

Question 4.
How can we decide the extent of the country’s development?
Answer:

• Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world.
• Through these occupations, economic transactions occur within a country and between various countries.
• These transactions decide the country’s production of various goods and their national income.
• This, in turn, is used to decide the extent of a country’s development.

Question 5.
What decides the country’s annual income?
Answer:
Different occupations are practised in different countries of the world through which economic transactions occur within country and various countries which decide the country’s production of various goods and their annual income.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Answer:

Question 2.
Classify the occupations from primary to quaternary.
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Temperature Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra Board Class 6 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Temperature

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Textbook Questions and Answers

A. Where am I?

Question 1.
The isotherm 0°C runs in my surroundings:
Answer:
Northern Asia/Northem Canada.

Question 2.
The mean annual temperature is 25°C around me:
Answer:
Central Africa.

Question 3.
The mean annual temperature around me is 10°C:
Answer:
Northern Europe/Central Asia/USA.

B. Who am I?

Question 1.
I connect places of equal temperature.
Answer:
Isotherm.

Question 2.
I am useful for measuring the correct temperature.
Answer:
Simple thermometer.

Question 3.
I get heated due to the land or water near me.
Answer:
Air.

Question 4.
Land and water gets heated due to me.
Answer:
Sunrays.

C. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain with a diagram, the effect of the spherical shape of the earth on the temperature at different latitudes.
Answer:

• Due to the spherical shape of the earth and the resultant curvature of the surface, sunrays occupy a larger or a lesser area.
• Equatorial regions which receive straight rays of the sun occupy less space and heat received is more.
• Polar regions receive slant rays of the sun occupy larger space but the heat received is less.

Question 2.
What is the relation between the latitudinal extent and temperature of a region?
Answer:

• 0° and 23° 30′ North and South perpendicular rays. Temperatures are higher throughout the year.
• 23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are moderate.
• 66° 30′ and 90° North and South receive extreme slant rays. Temperatures are very low.

Question 3.
What makes the isotherms run zigzag over continental areas?
Answer:
Isotherms run zigzag over continental areas because the temperature is influenced by its physical set up and height above the mean sea level on the continent.

Activity:

• Use the thermometer in your school and note the daily temperature on a display board.
• For two weeks, take down in your notebook, the information regarding weather given in the daily newspapers. Discuss your notes in the classroom.

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature InText Questions and Answers

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Find the range of temperature at Mumbai, Nagpur and Srinagar. Draw bar graphs for the same.
Answer:
Annual Range of temperature in °C

Answer the following questions with the help of figure:

Question 1.
What is the tube of the thermometer fixed on ?
Answer:
The tube of the thermometer is fixed on a mount.

Question 2.
What substance is used in the thermometer tube?
Answer:
Mercury or alcohol is used in the thermometer tube.

Question 3.
What do the figures on the scale indicate?
Answer:
The figures on the scale indicate temperature scale.

Question 4.
In which different units is the temperature measured?
Answer:
The temperature shows Celsius and Fahrenheit.

Question 5.
What season does the temperature in the figure indicate?
Answer:
The figure indicates summer season.

How will the rays fall between:

Question 1.
0° and 23° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Perpendicular rays.

Question 2.
23° 30′ and 66° 30′ North and South?
Answer:
Slant rays.

Question 3.
66° 30′ and 90° North and South?
Answer:
Extreme slant rays.

What will you do?

You stay at ‘Man’ in Satara district. Your Grandma stays at Vengurla in Sindhudurg district. During Diwali, you often visit Vengurla. You like the sea coast there. The warm air of that region attracts you because you are freed from the dry air and scratching cold of your place. This time Grandma is suffering from asthma. Doctors have advised her to stay at a place which has a drier climate. What should you do?
Answer:

• Humid air is heavier than dry air, thus a person suffering from asthma finds it difficult to breathe in humid air.
• So, I will take my grandma to my place at Man’ in Satara district, as the air is dry in this region.

Think a little!

Question 1.
Will it be alright if water or oil is used in the thermometer?
Answer:
Water or oil cannot be used in a thermometer because they have a very high freezing part due to the lower temperature upto 30°C cannot be shown.

Question 2.
Where is the temperature of your district headquarters recorded?
Answer:
The temperature of the district headquarters is recorded in the district meteorological department.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Which season would be the best for visiting the following places and why? Goa, Chikhaldara, Chennai, Darjeeling, Ellora, Agra.
Answer:
Goa, Chennai, Ellora and Agra in the winter season. Chikhaldara and Darjeeling in the summer season.

Question 2.
Tell if the following statement is right or wrong. Give reasons.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful than the longitudinal extent.
Answer:
The above statement is right.
In order to understand the climate of a region, the latitudinal extent is more useful because the earth is divided into three temperature zones depending on the amount of heat received from the equator to the North and South Poles.

Observe the map. Name the coastal areas that will experience changes in temperature. Give the reason for this.

Answer:
(i) West coast of North America : The California current moving from the Northern frigid zone to the torrid zone will reduce the temperature at this coast.

(ii) East coast of North America : The Gulf stream current flowing towards the northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast.

(iii) West coast of Europe : The North Atlantic current flowing towards the Northern frigid zone will increase the temperature at this coast

Class 6 Geography Chapter 5 Temperature Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks wish the right alternative given in the bracket:

Question 1.
The main factor which influences the distribution of temperature is ______. (ocean current, longitude, latitude)
Answer:
latitude

Question 2.
______gas can hold heat within itself in the atmosphere. (Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Hydrogen)
Answer:
Carbon dioxide

Question 3.
Isotherms are fairly parallel to the latitudinal line in the _____ hemisphere. (Northern, Western, Southern)
Answer:
Southern

Question 4.
Nagpur receives _______ climate. (extreme, equable, moderate)
Answer:
extreme

Question 5.
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it _____ the temperature of the coast in the torrid zone. (increase, reduces, equal)
Answer:
reduces

Question 6.
Isotherms are lines that connect places with the ______ temperature after avoiding the effect of the height, (different, same, moderate)
Answer:
same

Question 7.
Substance used in a thermometer tube is _____ (water, mercury, oil)
Answer:
mercury

Question 8.
The freezing point of mercury is _______°C. (-39, -49, -59)
Answer:
-39

Question 9.
The freezing point of alcohol is _____ °C. (-110, -120, -130)
Answer:
-130

Question 10.
Air temperature is measured in _______ (Celsius, Fahrenheit, Grams)
Answer:
Celsius

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Answer:
1 – c
2 – a
3 – d
4 – b
5 – e

Give one word for the following sentences:

Question 1.
The sunrays which occupy less area.
Answer:
Perpendicular.

Question 2.
The sunrays which occupy larger area.
Answer:
Slant.

Question 3.
The climate in coastal areas.
Answer:
Equable.

Question 4.
The climate in continental areas.
Answer:
Extreme.

Question 5.
Food for fishes.
Answer:
Plankton.

Question 6.
Main factor responsible for influenceing the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
Latitude.

Question 7.
Measuring daily temperature.
Answer:
Thermometer.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Temperature zones on the earth:
Answer:
Torrid zone, temperate zone and frigid zone.

Question 2.
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value:
Answer:
Isolines.

Question 3.
Two cold currents:
Answer:
Canaries and Peruvian current.

Question 4.
Two warm currents.:
Answer:
Equatorial and Brazil current.

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
What is diurnal range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in maximum and minimum temperature of a day is called diurnal range of temperature.

Question 2.
What factors leads to horizontal currents in the ocean?
Answer:
Horizontal currents develop in the ocean due

difference in temperature
density of water and
winds.

Question 3.
What is the advantage of the convergence of warm and cold current?
Answer:
The convergence of warm and cold current favours the growth of plankton.

Question 4.
What are isolines?
Answer:
Lines drawn on a map by joining all the points having the same value are called isolines.

Question 5.
Where is the distance between the isotherms parallel?
Answer:
The distance between the isotherms are parallel from South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn.

Question 6.
Which factors lead to diversity in the climate of different regions?
Answer:
The factors which lead to diversity in the climate of different regions are nearness to the sea, continentality, height above the mean sea level and physical level.

Question 7.
What is an annual range of temperature?
Answer:
The difference in the mean temperatures of summer and winter is called an annual range of temperature.

Give geographical reasons for the following statements:

Question 1.
There is unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun.
Answer:
The unequal distribution of heat received from the Sun is because:

• The earth is spherical in shape.
• The rays which fall on the equator are straight, occupy less area and give more heat.
• The rays which fall on the curvature i.e., on the polar regions are slant rays which occupy large area and give less heat.

Question 2.
The temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases in the mountainous region.
Answer:

• Firstly, the sea water gets heated by the rays of the sun.
• The absorbed heat is later radiated into the atmosphere.
• So, the layer of air close to the surface gets heated.
• This heat gets transferred vertically to the adjacent upper layers of air.
• Therefore, the temperature near the sea level is higher and it decreases at the mountainous region.

Question 3.
In the coastal areas, as compared to continental areas, the temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night.
Answer:

• There is difference in the heating and cooling of land and water.
• The air over the land gets heated faster and also cools rapidly.
• The air over the water gets heated slowly and also loses the heat in a slower manner.
• The temperature of air is lower during the day but warmer at night, in the coastal areas when compared to continental areas.

Question 4.
Greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.
Answer:

• Some gases in the atmosphere like carbon dioxide and water vapour can hold the heat within themselves for a long period of time.
• Due to the gases, the temperature of air in the atmosphere increases.
• Thus, greenhouse gases lead to increasing temperature of the earth.

Question 5.
Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of fisheries.
Answer:

• Regions, where warm and cold currents converge, are favourable for the growth of planktons.
• Planktons are the food for fishes.
• Fishes travel here in large numbers.
• They breed in warm waters and increase the number of fishes.
• Therefore, regions where warm and cold currents converge favour the growth of fisheries.

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
Explain the movement of ocean currents from equator to the polar region.
Answer:
Due to temperature differences, both upward and horizontal currents develop in the ocean. Besides temperature differences, factors like winds and differences in the density of water also give rise to horizontal currents. These ocean currents flow from the equator to the polar region and from the polar region to the equator.

Question 2.
Explain the effect of the ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone.
Answer:
When an ocean current flows from the frigid to the torrid zone, it reduces the temperature of the coasts in the torrid zone. When a current flows from the torrid to the frigid zone, it increases the temperature of the coasts in the frigid zone.

I can do this!

Question 1.
Identify the temperature zones.
Answer:
There are three temperature zones namely torrid, temperate and frigid zones.

Question 2.
Tell the factors influencing temperature.
Answer:
Factors influencing temperature are latitude, winds, nearness to the sea, continentality, vegetation cover, cloud cover, physical set up, height above sea level and industrialisation.

Question 3.
Describe the global distribution of temperature with its characteristics.
Answer:
The isotherms in the southern hemisphere are fairly parallel to the latitudinal lines. From South Pole to the Tropic of Capricorn the distance between these lines is almost equal. As the proportion of land in the southern hemisphere is limited, temperatures in these parts are largely influenced by latitude.

In the northern hemisphere, the distance between these lines varies. In this hemisphere, the proportion of land is comparatively greater. This affects the distribution of temperature. These effects are seen in the form of variations in the distance between the isotherms and curved nature of these lines.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of a thermometer.
Answer:
A vacuum glass tube is filled with mercury or alcohol is mounted on a wooden board. There are two temperature scales showing Celsius and Fahrenheit.

Std 6 Science Chapter 10 Force and Types of Force Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Force and Types of Force Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 10 Force and Types of Force Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the term and fill in the blanks:

Question a.
……….. has to be applied to change the ……….. of a ……….. object.
(moving, direction, force)
Answer:
force, direction, moving

Question b.
When an elephant drags a wooden log over the land, the forces that are applied on the log are …………., ………. and …………. .
(muscular force, mechanical force, gravitational force, frictional force)
Answer:
muscular force, gravitationalforce, frictionalforce.

Question c.
A ball was set rolling on a large table. If its …….. has to be changed, a ……….. will have to be applied on it.
(force, motion, gravitation)
Answer:
motion, force

Question d.
The force of friction always acts ……….. the motion.
(along, against)
Answer:
against

2. Match the following:

Question a.

Answer:

3. One or more forces are acting in the following examples. Name them.

Question a.
An object falling from a tall building …………. .
Answer:
Gravitational force

Question b.
An aeroplane flying in the sky. …………. .
Answer:
Mechanical force

Question c.
Sqeezing sugarcane juice with a squeezer. …………. .
Answer:
Muscular or mechanical force

Question d.
Winnowing foodgrain …………. .
Answer:
Muscular force, gravitational force

4. Explain in your own words giving one example each.
Muscular force, gravitational force, mechanical force, electrostatic force, the force of friction and magnetic force.

Question a.
Muscular force:
Answer:
The force applied with the help of muscles is called muscular force.
e.g. When a bullock pulls the load of a cart with sugarcane, he uses the force of his muscles that is muscular force.

Question b.
Gravitational force:
Answer:
The force applied by the earth to pull the objects towards itself is called gravitational force.
e.g. When a fruit falls from a tree, it is the gravitational force of the earth that pulls the fruit.

Question c.
Mechanical force:
Answer:
The force applied by means of a machine is called mechanical force. Some machines run by muscular force while some use electricity or fuel.
e.g.Washing machine, electric pump uses electricity to work.

Question d.
Electrostatic force:
Answer:
Static electricity is produced on materials like rubber, plastic and ebonite due to friction. The force exerted by such electrically charged materials is called electrostatic force, e.g. When a plastic comb is rubbed against the dry hair, comb develops electrostatic charge.

Question e.
The force of friction:
Answer:
When two surfaces rub against each other, a force of friction is produced. This force always acts against direction of motion, e.g. A ball rolling over a flat surface stops at certain distance due to friction between the ball and the surface.

Question f.
Magnetic force:
Answer:
The force exerted by a magnet is called magnetic force.
e.g. In a pin holder, the magnet attracts the pins.

5. Why?

Question a
Machines are oiled from time to time.
Answer:
To reduce the friction between the parts of machines, they are oiled. This will help efficient working of machines.

Question b.
An object thrown upwards comes down after reaching a point.
Answer:
An object is pulled by the gravitational force of the earth. Hence an object thrown upwards comes down after reaching at certain point.

Question c.
Powder is sprinkled on a carrom board.
Answer:
When powder is sprinkled on a carrom board, friction between the coin and the board decreases so that the coin can be pocketed easily.

Question d.
The ramp at a railway station has a rough surface.
Answer:
The rough surface of the ramp increases the friction between feet and the surface. This helps us to walk on the ramp without skidding or falling.

6. In what way are we different? 

Question a.
Muscular force and Mechanical force
Answer:

Question b.
A force of friction and Gravitational force
Answer:

7. Write answers to the following questions in your own words. 

Question a.
What are the things that can be done by applying force?
Answer:
By applying force:

1. we can set an object in motion.
2. we can stop a moving object.
3. we can change the speed or direction or both of a moving object.
4. we can change the shape of an object.

Question b.
What is meant by weight?
Answer:

1. The gravitational force acting on an object is called its weight.
2. Greater force must be applied to lift a greater weight.

Question c.
Which machines run on muscular force?
Answer:
The machines that run on muscular force are:

1. Bicycle
2. Hand cart
3. Boat
4. Cycle rickshaw
5. Stretching of a spring
6. Ball pen
7. Vegetable chopper
8. Sharpener
9. Pulley
10. Fruit peeler

8. Solve the following crossword puzzle.

Question a.
Solve the following crossword puzzle.

Down:
1. ………. force is applied to push a scooter that has failed.
2. ………. force can be used to pick up scattered pins.

Across:
3. A ………. pulls iron nails towards itself.
4. ……….. force is used when farm is ploughed with a tractor.
5. It is due to the force of ………… that raindrops fall to the ground.
Answer:

Activity:

Question 1.

Collect more information about the various forces that are used in our day-to-day life.

Question 2.
Make a list of such actions where many forces are applied simultaneously.

Class 6 Science Chapter 10 Force and Types of Force Important Questions and Answers

Choose the term and fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
When powder is sprinkled on a carrom board, friction ……….. .
(increases, decreases)
Answer:
decreases

Question 2.
Electrostatic force is due to …………. .
(gravitation, friction)
Answer:
friction

Question 3.
Fruits fall on the ground due to ………… force.
(mechanical, gravitational)
Answer:
gravitational

Question 4.
Friction between two rough surfaces is …………. than between two smooth surfaces.
(greater, lesser)
Answer:
greater

Question 5.
The sound created by a stone dropped in a bucket of water from 100 cm height is ………… than that dropped from 20 cm height.
(milder, louder)
Answer:
louder

Question 6.
A scooter has stopped in the middle of the road as the petrol tank has become empty. So Raju has to use …………. force to take it to petrol pump.
(mechanical, muscular)
Answer:
muscular

One or more forces are acting in the following examples. Name them.

Question 1.
Srikant is playing basketball
Answer:
Muscular force

Question 2.
Raju rubs a peacock feather between pages of his notebook
Answer:
Electrostatic force

Question 3.
When you rub the palm of your hands, you feel the heat on the palms
Answer:
Frictional force

Question 4.
A blacksmith uses a hammer to beat the hot piece of iron
Answer:
Muscular force

Question 5.
A cricketer hits the ball, but it stops just before the boundary line
Answer:
Frictional force

Question 6.
We can walk on the road without falling down.
Answer:
Frictional force

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Magnet is used to lift heavy iron bar.
Answer:
A magnet attracts the iron bar. As a result it is easier to lift the heavy iron bar using magnetic force.

Question 2.
An inflated balloon when rubbed against a silk cloth, pulls the hair on our skin.
Answer:
When an inflated balloon is rubbed against a silk cloth, it develops electrostatic force due to friction. This force pulls the hair on our skin.

Question 3.
We are likely to slip when we walk on a oily or wet floor.
Answer:
Wet or oily floor reduces the friction between our feet and surface. Hence we are likely to slip on wet or oily floor.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Force of friction and Electrostatic force
Answer:

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Why do planets revolve round the sun in definite orbits?
Answer:

1. The gravitational force operates between the sun and the planets in the solar system.
2. Hence, they revolve round the sun in definite orbits.

Question 2.
Which forces are acting upon an aeroplane taking off into the sky?
Answer:
Aeroplane uses mechanical force, Pilot exerts muscular force. Frictional force between aeroplane and air, gravitational force due to weight of an aeroplane.

Question 3.
What happens to the iron nail when the magnet is taken away from it?
Answer:

1. As we take the magnet away from the iron nail, it does not attract the iron nail as magnetic force decreases.
2. Magnet is unable to exert force if the nail is not placed in the range of the magnetic field.

Question 4.
When brakes are applied while riding a bicycle, it stops after running a distance. Why?
Answer:

1. When brakes are applied while riding a bicycle, frictional force comes to act between the tyres of the bicycle and the surface.
2. This force opposes the tendency of the bicycle to stop.
3. Hence, the bicycle has to overcome this force before it stops.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
What happens when you hold the two ends of a spring and pull them apart?
Answer:
Its shape changes due to the force exerted by pull.

Question 2.
What happens when a blacksmith hammers a red hot piece of iron?
Answer:
Shape of iron piece changes.

Observe and discuss:

Observe the figures given and name the force needed for the motion.

Question 1.
Boat with boatman.

Answer:
Muscular force

Question 2.
Bullock cart.

Answer:
Muscular force

Question 3.
A tractor.

Answer:
Mechanical force

Question 4.
Sewing machine.

Answer:
Mechanical force

Question 5.
Fruit falling from tree.

Answer:
Gravitational force

Question 6.
A man carrying heavy sac.

Answer:
Gravitational force

Question 7.
A pin holder.

Answer:
Magnetic force

Question 8.
A ramp.

Answer:
Gravitational force

Question 9.
Carrom board.

Answer:
Frictional force

Question 10.
Mixer grinder.

Answer:
Mechanical force

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Natural Resources – Air, Water and Land Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Living World Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Proper Class 6 Science Textbook Solutionsties
• Substances in Daily Use Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition and Diet Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Our Skeletal System and the Skin Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion and Types of Motion Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Types of Force Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. In the paragraph below write ‘solid’, ‘liquid’ or ‘gas’ in each of the blank (brackets) depending on the substance referred to just before.

Question a.
On a bright sunny day, Riya and Gargi are playing with a ball (…..) in the park. Gargi feels thirsty. So, Riya brings tender coconut water (…..) for her. At the same time, a strong breeze (…..) starts blowing and it also begins to rain (…..). They run back into the house (…..), change their clothes (…..) and then their mother gives them a cup (…..) of hot milk (…..) to drink.
Answer:
solid, liquid, gas, liquid, solid, solid, solid, liquid.

2. Discuss.

Question a.
Riya pours some water from her bottle into another bottle. Does it change the shape of the water?
Answer:
Yes, the shape of water changes as water is in liquid state. Liquids do not have a shape of its own. They take the shape of the container.

Question b.
Halima picks up a small stone from the ground and puts it in the water in a dish. Does the shape of the stone change?
Answer:
No, the shape of the stone does not change. Stone is a solid, hence retains its shape.

3. Write the properties of these substances.
(water, glass, chalk, iron ball, sugar, salt, flour, coal, soil, pen, ink, soap)

Question a.
Write the properties of these substances.
(water, glass, chalk, iron ball, sugar, salt, flour, coal, soil, pen, ink, soap)
Answer:
Properties of substances:

4. What is sublimation? Write the names of everyday substances that sublimate.

Question a.
What is sublimation? Write the names of everyday substances that sublimate.
Answer:

1. The change of a solid substance directly into a gas or vapour without first changing into liquid is called sublimation.
2. Substances that sublimate: Camphor, napthalene balls, ammonium chloride, iodine.

5. What is made from? Why? 
a. A sickle to cut sugarcane.
b. The sheets used for roofing.
c. A screwdriver
d. A pair of tongs.
e. Electric cables.
f. Ornaments.
g. Pots and pans.

Question a.
A sickle to cut sugarcane.
Answer:
A sickle is made of iron. An iron sickle is hard and malleable. When sharpened it will be able to cut the hard sugarcane.

Question b.
The sheets used for roofing:
Answer:

1. The sheets used for roofing are made of plastic, aluminium.
2. Plastic is hard, hence, protects against weather conditions.
3. Plastic is transparent, hence, sunlight can pass through it.
4. Aluminium is hard, light weight and durable, hence, protects against all weather conditions.
5. Malleable hence formed into thin sheets.

Question c.
A screwdriver:
Answer:

1. A screwdriver is made up of iron, steel, aluminium.
2. A screwdriver possesses property of hardness hence, it easily pierces a screw in piece of wood, wall, metals etc.

Question d.
A pair of tongs:
Answer:

1. A pair of tongs are made up of iron, steel aluminium etc. Tongs are used to lift hot, boiling utensils or vessels.
2. Tongs are hard, ductile and malleable.
3. Hence, have strong grip to hold utensils.
4. Rubbers fitted on the ends will protect from thermal conduction, from bums.

Question e.
Electric cables:
Answer:

1. Electric cables are metal wires (thin) wound in plastic.
2. Metal wires possess the property of hardness, ductility, electrical conductivity.
3. Plastic /rubber covering possesses the property of hardness, elasticity and are bad conductors of heat and electricity.

Question f.
Ornaments:
Answer:

1. They are made up of metals like gold and silver.
2. They possess the property of hardness, ductility, malleability, lustre.

Question g.
Pots and pans: Answer:

1. They are used to cook food, hence metals like aluminium, steel are used.
2. They possess the property of hardness, ductility, malleability, thermal conductivity, electrical conductivity, (microwave ovens)

6. What will happen if ….? And why?

Question a.
Nails are made of plastic
Answer:
If nails are made of plastic, they will not be able to pierce through other substances on being pushed or forced by a hammer. Plastic lacks the property of hardness.

Question b.
A bell is made of wood.
Answer:

1. If a bell is made of wood it will never make a ringing sound. A wooden bell does not have the property of being sonorous.
2. Sonority is the property of metals to produce a ringing sound.

Question c.
Rubber is not fitted on a pair of tongs.
Answer:

1. Rubber is a bad conductor of heat and electricity. It will not allow heat to pass to the hands/handle of the tongs, thus protecting us.
2. Pair of tongs are made up of metals which conduct heat and electricity. They have file property of thermal conduction and electrical conduction.
3. If rubber is not fitted on a pair of tongs, we will not be able to lift hot objects with it.

Question d.
A knife is made of wood.
Answer:
Wood does not have the property of malleability. Therefore, the edge of wooden knife will be blunt. Hence, we will not be able to cut anything with it.

Question e.
An axe is made of rubber.
Answer:

1. If an axe is made of rubber, it will not be used to cut wood or tree.
2. Rubber does not have the property of hardness that is required to push through to cut it.

7. Who am I?

Question a.
I’m found in a thermometer, I measure your temperature.
Answer:
Mercury

Question b.
I make things hot or cold.
Answer:
Heat

Question c.
I have no shape whatsoever!
Answer:
Liquid, gases

Question d.
I dissolve in water, but not in kerosene.
Answer:
Salt

8. Why does this happen? 

Question a.
Coconut oil thickens in winter.
Answer:
Coconut oil is in liquid state. In winter the surrounding temperature / atmospheric temperature starts decreasing. Coconut oil starts cooling or losing heat, it changes to solid state.
Thus coconut oil thickens in winter.

Question b.
Kerosene left open in a dish disappears.
Answer:
When kerosene is left open in a dish, it is exposed to surrounding temperature. As the temperature is more, kerosene starts continuously evaporating and finally disappears.

Question c.
The fragrance of incense sticks lighted in one corner of a room spreads to the other corner.
Answer:
The fragrance of incense sticks is given out in the form of scented vapours. As vapours are in gaseous state, the gas molecules spread out in the room. The molecules of gas move very fast and there are no forces to stop them from going apart. Therefore the fragrance of incense sticks lighted in one corner of room spreads to the other corner.

Question d.
What you see in the picture.

Answer:
The mass of plastic ball is less than an apple. This difference is because of their densities. Since an apple has greater density, it will sink to the bottom on other hand the plastic ball has lesser density, it will float over water surface.

Activity: 

Question 1.
Find out how the big statues of wax are made.

Question 2.
Visit a jeweller’s shop and find out how ornaments are made.

Class 6 Science Chapter 5 Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Properties Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
The state of a substance changes if it is …………… or …………… .
Answer:
heated, cooled

Question 2.
Every substance in our surroundings is found in either the ……………, …………… or gaseous state.
Answer:
solid, liquid

Question 3.
On …………… heat, the substance changes from solid to liquid and liquid to gas.
Answer:
gaining

Question 4.
When the substance cools, or …………… heat, it changes from gaseous to liquid and liquid to solid state.
Answer:
loses

Question 5.
A …………… amount of heat must be gained or lost before the state of a substance can change.
Answer:
specific

Question 6.
When a substance gets heat, it becomes …………… and then …………… .
Answer:
warm, hot

Question 7.
If the substance is very hot, we could get …………… .
Answer:
scalded

Question 8.
A thermometer is used to measure …………… .
Answer:
temperature

Question 9.
…………… is the unit of measuring temperature.
Answer:
Degree Celsius (°C)

Question 10.
Nowadays, …………… thermometers are frequently used.
Answer:
digital

Question 11.
Solids have a shape of its …………… .
Answer:
own

Question 12.
Solids have a …………… volume.
Answer:
definite

Question 13.
Liquids take the shape of the …………… .
Answer:
container

Question 14.
Liquids have a …………… volume.
Answer:
specific

Question 15.
Air occupies all the available …………… .
Answer:
space

Question 16.
Evaporation occurs from the …………… of the water.
Answer:
surface

Question 17.
At sea-level, pure water boils at …………… .
Answer:
100°C

Question 18.
Condensation of steam takes place at …………… .
Answer:
100°C

Question 19.
The temperature of a substance can fall below …………… .
Answer:
0°C

Question 20.
Ice melts at …………… .
Answer:
0°C

Question 21.
Each substance has a specific boiling point which is also its …………… point.
Answer:
condensation

Question 22.
Each substance has a specific melting point which is the same as its …………… point.
Answer:
freezing

Question 23.
Candles are made by melting …………… wax.
Answer:
paraffin

Question 24.
Solid carbon-dioxide is …………… .
Answer:
dry ice

Question 25.
Liquid …………… is used in animal husbandry.
Answer:
nitrogen

Question 26.
Sand is melted to make …………… .
Answer:
glass

Question 27.
Iron is melted to make …………… .
Answer:
tools

Question 28.
Substances can be identified by studying their …………… .
Answer:
properties

Question 29.
Substances that break into small particles are said to be …………… .
Answer:
brittle

Question 30.
The …………… of any liquid is determined by how easily it flows.
Answer:
fluidity

Question 31.
Between substances of the same volume, the ones with greater density are …………… than those of lesser density.
Answer:
heavier

Question 32.
The property of a substance of getting …………… is called its solubility.
Answer:
dissolved

Question 33.
Minerals from the earth’s crust are …………… to obtain metals.
Answer:
processed

Question 34.
Metals can be converted into …………… by hammering.
Answer:
sheets

Question 35.
Metals can be stretched and drawn into …………… .
Answer:
wires

Question 36.
All metals are …………… of electricity to a greater or lesser extent.
Answer:
conductors

Question 37.
Every metal has a …………… colour by which it can be identified.
Answer:
specific

Question 38.
Metals produce …………… sound.
Answer:
ringing

Question 39.
Metals form a …………… group of substances.
Answer:
separate

Question 40.
Heat is the cause of the change of the state of …………… .
Answer:
substances

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Answer:

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is change of state of substances?
Answer:
When a substance changes from one state to another, the process is called change of state of the substance.

Question 2.
When does state of substance change?
Answer:
State of substance changes when it is heated or cooled.

Question 3.
In which state do substances exist in our surroundings?
Answer:
The substances exist in solid, liquid and gaseous form in our surroundings.

Question 4.
What happens when a substance gains heat?
Answer:
When a substance gains heat, it changes its state i.e. from solid to liquid and liquid to gas.

Question 5.
What happens when a substance loses heat?
Answer:
When a substance loses heat, it changes its state from gaseous to liquid and liquid to solid state.

Question 6.
How do we tell how hot or cold a substance is?
Answer:
The temperature on the thermometer will tell us how hot or cold a substance is.

Question 7.
What is the unit of measuring temperature.
Answer:
Degrees Celsius (°C) is the unit of measuring temperature.

Question 8.
What is the boiling point of water?
Answer:
The boiling point of water is 100° C.

Question 9.
What is condensation?
Answer:
When vapour cools, it is converted into liquid again. This process is condensation.

Question 10.
At what temperature condensation of steam takes place?
Answer:
Condensation of steam takes place at 100° C.

Question 11.
What is the freezing point of water?
Answer:
0° C is the freezing point of water.

Question 12.
What is the temperature of air in the freezer of a refrigerator?
Answer:
-18° C is the temperature of air in the freezer of a refrigerator.

Question 13.
At what temperature ice melts?
Answer:
Ice melts at 0° C.

Question 14.
How are candles made?
Answer:
Candles are made by melting paraffin wax.

Question 15.
What is the use of solid carbon-dioxide?
Answer:
Solid carbon-dioxide (dry ice) is used to make ice cream and to keep it frozen.

Question 16.
What is the use of liquid nitrogen?
Answer:
Liquid nitrogen is used in animal husbandry.

Question 17.
What is sublimation?
Answer:
The change of a solid substance directly into gas or vapour without changing into a liquid is called sublimation.

Question 18.
Define brittleness / What is brittleness?
Answer:
Some substances break into small pieces or particles. Such substances are said to be brittle. This property of substances is called brittleness.

Question 19.
Define hardness / What is hardness?
Answer:
The hardness of a substance is determined by how much resistance it offers to the substances being pushed through it.

Question 20.
Define elasticity / What is elasticity?
Answer:
Some substances change their shape when a force is applied on them but return to their original shape and size when the force is removed. This property is called elasticity.

Question 21.
Define fluidity / What is fluidity?
Answer:
Liquids flow downward on a sloping surface. This property is called fluidity.

Question 22.
How is fluidity of any liquid determined?
Answer:
Fluidity of any liquid is determined by how easily it flows.

Question 23.
Define density / What is density?
Answer:
The mass of different substances having the same volume can be different. This difference is because of the difference in their densities. Between substances of the same volume, the ones with greater density are heavier than those of lesser density.

Question 24.
Define solubility / What is solubility?
Answer:
The property of a substance of getting dissolved is called its solubility.

Question 25.
Define transparency / What is transparency?
Answer:
When we can look through a substance and see things on the other side, then that substance is said to be transparent. This property of the substances is called transparency.

Question 26.
List some transparent substances.
Answer:
Glass, air, clean water and some types of plastic are transparent substances.

Question 27.
What are metals?
Answer:
Metals are substances like copper, gold, iron, aluminium. They are found in the form of minerals deep inside the earth. Minerals from the earth’s crust are processed to obtain metals.

Question 28.
Define malleability. / What is malleability?
Answer:
Metals can be converted into sheets by hammering. This property of metals is called malleability.

Question 29.
Define ductility. / What is ductility?
Answer:
Metals can be stretched and drawn into thin wires. This property of metals is called ductility

Question 30.
Name some ductile metals.
Answer:
Metals like silver, gold, platinum can be drawn into fine wires.

Question 31.
Define electrical conductivity. / What is electrical conduction?
Answer:
Electricity flows through metals. All metals are conductors of electricity to a greater or lesser extent.

Question 32.
Define thermal conductivity. / What is thermal conductivity?
Answer:
Metals allow heat to flow through them. This property is called thermal conductivity

Question 33.
What is lustre?
Answer:
The typical shine or characteristic colour by which metal can be identified is called lustre.

Question 34.
What is sonority of metals? / Define sonority.
Answer;
Metals produce a ringing sound. This property is called the sonority of metals.

Give scientific reasons for following:

Question 1.
Metals are used to make musical instruments.
Answer:
Metals possess the property of being sonorous, i.e. produce a ringing sound. Hence, they are used to make musical instruments.

Question 2.
Ornaments are made up of metals.
Answer:
Metals have the property of being malleable, ductile, lustrous. Hence, ornaments are made up of metals.

Question 3.
Why should we not put our hand or finger in the water to judge the hotness of water?
Answer:
We should never put our hand or finger in the water to judge how hot it is because that is not an accurate measure. Besides if the substance is very hot, we could get scalded.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Why are electric boards fitted on the wall made of plastic or wood?
Answer:
Plastic or wood are bad conductors of heat and electricity. Electric boards are made up of plastic or wood. So that while touching we will not get electric shock.

Question 2.
The handle of cooker is made of plastic. Why?
Answer:
Cooker is made of metal. When food is cooked in it, it gets heated and the whole of its body becomes hot due to thermal conductivity. Hence with the plastic handle we can easily lift the hot cooker as plastic is a bad conductor of heat.

Question 3.
Use your brain power!
On opening a box of camphor, its smell spreads all around. Why does this happen?
Answer:

1. Camphor is a sublimate substance.
2. When a box of camphor is opened it changes its state from solid to gas or vapour state.
3. This change takes due to the process of sublimation where camphor absorbs heat from surrounding to change from solid to gaseous state.
4. Camphor particles in gaseous state start spreading all around.
5. Hence on opening a box of camphor its smell spreads all around.

Question 4.
Identify the objects shown in fig. 5.14. From which substances are they made? What are these substances called as a group?
Answer:
In fig 5.14, the metallic bars are shown, these bars are made up of shiny solid. These substances are called metals.

Question 5.
Name the solid, liquid and gaseous states of water.
Answer:

• Solid- Ice
• Liquid – water
• Gas – water vapour.

Question 6.
Read this list of substances:
spirit, camphor, petrol, ghee, coconut oil, naphthalene balls, ammonium chloride (navsagar).

Question a.
Which one freezes in winter?
Answer:
Coconut oil, ghee.

Question b.
Which liquids have you seen change into a vapour?
Answer:
Spirit, petrol.

Question c.
Which solid directly changes into gaseous state?
Answer:
Camphor, naphthalene balls, ammonium chloride.

Question 7.
The chart given below shows the boiling point and freezing point of some substances. State whether these substances are solid, liquid or gaseous at room temperature.

Answer:
Candle, plastic and iron are in solid state at room temperature.

Distinguish between solids, liquids and gases.
Answer:

Distinguish between Boiling and Melting.
Answer:

Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
List properties of solids
Answer:

1. Solids have its own shape i.e. Retains shape, no matter how it is kept.
2. Solids have definite volume.
3. e.g. Sand when poured on a flat surface form a heap.

Question 2.
List properties of liquids.
Answer:

1. Liquid does not have a shape of its own. Takes the shape of the container.
2. A liquid has a specific volume i.e. occupies definite portion of a container.
3. Liquids: e.g. water, milk, kerosene.

Question 3.
List properties of gases.
Answer:

1. Gases does not have a shape of its own.
2. Occupies all the available space.
3. Does not have a definite volume.
4. e.g. Air.

Question 4.
Explain with example how liquids take the shape of the surface.
Answer:
Liquids have a specific volume. They occupy definite portion of a container. Liquids spreads on a flat surface on pouring. Liquids flow downwards along a slope.

Question 5.
Explain Ebullition.
Answer:

1. As the water gets heated, its temperature increases and it evaporates at a faster and faster rate.
2. When water kept on a stove attains a particular temperature or level of heat, then evaporation takes place in all parts of the body of water.
3. Then we see water bubbles rising at a faster and faster rate to the surface and steam mixing in the air.
4. This is called boiling of water or Ebullition.

Question 6.
Explain: Boiling point and condensation point of water are one and the same.
Answer:
Water boils at 100°C. i.e. boiling point of water is 100°C. Condensation of steam also takes place at 100° C. Thus boiling point and condensation point of water are one and the same.

Question 7.
Explain freezing point of water.
Answer:

1. Water kept in a fridge or on ice becomes cooler and cooler i.e. its temperature falls.
2. At a certain temperature water does not cool further but starts freezing and forms ice.
3. The temperature at which this happens is called the freezing point of water. (0° C)

Question 8.
Explain: Freezing point and melting point of water are same.
Answer:

1. The temperature at which water does not get any cooler but starts freezing and forming ice is 0° C.
2. When ice gets heat, it starts melting or changes into liquid state at 0° C.
3. Thus, freezing point and melting point of water are one and the same.

Question 9.
List various uses of changes in physical state.
Answer:

1. Candles are made by melting paraffin wax.
2. Solid carbon-dioxide (dry ice) is used to make ice-cream and to keep it frozen.
3. Liquid nitrogen is used in animal husbandry.
4. Sand (silica) is melted to make glass.
5. Metals like gold and silver are melted to make ornaments.
6. Iron is melted to make tools.

Question 10.
List the properties of substances:
Answer:
The properties of substances are

1. Brittleness
2. Hardness
3. Elasticity
4. Fluidity
5. Density
6. Solubility
7. Transparency

Question 11.
List properties of metals:
Answer:
The properties of metals are

1. Malleability
2. Ductility
3. Electrical conductivity
4. Thermal conductivity
5. Lustre
6. Sonority

Question 12.
How can we change the volume of a gas?
Answer:
On changing the pressure on a gas in a closed container we can change its volume.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Does water change into vapour the moment we place the vessel on a stove? Does water kept in fridge change at once into ice?
Answer:
No, it doesn’t. Water slowly changes from one state to another.

Question 2.
How do we tell how hot or cold a substance is?
Answer:
A thermometer is used to measure the temperature of the subatance which tell us hot or cold it is.

Question 3.
How will you identify the following

Question i.
A glass: Is it made of plastic, steel or glass?
Answer:
Glass is made of glass as it is transparent.

Question ii.
A rod: Iron or aluminium.
Answer:
A rod is made of iron as it is heavy.

Question iii.
A door: Wooden or glass?
Answer:
A door is wooden as it is opaque.

Question iv.
A white powder: Salt or chalk powder?
Answer:
If powder dissloves in water it is salt and if it does not dissolves in water it is chalk.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Natural Resources – Air, Water and Land Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Living World Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Proper Class 6 Science Textbook Solutionsties
• Substances in Daily Use Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition and Diet Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Our Skeletal System and the Skin Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion and Types of Motion Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Types of Force Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 15 Fun with Magnets Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 15 Fun with Magnets Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Fun with Magnets Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. How will you do this?

Question a.
Determine whether a material is magnetic or non-magnetic.
Answer:

1. To determine whether the material is magnetic or non-magnetic, a magnet is moved over it.
2. If the material sticks to the magnet, it is called magnetic material.
3. If the material does not stick to the magnet, it is non-magnetic.

Question b.
Explain that a magnet has a certain magnetic field.
Answer:

1. The space around a magnet in which the magnetic force is active is called the magnetic field.
2. Place a white paper on a drawing board and place a bar magnet in the middle of the paper.
3. Spread the iron filings on the sheet and gently tap the sheet.
4. The iron filings arrange around the magnet in definite curved lines forming a symmetric pattern.
5. The lines are closer to each other near the poles and less crowded in the middle region around the magnet.
6. Beyond a particular region, the iron filings, will not get attracted.
7. The region where iron filings are attracted is the magnetic field of the magnets.

Question c.
Find the north pole of a magnet.
Answer:

1. Take a bar magnet. Tie a thread to the centre of a bar magnet and hang it from a stand.
2. Note the direction in which the magnet settles and turn it around again.
3. Allow it to settle and note the direction.
4. The end of the magnet that points to the north is called the north pole, while the end that points to the south is called the south pole.
5. The north pole is indicated by ‘N’ and the south pole by ‘S’.

2. Which magnet will you use?

Question a.
Iron is to be separated from a trash.
Answer:

1. Sharp and heavy iron scrap material is attached to a big disc.
2. The disc is a magnet and all scrap is attracted to it.
3. It is not possible to create, store such a big size magnet. Therefore magnetism is induced in the disc with the help of electricity.

An electromagnet is used which is attached to a crane for loading and unloading, transporting scrap and loose iron material from a trash.

Question b.
You are lost in a forest.
Answer:

1. If we are lost in a forest, we should take help of a mariner’s compass which will help us to find the directions while travelling through unknown regions.
2. If mariner’s compass is not available, a bar magnet when suspended in the centre will rest in north-south direction.

Question c.
A window shutter opens and shuts continuously in the wind.
Answer:
A bar magnet can be attached to the window pane so that the window will be closed tight during strong winds also.

3. Fill in the blanks with appropriate word.

Question a.
If a bar magnet is hung by a thread tied at its centre, its north pole becomes steady in the direction of the …………… pole of the earth. (south, north, east, west)
Answer:
North

Question b.
If a bar magnet is cut into equal pieces by cutting it at right angles to its axis at two pieces …………… bar magnets are formed, and a total of …………… poles are formed. (6,3,2)
Answer:
3, 6

Question c.
There is a repulsion between the …………… poles of a magnet and attraction between its ……………. poles. (opposite, like.)
Answer:
like, opposite

Question d.
When magnetic material is taken close to a magnet, the material acquires …………… . (permanent magnetism, induced magnetism, temporary, magnet keeper)
Answer:
induced magnetism

Question e.
If a magnet attracts a piece of metal, that piece must be made of ………… .(any other metal but iron, magnetic material or iron, non-magnetic material, electromagnets)
Answer:
magnetic material or iron

Question f.
A magnet remains steady in a ………….. direction. (east-west, north-south,)
Answer:
north-south

4. Write the answers in your words.

Question a.
How is an electromagnet made?
Answer:
1. To make an electromagnet we need the following apparatus; An iron nail of 10 cm length, 1 metre long insulated copper wire, a battery cell, pins.
2. Wind the copper wire around the nail as shown in the figure. Connect the free ends of the wire to the two terminals of a cell through a plug key.
3. Close the key to complete the circuit.
4. Bring small pins near the tip of the nail and observe.
5. When the circuit is completed, the iron pins are attracted by the nail and hence, they stick to the nail.

6. When the circuit is broken, the pins fall off.
7. A magnet is prepared by passing an electric current through an insulated wire wound around the iron nail. This is an electromagnet.
8. When the current is allowed to pass, the nail becomes a magnet and attracts pin / pins stick to it.
9. When the current is put off the nail does not behave as a magnet and therefore, pins fall off.
10. The magnetism is temporary in the case of an electromagnet.

Question b.
Write the properties of a magnet.
Answer:
Magnet possess following properties/ characteristics.

1. Magnet always settles in the north-south direction.
2. The magnetic force is concentrated at the two ends or poles of a magnet.
3. If a magnet is divided into two parts, two independent magnets are formed. It means that the two poles of a magnet cannot be separated from each other.
4. A magnetic material acquires magnetism when placed near a magnet. This magnetism is called induced magnetism.
5. There is repulsion between like poles of a magnet, while there is attraction between the opposite poles.

Question c.
What are the practical uses of a magnet?
Answer:

1. Magnets are materials to which objects made from iron, nickel, cobalt are attracted. But man explored magnets and its properties and made his life comfortable.
2. Permanent Magnets: are used in caps of pin holders, doors of fridges, doors of cupboards etc.
3. Temporary magnets: Electromagnets are used in electric bells, circuit of various machines, ATM card swipe machines, MRI- Magnetic Resonance Image, loudspeakers, electric cranes, microphones, Mariner’s compasses, etc.

Activity

Question 1.
Collect information regarding how the various magnets used in our day-to-day tasks are produced.

Question 2.
Collect information about the magnetism of the earth.

Class 6 Science Chapter 15 Fun with Magnets Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Iron objects ………….. to a magnet.
Answer:
stick

Question 2.
A magnet is used in ………….. and ………….. .
Answer:
gadgets and machines

Question 3.
The materials that stick to a magnet are called ………….. materials.
Answer:
magnetic

Question 4.
Materials that do not stick to a magnet are called ………….. materials.
Answer:
non-magnetic

Question 5.
When a magnet attracts an object, that object is ………….. due to the magnetic force.
Answer:
displaced

Question 6.
Magnetism is a form of ………….. .
Answer:
energy

Question 7.
A magnet always settles in the ………….. direction.
Answer:
north-south

Question 8.
The north pole is indicated by’ …………… and the south pole by ‘……………’.
Answer:
‘N’-‘S’

Question 9.
The end of the magnet that points to the north is called the ………….. .
Answer:
Northpole

Question 10.
The end of the magnet that points to the south is called the ………….. .
Answer:
South pole

Question 11.
The magnetic force is concentrated at the two ends or ………….. of a magnet.
Answer:
poles

Question 12.
If a magnet is divided into two parts, two ………….. magnets are formed.
Answer:
independent

Question 13.
It means that the two poles of a magnet cannot be ………….. from each other.
Answer:
separated

Question 14.
A magnetic material acquires magnetism when placed near a
Answer:
magnet

Question 15.
Iron filling stick to the iron bar when the ………….. is near it.
Answer:
magnet

Question 16.
There is ………….. between like poles of a magnet.
Answer:
repulsion

Question 17.
There is ………….. between the opposite poles of a magnet.
Answer:
attraction

Question 18.
Magnetic objects ………….. magnetism.
Answer:
induce

Question 19.
Material ………….. is a mixture of aluminium, nickel and cobalt.
Answer:
Alnico

Question 20.
………….. magnets are made from a mixture of nickel, cobalt and iron.
Answer:
Permanent

Question 21.
The bar of soft or pure iron which protects a magnet is called ………….. .
Answer:
magnet keeper

Question 22.
Magnetism gets ………….. when a magnet is heated, thrown, knocked about or broken into pieces.
Answer:
destroyed

Question 23.
Electromagnetic energy is used in our ………….. life.
Answer:
day-to-day

Question 24.
The metals iron, cobalt, nickel are ………….. materials.
Answer:
magnetic

Question 25.
………….. is a natural magnet.
Answer:
Magnetite

Match the columns.

Question a.

Answer:

State whether true or false. If false, correct the statement.

Question 1.
Material alnico is a mixture of aluminium, nickel and iron.
Answer:
False: Material alnico is a mixture ofaluminium, nickel and cobal.

Question 2.
Magnetism of electromagnet is permanent.
Answer:
False: Magnetism of electromagnet is temporary.

Question 3.
The bar of soft or pure iron protects the magnet.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Like poles attract each other and unlike poles repel each other.
Answer:
False: Like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract each other.

Question 5.
The magnetic force is concentrated at the centre of the magnet.
Answer:
False: The magnetic force is concentrated at the poles of the magnet

Question 6.
Magnetism is a kind of energy.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Mariner’s compass is used for finding directions while travelling.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Cobalt is a magnetic material.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The north pole is indicated by ‘S’ and the south pole is indicated by ‘N’.
Answer:
False: The north pole is indicated by Wand the south pole is indicated by ‘S’.

Question 10.
Electromagnetism is used in many places in our day-to-day life.
Answer:
True

Answer the following questions in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is a magnet?
Answer:
The material to which objects made from iron, nickel, cobalt get attracted is called as magnet.

Question 2.
What is magnetism?
Answer:
The property of a material to which objects made from iron, nickel, cobalt get attracted is called as magnetism.

Question 3.
What are magnetic materials?
Answer:
Materials that stick to a magnet are called magnetic materials, e.g. cobalt, nickel, iron.

Question 4.
What are non-magnetic materials?
Answer:
Materials that do not stick to a magnet are called non-magnetic material, e.g. plastic, rubber, glass etc.

Question 5.
What are lodestones?
Answer:
Lodestones are leading stones which are used for finding the directions while travelling through unknown regions.

Question 6.
How is magnetism a kind of energy?
Answer:
Work is done by magnetic force. Thus, magnetism is a kind of energy.

Question 7.
What is an electromagnet?
Answer:
When magnetism is produced in the iron due to the electric current, it is called an electromagnet.

Question 8.
How are permanent magnets made?
Answer:
Permanent magnets are made from a mixture of nickel, cobalt and iron.

Question 9.
List the instruments where electromagnets are used.
Answer:
Electromagnets are used in doorbells, cranes, loudspeakers, voltameters, TVs, antennas, radios etc.

Question 10.
How is magnetism destroyed?
Answer:
When magnets are heated, thrown, knocked about or broken into pieces, magnetism gets destroyed.

Question 11.
What is a magnet keeper?
Answer:
A magnet keeper is a bar of soft or pure iron which protects a magnet. It is a piece of soft iron placed in the box in which a magnet is kept.

Question 12.
Magnets exist in variety of shapes.
Answer:
Today, magnets are used in many machines, gadgets and devices. They are all man-made. Hence, they can have a variety of shapes depending upon their use.

Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What are leading stones?
Answer:

1. It was known quite long ago to the people in China and Europe that a piece of magnetite, hung freely always settled in the north-south direction.
2. These rocks then came to be used for finding the directions while travelling through unknown regions.
3. That is why they are called leading stones or Lodestones.

Question 2.
What has led to the invention of the Mariner’s compass?
Answer:
Leading stones have led to the invention of the mariner’s compass.

Question 3.
List the different shapes of magnets.
Answer:

1. Magnets have a variety of shapes depending on their uses.
2. They are bar magnets, disc magnets, horseshoe magnets, ring shaped magnets, cylindrical magnets, and small button magnets.

Question 4.
What are permanent magnets?
Answer:

1. Magnets which do not lose their magnetism easily are called permanent magnets or Magnets which are made up of magnetic substances are permanent magnets.
2. e.g. Magnets fixed in a pin holder, magnets of a door of a cupboard are permanent magnets.
3. Permanent magnets are made from a mixture of
   • Nickel, cobalt, iron
   • Aluminium, nickel, cobalt – alnico

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
Why is it important to place a magnet keeper in a box along with magnets?
Answer:
Magnetism gets destroyed when a magnet is heated, thrown, knocked about or broken into pieces. A magnet keeper which is a bar of soft or pure iron protects a magnet.

Question 2.
Cranes with magnets are used.
Answer:
When a magnet attracts an object, that object is displaced due to the magnetic force. In factories, ports, garbage depots, large objects are lifted and shifted from place to place using cames. Hence cranes are fitted with magnets.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Pins in a pin holder do not fall? While we are shutting the door of a fridge, we find that it closes automatically from certain distance and does not open unless pulled again.
Answer:
Magnet is fitted in the cap of a pin holder and in the door of a fridge. Iron objects stick to the magnet.

Question 2.
Take a magnet from the laboratory and bring it near various objects in your use. Which of them stick to the magnet? What material is each of them made of? Observe these things carefully. Classify the objects into two groups: those which stick to the magnet, those which do not.
Comb, table, cupboard – iron, spoon, scissors, pen, pencil, eraser, books, mobile, laptops, glass bangles, hair pin, cupboard handle, chair, steel lunch box, magnetic stickers, toys, gold ring.
Answer:

Question 3.
Take a mixture of sand, pieces of paper, sawdust, iron filings and pins in a saucer and pass a magnet around the mixture. What do you see?
Answer:
When magnet is moved over a mixture of sand, pieces of paper, sawdust, iron filings and pins, pins and iron filings will cling to the magnet. Sand, sawdust and pieces of paper will remain behind.

Question 4.
How is a Mariner’s Compass used?
Answer:

1. A Mariner’s Compass is a magnetic needle used in navigation to show direction by deflections.
2. It is a direction-finding instrument used in navigation.
3. It is placed on the maps, grounds, decks as it will point to the magnetic north pole.
4. It has two or more magnets permanently attached to a compass card which moves freely on a pivot.
5. The needle fixed on the compass bowl indicates the ship’s heading position.

Question 5.
Find out where the magnet given are used?
Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the different types of magnets as shown in the picture below.
Answer:
a. Circular magnet
b. Cylindrical magnet
c. Horseshoe magnet
d. Bar magnet

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Work and Energy Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Simple Machines Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Light and the Formation of Shadows Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Fun with Magnets Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Universe Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 9 Motion and Types of Motion Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 9 Motion and Types of Motion Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 9 Motion and Types of Motion Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Identify the types of motion.

Question a.
Movement of the earth around the sun: …………… .
Answer:
periodic, drcular

Question b.
Movement of ceiling fan: …………… .
Answer:
circular

Question c.
A rocket launched from the ground: ……….. .
Answer:
linear

Question d.
A fish swimming in water: ……… .
Answer:
random

Question e.
The plucked string of a sitar:………….. .
Answer:
oscillatory motion

2. Fill in the blanks.
(linear, non-linear, uniform linear, non-uniform linear, uniform circular, random, circular, non-uniform circular)

Question a.
If a ball is released from the terrace of a building, it comes down in ………… motion. On the other hand, it reaches the ground in ………… motion if it is thrown with a force away from the terrace in a direction parallel to the terrace.
Answer:
uniform linear, non-uniform linear

Question b.
The motion of an aeroplane on the runway before take off is …………. .
Answer:
linear

Question c.
The kite looking for its prey flies with …………. motion in the sky.
Answer:
circular

Question d.
Children sitting in a rotating giant wheel have ………. motion, while those sitting in a merry-go-round have a ………. motion.
Answer:
uniform circular, non-uniform circular

3. How are we different?.

Question a.
Oscillatory motion and Linear motion.
Answer:

Question b.
Linear motion and Random motion
Answer:

Question c.
Random motion and Oscillatory motion
Answer:

4. Explain in your own words, giving one example each.

Question a.
Linear motion
Answer:
An object that shows displacement along a straight line is called linear motion, e.g. A vehicle moving on a road.

Question b.
Oscillatory motion
Answer:
The motion of a body swinging back and forth is called oscillatory motion, e.g. Motion of a pendulum of a clock.

Question c.
Circular motion
Answer:
The motion of an object along a circular path is called circular motion, e.g. Motion of a ceiling fan.

Question d.
Random motion
Answer:
The motion that changes its direction and speed continuously is called random motion, e.g. Motion of a butterfly.

Question e.
Periodic motion
Answer:
The repetitive motion in which the moving object passes through a certain point again and again after a fixed period is called as periodic motion, e.g. The minute hand of a clock.

5. Answer the following questions in your own words. 

Question a.
Which types of motion are seen in birds flying in the sky?
Answer:

1. The birds flying in the sky exhibit random motion.
2. The wings of the birds show oscillatory motion.

Question b.
Write in detail about your experience of various types of motion while riding a bicycle on a road.
Answer:

1. The cycle itself shows linear motion.
2. The wheels of the cycle show circular motion.
3. The cycle chain shows periodic motion, if the speed is uniform.
4. The handle bar shows random motion.

6. Complete the puzzle using words for types of motion: 

Question a.
Complete the puzzle using the words for types of motion.
1. A spring is stretched and one end is released.
2. A minute hand.
3. A see-saw.
4-5.  Children in a march past.
6. A stone rolling down a hillside.

Answer:

1. Oscillatory
2. Circular
3. Periodic
4. Uniform
5. Linear
6. Random

Activity:

Question 1.
Make a list of various moving objects in the environment, and discuss the types of motion seen in them.

Class 6 Science Chapter 9 Motion and Types of Motion Important Questions and Answers

Identify the types of motion.

Question 1.
The movement of a see-saw.
Answer:
oscillatory motion

Question 2.
The motion of a moving ant.
Answer:
random

Question 3.
The marching army soldiers.
Answer:
linear

Question 4.
A train approaching a station.
Answer:
non-uniform linear

Question 5.
A meteor falling from the sky.
Answer:
linear

Fill in the blanks with suitable words from those given in the bracket:
(linear, non-linear, uniform linear, non-uniform linear, uniform circular, random, circular, non-uniform circular)

Question 1.
The motion that changes its speed and direction continuously is called ………. .
Answer:
random

Choose the correct alternative:

Question 1.
A baby is crawling. The motion is said to be …………….. .
(a) linear
(b) periodic
(c) circular
(d) random
Answer:
(d) random

Question 2.
The children are having a 50m running race. The motion exhibited is ………….. motion.
(a) linear
(b) periodic
(c) random
(d) circular
Answer:
(a) linear

Question 3.
The motions of the hands of a clock are ………….. and …………. .
(a) periodic, linear
(b) periodic, circular
(c) non-linear, non-uniform
(d) circular, non-uniform
Answer:
(b) periodic, circular

Question 4.
The motion of a pendulum of a clock is ……………. .
(a) linear
(b) oscillatory
(c) circular
(d) random
Answer:
(b) oscillatory

Question 5.
The motion of a butterfly from one flower to another flower is an example of …………… motion.
(a) circular
(b) periodic
(c) linear
(d) random
Answer:
(d) random

Question 6.
The distance traversed by an object in a unit time is called ……….. of that object.
(a) length
(b) motion
(c) speed
(d) displacement
Answer:
(c) speed

Explain it in your own words, giving one example of each.

Question 1.
Uniform linear motion
Answer:
When the distance traversed by an object along a straight line in unit time is the same, the motion is called as uniform linear motion, e.g. Motion of soldiers on parade.

Question 2.
Non-uniform linear motion
Answer:
When the distance traversed by an object along a straight line in unit time keeps on changing, the motion is called non-uniform linear motion.
e.g. A girl coming down a slide.

Question 3.
Non-linear motion
Answer:
The motion of an object that does not move in a straight line is called non-linear motion.
e.g. Motion of a swing,

Question 4.
Speed
Answer:
The distance traversed by an object in unit time is called the speed of that object.
e.g. A boy riding on a bicycle covers a distance of 15 kilometres in 3 hours.
Hence Speed = \(\frac{15}{3}\) = 5 kilometres/hour

Answer the following:

Question 1.
In which muscial instruments can you see oscillatory motion?
Answer:
Vibrating diaphragm of tabla, drum, dhol and strings of sitar, guitar show oscillatory motions.

Question 2.
With reference to types of motion, complete the table below.

Answer:

1. Non-linear
2. Uniform
3. Oscillatory
4. Periodic
5. Random.

Read the following stories and answer the questions.

Rita and Geetha are friends travelling from Mumbai to Pune. Seetha had come to the station to see her friends off. After 15 minutes train starts moving. Rita and Geetha feel that Seetha and the vendors on platform are moving backwards. Whereas, Seetha feels that Rita and Geetha are moving forward. Rita feels Geetha is not in motion and Geetha also feels Rita is not in motion. Can you say why?

Question a.
Are Rita and Geetha in motion?
Answer:
Rita and Geetha are not in motion as far as each other are concerned, as no displacement takes place. Both are in a train. For Seetha, both of them are in motion.

Question b.
Are the vendors and Seetha in motion?
Answer:
No, the vendors and Seetha are not in motion. But Rita and Geetha feel as if they are moving backwards.

Question c.
What can you conclude from this passage?
Answer:
An object which is in motion for one person may not be in motion for another. This shows that motion is relative.

Observe and discuss:

Question 1.
Observe the figure and classify the type of motion.


Answer:

1. Circular motion
2. Linear motion
3. Circular motion
4. Linear motion
5. Oscillatory motion
6. Oscillatory motion
7. Circular motion
8. Circular motion
9. Bird – Random; Wings – Oscillatory motion
10. Circular motion
11. Linear, circular

Can you tell?

Question 1.
While chasing a butterfly in a garden, do you run along a definite path or in the same direction all the time?
Answer:
No, we move in random motion.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Natural Resources – Air, Water and Land Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Living World Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Proper Class 6 Science Textbook Solutionsties
• Substances in Daily Use Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition and Diet Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Our Skeletal System and the Skin Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion and Types of Motion Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Types of Force Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 4 Disaster Management Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Disaster Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Disaster Management Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. What are the emergency contact numbers of the following:

Question a.
Police Control Room
Answer:
100

Question b.
Fire brigade
Answer:
101

Question c.
Ambulance
Answer:
102

Question d.
National level single emergency number for disaster relief
Answer:
108

2. What first aid will you provide in the following situations?
a. Dog bite
b. Scratches/Bleeding
c. Bums/Scalds
d. Snakebite
e. Sunstroke

Question a.
Dog bite
Answer:
First aid is some immediate aid given to a victim or patient before medical treatment is available.

1. Wash the wound with a soap solution.
2. Cover the wound with a clean and dry cloth.
3. Get a doctor’s help.

Question b.
Scratches / Bleeding
Answer:

1. Make the person sit or lie down comfortably.
2. Clean the bleeding part of the bodywith water.
3. Keep it above the level of the heart.

Question c.
Bums/scalds
Answer:

a. Minor bums

1. The injured part should be washed with water or held underwater.
2. Give the victim water to drink.
3. Clean the wounds using a cotton swab soaked in an antiseptic solution.
4. Do not apply oily ointments.
5. Cover the wound using dry dressings.

b. Serious bums

1. Give emotional support.
2. Cover the wound with sterilised cloth.
3. Remove jewellery, shoes etc. if easily possible.
4. Do not touch or burst the blisters on the skin.
5. Do not apply oily ointments.
6. Do not try to remove the cloth if it is struck to the burnt skin.
7. If the patient is conscious give water to drink but avoid tea or coffee or other stimulating drinks. Get medical aid at once.

Question d.
Snakebite
Answer:

1. Wash the wound with water.
2. Give emotional support to the patient.
3. Tie a cloth tightly above the wound.
4. Get immediate medical help.

Question e.
Sunstroke
Answer:

1. Take the patient to a cool place or in the shade.
2. Sponge the whole body with cold water.
3. Place a cloth soaked in cold water on the neck.
4. Give plenty of water or liquids like sherbets to drink.
5. If the patient feels like vomiting make him prone i.e. on his/her abdomen with the head turned to one side.
6. Get medical help or shift the patient to a hospital.

3. Write the causes of the following:
a. Floods
b. Forest fires
c. Landslides/building collapse
d. Storms
e. Earthquakes

Question a.
Floods:
Answer:

1. 1. Floods is a frequently occurring natural disaster in all parts of the world.
   2. Due to excessive rains in the same place, a river overflows its banks causing a flood.
   3. The water drainage system in big cities falls short when there is heavy rainfall, resulting in choking of gutters and drainage lines.
   4. Water overflows on to the roads and surrounding houses.

Question b.
Forest fires:

1. Forest fire is an uncontrolled fire in a forest, pasture or grasslands due to natural or man-made causes.
2. Natural causes of forest fire can be lightning, volcanic eruptions, friction amongst branches of trees in extremely hot and dry weather.
3. Man-made causes of forest fires are clearing land by burning which sometimes goes out of control.
4. Campers and hikers sometimes leave behind a potential source of ignition like a lighted cigarette or a campfire.

Question c.
Landslides/building collapse:
Answer:

1. Landslide causes due to erosion, slope movement in the downward direction, prolonged rainfall and seepage, vibration caused by earthquakes, deforestation, river erosion.
2. Building collapses: Bad design, faulty construction, foundation failure or weak foundation, extraordinary loads, earthquakes, rampant and irregular constructions.

Question d.
Storms:
Answer:
The formation of high and low air pressure belts in the atmosphere causes changes in weather resulting in strong winds or storms.

Question e.
Earthquakes:
Answer:

1. Movements in the interior of the earth release tremendous amount of energy.
2. This causes seismic waves leading to movement of the earth’s surface like tremors, shaking, cracking up.
3. Such vibrations or quaking in the earth’s crust is known as earthquake.
4. Man-made causes like mining, construction of big dams can also lead to earthquakes.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question a.
What is meant by ‘disaster’?
Answer:
A sudden event that causes large-scale damage to life, property and social aspects of a nation or society is called a disaster.

Question b.
What are the types of disasters?
Answer:
Disasters are of two types: Natural disasters and man-made disasters.

Question c.
What is meant by disaster management’?
Answer:
Taking steps to prevent disasters, making plans to face disasters and developing the capacity for that is called disaster management.

Question d.
Which are the main components of disaster management?
Answer:
Emergency planning and implementation of disaster management work are the main components of disaster management. Community participation is close, related to disaster management.

5. Find out about the work of a ‘Sarpa-mitra’.

Question a.
Find out about the work of a ‘Sarpa-mitra’.
Answer:

1. A sarpa-mitra is a friend of snakes, a person who is trained to protect, save and safeguard snakes.
2. Whenever there is a phone call from police or citizens informing the sarpa-mitras about snake sightings, they immediately rush to the situation and rescue the snake that would have been killed at the hands of people.
3. Sarpa-mitra are well trained to handle snakes by capturing them, keeping them in baskets or bags before releasing them in the wild.
4. They are in contact with the Police Department and Forest Department for rehabilitation of snakes.
5. Sarpa-mitra are also trained to perform primary first aid to snake bite victims before they are moved to hospitals.
6. Thus, the sarpa-mitra do a commendable job of saving snakes, saving human life without any monetary gains, but for sheer love of snakes.

6. Find out what a first aid kit / box contains.

Question a.
Find out what a first aid kit / box contains.
Answer:
1. First aid kit/box is a necessity at home, workplace, travelling, schools, etc.
2. It contains a cotton roll, sterilized dressing, a pair of scissors, Dettol or Savlon, Dettol soap, adhesive plaster, tablets like Crocin, necessary medicines – painkiller, Tincture iodine, Electrolyte powder, ear/eye drops, Potassium Permanganate crystals, Bumol ointment for cramps.

7. Suggest remedial measures for dealing with natural or man-made disasters.

Question a.
Suggest remedial measures for dealing with natural or man-made disasters.
Answer:

1. Fire: Use a fire extinguisher. Call the fire brigade. Run to a safe exit.
2. Building collapse: Evacuate the building immediately, seek shelter in other safe places. Call the fire brigade or rescue team. First aid should be given to injured people.
3. Road accident: Call the ambulance immediately. Give first aid if possible.
4. Flood: Do not linger in houses or areas near river banks. Seek shelter in other safe places. Move to safer places at a greater height. Do not step into water currents or drive a vehicle into them.
5. War: Take shelter in relief camps. Provide assistance in the rescue mission.
6. Bomb explosions: Take shelter in relief camps/safe place. Immediately call the police. Be alert and do not touch the unattended objects.
7. Earthquakes: Run to a safe place. Hide below a table.and do not use elevators. Use a staircase.
8. Deluge: Take the warnings and signals from the Meteorological Department keep away from river banks and low-lying areas. Take shelter in relief camps.
9. Storm: Remain in a safe place. Unplug all electrical devices. Take instructions given to people by meteorological department do not take shelter in dilapilated structures and under trees.
10. Tsunami: Move to a safer place, stay alert.
11. Drought: Save water, take care of people and cattle.
12. Landslide: Landslide may be caused due to excessive rains or cloudbusrt in hilly areas. Do not take shelter at the foot of a hill.

Activity:

Question 1.
Compile information about measures taken for disaster management in your school.

Question 2.
Make posters, advertisements, banners about disaster management.

Question 3.
Find out the people/organisations that provide aid during a disaster. Obtain their phone numbers, addresses, etc.

Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Disaster Management Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
In 1993, many people died due to the earthquake at ……………… in Latur district.
Answer:
Killari

Question 2.
Even today, people of shudder at the memory of ……………… 26 July, 2005.
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 3.
In November 2015, many people died due to flooding caused by heavy rains in ……………… .
Answer:
Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
Movements in the interior of the earth release tremendous amounts of ……………… .
Answer:
energy

Question 5.
Vibrations or ……………… in the earth’s crust is known as earthquake.
Answer:
quaking

Question 6.
Man-made causes like ……………… and construction of big dams can also lead to earthquakes.
Answer:
mining

Question 7.
A frequently occurring natural disaster in all parts of the world is ………………. .
Answer:
floods

Question 8.
Forest fires spread at a ……………… speed.
Answer:
tremendous

Question 9.
Landslides occur in hilly areas due to a ……………… .
Answer:
cloudburst

Question 10.
To get protection from fire, use ……………… .
Answer:
fire extinguisher

Match the following. 

Question 1.

Answer:

State whether the following statements are True or False. If false, correct them.

Disaster Management Class 6  Question 1.
In 1993, many people died due to the earthquake at Malin in Pune district.
Answer:
False: In 1993 many people died due to the earthquake at Killari in Latur district.

Disaster Management Class 6 Exercise Question 2.
Disaster Management Class 6 ExerciseEven today, people of Mumbai shudder at the memory of July 2007.
Answer:
False: Even today people of Mumbai shudder at the memory of July 2005.

Class 6 Science Chapter 4 Disaster Management  Question 3.
Increased risk due to high density of population in a limited area can cause disaster.
Answer:
True

4 Disaster Management Exercise Question 4.
Earthquakes cause huge loss of life and property.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Forest fire is a controlled fire in a forest, pasture or grassland.
Answer:
False: Forest fire is an uncontrolled fire in a forest, pasture or grassland.

Question 6.
Storms cause no disruption of electric supply.
Answer:
False: Storms cause disruption of electric supply.

Question 7.
Community participation is closely related to disaster management.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
National Disaster Management Authority was established in 2008.
Answer:
False: National Disaster Management Authority was established in 2005.

Question 9.
During a disaster, keep watching movies on TV.
Answer:
False: During a disaster keep watching news bulletin on TV.

Question 10.
In case of a disaster, use the website www. imd.gov.in
Answer:
True

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are man-made causes of earthquakes?
Answer:
Mining, construction of big dams can lead to earthquakes.

Question 2.
What are forest fires?
Answer:
A forest fire is an uncontrolled fire in a forest, pasture or grassland due to natural or man-made causes.

Question 3.
State the website to seek government’s help during disaster.
Answer:
To seek government’s help during a disaster we can log on to xvww.imd.gov.in

Question 4.
Where should we take shelter during floods?
Answer:
We should seek shelter in safe places especially safer places at great heights.

Question 5.
What is sunstroke?
Answer:
When we work in the sun continuously for a long time, the body loses a lot of water and minerals. Hence, the person experiences sunstroke.

Question 6.
Name some poisonous snakes.
Answer:
Some poisonous snakes are cobras, kraits, vipers and sea snakes.

Question 7.
What should we do when we come across a snake?
Answer:
When we come across a snake we should contact a sarpa-mitra.

Question 8.
What is first aid?
Answer:
Immediate aid given even before medical treatment is available on facing a disaster or accident is first aid.

Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
What are the effects of an earthquake?
Answer:
The effects of an earthquake are:

1. Destruction of infrastructure i.e buildings, bridges, roads, railway tracks.
2. Change in the direction of the flow of river.
3. Huge loss of life and property.

Question 2.
What are the effects of floods on people?
Answer:

1. There is a huge loss of life and property.
2. Soil erosion
3. Destruction of standing crops.
4. After-effects of floods, like spread of diseases and epidemics affecting the health of the people.

Question 3.
What are the effects of storms?
Answer:

1. Great damage in the storm affected region.
2. Tremendous losses to life and property.
3. Disruption of electric supply.
4. Disruption of transport and communication.

Question 4.
What are the effects of forest fires?
Answer:

1. Great damage to natural wealth and bio-diversity.
2. Pollution of air.

Question 5.
What preventive measures should we take to protect us from fire?
Answer:
To get protection from fire, use fire extinguishers in public places like schools, hospitals, railway stations.

Question 6.
What first aid can be provided to a person if he is bleeding?
Answer:
If a person is bleeding, first make him sit or lie down comfortably. Clean the bleeding part of the body with water and keep it above the level of the heart.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Why should a dog bite victim get an injection of the anti-rabies vaccine?
Answer:
In a dog bite, there is a risk of infection of rabies through the blood, hence anti-rabies injection is given to the patient.

Question 2.
During a disaster if possible we should take shelter in relief camps.
Answer:
Relief camps provide medicines, food packets, drinking water and first aid. Since these things help victims to restart, people should take shelter in relief camps during a disaster.

Question 3.
During disaster use battery operated radios and mobile.
Answer:
During disaster, many times there is disruption of electricity, hence battery operated mobiles and radios are convenient.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
What event do you see in these pictures?
Answer:
In this picture we see –
(a) earthquakes
(b) drought
(c) flood
(d) fire
(e) storm
(f) volcanic eruptions.

Question 2.
What would you have done in these situations?
Answer:
In these situations I would have tried to save my life. (Answer:wers may vary)

Question 3.
Have you experienced such a situation yourself?
Answer:
No. (Answer:wers may vary)

Question 4.
Why do these events occur?
Answer:
This events are disasters and some occur naturally and some are man-made.

Question 5.
According to you, what can be done to deal with such a disaster?
Answer:
To deal with such a disaster, take help of some elders or ask for help immediately. Be alert and use first-aid / get some immediate aid even before medical treatment becomes available.

Use your brainpower!

Question 1.
What disaster can occur in school or on the way to school?
Answer:
1. Disasters that can occur in school: Fire in the school building, experience tremors of earthquake, school building collapses, slab in one of the classroom collapses, getting injured while playing, getting an electric shock.
2. Disasters that can occur on way to school: You meet with an accident while crossing the road or school bus meets with an accident. Area near school gets flooded.

Classify the following disasters as man-made or natural.
(fire, earthquake, leakage of chemical gases, storms, floods, tsunami, bomb explosions, collapse of a building, war, forest fire)
Answer:

Can you tell?

Question 1.
How many children are there in your class at present?
Answer:
There are 50 children in my class at present. (Answers may vary)

Question 2.
What would happen if five times this number sat in your class?
Answer:
If five times this number sat in my class, the classroom would be crowded. There will be utter chaos.

Question 3.
Which kind of disaster can occur in an extremely crowded places?
Answer:
In an extremely crowded place there can be panic in the classroom, stampede while going out of the classroom, breathless among fellow students.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Natural Resources – Air, Water and Land Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Living World Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Proper Class 6 Science Textbook Solutionsties
• Substances in Daily Use Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition and Diet Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Our Skeletal System and the Skin Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion and Types of Motion Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Types of Force Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 16 The Universe Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 16 The Universe Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 16 The Universe Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Name these.

Question a.
Birthplace of stars.
Answer:
Nebulae

Question b.
The biggest planet in the Solar System.
Answer:
Jupiter

Question c.
The galaxy which is our neighbour.
Answer:
Andromeda

Question d.
The brightest planet in the solar system.
Answer:
Venus

Question e.
Planet with the largest number of satellites.
Answer:
Jupiter

Question f.
Planet without a single satellite.
Answer:
Venus and Mercury

Question g.
Planet with a rotation different from other planets.
Answer:
Venus

Question h.
A celestial body that carries a tail along.
Answer:
Comet

2. Fill in the blanks.

Question a.
The group of galaxies of which our Milky Way is a part is called ………….. .
Answer:
Local group

Question b.
Comets are made of ………… .
Answer:
ice and dust particles

Question c.
The planet ……………… appears as if it is rolling along its orbit.
Answer:
Uranus

Question d.
…………….. is a stormy planet.
Answer:
Jupiter

Question e.
The pole star is the best example of a ………………. type of star.
Answer:
variable

3. Say if the statements given below are right or wrong. Rewrite the statements after correcting them.

Question a.
Venus is the planet closest to the sun.
Answer:
Wrong: Mercury is the planet closest to the sun.

Question b.
Mercury is called a stormy planet.
Answer:
Wrong: Jupiter is called a stormy planet.

Question c.
Jupiter is the biggest planet.
Answer:
Right

4. Answer the following.

Question a.
What is a special characteristic of the planet Mars?
Answer:
The highest and the longest mountain in the solar system ‘Olympus Mons’ is located on Mars.

Question b.
What are the type of galaxies?
Answer:
The different types of galaxies identified according to their shapes are spiral, elliptical, barred spiral, irregular.

Question c.
Which celestial bodies does a galaxy include?
Answer:
Galaxy includes stars, their planetary system, cluster of stars, nebulae, clouds of gases, clouds of dust, dead stars, newly bom stars etc.

Question d.
Name the different types of stars.
Answer:
The different types of stars are

1. Sun-like stars e.g. stars like Sirius, Alpha Centauri
2. Red Giants Stars
3. Super Nova
4. Binary or Twin Stars
5. Variable Stars e.g. Polaris (pole star)

Question e.
What are the types of comets and on what basis are they classified?
Answer:

1.  Comets are of two types: Long-period comets and short-period comets.
2. Classification of comets is based on the time (period) taken by the comets to complete one revolution around the sun.

Question f.
What is the difference between meteors and meteorites?
Answer:

1. Meteors are rocky pieces originating from the asteroid belt. Smaller rocky pieces get completely burnt due to friction with air after they enter the earth’s atmosphere.
2. Meteors which do not bum completely and fall to the surface of the earth are called meteorites.

Question g.
What are the characteristics of the planet Neptune?
Answer:
Neptune is the eighth planet in the solar system. A season on Neptune lasts for about 41 years. On this planet winds blow with extremely high speed.

5. Match the following.

Question a.

Answer:

Activity:

Question 1.
Using the material you can find in your house, prepare a model of the solar system.

Question 2.
Collect information about different aspects of each planet such as its distance from the sun, its diameter, its volume, etc. and present it in a science exhibition.

Class 6 Science Chapter 16 The Universe Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The Milky Way is known as ………….. .
Answer:
Mandakini

Question 2.
The ………….. is a galaxy in which our solar system is located.
Answer:
Milky Way

Question 3.
The galaxy that is closest to our Milky Way is ………….. .
Answer:
Andromeda

Question 4.
The universe includes innumerable galaxies, the space between them and also ………….. .
Answer:
energy

Question 5.
The Milky Way is a part of the ………….. of galaxies.
Answer:
Local group

Question 6.
Generally, the surface temperature of stars ranges from 3500° C to ………….. .
Answer:
50000°C

Question 7.
The colour of stars changes according to their ………….. .
Answer:
temperature

Question 8.
Red giants stars are ………….. in colour.
Answer:
red

Question 9.
Super Nova stars are ………….. and ………….. than the red giant stars.
Answer:
brighter, larger

Question 10.
More than ………….. of the stars in the sky are ………….. stars.
Answer:
half, binary

Question 11.
The ………….. and ………….. of variable stars is not stable.
Answer:
luminance, shape

Question 12.
When a star contracts, its surface temperature ………….. and the star emits ………….. energy and appears ………….. .
Answer:
increases, greater, brighter

Question 13.
The sun which is at the centre of the solar system is a ………….. coloured star.
Answer:
yellow

Question 14.
The diameter of the sun is approximately ………….. km.
Answer:
13, 92, 000

Question 15.
………….. is the fastest moving planet.
Answer:
Mercury

Question 16.
………….. is the brightest planet in the solar system.
Answer:
Venus

Question 17.
………….. is the hottest planet.
Answer:
Venus

Question 18.
As the earth is a ………….. there is a magnetic field around the earth.
Answer:
magnet

Question 19.
Mars is also called the ………….. .
Answer:
Red planet

Question 20.
As the soil on Mars contains ………….. its colour is reddish.
Answer:
iron

Question 21.
………….. planets of the size of the earth can get accommodated on Jupiter.
Answer:
1397

Question 22.
Jupiter is called as ………….. .
Answer:
The stormy planet

Question 23.
Saturn mass is ………….. times that of the earth.
Answer:
95

Question 24.
………….. cannot be seen without a telescope.
Answer:
Uranus

Question 25.
Winds blow with extremely high speed on ………….. .
Answer:
Neptune

Question 26.
………….. is the satellite of the earth.
Answer:
The moon

Question 27.
The moon’s period of ………….. and ………….. are both of 27.3 days.
Answer:
rotation, revolution

Question 28.
………….. is classified as a dwarf planet.
Answer:
Pluto

Question 29.
Pluto takes ………….. years to complete its revolution around the sun.
Answer:
248

Question 30.
………….. are formed out of ice and dust particles.
Answer:
Comets

Question 31.
………….. lake in Maharashtra has been formed by the impact of such a meteorite.
Answer:
Lonar

Can you tell?

Question 1.
Which celestial bodies form the solar system?
Answer:
Sun, the eight planets – Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune, their satellites, Dwarf planets, asteroids, meteors and comets all together form our solar system.

Question 2.
What is the difference between stars and planets?
Answer:

Question 3.
How many planets are there in our solar system?
Answer:
There are 8 planets in our solar system.

Question 4.
What is to be found between Mars and Jupiter?
Answer:
A belt of celestial bodies called as asteriods is found between the planets Mars and Jupiter.

Question 5.
Have you ever seen in the evening or in the pre-dawn hours a large celestial body with a long tail? What is it called?
Answer:
Yes, it is a comet – a large celestial body with a long tail. I have not seen it, but heard that in 1986 there was a Halley’s comet seen in the Indian sky.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Why do we see only one side of the moon?
Answer:
As the moon revolves around the earth it also rotates around itself. The moon takes 27.3 days to complete one revolution around the earth. It takes the moon the same time to complete one rotation around itself. Therefore, only one side of moon is visible.

Question 2.
Which planet has a day longer than its year?
Answer:
A planet’s day is how long it takes to complete one rotation on its own axis. Venus takes 243 earth days to complete one rotation because of its slow rotation around its axis. A year is the time taken by the planet to complete one revolution around the sun. Venus completes one revolution around the sun in 225 days. This makes a day longer than a year on Venus.

Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
What is the Milky Way?
Answer:
Milky way is the galaxy in which our solar system is located.

Question 2.
What is a galaxy?
Answer:
A group of innumerable stars and their planetary systems are together known as galaxy.

Question 3.
What does the Universe include?
Answer:
The universe includes innumerable galaxies, the space between them and also energy.

Question 4.
What different colours do the stars radiate?
Answer:
The stars radiate different colours such as blue, white, yellow and red.

Question 5.
Where are stars bom?
Answer:
The birth place of stars are the huge nebulae, made of dust particles and gases.

Question 6.
What is the surface temperature of the sun?
Answer:
The surface temperature of the Sim is around 6,000°C.

Question 7.
What is the size of the sun?
Answer:
The size of the sun is so huge that around 13 lakh planets of the size of the earth can be easily placed within it.

Question 8.
How does the sun balance the other celestial bodies?
Answer:
Due to the gravitational force of the sun, the celestial bodies in the solar system revolve around it.

Question 9.
How does the sun move in the Milky Way?
Answer:
The sun rotates around its axis and while doing so, it revolves around the centre of the Milky Way taking the solar system along with it.

Question 10.
Which planet doesn’t have atmosphere?
Answer:
Mercury doesn’t have atmosphere.

Question 11.
How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation and one revolution?
Answer:
The earth completes one rotation in 24 hrs and one revolution in 365 days i.e. 1 year.

Question 12.
Which planets have rings around them?
Answer:
Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune have rings around them.

Question 13.
Which planet do not have rings around them?
Answer:
Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars do not have rings around them.

Question 14.
State two properties of planet Mercury.
Answer:
Mercury is the closet planet to the Sim. Mercury is the fastest moving planet.

Question 15.
When is the Mercury visible to us?
Answer:
Mercury is visible in the morning and in the evening if it is away from the sun.

Question 16.
What is seen on the surface of the mercury?
Answer:
A number of depressions which are actually caused by meteoric falls are seen on the surface of mercury.

Question 17.
When is Venus seen in the sky?
Answer:
Venus is seen in the sky in the east before the sunrise and in the west after the sunset. It rotates around itself from east to west.

Question 18.
How does earth protect us from harmful rays of Sun?
Answer:
As the earth is a magnet there is a magnetic field around the earth. It diverts the harmful rays from the sun towards the polar regions of the earth.

Question 19.
What is Olympus Mons?
Answer:
Olympus Mons is the highest and longest mountain in the solar system located on Mars.

Question 20.
Which is the largest planet of the solar system?
Answer:
The Jupiter is the largest planet of the solar system.

Question 21.
Why is Saturn considered a peculiar planet?
Answer:
Saturn considered a peculiar planet because of the rings around it.

Question 22.
How is the axis of Uranus?
Answer:
Uranus axis is so greatly inclined that it appears as if it is rolling along on its axis.

Question 23.
How are seasons on Neptune?
Answer:
The seasons on Neptune last for about 41 years.

Question 24.
What is a satellite?
Answer:
The celestial bodies that revolve around a planet , without independently revolving around the sun are called Satellite.

Question 25.
What is an Asteroid?
Answer:
A great number of small sized bodies could not turn into planets when the solar system was formed, but continued to revolve around the sun. This bodies are known as asteroids.

Question 26.
What is a Dwarf Planet?
Answer:
A small sized celestial body that revolves independently around the sun is called the dwarf planet.

Question 27.
What is a comet?
Answer:
A comet is a celestial body that revolves around sun. Comets are formed out of ice and dust particles.

Question 28.
What are meteors?
Answer:
Meteors are rocky pieces originating from the asteroids belt.

Question 29.
What are meteorites?
Answer:
Meteors which do not bum completely and fall to the surface of the earth are called meteorites.

Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
Comets came to be called ‘dirty snowballs’.
Answer:
Comets consist of an icy cluster of various constituents like dust particles. Hence it is called dirty snowballs.

Question 2.
Comets are visible when they are close.
Answer:
Comets are formed out of ice and dust particles. They appear like points when they are far away from the sun, but when they are close to the sun they become easily visible to us because of the shorter distance and the heat of the sun.

Question 3.
Comets appear to have a long feathery tail.
Answer:
Comets are made up of frozen matter and dust particles. When they are close to the sun this frozen matter gets converted into gas due to the solar heat. These gases get thrown in a direction away from the sun. As a result comets appear to have a long feathery tail.

Question 4.
Pluto is called as a dwarf planet.
Answer:
Pluto is a small sized celestial body that revolves independently around the sun.

Question 5.
Moon is a satellite of the earth.
Answer:
Moon revolves around the earth without independently revolving around the sun. Hence moon is a satellite of the earth.

Question 6.
Mars is called the Red Planet.
Answer:
As the soil on the Mars contains iron its colour is reddish. Hence Mars is also called the RedPlanet.

Question 7.
Jupiter is called the Stormy Planet.
Answer:
Jupiter revolves around itself with a great speed. Hence Jupiter is called the Stormy planet.

Question 8.
Uranus appears rolling along on its orbit.
Answer:
Uranus axis is so greatly inclined that it , appears as if it is rolling along on its orbit.

Question 9.
Saturn is considered to be a peculiar planet.
Answer:

1. Saturn is considered as peculiar planet because of its rings around it.
2. Though its mass is 95 times that of the earth, its density is very low.
3. If it were dropped into a large sea enough to hold it, it would float in it.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Work and Energy Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Simple Machines Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Light and the Formation of Shadows Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Fun with Magnets Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Universe Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions