Category: Class 9

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions Kumarbharati Chapter 3.3 The Road Not Taken Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Kumarbharati Solutions Chapter 3.3 The Road Not Taken

English Kumarbharati 9th Solutions Chapter 3.3 The Road Not Taken Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming Up:

1. After your SSC Exams/Result you may have to take a decision regarding the choice of a career. What factors will you consider? Choose from the block below and complete the web-diagram.

1. Is the option easy/difficult?
2. Your capability
3. Your likes/dislikes
4. Friends’ decision
5. Parents’ profession
6. Your skills/inborn talents
7. Study the ‘Job Profile’ carefully
8. Easy money
9. Possible difficulties
10. Your ultimate aim

2. Form pairs or groups of four. Think of the situations when you have to choose between two things. Make a list of those situations. Then:

Question a.
Discuss how to decide what to choose.
Answer:
Points: ask parents – teachers – read articles – speak to others – think carefully, etc.

Question b.
Write what you feel when your decision proves right.
Answer:
Points: happy – confident, etc.

Question c.
Write what you feel when you regret the decision.
Answer:
Points: unhappy – depressed – courageous, loss of confidence, etc.)

English Workshop:

1. Read the poem again. Does it have a uniform rhyme scheme throughout?

Question 1.
Read the poem again. Does it have a uniform rhyme scheme throughout? Write down the rhyme scheme of every stanza separately.

1. 1st stanza ……………….
2. 2nd stanza ……………..
3. 3rd stanza ………………
4. 4th stanza ………………

Answer:

1. 1st stanza – abaab
2. 2nd stanza – abaab
3. 3rd stanza – abaab
4. 4th stanza – abaab

2. Write the symbols that are used in the poem to represent the following ideas:

Question 1.
Write the symbols that are used in the poem to represent the following ideas: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
a. Choice of two options ………………….
b. I made a rare choice ……………………
c. Equally good options ……………………
d. It was tempting and needed to be tried …………….
e. Some other time ……………………
Answer:
a. Choice of two options: two roads diverged.
b. I made a rare choice: I took the one less travelled by.
c. Equally good options: just as fair.
d. It was tempting and needed to be tried: It was grassy and wanted wear.
e. Some other time: Another day.

3. Rearrange the following facts in the proper order and fill in the flow chart.

Question 1.
Rearrange the following facts in the proper order and fill in the flow chart.

a. He chooses the one barely travelled.
b. Choosing the lesser-used road has made a great difference.
c. He observed one, as far as he could.
d. The traveller came to a fork in the road.
e. He planned to travel along the previous one some other time.
Answer:

4. Think and write in your own words.

Question a.
In which season does a greenwood turn j to a yellow wood? Which stage in our life can be compared to that season?
Answer:
A greenwood turns to a yellow wood in j autumn. The stage in our life that can be compared to that season is middle age.

Question b.
Why does the traveller choose the road less travelled? What attribute of the traveller does it bring out?
Answer:
The traveller chooses the road less travelled because it seemed just as good as the other one and I
he felt it needed to be used. The traveller seems to be adventurous. He has an independent mind and does not want to follow what others have done.

Question c.
Why does the traveller doubt that he shall ever come back?
Answer:
The traveller feels that he will be so busy in his life with one thing leading to another, that he may not be ever able to come back.

Question d.
If you were in the traveller’s place, which road would you choose? Justify your choice.
Answer:
If I were in the traveller’s place, I would choose the road that was more travelled. I would not want to go on a strange road which many have not travelled by. I am not adventurous. I feel that there is safety in doing what others are doing or have done.

5. From any collection of classic poetry or the internet, find another famous poem by Robert Frost titled ‘Stopping by the Woods on a Snowy Evening’. Try to understand the symbolism used in that poem in 8-10 lines.

Question 1.
From any collection of classic poetry or the internet, find another famous poem by Robert Frost titled ‘Stopping by the Woods on a Snowy Evening’. Try to understand the symbolism used in that poem in 8-10 lines.

6. Write a letter to your friend or cousin telling him/her about a difficult choice you have recently made.

Question 1.
Write a letter to your friend or cousin telling him/her about a difficult choice you have recently made. Tell your friend/cousin how his/her example helped you to take a decision.

Answer:
Flat No. 3
‘Maria Mansion’
Pereira Nagar
Mahim 400 016
5th July 2020

Dear Sandeep,

Hi! How are you? I tried calling you, but your number : seems to have changed. Do let me have your new number.

Last week I had to make a rather difficult choice. I | had to choose between football and my studies. No guesses which one I chose – my studies, of course! I have made up my mind to give up football for the next two years. I will play in friendly, casual matches, j but nothing serious. I will also stop my regular daily I practice.

It’s been a very difficult decision to make, but then I j remembered what you had done. You too had given up cricket for two years, hadn’t you? And then you I picked up the threads again in college, when you had j more time. This is what has inspired me to make my j decision. Thanks, Sandy.

Will tell you more details when I meet you next.

Your loving friend,
Deep

7. Collect quotations on the topic ‘Choice’.

Question 1.
Collect quotations on the topic ‘Choice’.
Example:
‘Decisions are the hardest thing to make, especially when it is a choice between where you should be and where you want to be.’
Present the quotations in a beautiful hand on cardpaper.

English Kumarbharati 9th Digest Chapter 3.3 The Road Not Taken Additional Important Questions and Answers

Simple Factual Activity.

1. The poet made his decision about which road to take very quickly – False
2. The season was Autumn – True
3. The poet wished he could travel along both the roads – True
4. He took the road which had been used more – False

Complex Factual Activity.

Question 1.
Why does the poet feel sorry?
Answer:
The poet feels sorry that he cannot travel along both the roads at the same time.

Question 2.
Did the poet choose the road quickly?
Answer:
No, the poet did not choose the road quickly, He stood for a long time at the fork before he took a decision.

Question 3.
Was one of the roads better than the other?
Answer:
No, both were equally good.

Activities based on Poetic Devices.

Question 1.
Does the poem have a uniform rhyme scheme throughout?
Answer:
Yes, it does.

Simple Factual Activity.

Question 1.
Complete the following statements: (The answers are given directly and underlined.)
Answer:

1. The poet took the road less travelled by.
2. He kept the first road for another day.
3. He will be telling all this ages and ages later.
4. His choice has made all the difference.

Complex Factual Activities.

Question 1.
Does the poet tell us what difference it made?
Answer:
No, he doesn’t.

Activities based on Poetic Devices.

Question 1.
Pick out and explain an example of inversion from the extract.
Answer:
Inversion: ‘And both that morning equally lay in leaves ……… . The correct prose order is: And both lay equally that morning in leaves ………. .

Point Format (for understanding)

• Title: The Road not Taken
• Poet: Robert Frost
• Rhyme Scheme: abaab.
• Figures of Speech: Alliteration. ‘Though as for that the passing there.’ Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘t’. The other figure of speech is Inversion.
• Theme/Central Idea: The poem Is about the journey of life and what the poet decides when he is at the crossroads. He tells us about a time that he came across two roads that diverged In a wood.

He knew that he could not travel both, so he took the road which was not as well-travelled as the other. It made a difference in his life.

Paragraph Format.

This famous poem ‘The Road not Taken’ is by the equally famous poet Robert Frost.

The Rhyme Scheme of the poem is abaab. One Figure of Speech is Alliteration : ‘Though as for that the passing there.’ Repetition of the sound of the letter ‘t’. The other figure of speech is Inversion.

The poem is about the journey of life, and what the poet decides when the path forks off in two directions. He knew that he could not travel both, so he took the road which was not as well-travelled as the other. This made a difference in his life.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions Kumarbharati Chapter 2.6 The Past in the Present Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Kumarbharati Solutions Chapter 2.6 The Past in the Present

English Kumarbharati 9th Solutions Chapter 2.6 The Past in the Present Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming up:

1. We find the following in the script of a skit | or play. Rearrange the steps in these proper j order and write them down in the form of a flow chart:

Question 1.
We find the following in the script of a skit | or play. Rearrange the steps in these proper j order and write them down in the form of a flow chart:
Answer:

2. Think of a play/skit which you have seen enacted on the stage and which has impressed you. Write the following details about it.

• Name of the play/skit: ……………………………..
• Important characters: ……………………………..
• Any famous actors/actresses: ……………………………..
• Theme: ……………………………..
• Climax: ……………………………..
• Ending: ……………………………..
• Use of lights and special effects if any: ……………………………..
• Use of background music and sound effects if any: ……………………………..
• Use of sets: ……………………………..
• The costumes, make up, etc. of the characters: ……………………………..
• How well the actors present the play and behave on the stage: ……………………………..
• Your own opinion about the play: ……………………………..

Question 1.
Think of a play/skit which you have seen enacted on the stage and which has impressed you. Write the following details about it:
Answer:
1. Name of the play: Pygmalion (My Fair Lady)
2. Important characters: Professor Henry Higgins, Eliza Dolittle, Colonel Pickering, Mr. Dolittle (Eliza’s father) and Professor Higgins’ mother.
3. Any famous actors/actresses: No. The cast is made up of newcomers.

4. Theme: Bernard Shaw’s ‘Pygmalion’ centres round a bet made by Professor Henry Higgins, a well-know phonetician, with his best friend Colonel Pickering. The professor states that he can change a flower girl’s entire behaviour and speech in such a way that in a few months she can be passed off as a duchess.

5. Climax: The scene between Eliza and Professor Higgins, when she throws away the jewellery he had given her, and they have a grand fight.

6. Ending: An ambiguous ending, left to the imagination of the viewer.
7. Use of lights and special effects, if any: The lights change frequently to depict various scenes and places.

8. Use of background music and sound effects, if any: This is a musical, with superb foot-tapping music and amusing lyrics. The sound effects and background music add authenticity to the market place scene, Eliza’s diction, the Professor’s anger, etc. and are excellent.

9. Use of sets: The sets change appropriately as per the needs of the play. There is not much time wasted in between acts.

10. The costumes, make-up, etc. of the characters: Excellent. The costumes of the early and mid-20th century are entrancing. The big hats with feathers, the lovely gowns, the Professor’s elaborate I suits, etc. are a sight to behold. The make-up is suitable.

11. How well the actors present the play and behave on the stage: The dialogue delivery and the movement of the actors on stage was smooth and flawless. The song-and-dance sequences were enacted perfectly.

12. Your own opinion about the play: An excellent and interesting play, with a classic British sense of humour. The characters portray this sense of humour very well. As a result, every single sentence is worth listening to, and every single song is melodious and meaningful.

3. Present these points in the form of a review, and give it a suitable title.

Question 1.
Present these points in the form of a review, and give it a suitable title.
Answer:

Review of ‘Pygmalion’ Bernard Shaw’s ‘Pygmalion’ centres round a bet made by Professor Henry Higgins, a well-know phonetician, with his best friend Colonel Pickering. The professor states that he can change a flower girl’s entire behaviour and speech in such a way that in a few months she can be passed off as a duchess.

The important characters in the play are Professor Henry Higgins, Eliza Dolittle, Colonel Pickering, Mr. Dolittle (Eliza’s father) and Professor Higgins’ mother. The play has been performed by newcomers, and there are no known names. It is a musical, with superb foot-tapping music and amusing lyrics. The sound effects, sets and use of lights add authenticity to the market place scene, Eliza’s diction, the Professor’s anger, etc. and are excellent.

The climax is the scene between Eliza and Professor Higgins, where she angrily flings the jewellery he had given her, and they have a grand fight, resulting in Eliza walking off from the house. The ending is ambiguous and left to the imagination of the viewer.

The costumes of the early and mid – 20th century are entrancing. The big hats with feathers, the lovely gowns, the Professor’s elaborate suits, etc. are a sight to behold. The dialogue delivery and the movement of the actors on stage is smooth and flawless. The song- and-dance sequences are enacted perfectly.

Overall, an excellent and interesting play, with a classic British sense of humour. The characters portray this sense of humour very well. As a result, every single sentence is worth listening to, and every single song is melodious and meaningful.

4. Prepare a ‘power point’ presentation, using one slide for each of the above points. Present your review in a PPT format in the classroom.

Question 1.
Prepare a ‘power point’ presentation, using one slide for each of the above points. Present your review in a PPT format in the classroom.
Answer:
(Students can prepare the PPT in their Computer labs.)

English Workshop:

1. In the diagram below encircle the various features that make the script of a skit! play. List the other words and mention the form of writing of which it is a feature.

Question 1.
In the diagram below encircle the various features that make the script of a skit! play. List the other words and mention the form of writing of which it is a feature.
Answer:

1. Sender’s address – Part of a letter.
2. Salutation – Part of a letter.
3. Leadline – Part of a news report.
4. Diagram – Part of non-verbal communication.

2. Choose the proper alternative to complete the following:

Question i.
The skit covers a period of about ………………. in the past.
(a) 3000 years
(b) 1000 years
(c) 5000 years
(d) 1800 years
Answer:
(c) 5000 years

Question ii.
…………….. characters from Neel’s ancestral lineage make an appearance in the play.
(a) Fourteen
(b) Seven
(c) Sixteen
(d) Twelve
Answer:
(a) Fourteen

Question iii.
The task that all boys abhorred was ……………. .
(a) cleaning up their room
(b) farm-work
(c) filling up water
(d) making their beds
Answer:
(d) making their beds

Question iv.
The skit conveys that doing your daily chores at home ………………. .
(a) make you stronger
(b) sharpens your intellect
(c) saves a lot of expenses
(d) inculcates a sense of responsibility
Answer:
(d) inculcates a sense of responsibility

3. Fill in the table 

Question 1.
Fill in the table.
Answer:

4. Answer in your own words.

Question a.
What excuses did Neel give to avoid cleaning his room?
Answer:
Neel says that he is going out to meet his friends. He then says that he had cleaned his room just two days earlier. He wonders why it needs to be cleaned daily, for it makes no difference.

Question b.
Why does mother tell Neel about his Grandpa?
Answer:
Mother tells Neel about his Grandpa to make him realize that Grandpa had many more daily chores to finish than him, Neel, and much tougher ones too. He also had to make his bed, just like Neel would have to.

Question c.
What task did Grandpa wish to avoid?
Answer:
Grandpa wished to avoid the task of making his bed.

Question d.
What did the ancestor from 1910 wish to do instead of making his bed?
Answer:
The ancestor from 1910 wished to go to the riverside with his friends instead of making his bed.

Question e.
How many chores did the ancestor from 1800 have to do?
Answer:
The ancestor from 1800 had to do about six chores.

Question f.
How is the boy from 1500s dressed?
Answer:
The boy from 1500s is dressed in a loose, sleeveless, V-neck top and a short dhoti.

Question g.
What chores did the boys from the 1st century CE do on their farms/fields?
Answer:
In the 1st century CE, the boys would feed the poultry, tend to the sheep, keep away the birds and plaster the yard with dung.

Question h.
What did Neel realize from his encounter with his ancestors?
Answer:
From his encounter with his ancestors, Neel realized that at that time teenage boys had chores to do outdoors as well as in their homes. They also had to make their beds.

5. In the play two devices that make use of wheels are given.
The devices are 1. …………….., 2. ………………..
From the internet or other sources, trace the history of the use of the wheel. Write ‘An Autobiography of a Wheel’.

Question a
In the play, two devices that make use of wheels are given. The devices are:
Answer:
The devices are: 1. bicycle, 2. grinders

Question b.
From the internet and other sources, trace the history of the use of the wheel.
(Students can attempt this on their own.)

6. Imagine that the ancestor from 1910 CE visits Neel in his dream. Compose a dialogue between the two about the various gadgets the visitor sees in Neel’s room

Question 1.
Imagine that the ancestor from 1910 CE visits Neel in his dream. Compose a dialogue between the two about the various gadgets the visitor sees in Neel’s room
Answer:

• Neel: Hello! Who are you, Sir?
• Ancestor: I am your great-great-grandfather, Neel. I have heard a lot about your life, and I came to see you. Oh my! What are all these things here?
• Neel: All these things? What things, great, great Grandpa?
• Ancestor: This box here and that one there and this …
• Neel: Oh, this is my TV set and that is my laptop. Haven’t you ever seen these things? This is my mobile phone.
• Ancestor: TV? What is it? And phone – no, no, this is not a phone! Such a tiny thing!
  (Students can continue this conversation in this manner.)

7. Imagine and compare an argumentative dialogue between the mothers of the 2OthJ2lst century and those of the earlier era, about which life was better for women.

Question 1.
Imagine and compare an argumentative dialogue between the mothers of the 2OthJ2lst century and those of the earlier era, about which life was better for women.
Answer:

• 21st Century mother: There’s no question. Your life was certainly better, Rukmini.
• 19th Century mother: Better, Reena? You mean, bending over the old wood stove and the grinding stone was better?
• 21st Century mother: That may have been difficult, Rukmini, but otherwise your life was peaceful. You only had to look after the home and family. While today, we …
• 19th Century mother: ‘Only look after home and family’? That was a full-time job! There were no short cuts like takeaways and ready-made stuff! And what about freedom? The freedom you have!
• 21st Century mother: Freedom with chains! I have to work hard both at home and in the office. I have to be a ‘supermom’ and ‘superboss’! Do you know how terrible it is?
  (Students can continue the dialogue in this manner.)

8. Read the entry about ‘voice’ in the ‘Language Study’ pages. Note that the speeches of all the boys are in the ‘active’ voice. Turn them into passive constructions.
Example:
Neel – I put the dishes in the dishwasher. (active)
Dishes have been put in the dishwasher. (passive)
195 Boy – I have watered the garden
………………………………………..
brought home the groceries
………………………………………..
dusted the living room
………………………………………..
cleaned my bicycle…

9. Think of suitable names for the boys from the earlier centuries.

Question 1.
Think of suitable names for the boys from the earlier centuries.
Answer:
(Some examples: Vitthal, Namdeo, Manu, etc.)

10. Form groups of 5-8. Translate the play into your mother tongue (or Hindi) as a group activity. Enact the translation in the classroom.

11. Read ‘The Story of the Amulet’ by E. Nesbit.

English Kumarbharati 9th Digest Chapter 2.6 The Past in the Present Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the following passages carefully and complete the activities:

Simple Factual Activity:

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
Answer:

1. Neel puts the dishes in the dishwasher.
2. Neel had cleaned his room two days earlier.
3. Neel forgets to make his bed.
4. Neel’s mother remembers something about his Grandpa.

Question 2.
Write if the following sentences are True or False:
Answer:

1. The 1910s boy was wearing loose trousers and a shirt. False
2. The 1910s boy did many outdoor chores. True
3. The 1800s boy was rude to his mother. False
4. The 1800s boy wanted to play Ashtapada with his friends. False

Question 3.
Name the following:
Answer:

1. The game the 3000 BCE boy wishes to play: Chaupar
2. The yard is plastered with this: dung
3. The game the 100 CE boy wishes to play: Bagh-chal
4. Pots for cooking are made of this: mud

Question 4.
Complete the web :
(The answers are directly underlined.)
Answer:

Activity-based on Vocabulary:

Question 1.
Write the antonyms of the following:

1. necessary
2. forgot
3. late
4. tougher

Answer:

1. necessary × unnecessary
2. forgot × remembered
3. late × early
4. tougher × easier.

Question 2.
Match the given verbs with the nouns:

A	B
1. fetched	(a) yard
2. cleared	(b) water
3. swept	(c) weeds
4. pulled out	(d) channels
	(e) walls

Answer:

A	B
1. fetched	(b) water
2. cleared	(d) channels
3. swept	(a) yard
4. pulled out	(c) weeds

Question 2.
Fill in the blanks with the correct verbs from the brackets:
(fixed, washed, took, chopped)
The 1800s boy ……….. clothes, ………….. wood, ……….. the broken fence and ………….. the goats up to the hills to graze.
Answer:
The 1800s boy washed clothes, chopped wood, fixed the broken fence and took the goats up to the hills to graze.

Question 3.
Give the plurals of:

1. jewellery
2. wood
3. grandfather
4. terrace

Answer:

1. jewellery – jewellery
2. wood – wood
3. grandfather – grandfathers
4. terrace – terraces.

Question 4.
Give the noun forms of the following:

1. recede
2. enter
3. repeat
4. impossible

Answer:

1. recede – recession
2. enter – entry
3. repeat – repetition
4. impossible – impossibility

Activities based on Contextual Grammar:

Rewrite the following sentences in the passive voice:

Question 1.
I have watered the garden.
Answer:
The garden has been watered.

Question 2.
I have brought home the groceries.
Answer:
The groceries have been brought home.

Question 3.
I have dusted the living room.
Answer:
The living room has been dusted.

Question 4.
I have cleaned my bicycle.
Answer:
The bicycle has been cleaned.

Question 5.
Mummy, I collected wood for the stove.
Answer:
Mummy, wood for the stove has been collected.

Question 6.
I fixed the broken fence.
Answer:
The broken fence has been fixed.

Question 7.
Rewrite the sentence in passive voice:
I fed the poultry.
Answer:
The poultry have been fed.

Question 8.
Rewrite using the modal auxiliary for permission:
I need your kind permission to go out and play Chaupar with my friends.
Answer:
May I go out and play Chaupar with my friends?

Rewrite the following sentences as assertive sentences:

Question 1.
Is it necessary to clean up every day?
Answer:
It is not necessary to clean up every day.

Question 2.
What difference does it make?
Answer:
It does not make any difference.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
Do you think you should make your bed every day?
Answer:
Yes. In a dusty and tropical country like ours, we have to see that the beds are clean and dust- free. It also feels better to lie down on a clean and fresh bed. So we must make the beds every day.

Question 2.
Do you do any chores in the house? What chores?
Answer:
I dust the furniture every day. I lay and clear the table before and after every meal. I fold clothes and keep them in the cupboard. These are my daily chores, besides keeping my own things like books, shoes, etc. in their proper places.

Question 3.
What do you do when you have to do a chore that you do not like?
Answer:
If I have to do a chore that I don’t like, I first try to see if I can avoid it in some way, like getting someone to do it for me. If it is not a very important chore, like making beds, I ignore it till my mother shouts at me. If it is an important chore that cannot be avoided, I hurry up and do it as fast as I can to get it over with.

Question 4.
Which life would you prefer: your life of today or the life of a teenager in 3000 BCE?
Answer:
I would certainly prefer my life of today. It is more interesting and I have more freedom. Life at any time without the computer, the TV and the mobile phone would have been terribly dull and boring. Oh, yes, life today is much better than it could have been in 3000 BCE.

Add question tags to the following statements:

Question 1.
That’s your daily work.
Answer:
That’s your daily work, isn’t it?

Question 2.
I also chopped the wood.
Answer:
I also chopped the wood, didn’t I?

Complex Factual Activity :

Question 1.
How is the boy from 1500s dressed?
Answer:
The boy from 1500s is dressed in a loose, sleeveless, V-neck top and a short dhoti.

Question 2.
What chores did the boys from 1000 CE do on their farms/fields?
Answer:
The boys from 1000 CE had to fetch water, clear blocked channels, water the crops and pull out the weeds.

Activities based on Contextual Grammar:

Question 1.
Rewrite the following sentence in the passive voice:
I have fetched vegetables from our farm.
Answer:
Vegetables have been fetched from our farm.

Question 2.
Rewrite the following sentence as an assertive sentence:
Don’t talk back.
Answer:
You should not talk back.

Question 3.
What chores did the boys from 1000 CE do on their farms/fields?
Answer:
The boys from 1000 CE had to fetch water, clear blocked channels, water the crops and pull out the weeds.

Simple Activities:

Question 1.
Write two compound words from the lesson.
Answer:
dishwasher, grandfather

Question 2.
Make a meaningful sentence using the phrase: pulled out
Answer:
The slave pulled out the thorn from the lion’s paw.

Question 3.
Spot the error in the verb/verbs and correct the sentence:
I wish I had a robot to makes my bed and tidies up my room.
Answer:
I wish I had a robot to make my bed and tidy up my room.

Question 4.
Pick out the infinitive from the given sentence:
You forgot to make your bed.
Answer:
Infinitive – to make

Question 5.
Identity the type of sentence:
Ahhh! Yes! They didn’t have any electric grinders in those days!
Answer:
Exclamatory sentence.

Question 6.
Find out two hidden words from the word:
permission
Answer:
permission – mission, prism (prison, person)

Question 7.
Pick out the verb which forms its past participle with the last letter doubled.
collect, sleep, chop, tell
Answer:
chopped

Question 8.
Write the following words in alphabetical order:
triple, recede, revered, stacked
Answer:
recede, revered, stacked, triple

Medium-Level Activities:

Question 1.
You haven’t cleaned up your room.
(Change the voice starting ‘Your
Answer:
Your room hasn’t been cleaned up.

Question 2.
Use the word ‘right’ in two separate sentences, the word having different meanings (homographs):
Answer:
(a) What you have done is not right.
(b) “Turn to the right,” said the policeman.

Question 3.
I put the dishes in the dishwasher.
(Use the past tense of the verb.)
Answer:
I put the dishes in the dishwasher.

Question 4.
Prepare a word register for clothes.
Answer:
clothes – trousers, shirt, kurta, pyjama, saree, dhoti, kurta, tunic.

Challenging Activities:

Question 1.
Use the word ‘show’ in two separate sentences, once as a noun and once as a verb.
Answer:
(a) The last show ended at midnight, (noun)
(b) “Show me your ticket,” said the doorkeeper. (verb)

Question 2.
If you try you can make such a robot.
(Pick out the clauses.)
Answer:
you can make such a robot – Main Clause If you try – subordinate clause

Working Skills:

Question 1.
Write ‘An Autobiography of a Wheel’.
Answer:
An Autobiography of a Wheel
I am very, very proud of myself, for I am considered to be one of the most important of man’s inventions. Yes, I am the wheel.
It is said that my invention was the turning point in human civilization. Of course, no one knows exactly when I was invented and by whom. As soon as I was invented and perfected, there was a revolution in the manufacturing industry. I was used for everything and by everybody – right from the potter to the assembly line of super-luxury cars. Yes, and planes and helicopters too. I am even used to go into space.

I help human beings and animals to pull things. I make work easy for them. The principle on which I work is the basic principle in many mechanical devices. Many of the things that were invented along with me have been forgotten, but I am accepted and still in demand today, in some form or the other. If I was not there, there would have been no cars, buses, trains or aeroplanes. Or even bullock carts. I know I sound proud, but that is not so. It is only that I know my own worth, and that I will be around as long as the wheel of time turns!

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions Kumarbharati Chapter 1.3 Have you ever seen…? Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Kumarbharati Solutions Chapter 1.3 Have you ever seen…?

English Kumarbharati 9th Solutions Chapter 1.3 Have you ever seen…? Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming Up:

1. Words that have the same spelling, but differ in meaning when used in different contexts are called homographs. For example,
(a) A temple fair attracts a lot of crowd.
Her performance in the test was fair.
(b) A rose is the king of flowers.
The sun rose with a golden glow.
Think of 5 homographs and list them below. Then write 2 sentences of your own, to bring out the difference in meanings.

Question 1.
Think of five homographs and list them down. Then write two sentences of your own, to bring out the difference in meaning :
Words that have the same spelling but differ in meaning when used in different contexts are called homographs.
Answer:

Homographs	Sentences
1. bow	(a) The prince slowly put down the bow and arrow. (b) “Should I bow if I see the king?” asked the little boy.
2. content	(a) One should always be content with what one has. (b) You must always check the nutritional content of what you eat.
3. live	(a) One must learn to live within one’s means. (b)  It is dangerous to touch a live wire.
4. minute	(a) His voice was getting louder every minute. (b) There were minute particles of dust in the air.
5. tear	(a) A tear fell from the eye of the old woman. (b) “Tear the paper into four pieces,” said the teacher.

2. When words with the same spelling or pronunciation are used in such a way that they convey more than one meaning, the figure of speech involved is called pun. A pun is a play upon words. For example,
A: Hello! How’s life?
B: Hell, O! It’s a strife.
Find other examples of pun with the help of your parents/teacher.

1. ………………….
2. ………………..
3. ………………….
4. ………………….

Question 1.
Find other examples of pun with the help of your parents/teacher.
Answer:
Some examples :
1. Where do you find giant snails?
On the ends of giants’ fingers.
2. How do turtles talk to each other?
By using shell phones!
3. You can communicate with a fish by dropping it a line.
4. What do you get from a pampered goat?
Spoilt milk.

3. In poetry, when a question is asked, not to get an answer, but to emphasise a point or fact, it is an example of Interrogation.
For example :
When can their glory fade?
Isn’t it time for the autumn’s glow?
From a popular book of poems/the internet, write down 3-4 examples of Interrogation used in poetry.

1. ………………….
2. ………………….
3. ………………….
4. ………………….

Question 1.
write down 3-4 examples of Interrogation used in poetry.
Answer:

1. If Winter comes, can Spring be far behind?
2. If you prick us, do we not bleed?
3. What’s in a name?

English Workshop:

1. From each line in the poem, pick out the word that is a homograph. Write its meaning in the context of the phrase used in the poem. Then write the other meaning implied in the question.

Question 1.
1. From each line in the poem, pick out the word that is a homograph. Write its meaning in the context of the phrase used in the poem. Then write the other meaning implied in the question.
Answer:

2. Write 2 lines from this poem which you find most humorous. Justify your choice.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Question 1.
Write two lines from the poem that you find the most humorous. Justify your choice.
Answer:
1. Can you tickle the ribs of a parasol?
I find this humorous because I can just imagine someone tickling the spokes of an umbrella and trying to get it to respond!
2. Does the needle ever wink its eye?
I find this humorous because I think of myself holding a needle that is winking!

3. Find from the poem, three examples of each :

(a) Interrogation
1. …………………….
2. ……………………
3. ……………………

(b) Pun
1. …………………….
2. ……………………
3. ……………………

(c) Personification
1. …………………….
2. ……………………
3. ……………………

(d) Alliteration
1. …………………….
2. ……………………
3. ……………………

Question 1.
Find from the poem, three examples of each:
(a) Interrogation
(b) Pun
(c) Personification
(d) Alliteration
Answer:
(a) Interrogation :

1. Have you seen a sheet on a river bed?
2. Does the needle ever wink its eye?
3. Are the teeth of a rake ever going to bite?

(b) Pun :

1. Has the foot of the mountain any toes?
2. Can you tickle the ribs of a parasol?
3. Have the hands of a clock any left or right?

(c) Personification :

1. Has the foot of the mountain any toes?
2. Does the needle ever wink its eye?
3. Can you tickle the ribs of a parasol?

(d) Alliteration :

1. Or a single hair from a hammer’s head?
2. Or open the trunk of a tree at all?
3. And what is the sound of the birch’s bark?

4. Form groups of four or five. Think, discuss and add at least one more stanza, using the same style and devices as the poet has used. It should include homographs, interrogation and the same rhythm and rhyme scheme.

Question 1.
‘Form groups of four or five. Think, discuss and add at least one more stanza, using the same style and devices as the poet has used. It should include homographs, interrogation and the same rhythm and rhyme scheme.
Have/Does/Are  ………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………..
………………………………………………………………………………………..
Answer:

• Do elephants bathe with their trunks on, all in a batch?
• Have scientists created a flea from scratch?
• Are the bees having a house swarming party with honey?
• Did the lion spit out the clown because he tasted funny?

5. Read the following sentences carefully. Then fill in the blanks using appropriate words from the brackets, to make puns.
(struck, numbered, too tired, developed, put down, homeless, old fashioned, reaction)

Question 1.
Read the following sentences carefully. Then fill in the blanks using appropriate words from the brackets, to make puns.
(struck, numbered, too tired, developed, put down, homeless, old fashioned, reaction)

1. She had a photographic memory but never …………………
2. He was struggling to work out how lightning works when it …………………
3. Every calendar’s days are …………………
4. A bicycle cannot stand on its own because it is …………………
5. I’m reading a book on anti-gravity. It’s impossible to ……………….. the book.
6. I’d tell you a chemistry joke but I know I wouldn’t get …………………
7. What do you call Watson when Sherlock isn’t around?………………..
8. I would tell a history joke, but it is too ………………..

Answer:

1. She had a photographic memory but never developed it.
2. He was struggling to work out how lightning works when it struck him.
3. Every calendar’s days are numbered.
4. A bicycle cannot stand on its own because it is too tired.
5. I’m reading a book on anti-gravity. It’s impossible to put down the book.
6. I’d tell you a chemistry joke but I know I wouldn’t get a reaction.
7. What do you call Watson when Sherlock isn’t around? homeless.
8. I would tell a history joke, but it is too old-fashioned.

6. ‘Read: ‘Alice in Wonderland’ – by Lewis Carroll.

Question 1.
‘Read: ‘Alice in Wonderland’ – by Lewis Carroll.

English Kumarbharati 9th Digest Chapter 1.3 Have you ever seen…? Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the following poem carefully and complete the activities :

Simple Factual Activity :

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks :
(The answers are given directly and underlined.)
The poet wonders if:

1. the teeth of a rake will ever bite.
2. the foot of a mountain has any toes.
3. the ribs of an umbrella can be tickled.
4. there can be a sheet on a river bed.

Complex Factual Activities :

Question 1.
What does the poet want to know about a hammer?
Answer:
The poet asks if anyone has seen a single hair on the head of a hammer.

Question 2.
What is the pun in the word ‘plot’ here?
Answer:
A plot means ‘an evil or wicked plan’. A plot ’ also means an area in a garden or some place. The poet asks how a garden ‘plot’ (one meaning of the word) can be evil and dark (the other meaning of the word).

Activities based on Poetic Devices :

Question 1.
Find the rhyming words from the poem.
Answer:

• Stanza 1 – bed-head, toes-hose.
• Stanza 2 – eye-fly, parasol-all.
• Stanza 3 – bite-right, dark-bark.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 English Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Marathi Solutions Aksharbharati Chapter 2.1 संतवाणी (अ) भेटीलागी जीवा – संत तुकाराम Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Marathi Aksharbharati Solutions Chapter 2.1 संतवाणी (अ) भेटीलागी जीवा – संत तुकाराम

Marathi Aksharbharati Std 9 Digest Chapter 2.1 संतवाणी (अ) भेटीलागी जीवा – संत तुकाराम Textbook Questions and Answers

स्वाध्याय :

1. ताक्ता पूर्ण करा.

प्रश्न 1.
ताक्ता पूर्ण करा.

उत्तर:

वाट बघणारा	कोणाची वाट बघतो	वाट बघण्याचे कारण
चकोर	पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा	चंद्रकिरण हेच त्याचे जीवन
लेंकी	माहेरचे बोलावणे येणे	दिवाळीचा सण
भुकेलेले बाळ	माउलीची	भूक
संत तुकाराम	पांडुरंगाची	भेटीची आस

2. योग्य अर्थ शोधा.

प्रश्न 2.
योग्य अर्थ शोधा.
अ. आस लागणे म्हणजे ………….
1. ध्यास लागणे
2. उत्कंठा वाढणे
3. घाई होणे
4. तहान लागणे
उत्तर:
1. ध्यास लागणे

आ. बाटुली म्हणजे ………….
1. धाटुली
2. वाट
3. वळण
4. वाट पहाणे
उत्तर:
2. वाट

3. भावार्थाधारित. 

प्रश्न अ.
संत तुकारामांनी पांडुरंगाच्या भेटीबाबत दिलेल्या दृष्टान्तातील तुम्हाला आवडलेला दृष्टान्त स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तरः
संत तुकारामांनी पांडुरंगाच्या भेटीसाठी आतुर झालेल्या आपल्या मन:स्थितीचे वर्णन करताना दिलेले लहान बाळाचे उदाहरण अतिशय समर्पक वाटते. ज्याप्रमाणे लहान बाळाचे विश्व हे त्याची आईच असते त्याचप्रमाणे तुकारामांचे विश्व म्हणजे फक्त विठ्ठलच आहे. बाळाला भूक लागल्यावर तो अतिशय आतुरतेने आपल्या आईची वाट पाहते. तिच्या भेटीसाठी आतुर झालेला असतो. तिची भेट होणे हे त्याचे ध्येय असते. त्याचप्रमाणे विठ्ठलाची भेट हे संत तुकारामांच्या जीवनाचे ध्येय आहे. परिणामी हा दृष्टान्त अतिशय समर्पक वाटतो.

प्रश्न आ.
चकोराच्या दृष्टान्तातून संत तुकाराम काय सिद्ध करू इच्छितात, हे तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा.
उत्तर:
संत तुकारामांना विठ्ठल भेटीची आस लागली आहे. ज्याप्रमाणे पौर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा हेच चकोराचे जीवन असते, पौर्णिमेच्या चंद्राची तो आतुरतेने वाट पाहत असतो, त्याचप्रमाणे पंढरपुरच्या विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची संत तुकारामांना आस लागली आहे. विठ्ठलाचे दर्शन हेच जणू त्याच्या जीवनाचे अंतिम ध्येय आहे.

उपक्रम :

1. संत बहिणाबाईंचा ‘जलाविण मासा’ हा अभंग मिळवून वर्गात त्याचे वाचन करा.
2. संत कान्होपात्रा यांचा ‘नको देवराया अंत आता पाहू’ हा अभंग मिळवून वाचा.

भाषाभ्यास :

अलंकार

आपण जेव्हा कथा, कादंबरी, कविता, नाटक वगैरे साहित्य वाचतो. तेव्हा दैनंदिन जगण्यातील भाषेपेक्षा थोडी वेगळी भाषा आपल्याला वाचायला मिळते. आपल्याला साहित्य वाचताना आनंद मिळवून देण्यात त्या भाषेचा मोठा वाटा असतो. दैनंदिन व्यवहारातील भाषेपेक्षा साहित्याची भाषा वेगळी ज्या घटकांमुळे ठरते, त्यातील एक घटक म्हणजे ‘अलंकार’. अलंकार भाषेचे सौंदर्य कसे खुलवतात, हे आपल्याला आणखी काही उदाहरणे घेऊन पहायचे आहे.

Marathi Akshar Bharati Class 9 Textbook Solutions Chapter 2.1 संतवाणी (अ) भेटीलागी जीवा – संत तुकाराम Additional Important Questions and Answers

पुढील पक्ष्याच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनेनुसार

कृती करा: कृती 1 : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
आकृतिबंध पूर्ण करा
उत्तरः

प्रश्न 2.
खालील प्रश्नांची उत्तरे एका वाक्यात लिहा.
i. जीवाला कोणती आस लागली आहे?
उत्तरः
जीवाला विठ्ठल भेटीची आस लागली आहे.

ii. विठ्ठलाची वाट कोण पाहत आहे?
उत्तर:
संत तुकारामांचे मन विठ्ठलाची वाट पाहत आहे.

iii. अति शोक कोण करत आहे ?
उत्तर :
भुकेलिवा बाळ अति शोक करत आहे.

iv. संत तुकारामांना कशाची भूक लागली आहे?
उत्तरः
संत तुकारामांना श्रीमुख दर्शनाची भूक लागली आहे.

v. संत तुकाराम विठ्ठलाला कोणती विनंती करत आहेत?
उत्तरः
संत तुकाराम विठ्ठलाला श्रीमुख दर्शनाची विनंती करत आहेत.

प्रश्न 3.
कंसातील योग्य शब्द वापरून रिकाम्या जागा भरा.

1. तैसें माझें …………………. वाट पाहे । (जीवा, उरि, मन, श्रीमुख)
2. दिवाळीच्या मुळा ………… आसावली । (मुली, बाया, लेंकी, स्त्रिया)
3. पाहातसे वाटुली …………. । (आळंदीची, पंढरीची, पंढरपुराची, विठ्ठलाची)
4. भुकेलिवा बाळ अति ………… करी । (गडबड, मस्ती, दुःख, शोक)
5. वाट पाहे ……………….. माउलीची । (उरि, दारी, आई, विठाई)
6. धावूनि ……………………. दांवी देवा। (दर्शन, श्रीमुख, प्रदर्शन, मुखदर्शन)

उत्तर:

1. मन
2. लेंकी
3. पंढरीची
4. शोक
5. उरि
6. श्रीमुख

प्रश्न 4.
जोड्या जुळवा.

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. भेटीलागी जीवा	(अ) वाट तुझी
2. तैसें माझें मन	(ब) चकोराजीवन
3. पाहे रात्रंदिवस	(क) वाट पाहे
4. पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा	(ड) लागलीसे आस

उत्तर:

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. भेटीलागी जीवा	(ड) लागलीसे आस
2. तैसें माझें मन	(क) वाट पाहे
3. पाहे रात्रंदिवस	(अ) वाट तुझी
4. पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा	(ब) चकोराजीवन

कृती 2 : आकलन कृती

प्रश्न 1.
सहसंबंध लिहा.
i. जीवा : आस :: वाट : ………….
ii. लेंकी : आसावली :: उरि : ………….
उत्तरः
i. रात्रंदिवस
ii. माउलीची

प्रश्न 2.
समान अर्थाच्या काव्यपंक्ती शोधून लिहा.
i. (अ) पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा हेच चकोर पक्ष्याचे जीवन असते.
(ब) मी रात्रंदिवस तुझ्या भेटीची आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे.
(क) तसेच माझे मन तुझी वाट पाहत आहे.
उत्तर:
(अ) पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा चकोराजीवन ।
(ब) पाहे रात्रंदिवस वाट तुझी ।।
(क) तैसें माझें मन वाट पाहे ।।

ii. (अ) हे देवा तुझे श्रीमुख म्हणजे तुझे दर्शन मला व्हावे, म्हणून तू माझ्यासाठी धावून ये.
(ब) हे विठ्ठला, पंढरपुराहून कोणीतरी मला तुझ्या भेटीसाठी न्यायाला येईल याची मी आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे.
उत्तर :
(अ) धांवूनि श्रीमुख दांवी देवा।।
(ब) पाहातसे वाटुली पंढरीची।।

प्रश्न 3.
काव्यपंक्तीवरून शब्दांचा योग्य क्रम लावा.

1. पाहे, मन, चंद्रमा, जीवा
2. पंढरीची, श्रीमुख, माउलीची, आसावली
3. तुका, मुळा, बाळ, शोक

उत्तर :

1. जीवा, चंद्रमा, मन, पाहे
2. आसावली, पंढरीची, माउलीची, श्रीमुख
3. मुळा, बाळ, शोक, तुका

प्रश्न 4.
जोड्या जुळवा.

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. दिवाळीच्या मुळा	(अ) अति शोक करी
2. भुकेलिवा वाळ	(ब) दांवी देवा
3. तुका म्हणे	(क) मज लागलीसे भूक
4. धावूनि श्रीमुख	(ड) लेकी आसावली

उत्तर:

‘अ’ गट	‘ब’ गट
1. दिवाळीच्या मुळा	(ड) लेकी आसावली
2. भुकेलिवा वाळ	(अ) अति शोक करी
3. तुका म्हणे	(क) मज लागलीसे भूक
4. धावूनि श्रीमुख	(ब) दांवी देवा

प्रश्न 5.
काव्यपंक्तींचा योग्य क्रम लावा.

1. धावूनि श्रीमुख दांवी देवा।।
2. पाहातसे वाटुली पंढरीची।।
3. वाट पाहे उरि माउलीची।।
4. भुकेलिवा बाळ अति शोक करी।

उत्तर:

1. पाहातसे वाटुली पंढरीची ।।
2. भुकेलिवा बाळ अति शोक करी ।
3. वाट पाहे उरि माउलीची ।।
4. धांवूनि श्रीमुख दांवी देवा ।।

प्रश्न 6.
कोण ते लिहा.
उत्तरः
शोक करणारा – भुकेलिवा बाळ |

प्रश्न 7.
प्रश्न तयार करा.
i. तुका म्हणे मज लागलीसे भूक ।
ii. भुकेलिवा बाळ अति शोक करी ।
उत्तर:
i. भूक कोणाला लागली आहे?
ii. बाळ अति शोक का करत आहे?

कृती 3 : काव्यसौंदर्य

खालील काव्यपंक्तीतील आशयसौंदर्य स्पष्ट करा.

प्रश्न 1.
पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा चकोराजीवन।
तैसें माझें मन वाट पाहे।।
उत्तरः
संत तुकारामांना लागलेली विठ्ठल भेटीची ओढ पटवून देताना, संत तुकाराम चकोराचे उदाहरण देतात. ज्याप्रकारे पौर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा हेच चकोराचे जीवन असते, त्याचप्रमाणे विठ्ठल हे संत तुकारामांचे जीवन आहे. त्यामुळे संत तुकारामांचे मन त्या चकोर पक्ष्यासारखे विठ्ठलदर्शनाची अतिशय मनापासून वाट पाहत आहे.

प्रश्न 2.
दिवाळीच्या मुळा लेकी आसावली।
पाहातसे वाटुली पंढरीची।।
उत्तरः
संत तुकाराम महाराज यांच्या भेटीलागी जीवा’ या कवितेतून वरील काव्यपंक्ती घेतली आहे. संत तुकारामांनी पांडुरंगाच्या भेटीसाठी आतर झालेल्या आपल्या मन:स्थितीचे अचूक वर्णन केले आहे. संत तुकाराम सांगतात, ज्याप्रमाणे सासरी गेलेल्या मुली दिवाळीच्या सणाला माहेरहून कोणीतरी मुन्हाळी आपल्याला न्यायला येईल याची अतिशय मनापासून वाट पाहत असतात. त्याचप्रमाणे हे विठ्ठला, मी देखील पंढरपुराहून कोणीतरी मला भेटीसाठी न्यायला येईल, याची आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे.

प्रश्न 3.
तुका म्हणे मज लागलीसे भूक।
धावूनि श्रीमुख दांवी देवा।।
उत्तर:
विठ्ठलभेटीची तीव्र ओढ योग्य उदाहरणातून तुकाराम महाराज व्यक्त करतात, अभंगाच्या शेवटी तुकाराम महाराज सांगतात की, लहान बाळाप्रमाणे मला देखील विठ्ठलदर्शनाची तीव्र भूक लागली आहे. अशावेळी ते विठ्ठलाला विनंती करतात, की हे देवा तुझे श्रीमुख म्हणजे तुझे दर्शन मला व्हावे.

पुढील ओळींचा अर्थ स्पष्ट करा.

प्रश्न 1.
भेटीलागी जीवा लागलीसे आस ।
पाहे रात्रंदिवस वाट तुझी ।।
उत्तरः
संत तुकाराम विठ्ठलाला उद्देशून सांगतात की, है
विठ्ठला मला तुझ्या भेटीची आस लागली आहे. मी रात्रंदिवस
तुझ्या भेटीची अतिशय आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे.

प्रश्न 2.
भुकेलिबा बाळ अति शोक करी ।
वाट पाहे उरि माउलीची ।।
उत्तरः
विठ्ठलभेटीची तीव्र आस व्यक्त करताना संत तुकाराम सांगतात, ज्याप्रमाणे लहान बाळ भुकेपोटी अतिशय व्याकुळतेने शोक करतं म्हणजे रडतं, तळमळत असतं व आपली भूक मिटावी म्हणून आपल्या आईची अतिशय आतुरतेने वाट पाहत असतं त्याप्रमाणे मी देखील तुझी वाट पाहत आहे.

प्रश्न 3.
भक्त व विठ्ठल आणि चकोर व चंद्र यांतील साधर्म्य तुमच्या शब्दांत सांगा.
उत्तरः
भक्त श्रीविठ्ठलाच्या भेटीसाठी आतुर झालेला असतो. त्याला विठ्ठलाशिवाय दुसरे काहीच सुचत नाही. त्याचे संपूर्ण जीवन हे विठ्ठलमय झालेले असते. विठ्ठलदर्शनाशिवाय त्याला अन्न-पाणी गोड लागत नाही. विठ्ठलदर्शन हेच त्याच्या जीवनाचे साध्य असते. त्याचप्रमाणे चकोर पक्षी चंद्रकिरणांसाठी आतुर झालेला असतो. कविकल्पना आहे की, पौर्णिमेचा पूर्ण चंद्र दिसला की, चकोर पक्ष्याला आनंद होतो. तो फक्त चंद्राचे कोवळे किरणच प्राशन करतो. चंद्रकिरण हेच त्याचे जीवन असते. अशाप्रकारे भक्त व चकोर हे अनुक्रमे विठ्ठल व चंद्र यांच्या भेटीसाठी तळमळत असतात.

प्रश्न 4.
विठ्ठलदर्शन हे सर्व सुखांचे सुख आहे. या विधानातील समर्पकता तुमच्या शब्दांत सांगा.
उत्तरः
विठ्ठलाचे दर्शन हे सर्व सुखांचे सुख आहे. विठ्ठलाचे दर्शन होताच भक्तांची तहान-भूक हरवून जाते. त्यांचे नयन दिपून जातात व त्यांचे हृदय सुखद आनंदाने भरून जाते. विठ्ठलदर्शन ही भक्ताच्या आत्म्याला लागलेली अध्यात्मिक भूक असते. म्हणून विठ्ठलाचे दर्शन घेण्यासाठी दरवर्षी लाखो भाविक पंढरपुरला जातात. एकदा का विठ्ठलदर्शन झाले की
मानवाचे सर्व प्रकारचे पाप-ताप आणि वेदना संपुष्टात येतात.

प्रश्न 5.
दिलेल्या मुद्द्यांच्या आधारे कवितेसंबंधी पुढील कृती सोडवा.
उत्तरः
1. कवी/ कवयित्रीचे नाव – संत तुकाराम (तुकाराम बोलोबा अंबिले – मोरे)
2. संदर्भ – ‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ हा अभंग संत तुकाराम’ यांनी लिहिला आहे. हा अभंग ‘सकलसंतगाथा खंड दुसरा: श्री तुकाराम महाराजांची अभंगगाथा’ या पुस्तकातून घेतला आहे.
3. प्रस्तावना – ‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ हा अभंग ‘संत तुकाराम’ यांनी लिहिला आहे. या अभंगातून संत तुकारामांनी आपल्या मनातील विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची ओढ योग्य उदाहरणातून व्यक्त केली आहे.

4. वाङ्मयप्रकार’ – भेटीलागी जीवा’ ही कविता नसून एक अभंग आहे.
5. कवितेचा विषय – विठ्ठलभेटीची अनावर ओढ विविध उदाहरणांद्वारे व्यक्त करणारा संत तुकारामांचा ‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ हा अभंग एक उत्कृष्ट भक्तिगीत आहे.

6. कवितेतील आवडलेली ओळ
दिवाळीच्या मुळा लेकी आसावली।
पाहातसे वाटुली पंढरीची।।

7. मध्यवर्ती कल्पना – संत तुकारामांनी तन, मन, धन अर्पून विठ्ठलाची भक्ती केली. अगदी मनापासून त्याचे नामस्मरण केले. अशा या आपल्या भगवंताच्या म्हणजेच विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची अनावर ओढ त्यांच्या मनात निर्माण झाली. त्यासाठी अतिशय समर्पक उदाहरणे वापरून त्यांनी ‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ या अभंगातून ती ओढ व्यक्त केली आहे.

8. कवितेतून मिळणारा संदेश –
संत तुकाराम यांना विठ्ठलभेटीची ओढ लागली आहे. त्यासाठी अतिशय योग्य उदाहरणे वापरून त्यांनी ‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ हा अभंग लिहिला आहे. या उदाहरणांचा अभ्यास केला असता संत तुकारामांच्या मनात विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची किती अनावर ओढ आहे हे लक्षात येते. अशीच आपणही परमेश्वराची भक्ती केली तर आपणासही परमेश्वराची प्राप्ती होईल असाच संदेश ‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ या अभंगातून आपणास मिळतो.

9. कविता आवडण्याची वा न आवडण्याची कारणे –
‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ हा संत तुकारामाचा अभंग मला खूप आवडला आहे. त्याचे कारण म्हणजे विठ्ठलभेटीची ओढ व्यक्त करण्यासाठी त्यांनी निसर्गातील, संसारातील अगदी चपखल उदाहरणांचा वापर केलेला आहे. रोजच्या व्यवारातील उदाहरणे वापरून अपेक्षित परिणाम त्यांनी साधला आहे.

10. भाषिक वैशिष्ट्ये –
संत तुकाराम यांच्या अभंगाची भाषा अतिशय साधी, सरळ व रसाळ आहे. शिवाय भक्ती, व्यवझर आणि अध्यात्म यांची
सुयोग्य सांगड त्यांच्या अभंगातून दिसून येते.

खालील काव्यपंक्तींचे रसग्रहण करा.

प्रश्न 1.
भेटीलागी जीवा लागलीसे आस।
पाहे रात्रंदिवस वाट तुझी।।
पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा चकोराजीवन।
तैसें माझें मन वाट पाहे ।।
उत्तरः
‘संत तुकाराम महाराज’ यांच्या भेटीलागी जीवा’ या कवितेतून वरील काव्यपंक्ती घेतली आहे. संत तुकारामांनी आपल्या मनातील विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची ओढ समर्पक दृष्टांतातून व्यक्त केलेली दिसून येते. संत तुकाराम विठ्ठलाला उद्देशून सांगतात की, हे विठ्ठला मला तुझ्या भेटीची आस लागली आहे. मी रात्रंदिवस तुझ्या भेटीची अतिशय आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे. आपल्याला लागलेली विठ्ठल भेटीची ओढ पटवून देताना, संत तुकाराम चकोराचे उदाहरण देतात.

ते सांगतात, ज्याप्रमाणे पौर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा हेच चकोराचे जीवन असते, त्याचप्रमाणे विठ्ठल हे माझे जीवन आहे. त्यामुळे माझे मन त्या चकोर पक्ष्यासारखे विठ्ठल दर्शनाची अतिशय मनापासून वाट पाहत आहे. संत तुकाराम यांच्या अभंगाची भाषा अतिशय साधी, सरळ व रसाळ आहे. शिवाय भक्ती, व्यवहार आणि अध्यात्म यांची सुयोग्य सांगड त्यांच्या अभंगातून दिसून येते.

प्रश्न 2.
दिवाळीच्या मुळा लेकी आसावली।
पाहातसे वाटुली पंढरीची।।
भुकेलिया बाळ अति शोक करी।
वाट पाहे उरि माउलीची।।
उत्तर:
‘संत तुकाराम महाराज यांच्या भेटीलागी जीवा’ या कवितेतून वरील काव्यपंक्ती घेतली आहे. संत तुकारामांनी आपल्या मनातील विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची ओढ समर्पक दृष्टांतातून व्यक्त केलेली दिसून येते.

संत तुकाराम सांगतात, ज्याप्रमाणे सासरी गेलेल्या मुली दिवाळीच्या सणाला माहेराहून कोणीतरी मुन्हाळी आपल्याला न्यायला येईल याची अतिशय मनापासून वाट पाहत असतात. त्याचप्रमाणे हे विठ्ठला मी देखील पंढरपुराहून कोणीतरी मला तुझ्या भेटीसाठी न्यायला येईल, याची आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे.

विठ्ठलभेटीची तीव्र आस व्यक्त करताना संत तुकाराम सांगतात की, ज्याप्रमाणे लहान बाळ भुकेपोटी अतिशय व्याकुळतेने शोक करते म्हणजे रडते, तळमळते. आपली भूक मिटावी म्हणून आपल्या आईची अतिशय आतुरतेने वाट पाहत असते, त्याप्रमाणे मी देखील तुझी वाट पाहत आहे. संत तुकाराम यांच्या अभंगाची भाषा अतिशय साधी, सरळ व रसाळ आहे. शिवाय भक्ती, व्यवहार आणि अध्यात्म यांची सुयोग्य सागड त्यांच्या अभंगातून दिसून येते.

प्रश्न 3.
भुकेलिवा बाळ अति शोक करी।
वाट पाहे उरि माउलीची।।
तुका म्हणे मज लागलीसे भूक।
धावूनि श्रीमुख दांवी देवा।।
उत्तर:
‘संत तुकाराम महाराज’ यांच्या भेटीलागी जीवा’ या कवितेतून वरील काव्यपंक्ती घेतली आहे. संत तुकारामांनी आपल्या मनातील विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची ओढ समर्पक दृष्टांतातून व्यक्त केलेली दिसून येते.

विठ्ठल भेटीची तीव्र आस व्यक्त करताना संत तुकाराम सांगतात की, ज्याप्रमाणे लहान बाळ भुकेपोटी अतिशय व्याकुळतेनं शोक करते म्हणजे रडते, तळमळते आपली भूक मिटावी म्हणून आपल्या आईची अतिशय आतुरतेने वाट पाहत असतं, त्याप्रमाणे मीदेखील तुझी वाट पाहत आहे.

मलादेखील लहान बाळाप्रमाणे विठ्ठलदर्शनाची तीव्र भूक लागली आहे. अशावेळी ते विठ्ठलाला विनंती करतात की, हे देवा तुझे श्रीमुख मला दिसावे म्हणजे तुझे दर्शन मला व्हावे म्हणून तू माझ्यासाठी धावून ये.

संत तुकाराम यांच्या अभंगाची भाषा अतिशय साधी, सरळ व रसाळ आहे. शिवाय भक्ती, व्यवार आणि अध्यात्म यांची सुयोग्य सांगड त्यांच्या अभंगातून दिसून येते.

पाठाखालील स्वाध्याय :

प्रश्न 1.
‘तुम्ही तुमच्या जवळच्या मित्र/मैत्रिणीच्या भेटीला आसुसले आहात’ हे सांगण्यासाठी एखादा दृष्टान्त वापरा व तो स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तर:
“दिवाळीच्या मुळा लेकी आसावली पाहातसे वाटुली पंढरीची”
जवळच्या मित्राच्या भेटीला आसुसले आहोत यासाठी वरील दृष्टान्त अतिशय समर्पक वाटतो, कारण ज्याप्रमाणे लग्न होऊन सासरी गेलेल्या मुली माहेरच्या ओढीने व्याकुळ होतात. दिवाळीच्या सणात कोणीतरी मुन्हाळी माहेरहून मला भेटण्यासाठी येईल व काही दिवसांसाठी मला माहेरपणाला घेऊन जाईल या विचाराने त्या भेटीसाठी व्याकुळ झालेल्या असतात. त्याचप्रमाणे मी देखील माझ्या अमेरिकेतील मित्राच्या भेटीसाठी आसुसलेलो आहे.

संतवाणी (अ) भेटीलागी जीवा – संत तुकाराम Summary in Marathi

कवीचा परिचय :

नाव : तुकाराम बोल्होबा अंबिले (मोरे)
कालावधी : 1608-1650 व्यवहार आणि अध्यात्म यांची सुयोग्य सांगड घालणारे वारकरी संप्रदायातील संतकवी. दांभिकता, दैववाद, अहंकारी वृत्ती, दुराचार इत्यादींचा परखड समाचार त्यांनी आपल्या अभंगांमधून घेतलेला आहे. प्रेम, नैतिकता, करुणा व सर्वाभूती ईश्वर या मूल्यांना प्रमाणभूत मानून आपल्या प्रापंचिक जीवनाचा आदर्श ते अभंगातून मांडतात.

प्रस्तावना :

‘भेटीलागी जीवा’ हा अभंग संत तुकाराम यांनी लिहिला आहे. या अभंगात संत तुकारामांनी आपल्या मनातील विठ्ठलाच्या भेटीची ओढ समर्पक उदाहरणांद्वारे व्यक्त केली आहे.

“Bhetilagi Jiva’, this Abhang is written by Saint Tukaram Saint Tukaram explains his affinity of meeting with Lord Vitthala with felicitous examples in this ‘Abhanga

भावार्थ :

भेटीलागी जीवा ……………. रात्रंदिवस वाट तुझी ।
संत तुकाराम विठ्ठलाला उद्देशून सांगतात की, हे विठ्ठला मला तुझ्या भेटीची आस लागली आहे. मी रात्रंदिवस तुझ्या भेटीची अतिशय आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे.

पूर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा ……………. मन वाट पाहे ।
आपल्याला लागलेली विठ्ठल भेटीची ओढ पटवून देताना संत तुकाराम चकोराचे उदाहरण देत आहेत. ते सांगतात, ज्याप्रमाणे पौर्णिमेचा चंद्रमा हेच चकोराचे जीवन असते त्याचप्रमाणे विठ्ठल हे माझे जीवन आहे. त्यामुळे माझे मन त्या चकोर पक्ष्यासारखे विठ्ठल दर्शनाची अतिशय मनापासून वाट पाहत आहे.

दिवाळीच्या मुळा ……………. वाटुली पंढरीची ।
संत तुकाराम सांगतात, ज्याप्रमाणे सासरी गेलेल्या मुली दिवाळीच्या सणाला माहेरहन कोणीतरी मुजाळी आपल्याला न्यायला येईल याची अतिशय मनापासून वाट पाहत असतात. त्याचप्रमाणे हे विठ्ठला मी देखील पंढरपुराहून कोणीतरी मला भेटीसाठी न्यायला येईल, याची आतुरतेने वाट पाहत आहे.

भुकेलिवा बाळ अति …………….. उरि माउलीची ।
विठ्ठल भेटीची तीव्र आस व्यक्त करताना संत तुकाराम सांगतात, लहान बाळ भुकेपोटी अतिशय व्याकुळतेने शोक करते म्हणजे रडत, तळमळत असते व आपली भूक मिटावी म्हणून आपल्या आईची अतिशय आतुरतेने वाट पाहत असते. तशीच मी देखील तुझी वाट पाहत आहे.

तुका म्हणे ……………. श्रीमुख दांवी देवा ।
अभंगाच्या शेवटी तुकाराम महाराज सांगतात, लहान बाळाप्रमाणे मलादेखील विठ्ठल दर्शनाची तीव्र भूक लागली आहे. अशावेळी ते विठ्ठलाला विनंती करतात की, हे देवा, तुझे श्रीमुख म्हणजे तुझे दर्शन मला व्हावे म्हणून तू माझ्यासाठी धावून ये.

शब्दार्थ :

1. भेट – गाठ (meeting)
2. जीवा (जीव) – आत्म्याला (to the soul)
3. आस – इच्छा, अपेक्षा, आशा (desire, an expectation)
4. पूर्णिमा – पौर्णिमा (The full moon day)
5. चंद्रमा – चंद्र (the moon)
6. जीवन – आयुष्य (life)
7. तैसें – तसे (in that way)
8. मन – चित्त (mind)
9. मुळा – मुबळी (लग्न होऊन सासरी गेलेल्या मुलीला माहेरी आणण्यासाठी गेलेली माहेरची व्यक्ती)
10. लेंकी – मुलगी (a daughter)
11. आसावणे – आतुर होणे, व्याकुळ होणे
12. वाटुली – वाट, मार्ग, रस्ता (a way, a path)
13. भुकेलिवा – भुकेलेले (hungry)
14. शोक – दुःख, खेद (sorrow, grief)
15. उरी – (येथे अर्थ) हृदयापासून (from the bott heart)
16. तुका – संत तुकाराम
17. मज – मला, माझे (to me, to mine)
18. भूक – क्षुधा, खाण्याची इच्छा (hunger, desire)
19. मुख – चेहरा (the face)
20. दावी – दाखव (please show)

टीप :

चकोर पक्षी – एक पक्षी (हा पक्षी चंद्रकिरणांवर जगतो असा कविसंकेत आहे.) (a kind of bird) (It is said that this bird feeds itself on the moonlight)

वाक्प्रचार :

1. आस लागणे – उत्कंठा लागणे, इच्छा होणे
2. वाट पाहणे – प्रतीक्षा करणे
3. शोक करणे – दुःख करणे, आकांत करणे

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Political Science Solutions Chapter 3 India’s Defence System

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The ______ of India is the Commander-in-Chief of all the Defence forces.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) Governor
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The ______ has the responsibility of protecting the coastline.
(a) Army
(b) Coast guard
(c) Border Security Force
(d) Rapid Action Force
Answer:
(b) Coast guard

Question 3.
The _______ has been established with the purpose of instilling among students the love of discipline and military training.
(a) Border Security Forces (BSF)
(b) Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)
(d) Rapid Action Force (RAF)
Answer:
(c) National Cadet Corps (NCC)

2. Explain with reasons whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
It is necessary to end terrorism to ensure human security.
Answer:
True.

• The biggest challenge to human security is that of terrorism.
• Terrorism targets common, innocent people.
• It aims at creating terror or fear in their minds, so that they begin to feel insecure.
• Thus, in order to protect human security, it is necessary to put an end to terrorism.

Question 2.
Every nation creates a strong security system for itself.
Answer:
True.

• National Security is closely connected with geography because national security is more likely to be endangered by nations who are geographically closer.
• A nation must assess the threat to its geographical boundaries and the source of that threat.
• In order to keep this threat at bay, the nation has to increase its military might.
• The nation has to use modem technology to predict the threat, to build weapon systems and modernize and update the defence forces.

Question 3.
There are no issues of dispute between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
False.

• There are several disputes between India and Pakistan. For example, the Kashmir issue, disputes over river water sharing, the problem of infiltrations, dispute over the border, etc.
• India has continually tried to solve these issues through discussion and negotiations

3. Write short notes:

Question 1.
The functions of the Rapid Action Force
Answer:
The Rapid Action Force performs the task of bringing people’s lives to normalcy by moving in quickly in incidents of the threat to National Security such as bomb blasts or riots.

Question 2.
Human Security
Answer:
(i) In the Post – Cold War period, the concept of National Security changed and became broader. National Security is not just the security of the country but also of the people living in it, because security is ultimately for the people.

(ii) Hence; human security refers to human-centric thinking. In human security, it is expected that human beings should be protected from all sorts of dangers and they should be given the opportunities of education, health and development.

(iii) The concept of human security also includes the idea that a conducive environment should be created for everybody to live a respectable life by overcoming illiteracy, poverty, superstition, backwardness, etc. Human security necessitates the protection of the rights of minorities and weaker sections

Question 3.
Home Guards
Answer:
(i) This organisation was established in the pre-independence period. Citizens can join the Home Guards and assist in the defence of the country.

(ii) Any citizen, man or woman, between the age of 20 and 35 years can join the Home Guards.

(iii) This force has the following tasks: Maintain public security, supply of milk, water and other essential services during riots or strikes, to regulate traffic, to help people at the time of natural disasters like floods, earthquakes, etc.

4. Give your own opinion about:

Question 1.
Which of the forces related to India’s security would you like to join? Why?
Answer:
(i) If given a chance I would like to join the Indian Army.

(ii) India is surrounded by neighbours like Pakistan and China which have posed many threats to India’s territorial security through infiltration and cross-border terrorism.

(iii) The Arfny is thus the most challenging place to be, where service to protect the motherland would be valued the most.

(iv) The determination, discipline and patriotism which are intrinsic virtues of the Indian Army have always inspired me to do my bit for the nation.

(v) The training for physical fitness and the skills of various war operations can be best received through the Indian Army.

(vi) For these reasons I hold the Indian Army as the most sought after career and the ultimate destination of my life.

Question 2.
Give your views on the policy ‘Atoms for Peace’.
Answer:
(i) US nuclear policies had failed to prevent further nuclear proliferation, fuelled the arms race, suppressed the humanitarian benefits of civil nuclear technology and badly affected the development of the US nuclear industry.

(ii) In his “Atoms for Peace” speech of 1953, President Dwight D. Eisenhower captured the tensions and the ironies of the atomic age.

(iii) Eisenhower believed only nuclear preparedness offered protection; while nuclear weapons lead to war. Nuclear power offered progress and hope.

(iv) However, the motives behind Atoms for Peace extended beyond non-proliferation, arms control, and economic interests.

(v) Objective of the Eisenhower Administration was to set USA advantageously against USSR.

(vi) He envisaged to permit privatization and commercialization of fuel technologies, cooperation with foreign partners, and international nuclear commerce.

(vii) Ultimately, Atoms for Peace yielded billions of dollars in civil nuclear commerce for the US economy.

(viii) Atoms for Peace provided political cover for the biggest nuclear arms build-up in US history, and helped fuel the Cold War arms race.

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What are the threats to National Security?
Answer:
(i) India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers, but also from within. It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.

(ii) Religion, regionalism, several rebellious movements based on ideology, race-ethnicity and economic inequality are creating instability. For example, the Naxalite movement is a threat to India’s internal security.

Question 2.
Write the functions of the Border Security Force.
Answer:
The Border Security Force performs tasks like:

• creating a sense of security in the minds of people living in areas near the border,
• preventing smuggling,
• patrolling the border, etc.

6. Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about security forces:

Name of the Security Forces	Functions	Chief	Name of the Present Chief
Army	………….	……….	………..
……….	………….	Admiral	………….
………….	Protection of India’s air space	…………….	…………..

Answer:

Name of the Security Forces	Functions	Chief	Name of the Present Chief
Army	Protection of geographical boundaries	General	Manoj Mukund Naravane
Navy	Protection of the coast line	Admiral	Karambir Singh
Air Force	Protection of India’s air space	Air Chief Marshall	Rakesh Kumar Sing Bhadavria

Question 2.

Answer:

Class 9 Political Science Chapter 3 India’s Defence System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The ______ forces are responsible for protection and security of important locations.
(a) Paramilitary Forces
(b) Research and Analysis Wing
(c) Central Bureau of Investigation
(d) Interpol
Answer:
(a) Paramilitary Forces

Question 2.
The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s ______.
(a) Borders
(b) Coastline
(c) Airspace
(d) Mineral Resources
Answer:
(c) Airspace

Question 3.
The Indian Army is the world’s ____ largest army.
(a) Second
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Third
Answer:
(c) Seventh

Question 4.
The Chief of Navy is known as ________.
(a) Admiral
(b) General
(c) Marshall
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(a) Admiral

Question 5.
The National Defence Academy is at ______.
(a) Pune
(b) Dehradun
(c) Mumbai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) Pune

Question 6.
_______ are neither completely military forces nor completely civil forces.
(a) Border Security Forces
(b) Paramilitary Forces
(c) Coast Guards
(d) Home Guards
Answer:
(b) Paramilitary Forces

Question 7.
The biggest challenge to human security is that of ______.
(а) Pollution
(b) Terrorism
(c) Natural calamities
(d) Corruption
Answer:
(b) Terrorism

State whether the following statements are true or false with reasons:

Question 1.
Naxalite Movement is a threat to India’s internal security.
Answer:
True.

• India’s security is not only threatened by outside powers but also from within.
• It is not just the difference between external security and internal security that is important anymore.
• Example naxalite movement is a threat to internal security.

Question 2.
There are no training institutes in our country for military personnel.
Answer:
False.

• Many training institutes have been set up in our country.
• To train military personnel, so that they can perform their task.
• Example – National Defence Academy – Pune

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the table about paramilitary forces.

Paramilitary Forces	Prime Functions
Rapid Action Force	……………
Border Security Force	……………
Coast Guards	……………..
Central Reserve Police Force	……………..
Home Guards	……………
National Cadet Corps	………….

Answer:

Paramilitary Forces	Prime Functions
Rapid Action Force	Bringing life to normalcy after contingencies like blasts and riots.
Border Security Force	Patrolling and securing borders.
Coast Guards	Protecting the Indian maritime borders and preventing smuggling along sea routes.
Central Reserve Police Force	Helps the administration in the states to maintain law and order.
Home Guards	Maintaining public security, essential supplies and services during natural disasters and regulating traffic.
National Cadet Corps	Instilling love of discipline and military training.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What kind of conflicts may arise among sovereign nations?
Answer:
(i) There are disputes among nations over boundaries or sometimes conflicts emerge among them over water sharing.

(ii) Some other reasons for conflict could be: not following the terms of international treaties, constantly competing against each other and the influx of refugees from neighbouring countries.

Question 2.
What does the Central Reserve Policy Force do?
Answer:
The Central Reserve Police Force helps the administration in various states to maintain law and order.

Question 3.
Describe the three major armed forces in India.
Answer:
(i) India’s security system includes the Army, the Navy and the Air Force, the three forces that defend the country.

(ii) The responsibility of protecting the geographical boundaries is on the Army, whereas the Navy protects the coastline.

(iii) The Air Force is in charge of protecting India’s air space.

(iv) The Ministry of Defence controls all the three forces.

(v) The Indian Army is very big. It is the world’s seventh-largest. Its Chief is known as the General.

(vi) The Chief of Navy is known as the Admiral, while the Chief of the Air Force is known as Air Chief Marshall. These three chiefs are appointed by the President.

Question 4.
Which measures have been taken to modernize India’s security system?
Answer:
(i) Many measures are taken so that all three defence forces in India’s security system are adequately modernized. For this, some research institutions have been set up.

(ii) Many training institutes have also been set up in our country to train the personnel of all ranks of our defence forces so that they can perform their task competently.

(iii) For example, the National Defence Academy (NDA) at Pune and the National Defence College (NDC) at Delhi, etc.

Question 5.
How do environmental issues threaten human security?
Answer:
(i) Pollution and other changes in the environment have threatened human life. Diseases like AIDS, Chikungunia, Swine flu and Ebola have presented a big challenge.

(ii) Protecting human beings from such diseases is also considered as a factor of human security.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Textbook Questions and Answers

1. A. Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:
Question 1.
The Prime Minister of India who took an initiative in resolving the question of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka was
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) H. D. Deve Gowda
(d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
(a) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 2.
is the father of the Green Revolution in India.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(d) Dr. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
(c) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan

B. Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) Indira Gandhi – Emergency
(2) Rajiv Gandhi – Developments of Science and Technology
(3) P. V. Narasimha Rao – Economic improvements
(4) Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission
Answer:
Chandrashekhar – Mandal Commission

Question 2A.
Based on the information in the chapter, prepare a chronological chart of Prime Ministers and their tenure.
Answer:

1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru -1947 to 1964
2. Lai Bahadur Shastri -1964 to 1966
3. Indira Gandhi -1966 to 1977
4. Morarji Desai -1977 to 1979
5. Charan Singh -1979 to 1980
6. Indira Gandhi -1980 to 1984
7. Rajiv Gandhi -1984 to 1989
8. Vishwanath Pratap Singh – 1989 to 1990
9. Chandra Shekhar -1990 to 1991
10. P. V. Narasimha Rao -1991 to 1996
11. Atal Bihari Vajpayee -1996
12. H.D. Deve Gowda -1996 to 1997
13. Inder Kumar Gujral -1997 to 1998
14. Atal Bihari Vajpayee – 1998 to 2004

2B. Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Globalisation
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology, society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(iii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa).
(iv) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(v) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(vi) It has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the youth.
(vii) These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
White Revolution
Answer:
(i) White Revolution is a major event of India’s efforts towards self-reliance.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to the increase of milk production in India.
(iii) This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

3A. Give reasons:

Question 1.
The Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.
Answer:
(i) On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party.
(ii) The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’.
(iii) Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to its internal differences.
(iv) Hence, the Morarji Desai government lasted for a short while.

Question 2.
The army had to be sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
Answer:
(i) The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of Khalistan and began a movement which went on to become violent and destructive.
(ii) Pakistan had lent its support to this movement.
(iii) Some terrorists had allegedly taken shelter inside the Golden Temple at Amritsar, a holy shrine of the Sikhs in 1984.
(iv) Hence, the Indian army was sent into the Golden Temple in Amritsar to evict the terrorists who had taken shelter there.

Question 3.
The National Planning Commission was set up in India.
Answer:
(i) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(ii) India wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iii) For this, the National Planning Commission was established. This would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

B. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words.

Question 1.
How was 1991 a year of important changes in the history of the world and of India?
Answer:
(i) The year 1991 is held to be very important in the history of the world as well as India.
(ii) The Soviet Union disintegrated into several different small countries and the Cold War came to an end.
(iii) During this period, the Ram Janmabhumi and Babri Mosque issue at Ayodhya came to the forefront.
(iv) In India, the Government under the leadership of Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao initiated many changes in the Indian economy.
(v) These economic reforms are called as economic liberalisation. The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(vi) Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy. The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(vii) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 2.
What are the characteristics of the Indian economy?
Answer:
(i) Right from independence, the modernisation of economy, economic self-sufficiency and social justice have been the characteristics of Indian economy.
(ii) India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing industries.
(iii) It wanted to establish an economy based on social justice through planning.
(iv) For this, the National Planning Commission was established that would coordinate development through the policy of Five Year Plans.

4. With the help of the information in the chapter, complete the list of the challenges before India and the strengths of India.
Question 1.

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
For Example: India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
…………………………..	……………………..
…………………………….	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	……………………………..

Answer:

The Challenges In Front of India	Strengths
India-Pakistan war	Unity in diversity
Cross – Border Terrorism	Membership in G20 and BRICS
Corruption	Nuclear preparedness
Separatism	Establishment of National Planning Commission

Class 9 History Chapter 2 India: Events After 1960 Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The war between India and China took place in the year ________.
(a) 1952
(b) 1962
(c) 1972
(d) 1982
Answer:
(b) 1962

Question 2.
The Indo – China war was fought in the region of the _______ line.
(a)
MacMahon
(b) Kashmir
(c) St Lawrence
(d) Me Kinley
Answer:
MacMahon

Question 3.
Jawaharlal Nehru passed away in _________.
(a) 1944
(b) 1974
(c) 1984
(d) 1964
Answer:
(d) 1964

Question 4.
After Jawaharlal Nehru _______ became Prime Minister of India.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) Morarji Desai
Answer:
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 5.
India and Pakistan went to war over the ________ issue in 1965.
(a) Kashmir
(b) Goa
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Kashmir

Question 6.
The ______ mediated between the conflicting countries of India and Pakistan.
(a) Soviet Union
(b) USA
(c) Japan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Soviet Union
(a) Soviet Union

Question 7.
_____ gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(c) Morarji Desai
(d) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Lai Bahadur Shastri

Question 8.
Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at ______in 1966.
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kuala Lumpur
(c) Tashkent
(d) Varanasi
Answer:
(c) Tashkent

Question 9.
A Freedom Movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ______.
(a) Mukti Bahini
(b) Bangla Bahini
(c) Aamar Sonar Bangla
(d) East Bengal Front
Answer:
(a) Mukti Bahini

Question 10.
The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called _______.
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Sikkim
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 11.
India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at ______ in Rajasthan.
(a) Dispur
(b) Mannapattam
(c) Sriharikota
(d) Pokhran
Answer:
(d) Pokhran

Question 12.
The ______ High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
(a) Allahabad
(b) Bombay
(c) Delhi
(d) Panaji
Answer:
(a) Allahabad

Question 13.
The situation set against Indira Gandhi became more complicated due to the movement led by _________.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Jayprakash Narayan
(c) G. D. Agarkar
(d) Ramanand Tirth
Answer:
(b) Jayprakash Narayan

Question 14.
The period of National Emergency lasted from _______ and after that general elections were conducted.
(a) 1922-24
(b) 1984-87
(c) 1975 – 77
(d) 1987-99
Answer:
(c) 1975 – 77

Question 15.
On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the _______.
(a) Republican Party
(b) Congress Party
(c) Janata Party
(d) Samaj Party
Answer:
(c) Janata Party

Question 16.
________ became Prime Minister on behalf of the Janata Party.
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(a) Morarji Desai

Question 17.
The Sikhs in Punjab demanded an independent state of ______.
(a) Khalistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) Kazakhstan
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(a) Khalistan

Question 18.
______ had lent its support to the Khalistan movement.
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) England
(d) Baluchistan
Answer:
(b) Pakistan

Question 19.
An organisation called ________ carried on a major movement in north-east India.
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam
(b) United Communist Group
(c) United India Front
(d) United Assam Federation
Answer:
(a) United Liberation Front of Assam

Question 20.
______ laid the foundation of Indian atomic power programme.
(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) Homi Bhabha
(c) A.P.J. Kalam
(d) Vikram Sarabhai
Answer:
(b) Homi Bhabha

Question 21.
______, a terrorist organisation assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.
(a) LTTE
(b) ASEAN
(c) LTEN
(d) LTTA
Answer:
(a) LTTE

Question 22.
India wanted to acquire modernity and self-reliance by establishing _______.
(a) Nuclear reactor
(b) Industries
(c) Electricity grids
(d) Telephonic infrastructure
Answer:
(b) Industries

Question 23.
The _______ government started economic reforms from 1991.
(a) Moraq’i Desai
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Narasimha Rao
(d) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Answer:
(c) Narasimha Rao

Question 24.
In 1999, ________ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party.
(a) United Progressive Alliance
(b) League of Indian Politics
(c) India’s Administrative Assemblage
(d) National Democratic Alliance
Answer:
(d) National Democratic Alliance

Question 25.
________ is known as the father of the White Revolution.
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien
(b) Dr. Dayaram Sahni
(c) Dr. Homi Bhabha
(d) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
Answer:
(a) Dr. Verghese Kurien

Question 26.
In 1975, the first satellite, ________ was launched by India.
(a) Sputnik 1
(b) Apollo 1
(c) Aryabhatta
(d) Agni
Answer:
(c) Aryabhatta

Question 27.
The _________ Commission was set up in 1953 to make recommendations, so as to improve condition of the lower castes.
(a) Ganesh Agarkar
(b) Appasaheb Mayekar
(c) Tarabai Shinde
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar
Answer:
(d) Kakasaheb Kalelkar

Write Short Notes on:

Question 1.
Atomic Energy and Space Research.
Answer:
(i) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(ii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iii) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(iv) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme. India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Explain the statements with reason:

Question 1.
Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields.
Answer:
(i) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres.
(ii) India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology.
(iv) Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(v) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(vi) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians, especially the youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 2.
There were several major changes in the social field in India for upliftment of women.
Answer:
(i) To promote the all-round development of women and children many constructive steps were taken.
(ii) A separate ‘Department of Women and. Child Development’ was created in 1985 under the Ministry of Human Resource Development.
(iii) Some laws were made to ensure social justice to women and to help the implementation of various schemes in this direction.
(iv) They include the Prohibition of Dowry Act, Equal Remuneration Act. As per the 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments, seats are reserved for women in the local self¬government bodies.

Read the passage and answer the questions.

As a part of India’s policy to use atomic energy for peaceful purposes, India successfully carried out an underground test of an atomic device at Pokharan in Rajasthan in 1974. In 1975, the people of Sikkim voted for joining the Indian republic and Sikkim became a full-fledged State in the Indian federation. During this decade, the political situation in India grew unstable. The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974 that Indira Gandhi; the then Prime Minister had misused the government machinery during her election campaign. It led to nationwide strikes and protest. During this period, the situation became more complicated due to the movement led by Jayprakash Narayan. The situation of law and order in the country worsened and the government declared a state of National Emergency on the basis of the constitutional provisions relating to Emergency. During this turbulent period, the fundamental rights of Indian citizens were suspended. Due to the emergency, the Indian administration became disciplined, but the human rights were restricted. The period of national emergency lasted from 1975 to 1977 and after that general elections were conducted. On the backdrop of the emergency, many opposition parties came together and formed a party called the Janata Party. The Congress party led by Indira Gandhi was roundly defeated by this newly formed ‘Janata Party’. Morarji Desai became the Prime Minister, but under his leadership the Janata Party government couldn’t last long due to internal differences. Charan Singh succeeded him, but even his government was a short-lived one. Elections were conducted once again in 1980 and the Congress party under the leadership of Indira Gandhi came to power again.

Question 1.
Enlist incidents that culminated in Indira Gandhi’s rise to power post the verdict of Allahabad High Court.
Answer:
Following incidents paved the way of Indira Gandhi back to power:

• Allahabad High Court verdict against Indira Gandhi
• Nation – wide strikes and protest led by Jai Prakash Narayan
• Imposition of National Emergency (1975-77) fundamental rights suspended
• Opposition parties came together to form Janata Party.
• Short lived governments of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh.
• Elections conducted in 1980 – Congress back to power.

Question 2.
Which state became a constituent state of India in 1975?
Answer:
Sikkim voted to join the Indian Republic and it became a full – fledged state of Indian Republic in 1975.

Question 3.
Why do you think India conducted a nuclear test in Pokhran in 1974?
Answer:
India conducted Nuclear tests for two reasons:
(i) to keep Pakistan’s aggression under check post 1971 war.
(ii) To initiate peaceful and constructive use of atomic energy.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What were the contributions of Lai Bahadur Shastri?
Answer:
(i) Lai Bahadur Shastri succeeded Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru and became the next Prime Minister of India.
(ii) During his tenure, India and Pakistan went to war over the Kashmir issue in 1965.
(iii) The Soviet Union tried to mediate between the two countries.
(iv) Lai Bahadur Shastri gave the slogan ‘Jai Jawan Jai Kisan’ with which he highlighted the importance of Indian soldiers and Indian farmers.
(v) Lai Bahadur Shastri breathed his last at Tashkent in 1966.

Question 2.
Write a note on Rajiv Gandhi.
Answer:
(i) Right after Indira Gandhi’s assassination in 1984, Rajiv Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India.
(ii) He tried to make several reforms in the field of Indian economy and that of science and technology.
(iii) He took the lead in solving the issues of the Tamil minority in Sri Lanka. He promoted the idea of a united Sri Lanka with internal autonomy to the Tamil community, but his efforts in this regard proved to be in vain.
(iv) He faced a lot of criticism in the context of corruption that took place during a defence equipment deal, especially the purchase of long-range canons from a foreign company called Bofors.
(v) Political corruption became a crucial issue in the general elections that followed and the Congress party was defeated.
(vi) In 1991, during the election campaign, the terrorist organisation in Sri Lanka, Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), assassinated Rajiv Gandhi.

Question 3.
Write a note on Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Answer:
(i) In 1999 the ‘National Democratic Alliance’ came to power under the flag of Bharatiya Janata Party and Atal Bihari Vajpayee became India’s Prime Minister (1998-2004).
(ii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee tried to establish a dialogue with Pakistan but was not successful.
(iii) India conducted a number of nuclear tests in 1998 and declared herself as an atomic power.
(iv) In 1999, there was another war between India and Pakistan in Kargil region over the Kashmir issue
(v) India defeated Pakistan in this war as well.

Question 4.
What is economic liberalisation? What are its benefits?
Answer:
(i) The Narasimha Rao Government started economic reforms from 1991. These economic reforms are known as economic liberalisation.
(ii) The Indian economy flourished as a result of the implementation of this policy.
(iii) The foreign investment in India increased. Skilled Indian professionals helped reform the Indian economy.
(iv) The field of information technology opened several avenues of employment in the country.
(v) The changes after 1991 are also described as ‘globalisation’.

Question 5.
What do you mean by
(i) Green Revolution and
(ii) White revolution?
Answer:
(i) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in 1965. He implemented new scientific agricultural techniques and increased the production of foodgrains.
(ii) The experiment in co-operative dairy movement by Dr. Verghese Kurien led to increase of milk production in India. This is called as ‘White Revolution’.

Question 6.
What is the progress of India in the fields of atomic energy and space research?
Answer:
(i) India had also made a lot of progress in the fields of atomic energy and space research.
(ii) Dr. Homi Bhabha laid the foundation of the Indian atomic power programme.
(iii) India insisted on using atomic energy for peaceful purposes like generation of electricity, pharmaceuticals and defence.
(iv) India has achieved considerable success in space technology as well. In 1975, the first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched.
(v) Today, India has a successful space programme and many satellites have been launched under this programme.
(vi) India has also made considerable advancement in the telecom sector.

Question 7.
Describe the changes in India due to globalisation.
Answer:
(i) Globalisation brought about many changes in different fields like economy, politics, science and technology and society and culture.
(ii) India has emerged as an important country on the global scene in different spheres. India is an important member of international organisations like G-20 and ‘BRICS’ (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa).
(iii) India has experienced an important revolution in the field of telecommunication technology. Mobile phones, internet and the communication facilities based on satellite have spread all across the country.
(iv) In the political field, India has demonstrated to the world how a stable democracy can function successfully.
(v) All this has resulted in a total transformation in the lifestyle of Indians and especially the
youth. These changes are visible from their dietary habits, clothing, language and beliefs.

Question 8.
How was an independent country of Bangladesh created?
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in 1966.
(ii) During her tenure, Pakistan’s oppressive I policies in East Pakistan resulted in a big movement there. This movement was led by Sheikh Mujibur Rahman and his organisation, ‘Mukti Bahini.’
(iii) This crisis in East Pakistan affected India as well, because millions of refugees came to India.
(iv) The 1971 war between India and Pakistan led to the creation of an independent country called Bangladesh.

Question 9.
What policies were made to uplift the deprived sections of the society?
Answer:
(i) The ‘Kakasaheb Kalelkar Commission’ was set up in 1953 to make recommendations so as to improve their condition.
(ii) In 1978, a Commission was constituted under the chairmanship of B. P. Mandal to study the issue of the backward classes.
(iii) The policy of reservation was adopted in order to strengthen the representation of backward sections in various services and institutions.
(iv) The Government passed the Prevention of Atrocities Act in 1989 to enable those belonging to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes to live with dignity and respect, free from fear, violence and oppression of the upper classes.

Question 10.
Identify the picture and give relevant information.

Indira Gandhi became the Prime Minister of India in the year 1966.
Indira Gandhi’s strong leadership was prominent in the war between India and Pakistan in 1971.
The first atomic test at Pokharan was carried out under her leadership.
The Allahabad High Court gave the verdict in 1974, that Indira Gandhi had misused the government machinery during her election campaign.
She declared a’state of National Emergency in 1975.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick the correct box according to the salinity of the ocean water ✓

Answer:
(a) Low
(b) Low
(c) High
(d) High
(e) Low
(f) High.

2. Give reasons.

(a) Salinity is low in the land-locked Baltic Sea.
Answer:

• The Baltic Sea lies in the temperate region.
• In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower.
• The supply of fresh water is also more, as numerous rivers empty their waters into the Baltic sea.
• Therefore, in spite of being landlocked, due to low rate of evaporation and ample supply of fresh water, the salinity of the Baltic Sea is low.

(b) There is higher salinity in the northern Red Sea while lower in the southern.
Answer:

• The Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water in the world, owing to high evaporation.
• The salinity is 36%o in the southern part because of the effect of the Gulf of Aden.
• It reaches 41 %o in the northern part, owing mainly to the Gulf of Suez and the high evaporation as well as very little precipitation.
• Hence, there is more salinity in the northern Red Sea while lesser in the south.

(c) Oceans located at the same latitude do not have same salinity.
Answer:

• The salinity of the oceans depends on factors like rate of evaporation and supply of fresh water.
• In Oceans where rate of evaporation is more than the supply of fresh water, the salinity is higher.
• In Oceans where supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in areas where supply of freshwater and the evaporation of water is low.
• Thus, oceans located on the same latitude do not have the same salinity.

(d) With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit.
Answer:
With increasing depth, the temperature of sea water decreases to a certain limit because –

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.

(e) There are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its eastern coast.
Answer:

• The Arabian Sea lies lying to the west and Bay of Bengal lies to the east of India.
• Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary, only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian Sea.
• Hence, the salinity of the eastern coast is 34%, while it is 35% in the Arabian Sea.
• Thus, there are more salt-pans on the Western coast of India than its Eastern coast.

(f) Salinity increases in the mid-latitudinal zones.
Answer:

• Mid-latitudinal zones lies between 25° to 35° north and south of the equator.
• In this zone, the rainfall is less and the supply of fresh water from rivers is also low.
• This region experiences high-temperature conditions which are marked by the presence of hot deserts of the world. These high-temperature conditions lead to a high rate of evaporation.
• Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher in mid-latitudinal zones.

3. Answer the following questions.

(a) What are the factors affecting the salinity of the sea water?
Answer:

1. The uneven distribution of temperature on earth and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of seawater.
2. In the tropical zone, temperature is higher. Rate of evaporation is also higher and therefore, the salinity is higher.
3. Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
4. Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea. Therefore, supply of freshwater is abundant, too. But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.
5. In mid-latitudinal zones (25° to 35° N and S), rainfall is lesser and the supply of freshwater from rivers is also low. This zone has the hot deserts of the world. Thus, the salinity of the seas is found to be higher here.
6. In temperate regions, the sunrays are slanting and therefore, the temperatures are lower. Because of the melting of the snow, the supply of water is also more, and therefore, in this zone, salinity decreases with increasing latitudes.
7. In the polar areas, temperatures are very low. Evaporation is also very less in polar areas. So, salinity is low.
8. Landlocked seas have higher salinity than open seas as the rate of evaporation is more. There is a lack of supply of fresh water from large rivers. Thus, there is a difference in the salinities of open and closed seas.

(b) Explain the distribution of salinity around the Tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn.
Answer:

• The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater affects the salinity of sea water.
• Region, between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn is called as the Tropical zone.
• In the tropical zone, temperature is higher.
• Hence, the rate of evaporation is also higher, and therefore, salinity is higher.

(c) What are the factors affecting the temperature of the sea water?
Answer:

1. Temperature is a major property of the sea water.
2. Sea water upto the depth of 500m is called as surface water. The surface temperature of the sea water is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors. .
3. Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
4. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, while it is about 2° C near the poles.
5. Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convectional currents, and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
6. Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less, while the regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

(d) Explain the changes occurring in the temperature of sea water according to the depth.
Answer:

• While most of the sunrays radiate back from the surface of the sea, some of them penetrate to certain depths in the water.
• As a result, the intensity of sunrays decreases with the increasing depth.
• The temperature decreases up to 2000m depth.
• After 2000m, the temperature of the seawater is uniform everywhere.
• It is around 4°C everywhere from the equatorial regions to the polar areas.
• Temperature reduces only up to 4° C according to depth, and therefore, the water at greater depths does not freeze.
• The temperature of the seawater changes rapidly with depth at the equatorial areas. The difference in temperature is lesser in polar areas.
• There is also a difference in open seas and landlocked seas. In low latitudes, because the salinity of the landlocked seas is more, the temperature of the landlocked seas is higher than the open seas.

(e) Name the factors affecting salinity.
Answer:
Due to the sun’s heat, evaporation happens at a faster rate. Evaporated water turns into water vapour and reduces in quantity. But amount of salt remains the same in the remaining water and therefore the salinity of water increases.

• In seas where the rate of evaporation is high than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
• In seas where the supply of freshwater exceeds the rate of evaporation, salinity is low.
• Salinity is not affected much in seas where both the supply of freshwater and evaporation of water is low.

4. Explain how temperature affects the following.

(a) the density of sea water
Answer:

• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Hence, cold water is denser than hot water.

(b) the salinity of sea water
Answer:

• If the salinity of water is high, the density of water increases.

Activity:

Complete the table showing the salinity of open and land-locked seas.

Answer:

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the following Map and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the salinity around the tropics?
Answer:
The salinity around the tropics is 36%o.

Question 2.
Which region has the least salinity?
Answer:
The Bay of Bengal has the least salinity of 32%o.

Question 3.
Which ocean has salinity more than 37%o?
Answer:
Atlantic ocean has salinity of more than 37%o.

Question 4.
What are the reasons of differences in salinity on a global level?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of temperature on earth, and uneven supply of freshwater, etc. are the reasons for differences in salinity on a global level.

Observe the Graph and answer the questions:

Question 1.
What is the maximum temperature of seawater in equatorial areas? How much is this temperature at a depth of 500 m?
Answer:
The maximum temperature of sea water in equatorial areas is 18° C. The temperature at the depth of 500 m is 11° C.

Question 2.
What is the temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes?
Answer:
The temperature of seawater at the sea level in the mid-latitudes is 14° C approximately.

Question 3.
How much has this temperature changed at 1500 m depth?
Answer:
The temperature is about 5° C at the depth of 1500 m. Thus the temperature of sea water at mid-latitudes has changed from 14°C at the sea level to about 5°C at the depth of 1500 m i.e. temperature has changed (reduced) by 9°C.

Question 4.
What does the thermal graph for the high latitude say? What is its temperature at 500, 1000 and 1500 m depths?
Answer:
In high latitudes the temperature of sea water at all depths remains constant at 4° C.

Question 5.
After what depth does the seawater temperature remain stable everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000 m, the temperature of the sea water is uniform everywhere.

Question 6.
With increasing depth, what decreases: temperature, salinity or density?
Answer:
Temperature and salinity decreases with increasing depth.

Question 7.
After what depth does the change in these factor become almost zero?
Answer:
After the depth of 1000 m there is no change in all these factors.

Question 8.
Till what depth is the change in these factors higher?
Answer:
The higher change can be seen up to a depth of about 500m.

Question 9.
Explain the correlation between all the three factors.
Answer:
If the temperature is less, density is more. If the salinity is less, then density is also less. However temperature affects the density more as compared to the salinity. If the temperature is less, then the density is more despite less salinity.

Let’s Recall.

Question 1.
Which is the largest water storage of the world?
Answer:
Oceans are the largest water storage of the world.

Question 2.
Why is the seawater salty?
Answer:

• Salt in the ocean comes from rocks on land.
• Rivers carry dissolved salts to the ocean.
• Water evaporates from the oceans to fall again as rain and to feed the rivers, but the salts remain in the ocean.

Question 3.
What are the reasons for high salinity in the oceans?
Answer:
High rate of evaporation and low supply of fresh water leads to high salinity in the oceans:

Question 4.
How can we obtain the salts from the ocean water?
Answer:

• Sea water contains a large amount of common salt and the salts of other metals dissolved in it.
• Near the sea-shore, the sea water is collected in shallow pits (salt pans) and allowed to evaporate in the sunshine.
• In a few days, the water evaporates, leaving behind salt.
• The salt so obtained is collected and transported to factories, where it is purified and packed for consumption.

Question 5.
What is the use of the salts in the oceans to us?
Answer:

• The salts is used in the food we eat.
• It is used for making various chemicals and medicines.
• Salt is also used to preserve things for longer periods. It is also used in ice factories.

Can You Tell?

Question 1.
What is the difference in the temperatures of the land and the sea?
Answer:
During the daytime land is hotter than the sea whereas, during the night time land is cooler than the sea.

Question 2.
What would be the difference in the temperature of the seawater from the equatorial region to the polar areas?
Answer:
Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles. The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C while it is about 2° C near the poles.

Think about it.

Question 1.
If you think about India there is the Arabian sea to the west and the Bay of Bengal to the east. The salinity of the eastern coast is 34%o while it is 35%o in the Arabian sea. What could be the reason of higher salinity in the western coastal region?
Answer:
Many large peninsular rivers drain their waters in the Bay of Bengal and on the contrary only small seasonal coastal rivers drain in the Arabian sea. Hence the salinity of Arabian sea is more than the Bay of Bengal.

Try this.

Question 1.
In which container has the water increased or decreased?
Answer:

• The water has increased in the container which is in the classroom in which freshwater was added.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept in the sun outside.

Question 2.
What could be the reasons behind the decrease or increase?
Answer:

• Since freshwater was added to one of the containers in the classroom the water level increased.
• The water has decreased in the container which was kept outside in the sun due to evaporation.

Question 3.
What could be the reason behind the low and high salinity of the water in the container?
Answer:

• In the container which as kept outside in the sun, due to high rate of evaporation, the salinity is high.
• As we kept on adding fresh water to the container kept in the classroom the salinity is low.

Class 9 Geography Chapter 6 Properties of Sea Water Additional Important Questions and Answers

Select the correct option:

Question 1.
The average temperature in equatorial areas is
(a) 25° C
(b) 35° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(a) 25°C

Question 2.
The average temperature in mid-latitudes is
(a) 25° C
(b) 10° C
(c) 16° C
(d) 5° C
Answer:
(c) 16°C

Question 3.
The average temperature near poles is about
(a) 10° C
(b) 20° C
(c) 15° C
(d) 2° C
Answer:
(d) 2°C

Question 4.
With the increasing depth of sea, the intensity of sunrays
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) is uneven
Answer:
(b) decreases

Question 5.
Seawater upto the depth of 500m is called
(a) ground water
(b) surface water
(c) deep water
(d) saline water
Answer:
(b) surface water

Question 6.
ocean is the most saline ocean in the world.
(a) Pacific
(b) Arctic
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(d) Atlantic

Question 7.
The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of %o.
(a) 37
(b) 50
(c) 256
(d) 332
Answer:
(d) 332

Question 8.
The buoyancy of the sea water increases because of its
(a) evaporation
(b) salinity
(c) density
(d) high temperature
Answer:
(b) salinity

Question 9.
has an altitude of – 400m.
(a) Baltic Sea
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Dead Sea
(d) the Mediterranean Sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 10.
act as temperature controllers at a global level.
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Sea breeze
(c) Land breeze
(d) Trade winds
Answer:
(a) Ocean currents

Question 11.
is a major porperty of the sea water.
(a) Temperature
(b) Uniform salinity
(c) Buoyancy
(d) Equal Density
Answer:
(a) Temperature

Question 12.
have higher salinity than open seas.
(a) Equatorial seas
(b) Landlocked seas
(c) Freshwater lakes
(d) Seas in polar regions
Answer:
(b) landlocked seas

Question 13.
Temperature decreases upto depth.
(a) 500 m
(b) 1000 m
(c) 1500 m
(d) 2000 m
Answer:
(d) 2000m

Question 14.
In regions where cold currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is
(a) high
(b) less
(c) uniform
(d) uneven
Answer:
(b) less

Question 15.
Temperature of seawater changes rapidly with depth in areas.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(a) equatorial

Question 16.
In seas where the rate of evaporation is than the supply of fresh water, salinity is high.
(a) less
(b) high
(c) same
(d) low
Answer:
(b) high

Question 17.
The salinity of Bay of Bengal is than that of Arabian sea.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) same
(d) equal
Answer:
(a) less

Question 18.
In areas the salinity of sea water is low.
(a) equatorial
(b) mid-latitudinal
(c) temperate
(d) polar
Answer:
(d) polar

Question 19.
The salinity of Battic sea is %.
(a) 332
(b) 32
(c) 37
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Match the Column:

Column A	Column B
(1) Equatorial areas (2) Mid-latitudinal areas (3) Temperate regions	(a) Salinity of 332%o (b) Slanting sunrays, melting of snow (c) Cloudy sky and convectional rainfall (d) Hot deserts

Answer:
(1-c),
(2- d),
(3 – b)

Answer in one sentence:

Question 1.
What is the major property of seawater?
Answer:
Temperature is a major property of seawater.

Question 2.
What is the average surface temperature of seawater in equatorial areas, mid-latitudes & poles?
Answer:
The average surface temperature of seawater is equatorial areas is around 25°C in mid-latitude it is around 16°C & 2°C near the poles.

Question 3.
After what depth is the seawater temperature uniform everywhere?
Answer:
After 2000m, the temperature of seawater is uniform everywhere

Question 4.
Name the instruments used to measure salinity?
Answer:
Hydrometer, Refractometer and salinometer are used to measure salinity.

Question 5.
Which is the most saline ocean?
Answer:
The Atlantic ocean is the most saline ocean.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
The climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.
Answer:

• The ocean currents are generated because of the difference in the properties of seawater.
• They act as temperature controllers at the global level.
• The distribution of temperature gets controlled due to the ocean currents.
• Thus, the climate of the earth gets affected by ocean currents.

Question 2.
Dead Sea has a salinity of 332%0.
Answer:

• The sea lying on the border of Israel and Jordan has a salinity of 332%0.
• The average salinity of ocean is 35%o.
• Jordan is the only large river meeting this sea.
• Low rainfall, low supply of freshwater and high evaporation is the reason of high salinity.

Question 3.
The surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.
Answer:

• The surface temperature of sea water is not uniform everywhere and it changes with latitudes.
• The surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• The average temperature in equatorial areas is around 25° C, it is 16° C in mid-latitudes while it is about 2° C near the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow, seasons, etc. also affect the surface temperature.
• Thus the surface temperature of the sea is not uniform everywhere.

Question 4.
The seas in equatorial calm belt are more saline.
Answer:

• Around 5° N and S of the equator, in the equatorial calm belt, the sky is cloudy for a long period of time and convectional rainfall occurs every day.
• Large rivers like Congo and Amazon in the equatorial regions meet the sea.
• Therefore, supply of freshwater abundant too.
• But because of higher temperatures, rate of evaporation is more and therefore, the seas in these areas are more saline.

Explain

Question 1.
Factors affecting surface water temperature
Answer:

• Temperature is a major property of the seawater. The surface temperature of the seawater is not uniform everywhere. This is dependent on different factors.
• Latitudinally, the surface temperature of the seawater decreases from the equatorial areas towards the poles.
• Besides this, cyclones, rainfall, sea waves, ocean currents, salinity, pollution, convergence flow and seasons also affect the surface temperature.
• Regions where cold ocean currents flow, the surface temperature of ocean water is less. The regions where the warm currents move, the temperature increase.

Question 2.
Density of sea water
Answer:

• Temperature and salinity are the two properties of sea water that control the density of the sea water.
• If temperature reduces, density of water increases.
• Cold water is denser, and so is saline water.
• As compared to salinity, temperature affects the density more. Hence, sometimes, more saline water has lower temperature at the surface.
• Sea water having higher temperature and low salinity, can have lower density.

Question 3.
Measurement of salinity of sea water.
Answer:

• The weight of all dissolved salts in water in ratio of parts per thousand of water is called the salinity of seawater.
• For example, if the weight of dissolved salts in 1000g (1 kg) of seawater is 40g, then the salinity is 40%o i.e. 40 per thousand parts.
• Hydrometer, refractometer and salinometer are also used to measure salinity.

Question 4.
Factors affecting salinity of sea water.
Answer:

Latitudes	Temperature / Rate of evaporation	Supply of fresh water	Salinity
Tropical Zone 5°N – 5°Sof equator	High	Abundant from (River Congo / Amazon)	High
Mid­latitudes (25° – 35° N and S)	High (hot desert are found here)	low	High
Temperate regions	Temperature is lower due to slanting sunrays	The supply of water is more due to melting snow	low
Polar regions	Very low	low	low

 

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 18 Observing Space: Telescopes Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 18 Observing Space: Telescopes

Class 9 Science Chapter 18 Observing Space: Telescopes Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blanks with the proper words.

a. The wavelength of visible light is between …………………..….. and …………………..…. .
b. GMRT is used for …………………..….. waves.
c. A certain X-ray telescope is named after scientist …………………..…. .
d. The first scientist to use a telescope for space observations …………………..…. .
e. The biggest optical telescope in India is situated at …………………..…. .

2. Form pairs

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) X-rays	(a) GMRT
(2) Optical telescope	(b) ISRO
(3) Indian radio telescope	(c) Hubble
(4) Launching artificial-satellite	(d) Chandra

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – c),
(3 – a),
(4 – b),

3. What are the difficulties in using ground-based optical telescopes? How are they overcome?
Answer:
Difficulties:

• The intensity of visible light coming from a heavenly body decreases due to absorption as it passes through the Earth’s atmosphere.
• Due to changes in atmospheric temperature and pressure light rays change their path.
• Because of sunlight, we cannot use optical telescopes during the day.
• During the night, city lights and cloudy weather cause difficulties.

Solution:

• To reduce these problems, optical telescopes are situated on top of mountains, in uninhabited places.
• To get rid of all the above problems completely, the telescope is placed above the earth’s atmosphere, in space.

4. Which type of telescopes can be made using a concave mirror, convex mirror, plane mirror, and a lens? Draw diagrams of these telescopes.
Answer:

• A Newtonian telescope can be made using a concave mirror, plane mirror and a lens.
  
• A Cassegrain telescope can be made using a convex mirror, concave mirror and a lens.
  
• A refracting telescope can be made using two or more lenses.
  

5. Study the figure and answer the following questions:

a. What type of telescope is shown in the figure?
b. Label the main parts of the telescope.
c. Which type of mirror does the telescope use?
d. What other type of telescope uses a curved mirror?
e. Explain the working of the above telescope.
Answer:
(a) The Newtonian telescope (Reflecting telescope)
(b)

(c) Concave mirror
(d) The Cassegrain telescope
(e) Working.

• Light rays coming from space are reflected by the concave mirror.
• Before these reflected rays converge at the focus, they are deflected again by a small plane mirror.
• As a result, they get focused at a point lying on the perpendicular to the axis of the telescope’s cylinder.
• They pass through the eyepiece and we get a magnified image of the source.

6. Answer the following questions.

a. Explain the construction of Galileo’s telescope.
Answer:

• The Galileo’s telescope is made up of two or more convex lenses.
• The lens facing the object is called the objective lens which is made as large as possible to collect the maximum amount of light coming from a heavenly object.
• The lens closer to the eye is called the eyepiece which uses the light collected by the objective lens and produces a large image of the source.
• Such a telescope is also called a refracting telescope.

b. Explain the construction of a radio telescope.
Answer:

• The radio telescope is made from one or more dishes of a particular parabolic shape.
• As in optical telescope, the incident radio waves are reflected by these dishes and converge at the focus.
  
• A radio receiver is placed at the focal point.
• The information gathered by this receiver is passed on to a computer which analyses it and constructs an image of the source.

c. Why are optical telescopes located in uninhabited places on mountains?
Answer:

• The visible light coming from a heavenly body has to pass through the earth’s atmosphere to reach the earth’s surface.
• During this journey, some of the light is absorbed by the atmosphere and the intensity of the light reaching the earth’s surface decreases.
• A second problem is caused by the changes in atmospheric pressure and temperature.
• These changes cause turbulence in the atmosphere which in turn cause the light rays to change their path slightly and thereby shake the position of the image.
• We cannot use optical telescope during the day. because of sunlight also.
• During the night too, city lights and cloudy weather can cause difficulties in observing the heavenly bodies.
• Hence, optical telescopes are located in uninhabited places on mountains.

d. Why can an X-ray telescope not be based on the earth?
Answer:

• X-rays are emitted from distant heavenly bodies.
• The rays coming towards the earth will be absorbed by the earth’s atmosphere and will go undetected.
• Hence, X-ray telescopes are placed in an orbit outside the earth’s atmosphere and not on the earth.

Class 9 Science Chapter 18 Observing Space: Telescopes Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by space observation? Why is it important?
Answer:
The observation of distant planets, galaxies and other astronomical objects is called as space observation.

• Various space based satellites support our telecommunication networks by providing us television broadcasting.
• Meteorology services such as weather forecasting help in disaster management.
• Observation of positions of stars and other heavenly bodies has helped in the study of solar system, solar winds, pulsars, supernova, etc.

Question 2.
What is the difference between sky and space?
Answer:
Sky: It is a layer of gas that surrounds the earth in which sunlight is scattered making it visible from the surface of the earth.
Space: The vast emptiness beyond the sky is called as space.

Class 9 Science Chapter 18 Observing Space: Telescopes Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose and write the correct options:

Question 1.
The first telescope was invented by
(a) Einstein
(b) Galileo
(c) Newton
(d) Mendel
Answer:
(b) Galileo

Question 2.
Eight is an wave.
(a) electric
(b) magnetic
(c) electromagnetic
(d) mechanical
Answer:
(c) electromagnetic

Question 3.
Visible radiation telescopes are also called as
(a) Gamma Ray telescopes
(b) Optical telescopes
(c) X-ray telescopes
(d) Radio telescopes
Answer:
(b) Optical telescope

Question 4.
Reflecting telescopes are mainly of two types : ……………….. and ………………. .
(a) Newtonian and Galileoan
(b) Optical and Cassegrain
(c) Newtonian and Cassegrain
(d) Optical and Refracting
Answer:
(c) Newtonian and cassegrain

Question 5.
Giant Meterwave Radio Telescope (GMRT) has been erected at near Pune.
(a) Asangaon
(b) Talegaon
(c) Narayangaon
(d) Bhategaon
Answer:
(c) Narayangaon

Question 6.
Visible light coming from heavenly bodies have to pass through the to reach the earth surface.
(a) stratosphere
(b) troposphere
(c) atmosphere
(d) biosphere
Answer:
(c) atmosphere

Question 7.
To collect the maximum amount of light coming from an object, the objective lens should be made as as possible.
(a) large
(b) small
(c) circular
(d) flat
Answer:
(a) large

Question 8.
The images formed by lenses have errors of colours. This is called
(a) chromatic disruption
(b) chromatic aberration
(c) chromatic reflection
(d) chromatic reaction
Answer:
(b) chromatic aberration

Question 9.
Radio telescope is made up of one or more dishes of shape.
(a) spherical
(b) hyperbolic
(c) parabolic
(d) hexagonal
Answer:
(c) parabolic

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) X-rays	(a) GMRT
(2) Optical telescope	(b) ISRO
(3) Indian radio telescope	(c) Hubble
(4) Launching artificial satellite	(d) Chandra
(5) Radio waves	(e) telecommunication
(6) INSAT and GSAT	(f) longer than 20cm

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – c),
(3 – a),
(4 – b),
(5 – f),
(6- e)

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Micro waves (2) Infrared waves (3) Visible light rays (4) Ultraviolet rays (5) X-rays	(a) 800 nm – 0.3mm (b) 360 pm – 400 nm (c) 3 pm – 300 pm (d) 400 nm – 800nm (e) 0.3 mm -20cm

Answer:
(1 – e),
(2 – a),
(3 – d),
(4 – b),
(5 – c)

Define the following:

Question 1.
Visible radiation
Answer:
Light is an electromagnetic wave. Every wave has a characteristic wavelength. Our eyes can see only that light which has wavelengths between 400 nm to 800 nm. Such light is called visible radiation.

Question 2.
Reflecting Telescope
Answer:
When light falls on the mirror, it gets reflected. Telescopes that use concave mirrors are called reflecting telescope.

Question 3.
Optical telescopes
Answer:
Telescopes which are made from regular lenses and mirrors and used to see visible radiations coming from space are called optical telescopes.

Question 4.
Refracting Telescopes
Answer:
Light rays change their direction as they enter a lens from the atmosphere and again when they enter the atmosphere after passing through the lens. This is called refraction. The telescopes that use such lenses are called refracting telescopes.

Question 5.
Radio telescopes
Answer:
Many heavenly bodies emit radio waves in addition to visible radiation. A special type of telescope which is used to receive these rays are known as radio telescope.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
How do refracting telescopes work?
Answer:

• Most refracting telescopes are made with two or more lenses.
• The two lenses are called objective lens and an eyepiece lens.
• The objective lens should be large so that maximum light can be collected from the source.
• Using the light collected, the eyepiece lens which is small in size, produces a large image of the source.

Question 2.
What are the difficulties in using refracting telescopes?
Answer:

• We require a large objective lens which is very difficult to make. Also large lenses are heavy and tend to get distorted.
• As the objective and eyepiece lens are placed on the opposite sides of the telescope, the length of the telescope also increases with increase in the size of the lenses. This makes it difficult to manage a large telescope.
• The images formed by lenses have errors of colours. This is called chromatic aberration.

Question 3.
How does a radio telescope work?
Answer:

• A radio telescope is made from one or more dishes of a particular parabolic shape.
• The incident radio waves are reflected by these dishes and converge at a focus.
• A radio receiver is placed at focal point.
• The information gathered by this receiver is then passed onto a computer which analyses and constructs the image of the source.

Question 4.
What are the two types of reflecting telescopes?
Answer:

• The reflecting telescopes are mainly of two types: Newtonian and Cassegrain.
• The newtonian telescope uses a plane mirror and a concave mirror.
• The Cassegrain telescope uses a convex and a concave mirror.

Question 5.
What is the purpose of launching X-Ray telescope Chandra?
Answer:
Chandra was launched to study X-rays coming from heavenly objects. Special mirrors which . can reflect X-rays were used in this telescope.

Answer the following:

Question 1.
State some of the satellites and their uses.
Answer:

• The INSAT and GSAT series of satellites support our telecommunication network, television broadcasting and meteorological services.
• It is because of them that telephone, television and internet services are available everywhere in the country.
• The EDUSAT satellite is used exclusively for education.
• The IRS satellite series is used for the monitoring and management of natural resources as well as disaster management.
• Astrosat: It has ultraviolet and X-ray telescopes and detectors. It is a unique system having different kinds of telescopes on a single satellite.

Question 2.
What is the specialty of the artificial satellite Astrosat?
Answer:

• This satellite was launched by Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO).
• It has ultraviolet and X-ray telescopes and detectors. Most of the parts used in this satellite are made in India.
• It is an unique system having different kinds of telescopes on a single satellite. Indian scientists are studying various aspects of the Universe using the data obtained with these telescopes.

Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain any two space observation telescope.
Answer:
Hubble Telescope:

• In 1990, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration launched into space an optical telescope called the Hubble telescope.
• It has a mirror of diameter 94 inches and is orbiting the earth at a height of 589 km from it.
• This telescope is still working and has helped to make important discoveries.

Chandra Telescope:

• In 1999, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration launched an X-ray telescope named Chandra, in space, to study X-rays coming from heavenly objects.
• Special mirrors which can reflect X-rays were used in this telescope.
• Chandra has given us very useful information about stars and galaxies.
• The telescope is named after the famous Indian scientist Subramanian Chandrashekhar.

Question 2.
Write short note : GMRT
Answer:

• Giant Meterwave Radio Telescope (GMRT) is a large radio telescope erected at Narayangaon near Pune.
• It uses radio waves having wavelengths of about a metre, coming from heavenly bodies to study those bodies. This telescope is actually a collection of 30 dishes, each having a diameter of 45 m.
• It is called a giant telescope as the arrangement of the 30 dishes over an area which measures up to 25 km across. It works as a single dish having a diameter of 25 km.
• GMRT gives the same data that we would have got from a telescope having a single dish of 25 km diameter.
• Scientists study the solar system, solar winds, pulsars, supernova, interstellar hydrogen clouds, etc. with the help of the GMRT.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 17 Introduction to Biotechnology Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 17 Introduction to Biotechnology

Class 9 Science Chapter 17 Introduction to Biotechnology Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Each of the following statements is wrong. Rewrite them correctly by changing either one or two words.

a. Simple squamous epithelium is present in the respiratory tract.
b. Glandular epithelium is present in kidneys.
c. Chlorenchyma helps the plant to float in water.
d. Striated muscles are also called involuntary muscles.
e. Chloroplast is present in permanent tissue.
Answer:
a. False. Ciliated columnar epithelium is present in respiratory tract.
b. False. Cuboidal epithelium is present in kidneys.
c. False. Aerenchyma helps the plant to float in water.
d. False. Striated muscles are also called voluntary muscles.
e. False. Chlorenchyma is present in permanent tissue.

2. Identify the odd word and explain why it is odd.

a. Xylem, phloem, permanent tissue, meristematic tissue.
Answer:
Meristematic tissue. It has the ability to divide whereas the others have lost the ability to divide.

b. Epithelium, Muscle fibre, nerve fibre, the epidermis.
Answer:
Epidermis. It is a plant tissue whereas the others are animal tissues.

c. Cartilage, bone, tendon, cardiac muscle.
Answer:
Cardiac muscle. It is a muscular tissue whereas the others are connective tissues.

3. Write the names of the following tissues.

a. Tissue lining inner surface of mouth.
Answer:
Squamous epithelium.

b. Tissue joining muscles and bones.
Answer:
Tendon

c. Tissue responsible for increasing height of plants.
Answer:
Apical meristem.

d. Tissue responsible for increasing girth of stem.
Answer:
Lateral meristem.

4. Write the differences.
Simple tissue and complex tissues in plants.
Answer:

Simple Tissue in plants	Complex Tissues in plants
(i) They are made up of only one type of cells.	(i) They are made up of more than one type of cells.
(ii) They are found in all parts of the plant.	(ii) They are found in the vascular regions of the plant.
(iii) They perform different functions like storage	(iii) They mainly perform the function of
of food, support, giving strength etc.	conduction of water and food.
(iv) Examples – Parenchyma, Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma.	(iv) Example – Xylem and phloem.

5. Write short notes.

a. Meristematic tissue.
Answer:

• Meristematic tissue is present in specific parts of a plant where growth takes place.
• Cells of meristematic tissue contain thick cytoplasm, a conspicuous nucleus and a thin cell wall and are compactly packed together.
• Vacuoles are usually absent in these cells and they are highly active.
• The main function of meristematic tissue is to bring about plant growth.
• According to the location, meristematic tissues are of three types: Apical meristem, intercalary meristem and lateral meristem.

b. Xylem
Answer:

• Xylem is a complex permanent tissue in plants.
• It consists of thick-walled dead cells.
• The type of cells in xylem are trachieds, vessels, xylem fibres (dead cells) and xylem parenchyma (living cells).
• Its structure is like interconnected tubes conduct water and minerals only in upward direction.

c. Striated muscles.
Answer:

• The cells of striated muscles are long, cylindrical, multinucleate and have no branches.
• These are alternate dark and light bands on these muscles.
• As they are attached to bones, they are also called skeletal muscles.
• They move as per our will, hence they are called voluntary muscles.
• Striated muscles bring about movements of arms and legs, running, speaking etc.

d. Agro-complementary business.
Answer:
(i) The business that are complementary to agriculture and generate supplementary income for the farmers are called agro complementary business.

(ii) These include:

• Animal Husbandry: It is practiced for milk production and for using the cattle as help in farming operations, e.g. cows and buffaloes are raised for milk whereas bulls and male buffaloes for pulling heavy loads.
• Poultry farming: It is the rearing of egg and meat yielding chickens. Chickens raised for eggs are called layers while those raised for meat are called broilers.
• Sericulture: It is the rearing of silkworms (moths) for silk production. The silk fibres obtained are processed, reeled and then woven into fabric.

e. Genetic engineering
Answer:

• Genetic engineering is the deliberate modification of the characteristics of an organism by manipulating its genetic material.
• An organism that is generated through genetic engineering is called a genetically modified organism (GMO).
• Genetic engineering is applied in many fields like research, agriculture, industrial biotechnology and medicine.
• In agriculture, genetic engineering is used in the production of cash crops, improvement in varieties of cash crops, increase in ability of plants to withstand environmental stresses.
• In medicine, genetic engineering is used for vaccine production, early diagnosis of congenital disease, organ transplant, cancer research, production of artificial skin, cartilage etc. in laboratories.

f. Sericulture
Answer:

• Sericulture is the rearing of silkworms (moths) for production of silk.
• Bombyx mori is the most commonly used variety of silkworm for this purpose.
• The life cycle of silkworm consist of four stages namely egg, larva, pupa and adult.
• Thousands of eggs deposited by female moths are incubated artificially to shorten the incubation period.
• Larvae hatching out of eggs are released on mulberry plants.
• Larvae are nourished by feeding on mulberry leaves.
• After feeding for 3-4 days, larvae move to branches of mulberry plant.
• The silk thread is formed from the secretion of their salivary glands.
• Larvae spin this thread around themselves to form a cocoon. The cocoon may be spherical in nature.
• Ten days before the pupa turns into an adult, all the cocoons are transferred into boiling water.
• Due to the boiling water, the pupa dies in the cocoon and silk fibres become loose.
• These fibres are unwound, processed and reeled. Various kinds of fabric is woven from silk threads.

6. Explain the meaning of biotechnology and its impact on agricultural management with suitable examples.
Answer:
The techniques of bringing about improvements in living organisms by artificial genetic changes and by hybridization for the welfare of human beings, are together called biotechnology. Impact of biotechnology on agricultural management:

• Genetically modified crops (GM crops) are being produced by introducing changes in DNA of natural crops.
• Normally such varieties are not found in nature.
• Thus, new varieties are produced artificially Different useful characters are introduced in such varieties.
• Some naturally occurring varieties cannot withstand environmental stress like frequently changing temperature.
• Wet and dry famines, changing climates etc. However, GM crops can grow in any of such adverse conditions.
• As GM crops are resistant to insect pests, pathogens, chemical weedicides, etc. the use of harmful chemicals like pesticides can be avoided.
• Due to use of seeds of GM crops, there is improvement in nutritive value and decrease in loss of crops.

Draw neat and labelled diagrams of the following:

7. Which two main techniques are used in biotechnology? Why?
Answer:

• The two main techniques used in biotechnology are – Genetic engineering and tissue culture.
• These techniques are used to bring about improvements in living organisms by artificial genetic changes and by hybridization for the welfare of human beings.
• Its uses are in the production of cash crops, improvement in varieties of cash crops, early diagnosis of congenital diseases, organ transplant, cancer research, production of artificial skin, cartilage etc. in laboratories.

8. Discuss ‘Agritourism’ in the class and write a project on an agrotourism centre nearby. Present it in the class in groups.
Answer:

• In agritourism, plantlets of flowering, medicinal, ornamental, vegetable plants and fruit trees are produced on a large scale by tissue culture technique.
• By growing some of the plants fully, an agritourism centre can be developed.
• If sufficient land is available, the emerging field of agritoursim would be a good business.
• An agritourism centre consists of following:
  (a) Mango, chikoo (sapota), guava, coconut, custard apple and some other regional fruit trees.
  (b) Shade giving local or exotic attractive plants.
  (c) Ornamental and flowering plants.
  (d) Butterfly garden.
  (e) Medicinal plant garden.
  (f) Organic vegetables and fruits.
• People visit places with such attraction in large numbers.
• Selling plantlets/seedlings, fruits, vegetables at such places can be quite profitable.

9. Define the term tissue and explain the concept of tissue culture.
Answer:
A group of cells having the same origin, same structure and same function is called tissue. Concept of tissue culture:

• Ex vivo growth of cells or tissues in an aseptic and nutrient-rich medium is called tissue culture.
• Nowadays, a complete organism can be developed from a single cell or from tissue with the help of the tissue culture technique.
• A liquid, solid or gel-like medium prepared from agar, which supplies nutrients and energy necessary for tissue culture is used in this technique.
• Tissue culture can be used to grow plants on a large scale, which bear flowers, fruits of excellent quality, in shorter durations and are disease free.
• The various processes involved in tissue culture are:

10. ‘Rearing of sheep is a livestock’. Justify this statement.
Answer:

• The term livestock refers to animals reared for profit or for use.
• Sheep provides us with wool, skin, meat and milk.
• Therefore, rearing of sheep is a livestock.

Class 9 Science Chapter 17 Introduction to Biotechnology Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which components bring about important processes in the living organisms?
Answer:
Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems bring out important processes in living organisms.

Question 2.
Which is the smallest structural and functional unit of the body of living organisms?
Answer:
Cell is the smallest structural and functional unit of the body of living organisms.

Question 3.
Which type of muscle is the diaphragm of the respiratory system?
Answer:
Diaphragm is a skeletal muscle. It is an involuntary muscle that regulates breathing, although some voluntary control can be achieved.

Question 4.
What is the main difference between the growth of animals and plants?
Answer:

• Growth in animals is uniform whereas the growth in plants occurs in specific parts of the body.
• Growth in animals occurs for a certain period of life whereas the growth in plants occur throughout their life.

Question 5.
Why does the growth of a plant occur only at specific parts of the plant body?
Answer:
Growth of a plant occurs only at specific parts of the body due to the presence of meristematic tissues which contain dividing cells.

Question 6.
Suppose you want to grow a garden like the one shown in the picture, around your home or school. What would you do to achieve that? By which methods will you cultivate the seedlings?

Answer:

• To grow a garden around the school or home, one must cultivate seedlings of different plants and those seedlings must be watered regularly and nurtured properly.
• Seedlings can be cultivated by the following methods:
  (a) Seed sowing: Seeds are sown, watered and allowed to germinate.
  (b) Transplantation: Seeds are sown somewhere else and then the seedlings are transplanted in the garden.

Question 7.
You must have seen flowers of same variety but of 2 or 3 different colours borne by same plant. How is this possible?
Answer:

1. The different coloured flowers borne by the same plant are due to the pigments like anthocyanins, carotenoids etc. according to the genetic makeup of the plant.
2. Also, by using the latest techniques of biotechnology and tissue culture, it is possible to manipulate the genes for flower colour and get the desired flower colour.

Question 8.
What keeps the various organs and organ systems separate from each other? Why?
Answer:
The epithelial tissue keeps the various organs and organ systems separate from each other by forming a layer on the organs.

Question 9.
Why are epithelial tissues said to be simple tissues?
Answer:
Epithelial tissues are said to be simple tissues as they are made up of only one type of cells.

Question 10.
Why do slim persons feel more cold in winter than those who are obese?
Answer:

• Below the skin, there is a tissue called adipose tissue.
• The cells of these tissue are filled with fat droplets.
• Due to storage of fat, it acts as an insulator and helps to retain heat in the body.
• Obese people have more fat deposited in the adipose tissue as compared to slim persons. Therefore, slim persons feel more cold in winter than those who are obese.

Question 11.
Why can bones not be folded?
Answer:

• Bone cells called osteocytes are embedded in solid ground substance made up of calcium phosphate.
• This makes the bone hard, rigid and non- flexible. Therefore, bones cannot be folded.

Question 12.
Which other industries can be started as an extension of the plant nursery business?
Answer:
Businesses like Agritourism, Ecotourism, forest resorts and organic fruit gardens, yoga and meditation centres can be started as an extension of the plant nursery business.

Question 13.
To which places do people choose to go on vacation in order to relax when they are tired of crowds and stressful life?
Answer:
People choose to go to hill stations, beaches, forest resorts and places where there is lot of greenery to relax when they are tired of crowds and stressful life.

Question 14.
What is the inter-relationship between the two questions (7 and 8) above?
Answer:
The inter-relationship between the above two questions is that businesses like agritourism, ecotourism, forest resorts etc. can fetch a huge profit as people look for these kind of places to relax, to be away from the hustle and bustle of city life and feel close to nature.

Question 15.
Why are the cocoons transferred to boiling water before the pupa develops into an adult?
Answer:

• Once the pupa develops into an adult, it will secrete a fluid to dissolve the silk and emerge out.
• Hence the cocoons are transferred to boiling water before the pupa develops in to an adult to kill the silkworms before transformation is complete.

Question 16.
Why we cannot see our organs like the heart, blood vessels and intestines?
Answer:
We cannot see our organs like the heart, blood vessels and intestines as they are located inside the body.

Question 17.
What is meant by white revolution? Who was its pioneer? What benefits did it bring?
Answer:

• White revolution was the programme launched by the National Dairy Development Board to increase the milk production in India.
• Dr. Verghese Kurien was the pioneer of white revolution.
• It transformed India from a milk-deficient nation to the largest producer of milk. It also helped the dairy farmers in directing their own development and empowering them.

It also helped to reduce the malpractices carried out by milk traders and merchants.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Collect information about GM varieties of crops in your area and make a note of them. Also find out if there are adverse effects of GM crops on human beings and environment.
Answer:

• Some of the GM crops are:
  (a) Maize: MON 810, MON 863
  (b) Rice: Golden rice
  (c) Brinjal: BT brinjal
  (d) Cotton: BT cotton
• Effects of GM Crops on human beings: GM crops may cause toxicity and allergic reactions in humAnswer:
• Effects of GM Crops on environment:
  (a) GM crops may be toxic to pollinators and non-target species like butterflies.
  (b) Many GM crops may be a threat to soil ecosystem as they secrete their toxins into the soil.

Question 2.
As shown in the figure, place an onion on each gas jar in such a way that its base (roots) will remain dipped in water. Measure and record the length of the roots of both onions on the first, second and third day. On the fourth day, cut off 1 cm of the roots of the onion in flask B Measure the length of the roots of both onions for the next five days and record your observations in the following table.

Length (cm)	Day 1	Day 2	Day 3	Day 4	Day 5
Flask A
Flask B

Answer:
(Students are expected to record their observation in the given table).

(a) Which onion has longer roots? Why?
Answer:
The onion in jar Ahas longer roots as it continues to grow due to the presence of meristematic tissue at root tip which had dividing cells.

(b) Why did the roots of the onion in jar B stop growing?
Answer:
The roots of onion in jar B stopped growing as the meristematic tissue present in the root tips were cut off.

Question 3.
Take a fresh and fleshy leaf of Rhoeo, lily or any other plant. Pull and press it, tearing it obliquely in such a way that its transparent epidermis will be visible at the cut margins. Take the transparent epidermis with the forceps and keep it in dilute safranin solution for 1 minute. Spread it on a slide, cover it with a cover-slip and observe it under a compound microscope.
Answer:

• The cells of the epidermis are flat and polygonal and there are no intercellular spaces between them.
• A single continuous layer is formed.
• The epidermis is covered by a waxy cuticle.

Question 4.
Establish your own plant nursery near your school or home. Prepare the seedlings of flowering plants, fruit plants, and ornamental plants being grown in your area. Can you start a business in the future with the help of this activity? Think it over.
Answer:
(Students are expected to do this activity on their own.)

Yes, we can start a business of plant nursey in future. If sufficient land is available, the emerging field of agritourism would be a good business.

Question 5.
Observe the skin of the back of your hand with the help of a magnifying lens. Do you see the closely attached squarish and pentagonal shapes?
Answer:
Yes, we can see the squarish and pentagonal shapes. This is the stratified squamous epithelium present on the outer layer of skin.

Question 6.
Observe a permanent slide of blood smear under a compound microscope. What did you see?
Answer:

• A permanent slide of blood smear under a compound microscope shows different types of cells like RBCs, WBCs and platelets.
• The different types of WBCs that can be seen are eosin mphocytes.

Question 7.
Visit a modern cowshed nearby and record the following points – The number of cattle, their variety, total milk production, cleanliness in cattle-shed, arrangements for health care of cattle.
Answer:
Students are expected to do this activity on their own.

Question 8.
Collect more information about animal husbandry.
Answer:

• The branch of agriculture which deals with the feeding, shelter, health and breeding of domestic animals is called animal husbandry.
• It is a scientific and systematic management of livestock.
• Animal husbandry practices include:
  (a) Proper food and clean drinking water.
  (b) Proper shelter
  (c) Proper methods of breeding
  (d) Prevention and cure of disease.
• Animal husbandary practices serve as an alternative income for the farmers and help to satisfy the need of food for man.

Question 9.
Find out from the internet the average daily milk yield from local and exotic varieties of cow.
Answer:

• Milk yield from local cow : 12-15 litres/day.
• Milk yield from exotic cow: 15-30 litres/day.

Question 10.
Are the structure and functions of the bodies of plants and animals the same?
No. The structure and functions of the bodies of plants and animals are not the same. Some differences between plants and animals:
Answer:

Plants	Animals
Plants continue to grow throughout their life.	Animals grow only for a specific period of life.
Growth in plants in not uniform.	Growth in animals is uniform.
Plants have dividing and non-dividing tissues.	Animals do not have different dividing and non­dividing tissues.
Plants are sedentary.	Animals generally move from place to place in search of food, shelter and partners.
Energy needs of plants are less.	Energy needs of animals are greater.
Plants can prepare their own food by photosynthesis.	Animals cannot prepare their own food. They depend on plants and other animals for their food.

Class 9 Science Chapter 17 Introduction to Biotechnology Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose and write the correct option:

Question 1.
Protective coverings in the animal body are called tissues.
(a) meristematic
(b) muscular
(c) epithelial
(d) bone
Answer:
(c) epithelial

Question 2.
Epithelial tissue is present in
(a) skin
(b) inner surface of blood vessels
(c) walls of the alveoli
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 3.
helps in selective transport of substances.
(a) Squamous epithelium
(b) Stratified epithelium
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Columnar epithelium
Answer:
(a) Squamous epithelium

Question 4.
helps in secretion of digestive juice, absorption of nutrients.
(a) Glandular epithelium
(b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Ciliated epithelium
Answer:
(b) Columnar epithelium

Question 5.
supports internal organs
(a) Areolar tissue
(b) Adipose tissue
(c) Lymph
(d) Tendon
Answer:
(a) Areolar tissue

Question 6.
tissue helps in insulation, supply of
Answer:
(b) Adipose tissue

Question 7.
connect muscles to bones.
(a) Ligaments
(b) Tendons
(c) Cartilages
(d) Nerves
Answer:
(b) Tendons

Question 8.
join two bones to each other.
(a) Cartilages
(b) Tendons
(c) Ligaments
(d) Muscles
Answer:
(c) Ligaments

Question 9.
meristem increases the length of root and stem.
(a) Intercalary
(b) Apical
(c) Lateral
(d) Permanent
Answer:
(b) Apical

Question 10.
showed that cells and tissues can be grown ex vivo.
(a) Frederick Campion Steward
(b) Gregor Johann Mendel
(c) Frederick Miescher
(d) Robert Brown
Answer:
(a) Frederick Campion Steward

Question 11.
is an example of genetically modified maize.
(a) Vaishali
(b) Vistive Gold
(c) MON 810
(d) Amflora
Answer:
(c) MON 810

Question 12.
is an exotic variety of cow.
(a) Holstein
(b) Gir
(c) Sahiwal
(d) Dangi
Answer:
(a) Holstein

Question 13.
is a layer chicken.
(a) Brahma
(b) Leghorn
(c) Cochin
(d) Aseel
Answer:
(b) Leghorn

Question 14.
is a broiler chicken.
(a) Leghorn
(b) Lehman
(c) Aseel
(d) Minorca
Answer:
(c) Aseel

Question 15.
is a broiler chicken.
(a) Minroca
(b) Ancona
(c) Leghorn
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(d) Cochin

Question 16.
Cartilage is found
(a) all around the cells in body
(b) in nose, ear, larynx, trachea
(c) between the muscles and skin
(d) around the blood vessels
Answer:
(b) in nose, ear, larynx, trachea

Question 17.
Which of the following is an exotic variety of COW?
(a) Plymouth Rock
(b) New Hampshire
(c) Black Rock
(d) Brown Swiss
Answer:
(d) Brown Swiss

Question 18.
epithelium is present in the inner surface of respiratory tract.
(a) Stratified
(b) Columnar
(c) Ciliated
(d) Cuboidal
Answer:
(c) Ciliated

Question 19.
Bones consist of osteocytes embedded in solid ground substance made up of
(a) calcium bicarbonate
(b) calcium carbonate
(c) calcium phosphate
(d) calcium sulphate
Answer:
(c) calcium phosphate

Question 20.
helps in growth of branches, formation of leaves and flowers.
(a) Lateral meristem
(b) Apical meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Xylem
Answer:
(c) Intercalary meristem

Question 21.
tissue is present in the hard coat of seeds, outer covering of coconut.
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Xylem
(c) Collenchyma
(d) Sclerenchyma
Answer:
(d) Sclerenchyma

Question 22.
The cells of tissue are dead.
(a) Parenchyma
(b) Collenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Sclerenchyma

Question 23.
Cuboidal epithelium is found in
(a) inner surface of mouth, blood vessels
(b) inner layer of skin
(c) tubules of kidney, salivary gland
(d) inner surface of respiratory tract
Answer:
(c) tubules of kidney, salivary gland

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Cell body, muscle fibre, axon, dendrites.
Answer:
Muscle fibre. It is a muscle cell whereas the others are parts of nerve cell.

Question 2.
Tracheids, vessels, companion cells, xylem fibres.
Answer:
Companion cells. It is an element of phloem whereas the others are elements of xylem.

Question 3.
Sieve tubes, tracheids, phloem parenchyma, phloem fibres.
Answer:
Tracheids. It is an element of xylem whereas the others are elements of phloem.

Question 4.
Holstein, Brown swiss, Bombyx mori, Jersey.
Answer:
Bombyx mori. It is a variety of silkworm whereas the others are varieties of cows.

Complete the analogy:

(1) Inner surface of mouth : Squamous epithelium :: Inner surface of intestine :
(2) Glandular epithelium : Secretion of sweat, oil :: Cuboidal epithelium:
(3) Respiratory tract: Ciliated columnar epithelium :: Kidney tubules:
(4) Outer layer of skin : Stratified epithelium :: Inner layer of skin :
(5) Muscular tissue : Movement :: Nervous tissue :
(6) Tendons : Join muscles to bones :: Ligaments :
Answer:
(1) Columnar epithelium
(2) Secretion of saliva
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium
(5) Conduction of excitation
(6) Join two bones to each other

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Squamous epithelium	(a) Secretion of digestive juice
(2) Cuboidal epithelium	(b) Selective transport of substances
(3) Columnar epithelium	(c) Protection of organs
(4) Stratified epithelium	(d) Secretion of saliva

Answer:
(1 – b),
(2 – d),
(3 – a),
(4 – c)

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Brahma	(a) Local variety of cow
(2) Jersey	(b) Layer chicken
(3) Devin	(c) Exotic variety of cow
(4) Lehman	(d) Broiler chicken

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – C),
(3 – a),
(4 – h)

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Potato	(a) Vistive Gold
(2) Maize	(b) Amflora
(3) Soybean	(c) Vaishali
(4) Tomato	(d) MON 863

Answer:
(1-b),
(2-d),
(3-a),
(4-c)

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the different types of muscular tissues.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the types of complex permanent tissues.
Answer:

Name of tissue	Xylem	Phloem
Characteristics	Consists of thick-walled dead cells	Consists of cytoplasm containing living cells.
Types of cells	Tracheids, vessels and xylem fibres – dead cells. Xylem parenchyma – living cells.	Sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma – living cells. Phloem fibres – dead cells.
Function	A structure like interconnected tubes, conduct water and minerals only in upward direction.	Tubes joined to each other, conduct sugar and amino acids from leaves to various parts in upward and downward direction

State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the false statement:

Question 1.
Lateral meristem increase girth(diameter) of the root and stem.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Due to use of seeds of GM crops, there is decrease in nutritive value and increase in loss of crops.
Answer:
False. Due to use of seeds of GM crops there is improvement in nutritive value and decrease in loss of crops.

Question 3.
In a bioreactor, cells can be grown in a more nutritive medium and protected from pathogens.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Rare and endangered plants can be grown by tissue culture and can be protected from extinction.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The silk thread is formed from the secretion of the sweat glands of silkworm.
Answer:
False. The silk thread is formed from the secretion of the salivary glands of silkworm.

Question 6.
Rhode Island Red, New Hampshire, Plymouth Rock, Black Rock are varieties of chicken reared for both eggs as well as meat.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Phloem consists of thick-walled dead cells.
Answer:
False. Phloem consists of living cells containing cytoplasm.

Question 8.
Stratified squamous epithelium is present in inner surface of mouth, oesophagus, blood vessels and alveoli.
Answer:
False. Stratified squamous epithelium is present in the outer layer of skin.

Question 9.
Broiler chickens are raised for eggs.
Answer:
False. Broiler chickens are raised for meat.

Question 10.
Non-striated muscles bring about contraction and relaxation of heart.
Answer:
False. Cardiac muscles bring about contraction and relaxation of heart.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Tissue responsible for growth of branches, formation of leaves and flowers.
Answer:
Intercalary meristem.

Question 2.
Tissue that helps in insulation, supply of energy, storage of fats.
Answer:
Adipose tissue.

Question 3.
Tissue present in outer layer of skin.
Answer:
Glandular epithelium.

Question 4.
Tissue present in nose, ear, larynx, trachea.
Answer:
Cartilage.

Question 5.
Dead cells in xylem.
Answer:
Tracheids, vessels and xylem fibres.

Question 6.
Living cells in xylem.
Answer:
Xylem parenchyma.

Question 7.
Living cells in phloem.
Answer:
Sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma.

Question 8.
Dead cells in phloem.
Answer:
Phloem fibres.

Question 9.
GM crops.
Answer:
BT cotton, Amflora, Golden Rice.

Question 10.
Local Indian varieties of cow.
Answer:
Sahiwal, Sindhi, Lai kandhari, Devni, Khillari, Dangi.

Question 11.
Exotic varieties of cow.
Answer:
Jersey, Brown swiss, Holstein.

Question 12.
Layers.
Answer:
Leghorn, Minorca, Ancona, Lehman.

Question 13.
Broilers.
Answer:
Brahma, Long, Cochin, Aseel.

Question 14.
Chickens reared for both eggs and meat.
Answer:
Rhode Island Red, New Hampshire, Plymouth Rock, Black Rock.

Give scientific reason.

Question 1.
Blood is a complex tissue.
Answer:

• A complex tissue is made up of more than one type of cells.
• In blood, cells of different types, colour and shapes are mixed together.
• Blood contains erythrocytes (RBCs), leucocytes (WBCs) and platelets in a liquid plasma.
• Therefore, blood is a complex tissue.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Tissue
Answer:
A group of cells having the same origin, same structure and same function is called tissue.

Question 2.
Differentiation
Answer:
When cells acquire a specific structure, shape and location and perform a specific function, it is called differentiation.

Question 3.
Biotechnology
Answer:
The techniques of bringing about improvements in living organisms by artificial genetic changes and by hybridization for the welfare of human beings, are together called ‘Biotechnology’.

Question 4.
Tissue culture
Answer:
Ex vivo growth of cells or tissues in an aseptic and nutrient-rich medium’ is called tissue culture.

Write short notes

Question 1.
Animal husbandry
Answer:

• In India, animal husbandry is practised for milk production and for using the cattle as help in farming operations.
• Example – Cows and buffaloes are raised for milk and bulls and male buffaloes for pulling the heavy loads.
• Local Indian varieties of cows like Sahiwal, Sindhi, Gir, Lai kandhari, Devni, Khillari, Dangi, etc. and exotic varieties like Jersey, Brown swiss, Holstein, etc. are kept for their milk.
• Proper care of cattle is necessary for a clean and high yield of milk which includes:
  (a) A balanced diet, i.e. all constituents of food should be given to cattle. It must include fibre- rich coarse food, fodder, and sufficient water.
  (b) The cattle-shed should be clean and dry with proper ventilation and a roof.
  (c) Cattle should be regularly vaccinated.

Question 2.
Poultry farming.
Answer:

• Rearing of egg and meat yielding chickens is called poultry farming.
• Chickens raised for laying eggs are called layers . e.g. Leghorn, Minorca, Ancona, Lehman.
• Chickens raised for meat are called broilers, e.g. Brahma, Long, Cochin, Aseel.
• Rhode Island Red, New Hampshire, Plymouth Rock, Black Rock are varieties of chicken reared for both eggs as well as meat.
• The objectives behind development of new hybrid varieties from a cross between Indian varieties like Aseel and exotic varieties like Leghorn are to produce good quality chickens in large numbers.
• To develop the ability to withstand high temperature, to use by-products of agriculture as poultry feed, etc.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Xylem and Phloem
Answer:

Xylem	Phloem
(i) Consists of mostly thick-walled dead cells.	(i) Consists of mostly living cells containing cytoplasm.
(ii) The types of cells include dead cells- tracheids, vessels and xylem fibres and living cells-Xylem parenchyma.	(ii) The types of cells include living cells – Sieve tubes, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and dead cells – phloem fibres.
(iii) Structure like interconnected tubes, conduct water and minerals only in upward direction.	(iii) Tubes joined to each other, conduct sugar and amino acids from leaves to various parts in both upward and downward direction.

Question 2.
Striated muscles and Non-striated muscles.
Answer:

Striated muscles	Non-striated muscles
(i) Muscle cells are long, cylindrical, multinucleate and have no branches.	(i) Muscle cells are short, spindle-shaped, uninucleate and have no branches.
(ii) There are alternate dark and light bands on these muscles and they are attached to bones.	(ii) Dark and light bands are absent. Not attached to bones.
(iii) They move as per our will, hence they are called voluntary muscles.	(iii) They are not under the control of our will, hence they are called involuntary muscles.
(iv) These muscles bring about movements of arms and legs, running, speaking etc.	(iv) These muscles bring about movement of eyelids, passage of food through alimentary canal, contraction and relaxation of blood vessels etc.

Question 3.
Cartilage and Bone
Answer:

Cartilage	Bone
(i) They are present in nose, ear, larynx, trachea.	(i) They form the skeleton of the body.
(ii) They contain cells supported by fibrous, flexible, jelly-like ground substance.	(ii) They contain osteocytes embedded in solid ground substance made up of calcium phosphate.
(iii) Lubricates the surface of bones, gives support and shape to organs.	(iii) Supports and protects different organs, helps in movement.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Close your eyes and try to identify different objects by feeling them with your hand. Why is it possible for you to identify things like a note-book, text-book, bench, compass-box, etc. only by touching them?
Answer:

• We can identify objects just by touching them because of the memory that we retain in our brain.
• The nervous tissue enables us to respond to the stimuli of touch.

Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write the location, structure and function of following epithelial tissues:
(a) Squamous epithelium
(b) Stratified epithelium
(c) Glandular epithelium
(d) Columnar epithelium
(e) Ciliated epithelium
(f) Cuboidal epithelium
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the structure and function of the following connective tissues:
(a) Blood
(b) Lymph
(c) Areolar tissue
(d) Adipose tissue
(e) Cartilage
(f) Bones
(g) Tendons and ligaments
Answer:

Question 2.
Describe the structure of nervous tissue with the help of a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

• Nervous tissue enables us to respond to stimuli like touch, sound, odour, colour, etc.
• Cells of the nervous tissue are specifically made to become excited and conduct the excitation from one part of the body to another.
• The main part of the nerve cell is the cell body which contains the cytoplasm and the nucleus.
• Numerous, small, branched fibres called dendrites arise from the cell body.
• One of the fibres, is extremely long and is called
  the axon.
• The length of the nerve cell may be up to one metre.
• Many nerve cells are bound together with the help of connective tissue to form a nerve.
• Nervous tissue is present in the brain, spinal cord and the network of nerves spread all throughout the body.
• In most animals, action in response to a stimulus occurs due to the integrated functioning of the nervous tissue and muscular tissue.
  

Question 3.
Explain the types of simple permanent tissues in plants.
Answer:
Types of simple permanent tissues.

Question 4.
Explain types, location and function of Meristematic tissue in tabular form:
Answer:

Types	Apical	Intercalary	Lateral
Location	At tip of the root and stem	At the base of the petiole of leaves and branches	At sides of root and stem
Function	Increase the length of the root and stem	Growth of branches, the formation of leaves and flowers	Increases diameter of the root and stem

Question 5.
Explain the types of simple permanent tissues in plants.
Answer:
Types of simple permanent tissues.

Name of Tissue	Parenchyma	Collenchyma	Sclerenchyma
Struc­ture of cells	Living cells with thin cell wall and intercellular spaces.	Elongated living cells with thickened cell wall at corners due to cellulose and pectin.	Dead and fibrous cells with tapering ends, cell wall contains lignin.
Loca­tion	All parts like roots, stem, leaves, flowers and seeds.	At the base of leaf petiole, branches and stem	Stem, veins of leaves, hard coats of seeds, outer covering of coconut.
Func­tions	Support, storage of food and filling vacant spaces.	Support and flexibility to various parts.	Give strength and rigidity to parts of the plants.
Sub­ types	Chlorenchyma: Leaves, perform photosynthesis. Aerenchyma: Helps aquatic plants, leaves and stem to float.

Question 6.
Write down the applications of biotechnology (tissue culture) in floriculture, nurseries and forestry.
Answer:
Applications of biotechnology (tissue culture) in floriculture, nurseries and foresty:

• Tissue culture can be used to grow those plants on a large scale which bear flowers, fruits of excellent quality.
• Fully grown plants can be produced in shorter durations.
• Plants can be grown on a large scale even if means of pollination or germinating seeds are not available.
• For example, orchids or pitcher plants do not germinate but these plants can easily be produced by means of tissue culture.
• In a bioreactor, cells can be grown in a more nutritive medium and protected from pathogens.
• Bioreactors are useful for producing plantlets on a very large scale.
• A large number of seedlings/plantlets can be produced in a short time using minimum resources and materials.
• Usually, plants produced by tissue culture and genetic modification techniques are disease-free.
• Plantlets produced by tissue culture technique of the meristem are virus-free.
• Embryos produced using conventional hybridization technique between two or more varieties may not grow fully for some reasons.
• However, embryos produced by tissue culture technique always complete their growth.
• Rare and endangered plants can be grown using tissue culture technique and can thus be protected from extinction.
• Similarly, various parts and seeds of such plants can be preserved by tissue culture and those varieties can be protected.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 16 Heredity and Variation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 Science Solutions Chapter 16 Heredity and Variation

Class 9 Science Chapter 16 Heredity and Variation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the appropriate words from the brackets.
(Inheritance, sexual reproduction, asexual reproduction, chromosomes, DNA, RNA, gene)

a. Hereditary characters are transferred from parents to offsprings by …………………………….., hence they are said to be structural and functional units of heredity.
b. Organisms produced by …………………………….. show minor variations.
c. The component which is in the nuclei of cells and carries the hereditary characteristics is called ……………………………..
d. Chromosomes are mainly made up of ……………………………..
e. Organisms produced through …………………………….. show major variations.

2. Explain the following.

a. Explain Mendel’s monohybrid progeny with the help of any one cross.
Answer:

• Mendel brought about a cross between two pea plants with only pair of contrasting characters. This type of cross is called a monohybrid cross.
• Tall pea plants and dwarf pea plants were used in this cross. Hence this is parent generation (P₁).
  
• All the plants produced in F₁ genration are tall, having genotype Tt. This indicates that the gene responsible for tallness in pea plants is dominant over the gene responsible for dwarfness.
• When F₁ plants are self pollinated they produce second filial generation (F₂).
• In F₂ generation both tall and dwarf plants appeared in the ratio 3:1.
• Thus, the genotypic ratio of F₂ generation is 3 (Tall) : 1 (Dwarf) and the genotypic ratio is 1 TT : 2 Tt: 1 tt.

b. Explain Mendel’s dihybrid ratio with the help of any one cross.
Answer:

• In dihybrid cross, Mendel considered two pairs of contrasting characters.
• He made a cross between a pea plant producing rounded and yellow couloured seeds and a pea plant with wrinkled and green coloured seeds.
  
• All the plants produced in F₁ generation had rounded yellow seeds. This is because in pea plants, round shape of seed is dominant over wrinkled shape and yellow colour of seed is dominant over green colour.
• When F₁ plants are self pollinated, they produce four types of gamates – RY, Ry, rY, ry.
• F₂ plants formed by the fusion of four types of male gametes and four types of female gametes, had phenotypes such as round yellow, wrinkled yellow, round green and wrinkled green.
• Also, F₂ generation showed nine different types of genotypes such as RRYY, RRYy, RRyy, RrYY, RrYy, Rryy, rrYY, rrYy, rryy.
• Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross is
  
• The genotypic ratio of dihybrid cross is
  

c. Distinguish between monohybrid and dihybrid cross.
Answer:

Monohybrid cross	Dihybrid cross
(i) Cross involving a single pair of contrasting characters is called monohybrid cross.	(i) Cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters is called a dihybrid cross.
(ii) F1 plants of monohybrid cross produce two types of gametes.	(ii) F1 plants of dihybrid cross produce four types of gametes.
(iii) Monohybrid cross has a phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1 in F2 generation.	(iii) Dihybrid cross has a phenotypic ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 in F2 generation.

d. Is it right to avoid living with a person suffering from a genetic disorder?
Answer:

• No, it is not right to avoid living with a person suffering from a genetic disorder.
• Genetic disorders are transmitted from parents to offsprings only and they are non-contagious, i.e., they do not spread from one person to another through contact.

3. Answers the following questions in your own words.

a. What is meant by ‘chromosome’. Explain its types.
Answer:

• The structure in the nucleus of cells that carries the hereditary characteristics is called the chromosome.
• It is made up mainly of nucleic acids and proteins.
• Depending upon the position of the centromere, there are four types of chromosomes.
  

(a) Metacentric: The centromere is exactly at the mid-point in this chromosome, and therefore, it looks like the English letter ‘V’. The arms of this chromosome are equal in length.

(b) Sub-metacentric: The centromere is somewhere near the mid-point in this chromosome which, therefore, looks like the English letter ‘U. One arm is slightly shorter than the other.

(c) Acrocentric: The centromere is near one end of this chromosome which therefore looks like the English letter One arm is much smaller than the other.

(d) Telocentric: The centromere is right at the end of this chromosome making the chromosome look like the English letter ‘i’. This chromosome consists of only one arm.

b. Describe the structure of the DNA molecule.
Answer:

• In 1953, Watson and Crick proposed a model of the DNA molecule.
• As per their model, two parallel threads (strands) of nucleotides are coiled around each other to form a double helix structure. This structure can be compared with a coiled and a flexible ladder.
• Each strand of DNA is made up of many small molecules known as nucleotides.
• Each nucleotide is made up of a molecule of nitrogen base and phosphoric acid joined to a molecule of sugar.
• There are four types of nitrogen bases-adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine. Adenine and guanine are called as purines while cytosine and thymine are called as pyrimidines.
• Nucleotides are arranged like a chain in the DNA.
• The two threads (strands) of the DNA are comparable to the two rails of the ladder and each rail is made up of alternately joined molecules of sugar and phosphoric acid.
• Each rung of the ladder is a pair of nitrogenous bases joined by hydrogen bonds. Adenine always pairs with thymine and cytosine always pairs with guanine.

c. Express your opinion about the use of DNA fingerprinting.
Answer:

• DNA fingerprinting is the technique in which the sequence of the genes in the DNA of a person, i.e., the genome of the person is identified.
• This technique is useful to identify the lineage and to identify criminals because it is unique to every person.
• It is also useful to identify paternity and maternity disputes etc.
• This technique was developed by Professor of genetics Sir Alec Jeffreys.
• A common method of collecting a reference sample, is in the use of a buccal swab. If this is not available, blood or saliva or hair sample may be used.
• Just like your actual fingerprint, your DNA fingerprint is something that you are born with. It is unique to you.
• DNA fingerprint is very useful in forensic science.

d. Explain the structure, function and types of RNA.
Answer:

• Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is an important nucleic acid of the cell.
• RNA is made up of ribose sugar, phosphate molecules and four types of nitrogenous bases adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil.
• The nucleotide i.e., smallest unit of the chain of the RNA molecule is formed by the combination of a ribose sugar, phosphate molecule and one of the nitrogen bases.
• Large numbers of nucleotides are bonded together to form the macromolecule of RNA.
• RNA performs the function of protein synthesis.
• According to function, there are three types of RNA:
  (a) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA): It is the component of cellular organelle ribosome. Ribosomes perform the function of protein synthesis.(b) Messenger RNA (mRNA): It carries the information for protein synthesis from genes (i.e. DNA segment in the cell nucleus) to ribosomes (in the cytoplasm) which produce the proteins.(c) Transfer RNA (tRNA): It carries the amino acid up to the ribosomes as per the message of the mRNA.

e. Why is it necessary for people to have their blood examined before marriage?
Answer:

• If people have their blood examined before marriage, the partners will know about the possible genetic diseases that their children might inherit. So they may decide not to have children or not to get married.
• Blood tests before marriage are also done to check for any contagious disease in the partners. This will help to protect the partners from contagious diseases like STDs.

4. Write a brief note on each.

a. Down syndrome
Answer:

• Down syndrome is the disorder arising due to chromosomal abnormality.
• This is the first discovered and described the chromosomal disorder in human beings.
• This disorder is characterized by the presence of 47 chromosomes. It is described as the trisomy of the 21st pair.
• Infants with this disorder have one extra chromosome with the 21st pair in every cell of the body. Therefore, they have 47 chromosomes instead of 46.
• Children suffering from Down syndrome are usually mentally retarded and have a short lifespan. Mental retardation is the most prominent characteristic.
• Other symptoms include short height, short wide neck, flat nose, short fingers, scanty hair, single horizontal crease on palm and a life expectancy of about 16-20 years.

b. Monogenic disorders
Answer:

• Disorders occurring due to mutation in any single gene into a defective one are called monogenic disorders.
• Approximately 4000 disorders of this type are now known.
• Due to abnormal genes, their products are either produced in insufficient quantity or not produced at all.
• It causes abnormal metabolism and may lead to death at a tender age.
• Examples of monogenic disorders are Hutchinson’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, galactosaemia, phenylketonuria, sickle cell anaemia, cyctic fibrosis, albinism, haemophilia, night blindness etc.

c. Sickle cell anaemia: symptoms and treatment.
Answer:

• Sickle-cell anaemia is a hereditary disease caused due to mutation in a single gene. It is a monogenic disorder.
• Normal haemoglobin has glutamic acid as the 6th amino acid in its molecular structure. However, if it is replaced by valine, the shape/structure of the haemoglobin molecule, changes.
• Due to this, the erythrocytes (RBCs) which are normally biconcave become sickle-shaped. This condition is called sickle-cell anaemia. The oxygen-carrying capacity of haemoglobin in such individuals is very low.
• In this condition, clumping and thereby, destruction of erythrocytes occurs most often. As a result, blood vessels are obstructed and the circulatory system, brain, lungs, kidneys, etc. are damaged.
• Symptoms of sickle-cell anaemia are swelling of legs and hands, pain in joints, severe general body aches, frequent cold and cough, constant low-grade fever, exhaustion, pale face, low haemoglobin count.
• A person suffering from sickle-cell anaemia should take a tablet of folic acid daily.

5. How are the items in groups A, B and C inter-releated?

6. Filling the blanks based on the given relationship.
a. 44 + X : Turner syndrome : : 44 + XXY: – ……………………………..
b. 3:1 Monohybrid : : 9:3:3:1 : ……………………………..
c. Women : Turner syndrome : : Men : ……………………………..
Answer:
a. Klinefelter syndrome
b. Dihybrid
c. Klinefelter syndrome

7. Complete the tree diagram below based on types of hereditary disorders.

Answer:

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study of Sound Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do specific traits or characteristics appear in organisms? (Can you tell; Textbook Page No. 180)
Answer:

• Information necessary for synthesis of a particular protein is stored in the DNA.
• The segment of DNA which contains all the information for synthesis of a particular protein is called a gene for that protein.
• To understand how a specific trait is expressed, let us consider plant height as an example.
• We know that there are growth hormones in plants. Increase in the height of plants depends upon the quantity of growth hormones.
• The quantity of growth hormone produced by a plant depends upon the efficiency of the concerned enzyme.
• Efficient enzymes produce a greater quantity of the hormone due to which the height of the plant increases.
• However, if the enzymes are less efficient, a smaller quantity of hormone is produced leading to the stunting of the plant.
• Thus, the expression of traits is controlled by the genes.

Question 2.
Show the monohybrid cross between (RR) and (rr) and write the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of F₂ generation. (Use your brain power; Textbook Page No. 187)
Answer:
Parental Generation (P₁)

Phenotypic ratio : 3 Round : 1 Wrinkled
Genotypic ratio : 1 RR : 2 Rr : 1 rr

Question 3.
Why did the characteristic of the Rounded- Yellow seeds alone appear in the Fj generation but not the characteristic of the wrinkled- green seeds? (Use your brain power; Textbook Page No. 187)
Answer:

• Rounded-Yellow seeds is a dominant characteristic whereas wrinkled-green seeds is a recessive characteristic.
• Therefore only the characteristic of Rounded- Yellow seeds appeared in the F1 generation.

Question 4.
Do all boys and girls of your class look alike? (Think about it; Textbook Page No. 179)
Answer:

• No, all the boys and girls of my class do not look alike.
• There is a lot of variation among them.

Question 5.
Carefully observe your classmate’s earlobes. (Observe; Textbook Page No. 179)
Answer:

• Most of the classmates have free earlobes while very few have attached ear lobes.
• This shows that in humans free earlobes is a dominant characteristic whereas attached earlobe is a recessive characteristic.

Question 6.
Irrespective of all of us being humans, what difference do you notice in our skin colour? (Observe; Textbook Page No. 179)
Answer:

• Irrespective of all of us being humans, there is a lot of variation in our skin colour. Some people are light-skinned while some are dark-skinned.
• The difference in skin colour is due to the gene responsible for the production of the pigment melanin.

Question 7.
All of you are in std. IX. Why then are some students tall and some short? (Observe; Textbook Page No. 179)
Answer:
Our height is decided by gene. People who are tall have genes for tallness whereas people who are short have genes for shortness and hence the variation.

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Study of Sound Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose and write the correct option:

Question 1.
The similarities and differences are all the effect of
(a) Heredity
(b) Fertilization
(c) Evolution
(d) Natural selection
Answer:
(a) Heredity

Question 2.
Each chromosome appears midway during cell division.
(a) Circular
(b) Rod-shaped
(c) Dumbbell-shaped
(d) Bottle-shaped
Answer:
(c) dumbbell-shaped

Question 3.
The chromosome in which the centromere is exactly at the mid-point is called chromosome.
(a) sub-metacentric
(b) metacentric
(c) acrocentric
(d) telocentric
Answer:
(b) metacentric

Question 4.
The chromosome in which the centromere is somewhere near the mid-point is called chromosome.
(a) metacentric
(b) acrocentric
(c) sub-metacentric
(d) telocentric
Answer:
(c) sub-metacentric

Question 5.
The chromosome in which the centromere is near one end of the chromosome is called chromosome.
(a) metacentric
(b) acrocentric
(c) sub-metacentric
(d) telocentric
Answer:
(d) telocentric

Question 6.
Sex chromosomes are called
(a) homologous chromosomes
(b) autosomes
(c) allosomes
(d) metacentric chromosomes
Answer:
(c) allosomes

Question 7.
Which of the following is absent in RNA?
(a) Adenine
(b) Uracil
(c) Cytosine
(d) Thymine
Answer:
(d) Thymine

Question 8.
DNA was discovered by
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Frederick Miescher
(c) Gregor Johann Mendel
(d) Robert Brown
Answer:
(b) Frederick Miescher

Question 9.
The double helix model of DNA was produced by
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Frederick Miescher
(c) Gregor Johann Mendel
(d) Robert Hooke
Answer:
(a) Watson and Crick

Question 10.
The molecule of RNA which is a component of the ribosome organelle is called a
(a) mRNA
(b) tRNA
(c) rRNA
(d) DNA
Answer:
(c) rRNA

Question 11.
In a monohybrid cross, the phenotypic ratio of F, generation is
(a) 1 tall: 3 dwarf
(b) 2 tall: 2 dwarf
(c) 3 tall: 1 dwarf
(d) 3 tall: 2 dwarf
Answer:
(c) 3 talhl dwarf

Question 12.
arises due to either inheritance of only X chromosome from parents or due to inactivation of the gender-related part of X-chromosomes.
(a) Down syndrome
(b) Turner syndrome
(c) Klinefelter syndrome
(d) Albinism
Answer:
(b) Turner syndrome

Question 13.
Progenies of normal man and sufferer woman for sickle-cell anaemia will be
(a) all normal
(b) 25% normal and 75% sufferer
(c) all carrier
(d) all sufferer
Answer:
(c) all carrier

Question 14.
is a mitochondrial disorder.
(a) Down syndrome
(b) Cleft palate
(c) Spina bifida
(d) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
Answer:
(d) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy

Question 15.
is a monogenic disorder.
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Cleft palate
(c) Diabetes
(d) Spina bifida
Answer:
(a) Haemophilia

Question 16.
is a recessive character of pea plant.
(a) Round shape of seeds
(b) White colour of flowers
(c) Green colour of pods
(d) Inflated shape of pods
Answer:
(b) White colour of flowers

Question 17.
is a dominant character of pea plant.
(a) Dwarf height
(b) Yellow colour of pod
(c) Yellow colour of seeds
(d) Terminal position of flower
Answer:
(c) Yellow colour of seeds

Question 18.
is a dominant character in human beings.
(a) Non-rolling tongue
(b) Attached ear lobe
(c) Absence of hair on arms
(d) Free ear lobe
Answer:
(d) Free ear lobe

Question 19.
is a recessive character in human beings.
(a) Absence of hair on arms
(b) Black and curly hair
(c) Free earlobe
(d) Presence of hair on arms
Answer:
(a) Absence of hair on arms

Question 20.
If one parent is normal and one parent is carrier of sickle-cell anaemia, then the progenies will be
(a) all normal
(b) 50% normal and 50% carrier
(c) 50% carrier and 50% sufferer
(d) all carrier
Answer:
(b) 50% normal and 50% carrier

Question 21.
If one parent is carrier and one parent is a sufferer of sickle-cell anaemia, then the progenies will be
(a) 50% normal and 50% carrier
(b) all sufferers
(c) 50% carrier and 50% sufferer
(d) all carrier
Answer:
(c) 50% carrier and 50% sufferer

Find the odd man out:

Question 1.
Adenine, thymine, cytosine, uracil
Answer:
Adenine. It is a purine whereas the others are pyrimidines.

Question 2.
Axillary flower, green pod, green seed, inflated pod
Answer:
Green seed. It is a recessive character of pea plant whereas the others are dominant characters.

Question 3.
Constricted pod, purple flower, axillary flower, yellow seeds.
Answer:
Constricted pod. It is a recessive character of pea plant whereas the others are dominant characters.

Question 4.
Green seeds, wrinkled seeds, terminal flower, green pod.
Answer:
Green pod. It is a dominant character of pea plant whereas the others are recessive characters.

Question 5.
Attached ear lobes, brown and straight hair, non-rolling tongue, presence of hair on arms.
Answer:
Presence of hair on arms. It is a dominant characteristic of human beings whereas the others are recessive characters.

Question 6.
Cystic fibrosis, albinism, spina bifida, sicklecell anaemia.
Answer:
Spina bifida. It is a polygenic disorder whereas the others are monogenic disorders.

Question 7.
Fiutchinson’s disease, phenylketonuria, nightblindness, leber hereditary optic neuropathy.
Answer:
Leber hereditary optic neuropathy. It is a mitochondrial disorder whereas the others are monogenic disorders.

Complete the analogy:

a. Tall plant: Phenotype :: Tt:
b. Dominant trait : Axial position of flower :: Recessive trait:
c. Women : 44 + XX :: Men :
d. Adenine and Guanine : Purine :: Cytosine and Thymine :
Answer:
a. Genotype
b. Terminal position of flower
c. 44 + XY
d. Pyrimidine

Match the columns

Question 1.

Column 1	Column 2	Column 3
(1) Leber hereditary optic neuropathy	(a) 44 + XXY	(i) Pale skin, white hairs.
(2) Diabetes	(b) 45 + X	(ii) Men are sterile.
(3) Albinism	(c) Mitochondrial disorder	(iii) Women are sterile.
(4) Turner syndrome	(d) Polygenic disorder	(iv) This disorder arises during development of zygote.
(5) Klinefelter Syndrome	(e) Monogenic disorder	(v) Effect on blood- glucose level.

Answer:
(1 – c – iv),
(2 – d – v),
(3 – e – i),
(4-b- Hi),
(5 – a – ii)

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Yellow and rinkled	(a) yyrr
(2) Green and round	(b) YyRr
(3) Yellow and round	(c) YYrr
(4) Green and wrinkled	(d) yyRr

Answer:
(1 – c),
(2 – d),
(3 – b),
(4 – a)

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Tay-Sachs disease	(a) Multifactorial disorder
(2) Diabetes	(b) Destruction of erythrocytes
(3) Sickle-cell anaemia	(c) Absence of melanin
(4) Albinism	(d) Monogenic disorder

Answer:
(1 – d),
(2 – a),
(3 – b),
(4 – c)

State whether the following statements are true or false. Correct the false statement:

Question 1.
Offsprings produced through asexual reproduction show greater variations as compared to those produced through sexual reproduction.
Answer:
False. Offsprings produced through asexual reproduction show minor variations as compared to those produced through sexual reproduction.

Question 2.
Information necessary for protein synthesis is stored in the RNA.
Answer:
False. Information necessary for protein synthesis is stored in the DNA.

Question 3.
The quantity of growth hormone produced by a plant depends upon the efficiency of the concerned enzyme.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The chromosome in which the centromere is exactly at the mid-point is called telocentric chromosome.
Answer:
False. The chromosome in which the centromere is exactly at the mid-point is called metacentric chromosome.

Question 5.
RNA molecules are called master molecules.
Answer:
False. DNA molecules are called master molecules.

Question 6.
The pair of sex chromosomes are called autosomes.
Answer:
False. The pair of sex chromosomes is called allosomes.

Question 7.
In DNA, Adenine always pairs with thymine and cytosine always pairs with guanine.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
In humans there are 23 pairs of autosomes and one pair of allosomes.
Answer:
False. In humans, there are 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of allosomes.

Question 9.
The phenotypic and genotypic ratios are not same.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Phenotype means the pairs of genes responsible for the visible characteristics of organisms.
Answer:
False. Phentotype means external appearance of visible characteristics of organisms.

Question 11.
During gamete formation, in Pj generation the pair of gametes separate independently.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
Down syndrome is caused due to monosomy of X chromosome.
Answer:
False. Down syndrome is caused due to trisomy of 21st chromosome.

Question 13.
In Klinefelter syndrome, women are sterile.
Answer:
False. In Klinefelter syndrome, men are sterile as this disorder arises in men due to abnormality in sex chromosome.

Question 14.
If the father and mother are both sufferers or carriers of sickle-cell anaemia, their offsprings are likely to suffer from this disease.
Answer:
True

Question 15.
During fertilization, mitochondria is contributed by the sperm cell and egg cell(ovum).
Answer:
False. During fertilization, mitochondria is contributed by the egg cell (ovum) alone.

Question 16.
Polygenic disorders strictly follow Mendel’s principles of heredity.
Answer:
False. Polygenic disorders do not strictly follow Mendel’s principles of heredity.

Question 17.
Genetic material is transferred in equal quantity from parents to progeny.
Answer:
True

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
DNA molecules are called as ‘Master molecules’.
Answer:

• Molecules of DNA are present in all organisms from viruses and bacteria to human beings.
• These molecules control the functioning, growth and division (reproduction) of the cell.
• Genes present in the DNA are also responsible for transfer of hereditary characteristics from parents to offsprings.
• Therefore, DNA molecules are called as ‘Master molecules’.

Question 2.
Phenotypic and genotypic ratios are different.
Answer:

• Phenotype means external appearance or visible characteristics of organisms whereas the genotype is the pairs of genes responsible for the visible characteristics.
• The genes responsible for any particular character are present in pairs.
• Though, there are two genes, the phenotype
  depends on the presence of the dominant gene, e.g. Genotype for tall height of the plant is TT or Tt.
• Therefore, phenotypic and genotypic ratios are different.

Question 3.
A carrier or sufferer of sickle-cell anaemia should avoid marriage with another carrier or sufferer.
Answer:

• Sickle-cell anaemia is a hereditary disease caused due to mutation of a single gene.
• It is a monogenic disorder that occurs due to changes in a gene during conception.
• If father and mother both are sufferers or carriers of sickle-cell anaemia, their offsprings are likely to suffer from the disease.
• Therefore, a carrier or sufferer of sickle-cell anaemia should avoid marriage with another carrier or sufferer.

Question 3.
Mitochondrial disorders are inherited from the mother only.
Answer:

• Mitochondrial DNA becomes defective due to mutation.
• During fertilization, mitochondria are contributed by the egg cell (ovum) alone.
• Hence, mitochondrial disorders are inherited from the mother only.

Question 4.
Tobacco smoking causes cancer.
Answer:

• Tobacco smoke contains harmful chemicals like pyridine, ammonia, aldehyde furfural, carbon monoxide, nicotine, sulphur dioxide etc.
• They cause uncontrolled cell division.
• Tobacco smoke is full of minute carbon particles which cause normal tissue lining of the lung to transform into thickened black tissue. This leads to cancer.
• Therefore, tobacco smoking causes cancer.

Define the following terms:

Question 1.
Gene
Answer:
The segment of DNA which contains all the information for synthesis of a particular protein is called a ‘gene’.

Question 2.
Chromosome
Answer:
The structure in the nucleus of the cells that carries the hereditary characteristics is called chromosome.

Question 3.
Genetics
Answer:
The branch of biology which studies the transfer of characteristics of organism from one generation to the next and genes in particular, is called genetics.

Question 4.
Heredity
Answer:
Transfer of characteristics from parents to offsprings is called heredity.

Question 5.
Homologous chromosomes
Answer:
If the pair consists of chromosomes are similar in shape and organization, they are called homologous chromosomes.

Question 6.
Heterologous chromosomes
Answer:
If the pair which consists of chromosomes are not similar in shape and organization, they are called heterologous chromosomes.

Question 7.
Genetic disorders
Answer:
Diseases or disorders occuring due to abnormalities in chromosomes and mutations in genes are called genetic disorders.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
DNA and RNA
Answer:

DNA	RNA
(i) In DNA, the sugar present is deoxyribose.	(i) In RNA, the sugar present is ribose.
(ii) In DNA, the nitrogen bases are adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine.	(ii) In RNA, the nitrogen base thymine is replaced by uracil.
(iii) DNA is double stranded.	(iii) RNA is single-stranded.
(iv) DNA carries hereditary information	(iv) RNA helps in protein synthesis.

Question 2.
Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome.
Answer:

Turner syndrome	Kline fater syndrome
(i) It is due to monosomy of sex chromosome.	(i) It is due to felter of sex chromosome.
(ii) Disorder in sex chromosome results in 44 + X condition.	(ii) Disorder in sex chromosome results is 44 + XY condition.
(iii) Seen in women.	(iii) Seen in men
(iv) Women suffering from this syndrome are sexually sterile.	(iv) Men suffering from this syndrome are sexually sterile.
(v) There is presence of total 45 chromosomes instead of 46.	(v) There is presence of total 47 chromosomes instead of 46.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Albinism
Answer:

• Albinism is a monogenic disorder.
• Our eyes, skin and hair have colour due to the brown pigment melanin. In this disease, the body cannot produce melanin.
• The skin becomes pale, hair are white and eyes are usually pink due to absence of melanin pigment in the retina and sclera.

Question 2.
Polygenic disorders.
Answer:

• Polygenic disorders are caused due to mutations in more than one gene.
• In most such cases, their severity increases due to effects of environmental factors on the foetus.’
• Common examples of such disorders are cleft lip, cleft palate, constricted stomach, spina bifida (a defect of the spinal cord), etc. Besides diabetes, blood pressure, heart disorders, asthma and obesity are also polygenic disorders.
• Polygenic disorders do not strictly follow Mendel’s principles of heredity.
• These disorders arise from a complex interaction between environment, life style and defects in several genes.

Question 3.
Turner syndrome.
Answer:

• Turner syndrome is a disorder arising in women due to abnormality in sex chromosomes.
• Turner syndrome arises due to either inheritance of only one X chromosome from parents or due to inactivation of the gender- related part of X-chromosomes.
• Instead of the normal 44 + XX condition, women suffering from Turner syndrome show a 44 + X condition.
• Such women are sterile i.e. unable to have children due to improper growth of the reproductive organ.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the main objectives of National Health Mission?
Answer:
The main objectives of National Health Mission are:

• Strengthening of the rural and urban health facilities.
• Controlling various diseases and illnesses.
• Increasing public awareness about health.
• Offering financial assistance to patients through various schemes.

Question 2.
Which were the seven pairs of contrasting characteristics studied by Mendel in pea plant?
Answer:
The seven pairs of contrasting characters studied by Mendel in pea plant were as follows:

Characters	Dominant	Recessive
Shape of the seed	Round(R)	Wrinkled (r)
Colour of the seed	Yellow (Y)	Green (y)
Colour of the flower	Purple (C)	White (c)
Shape of pod	Inflated (I)	Constricted (i)
Colour of pod	Green (G)	Yellow (g)
Position of flower	Axillary (A)	Terminal (a)
Height of the plant	Tall (T)	Dwarf (t)

Question 3.
Name some dominant and recessive characteristics seen in human beings.
Answer:
Some dominant and recessive characteristics of human beings.

Dominant	Recessive
Rolling tongue	Non-rolling tongue
Presence of hair on arms	Absence of hair on arms
Black and curly hair	Brown and straight hair
Free earlobe	Attached earlobe

Question 4.
What is Klinefelter syndrome?
Answer:

• Klinefelter syndrome is a disorder arising in men due to abnormalities in sex chromosomes.
• In this disorder, men have one extra X chromosome, hence their chromosomal condition becomes 44 + XXY.
• Such men are usually sterile because their reproductive organs are not well developed.

Question 5.
How is the diagnosis for sickle-cell anaemia made?
Answer:

• Under the National Health Mission scheme, the ‘Solubility Test’ for diagnosis of sickle-cell anaemia is available at all district hospitals.
• Similarly, the confirmatory diagnostic test – ‘Electrophoresis’ is performed at rural and subdistrict hospitals.

Question 6.
Find out the Phenotypic ratio of the following:
(a) Round-Yellow
(b) Wrinkled-Yellow
(c) Round-Green
(d) Wrinkled-Green
Answer:
(a) Round-Yellow: 9
(b) Wrinkled-Yellow: 3
(c) Round-Green: 3
(d) Wrinkled-Green: 1
Phenotypic ratio: 9:3:3:1

Question 7.
Find out the Genotypic ratio of the following:
(a) RRYY
(b) RRYy
(c) RRyy
(d) RrYY
(e) RrYy
(f) Rryy
(g) rrYY
(h) rrYy
(i) rryy
Answer:
(a) RRYY -1
(b) RRYy-2
(c) RRyy-1
(d) RrYY-2
(e) RrYy-4
(f) Rryy-2
(g) rrYY – 1
(h) rrYy – 2
(i) rryy – 1
Genotypic ratio: 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1

Draw neat and labelled diagrams of the following:

Question 1.
Structure of chromosome
Answer:

Question 2.
Types of RNA
Answer:

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What are the effects of tobacco consumption?
Answer:

• Smoking of cigarettes and bidis adversely affects the process of digestion.
• It causes a burning sensation in the throat and cough.
• Excessive smoking causes instability and trembling of fingers.
• It causes dry cough which leads to sleeplessness.
• Tobacco consumption can lead to shortening of life span, chronic bronchitis, pericarditis, cancer of the lungs, mouth, larynx (voice box), pharynx, urinary bladder, lips or tongue.
• The nicotine present in tobacco affects the central and peripheral nervous system. Arteries become hard i.e. it causes arteriosclerosis and hypertension.

Question 2.
Complete the table for number of chromosomes in different organisms.
Answer:

Organism	No. of Chromosomes
Crab	200
Maize	20
Frog	26
Roundworm	04
Potato	48
Human	46
Dog	78
Elephant	56
Fruit fly	08
Mango	40