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Living World Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 1 Living world Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 1 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 1 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Which is not a property of living beings?
(a) Metabolism
(b) Decay
(c) Growth
(d) Reproduction
Answer:
(b) Decay

Question (B)
A particular plant is strictly seasonal plant. Which one of the following is best suited if it is to be studied in the laboratory?
(a) Herbarium
(b) Museum
(c) Botanical garden
(d) Flower exhibition
Answer:
(a) Herbarium

Question (C)
A group of students found two cockroaches in the classroom. They had a debate whether they are alive or dead. Which life property will help them to do so?
(a) Metabolism
(b) Growth
(c) Irritability
(d) Reproduction
Answer:
(c) Irritability

Question 2.
Distinguish between botanical gardens, zoological parks and biodiversity parks with reference to characteristics.
Answer:

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Jijamata Udyan, the famous zoo in Mumbai has acclimatised Humboldt penguins. Why should penguins be acclimatised when kept at a place away from their natural habitat?
Answer:

1. Zoological park (zoo) is a type of ex-situ conservation in which wild animals are kept in captivity.
2. Humboldt penguins are native to South America and the surrounding environment differs significantly at Jijamata Udyan (zoo) in Mumbai.
3. In order to ensure that these penguins survive longer and are healthy they need to be acclimatised (adjust) to their new environment slowly.
4. If they are not acclimatised or the facilities in the zoo where the penguins are kept are not optimal/ suitable, they may develop abnormal stress and exhibit unusual behaviours due to it.
5. These penguins may also be more prone to contracting certain diseases, since they are suited to living in a particular climatic condition.
6. The enclosure of these penguins consists of water pool, air handling units and a chiller system to maintain temperatures between 12 – 14°C, where the penguins were kept for around 8 to 10 days to get acclimatised to their new environment before allowing any visitors inside the zoo.

Hence, Humboldt penguins need to be acclimatised to their new surroundings, when kept at a place away from their natural habitat.

Question (B)
Riya found a peculiar plant on her visit to Himachal Pradesh. What are the ways she can show it to her biology teacher and get information about it?
Answer:

1. Riya can press and mount the plant specimen on a herbarium sheet and preserve the dried plant material, until she returns back from her visit.
2. She can also write any available information regarding the collected specimen on the herbarium sheet, which can be useful for further studies with her biology teacher.
3. Various taxonomical aids can be useful to get information about this peculiar plant.

[Note: In order to conserve the local flora, Riya can collect photographs ofplant and describe it’s structure to her teacher.]

Question (c)
At Andaman, authorities do not allow tourists to collect shells from beaches. Why must it be so?
Answer:

1. Seashells are an important part of the coastal ecosystem and are crucial for the survival of various marine creatures.
2. They provide material for building nests of birds and also act as a substratum for attachment of algae, sea grass, sponges and various microbes.
3. Fishes use shells for hiding from predators, whereas hermit crabs use shells as temporary shelters.
4. Removal of seashells from seashores may also indirectly affect the rate of shoreline erosion.

Hence, in an attempt to protect the ecosystem, authorities in Andaman do not allow tourists to collect shells from beaches.

Question (D)
Why do we have greenhouse in botanical gardens?
Answer:

1. Greenhouse is a structure with suitable walls and a roof in which plants are grown under regulated climatic conditions.
2. Most botanical gardens exhibit ornamental plants which require stringent/ optimum climatic conditions for their growth and/or flowering.
3. The greenhouse associated with botanical gardens are also used to grow and propagate those plants that may not survive seasonal changes.

Question (E)
What do you understand from terms like in situ and ex situ conservation?
Answer:
1. In situ conservation: It includes conservation of species in their natural habitats. Grazing, cultivation and collection of products from the forests is banned in such areas. Legally protected areas include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.
2. Ex situ conservation: It includes conservation of species outside their natural habitats. Species are conserved in botanical gardens, culture collections and zoological parks.

4. Write short notes

Question (A)
Write a short note on role of human being in biodiversity conservation.
Answer:

1. Due to rapid increase in human population and industrialization, humans have over-utilized natural resources; leading to degradation of the environment and hence only humans can help conserve the ecosystem.
2. Humans are capable of conserving and improving the quality of nature and thus, can play a major role in biodiversity conservation.
3. In order to conserve biodiversity and its environmental resources, humans must use the resources rationally and avoid excessive degradation of environment.
4. Human beings are stakeholders of the environment and need to come together to overcome pollution and improve the environment quality in order to conserve biodiversity. E.g. Ban or limit on use of harmful products (plastic, chemicals, etc.) that are toxic to various birds, animals, etc.
5. Human beings also play a role in conservation of biodiversity by establishment of various sites for in situ (national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves) and ex situ (botanical gardens, culture collections and zoological parks) conservation.

Question (B)
Importance of botanical garden
Answer:
The importance of botanical gardens is as follows:

1. It is a place where there is an assemblage of living plants maintained for botanical teaching and research purpose.
2. Botanical gardens are important for their records of local flora.
3. Botanical gardens provide facilities for the collection of living plant materials for botanical studies.
4. Botanical gardens also supply seeds and material for botanical investigations.
5. The development of botanical gardens in any country is associated with its history of civilization, culture, heritage, science, art, literature and various other social and religious expressions.
6. Botanical gardens besides possessing an outdoor garden may contain herbaria, research laboratory, greenhouses and library.
7. Botanical gardens are not only important for botanical studies, but also to develop tourism in the country.

Question 5.
How can you, as an individual, prevent the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
As individuals, we can prevent loss of biodiversity in the following ways:

1. Increasing awareness about environmental issues. Making posters that provide more information about biodiversity conservation, to raise public awareness.
2. Increased support and/ or active participation in government policies and actions laid down for conservation of biodiversity.
3. Protect various plant and animal species in our surrounding.
4. Set up bird and bat houses wherever possible.
5. Prevent felling of trees especially native plants or trees in a particular area.
6. Reduce, recycle and reuse resources. Especially, reduce pollution and use of plastic bags and other materials that are potential threats for the environment.
7. Use environment friendly products, segregate and dispose garbage correctly.
8. Convince people about the importance of trees and the need to participate in tree plantation campaign.
9. Obey the rules that fall under Biodiversity Act.

[Students can use the given points as reference and mention additional preventive measures on their own.]

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Make a herbarium under the guidance of your teacher.
[Students are expected to perform the given activity by themselves under the guidance of their teacher.]

Question 2.
Find out information about any one sacred grove (Devrai) in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Sacred groves in Maharashtra are located in districts like Ahmednagar, Bhandara, Chandrapur, Jalgaon, Kolhapur, Nashik, Pune, Raigad, Ratnagiri, Sangli, Satara, Sindhudurg, Thane, Yavatmal.
[Source: Data as per C.P.R. Environment Education Centre, Chennai.]
e. g. Sacred grove of Parinche valley, Pune district of Maharashtra:

The Parinche valley region is comprised of the inaccessible rear part of the Purandhar fort and its surrounding valley region and is situated about 63 km to the southeast of Pune city and 18 km from Saswad town. The total area of the valley region is about 132 sq. km. Parinche is the biggest village and a nodal place in the valley. The majority (12) of the documented groves are located in the Kaldari and Pangare zones. The size of the sacred groves has however reduced due to various human related activities that have taken place in recent years.

The biggest sacred grove in the Parinche valley belongs to Buvasaheb of Tonapewadi and spreads over an area of 4.80 hectares. The forest types are unique to the groves. Presence of key species in the sacred groves varies from region to region. Two key tree species, i.e. Terminalia bellerica and Ficus spp., are present in these sacred groves which have almost disappeared from the surrounding areas.

Large buttressed trees are another important feature of well-preserved sacred groves. The presence of these tree species indicates the vegetation of the past and also the type of potential vegetation that can be regenerated in these regions.
[Source: Waghchaure, C. K., Tetali, P., Gunale, V. R., Antia, N. H., & Birdi, T. J. (2006). Sacred Groves of Parinche Valley of Pune District of Maharashtra, India and their Importance. Anthropology & Medicine, 13(1), 55-761
[Students can refer the given answer and search for more information about other sacred groves on their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 1 Living world Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Whether all organism are similar? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, all organisms are not similar.

1. Organisms on the earth exhibit great diversity.
2. Organisms are grouped as microbes, plants (autotrophs), animals (heterotrophs) and decomposers.
3. Different microbes and decomposers have various shapes and sizes.
4. Plants can be further classified on their shape, size, structure, mode of reproduction, etc. Plants also differ greatly based on the locations in which they are found, e.g. Snowy, desert, forest, aquatic, etc.
5. Even animals show a high degree of variation. They are classified as unicellular, multicellular, invertebrates, vertebrates, etc. Also, based on the environment in which they live, they are classified as terrestrial, aerial, aquatic and amphibians.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Whether all organisms prepare their own food?
Answer:
No, all organisms do not prepare their own food. Organisms that prepare their own food are known as autotrophs (e.g. Green plants, certain microbes). These organisms prepare their own food in the presence of sunlight, water and carbon dioxide.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No.01)

what is the difference between living and non-living things?
Answer:

Can we call? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Can we call reproduction as inclusive character of life?
Answer:
No, we cannot call reproduction as an inclusive character of life. Certain organisms like mules and worker bees do not reproduce and are still living. Thus, reproduction cannot be considered as an all inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 01)

Which feature can be considered as all-inclusive characteristic of life? Why?
Answer:
Metabolism can be considered as an all-inclusive (defining) feature of life since it is exhibited by all living organisms and does not take place in non-living things. Another all-inclusive characteristic of life is responsiveness or irritability. This is a unique property of living beings since all living beings are conscious of their surroundings.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 01)

(i) Can metabolic reactions demonstrated in a test tube (called ‘in vitro’ tests) be called living?
Answer:
(a) The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body is known as metabolism and no non-living object exhibits metabolism.
(b) However, metabolic reactions can be demonstrated outside the body in a test tube (cell-free medium).
(c) Thus, isolated metabolic reaction (s) outside the body of an organism, performed in a test tube is neither living nor non-living.
(d) Metabolic reactions occurring in vitro are living reactions but not living things.

(ii) Now a days patients are declared ‘brain dead’ and are on life support. They do not show any sign of self-consciousness. Are they living or non-living?
Answer:
The brain controls all life processes. Hence, when a patient is declared as ‘brain dead’, he does not carry out any of the inclusive defining characters of living things (e.g. metabolism, consciousness, etc.) and is completely dependent on machines. Since, such patients do not show any sign of self-consciousness, these patients cannot exactly be called as living.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 01)

How can we study large number of organisms at a glance?
Answer:
Systematic study of organisms with the help of taxonomical aids can be used to study a large number of organisms at a glance.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 03)

What are the essentials of a good herbarium?
Answer:
The essentials of a good herbarium are as follows:

1. It is essential to identify and label the collected specimen correctly.
2. Specimens should be stored in a dry place.
3. The plants are usually pressed and mounted on the sheet of paper known as herbarium sheets. Some plants are not suitable for pressing or mounting, like succulents, seeds, cones, etc. They need to be preserved in suitable liquid like formaldehyde, acetic alcohol, etc.
4. In order to preserve the specimen for longer durations, acid-free paper, special glues and inks must be used to mount the specimen so that the specimen does not deteriorate.
5. The specimens should be dried well before preparing a herbarium in order to prevent rotting of specimen.
6. It is also essential to record the date, place of collection along with detailed classification and highlighting with its ecological peculiarities, characters of the plant on a sheet.

Local names of plant specimens and name of the collector may be added. This information is given at lower right comer of sheet and is called ‘label’.

Why does the loss of biodiversity matter? (Textbook page no. 03)
Answer:

1. The loss of biodiversity is an moral and ethical issue.
2. Biodiversity helps to maintain stability in an ecosystem.
3. Humans share the environment with various other organisms and harm to these species can result in loss of biodiversity.
4. The loss of even one variety of organisms can affect the entire ecosystem. Hence, due to all these reasons, loss of biodiversity matters.

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 04)

Human being is at key position in maintaining biodiversity of earth. Find out more information about the following.

(i) Laws to protect and conserve biodiversity in India.
Answer:
a. Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
b. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
c. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
d. Environment Protection Act, 1986
[Students can find out more laws to protect and conserve Biodiversity in India]

(ii) Environmental effects of ambitious projects like connecting rivers or connecting cities by constructing roads.
Answer:
Connecting rivers or connecting cities by constructing roads have the following environmental effects:
(a) They form barriers to animals.
(b) Construction of roads requires cutting down of trees and results in large scale deforestation.
(c) They occupy large land resources resulting in loss of habitat of various species.
(d) It can alter the water flow pattern and damage many ecosystems.
(e) Increase in air, water, soil and noise pollution can disturb various animals and birds, thus affecting their behavioural pattern.

(iii) Did bauxite mining in Western Ghats affect critically endangered species like – Black panther, different Ceropegia spp., Eriocaulon spp. ?
Answer:
(a) The Western Ghats, is one of the global biodiversity hotspots and retains more than 30% of all plant, aquatic, reptile, amphibian and mammal species found in India.
(b) Recently, this ecologically sensitive region has been subjected to various developmental activities that have adversely affected the flora and fauna of the region.
(c) Bauxite mining is one such activity which has had significant negative impact on the local environment. To access bauxite ore deposits, the above-ground vegetation needs to be completely removed, causing large scale deforestation. The vegetation in the adjoining area is also affected due to dumping.
(d) The major threats of this activity include vegetation loss, forest fragmentation and biodiversity loss.
(e) Since most mines fall in Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ), it has seriously affected the flora and fauna of the Western Ghats.
(f) Black panthers have frequently been spotted at various locations in the Western Ghats and mining in these areas can seriously affect their health and numbers.
(g) Certain species of Ceropegia and Eriocaulon that are endemic in the area have been reported to be critically endangered.
[Source: Chandore A. (2015) Endemic and threatened flowering plants of Western Ghats with special reference to Konkan region of Maharashtra. Journal of Basic Sciences. 2 (21-25)]
Hence it is most likely that bauxite mining in Western Ghats has adversely affected the critically endangered species like – Black panther, different Ceropegia spp., Eriocaulon spp.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 02)

Collect information about Prof. Almeida, Prof. V. N. Naik, Dr. A. V. Sathe, Dr. P. G. Patwardhan with reference to their taxonomic work and biodiversity conservation.
Answer:
1. Prof. Almeida:
Prof. (Dr.) Marselin R. Almeida was a renowned Plant Taxonomist and Medicinal Plant Consultant of India. He was a curator at the Blatter Herbarium (Mumbai). He discovered four new species of pteridophytes from Bombay presidency. His work includes – Pteridophytes of Maharashtra and Flora of Mahabaleshwar. He has contributed to the Flora of Maharashtra, Sawantwadi and its adjoining areas along with Dr. S. M. Almeida.

2. Prof. V. N. Naik:
Prof. V. N. Naik is a renowned ‘Angiosperms Taxonomist’ of India. He completed the Flora of Marathwada. He has produced 15 Ph.D., 110 research articles and 6 books. His book on ‘Taxonomy of Angiosperms’ (Tata McGraw-Hill Education, 1984) is widely used throughout the world. He is currently a faculty of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Marathwada University, Aurangabad.

3. Dr. A. V. Sathe:
Collection and taxonomic studies of mushrooms in Maharashtra started around 1974. Prof. A.V. Sathe and his team were amongst the first to begin these studies. They recorded 75 species distributed in 43 genera. These species were collected from Maharashtra, Karnataka and Kerala. The collection of these species was documented in the form of a Monograph on Agaricales.
[Source: Borkar P., Doshi A., Navathe D. (2015) Mushroom diversity of Konkan region of Maharashtra, India. Journal of Threatened Taxa. 7(10): 7625-7640]

4. Dr. P. G. Patwardhan:
Dr. Patwardhan and his associates at the M.A.C.S. Research Institute, Pune-renamed as Agharkar Research Institute (ARI), Pune have performed detailed studies on lichens. His school is in possession of over 600 species of crustose lichens, obtained after intensive collection programmes. These specimens have been deposited in the Ajarekar Mycological Herbarium in the Department of Mycology and Plant Pathology at the M.A.C.S. Research Institute, Pune.
[Source:
http://lib.unipune.ac.in:8080/xmlui/bitstreamfhandle/l23456789/7451/07_introduction.pdf? sequence=7&is Allowedly]
[Students are expected to find more information on their own.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 03)

Why should we visit botanical gardens, museums and zoo?
Answer:

1. Botanical gardens, museums and zoos are taxonomical aids which can be used to study biodiversity.
2. Botanical gardens have a wide range of plant species that are protected and preserved which can be observed and studied.
3. Museums help gain information about various plants and animals that are preserved and may even be extinct. They act as reference hubs for biodiversity studies.
4. Zoos provide information about various animals.

They also harbour certain endangered animals and help us understand the role of biodiversity conservation. They can also be visited to study the food habits and behaviour of animals. Hence, we should visit botanical gardens, museums and zoos.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 03)

What is ‘ex-situ’and ‘in-situ’ conservation?
Answer:
1. In situ conservation: It includes conservation of species in their natural habitats. Grazing, cultivation and collection of products from the forests is banned in such areas. Legally protected areas include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.
2. Ex situ conservation: It includes conservation of species outside their natural habitats. Species are conserved in botanical gardens, culture collections and zoological parks.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 04)

(a) Collect information about botanical gardens, zoological parks and biodiversity hotspots in India.
Answer:
a. Botanical gardens in India:

b. Zoological Parks in India:

c. Biodiversity hotspots in India:

[Students are expected to use the given table as reference and collect more information on their own.]

(ii) Collect information of endemic flora and fauna of India.
Answer:
(a) Endemic flora:
Albizia sikharamensis (Mimosaceae), Argvreia arakuensis (Convolvulaceae), Arundinella setosa (Poaceae), Acacia diadenia (Mimosaceae), Citrus assamensis (Rutaceae), Magnolia bailloni (Magnoliaceae), etc.

(b) Endemic fauna:
Bare Bellied Hedgehog (Paraechinus nudiventris), Andaman Shrew (Crocidura andamanensis), Aruanchal Macaque (Macaca munzala), Car Nicobar Rat (Rattus palmarum), Peter’s Tube-nosed Bat (Harpiola grisea) etc.
[Source: http://faunaofindia.nic.in/PDFVolumes/spb/056/index.pdf]
[Students are expected to use the given sources and find more information on their own.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Living World Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Systematics of Living Organisms Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Plantae Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Kingdom Animalia Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Structure and Organization Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Cell Division Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Solid State Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 1 Solid State Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 1 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 1 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct answer.

Question i.
Molecular solids are
(a) crystalline solids
(b) amorphous solids
(c) ionic solids
(d) metallic solids
Answer:
(b) amorphous solids

Question ii.
Which of the following is n-type semiconductor?
(a) Pure Si
(b) Si doped with As
(c) Si doped with Ga
(d) Ge doped with In
Answer:
(b) Si doped with As

Question iii.
In Frenkel defect
(a) electrical neutrality of the substance is changed.
(b) density of the substance is changed.
(c) both cation and anion are missing
(d) overall electrical neutrality is preserved
Answer:
(d) overall electrical neutrality is preserved

Question iv.
In crystal lattice formed by bcc unit cell the void volume is
(a) 68%
(b) 74%
(c) 32%
(d) 26%
Answer:
(c) 32%

Question v.
The coordination number of atoms in bcc crystal lattice is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(d) 8

Question vi.
Which of the following is not correct ?
(a) Four spheres are involved in the formation of tetrahedral void.
(b) The centres of spheres in octahedral voids are at the a pices of a regular tetrahedron.
(c) If the number of atoms is N the number of octahedral voids is 2N.
(d) If the number of atoms is N/2, the number of tetrahedral voids is N.
Answer:
(c) If the number of atoms is N the number of octahedral voids is 2N.

Question vii.
A compound forms hcp structure. Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids in 0.5 mole of substance is respectively
(a) 3.011 × 10²³, 6.022 × 10²³
(b) 6.022 × 10²³, 3.011 × 10²³
(c) 4.011 × 10²³, 2.011 × 10²³
(d) 6.011 × 10²³, 12.022 × 10²³
Answer:
(a) 3.011 × 10²³, 6.022 × 10²³

Question viii.
Pb has fcc structure with edge length of unit cell 495 pm. Radius of Pb atom is
(a) 205 pm
(b) 185 pm
(c) 260 pm
(d) 175 pm
Answer:
(d) 175 pm

2. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question i.
What are the types of particles in each of the four main classes of crystalline solids?
Answer:
The smallest constituents or particles of various solids are atoms, ions or molecules.

Question ii.
Which of the three types of packing used by metals makes the most efficient use of space and which makes the least efficient use ?
Answer:
fcc has the most efficient packing of particles while scc has the least efficient packing.

Question iii.
The following pictures show population of bands for materials having different electrical properties. Classify them as insulator, semiconductor or a metal.

Answer:
Picture A represents metal conductor,
Picture B represents insulator,
Picture C represents semiconductor.

Question iv.
What is a unit cell?
Answer:

• Unit cell : It is the smallest repeating structural unit of a crystalline solid (or crystal lattice) which when repeated in different directions produces the crystalline solid (lattice).
• The crystal is considered to consist of an infinite number of unit cells.
• The unit cell possesses all the characteristics of the crystalline solid.

Question v.
How does electrical conductivity of a semiconductor change with temperature ? Why?
Answer:

• Since the energy difference between valence band and conduction band in semiconductor is not large, the electrons from valence band can be promoted to conduction by heating.
• Hence electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with temperature.

Question vi.
The picture represents bands of MOs for Si. Label valence band, conduction band and band gap.

Answer:

Question vii.
A solid is hard, brittle and electrically non-conductor. Its melt conducts electricity. What type of solid is it?
Answer:
A solid crystalline electrolyte like NaCl is hard, brittle and electrically nonconductor. But its melt conducts electricity.

Question viii.
Mention two properties that are common to both hep and ccp lattices.
Answer:
In hcp and ccp crystal lattices coordination number is 12 and packing efficiency is 74%.

Question ix.
Sketch a tetrahedral void.
Answer:

Question x.
What are ferromagnetic substances?
Answer:

1. The substances which possess unpaired electrons and high paramagnetic character and when placed in a magnetic field are strongly attracted and show permanent magnetic moment even when the external magnetic field is removed are said to be ferromagnetic. They can be permanently magnetised.
2. In the solid state, the metal ions of ferromagnetic substance are grouped together into small regions called domains, where each domain acts as a tiny magnet.

For example : Fe, Co, Gd, Ni, CrO₂, etc.

3. Answer the following in brief.

Question i.
What are valence band and conduction band?
Answer:
There are two types of bands of molecular orbitals as follows :

• Valence band : The atomic orbitals with filled electrons from the inner shells form valence bands, where there are no free mobile electrons since they are involved in bonding.
• Conduction band : Atomic orbitals which are partially filled or empty on overlapping form closely placed molecular orbitals giving conduction bands where electrons are delocalised and can conduct, heat and electricity.

Question ii.
Distinguish between ionic solids and molecular solids.
Answer:

Question iii.
Calculate the number of atoms in fcc unit cell.
Answer:
Number of atoms in face-centred cubic (fcc) unit cell :
In this unit cell, there are 8 atoms at 8 corners and 6 atoms at 6 face centres. Each corner contributes 1/8th atom to the unit cell, hence due to 8 corners,
Number of atoms = \(\frac {1}{8}\) × 8 = 1.
Each face centre contributes half of the atom to the unit cell, hence due to 6 face centres,
Number of atoms = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 6 = 3.
∴ Total number of atoms present in fee unit cell = 1 + 3 = 4.
Hence the volume of the unit cell is equal to the volume of four atoms.

Face centered unit cell

Question iv.
How are the spheres arranged in first layer of simple cubic close-packed structures? How are the successive layers of spheres placed above this layer ?
Answer:
(i) Stacking of square close packed layers :

Stacking of square close packed layers

In this arrangement, the two dimensional AAAA type square closed packed layers are placed one over the other in such a way that the crests of all spheres are in contact with successive layers in all directions. All spheres of different layers are perfectly aligned horizontally and vertically forming unit cells having primitive or simple cubic structure. Since all the layers are identical and if each layer is labelled as layer A, then whole three dimensional crystal lattice will be of AAAA… type.

Each sphere is in contact with six surrounded spheres, hence the coordination number of each sphere is six.

(ii) Stacking of two hexagonal close packed layers :
A close packed three dimensional structure can be generated by arranging hexagonal close packed layers in a particular manner.

In this the spheres of second layer are placed in the depression of the first layer.
In this if first layer is labelled as A then second layer is labelled as B since they are aligned differently.

Two layers of closed packed spheres

In this, all triangular voids of the first layers are not covered by the spheres of the second layer. The triangular voids which are covered by second layer spheres generate tetrahedral void which is surrounded by four spheres. The triangular voids in one layer have above them triangular voids of successive layers.

The overlapping triangular voids from two layers together form an octahedral void which is surrounded by six spheres.

Question v.
Calculate the packing efficiency of metal crystal that has simple cubic structure.
Answer:
Step 1 : Radius of sphere : In simple cubic lattice, the atoms (spheres) are present at eight corners and in contact along the edge in the unit cell.
If ‘a’ is the edge length of the unit cell and ‘r’ is the radius of the atom, then
a = 2r or r = a/2

scc structure

Step 2 : Volume of sphere :
Volume of one particle = \(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\) × r³
= \(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\) × (a/2)³ = \(\frac{\pi a^{3}}{6}\)

Step 3 : Total volume of particles : Since the unit cell contains one particle. Volume occupied by one particle in unit cell = \(\frac{\pi a^{3}}{6}\)

Step 4 : Packing efficiency :
Packing efficiency

∴ Packing efficiency = 52.36%
Percentage of void space = 100 – 52.36
= 47.64%

Question vi.
What are paramagnetic substances? Give examples.
Answer:
(1) The magnetic properties of a substance arise due to the presence of electrons.
(2) An electron while revolving around the nucleus, also spins around its own axis and generates a magnetic moment and magnetic properties.
(3) If an atom or a molecule contains one or more unpaired electrons spinning in same direction, clockwise or anticlockwise, then the substance is associated with net magnetic moment and magnetic properties. They experience a net force of attraction when placed in the magnetic field. This phenomenon is called paramagnetism and the substance is said to be paramagnetic.
For example, O₂, Cu²⁺, Fe³⁺ , Cr³⁺ , NO, etc.

Question vii.
What are the consequences of Schottky defect?
Answer:
Consequences of Schottky defect :

• Since the number of ions (cations and anions) decreases but volume remains unchanged, the density of a substance decreases.
• As the number of missing cations and anions is equal, the electrical neutrality of the compound remains same.
• This defect arises in ionic crystals like NaCl, AgBr, KCl, etc.

Question viii.
Cesium chloride crystallizes in cubic unit cell with Cl^– ions at the corners and Cs⁺ ion in the centre of the cube. How many CsCl molecules are there in the unit cell ?
Answer:
Number of Cs⁺ ion at body centre = 1
Number of Cl^– ions due to 8 comers = 8 × \(\frac {1}{8}\) = 1
Hence unit cell contains 1 CsCl molecule.

Question ix.
Cu crystallizes in fee unit cell with edge length of 495 pm. What is the radius of Cu atom ?
Answer:
Given : a = 495 pm
Radius, r = ?
For fee structure,
radius = r = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}=\frac{495}{2 \times \sqrt{2}}\) = 175 cm.
Radius of Cu atom = 175 pm

Question x.
Obtain the relationship between density of a substance and the edge length of unit cell.
Answer:
(1) Consider a cubic unit cell of edge length ‘a’.
The volume of unit cell = a³

(2) If there are ‘n’ particles per unit cell and the mass of particle is ‘m’, then
Mass of unit cell = m × n.

(3) If the density of the unit cell of the substance is p then
Density of unit cell = \(\frac{\text { Mass of unit cell }}{\text { Volume of unit cell }}\)
ρ = \(\frac{m \times n}{a^{3}}\)

Question 4.
The density of iridium is 22.4 g/cm³. The unit cell of iridium is fcc. Calculate the radius of iridium atom. Molar mass of iridium is 192.2 g/mol.
Answer:
Given : Crystal structure of iridium = fcc
Molar mass of iridium = 192.2 gmol^-1
Density = ρ = 22.4 gcm^-3
Radius of iridium = ?
In fcc structure, there are 8 Ir atoms at 8 comers and 6 Ir atoms at 6 face centres.
∴ Total number of Ir atoms = \(\frac {1}{8}\) × 8 + \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 6
= 1 + 3
= 4
Mass of Ir atom = \(\frac{192.2}{6.022 \times 10^{23}}\)
= 31.92 × 10^-23 g
∴ Mass of 4 Ir atoms = 4 × 31.92 × 10^-23
= 1.277 × 10^-21 g
∴ Mass of unit cell = 1.277 × 10^-21 g
Density of unit cell = \(\frac{\text { Mass of unit cell }}{\text { Volume of unit cell }}\)
22.4 = \(\frac{1.277 \times 10^{-21}}{a^{3}}\)
∴ a³ = \(\frac{1.277 \times 10^{-21}}{22.4}\)
= 57 × 10^-24 cm³
∴ a = (57 × 10^-24)³ = 3.848 × 10^-8 cm
If r is the radius of iridium atom, then for fcc structure,
r = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
= \(\frac{3.848 \times 10^{-8}}{2 \times 1.414}\)
= 1.36 × 10^-8 cm
= 136 pm
Radius of iridium atom = 136 pm

Question 5.
Aluminium crystallizes in cubic close packed structure with unit cell edge length of 353.6 pm. What is the radius of Al atom ? How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm³ of Al ?
Answer:
Given : Structure of Al
= Cubic close packed structure
= ccp structure
Edge length of unit cell = a = 353.6 pm
= 3.536 × 10^-8 cm
r = ?
Number of unit cells in 1.00 cm³ of Al = ?
Radius of Al atom = r = \(\frac{a}{2 \sqrt{2}}=\frac{353.6}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
= \(\frac{353.6}{2 \times 1.414}\) = 125 pm
Volume of one unit cell = a³ = (3.536 × 10^-8)³
= 4.421 × 10^-23 cm³
Number of unit cells = \(\frac{1.00}{4.421 \times 10^{-23}}\)
= 2.26 × 10²²
Radius of Al atom = 125 pm
Number of unit cells = 2.26 × 10²²

Question 6.
In an ionic crystalline solid atoms of element Y form hcp lattice. The atoms of element X occupy one third of tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the compound?
Answer:
In the given hcp lattice, Y atoms are present at 12 corners and 2 face centres.
∴ Number of Y atoms = \(\frac {1}{2}\) × 12 + 2 × \(\frac {1}{2}\) = 3
There are 6 tetrahedral voids, the number of X atoms = \(\frac {1}{3}\) × 6 = 2
∴ Formula of the compound is X₂Y₃.

Question 7.
How are tetrahedral and octahedral voids formed?
Answer:
Tetrahedral void : The vacant space or void among four constituent particles having tetrahedral arrangement in the crystal lattice is called tetrahedral void.

The arrangement of four spheres around the void is tetrahedral. A tetrahedral void is formed when a triangular void made by three coplanar spheres is in contact with fourth sphere above or below it.

Octahedral void : The vacant space or void at the centre of six spheres (or atoms) which are placed octahedrally is called octahedral void.

Question 8.
Third layer of spheres is added to second layer so as to form hcp or ccp structure. What is the difference between the addition of third layer to form these hexagonal close-packed structures?
Answer:

1. In the formation of hexagonal closed-packed (hcp) structure, the first one dimensional row shows depressions between neighbouring atoms.
2. When a second row is arranged so that spheres fit in these depressions then a staggered arrangement is obtained. If the first row is A then the second row is B.
3. When third row is placed in staggered manner in contact with second row then A type arrangement is obtained.
4. Similarly, the spheres in fourth row can be arranged as B type layer. This results in ABAB… type setting of the layers. This gives hexagonal close packing (hcp) structure.

Hexagonal close packing (hcp)

Question 9.
An element with molar mass 27 g/mol forms cubic unit cell with edge length of 405 pm. If density of the element is 2.7 g/cm³, what is the nature of cubic unit cell ? (fcc or ccp)
Answer:
Given : Molar mass = M = 27 g mol^-1
Nature of crystal = cubic unit cell
Edge length = a = 405 pm = 4.05 × 10^-8 cm
Density = ρ = 2.7 g cm^-3
Nature of unit cell = ?

= 3.997
≅ 4
Hence the nature of unit cell = face-centred cubic unit cell
Radius of Al atom = 125 pm
The nature of cubic unit cell is fcc.

Question 10.
An element has a bcc structure with unit cell edge length of 288 pm. How many unit cells and number of atoms are present in 200 g of the element? (1.16 × 10²⁴, 2.32 × 10²⁴)

Question 11.
Distinguish with the help of diagrams metal conductors, insulators and semiconductors from each other.
Answer:
Conductor:

1. A substance which conducts heat and electricity to a greater extent is called conductor.
2. In this, conduction bands and valence bands overlap or are very closely spaced.
3. There is no energy difference or very less energy difference between valence bands and conduction bands.
4. There are free electrons in the conduction bands.
5. The conductance decreases with the increase in temperature.
6. E.g., Metals, alloys.
7. The conducting properties can’t be improved by adding third substance.

Insulator:

1. A substance which cannot conduct heat and electricity under any conditions is called insulator.
2. In this, conduction bands and valence bands are far apart.
3. The energy difference between conduction bands and valence bands is very large.
4. There are no free electrons in the conduction bands and electrons can’t be excited from valence bands to conduction bands due to large energy difference.
5. No effect of temperature on conducting properties.
6. E.g., Wood, rubber, plastics.
7. No effect of addition of any substance.

Semiconductor:

1. A substance that has poor electrical conductance at low temperature but higher conductance at higher temperature is called semiconductor.
2. In this, conduction bands and valence bands are spaced closely.
3. The energy difference between conduction bands and valence bands is small.
4. The electrons can be easily excited from valence bands to conduction bands by heating.
5. Conductance increases with the increase in temperature.
6. E.g., Si, Ge
7. By doping, conducting properties improve. E.g. n-type, p-type semiconductors.

Question 12.
What are n-type semiconductors? Why is the conductivity of doped n-type semiconductor higher than that of pure semiconductor ? Explain with diagram.
Answer:
n-type semiconductor:

• n-type semiconductor contains increased number of electrons in the conduction band.
• When Si semiconductor is doped with 15^th group element phosphorus, P, the new atoms occupy some vacant sites in the lattice in place of Si atoms.
• P has five valence electrons, out of which four are involved in covalent bonding with neighboring Si atoms while one electrons remains free and delocalised.
• These free electrons increase the electrical conductivity of the semiconductor.
• The semiconductors with extra non-bonding free electrons are called n-type semiconductors.

P atom occupying regular site of Si atom

Question 13.
Explain with diagram. Frenkel defect. What are the conditions for its formation? What is its effect on density and electrical neutrality of the crystal?
Answer:

1. Frenkel defect : This defect arises when an ion of an ionic compound is missing from its regular site and occupies interstitial vacant position between lattice points.
2. Cations have smaller size than anions, hence generally cations occupy the interstitial sites.
3. This creates a vacancy defect at its original position and interstitial defect at new position.
4. Frenkel defect is regarded as the combination of interstitial defect and vacancy defect.

Conditions for the formation of Frenkel defect :

1. This defect arises in ionic compounds with a large difference between the sizes of cation and anion.
2. The ionic compounds must have ions with low coordination number.

Consequences of Frenkel defect :

1. Since there is no loss of ions from the crystal lattice, the density of the solid remains unchanged.
2. The crystal remains electrically neutral.
3. This defect is observed in ZnS, AgCl, AgBr, Agl, CaF₂, etc.

Question 14.
What is an impurity defect? What are its types? Explain the formation of vacancies through aliovalent impurity with example.
Answer:
Impurity defect : This defect arises when foreign atoms, that is, atoms different from the host atoms are present in the crystal lattice.

There are two types of impurity defects namely

1. Substitutional defects and
2. Interstitial defects.

(1) Substitutional defects : These defects arises when foreign atoms occupy the lattice sites in place of host atoms, due to their displacements.
Examples : Solid solutions of metals (alloys). For example. Brass in which host atoms are of Cu which are replaced by impurity of Zn atoms. In this Zn atoms occupy regular sites while Cu atoms occupy substituted sites.

Brass

Vacancy through aliovalent impurity :
By addition of impurities of aliovalent ions :

Vacancy through aliovalent ion

When aliovalent ion like Sr²⁺ in small amount is added by additing SrCl₂ to NaCl during its crystallisation, each Sr²⁺ ion (oxidation state 2+) removes 2 Na⁺ ions from their lattice points, to maintain electrical neutrality. Hence one of vacant lattice site is occupied by Sr²⁺ ion while other site remains vacant.

Interstitial impurity defect :

Stainless steel

A defect in solid in which the impurity atoms occupy interstitial vacant spaces of lattice structure is called interstitial impurity defect.

For example, in steel, normal lattice sites are occupied by Fe atoms but interstitial spaces are occupied by carbon atoms.

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 1 Solid State Intext Questions and Answers

Try this… (Textbook Page No. 1)

Observe the above figure carefully. The two types of circles in this figure represent two types of constituent particles of a solid.

Question 1.
Will you call the arrangement of particles in this solid regular or irregular ?
Answer:
The arrangement of particles in this solid is regular.

Question 2.
Is the arrangement of constituent particles in directions \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}\), \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C D}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E F}}\) same or different?
Answer:
\(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{A B}}\) represents arrangement of identical particles of one type.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{C D}}\) represents arrangement of identical particles of another type.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{E F}}\) represents regular arrangement of two different particles in alternate positions.

Use your brain power ! (Textbook Page No. 2)

Question 1.
Identify the arrangements A and B as crystalline or amorphous.

Answer:
Arrangement in image A indicates the substance is crystalline.
Arrangement in image B indicates the substance is amorphous.

Try this… (Textbook Page No. 3)

Question 1.
Graphite is a covalent solid yet soft and good conductor of electricity. Explain.
Answer:

1. Each carbon atom in graphite is sp² hybridised and covalently bonded to other three sp2 hybridised carbon atoms forming σ bonds and the fourth electron in 2p_z orbital of each carbon atom is used in the formation of a π bond. This results in the formation of hexagonal rings in two dimensions.
2. In graphite, the layers consisting of hexagonal carbon network are held together by weak van der Waal’s forces imparting softness.
3. The electrons in π bonds in the ring are delocalised and free to move in the delocalised molecular orbitals giving good electrical conductance.

Use your brain power ! (Textbook Page No. 13)

Question 1.
Which of the three lattices scc, bcc and fcc has the most efficient packing of particles ? Which one has the least efficient packing ?
Answer:
fcc has the most efficient packing of particles while see has the least efficient packing.

Can you think ? (Textbook Page No. 20)

Question 1.
When ZnO is heated it turns yellow and returns back to original white colour on cooling. What could be the reason ?
Answer:
When colourless ZnO is strongly heated, the metal atoms are deposited on crystal surface and anions O^2- migrate to the surface producing vacancies at anion lattice points.

These anions combine with Zn atoms forming ZnO and release electrons.
Zn + O^2- → ZnO + 2e^–

These released electrons diffuse into the crystal and occupy vacant sites of anions and produce F- centres. Due to these colour centres, ZnO turns yellow.

Can you tell ? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Let a small quantity of phosphorus be doped into pure silicon.

Question 1.
Will the resulting material contain the same number of total number of electrons as the original pure silicon ?
Answer:
Total number of electrons in doped silicon will be more than in original silicon.

Question 2.
Will the material be electrically neutral or charged ?
Answer:
Material will be electrically neutral.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Solid State Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Electrochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 16 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 16 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question A.
Oxidative Rancidity is …………….. reaction
a. addition
b. substitution
c. Free radical
d. combination
Answer:
c. Free radical

Question B.
Saponification is carried out by ……………..
a. oxidation
b. alkaline hydrolysis
c. polymerisation
d. Free radical formation
Answer:
b. alkaline hydrolysis

Question C.
Aspirin is chemically named as ……………..
a. Salicylic acid
b. acetyl salicylic acid
c. chloroxylenol
d. thymol
Answer:
b. acetyl salicylic acid

Question D.
Find odd one out from the following
a. dettol
b. chloroxylenol
c. paracetamol
d. trichlorophenol
Answer:
c. paracetamol

Question E.
Arsenic based antibiotic is
a. Azodye
b. prontosil
c. salvarsan
d. sulphapyridine
Answer:
c. salvarsan

Question F.
The chemical used to slow down the browning action of cut fruit is
a. SO₃
b. SO₂
c. H₂SO₄
d. Na₂CO₃
Answer:
b. SO₂

Question G.
The chemical is responsible for the rancid flavour of fats is
a. Butyric acid
b. Glycerol
c. Protein
d. Saturated fat
Answer:
a. Butyric acid

Question H.
Health benefits are obtained by consumption of
a. Saturated fats
b. trans fats
c. monounsaturated fats
d. all of these
Answer:
c. monounsaturated fats

2. Explain the following :

Question A.
Cooking makes food easy to digest.
Answer:

• During the cooking process, high polymers of carbohydrates or proteins are hydrolysed to smaller polymeric units.
• The uncooked food mixture is a heterogeneous suspension which becomes a colloidal matter on cooking.
• As a result, the constituent nutrient molecules present in cooked food are smaller in size and hence, easier to digest, than the uncooked food.

Hence, cooking makes food easy to digest.

Question B.
On cutting some fruits and vegetables turn brown.
Answer:
i. Cutting of fruits and vegetables damage the cells, resulting in release of chemicals.
ii. Depending on the pH of fruits/vegetables, polyphenols are released.
iii. Due to the action of an enzyme, these polyphenols react with oxygen present in the air and get oxidised to form quinones.

iv. Quinones further undergo reactions including polymerization, which results in the formation of brown coloured products called as tannins.
Thus, on cutting, some fruits and vegetables turn brown.

Question C.
Vitmin E is added to packed edible oil.
Answer:

• Vitamin E is a very effective natural antioxidant.
• The phenolic – OH group present in the structure of vitamin E is responsible for its antioxidant activity.
• Also, the long chain of saturated carbon atoms makes it fat soluble.

Therefore, when vitamin E is added to packed edible oil, it prevents the oxidative rancidity of the oil.

Question D.
Browning of cut apple can be prolonged by applying lemon juice.
Answer:

• Browning of cut apple is due to the oxidation of polyphenols at a particular pH to quinones, which further undergoes polymerization to form brown coloured tannins.
• This browning reaction can be prolonged or slowed down by using reducing agents or by changing the pH.
• Applying lemon juice (i.e., citric acid) on the cut apple, lowers the pH at the surface of the apple. This prevents the oxidation reaction. Thus, browning of cut apple can be prolonged by applying lemon juice.

Question E.
A diluted solution (4.8 % w/v) of 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is employed as antiseptic.
Answer:

• 2,4,6-Trichlorophenol (TCP) is more potent antiseptic than phenol.
• It has low corrosive effects as compared to phenol, if used in lower concentrations.

Hence, diluted solution (4.8% w/v) of 2,4,6-trichlorophenol is used as antiseptic.

Question F.
Turmeric powder can be used as antiseptic.
Answer:

• Turmeric powder contains an active ingredient called curcumin.
• Curcumin has antiseptic properties; thus, it is used for wound healing or applied on bruise.

Hence, turmeric powder can be used as antiseptic.

3. Identify the functional groups in the following molecule :

Answer:

4. Give two differences between the following

Question A.
Disinfectant and antiseptic
Answer:

Question B.
Soap and synthetic detergent
Answer:

Question C.
Saturated and unsaturated fats
Answer:

Question D.
Rice flour and cooked rice
Answer:

5. Match the pairs.

Answer:
A – e,
B – a,
C – d,
D – c

6. Name two drugs which reduce body pain.
Answer:
Aspirin and paracetamol are the two drugs that reduce body pain.

7. Explain with examples

Question A.
Antiseptics
Answer:
i. Antiseptics are used to sterilise surfaces of living tissue when the risk of infection is very high, such as during surgery or on wounds.
ii. Commonly used antiseptics include inorganics like iodine and boric acid or organics like iodoform and some phenolic compounds.

e.g.

• Tincture of iodine (2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture) and iodoform serve as powerful antiseptics and is used to apply on wounds.
• A dilute aqueous solution of boric acid is a weak antiseptic used for eyes.
• Various phenols are used as antiseptics. A dilute aqueous solution of phenol (carbolic acid) is used as antiseptic; however, phenol is found to be corrosive in nature. Many chloro derivatives of phenols are more potent antiseptics than the phenol itself. They can be used with much lower concentrations, which reduce their corrosive effects.
• Two of the most common phenol derivatives in use are trichlorophenol (TCP) and chloroxylenol (which is an active ingredient of antiseptic dettol).
• Thymol obtained from oil of thyme (a spice plant) has excellent non-toxic antiseptic properties.

Question B.
Disinfectant
Answer:

• Disinfectants are non-selective antimicrobials.
• They kill a wide range of microorganisms including bacteria.
• They are used on non-living surfaces for example, floors, instruments, sanitary ware, etc.
• Various phenols can be used as disinfectants.
  e.g. p-Chloro-o-benzyl phenol is used as a disinfectant in all-purpose cleaners.

Question C.
Cationic detergents
Answer:
Cationic detergents: These are quaternary ammonium salts having one long chain alkyl group.
e.g. Ethyltrimethylammonium bromide: [CH₃(CH₂)₁₅ – N⁺(CH₃)₃]Br^–

Question D.
Anionic detergents
Answer:
Anionic detergents: These are sodium salts of long chain alkyl sulphonic acids or long chain alkyl substituted benzene sulphonic acids.
e.g. Sodium lauryl sulphate: CH₃(CH₂)₁₀CH₃O\(\mathrm{SO}_{3}^{-}\)Na⁺

Question E.
Non-ionic detergents
Answer:
Nonionic detergents: These are ethers of polyethylene glycol with alkyl phenol or esters of polyethylene glycol with long chain fatty acid.
e.g. a. Nonionic detergent containing ether linkage:

b. Nonionic detergent containing ester linkage: CH₃(CH₂)₁₆ – COO(CH₂CH₂O)_nCH₂CH₂OH

8. Explain : mechnism of cleansing Action of soap with flow chart.
Answer:
The following flow chart shows mechanism of cleansing action of soap:

9. What is meant by broad spectrum antibiotic and narrow spectrum antibiotics?
Answer:
Antibiotics which are effective against wide range of bacteria are known as broad spectrum antibiotics, while antibiotics which are effective against one group of bacteria are known as narrow spectrum antibiotics.

10. Answer in one senetence

Question A.
Name the painkiller obtained from acetylation of salicyclic acid.
Answer:
Aspirin is the pain killer obtained from acetylation of salicylic acid.

Question B.
Name the class of drug often called as painkiller.
Answer:
Analgesics are the class of drug often called as painkiller.

Question C.
Who discovered penicillin?
Answer:
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin.

Question D.
Draw the structure of chloroxylenol and salvarsan.
Answer:
Structure of chloroxylenol:

Structure of salvarsan:

Question E.
Write molecular formula of Butylated hydroxy toulene.
Answer:
Molecular formula of butylated hydroxytoluene is C₁₅H₂₄O.

Question F.
What is the tincture of iodine ?
Answer:
Tincture of iodine is a 2-3% solution of iodine in alcohol-water mixture.

Question G.
Draw the structure of BHT.
Answer:

Question I.
Write a chemical equation for saponification.
Answer:

Question J.
Write the molecular formula and name of

Answer:
Molecular formula: C₉H₈O₄
Name: Aspirin

11. Answer the following

Question A.
Write two examples of the following.
a. Analgesics
c. Antiseptics
d. Antibiotics
e. Disinfectant
Answer:

Question B.
What do you understand by antioxidant ?
Answer:

• An antioxidant is a substance that delays the onset of oxidant or slows down the rate of oxidation of foodstuff.
• It is used to extend the shelf life of food.
• Antioxidants react with oxygen-containing free radicals and thereby prevent oxidative rancidity.
  e.g. Vitamin E is a very effective natural antioxidant.

Activity :

Collect information about different chemical compounds as per their applications in day-to-day life.
Answer:

[Note: Students can use the above information as reference and collect additional information on their own.]

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 261)

Question i.
What are the components of balanced diet?
Answer:
Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids (fats and oil), vitamins, minerals and water are the components of balanced diet.

Question ii.
Why is food cooked? What is the difference in the physical states of uncooked and cooked food?
Answer:

• Food is cooked in order to make it easy to digest.
• Also, the raw or uncooked food may contain harmful microorganisms which may cause illness. Cooking of food at high temperature kills most of these microorganisms.
• Raw/uncooked food materials like dried pulses, vegetables, meat, etc. are hard and thus, not easily chewable while cooked food is soft and tender, therefore, easily chewable.

Question iii.
What are the chemicals that we come across in everyday life?
Answer:
Detergents, shampoos, medicines, various food flavours, food colours, etc. are different types of chemicals that we come across in everyday life.

Just think (Textbook Page No. 261)

Question i.
Why is food stored for a long time?
Answer:
Food (like various cereals, pulses, pickles) is stored for a long time to make it available in all seasons.

Question ii.
What methods are used for preservation of food?
Answer:
Various physical and chemical methods are used for preservations of food.

• Physical methods like, addition of heat, removal of heat, removal of water, irradiation, etc., are used in order to preserve food.
• Chemical methods like, addition of sugar, salt, vinegar, etc. are employed for preservation of food.

Question iii.
What is meant by quality of food?
Answer:
Food quality can be described in terms of parameters such as flavour, smell, texture, colour and microbial spoilage.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 263)

Question i.
How is Vanaspati ghee made?
Answer:
Vanaspati ghee is prepared by hydrogenation of oils. Hydrogen gas is passed through the oils at about 450 K in the presence of nickel catalyst to form solid edible fats like vanaspati ghee.

Question ii.
What are the physical states of peanut oil, butter, animal fat, Vanaspati ghee at room temperature?
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 264)

Question 1.
When is an antipyretic drug used?
Answer:
An antipyretic drug is used to reduce fever (that is, it lowers body temperature when a fever is present).

Question 2.
What type of medicine is applied to a bruise?
Answer:
Antiseptic such as tincture of iodine is applied on a bruise in order to prevent the exposed living tissue from getting infected.

Question 3.
What is meant by a broad spectrum antibiotic?
Answer:
Antibiotics which are effective against wide range of bacteria are known as broad spectrum antibiotic.

Question 4.
What is the active principle ingredient of cinnamon bark?
Answer:
Cinnamaldehyde is the principle active ingredient of cinnamon bark.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 268)

Question i.
Can we use the same soap for bathing as well as cleaning utensils or washing clothes? Why?
Answer:
No, we cannot use the same soap for bathing as well as cleaning utensils or washing clothes due to the following reasons:

• Chemical composition of each type of soap or cleansing material is different.
• Nature, acidity, texture, reactivity towards water (i.e., hard water or soft water), reactivity towards microorganisms, stains are different for each type of soap.
• Depending on these qualities, soaps are classified and used accordingly.
  e.g. pH of soaps used for bathing purpose is different than that of the soap which is used for cleaning utensils.

Thus, we cannot use the same soap for bathing as well as cleaning utensils or washing clothes.

Question ii.
How will you differentiate between soaps and synthetic detergent using borewell water?
Answer:
Borewell water is hard water. Soaps and synthetic detergents react differently with hard water.

1. Soap: Soaps are insoluble in hard water. Borewell water (hard water) contains Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions. Soaps react with these ions to form insoluble magnesium and calcium salts of fatty acids. These salts precipitate out as gummy substance or form scum.
2. Synthetic detergents: Synthetic detergents can be used in hard water as well. They contain molecules (components) which form soluble calcium and magnesium salts.

Thus, soaps will form scum in borewell water but synthetic detergents will not.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Hydrocarbons Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 15 Hydrocarbons Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 15 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 15 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose correct options

Question A.
Which of the following compound has the highest boiling point?
a. n-pentane
b. iso-butane
c. butane
d. neopentane
Answer:
a. n-pentane

Question B.
Acidic hydrogen is present in :
a. acetylene
b. ethane
c. ethylene
d. dimethyl acetylene
Answer:
a. acetylene

Question C.
Identify ‘A’ in the following reaction:

a. KMnO₄/H⁺
b. alkaline KMnO₄
c. dil. H₂SO₄/1% HgSO₄
d. NaOH/H₂O₂
Answer:
a. KMnO₄/H⁺

Question D.
Major product of chlorination of ethyl benzene is :
a. m-chlorethyl benzene
b. p-chloroethyl benzene
c. chlorobenzene
d. o-chloroethylbenzene
Answer:
b. p-chloroethyl benzene

Question E.
1 – chloropropane on treatment with alc. KOH produces :
a. propane
b. propene
c. propyne
d. propyl alcohol
Answer:
b. propene

2. Name the following :

Question A.
The type of hydrocarbon that is used as lubricant.
Answer:
Waxes

Question B.
Alkene used in the manufacture of polythene bags.
Answer:
Ethene

Question C.
The hydrocarbon said to possess carcinogenic property.
Answer:
Benzene

Question D.
What are the main natural sources of alkane?
Answer:
Crude petroleum and natural gas.

Question E.
Arrange the three isomers of alkane with malecular formula C₅H₁₂ in increasing order of boiling points and write their IUPAC names.
Answer:
The three isomers of alkane with molecular formula C₅H₁₂ are as follows:

The increasing order of their boiling point is I > II > III.

Question F.
Write IUPAC names of the products obtained by the reaction of cold concentrated sulphuric acid followed by water with the following compounds.
a. propene
b. but-1-ene
Answer:
a. propene:

b. but-1-ene:

Question G.
Write the balanced chemical reaction for preparation of ethane from
a. Ethyl bromide
b. Ethyl magnesium iodide
Answer:
a. Preparation of ethane from ethyl bromide:

b. Preparation of ethane from ethyl magnesium iodide:

Question H.
How many monochlorination products are possible for
a. 2-methylpropane ?
b. 2-methylbutane ?
Draw their structures and write their IUPAC names.
Answer:
a. Possible monochlorination products for 2-methylpropane:

b. Possible monochlorination products for 2-methylbutane:

Question I.
Write all the possible products for pyrolysis of butane.
Answer:
Possible products for pyrolysis of butane are:

Question J.
Which of the following will exhibit geometical isomerism ?

Answer:
Compound (c) will exhibit geometrical isomerism.

Question K.
What is the action of following on ethyl iodide ?
a. alc. KOH
b. Zn, HCl
Answer:
a. Action of alc. KOH on ethyl iodide:

b. Action of Zn/HCl on ethyl iodide:

Question L.
An alkene ‘A’ an ozonolysis gives 2 moles of ethanal. Write the structure and IUPAC name of ‘A’.
Answer:
Structure of A: CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃
IUPAC name of A: But-2-ene

Question M.
Acetone and acetaldehyde are the ozonolysis products of an alkene. Write the structural formula of an alkene and give IUPAC name of it.
Answer:
The structural formula of alkene:

IUPAC name is 2-methylbut-2-ene.

Question N.
Write the reaction to convert
a. propene to n-propyl alcohol.
b. propene to isoproyl alcohol.
Answer:
a.

b.

Question O.
What is the action of following on but-2-ene ?
a. dil alkaline KMnO₄
b. acidic KMnO₄
Answer:
a. Action of dil. alkaline KMnO₄ on but-2-ene:

b. Action of acidic KMnO₄ on but-2-ene:

Question P.
Complete the following reaction sequence :

Answer:

Question Q.
Write the balanced chemical reactions to get benzene from
a. Sodium benzoate.
b. Phenol.
Answer:
a. Sodium benzoate:
When anhydrous sodium benzoate is heated with soda lime, it undergoes decarboxylation and gives benzene.

b. Phenol:
When vapours of phenol are passed over heated zinc dust, it undergoes reduction and gives benzene.

Question R.
Predict the possible products of the following reaction.
a. chlorination of nitrobenzene,
b. sulfonation of chlorobenzene,
c. bromination of phenol,
d. nitration of toluene.
Answer:
a. Nitro group is meta directing group. So, chlorination of nitrobenzene gives m-chloronitrobenzene.

b. Chloro group is ortho and para directing group. So, sulphonation of chlorobenzene gives p-chlorobenzene sulphonic acid and o- chlorobenzene sulphonic acid.

c. Phenolic -OH group is ortho and para directing group. So, bromination of phenol gives p-bromophenol and o-bromophenol.

d. Methyl group is ortho and para directing group. So, nitration of toluene gives p-nitrotoluene and o-nitrotoluene.

3. Identify the main product of the reaction

Answer:
a.

b.

c.

d.

4. Read the following reaction and answer the questions given below.

a. Write IUPAC name of the product.
b. State the rule that governs formation of this product.
Answer:
a. IUPAC name of the product: 1 -Bromo-2-methylpropane
b. Anti-Markownikov’s rule/Kharasch effect/peroxide effect: It states that, the addition of HBr to unsymmetrical alkene in the presence of organic peroxide (R-O-O-R) takes place in the opposite orientation to that suggested by Markovnikov’s rule.

5. Identify A, B, C in the following reaction sequence :

Answer:

6. Identify giving reason whether the following compounds are aromatic or not.

Answer:
A.

Compound is non-aromatic since it has 4π electrons and hence, does not obey Huckel rule of aromaticity.

B.

Compound is non-aromatic since it has 4π electrons and hence, does not obey Huckel rule of aromaticity.

C.

Compound is aromatic since it has 6π electrons and hence, obeys Huckel rule of aromaticity.

D.

Compound is aromatic since it has 6n electrons and hence, obeys Huckel rule of aromaticity.

7. Name two reagents used for acylation of benzene.
Answer:
The two reagents used for acylation of benzene are:
i. CH₃COCl (acetyl chloride) and anhydrous AlCl₃
ii. (CH₃CO)₂O (acetic anhydride) and anhydrous AlCl₃

8. Read the following reaction and answer the questions given below.

A. Write the name of the reaction.
B. Identify the electrophile in it.
C. How is this electrophile generated?
Answer:
A. The name of the reaction is Friedel-Craft’s alkylation reaction.
B. The electrophile in the reaction is ⁺CH₃.
C. The electrophile ⁺CH₃ is generated as follows:

Activity:

Prepare chart of hydrocarbons and note down the characteristics.
Answer:

Characteristics of hydrocarbons:

• They are chemical compounds that are formed from only hydrogen and carbon atoms.
• Both ‘C’ and ‘H’ share an electron pair forming covalent bonds.
• One of the special properties of carbon is its ability to form double and triple bonds (unsaturation). Saturated hydrocarbons are alkanes and cycloalkanes while the unsaturated hydrocarbons are the aromatics, alkenes and alkynes.
• All hydrocarbons are insoluble in water, their boiling point increases as the size of alkane increases.
• All hydrocarbons can reach complete oxidation.
• Hydrocarbons are mainly used as fuel for transport and industry.

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information on hydrocarbons on their own.]

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 15 Hydrocarbons Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 233)

Question i.
What are hydrocarbons?
Answer:
The compounds which contain carbon and hydrogen as the only elements are called hydrocarbons.

Question ii.
Write structural formulae of the following compounds: propane, ethyne, cyclobutane, ethene, benzene.
Answer:

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 233)

Question 1.
Why are alkanes called paraffins?
Answer:
i. Alkanes contain only carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen single covalent bonds.
ii. They are chemically less reactive and do not have much affinity for other chemicals.
Hence, they are called paraffins.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 233)

Question 1.
Collect information about hydrocarbon.
Answer:

• In organic chemistry, a hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of carbon and hydrogen as the only elements.
• They are examples of group 14 hydrides.
• Alkanes, cycloalkanes, aromatic hydrocarbons are different types of hydrocarbons.
• Most of the hydrocarbons found on earth occur naturally in crude oil.
• They mainly undergo substitution, addition or combustion reactions.
• Most hydrocarbons are flammable and toxic.
• They are the primary energy source in the form of combustible fuel source.

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information on their own]

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 234)

Question 1.
i. Write the structures of all the chain isomers of the saturated hydrocarbon containing six carbon atoms.
ii. Write IUPAC names of all the above structures.
Answer:
The structural formulae and names of all possible isomers having molecular formula C₆H₁₄ are as follows:

Note:
Alkanes and isomer number

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 235)

Question i.
What is a catalyst?
Answer:
A catalyst is a substance that can be added to a reaction to increase the reaction rate without getting consumed in the process.
e.g. Ni is used as a catalyst in the catalytic hydrogenation of alkenes or alkynes.

Question ii.
What is addition reaction?
Answer:
When a compound combines with another compound to form a product that contain all the atoms in both the reactants, it is called an addition reaction.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 235)

Question 1.
Transform the following word equation into balanced chemical equation and write at least 3 changes that occur at molecular level during this chemical change.
\(\text { 2-Methylpropene + Hydrogen } \stackrel{\text { catalyst }}{\longrightarrow} \text { Isobutane }\)
Answer:

Three changes which occur at molecular level include:
Step 1: Adsorption of reactants: Reactants (alkene and hydrogen) get adsorbed on the catalytic surface.
Step 2: Formation of a product: Hydrogen atoms are added across the double bond of 2-methylpropene which results in the formation of product isobutane.
Step 3: Desorption: Product formed on the catalytic surface is readily desorbed making catalytic surface available for other molecules.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 236)

Question 1.
Why are alkanes insoluble in water and readily soluble in organic solvents like chloroform or ether?
Answer:

• The solubility of any substance is governed by the principle of like dissolves like. This means polar compounds are soluble in polar solvents while nonpolar compounds are soluble in nonpolar solvents.
• Alkanes consist of C – C and C – H nonpolar covalent bonds and thus, they are nonpolar in nature, whereas water is a polar solvent.
• The dipole-dipole forces that exist between water molecules is much stronger than the forces of attraction between alkane and water molecules.

Hence, alkanes are insoluble in water and readily soluble in organic solvents like chloroform or ether.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 238)

Question 1.
What is the product which is poisonous and causes air pollution formed by incomplete combustion of alkane?
Answer:
When alkanes are subjected to incomplete combustion, it forms carbon monoxide and carbon (soot).
i. 2CH_4(g) + 3O_2(g) → 2CO_(g) + 4H₂O_(g)
ii. CH_4(g) + O_2(g) → C_(s) + 2H₂O_(l)

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 238)

Question i.
What are alkenes?
Answer:
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons containing at least one carbon-carbon double bond.

Question ii.
Calculate the number of sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in 2-methylpropene.
Answer:

Question iii.
Write the structural formula of pent-2-ene.
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 241)

Question i.
Explain by writing a reaction, the main product formed on heating 2-methylbutan-2-ol with concentrated sulphuric acid.
Answer:

Question ii.
Will the main product in the above reaction show geometrical isomerism?
Answer:
No, the major product, i.e., 2-methylbut-2-ene does not show geometrical (or cis-trans) isomerism.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 244)

Question 1.
Propan-1-ol and 2-methypropan-1-ol are not prepared by hydration method. Why?
Answer:
Propan-1-ol and 2-methylpropan-1-ol cannot be prepared by hydration of propene and 2-methylprop-1-ene because the addition reaction follows Markovnikov’s rule.

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 244)

Question 1.
On ozonolysis, an alkene forms the following carbonyl compounds. Draw the structure of unknown alkene from which these compounds are formed: HCHO and CH₃COCH₂CH₃
Answer:
The structure of alkene which produces a mixture of HCHO and CH₃COCH₂CH₃ on ozonolysis is

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 245)

Question 1.
Write the structure of monomer from which each of the following polymers are obtained.

Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 246)

Question i.
What are aliphatic hydrocarbons?
Answer:
Aliphatic hydrocarbons are hydrocarbons containing carbon and hydrogen joined together in straight chain or branched chain. They may be saturated (alkanes) or unsaturated (alkenes or alkynes).

Question ii.
Compare the proportion of carbon and hydrogen atoms in ethane, ethene and ethyne. Which compound is most unsaturated with hydrogen?
Answer:
Ethane
C : H = 2 : 6 = 1 : 3
Ethene
C : H = 2 : 4 = 1 : 2
Ethyne
C : H = 2 : 2 = 1 : 1
From the above proportion it is clear that ethyne with 1 : 1 ratio of C : H is most unsaturated with hydrogen (50%) as compared to ethane (25%) and ethene (33.33%).

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 247)

Question 1.
Why is sodamide used in dehydrohalogenation of vicinal dihalides to remove HX from alkenyl halide in place of alcoholic KOH?
Answer:

• Sodamide (NaNH₂) is a strong base and hence, helps in complete conversion of alkenyl halide formed in the first step to form alkynes.
• The base (KOH or NaOH) used in first step gives alkynes in poor yield and hence, stronger bases such as NaNH₂ on KNH₂ are used in second step.

Use your brainpower! (Textbook Page No. 247)

Question 1.
Convert: 1-Bromobutane to hex-1-yne
Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 248)

Question 1.
Alkanes and alkenes do not react with lithium amide. Give reason.
Answer:
i. The sp hybrid carbon atom in terminal alkynes is more electronegative than the sp² carbon in ethene or the sp³ carbon in ethane.
ii. Due to high electronegative character of carbon in terminal alkynes, hydrogen atom can be given away as proton (H⁺) to very strong base as shown in the reactions below.

iii. Further, since s-character decreases from sp to sp² to sp³ carbon atom, the relative acidity of alkanes, alkenes and alkynes is in the following order: H – C = C – H > H₂C = CH₂ > H₃C – CH₃
Hence, alkenes and alkanes do not react with lithium amide.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 248)

Question 1.
Arrange following hydrocarbons in the increasing order of acidic character: propane, propyne, propene.
Answer:
Propyne > propene > propane

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 249)

Question 1.
Convert: 3-Methylbut-l-yne into 3-methylbutan-2-one
Answer:

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 249)

Question i.
What are aromatic hydrocarbons?
Answer:
Benzene and all compounds that have structures and chemical properties resembling benzene are called as aromatic hydrocarbons.

Question ii.
What are benzenoid and non-benzenoid aromatics?
Answer:
Benzenoid aromatics are compounds having at least one benzene ring in the structure.
e.g. Benzene, naphthalene, anthracene, phenol, etc.,
Non-benzenoid aromatics are compounds that contain an aromatic ring, other than benzene. e.g. Tropone, etc.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 254)

Question 1.
What is decarboxylation?
Answer:
The reaction which involves removal of a carboxyl group (-COOH) in the form of carbon dioxide (CO₂) is known as decarboxylation reaction.
R – COOH → R – H + CO₂

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions

1. Answer the following :

Question A.
Write condensed formulae and bond line formulae for the following structures.

Answer:

Question B.
Write dash formulae for the following bond line formulae.

Answer:

Question C.
Write bond-line formulae and condensed formulae for the following compounds
a. 3-methyloctane
b. hept-2-ene
c. 2, 2, 4, 4- tetramethylpentane
d. octa-1,4-diene
e. methoxy ethane
Answer:

Question D.
Write the structural formulae for the following names and also write correct IUPAC names for them.
a. 5-ethyl-3-methylheptane
b. 2,4,5-trimethylthexane
c. 2,2,3-trimethylpentan-4-01
Answer:

Question E.
Identify more favourable resonance structure from the following. Justify.

Answer:
a.

Structure (I) will be more favourable resonance structure as structure (II) involves separation of opposite charges and the electronegative oxygen atom has a positive charge.

Both structures (I) and (II) involves separation of opposite charges, but structure (I) has a positive charge on the more electropositive ‘C’ and a negative charge on more electronegative ‘O’. Thus, structure (I) will be more favourable resonance structure.

Question F.
Find out all the functional groups present in the following polyfunctional compounds.
a. Dopamine a neurotransmitter that is deficient in Parkinson’s disease.

b. Thyroxine the principal thyroid hormone.

c. Penicillin G, a naturally occurring antibiotic

Answer:
i. Functional groups: Phenolic -OH group (Ar-OH) and primary amine (-NH₂) group are present in dopamine.
ii. Functional groups: Phenolic -OH group (Ar-OH), halide (-I), ether (Ar-O-Ar), primary amine (-NH₂) carboxylic acid (-COOH) groups are present in thyroxine.
iii. Functional groups: Secondary amide
,
carboxylic acid (-COOH), tertiary amide
,
thioether (R-S-R) groups are present in penicillin G.

Question G.
Find out the most stable species from the following. Justify.

Answer:
a. The most stable species from the given species is \(\left(\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{C}\right)_{3} \dot{\mathrm{C}}\) i.e., tert-butyl radical.
This is because it has greater number of alkyl groups attached to the C-atom having unpaired electron. More the number of the alkyl groups, the greater will be +1 inductive (electron releasing) effect, and thereby greater will be the stability of the free radical.

b. The most stable species from the given species is \(\mathrm{CBr}_{3}^{-}\).
This is because it contains 3 -Br atoms, which exhibits electron withdrawing inductive effect. Carbanions are stabilized by -I inductive (electron withdrawing) effect. Larger the number of -I groups attached to the negatively charged carbon atom, lower will be the electron density on the carbon atom and higher will be its stability.

c. The most stable species from the given species is \(\stackrel{+}{\mathbf{C}} \mathbf{H}_{3}\).
This because it does not contain Cl atom, which exhibits electron withdrawing inductive effect. Carbocations are destabilized by -I inductive (electron withdrawing) effect. When more number of-I groups are attached to the positively charged carbon atom, the positive charge on the carbon atom increases further, thus destabilizing the species. Hence, the species with no -I groups will be most stable.

Question H.
Identify the α-carbons in the following species and give the total number of α-hydrogen in each.

Answer:
a.

In structure (i), C-2 and C-4 are α-carbon atoms.
Hydrogen atoms(s) attached to α-C atoms is a α-H atom. Thus, structure (i) contains 4 α-H atoms.
b.

In structure (ii), carbon atoms adjacent to C-2 are α-carbon atoms (as shown in the structure).
Thus, structure (ii) contains 6 α-H atoms.

c.

C-3 carbon atom, that is, C-atom next to (H₂C=CH-) is a α-C atom.
Thus, structure (iii) contains 2 α-H atoms.

Question I.
Identify primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbon in the following compounds.

Answer:

2. Match the pairs

Answer:
i – d,
ii – c,
iii – a

3. What is meant by homologous series ? Write the first four members of homologous series that begins with
A. CH₃CHO
B. H-C≡C-H
Also write down their general molecular formula.
Answer:
Homologous series: A series of compounds of the same family in which each member has the same type of carbon skeleton and functional group, and differs from the next member by a constant difference of one methylene group (-CH₂-) in its molecular and structural formula is called as homologous series.
A. CH₃CHO :

Comparing these molecular formulae and assigning the number of carbon atoms as ‘n’, the following general formula is deduced: C_nH_2nO/C_nH_2n-1CHO (where n = 1, 2, 3, …).

B. H-C≡C-H :

Comparing these molecular formulae and assigning the number of carbon atoms as ‘n’, the following general formula is deduced: C_nH_2n-2 (where n = 2, 3,4,….).

4. Write IUPAC names of the following

Answer:

5. Find out the type of isomerism exhibited by the following pairs.


Answer:
A. Metamerism
B. Functional group isomerism
C. Tautomerism
D. Tautomerism

6. Draw resonance srtuctures of the following :

A. Phenol
B. Benzaldehyde
C. Buta-1,3-diene
D. Acetate ion
Answer:
A. Resonance structures for phenol:

B. Resonance structures of benzaldehyde:

C. Resonance structures of Buta-1,3-diene:

D. Resonance structures of acetate ion:

7. Distinguish :

Question A.
Inductive effect and resonance effect
Answer:
Inductive effect:

1. Presence of polar covalent bond is required.
2. The polarity is induced in adjacent carbon- carbon single (covalent) bond due to a presence of influencing group (more electronegative atom than carbon).
3. Depending on the nature of influencing group it is differentiated as +I effect and -I effect.
4. The direction of the arrow head denotes the direction of the permanent electron displacement.

Resonance effect:

1. Presence of conjugated n electron system or species having an atom carrying p orbital attached to a multiple bond is required.
2. The polarity is produced in the molecule by the interaction of conjugated π bonds (or that between π bond and p orbital on the adjacent atom).
3. Depending on the nature of influencing group it is differentiated as +R and -R effect.
4. The delocalisation of n electrons is denoted by using curved arrows.

Question B.
Electrophile and nucleophile
Answer:
Electrophile:

1. Electrophile is an electron deficient species.
2. It is attracted towards negative charge (electron seeking).
3. It attacks a nucleophilic centre in the substrate and brings about an electrophilic reaction
4. It is an electron pair acceptor. (Lewis acid)
5. It can be a positively charged ion or a neutral species having a vacant orbital.
   e.g. H⁺, Br , \(\mathrm{NO}_{2}^{+}\), BF₃, AlCl₃, etc.

Nucleophile:

• Nucleophile is an electron rich species.
• It is attracted towards positive charge (nucleus seeking).
• It attacks the electrophilic centre in the substrate and brings about a nucleophilic reaction.
• It is an electron pair donor. (Lewis base)
• It can be negatively charged ion or neutral species having at least one lone pair of electrons.
  

C. Carbocation and carbanion
Answer:
Carbocation:

• It is a species in which carbon carries a positive charge.
• Positively charged carbon is sp² hybridized.
• It is electron-deficient.
• e.g. tert-Butyl carbocation, (CH₃)₃C⁺

Carbanion:

• It is a species in which carbon carries a negative charge.
• Negatively charged carbon is sp³/sp² hybridized.
• It is electron-rich.
• e.g.Methyl carbanion,
  

D. Homolysis and heterolysis
Answer:

8. Write true or false. Correct the false stament
A. Homolytic fission involves unsymmetrical breaking of a covalent bond.
B. Heterolytic fission results in the formation of free radicals.
C. Free radicals are negatively charged species
D. Aniline is heterocyclic compound.
Answer:
A. False
Homolytic fission involves symmetrical breaking of a covalent bond.
B. False
Heterolytic fission results in the formation of charged ions like cation and anion.
C. False
Free radicals are electrically neutral/uncharged species.
D. False
Aniline is a homocyclic aromatic compound.

9. Phytane is naturally occuring alkane produced by the alga spirogyra and is a constituent of petroleum. The IUPAC name for phytane is 2, 6, 10, 14-tetramethyl hexadecane. Write zig-zag formula for phytane. How many primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary carbons are present in this molecule.
Answer:
Zig-zag formula of phytane (2,6,10,14-tetramethyl hexadecane) is as follows:

Dash formula to represent types of C-atom:

In phytane, six 1° C-atoms, ten 2° C-atoms, four 3° C-atoms are present. Phytane does not contain any quaternary carbon atom in its structure.

10. Observe the following structures and answer the questions given below.

a. What is the relation between (i) and (ii) ?
b. Write IUPAC name of (ii).
c. Draw the functional group isomer of (i).
Answer:
a. (a) and (b) are chain isomers of each other.
b. IUPAC name of structure (b) is 2-methylpropanal.
c. Functional group isomer of (a) is butanone.

11. Observe the following and answer the questions given below

a. Name the reactive intermediae produced
b. Indicate the movement of electrons by suitable arrow to produce this intermediate
c. Comment on stability of this intermediate produced.
Answer:
i. The reactive intermediates produced are methyl free radicals:

ii. Stability order of alkyl free radicals is: \(\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_{3}\) < 1° <2° <3°
Hence, \(\dot{\mathrm{C}} \mathrm{H}_{3}\) produced in the above reaction is least stable and highly reactive.

12. An electronic displacement in a covalent bond is represented by following notation.

A. Identify the effect
B. Is the displacement of electrons in a covalent bond temporary or permanent.
Answer:
A. The electronic displacement represented above is inductive effect (-I effect).
B. Inductive effect is a permanent electronic effect as it depends on the electronegativity of the atoms. In the given example, the displacement of electrons is permanent as Cl is more electronegative than C.

13. Draw all the no-bond resonance structures of isopropyl carbocation.
Answer:

14. A covalent bond in tert-butyl bromide breaks in a suitable polat solvent to give ions.
A. Name the anion produced by this breaking of a covalent bond.
B. Indicate the type of bond breaking in this case.
C. Comment on geometry of the cation formed by such bond cleavage.
Answer:
A. The anion produced by breaking of the covalent C – Br bond is bromide

B. Heterolytic cleavage/fission takes place as charged ions are produced.
C. tert-Butyl carbocation formed in the given cleavage has trigonal planar geometry.

15. Choose correct options

A. Which of the following statements are true with respect to electronic displacement in covalent bond ?
a. Inductive effect operates through π bond
b. Resonance effect operates through σ bond
c. Inductive effect operates through σ bond
d. Resonance effect operates through π bond
i. a. and b
ii. a and c
iii. c and d
iv. b and c
Answer:
iii. c and d

B. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of …………. orbitals
a. σ – σ
b. σ – p
c. p – p
d. π – π
Answer:
b. σ – p

C. Which type of isomerism is possible in CH₃CHCHCH₃?
a. Position
b. Chain
c. Geometrical
d. Tautomerism
Answer:
a. Position

D. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

is ……………
a. hept-3-ene
b. 2-ethylpent-2-ene
c. hex-3-ene
d. 3-methylhex-3-ene
Answer:
d. 3-methylhex-3-ene

E. The geometry of a carbocation is …………
a. linear
b. planar
c. tetrahedral
d. octahedral
Answer:
b. planar

F. The homologous series of alcohols has general molecular formula ………..
a. C_nH_2n+1OH
b. C_nH_2n+2OH
c. C_nH_2n-2OH
d. C_nH_2nOH
Answer:
a. C_nH_2n+1OH

G. The delocaalization of electrons due to overlap between p-orbital and sigma bond is called …………….
a. Inductive effect
b. Electronic effect
c. Hyperconjugation
d. Resonance
Answer:
c. Hyperconjugation

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 14 Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 204)

Question i.
Which is the essential element in all organic compounds?
Answer:
Carbon is the essential element in all organic compounds.

Question ii.
What is the unique property of carbon that makes organic chemistry a separate branch of chemistry?
Answer:

• All organic compounds contain carbon.
• Carbon atoms show catenation property in which carbon atoms combine with other carbon atoms to form long chains and rings.
• Carbon atom can also form multiple bonds with other carbon atoms and with atoms of other elements.
• Due to this property of self-linking of carbon, a large number of organic compounds like proteins, DNA, sugar, oils, etc., are formed.

Thus, the unique property of catenation of carbon makes organic chemistry a separate branch of chemistry.

Question iii.
Which classes of organic compounds are often used in our daily diet?
Answer:
Carbohydrates (sugars), proteins (pulses), fats (edible plant and animal oil) and vitamins are the major classes of organic compounds often used in our daily diet.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 204)

Question 1.
Find out the structures of glucose, vanillin, camphor and paracetamol using internet. Mark the carbon atoms present in them. Assign the hybridization state to each of the carbon and oxygen atom. Identify sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds in these molecules.
Answer:
i. Structure of glucose:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In glucose, only carbon at position C-1 is sp² hybridized. On the other hand, carbons at C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5 and C-6 positions are sp³ hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: Oxygen atom attached to C-1 is sp² hybridized, rest oxygen atoms attached to carbon at C-2, C-3, C-4, C-5 and C-6 are sp³ hybridized.
[Note: Here, the open chain structure of glucose is used to answer the given questions.]

ii. Structure of vanillin:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In vanillin, carbon atoms C-1 to C-7 are sp² hybridized. Only C-8 carbon is sp³ hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: Oxygen atom bonded to C-7 sp² hybridized whereas oxygen atom bonded to C-4 and C-8 are sp³ hybridized.

iii. Structure of camphor:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In camphor, all the carbons are sp³ hybridized except the carbonyl carbon which is sp² hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: The carbonyl oxygen is sp² hybridized.

iv. Structure of paracetamol:

a. Hybridization of carbon: In paracetamol, carbons present in the ring and carbon at C-7 position are sp² hybridized. Only C-8 carbon is sp³ hybridized.
b. Hybridization of oxygen: Oxygen atom attached to carbon at ,C-1 position is sp³ hybridized. Oxygen atom attached to carbon at C-7 position is sp² hybridized.

Question 2.
i. Draw the structural formula of ethane.
ii. Draw electron-dot structure of propane.
Ans:
i. Structural formula of ethane (C₂H₆) can be drawn as follows:

ii. Electron-dot structure of propane is given as,

Where ‘•’ represents valence electrons of carbon and hydrogen.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 205)

Complete the table:

Answer:

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 206)

Question 1.
Draw two Newman projection formulae and two Sawhorse formulae for the propane molecule.
Answer:
Structural formula of propane is:

Structural formula of propane:
i. Newman projection formulae for propane molecule can be given as:

ii. Sawhorse formula for propane molecule can be given as:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 208)

Question 1.
Consider the following reaction:
2CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH + 2Na → 2CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – ONa + H₂
Compare the structure of the substrate propanol with that of the product sodium propoxide. Which part of the substrate, the carbon skeleton or the OH group has undergone a change during the reaction?
Answer:
In above reaction, the -OH group of the substrate molecule has undergone a change. The H-atom of hydroxyl group (-OH) is replaced by sodium forming the product.

Activity: (Textbook Page No. 219)

Observe the structural formulae (a) and (b).
i. Find out their molecular formulae.
ii. What is the difference between them?
iii. What is the relation between the two compounds represented by these structural formulae?
Answer:
i. Molecular formula of both (a) and (b) are same i.e., C₃H₆O.
ii. Compound (a), has a ketone (-CO-) functional group (i.e., acetone) and compound (b) has an aldehyde (-CHO) functional group (i.e., propionaldehyde). Both the compounds have different functional groups.
iii. Compound (a) and (b) are isomers of each other.
[Note: Aldehydes and ketones are the functional group isomers of each other.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 222)

Question 1.
Some bond fissions are described in the following table. For each of them, show the movement of electron/s using curved arrow notation. Classify them as homolysis or heterolysis and identify the intermediate species produced as carbocation, carbanion or free radical.

Answer:

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 223)

i. What is meant by ‘reagent’?
ii. Identify the ‘reagent’, ‘substrate’, ‘product’ and ‘byproduct’ in the following reaction.
CH₃COCl + NH₃ → CH₃CONH₂ + HCl
Answer:
i. The reactant which reacts with a substrate to form corresponding products is known reagent.
ii.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 224)

i. How is covalent bond formed between two atoms?
ii. Consider two covalently bonded atoms Q and R where R is more electronegative than Q. Will these atoms share the electron pair equally between them?
iii. Represent the above polar covalent bond between Q and R using fractional charges δ⁺ and δ^–.
Answer:
i. A covalent bond is formed between two atoms by mutual sharing of electrons so as to complete their octets or duplets (in case of elements having only one shell).

ii. A covalent bond is formed between Q and R having different electronegativities, that is, R is more electronegative than Q. In such a case, the atom R with a higher value of electronegativity pulls the shared pair of electrons to a greater extent towards itself as compared to the atom Q with lower value of electronegativity. As a result of this, the shared pair of electrons will get shifted towards atom R. Thus, both the atoms Q and R will not share the electron pair equally between them.

iii. Polar covalent bond between Q and R can be represented as:
\(\mathrm{Q}^{\delta+}-\mathrm{R}^{\delta-}\)

Try this (Textbook Page No. 225)

i. Draw a bond line structure of benzene (C₆H₆).
ii. How many C – C and C = C bonds are there in this structure?
iii. Write down the expected values of the bond lengths of the carbon-carbon bonds in benzene (Refer chapter 5).
Answer:
i. Bond line structure of benzene:

ii. In benzene, there are three alternating C – C single bonds and C = C double bonds.
[Note: In benzene, there are six C – C sigma bonds and three C – C pi bonds.]
iii. The expected values of carbon-carbon bond lengths in benzene are:

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 225)

i. Write down two Lewis structures for ozone. (Refer chapter 5)
ii. How are these two Lewis structures related to each other?
iii. What are these two Lewis structures called?
Answer:
i. Lewis structures of ozone can be shown as follows:

ii. In these two Lewis structures, the position of the atoms is same but the position of pair of electrons (or formal charge) is different. These two Lewis structures are considered equivalent to each other.
iii. These two Lewis structures are called as resonating or contributing or canonical structures.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 229)

i. Basic principles of organic chemistry:
https://authors.library.caltech.edu/25034
ii. Collect information about isomerism.
Answer:
i. Students are expected to refer to the book provided in the above link to collect additional information on the basic principles of organic chemistry.

ii. https://www.compoundchem.com/2014/05/22/typesofisomerism/
chemdictionary.org/structural-isomers/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Structural_isomer
[Note: Students can use the above links as a reference and collect additional information about isomerism on their own.]

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 13 Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question A.
Identify nuclear fusion reaction

Answer:
Among the given options, reactions (i) and (ii) represent nuclear fusion reactions wherein lighter nuclei combine to form a heavy nucleus.

Question B.
The missing particle from the nuclear reaction is

Answer:
(A) \({ }_{15}^{30} \mathrm{P}\)

Question C.
\({ }_{27}^{60} \mathrm{CO}\) decays with half-life of 5.27 years to produce \({ }_{28}^{60} \mathrm{Ni}\). What is the decay constant for such radioactive disintegration ?
a. 0.132 y^-1
b. 0.138
c. 29.6 y
d. 13.8%
Answer:
a. 0.132 y^-1

Question D.
The radioactive isotope used in the treatment of Leukemia is
a. ⁶⁰Co
b. ²²⁶Ra
c. ³²P
d. ¹³¹I
Answer:
c. ³²P

Question E.
The process by which nuclei having low masses are united to form nuclei with large masses is
a. chemical reaction
b. nuclear fission
c. nuclear fusion
d. chain reaction
Answer:
c. nuclear fusion

2. Explain

Question A.
On the basis of even-odd of protons and neutrons, what type of nuclides are most stable ?
Answer:

• Nuclides with even number of protons (Z) and even number of neutrons (N) are most stable.
• These nuclides tend to form proton-proton and neutron-neutron pairs.
• This impart stability to the nucleus.

Question B.
Explain in brief, nuclear fission.
Answer:
i. Nuclear fission: It is a process which involves splitting of the heavy nucleus of an atom into two nearly equal fragments accompanied by release of the large amount of energy.
e.g. Nuclear fission of ²³⁵U

ii. When a uranium nucleus absorbs neutron, it breaks into two lighter fragments and releases energy (heat), more neutrons, and other radiation. This can be given as,

iii. Characteristics of nuclear fission reactions:

• The mass of the fission products is less than the parent nucleus. A large amount of energy corresponding to the mass loss is released in each fission.
• When one uranium 235 nucleus undergoes fission, three neutrons are emitted, which subsequently disintegrate three more uranium nuclei and thereby produce nine neutrons. Such a chain continues by itself.
• In a very short time enormous amount of energy is liberated, which can be utilized for destructive or peaceful purposes.
• Energy released per fission is approximately 200 MeV.

Note:

• Each fission may lead to different products.
• There is no unique way for fission of ²³⁵U that produces Ba and Kr. There are 400 ways for fission of ²³⁵U leading to 800 fission products.
• Many of these fission products are radioactive which undergo spontaneous disintegrations giving rise to new elements in the periodic table.

Question C.
The nuclides with odd number of both protons and neutrons are the least stable. Why ?
Answer:

• The nuclides with odd number of both protons and neutrons are the least stable because, odd number of protons and neutrons results in the presence of two unpaired nucleons.
• These unpaired nucleons result in instability. Hence, such nuclides are the least stable.

Question D.
Referring the stabilty belt of stable nuclides, which nuclides are β^– and β⁺ emitters ? Why ?
Answer:

• Beta decay occurs when an unstable nucleus emits a beta particle and energy. A beta particle is either an electron or a positron. An electron is a negatively charged particle, and a positron is a positively charged electron (or anti-electron).
• When the beta particle is an electron, the decay is called beta-minus (β^–) decay. In beta-minus decay, a neutron breaks down to a proton and an electron, and the electron is emitted from the nucleus.
• When the beta particle is a positron, the decay is called beta-plus (β⁺) decay. In beta-plus decay, a proton breaks down to a neutron and a positron, and the positron is emitted from the nucleus.
• Thus, beta-minus decay occurs when a nucleus has too many neutrons relative to protons (i.e., N/Z > 1) and beta-plus decay occurs when a nucleus has too few neutrons relative to protons (i.e., N/Z < 1).
• By referring the stability belt of stable nuclides, nuclides with N/Z > 1 are to the left of the stability zone. Such nuclides are beta-minus emitters as they become stable when a neutron converts to a proton.
• Nuclides with N/Z < 1 are to the right of the stability zone. Such nuclides are beta-plus emitters as they become stable when a proton converts to a neutron.

Question E.
Explain with an example each nuclear transmutation and artifiacial radioactivity. What is the difference between them ?
Answer:
i. Nuclear transmutation: It involves transformation of a stable nucleus into another nucleus takes place which can be either stable or unstable.
ii. Artificial (induced) radioactivity: It is nuclear transmutation where the product nucleus is radioactive. The product nucleus decays spontaneously with emission of radiation and particles.

Step-I can be considered as nuclear transmutation as it produces a new nuclide \({ }_{7}^{13} \mathrm{~N}\).
However, the new nuclide is unstable (radioactive). Hence, step-I involves artificial (induced) radioactivity. Thus, in artificial transmutation, a stable element is collided with high speed particles to form another radioactive element.

Question F.
What is binding energy per nucleon ? Explain with the help of diagram how binding energy per nucleon affects nuclear stability ?
Answer:

i. Binding energy per nucleon (\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)), for nucleus containing (A) nucleons with binding energy (B.E.) is given as,
\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) = B.E./A
ii. Mean binding energy per nucleon (\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)) for the most stable isotopes as a function of mass number is shown above. This plot leads to the following inferences:
a. Light nuclides: (A < 30)
The peaks with A values in multiples of 4. For example, \({ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He},{ }_{6}^{12} \mathrm{C},{ }_{8}^{16} \mathrm{O}\) are more stable.
b. Medium mass nuclides: (30 < A < 90)
\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) increases typically from 8 MeV for A = 16 to nearly 8.3 MeV for A between 28 and 32 and it remains nearly constant 8.5 MeV beyond this and shows a broad maximum. The nuclides falling on the maximum are most stable which turns possess high values. ⁵⁶Fe with \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) value of 8.79 MeV is the most stable.
c. Heavy nuclides (A > 90)
\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\) decreases from maximum 8.79 MeV to 7.7 MeV for A ≅ 210, 209Bi is the stable nuclide. Beyond this, all nuclides are radioactive (α-emitters).

Question G.
Explain with example α-decay.
Answer:
i. The emission of α-particle from the nuclei of an radioelement is called α-decay.
ii. The charge on an α-particle is +2 with a mass of 4 u.
It is identical with helium nucleus and hence an α-particle is designated as \({ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\).
iii. In the α-decay process, the parent nucleus \({ }_{\mathrm{z}}^{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{X}\) emits an α-particle and produces daughter nucleus Y. The parent nucleus thus loses two protons (charge +2) and two neutrons. The total mass lost is 4 u. The daughter nucleus will therefore, have mass 4 units less and charge 2 units less than its parent.
iv. General equation for α-decay process can be given as:

In α-decay process of radium, radon (daughter nuclei) is formed with loses of two protons (charge +2) and two neutrons. The total mass lost is 4 u.
Thus, radon has a mass of 4 units less and charge 2 units less than its parent radium.

Question H.
Energy produced in nuclear fusion is much larger than that produced in nuclear fission. Why is it difficult to use fusion to produce energy ?
Answer:

• Nuclear fusion involves the fusion of lighter nuclei to form a heavy nucleus which is accompanied by an enormous amount of energy (heat).
• Fusion reaction requires extremely high temperature typically of the order of 108 K.

Question I.
How does N/Z ratio affect the nuclear stability ? Explain with a suitable diagram.
Answer:

• When the graph of number of neutrons (N) against protons (Z) is drawn, and all the stable isotopes are plotted on it, there is quite a clear correlation between N and Z. This graph is shown in the adjacent figure.
• A large number of elements have several stable isotopes and hence, the curve appears as a belt or zone called stability zone. All stable nuclides fall with this zone and the nuclei that are to the left or to the right of the stability zone are unstable and exhibit radioactivity. Below the belt, a straight line which represents the ratio N/Z to be nearly unity (i.e., N = Z) is shown.
• For nuclei lighter than \({ }_{20}^{40} \mathrm{Ca}\), the straight line (N = Z) passes through the belt. The lighter nuclides are therefore stable (N/Z being 1).
• The N/Z ratio for the stable nuclides heavier than calcium gives a curved appearance to the belt with gradual increase of N/Z (> 1). The heavier nuclides therefore, need more number of neutrons than protons to attain stability. The heavier nuclides with increasing number of protons render large coulombic repulsions. With increased number of neutrons, the protons within the nuclei get more separated, which renders them stable.
• Thus, nuclear stability is linked to the number of nucleons (neutrons and protons). In general, the lighter stable nuclei have equal numbers of protons and neutrons while heavier stable nuclei have increasingly more neutrons than protons.

[Note: Atoms with unstable nuclei are radioactive (exhibit radioactivity). To become more stable, the nuclei undergo radioactive decay.]

Question J.
You are given a very old sample of wood. How will you determine its age ?
Answer:
The age of the wood sample can be determined by radiocarbon dating as ¹⁴C becomes a part of a plant due to the photosynthesis reaction (i.e., absorption of [¹⁴CO₂ + ¹²CO₂]).
i. The activity (N) of given wood sample and that of fresh sample of live plant (N₀) is measured, where, N₀ denotes the activity of the given sample at the time of death.
ii. The age of the given wood sample. can be determined by applying following Formulae:

Note: The oldest rock found so far in Northern Canada is 3.96 billion years old.

3. Answer the following question

Question A.
Give example of mirror nuclei.
Answer:
Example of mirror nuclei: \({ }_{1}^{3} \mathrm{H}\) and \({ }_{2}^{3} \mathrm{He}\)

Question B.
Balance the nuclear reaction:

Answer:

Question C.
Name the most stable nuclide known. Write two factors responsible for its stability.
Answer:
The most stable nuclide known is lead (\({ }_{82}^{208} \mathrm{~Pb}\)).
Two factors responsible for its stability are as follows:

• It is a nuclide with even number of both protons (Z) and neutrons (N).
• It has two magic numbers i.e., 82 (for protons) and 126 (for neutrons).

Question D.
Write relation between decay constant of a radioelement and its half life.
Answer:
Relation between decay constant of a radioelement and its half-life is given as, λ = \(\frac{0.693}{\mathrm{t}_{1 / 2}}\)
Where, λ = Decay constant, t_1/2 = Half-life of a radioelement

Question E.
What is the difference between an α-particle and helium atom ?
Answer:

• Helium atom is composed of 2 protons and 2 neutrons (or 1 neutron) along with 2 electrons in the outer shell.
• On the other hand, α-particle constitutes 2 protons and 2 neutrons bound together to form a particle which is similar to helium (except presence of electrons).
• Helium is one of the inert gas which is stable (duplet complete) whereas α-particle is unstable and highly reactive.

Question F.
Write one point that differentiates nuclear reations from chemical reactions.
Answer:
Chemical reactions:

• Rearrangement of atoms by breaking and forming of chemical bonds.
• Different isotopes of an element have same behaviour.

Nuclear reactions:

• Elements or isotopes of one element are converted into another element in a nuclear reaction.
• Isotopes of an element behave differently.

Question G.
Write pairs of isotones and one pair of mirror nuclei from the following :

Answer:
Isotones: i. \({ }_{5}^{10} \mathrm{~B} \text { and }{ }_{6}^{11} \mathrm{C}\)
ii. \({ }_{13}^{27} \mathrm{Al} \text { and }{ }_{14}^{28} \mathrm{~S}\)
Mirror nuclei: Since there are no isobars the given set of nuclides does not contain a pair of mirror nuclei.

Question H.
Derive the relationship between half life and decay constant of a radioelement.
Answer:
Equation for the decay constant is given as,
λ = \(\frac{2.303}{t} \log _{10} \frac{\mathrm{N}_{0}}{\mathrm{~N}}\) …(i)
Where, λ = Decay constant
N = Number of nuclei (atoms) present at time t
At t = 0, N = N₀.
Hence, at t = t_1/2, N = N₀/2
Substitution of these values of N and t in equation (i) gives,

Question I.
Represent graphically log₁₀ (activity /dps) versus t/s. What is its slope ?
Answer:
Equation for a decay constant (λ) is given as,

Hence, instead if log₁₀N versus t, log₁₀ \(\left(\frac{-\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}\right)\) which is log₁₀ (activity) is plotted.
The graph of log₁₀ (activity/dps) versus t/s gives a straight line which can be represented as follows:

Question J.
Write two units of radioactivity. How are they interrelated ?
Answer:
The unit of radioactivity is curie (Ci).
1 Ci = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ dps
ii. Other unit of radioactivity is Becquerel (Bq).
1 Bq = 1 dps
Thus, 1 Ci = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ dps = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq

Question K.
Half life of ²⁴Na is 900 minutes. What is its decay constant?
Answer:

Question L.
Decay constant of ¹⁹⁷Hg is 0.017 h^-1. What is its half life ?
Answer:

Question M.
The total binding energy of ⁵⁸Ni is 508 MeV. What is its binding energy per nucleon ?
Answer:
Given: B.E. of ⁵⁸Ni = 508 MeV,
A = 58
To find: Binding energy per nucleon \(\bar{B}\)

Question N.
Atomic mass of \({ }_{16}^{32} \mathrm{~S}\) is 31.97 u. If masses of neutron and H atom are 1.0087 u and 1.0078 u respectively. What is the mass defect ?
Answer:
Given: m = 31.97 u, Z = 16, A = 32
m_n = 1.0087 u
m_H = 1.0078 u
To find: Δm
Formula: Δm = Zm_H + (A – Z)m_n – m
Calculation: Δm = Zm_H + (A – Z)m_n – m
= 16 × 1.0078 + (16 × 1.0087) – 31.97
= [16.1248 + 16.1392] – 31.97
= 0.294 u
Ans: The mass defect is 0.294 u.

Question O.
Write the fusion reactions occuring in the Sun and stars.
Answer:
Fusion reactions occurring in the Sun and stars are can be represented as,

Question P.
How many α and β – particles are emitted in the trasmutation
\({ }_{90}^{232} \mathrm{Th} \longrightarrow{ }_{82}^{208} \mathrm{~Pb}\)
Answer:
\({ }_{90}^{232} \mathrm{Th} \longrightarrow{ }_{82}^{208} \mathrm{~Pb}\)
The emission of one α-particle decreases the mass number by 4 whereas the emission of β-particles has no effect on mass number.
Net decrease in mass number = 232 – 208 = 24.
This decrease is only due to α-particles. Hence, number of α-particles emitted = \(\frac {24}{4}\) = 6
Now, the emission of one α-particle decrease the atomic number by 2 and one β-particle emission increases it by 1.
The net decrease in atomic number = 90 – 82 = 8
The emission of 6 α-particles causes decrease in atomic number by 12. However, the actual decrease is only 8. Thus, atomic number increases by 4. This increase is due to emission of 4 β-particles.
Thus, 6 α and 4 β-particles are emitted.

Question Q.
A produces B by α- emission. If B is in the group 16 of periodic table, what is the group of A ?
Answer:

When α-emission occurs, atomic number decreases by 2 and atomic mass number by 4.
Thus, if ‘B’ belongs to group 16 of periodic table, that means outermost orbit will contain 6 electrons.
Thus, ‘A’ will have 8 electrons in its valence shell and it will belong to group 18 of the periodic table.

Question R.
Find the number of α and β- particles emitted in the process
\({ }_{86}^{222} \mathrm{Rn} \longrightarrow{ }_{84}^{214} \mathrm{PO}\)
Answer:
The emission of one α-particle decreases the mass number by 4 whereas the emission of β-particles has no effect on mass number.
Net decrease in mass number = 222 – 214 = 8. This decrease is only due to α-particle. Hence, number of α-particle emitted = 8/4 = 2
Now, the emission of one α-particle decreases the atomic number by 2 and one β-particle emission increases it by 1.
The net decrease in atomic number = 86 – 84 = 2
The emission of 2 α-particles causes decrease in atomic number by 4. However, the actual decrease is only 2. It means atomic number increases by 2. This increase is due to emission of 2 β-particles.
Thus, 2 α and 2 β-particles are emitted.

[Note: The above question is modified to include the final decay product so as to determine the number of α-particles and β-particles emitted in the process. Here, the final decay product is assumed to be Po-214.]

4. Solve the problems

Question A.
Half life of ¹⁸F is 110 minutes. What fraction of ¹⁸F sample decays in 20 minutes ?
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 110 min
t = 20 min
To find: Fraction of ¹⁸F simple that decays


∴ Fraction of ¹⁸F sample that decays = 1 – 0.882 = 0.118
Ans: Fraction of ¹⁸F sample that decays in 20 minutes is 0.118.

Question B.
Half life of ³⁵S is 87.8 d. What percentage of ³⁵S sample remains after 180 d ?
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 87.8 d,
N₀ = 100,
t = 180 d
To find: % of ³⁵S that remains after 180 days

Question C.
Half life ⁶⁷Ga is 78 h. How long will it take to decay 12% of sample of Ga ?
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 78 h,
N₀ = 100,
N = 100 – 12 = 88
To find: t

Question D.
0.5 g Sample of ²⁰¹Tl decays to 0.0788 g in 8 days. What is its half life ?
Answer:
Given: N₀ = 0.5 g,
N = 0.0788 g,
t = 8 days
To find: t_1/2

Question E.
65% of ¹¹¹In sample decays in 4.2 d. What is its half life ?
Answer:
Given: N₀ = 100,
N = 100 – 65 = 35,
t = 4.2d
To find: t_1/2

Question F.
Calculate the binding energy per nucleon of \({ }_{36}^{84} \mathrm{Kr}\) whose atomic mass is 83.913 u. (Mass of neutron is 1.0087 u and that of H atom is 1.0078 u).
Answer:
Given: A = 84, Z = 36,
m = 83.913 u
m_n = 1.0087 u
m_H = 1.0078 u
To find: Binding energy per nucleon \((\bar{B})\)

Question G.
Calculate the energy in Mev released in the nuclear reaction
\({ }_{77}^{174} \mathrm{Ir} \longrightarrow{ }_{75}^{170} \mathrm{Re}+{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\)
Atomic masses : Ir = 173.97 u,
Re = 169.96 u and
He = 4.0026 u
Answer:
Given: m_Ir= 173.97 u
m_Re = 169.96 u
m_He = 4.0026 u
To find: Energy released
Formulae: i. Δm = (mass of ¹⁷⁴Ir) – (mass of ¹⁷⁰Re + mass of ⁴He)
ii. E = Δm × 931.4 MeV
Calculation:i. Δm = (mass of ¹⁷⁴Ir) – (mass of ¹⁷⁰Re + mass of ⁴He)
= 173.97 – (169.96 + 4.0026)
= 7.4 × 10^-3 u
ii. E = Δm × 931.4
= 7.4 × 10^-3 × 931.4
= 6.89236 MeV ≈ 6.892 MeV
Ans: The energy released in given nuclear reaction is 6.892 MeV.

Question H.
A 3/4 of the original amount of radioisotope decays in 60 minutes. What is its half life ?
Answer:

Question I.
How many – particles are emitted by 0.1 g of ²²⁶Ra in one year?
Answer:
Given: t = 1 y,
Amount of sample = 0.1 g
To find: Number of particles emitted

Activity = \(\frac{-\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}\) = λN
= 4.28 × 10^-4 × 2.665 × 10²⁰ atoms
= 1.141 × 10¹⁷ particles/year
Ans: Particles emitted by 0.1 g of ²²⁶Ra in one year = 1.141 × 10¹⁷ particles/year.
[Note: The half-life of radium is 1620 years. In order to apply appropriate textual concept, we have used this value in calculation.]

Question J.
A sample of ³²P initially shows activity of one Curie. After 303 days the activity falls to 1.5× 10⁴ dps. What is the half life of ³²P ?
Answer:

Question K.
Half life of radon is 3.82 d. By what time would 99.9 % of radon will be decayed.
Answer:
Given: t_1/2 = 3.82 d,
N₀ = 100
N = 100 – 99.9 = 0.1
To find: t

Question L.
It has been found that the Sun’s mass loss is 4.34 × 10⁹ kg per second. How much energy per second would be radiated into space by the Sun ?
Answer:
Given: Sun’s mass loss = 4.34 × 10⁹ kg per second
To find: Energy radiated per second into space by Sun
calculation: Δm = 4.34 × 10⁹ kg per second
Now, 1.66 × 10^-27 kg = 1u
∴ Δm = \(\frac{4.34 \times 10^{9}}{1.66 \times 10^{-27}}\) u per second
= 2.614 × 10³⁶ u per second
Now, 1 u = 931.4 MeV
2.614 × 10³⁶ u per second = 2.614 × 10³⁶ × 931.4
= 2.435 × 10³⁹ MeV/s
Now, 1 MeV = 1.6022 × 10^-19 J and 1 eV = 1 × 10^-6 MeV
1 MeV = 1.6022 × 10^-13 J
= 1.6022 × 10^-16 LJ
E = 2.435 × 10³⁹ MeV/s × 1.6022 × 10^-16 kJ/MeV
= 3.901 × 10²³ kJ/s
Ans: Energy radiated per second into space by Sun is 3.901 × 10²³ kJ/s.

Question M.
A sample of old wood shows 7.0 dps/g. If the fresh sample of tree shows 16.0 dps/g, How old is the given sample of wood ? Half life of ¹⁴C 5730 y.
Answer:

Activity :

1. Discuss five applications of radioactivity for peaceful purpose.
Answer:

• Development in earth sciences: Like to understand various geographical changes occurring on earth.
• Development in space technology: To study nuclear reactions in stars which may lead to new discoveries.
• Development in medical sciences: Diagnosis and treatment of various diseases.
• Development in industries: As a potent source of electricity or a power generator.
• Development in agriculture: To study or monitor changes in soil like uptake of nutrients from the soil etc.

[Note: Students can use above points are reference to discuss topic in class].

2. Organize a trip to Bhabha Atomic Reasearch Centre, Mumbai to learn about nuclear reactor. This will have to be organized through your college.
Answer:
Students are expected to visit the place to understand more about nuclear reactors.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 13 Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page no. 190)

Question 1.
How small is the nucleus in comparison to the rest of the atom?
Answer:
The radius of nucleus is of the order of 10^-15 m whereas that of the outer sphere is of the order of 10^-10 m. The size of outer sphere, is 10⁵ times larger than the nucleus i.e., if we consider the atom of size of football stadium then its nucleus will be the size of a pea.

(Textbook Page no. 191)

Question 1.
Identify the following nuclides as: isotopes, isobars and isotones.

Answer:

(Textbook Page No. 194)

Question 1.
i. What do you understand by the term rate of decay and give its mathematical expression.
ii. Why is minus sign required in the expression of decay rate?
Answer:
i. Rate of decay of a radioelement denotes the number of nuclei of its atoms which decay in unit time. It is also called activity of radioelement.
Rate of decay at any time t can be expressed as follows:
Rate of decay (activity) = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d} \mathrm{N}}{\mathrm{dt}}\)
where, dN is the number of nuclei that decay within time interval dt.
ii. Minus sign in the expression indicates that the number of nuclei decreases with time. Therefore, dN is a negative quantity. But, the rate of decay is a positive quantity. The negative sign is introduced in the rate expression to make the rate positive.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 194)

Question 1.
Prepare a chart of comparative properties of the above three types of radiations.
Answer:

Just think (Textbook Page No. 195)

Question 1.
Does half-life increase, decrease or remain constant? Explain.
Answer:
Half-life of a particular radioelement remains constant at a given instant. A radioactive half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the original isotope to decay. It is related to decay constant by the expression: t_1/2 = 0.693 / λ

From the expression, it is evident that half-life of a radio isotope is dependent only on the decay constant and is independent of the initial amount of the radio isotope. Each successive half-life in which the amount of radio isotope decreases to its half value is the same.

Thus, half-life remains constant.

Try this (Textbook Page No. 198)

Question 1.
²⁴Mg and ²⁷Al, both undergo (α, n) reactions and the products are radioactive. These emit β particles having positive charge (called positrons). Write balanced nuclear reactions in both.
Answer:

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 198)

Question 1.
What is the critical mass of ²³⁵U?
Answer:
i. The critical mass is the minimum mass of uranium-235 required to achieve a self-sustaining fission chain reaction under stated conditions.
ii. The chain reaction in fission of U-235 becomes self-sustaining when the critical mass of uranium-235 is about 50 kilograms.

Activity (Textbook Page No. 200)

Question 1.
You have learnt in Std. 9th, medical, industrial and agricultural applications of radioisotopes. Write at least two applications each.
Answer:
i. The uses of radioactive isotopes in the field of medicine:
a. Polycythaemia: The red blood cell count increases in the disease polycythaemia. Phosphorus-32 is used in its treatment.
b. Bone cancer: Strontium-89, strontium-90, samarium-153 and radium-223 are used in the treatment of bone cancer.

ii. The uses of radioactive isotopes in the industrial field:
a. Luminescent paint and radioluminescence: The radioactive substances radium, promethium, tritium with some phosphorus are used to make certain objects visible in the dark.
e.g. Hands of a clock, krypton-85 is used in HID (High Intensity Discharge) lamps.
b. Use in ceramic articles:
1. Luminous colours are used to decorate ceramic tiles, utensils, plates, etc.
2. Uranium oxide was earlier used to colour ceramics.

iii. The uses of radioactive isotopes in the agriculture field:
a. The genes and chromosomes that give seeds its properties like fast growth, higher productivity, etc., can be modified by means of radiation.
b. Onions and potatoes are irradiated with gamma rays from cobalt-60 to prevent their sprouting.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question A.
The equilibrium, H₂O_(l) ⇌ H⁺_(aq) + OH^–_(aq) is
a. dynamic
b. static
c. physical
d. mechanical
Answer:
a. dynamic

Question B.
For the equilibrium, A ⇌ 2B + Heat, the number of ‘A’ molecules increases if
a. volume is increased
b. temperature is increased
c. catalyst is added
d. concentration of B is decreased
Answer:
b. temperature is increased

Question C.
For the equilibrium Cl_2(g) + 2NO_(g) ⇌ 2NOCl_(g) the concentration of NOCl will increase if the equilibrium is disturbed by ………..
a. adding Cl₂
b. removing NO
c. adding NOCl
d. removal of Cl₂
Answer:
a. adding Cl₂

Question D.
The relation between K_c and K_p for the reaction A_(g) + B_(g) ⇌ 2C_(g) + D_(g) is
a. K_c = K_p/RT
b. K_p = Kc²
c. K_c = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{Kp}}}\)
d. K_p/K_c = 1
Answer:
a. K_c = K_p/RT

Question E.
When volume of the equilibrium reaction C_(s) + H₂O_(g) ⇌ CO_(g) + H_2(g) is increased at constant temperature the equilibrium will
a. shift from left to right
b. shift from right to left
c. be unaltered
d. can not be predicted
Answer:
a. shift from left to right

2. Answer the following

Question A.
State Law of Mass action.
Answer:
Law of mass action: The law of mass action states that the rate of a chemical reaction at each instant is proportional to the product of concentrations of all the reactants.

Question B.
Write an expression for equilibrium constant with respect to concerntration.
Answer:
For a reversible chemical reaction at equilibrium, aA + bB ⇌ cD + dD
Equilibrium constant (K_c) = \(\frac{[C]^{\mathrm{c}}[\mathrm{D}]^{\mathrm{d}}}{[\mathrm{A}]^{\mathrm{a}}[\mathrm{B}]^{\mathrm{b}}}\)

Question C.
Derive mathematically value of K_p for A_(g) + B_(g) ⇌ C_(g) + D_(g).
Answer:
When the concentrations of reactants and products in gaseous reactions are expressed in terms of their partial pressure, then the equilibrium constant is represented as K_p.
∴ For the reaction,
A_(g)+ B_(g) ⇌ C_(g) + D_(g)
the equilibrium constant (K_C) can be expressed using partial pressure as: K_p = \(\frac{P_{C} \times P_{D}}{P_{A} \times P_{B}}\)
Where P_A, P_B, P_C and P_D are equilibrium partial pressures of A, B, C and D respectively.

Question D.
Write expressions of K_C for following chemical reactions
i. 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2SO_3(g)
ii. N₂O_4(g) ⇌ 2NO_2(g)
Answer:
i. 2SO_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2SO_3(g)
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{3}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{SO}_{2}\right]^{2}\left[\mathrm{O}_{2}\right]}\)

ii. N₂O_4(g) ⇌ 2NO_2(g)
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{NO}_{2}\right]^{2}}{\left[\mathrm{~N}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{4}\right]}\)

Question E.
Mention various applications of equilibrium constant.
Answer:
Various applications of equilibrium constant:

• Prediction of the direction of the reaction
• To know the extent of the reaction
• To calculate equilibrium concentrations
• Link between chemical equilibrium and chemical kinetics

Question F.
How does the change of pressure affect the value of equilibrium constant ?
Answer:
The change of pressure does not affect the value of equilibrium constant.

Question J.
Differentiate irreversible and reversible reaction.
Answer:
Irreversible reaction:

1. Products are not converted back to reactants.
2. Reaction stops completely and almost goes to completion.
3. It can be carried out in an open or closed vessel.
4. It takes place only in one direction. It is represented by →
5. e.g. C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g)

Reversible reaction:

1. Products arc converted back to reactants.
2. Reaction appears to have stopped but does not undergo completion.
3. It is generally carried out in a closed vessel.
4. It takes place in both directions. It is represented by ⇌
5. e.g. N_2(g) + O_2(g) ⇌ 2NO_(g)

Question K.
Write suitable conditions of concentration, temperature and pressure used during manufacture of ammonia by Haber process.
Answer:
i. Concentration: Addition of H₂ or N₂ both favours forward reaction. This increases the yield of NH₃.
ii. Temperature: The formation NH₃ is exothermic. Hence, low temperature should favour the formation of NH₃. However, at low temperatures, the rate of reaction is small. At high temperatures, the reaction occurs rapidly but decomposition of NH₃ occurs. Hence, optimum temperature of about 773 K is used.
iii. Pressure: The forward reaction is favoured with high pressure as it proceeds with decrease in number of moles. At high pressure, the catalyst becomes inefficient. Therefore, optimum pressure needs to be used. The optimum pressure is about 250 atm.

Question L.
Relate the terms reversible reactions and dynamic equilibrium.
Answer:

• Reversible reactions are the reactions which do not go to completion and occur in both the directions simultaneously.
• If such a reaction is allowed to take place for a long time, so that the concentrations of the reactants and products do not vary with time, then the reaction will attain equilibrium.
• Since, both the forward and backward reactions continue to take place in opposite directions in the same speed, the equilibrium achieved is dynamic in nature.

Thus, if the reaction is not reversible then it cannot attain dynamic equilibrium.

Question M.
For the equilibrium.
\(\mathrm{BaSO}_{4(\mathrm{~s})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{Ba}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{2+}+\mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})}^{2-}\)
state the effect of
a. Addition of Ba²⁺ ion.
b. Removal of SO₄^2- ion
c. Addition of BaSO_4(s)
on the equilibrium.
Answer:
a. Addition of Ba²⁺ ion will favour the reverse reaction, (that is, equilibrium shifts from right to left). This increases the amount of BaSO₄.
b. Removal of \(\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}\) ion will favour the forward reaction, (that is, equilibrium shifts from left to right). This decreases the amount of BaSO₄.
c. Addition of BaSO_4(s) will not affect the equilibrium as the equilibrium constant expression does not include pure solids.

3. Explain :

Question A.
Dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium with suitable example.
Answer:
Dynamic nature of chemical equilibrium:
i. Consider a chemical reaction: A ⇌ B.
K_c = [B]/[A]
At equilibrium, the ratio of concentration of the product to that of the concentration of the reactant is constant and this is equal to K_c.

ii. At this stage reaction takes place in both the directions with same speed although the reaction appears to have stopped. Thus, the chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature. Dynamic means moving and at a microscopic level, the system is in motion.

iii. For example, in the reaction between H₂ and I₂ to form HI, the colour of the reaction mixture becomes constant because the concentrations of H₂, I₂ and HI become constant at equilibrium.
H₂ + I₂ ⇌ 2HI
Thus, when equilibrium is reached, the reaction appears to have stopped. However, this is not the case. The reaction is still going on in the forward and backward direction but the rate of forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction. Hence, chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature and not static.

Question B.
Relation between K_c and K_p.
Answer:
Consider a general reversible reaction:
aA_(g) + bB_(g) ⇌ cC_(g) + dD_(g)
The equilibrium constant (K_p) in terms of partial pressure is given by equation:
K_p = \(\frac{\left(P_{C}\right)^{c}\left(P_{D}\right)^{d}}{\left(P_{A}\right)^{a}\left(P_{B}\right)^{b}}\) …………(1)
For a mixture of ideal gases, the partial pressure of each component is directly proportional to its concentration at constant temperature.
For component A,
P_AV = n_ART
P_A = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\) × RT
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\) is molar concentration of A in mol dm^-3 V
∴ P_A = [A]RT where, [A] = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\mathrm{V}}\)
Similarly, for other components, P_B = [B]RT, P_C = [C]RT, P_D = [D]RT
Now substituting equations for P_A, P_B, P_C, P_D in equation (1), we get

where Δn = (number of moles of gaseous products) – (number of moles of gaseous reactants) in the balanced chemical equation.
R = 0.08206 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
[Note: While calculating the value of K_p, pressure should be expressed in bar, because standard state of pressure is 1 bar. 1 pascal (Pa) = 1 N m^-2 and 1 bar = 10⁵ Pa]

Question C.
State and explain Le Chatelier’s principle with reference to
1. change in temperature
2. change in concerntration.
Answer:
Statement: When a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in any of the factors determining the equilibrium conditions of a system, system will respond in such a way as to minimize the effect of change.

1. Change in temperature:

• Consider the equilibrium reaction,
  PCl_5(g) ⇌ PCl_3(g) + Cl_2(g) + 92.5 kJ
• The forward reaction is exothermic. According to Le Chatelier’s principle an increase in temperature shifts the position of equilibrium to the left.
• The reverse reaction is endothermic. An endothermic reaction consumes heat. Therefore, the equilibrium must shift in the reverse direction to use up the added heat (heat energy converted to chemical energy).
• Thus, an increase in temperature favours formation of PCl₅ while a decrease in temperature favours decomposition of PCl₅.

2. Change in concentration:

• Consider reversible reaction representing production of ammonia (NH3).
  N_2(g) + 3H_2(g) ⇌ 2NH_3(g) + Heat
• According to Le Chatelier’s principle, when H₂ or N₂ is added to equilibrium, the effect of addition of H₂ or N₂ or is reduced by shifting the equilibrium from left to right so that the added N₂ or H₂ is consumed.
• The forward reaction occurs to a large extent than the reverse reaction until the new equilibrium is established. As a result, the yield of NH₃ is increases.
• In general, if the concentration of one of the species in equilibrium mixture is increased, the position of equilibrium shifts in the opposite so as to reduce the concentration of this species. However, the equilibrium constant remains unchanged.

Question D.
a. Reversible reaction
b. Rate of reaction
Answer:
a. Reversible reaction:
i. Reactions which do not go to completion and occur in both the directions simultaneously are called reversible reactions.
ii. Reversible reactions proceed in both directions. The direction from reactants to products is the forward reaction, whereas the opposite reaction from products to reactants is called the reverse or backward reaction.
iii. A reversible reaction is denoted by drawing in between the reactants and product a double arrow, one pointing in the forward direction and other in the reverse direction (⇌ or ⇄).
ii. At high temperature in an open container, the CO₂ gas formed will escape away. Therefore, it is not possible to obtain back
e.g. a. H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
b. CH₃COOH_(aq) + H₂O_(l) ⇌ CH₃COO^–_(aq) + H₃O⁺_(aq)

b. Rate of reaction:
Rate of a chemical reaction:
i. The rate of a chemical reaction can be determined by measuring the extent to which the concentration of a reactant decreases in the given time interval, or extent to which the concentration of a product increases in the given time interval.
ii. Mathematically, the rate of reaction is expressed as:
Rate = \(-\frac{\mathrm{d}[\text { Reactant }]}{\mathrm{dT}}=\frac{\mathrm{d}[\text { Product }]}{\mathrm{dT}}\)
where, d[reactant] and d[product] are the small decrease or increase in concentration during the small time interval dT.

Question E.
What is the effect of adding chloride on the position of the equilibrium ?
AgCl_(s) ⇌ Ag⁺_(aq) + Cl^–_(aq)
Answer:
Addition of Cl ion will favour the reverse reaction, (that is, equilibrium shift from right to left) This increases the amount of AgCl.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 12 Chemical Equilibrium Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
What are the types of the following changes?
Natural waterfall, spreading of smoke from burning incense stick, diffusion of fragrance of flowers.
Answer: Natural waterfall, spreading of smoke from burning incense stick and diffusion of fragrance of flowers are irreversible physical changes.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Dissolve 4 g cobalt chloride in 40 mL water. It forms a reddish pink solution. Add 60 mL concentrated HCl to this. It will turn blue. Take 5 mL of this solution in a test tube and place it in a beaker containing ice water mixture. The colour of solution will become pink. Place the same test tube in a beaker containing water at 90 °C. The colour of the solution turns blue.
Answer:
Inference: The colour change of the solution from pink to blue is caused by the chemical reaction. On changing the temperature, the direction of the reaction reverses. This indicates that the chemical reaction is reversible. This activity is an example of a reversible chemical reaction.
The reaction can be written as:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
What does violet colour of the solution in the activity mentioned in Q.2 indicate?
Answer:
In the reaction, the reactant \(\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}\right)_{6}^{2+}\) is pink in colour and the product \(\mathrm{CoCl}_{4}^{2-}\) is blue in colour. When the solution contains both the reactant and product, the resulting solution will appear violet. This indicates that the reaction has attained equilibrium (that is, the reaction proceeds in both the direction with equal rates and is a reversible reaction).

(Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Calcium earbonate when heated strongly, decomposes to form calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.
i. If this reaction is carried out in a closed container, what will we observe?
ii. Consider this reaction occurring in an open system or container, what will happen? Can we obtain back calcium carbonate?
Answer:
At high temperature in a closed container, we will find that after certain time, some calcium carbonate is present. If we continue the experiment over a longer period of time at the same temperature, the concentrations of calcium carbonate, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide remain unchanged. The reaction thus appears to have stopped and the system has attained the equilibrium. Actually, the reaction does not stop but proceeds in both the directions with equal rates. In other words, calcium carbonate decomposes to give calcium oxide and carbon dioxide at a particular rate. Exactly at the same rate the calcium oxide and carbon dioxide recombine and form calcium carbonate. Thus, in closed container, reversible reaction occurs.

ii. At high temperature in an open container, the CO₂ gas formed will escape away. Therefore, it is not possible to obtain back calcium carbonate. Thus, in an open container, irreversible reaction occurs.
\(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(\mathrm{~s})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{~g})}\)

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 175)

Question 1.
i. Equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body
ii. Refrigeration system in equilibrium
Answer:
i. Equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body:
Oxygen is transported in the body with the assistance of red blood cells. The red blood cells contain a pigment called haemoglobin. Each haemoglobin molecule binds four oxygen molecules to form oxyhaemoglobin. Thus, the oxygen molecules are carried to individual cells in the body tissue where they are released.

The binding of oxygen to haemoglobin is a reversible reaction.
Hb + 4O₂ ⇌ Hb.4O₂
When the oxygen concentration is high (in the lungs), haemoglobin and oxygen combine to form oxyhaemoglobin and the reaction achieves equilibrium. But, when the oxygen concentration is low (in the body tissue), the reverse reaction occurs, that is, oxyhaemoglobin dissociates to haemoglobin and oxygen.
Thus, an equilibrium exists in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in the human body.

ii. Refrigeration system in equilibrium:
a. Refrigeration system works on the principle of thermal equilibrium i.e., when a cold body comes in contact with a hot body then the heat flows from hot body to cold body until both the bodies attain the same temperature.
b. In the same way, a liquid (called as refrigerant) passes through the various compartments in the refrigerator and eventually lowers the temperature inside the refrigerator. This cycle is briefly described below:
Refrigerant flows through the compressor, which raises the pressure of the refrigerant. Next, the refrigerant flows through the condenser, where it condenses from vapor form to liquid form, giving off heat in the process. The heat given off is what j makes the condenser “hot to the touch.” After the condenser, the refrigerant goes through the expansion valve, where it experiences a pressure drop. Finally, the refrigerant goes to the evaporator. The refrigerant draws heat from the evaporator which causes the refrigerant to vaporize. The evaporator draws heat from the region that is to be cooled. The vaporized refrigerant goes back to the compressor to restart the cycle. In each of the heat transfer process, equilibrium is achieved (that is, heat given off is equivalent to the cooling achieved.)

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information about equilibrium existing in the formation of oxyhaemoglobin in human body’ and ‘refrigeration system in equilibrium on their own.]

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
i. Place some iodine crystals in a closed vessel. Observe the change in colour intensity in it.
ii. What do you see in the flask after some time?
Answer:
i. The vessel gets slowly filled up with violet coloured vapour of iodine. After a certain time, the intensity of violet colour becomes stable.
ii. After sometime, both solid iodine and iodine vapour are present in the closed vessel. Iodine crystals will be seen deposited near the mouth of the flask and violet coloured vapour will be filled in the entire flask. It means solid iodine sublimes to give iodine vapour and the iodine vapour condenses to form solid iodine. The stable intensity of the colour indicates a state of equilibrium between solid and vapour iodine.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
i. Dissolve a given amount of sugar in minimum amount of water at room temperature.
ii. Increase the temperature and dissolve more amount of sugar in the same amount of water to make a thick sugar syrup solution.
iii. Cool the syrup to the room temperature.
Answer:
Observation: Sugar crystals separate out.
Inference: The sugar syrup solution prepared is a saturated solution. Therefore, additional amount of sugar cannot be dissolved in it at room temperature.
In a saturated solution, there exists dynamic equilibrium between the solute molecules in the solid state and in dissolved state.
Sugar_(aq) ⇌ Sugar_(s)
The rate of dissolution of sugar = The rate of crystallization of sugar.
However, when it is heated, additional amount of sugar can be dissolved in it. But when such a thick sugar syrup is cooled again to room temperature, sugar crystals separate out.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 177)

Question 1.
What is a saturated solution?
Answer:
A saturated solution is the solution when additional solute cannot be dissolved in it at the given temperature. The concentration of solute in a saturated solution depends on temperature.

Observe and discuss. (Textbook Page No. 177)

Question 1.
Colourless N₂O₄ taken in a closed flask is converted to NO₂ (a reddish brown gas).

Answer:
Observation: Initially, the colourless gas (N₂O₄) turns to reddish brown (NO₂) gas. After sometime, the colour becomes lighter indicating the formation of N₂O₄ from NO₂.
Inference: This indicates that the reaction is reversible. In such reaction, the reactants combine to form the products and the products combine to give the reactants. As soon as the forward reaction produces any NO₂, the reverse reaction begins and NO₂, starts combining back to N₂O₄. At equilibrium, the concentrations of N₂O₄ and NO₂ remain unchanged and do not vary with time, because the rate of formation of NO₂ is equal to the rate of formation of N₂O₄.

[Note: For any reversible reaction in a closed system whenever the opposing reactions (forward and reaction) are occurring at different rates, the forward reaction will gradually become slower and the reverse reaction will become faster. Finally, the rates become equal and equilibrium is established.]

Discuss (Textbook Page No. 177)

i. Consider the following dissociation reaction:

The reaction is carried out in a closed vessel starting with hydrogen iodide.
ii. Now, let us start with hydrogen and iodine vapour in a closed container at a certain temperature.
H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g)
Answer:
i. Starting with hydrogen iodide:
Observations:
a. At first, there is an increase in the intensity of violet colour.
b. After certain time, the increase in the intensity of violet colour stops.
c. When contents in a closed vessel are analyzed at this stage, it is observed that reaction mixture contains the hydrogen iodide, hydrogen and iodine with their concentrations being constant over time.
Inference:
The rate of decomposition of HI becomes equal to the rate of combination of H₂ and I₂. At equilibrium, no net change is observed and both reactions continue to occur at equal rates.
Thus, the reaction represents chemical equilibrium.

ii. Starting with hydrogen and iodine:
Observations:
a. At first, there is a decrease in the intensity of violet colour.
b. After certain time, the decrease in the intensity of violet colour stops.
c. When contents in a closed vessel are analyzed at this stage, it is observed that reaction mixture contains hydrogen, iodine and hydrogen iodide with their concentrations being constant over time.
Inference:
The rate of combination of H₂ and I₂ becomes equal to the rate of decomposition of HI. The reaction attains chemical equilibrium.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 180)

Question 1.
Write ideal gas equation with significance of each term involved in it.
Answer:
Ideal gas equation is PV = nRT.
where, P = Pressure of the gas
V = Volume of the gas
n = Number of moles of the gas
R = universal gas constant
T = Absolute temperature of the gas

Just think. (Textbook page no. 181)

Question 1.
Two processes, which are taking place in opposite directions are in equilibrium. How to write equilibrium constant expersions for heterogeneous equilibrium?
Answer:
Equilibrium in a system having more than one phase is called heterogeneous equilibrium.
If ethanol is placed in a conical flask, liquid-vapour equilibrium is established.
C₂H₅OH_(l) ⇌ C₂H₅OH_(g)
For a given temperature,
K_c = \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{OH}_{(g)}\right]}{\left[\mathrm{C}_{2} \mathrm{H}_{5} \mathrm{OH}_{(l)}\right]}\)
But [C₂H₅OH_(l)] = 1
∴ K_c = [C₂H₅OH_(g)]
Thus, at any given temperature, density is constant irrespective of the amount of liquid, and the term in the denominator is also constant.
ii. similarly, consider I_2(g) ⇌ I_2(g)
K_c = [I₂(g)]
iii. Thus, the expression for equilibrium constant does not contain the concentration of pure solids and pure liquids. That is because for any pure liquid and solid, the concentration is simply its density and this will not change no matter how much solid or liquid is used. Hence, the expression for heterogeneous equilibrium only uses the concentration of gases and dissolved substances (aq.). Solids are pure substances with unchanging concentrations and thus equilibria including solids are simplified.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Comment on the extent to which the forward reaction will proceed, from the magnitude of the equilibrium constant for the following reactions:
i. H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g), K_c = 20 at 550 K
ii. H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) ⇌ 2HCl_(g), K_c = 1018 at 550 K
Answer:
i. For the reaction, K_c = 20 at 550 K
If the value of K_c is the range of 10^-3 to 10³, the forward and reverse proceed to equal extents.
Hence, the given reaction will form appreciable concentrations of both reactants and the product at equilibrium.

ii. For the reaction, K_c = 10¹⁸ at 550 K
If the value of K_c >>> 10³, forward reaction is favoured.
Hence, the given reaction will proceed in the forward direction and will nearly go to completion.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
The value of Kc for the dissociation reaction:
H_2(g) ⇌ 2H_(g) is 1.2 × 10^-42 at 500 K.
Does the equilibrium mixture contain mainly hydrogen molecules or hydrogen atoms?
Answer:
When the value of K_c is very low (that is, K_c < 10^-3), then at equilibrium, only a small fraction of the reactants is converted into products.
For the given reaction, K_c <<< 10³ at 500 K.
Hence, the equilibrium mixture contains mainly hydrogen molecules.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Collect information about chemical equilibrium.
Answer:
https://www.chemguide.co.uk/physical/equilibria/introduction.html
[Note: Students can use the above link as reference and collect information about chemical equilibrium.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 188)

i. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system (Haber process), in which direction will the equilibrium shift to consume added NH₃ to reduce the effect of stress?
ii. In this process, out of the reactions (reverse and forward reaction), which reaction will occur to a greater extent?
iii. What will be the effect on yield of NH₃?
Answer:
i. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, the equilibrium will shift from right to left to consume added NH₃ to reduce the effect of stress.
ii. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, then reverse reaction will occur to greater extent.
iii. If NH₃ is added to the equilibrium system, the equilibrium will shift in reverse direction and the yield of NH₃ will decrease.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 188)

i. Collect information about Haber process in chemical equilibrium.
ii. Youtube.Freescienceslessons: The Haber process
Answer:
i. https://www.chemguide.co.uk/physical/equilibria/haber.html
[Note: Students can use the above link as reference and collect information about chemical equilibrium involved in Haber process.]
ii. Students are expected to refer ‘The Haber process ’ on YouTube channel ‘Freescienceslessons’

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 11 Adsorption and Colloids Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 11 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 11 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question A.
The size of colloidal particles lies between
a. 10^-10 m and 10^-9 m
b. 10^-9 m and 10^-6 m
c. 10^-6 m and 10^-4 m
d. 10^-5 m and 10^-2 m
Answer:
b. 10^-9 m and 10^-6 m

Question B.
Gum in water is an example of
a. true solution
b. suspension
c. lyophilic sol
d. lyophobic sol
Answer:
c. lyophilic sol

Question C.
In Haber process of production of ammonia K₂O is used as
a. catalyst
b. inhibitor
c. promotor
d. adsorbate
Answer:
c. promotor

Question D.
Fruit Jam is an example of-
a. sol
b. gel
c. emulsion
d. true solution
Answer:
b. gel

2. Answer in one sentence :

Question A.
Name type of adsorption in which van der Waals focres are present.
Answer:
Physical adsorption or physisorption.

Question B.
Name type of adsorption in which compound is formed.
Answer:
Chemical adsoiption or chemisorption.

Question C.
Write an equation for Freundlich adsorption isotherm.
Answer:
Freundlich proposed the following empirical equation for adsorption of a gas on solid.
\(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) = k P^1/n (n > 1) ……(i)
where,
x = Mass of the gas adsorbed
m = Mass of the adsorbent
\(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) = Mass of gas adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent
P = Equilibrium pressure
k and n are constants which depend on the nature of adsorbate, adsorbent and temperature.

3. Answer the following questions:

Question A.
Define the terms:
a. Inhibition
b. Electrophoresis
c. Catalysis.
Answer:
a. Inhibition:
The phenomenon in which the rate of chemical reaction is reduced by an inhibitor is called inhibition.

b. Electrophoresis:
The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called electrophoresis.

c. Catalysis:
The phenomenon of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction with the help of a catalyst is known as catalysis.

Question B.
Define adsorption. Why students can read blackboard written by chalks?
Answer:

• Adsorption is the phenomenon of accumulation of higher concentration of ‘one substance on the surface of another (in bulk) due to unbalanced/unsatisfied attractive forces on the surface.
• When we write on blackboard using chalk, the chalk particles get adsorbed on the surface of the blackboard.

Hence, students can read blackboard written by chalks.

Question C.
Write characteristics of adsorption.
Answer:
Following are the characteristics of adsorption:

• Adsorption is a surface phenomenon.
• It depends upon the surface area of the adsorbent.
• It involves physical forces (van der Waals forces) or chemical forces (chemical or covalent bonds).
• Adsorbate is always present in higher concentration on the surface of an adsorbent than in the bulk.
• Adsorption is dependent on temperature (of the surface) and pressure (of adsorbate gas).
• It takes place with the evolution of heat (with some exceptions).

Question D.
Distinguish between Lyophobic and Lyophilic sols.
Answer:
Lyophobic sols (colloids):

1. Lyophobic sols are formed only by special methods.
2. They are irreversible.
3. These are unstable and hence, require traces of stabilizers.
4. Addition of small amount of electrolytes causes precipitation or coagulation of lyophobic sols.
5. Viscosity of lyophobic sol is nearly the same as the dispersion medium.
6. Surface tension of lyophobic sol is nearly the same as the dispersion medium.

Lyophilic sols (colloids):

1. Lyophilic sols are formed easily by direct mixing.
2. They are reversible.
3. These are self-stabilized.
4. Addition of large amount of electrolytes causes precipitation or coagulation of lyophilic sols.
5. Viscosity of lyophilic sol is much higher than that of the dispersion medium.
6. Surface tension of lyophilic sol is lower than that of dispersion medium.

Question E.
Identify dispersed phase and dispersion medium in the following colloidal dispersions.
a. milk
b. blood
c. printing ink
d. fog
Answer:

Question F.
Write notes on :
a. Tyndall effect
b. Brownian motion
c. Types of emulsion
d. Hardy-Schulze rule
Answer:
a. Tyndall effect:
i. Tyndall observed that when light passes through true solution, the path of light through it cannot be detected.
ii. However, if the light passes through a colloidal dispersion, the particles scatter some light in all directions and the path of the light through colloidal dispersion becomes visible to observer standing at right angles to its path.
iii. The phenomenon of scattering of light by colloidal particles and making path of light visible through the dispersion is referred as Tyndall effect and the bright cone of the light is called Tyndall cone.
iv. Tyndall effect is observed only when the following conditions are satisfied.

• The diameter of the dispersed particles is not much smaller than the wavelength of light used.
• The refractive indices of dispersed phase and dispersion medium differ largely.

v. Significance of Tyndall effect:

• It is useful in determining number of particles in colloidal system and their particle size.
• It is used to distinguish between colloidal dispersion and true solution.

b. Brownian motion:
i. The colloidal or microscopic particles undergo ceaseless random zig-zag motion in all directions in a fluid. This motion of dispersed phase particles is called Brownian motion.
ii. Cause of Brownian motion:

• Particles of the dispersed phase constantly collide with the fast-moving molecules of dispersion medium (fluid).
• Due to this, the dispersed phase particles acquire kinetic energy from the molecules of the dispersion medium.
• This kinetic energy brings about Brownian motion.

c. Types of emulsion:
iii. There are two types of emulsions:
a. Emulsion of oil in water (o/w type): An emulsion in which dispersed phase is oil and dispersion medium is water is called emulsion of oil in water.
e.g. 1. Milk consists of particles of fat dispersed in water.
2. Other examples include vanishing cream, paint, etc.
b. Emulsion of water in oil (w/o type): An emulsion in which dispersed phase is water and dispersion medium is oil is called emulsion of water in oil.
e.g. 1. Cod liver oil consists of particles of water dispersed in oil.
2. Some other examples of this type include butter, cream, etc.

d. Hardy-Schulze rule:
i. Generally, greater the valency of the flocculating ion added, greater is its power to cause precipitation. This is known as Hardy-Schulze rule.
ii. In the coagulation of negative sol, the flocculating power follows the following order:
Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺
iii. Similarly, in the coagulation of positive sol, the flocculating power is in the following order:
[Fe (CN)₆]^4- > PO₄^3- > SO₄^2- > Cl^–

Question G.
Explain Electrophoresis in brief with the help of diagram. What are its applications ?
Answer:
i. Electrophoresis: Electrophoresis set up is shown in the diagram below.

• The diagram shows U tube set up in which two platinum electrodes are dipped in a colloidal solution.
• When electric potential is applied across two electrodes, colloidal particles move towards one or other electrode.
• The movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential is called electrophoresis.
• Positively charged particles move towards cathode while negatively charged particles migrate towards anode and get deposited on the respective electrode.

ii. Applications of electrophoresis:

• On the basis of direction of movement of the colloidal particles under the influence of electric field, it is possible to know the sign of charge on the particles.
• It is also used to measure the rate of migration of sol particles.
• Mixture of colloidal particles can be separated by electrophoresis, since different colloidal particles in mixture migrate with different rates.

Question H.
Explain why finely divided substance is more effective as adsorbent?
Answer:

• Adsorption is a surface phenomenon and hence, the extent of adsorption depends upon surface area of the adsorbent.
• Adsorption increases with increase in surface area of the adsorbent.
• Finely divided powdered substances provide larger surface area for a given mass.

Hence, finely divided substance is more effective as adsorbent.

Question I.
What is the adsorption Isotherm?
Answer:
The relationship between the amount of a substance adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent and the equilibrium pressure (in case of gas) or concentration (in case of solution) at a given constant temperature is called an adsorption isotherm.

Question J.
Aqueous solution of raw sugar, when passed over beds of animal charcoal, becomes colourless. Explain.
Answer:

• When aqueous solution of raw sugar is passed over beds of animal charcoal, charcoal adsorbs the coloured particles from the raw sugar.
• Thus, due to the adsorption of coloured particles, raw sugar becomes colourless when passed over beds of animal charcoal.

Question K.
What happens when a beam of light is passed through a colloidal sol?
Answer:
i. When a beam of light is passed through colloidal sol, it is observed that the colloidal particles scatter some of the incident light in all directions.
ii. Because of this scattering of light, the path of light through the colloidal dispersion becomes visible to observer standing at right angles to its path and the phenomenon is known as Tyndall effect.
iii.

Question L.
Mention factors affecting adsorption of gas on solids.
Answer:
Adsorption of gases on solids depends upon the following factors:

• Nature of adsorbate (gas)
• Nature of solid adsorbent
• Surface area of adsorbent
• Temperature of the surface
• Pressure of the gas

Question M.
Give four uses of adsorption.
Answer:
i. Catalysis (Heterogeneous catalysis):

• The solid catalysts are used in many industrial manufacturing processes.
• For example, iron is used as a catalyst in manufacturing of ammonia, platinum in manufacturing of sulphuric acid, H₂SO₄ (by contact process) while finely divided nickel is employed as a catalyst in hydrogenation of oils.

ii. Gas masks:

• It is a device which consists of activated charcoal or mixture of adsorbents.
• It is used for breathing in coal mines to avoid inhaling of the poisonous gases.

iii. Control of humidity: Silica and alumina gels are good adsorbents of moisture.
iv. Production of high vacuum:

• Lowering of temperature at a given pressure, increases the rate of adsorption of gases on charcoal powder. By using this principle, high vacuum can be attained by adsorption.
• A vessel evacuated by vacuum pump is connected to another vessel containing coconut charcoal cooled by liquid air. The charcoal adsorbs the remaining traces of air or moisture to create a high vacuum.

Question N.
Explain Bredig’s arc method.
Answer:

• Colloidal sols can be prepared by electrical disintegration using Bredig’s arc method.
• This process involves vaporization as well as condensation.
• Colloidal sols of metals such as gold, silver, platinum can be prepared by this method.
• In this method, electric arc is struck between electrodes of metal immersed in the dispersion medium.
• The intense heat produced vapourizes the metal which then condenses to form particles of colloidal sol.

Question O.
Explain the term emulsions and types of emulsions.
Answer:
i. A colloidal system in which one liquid is dispersed in another immiscible liquid is called an emulsion.
ii. There are liquid-liquid colloidal systems in which both liquids are either completely or partially immiscible.
iii. There are two types of emulsions:
a. Emulsion of oil in water (o/w type): An emulsion in which dispersed phase is oil and dispersion medium is water is called emulsion of oil in water.
e.g. 1. Milk consists of particles of fat dispersed in water.
2. Other examples include vanishing cream, paint, etc.
b. Emulsion of water in oil (w/o type): An emulsion in which dispersed phase is water and dispersion medium is oil is called emulsion of water in oil.
e.g. 1. Cod liver oil consists of particles of water dispersed in oil.
2. Some other examples of this type include butter, cream, etc.

4. Explain the following :

Question A.
A finely divided substance is more effective as adsorbent.
Answer:

• Adsorption is a surface phenomenon and hence, the extent of adsorption depends upon the surface area of the adsorbent.
• Adsorption increases with an increase in surface area of the adsorbent.
• Finely divided powdered substances provide a larger surface area for a given mass. Hence, a finely divided substance is more effective as an adsorbent.

Question B.
Freundlich adsorption isotherm, with the help of a graph.
Answer:
Graphical representation of the Freundlich adsorption isotherm:

i. Freundlich proposed the following empirical equation for adsorption of a gas on solid.
\(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) = k P^1/n (n > 1) ………(i)
where,
x = Mass of the gas adsorbed
m = Mass of the adsorbent
\(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) = Mass of gas adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent
P = Equilibrium pressure
k and n are constants which depend on the nature of adsorbate, adsorbent and temperature.
ii. The graphical representation of Freundlich equation is as shown in the adjacent plot of x/m vs ‘P’.
iii. In case of solution, P in the equation (i) is replaced by the concentration (C) and thus,
\(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) = k C^1/n ………(ii)
iv. By taking logarithm on both sides of the equation (ii),
we get
log \(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) = log k + \(\frac{1}{n}\) log C ……..(iii)
v. On plotting a graph of log \(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) against log C or log P, a straight line is obtained as shown in the adjacent plot. The slope of the straight line is and intercept on Y-axis is log k.
vi. The factor \(\frac{1}{n}\) ranges from 0 to 1. Equation (iii) holds good over limited range of pressures.
a. When \(\frac{1}{n}\) → 0, \(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) → constant, the adsorption is independent of pressure.
b. When \(\frac{1}{n}\) = 1, \(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) = k P, i.e., \(\frac{x}{\mathrm{~m}}\) ∝ P, the adsorption varies directly with pressure.
c. The experimental isotherms tend to saturate at high pressure.

5. Distinguish between the following :

Question A.
Adsorption and absorption. Give one example.
Answer:
Adsorption:

• Adsorption is a surface phenomenon as adsorbed matter is concentrated only at the surface and does not penetrate through the surface to the bulk of adsorbent.
• Concentration of the adsorbate is high only at the surface of the adsorbent.
• It is dependent on temperature and pressure.
• It is accompanied by evolution of heat known as heat of adsorption.
• It depends on surface area.
  e.g. Adsoiption of a gas or liquid like acetic acid by activated charcoal.

Absorption:

• Absorption is a bulk phenomenon as absorbed matter is uniformly distributed inside as well as at the surface of the bulk of substance.
• Concentration of the absorbate is uniform throughout the bulk of the absorbent.
• It is independent of temperature and pressure.
• It may or may not be accompanied by any evolution or absorption of heat.
• It is independent of surface area.
  e.g. Absorption of water by cotton, absorption of ink by blotting paper.

Question B.
Physisorption and chemisorption. Give one example.
Answer:
Physisorption:

1. In physisorption, the forces operating are weak van der Waals forces.
2. It is not specific in nature as all gases adsorb on all solids. For example, all gases adsorb on charcoal.
3. The heat of adsorption is low and lies in the range 20-40 kJ mol^-1.
4. It occurs at low temperature and decreases with an increase of temperature.
5. It is reversible.
6. Physisorbed layer may be multimolecular layer of adsorbed particles under high pressure.
   e.g. At low temperature N₂ gas is physically adsorbed on iron.

Chemisorption:

1. In chemisorption, the forces operating are of chemical nature (covalent or ionic bonds).
2. It is highly specific and occurs only when chemical bond formation is possible between adsorbent and adsorbate. For example, adsorption of oxygen on tungsten, hydrogen on nickel, etc.
3. The heat of adsorption is high and lies in the range 40-200 kJ mol^-1.
4. It is favoured at high temperature, however, the extent of chemical adsorption is lowered at very high temperature due to bond breaking.
5. It is irreversible.
6. Chemisorption forms monomolecular layer of adsorbed particles.
   e.g. N₂ gas chemically adsorbed on iron at high temperature forms a layer of iron nitride, which desorbs at very high temperature.

6. Adsorption is surface phenomenon. Explain.
Answer:
Consider a surface of a liquid or a solid.

• The molecular forces at the surface of a liquid are unbalanced or in unsaturation state.
• In solids, the ions or molecules at the surface of a crystal do not have their forces satisfied by the close contact with other particles.
• Because of the unsaturation, solid and liquid surfaces tend to attract gases or dissolved substances with which they come in close contact. Thus, the substance accumulates on the surface of solid or liquid i.e., the substance gets adsorbed on the surface.

Hence, adsorption is a surface phenomenon.

7. Explain how the adsorption of gas on solid varies with
a. nature of adsorbate and adsorbent
b. surface area of adsorbent
Answer:
i. a. Nature of adsorbate:
1. All solids adsorb gases to some extent. It is observed that gases having high critical temperature liquify easily and can be readily adsorbed.
2. The gases such as SO₂, Cl₂, NH₃ which are easily liquefiable are adsorbed to a larger extent as compared to gases such as N₂, O₂, H₂, etc. which are difficult to liquify.
3. Thus, the amount of gas adsorbed by a solid depends on the nature of the adsorbate gas i.e., whether it is easily liquefiable or not.

b. Nature of adsorbent: Substances which provide large surface area for a given mass are effective as adsorbents and adsorb appreciable volumes of gases.
e.g. Silica gel and charcoal are effective adsorbents due to their porous nature.

ii. Surface area of the adsorbent:

• Adsorption is a surface phenomenon. Hence, the extent of adsorption increases with increase in surface area of the adsorbent.
• Finely divided substances, rough surfaces, colloidal substances are good adsorbents as they provide larger surface area for a given mass.

Note: Critical temperature of some gases and volume adsorbed.

8. Explain two applications of adsorption.
Answer:
i. Catalysis (Heterogeneous catalysis):

• The solid catalysts are used in many industrial manufacturing processes.
• For example, iron is used as a catalyst in manufacturing of ammonia, platinum in manufacturing of sulphuric acid, H₂SO₄ (by contact process) while finely divided nickel is employed as a catalyst in hydrogenation of oils.

ii. Gas masks:

• It is a device which consists of activated charcoal or mixture of adsorbents.
• It is used for breathing in coal mines to avoid inhaling of the poisonous gases.

9. Explain micelle formation in soap solution.
Answer:

• Soap molecule has a long hydrophobic hydrocarbon chain called tail which is attached to hydrophilic ionic carboxylate group, called head.
• In water, the soap molecules arrange themselves to form spherical particles that are called micelles.
• In each micelle, the hydrophobic tails of soap molecules point to the centre and the hydrophilic heads lie on the surface of the sphere.
• As a result of this, soap dispersion in water is stable.

10. Draw labelled diagrams of the following :
a. Tyndall effect
b. Dialysis
c. Bredig’s arc method
d. Soap micelle
Answer:
a. Tyndall effect:

b. Dialysis:

c. Bredig’s arc method:

d. Soap micelle:

Activity :
Collect the information about methods to study surface chemistry.
Answer:
Following are the few methods that are employed to study surface chemistry.
i. X-ray photoelectron spectroscopy:
It is a surface-sensitive spectroscopic technique which is used to measure elemental composition of the surface, to determine elements that are present as contaminants on the surface, etc.

ii. Auger electron spectroscopy:
It is a common analytical technique which is used to study surfaces of materials.

iii. Temperature programmed desorption (TPD):
Adsorbed molecules get desorbed when the surface temperature is increased. TPD technique is used to observe these desorbed molecules and helps in providing information about binding energy between the adsorbate and adsorbent.

iv. Scanning Electron Microscopy:
In this technique, a scanning electron microscope is used to focus electron beam over the surface of the sample to be examined. The electron beam interacts with the sample and an image is obtained. This image provides information about surface structure and composition of the sample.

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information about surface chemistry on their own.]

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 11 Adsorption and Colloids Intext Questions and Answers

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 160)

Question 1.
What is adsorption?
Answer:
Adsorption is the phenomenon of accumulation of higher concentration of one substance on the surface of another (in bulk) due to unbalanced/unsatisfied attractive forces on the surface.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
Dip a chalk in ink. What do you observe?
Answer:
When a chalk is dipped in ink, it is observed that the ink molecules are adsorbed at the surface of chalk and the surface becomes coloured, while the solvent of the ink goes deeper into the chalk due to absorption.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 172)

Question i.
Brownian motion
Answer:
Students can search relevant videos on YouTube to visualize Brownian motion.

Question ii.
Collect information about Brownian motion.
Answer:
i. The colloidal or microscopic particles undergo ceaseless random zig-zag motion in all directions in a fluid. This motion of dispersed phase particles is called Brownian motion.
ii. Cause of Brownian motion:

• Particles of the dispersed phase constantly collide with the fast-moving molecules of dispersion medium (fluid).
• Due to this, the dispersed phase particles acquire kinetic energy from the molecules of the dispersion medium.
• This kinetic energy brings about Brownian motion.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 172)

Question 1.
Collect information about surface chemistry.
Answer:

• Surface or interface represents the boundary which separates two bulk phases.
  e.g. Boundary between water and its vapour is a liquid-gas interface.
• Certain properties of substances, particularly of solids and liquids, depend upon the nature of the surface.
• An interface usually has a thickness of a few molecules. However, its area depends on the size of the bulk phase particles.
• Commonly considered bulk phases may be pure compounds or solutions.
• A number of important phenomena, namely, dissolution, crystallization, heterogeneous catalysis, electrode processes and corrosion take place at an interface.
• Thus, study of chemistry of surfaces is critical to many applications in industry, analytical investigations and day-to-day activities such as cleaning and softening of water.
• The branch of chemistry which deals with the nature of surfaces and changes occurring on the surfaces is called surface chemistry.
• Study of surfaces requires a rigorously clean surface. An ultra-clean metal surface can be obtained under very high vacuum, of the order of 10^-8 to 10^-9 pascal.
• Adsorption, catalysis and colloids (such as emulsions and gels) are some of the important aspects of surface chemistry.

[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information about surface chemistry on their own.]

Activity. (Textbook Page No. 172)

Question 1.
Calculate surface area to volume ratio of spherical particle. See how the ratio increases with the reduction of radius of the particle. Plot the ratio against the radius.
Answer:
The graph below shows that as the radius of the spherical particle decreases, the surface-to-volume ratio increases steadily.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

States of Matter Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 States of Matter Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 10 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 10 Exercise Solutions

1. Select and write the most appropriate alternatives from the given choices.

Question A.
The unit of viscosity is
a. dynes
b. newton
c. gram
d. poise
Answer:
d. poise

Question B.
Which of the following is true for 2 moles of an ideal gas?
a. PV = nRT
b. PV = RT
c. PV = 2RT
d. PV = T
Answer:
c. PV = 2RT

Question C.
Intermolecular forces in liquid are
a. greater than gases
b. less than solids
c. both a and b
d. greater than solids
Answer:
c. both a and b

Question D.
Interactive forces are ………. in ideal gas.
a. nil
b. small
c. large
d. same as that of real gases
Answer:
a. nil

Question E.
At constant temperature the pressure of 22.4 dm³ volume of an ideal gas was increased from 10⁵ kPa to 210 kPa, New volume could be-
a. 44.8 dm³
b. 11.2 dm³
c. 22.4 dm³
d. 5.6 dm³
Answer:
b. 11.2 dm³

2. Answer in one sentence.

Question A.
Name the term used for mixing of different gases by random molecular motion and ferquent collision.
Answer:
The mixing of different gases by random molecular motion and frequent collision is called diffusion.

Question B.
The pressure that each individual gas would exert if it were alone in the container, what do we call it as ?
Answer:
The pressure that each individual gas would exert if it were alone in the container is called as partial pressure.

Question C.
When a gas is heated the particles move more quickly. What is the change in volume of a heated gas if the pressure is kept constant ?
Answer:
The volume of the gas increases on heating if pressure is kept constant.

Question D.
A bubble of methane gas rises from the bottom of the North sea. What will happen to the size of the bubble as it rises to the surface ?
Answer:
According to Boyle’s law, the size of the bubble of methane gas increases as it rises to the surface.

Question E.
Convert the following temperatures from degree celcius to kelvin.
a. -15° C
b. 25° C
c. -197° C
d. 273° C
Answer:
a. T(K) = t°C +273.15
∴ T(K) = -15 °C + 273.15 = 258.15 K
b. T(K) = t°C +273.15
∴ T(K) = 25 °C + 273.15 = 298.15 K
c. T(K) = t°C + 273.15
∴ T(K) = -197 °C + 273.15 = 76.15 K
d. T(K) = t°C + 273.15
∴ T(K) = 273 °C + 273.15 = 546.15 K

Question F.
Convert the following pressure values into Pascals.
a. 10 atmosphere
b. 1 kPa.
c. 107000 Nm^-2
d. 1 atmosphere
Answer:
a. 10 atmosphere:
1 atm = 101325 Pa
∴ 10 atm = 1013250 Pa
= 1.01325 × 10⁶ Pa

b. 1 kPa:
1 kPa = 1000 Pa

c. 107000 N m^-2:
1 N m^-2 = 1 Pa
∴ 107000 Nm^-2 = 107000 Pa
= 1.07 × 10⁵ Pa

d. 1 atmosphere:
1 atm = 101325 Pa
= 1.01325 × 10⁵ Pa

Question G.
Convert:
a. Exactly 1.5 atm to pascals
b. 89 kPa to newton per square metre (N m^-2)
c. 101.325 kPa to bar
d. -100 °C to Kelvin
e. 0.124 torr to standard atmosphere
Answer:
a. Exactly 1.5 atm to pascals:
1 atm = 101325 Pa
∴ 1.5 atm = 1.5 × 101325
= 151987.5 Pa

b. 89 kPa to newton per square metre (N m^-2):
1 Pa = 1 N m^-2 and 1 Pa = 10^-3 kPa
∴ 10^-3 kPa = 1 N m^-2
∴ 89 kPa = \(\frac{1 \times 89}{10^{-3}}\) N m^-2 = 89000 N m^-2

c. 101.325 kPa to bar:
1 bar = 1.0 × 10⁵ Pa
= 1.0 × 10² k Pa
∴ 100 kPa = 1 bar
∴ 101.325 kPa = \(\frac{1 \times 101.325}{100}\)
= 1.01325 bar

d. -100 °C to Kelvin:
T(K) = t °C + 273.15
∴ T(K) = (- 100 °C) + 273.15 = 173.15 K

e. 0.124 torr to standard atmosphere:
1 atm = 760 torr
∴ 1 torr = \(\frac {1}{760}\)atm
∴ 0.124 torr = 0.124 × \(\frac {1}{760}\)
= 1.632 × 10^-4 atm

Question H.
If density of a gas is measured at constant temperature and pressure then which of the following statement is correct ?
a. Density is directly proportional to molar mass of the gas.
b. Greater the density greater is the molar mass of the gas.
c. If density, temperature and pressure is given ideal gas equation can be used to find molar mass.
d. All the above statements are correct.
Answer:
d. All the above statements are correct.

Question I.
Observe the following conversions.

Which of the above reactions is in accordance with the priciple of stoichiometry ?
Answer:
Both the reactions are in accordance with the principle of stoichiometry.
In the first reaction, both the reactants are completely consumed to form product according to reaction stoichiometry.
1 mol hydrogen + 1 mol chlorine → 2 mol hydrogen chloride
In the second reaction, chlorine is the limiting reagent and it is completely consumed to form hydrogen chloride. Excess hydrogen remains unreacted at the end of the reaction. This reaction also follows principle of stoichiometry.
2 mol hydrogen + 1 mol chlorine → 2 mol hydrogen chloride + 1 mol hydrogen

Question J.
Hot air balloons float in air because of the low density of the air inside the balloon. Explain this with the help of an appropriate gas law.

Answer:
The working of hot air balloon can be explained with the help of Charles’ law. According to Charles’ law, at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with the temperature. This means that as the temperature increases, the air inside the balloon expands and occupies more volume. Thus, hot air inside the balloon is less dense than the surrounding cold air. This causes the hot air balloon to float in air.

3. Answer the following questions.

Question A.
Identify the gas laws from the following diagrams.

Answer:
a. Boyle’s law
b. Charles’ law
c. Avogadro’s law [Note: Assuming, T constant]

Question B.
Consider a sample of a gas in a cylinder with a movable piston.

Show digramatically the changes in the position of piston, if
a. Pressure is increased from 1.0 bar to 2.0 bar at constant temperature.
b. Temperature is decreased from 300 K to 150 K at constant pressure
c. Temperature is decreased from 400 K to 300 K and pressure is decreased from 4 bar to 3 bar.
Answer:

Thus, the volume of the gas remains the same.
Hence, there will be no change in the position of the piston.

Question D.
List the characteristic physical properties of the gases.
Answer:
Characteristic physical properties of the gases:

• Gases are lighter than solids and liquids (i.e., possess lower density).
• Gases do not possess a fixed volume and shape. They occupy entire space available and take the shape of the container.
• Gas molecules are widely separated and are in continuous, random motion. Therefore, gases exert pressure equally in all directions due to collision of gas molecules, on the walls of the container.
• In case of gases, intermolecular forces are weakest.
• Gases possess the property of diffusion, which is a spontaneous homogeneous inter mixing of two or more gases.
• Gases are highly compressible.

Question E.
Define the terms:
a. Polarizability
b. Hydrogen bond
c. Aqueous tension
d. Dipole moment
Answer:
a. Polarizability is defined as the ability of an atom or a molecule to form momentary dipoles, that means, the ability of the atom or molecule to become polar by redistributing its electrons.

b. The electrostatic force of attraction between positively polarised hydrogen atom of one molecule and a highly electronegative atom (which may be negatively charged) of other molecule is called as hydrogen bond.

c. The pressure exerted by saturated water vapour is called aqueous tension.

d. Dipole moment (p) is the product of the magnitude of the charge (Q) and the distance between the centres of positive and negative charge (r). It is designated by a Greek Letter (p) and its unit is Debye (D).

Question F.
Would it be easier to drink water with a straw on the top of the Mount Everest or at the base ? Explain.
Answer:
When you drink through a straw, the pressure inside the straw reduces (as the air is withdraw by mouth) and the liquid is pushed up to your mouth by atmospheric pressure. Thus, drinking with a straw makes use of pressure difference to force the liquid into your mouth. So, if the pressure difference is less it will be difficult to drink through a straw. On the top of the Mount Everest, atmospheric pressure is very low. Hence, it will be difficult to drink water with a straw on the top of Mount Everest as compared to at the base.

Question G.
Identify type of the intermolecular forces in the following compounds.
a. CH₃ – OH
b. CH₂ = CH₂
c. CHCl₃
d. CH₂Cl₂
Answer:
a. Hydrogen bonding (dipole-dipole attraction) and London dispersion forces
b. London dispersion forces
c. Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
d. Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces

Question H.
Name the types of intermolecular forces present in Ar, Cl₂, CCl₄ and HNO₃.
Answer:
a. Ar: London dispersion forces
b. Cl₂: London dispersion forces
c. CCl₄: London dispersion forces
d. HNO₃: Flydrogen bonding (dipole-dipole attraction) and London dispersion forces.

Question I.
Match the pairs of the following :

Answer:
a – ii,
b – iii

Question J.
Write the statement for :
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’ law
Answer:
a. Statement of Boyle’s law: For a fixed mass (number of moles ‘n’) of a gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of the gas.
OR
At constant temperature, the pressure of fixed amount (number of moles) of a gas varies inversely with its volume.

b. Statement for Charles’ law:
‘At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in Kelvin.

Question K.
Differentiate between Real gas and Ideal gas.
Answer:
Ideal gas:

1. Strictly obeys Boyle’s and Charles’ law.
   \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nRT}}\) = 1
2. Molecules are perfectly elastic.
3. No attraction or repulsion between the gas molecules i.e. collision without loss of kinetic energy (K.E.)
4. Actual volume of the gas molecules is negligible as compared to total volume of the gas.
5. Ideal gases cannot be liquified even at low temperature but continues to obey Charles’ law and finally occupies zero volume at 0 K.
6. Practically, ideal gas does not exist.

Real gas:

1. Shows deviation from Boyle’s and Charles’ law at high pressure and temperature, i.e. obeys Boyle’s law and Charles’ law at low pressure and high temperature. \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{nRT}}\) ≠ 1
2. Molecules are not perfectly elastic.
3. Intermolecular attraction is present, hence collision takes place with loss of kinetic energy.
4. Actual volume of individual gas molecule is significant at high pressure and low- temperature.
5. Real gases undergo liquefaction at low’ temperature when cooled and compressed.
6. Gases that exist in nature like H₂, O₂, CO₂, N₂, He, etc. are real gases.

4. Answer the following questions

Question A.
State and write mathematical expression for Dalton’s law of partial pressure and explain it with suitable example.
Answer:
i. Statement: The total pressure of a mixture of two or more non-reactive gases is the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases in the mixture.
ii. Explanation:
Dalton’s law can be mathematically expressed as:
P_Total = P₁ + P₂ + P₃ …(at constant T and V)
where, P_Total is the total pressure of the mixture and P₁, P₂, P₃, … are the partial pressures of individual gases 1, 2, 3, … in the mixture.
For example, consider two non-reactive gases A and B. On mixing the two gases, pressure exerted by individual gas A in the mixture of both the gases is called partial pressure of gas A (say P₁). Likewise, partial pressure of gas B is P₂. According to Dalton’s law, total pressure of the mixture of gas A and B at constant T and V will be given as:
P_Total = P₁ + P₂

iii. Schematic illustration of Dalton’s law of partial pressures:

Question B.
Derive an Ideal gas equation. Mention the terms involved in it. Also write how it is utilised to obtain combined gas law.
Answer:
According to Boyle’s law,
V ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{P}}\) (at constant T and n) ……….(1)
According to Charles’ law,
V ∝ T (at constant P and n) ……(2)
According to Avogadro’s law,
V ∝ n (at constant P and T) ……(3)
Combining relations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V ∝ \(\frac{\mathrm{nT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
Converting this proportionality into an equation by introducing a constant of proportionality (‘R’ known as gas constant), we get
∴ V = \(\frac{\mathrm{nRT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
On rearranging the above equation, we get
PV = nRT
where,
P = Pressure of gas,
V = Volume of gas,
n = number of moles of gas,
R = Gas constant,
T = Absolute temperature of gas.
This is the ideal gas equation or equation of state.
[Note: In the ideal gas equation, R is called gas constant or universal gas constant, whose value is same for all the gases. In this equation, if three variables are known, fourth can be calculated. The equation describes the state of an ideal gas. Hence, it is also called as equation of state.]

The ideal gas equation is written as PV = nRT …(1)
On rearranging equation (1), we get,

The ideal gas equation used in this form is called combined gas law.

Question C.
With the help of graph answer the following –

At constant temperature,
a. Graph shows relation between pressure and volume. Represent the relation mathematically.
b. Identify the law.
c. Write the statement of law.
Answer:
a. P ∝ \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{~V}}\)
b. The graph represents Boyle’s law as it gives relation between pressure and volume at constant temperature.
c. Statement of Boyle’s law: For a fixed mass (number of moles ‘n’) of a gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of the gas.
OR
At constant temperature, the pressure of fixed amount (number of moles) of a gas varies inversely with its volume.

Question D.
Write Postulates of kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:
Postulates of kinetic theory of gases:

• Gases consist of tiny particles (molecules or atoms).
• On an average, gas molecules remain far apart from each other. Therefore, the actual volume of the gas molecules is negligible as compared to the volume of the container. Hence, gases are highly compressible.
• The attractive forces between the gas molecules are negligible at ordinary temperature and pressure. As a result, gas expands to occupy entire volume of the container.
• Gas molecules are in constant random motion and move in all possible directions in straight lines. They collide with each other and with the walls of the container.
• Pressure of the gas is due to the collision of gas molecules with the walls of the container.
• The collisions of the gas molecules are perfectly elastic in nature, which means that the total energy of the gaseous particle remains unchanged after collision.
• The different gas molecules move with different velocities at any instant and hence have different kinetic energies. However, the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is directly proportional to the absolute temperature.

Question E.
Write a short note on
a. Vapour pressure.
b. Surface tension
c. Viscosity.
Answer:
a. Vapour pressure:

• Molecules of liquid have tendency to escape from its surface to form vapour above it. This called evaporation.
• When a liquid is placed in a closed container, the liquid undergoes evaporation and vapours formed undergo condensation.
• At equilibrium, the rate of evaporation and rate of condensation are equal.
• The pressure exerted by the vapour in equilibrium with the liquid is known as saturated vapour pressure or simply vapour pressure.
• Vapour pressure is measured by means of a manometer.
• The most common unit for vapour pressure is torr. 1 torr = 1 mm Hg.

[Note: i. The vapour pressure of water is also called aqueous tension.
ii. Water has a vapour pressure of approximately 20 torr at room temperature.]

b. Surface tension:

• The particles in the bulk of liquid are uniformly attracted in all directions and the net force acting on the molecules present inside the bulk is zero.
• But the molecules at the surface experience a net attractive force towards the interior of the liquid, or the forces acting on the molecules on the surface are imbalanced.
• Therefore, liquids have tendency to minimize their surface area and the surface acts as a stretched membrane.
• The force acting per unit length perpendicular to the line drawn on the surface of liquid is called surface tension.
• Unit: Surface tension is measured in SI unit, N m^-1 and is denoted by Greek letter ‘γ’

c. Viscosity:
i. Liquids (fluids) have tendency to flow.
ii. Viscosity measures the magnitude of internal friction in a liquid or fluid to flow as measured by the force per unit area resisting uniform flow.
iii. Different layers of a liquid flow with different velocity. This called laminar flow. Here, the layers of molecules in the immediate contact of the fixed surface remains stationary. The subsequent layers slip over one another. Strong intermolecular forces obstruct the layers from slipping over one another, resulting in a friction between the layers.
iv. Viscosity is defined as the force of friction between the successive layers of a flowing liquid. It is also the resistance to the flow of a liquid.
v. When a liquid flow through a tube, the central layer has the highest velocity, whereas the layer along the inner wall in the tube remains stationary. This is a result of the viscosity of a liquid. Hence, a velocity gradient exists across the cross-section of the tube.

vi. Viscosity is expressed in terms of coefficient of viscosity, ‘η’ (Eta). The SI unit of viscosity coefficient is N s m^-2 (newton second per square meter). In CGS system, the unit (η) is measured in poise.
1 poise = 1 g cm^-1 s^-1 = 10^-1 kg m^-1 s^-1

5. Solve the following

Question A.
A balloon is inflated with helium gas at room temperature of 25 °C and at 1 bar pressure when its initial volume is 2.27L and allowed to rise in air. As it rises in the air external pressure decreases and the volume of the gas increases till finally it bursts when external pressure is 0.3bar. What is the limit at which volume of the balloon can stay inflated ?
Answer:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 1 bar
V₁ = Initial volume = 2.27 L
P₂ = Final pressure = 0.3 bar
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
∴ V₂ = \(\frac{P_{1} V_{1}}{P_{2}}=\frac{1 \times 2.27}{0.3}\) = 7.566667 L ≈ 7.567 L
Ans: The balloon can stay inflated below the volume of 7.567 L.

Question B.
A syringe has a volume of 10.0 cm³ at pressure 1 atm. If you plug the end so that no gas can escape and push the plunger down, what must be the final volume to change the pressure to 3.5 atm?

Answer:
Given: P₁ = Initial pressure = 1 atm
V₁ = Initial volume = 10.0 cm³
P₂ = Final pressure = 3.5 atm
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
Calculation: According to Boyle’s law,
P₁V₁ = P₂V₂ (at constant n and T)
∴ V₂ = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{P}_{2}}=\frac{1 \times 10.0}{3.5}\)
= 2.857 L
Ans: The final volume of the gas in the syringe is 2.857 L.

Question C.
The volume of a given mass of a gas at 0°C is 2 dm³. Calculate the new volume of the gas at constant pressure when
a. The temperature is increased by 10°C.
b.The temperature is decreased by 10°C.
Answer:
Given: T₁ = Initial temperature = 0 °C = 0 + 273.15 = 273.15 K,
V₁ = Initial volume = 2 dm³
a. T₂ = Final temperature = 273.15 K + 10 = 283.15 K
b. T₂ = Final temperature = 273.15 K – 10 = 263.15 K
To find: V₂ = Final volume in both the cases
Formula: \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{l}}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
Calculation: According to Charles’ law,

Ans: The new volume of a given mass of gas is:
a. 2.073 dm³
b. 1.927 dm³

Question D.
A hot air balloon has a volume of 2800 m³ at 99 °C. What is the volume if the air cools to 80 °C?

Answer:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 2800 m³, T₁ = Initial temperature = 99 °C = 99 + 273.15 = 372.15 K,
T₂ = Final temperature = 80 °C = 80 + 273.15 K = 353.15 K
To find: V₂ = Final volume
Formula: = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
Calculation: According to Charles’ law,
\(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\) (at constant n and P)
∴ \(\mathrm{V}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1} \mathrm{~T}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{2800 \times 353.15}{372.15}=\mathbf{2 6 5 7 \mathrm { m } ^ { 3 }}\)
Ans: The volume of the balloon when the air cools to 80 °C is 2657 m³.

Question E.
At 0 °C, a gas occupies 22.4 liters. How nuch hot must be the gas in celsius and in kelvin to reach volume of 25.0 literes?
Answer:
V₁ = Initial volume of the gas = 22.4 L,
T₁ = Initial temperature = 0 + 273.15 = 273.15 K,
V₂ = Final volume = 25.0 L
To find: T₂ = Final temperature in Celsius and in Kelvin

Ans: The temperature of the gas must be 31.7 °C or 304.9 K.

Question F.
A 20 L container holds 0.650 mol of He gas at 37 °C at a pressure of 628.3 bar. What will be new pressure inside the container if the volume is reduced to 12 L. The temperature is increased to 177 °C and 1.25 mol of additional He gas was added to it?
Answer:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 20 L, n₁ = Initial number of moles = 0.650 mol
P₁ = Initial pressure = 628.3 bar
T₁ = Initial temperature = 37 °C = 37 + 273.15 K = 310.15 K
n₂ = Final number of moles = 0.650 + 1.25 = 1.90 mol, V₂ = Final volume = 12 L
T₂ = Final temperature = 177 °C = 177 + 273.15 K = 450.15 K, R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: P₂ = Final pressure
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
P₂V₂ = n₂RT₂.
∴ \(\mathrm{P}_{2}=\frac{\mathrm{n}_{2} \mathrm{RT}_{2}}{\mathrm{~V}_{2}}=\frac{1.90 \times 0.0821 \times 450.15}{12}=\mathbf{5 . 8 5 2} \mathrm{atm}\)
Ans: The final pressure of the gas is 5.852 atm.
[Note: In the above numerical, converting the pressure value to different units, we get: 5.852 atm = 4447.52 torr = 5.928 bar]

Question G.
Nitrogen gas is filled in a container of volume 2.32 L at 32 °C and 4.7 atm pressure. Calculate the number of moles of the gas.
Answer:
Given: V = 2.32 L, P = 4.7 atm, T = 32 °C = 32 + 273.15 K = 305.15 K
R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: n = number of moles of gas
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT
∴ \(\mathrm{n}=\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}=\frac{4.7 \times 2.32}{0.0821 \times 305.15}=\mathbf{0 . 4 3 5} \mathrm{moles}\)
Ans: Number of moles of N₂ gas in the given volume is 0.435 moles.

Question H.
At 25 °C and 760 mm of Hg pressure a gas occupies 600 mL volume. What will be its pressure at the height where temperature is 10 °C and volume of the gas 640 mL ?
Answer:
Given: V₁ = Initial volume = 600 mL, V₂ = Final volume = 640 mL
P₁ = Initial pressure = 760 mm Hg
T₁ = Initial temperature = 25 °C = 25 + 273.15 K = 298.15 K
T₂ = Final temperature = 10 °C = 10 + 273.15 K = 283.15 K
P₂ = Final pressure
Formula: \(\frac{\mathrm{P}_{1} \mathrm{~V}_{1}}{\mathrm{~T}_{1}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{2} \mathrm{~V}_{2}}{\mathrm{~T}_{2}}\)
Calculation: According to combined gas law.

Ans: The final pressure of a gas is 676.654 mm Hg.

Question I.
A neon-dioxygen mixture contains 70.6 g dioxygen and 167.5g neon. If pressure of the mixture of the gases in the cylinder is 25 bar. What is the partial pressure of dioxygen and neon in the mixture?
Answer:
Given: m_O2 = 70.6 g, m_Ne = 167.5 g,
P_Total = 25 bar
To find: Partial pressure of each gas
Formula: P₁ = x₁ × P_Total
Calculation: Determine number of moles (n) of each gas using formula: n = \(\frac{\mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{M}}\)

Ans: The partial pressure of dioxygen and neon are 5.2 bar and 19.8 bar respectively.

Question J.
Calculate the pressure in atm of 1.0 mole of helium in a 2.0 dm³ container at 20.0 °C.
Answer:
Given: n = number of moles = 1.0 mol, V = volume = 2.0 dm³
T = Temperature = 20.0 °C = 20.0 + 273.15 K = 293.15 K
R = 0.0821 L atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Pressure (P)
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,

Ans: The pressure of the given helium gas is 12.03 atm.

Question K.
Calculate the volume of 1 mole of a gas at exactly 20 °C at a pressure of 101.35 kPa.
Answer:
Given: n = number of moles = 1 mol, P = pressure = 101.35 kPa = 1.00025 atm ≈ 1 atm
T = Temperature = 20 °C = 20 + 273.15 K = 293.15 K
R = 0.0821 dm³ atm K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Volume (V)
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
PV = nRT

Ans: The volume of the given gas is 24.07 dm³.

Question L.
Calculate the number of molecules of methane in 0.50 m³ of the gas at a pressure of 2.0 × 10² kPa and a temperature of exactly 300 K.
Answer:
V = 0.5 m³, P = 2.0 × 10² kPa = 2.0 × 10⁵ Pa
T = 300 K, R = 8.314 J K^-1 mol^-1
To find: Number of molecules of methane gas
Formula: PV = nRT
Calculation: According to ideal gas equation,
n = \(\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{RT}}=\frac{2.0 \times 10^{5} \times 0.5}{8.314 \times 300}=40 \mathrm{~mol}\)
Number of molecules = n × NA = 40 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 2.4088 × 10²³ ≈ 2.409 × 10²⁵
Ans: The number of molecules of methane gas present is 2.409 × 10²⁵ molecules.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 10 States of Matter Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question 1.
Consider three compounds: H₂S, H₂Se and H₂O. Identify which has the highest boiling point. Justify.
Answer:
Among the three compounds H₂O, H₂S and H₂Se, the first one, H₂O has the smallest molecular mass. But it has the highest B.P. of 100 °C. B.P. of H₂S is -60 °C and of H₂Se is -41.25 °C. The extraordinary high B.P. of H₂O is due to very strong hydrogen bonding even though it has the lowest molecular mass.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question i.
What are the various components present in the atmosphere?
Answer:
Various components present in the atmosphere are as follows:
a. Nitrogen (78%)
b. Oxygen (21%)
c. Carbon dioxide and other gases (0.03%)
d. Inert gases (mainly argon) (0.97%)
e. Traces of water vapour

Question ii.
Name five elements and five compounds those exist as gases at room temperature.
Answer:
Five elements and five compounds that exist as gases at room temperature are as follows:

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 140)

Question 1.
What is air?
Answer:

• Air is a mixture of various gases.
• One cannot see air but can feel the cool breeze.
• The composition of air by volume is around 78 percent N₂, 21 percent O₂ and 1 percent other gases including CO₂.

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 141)

Question 1.
Find the unit in which car-tyre pressure is measured.
Answer:
Car-tyre pressure is measured in the units of pounds per square inch (psi) or Newton per metre square (N m^-2).

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 142)

Question 1.
How does a bicycle pump work?
Answer:
A bicycle pump works on Boyle’s law. Pushing a bicycle pump squashes the same number of particles into a smaller volume. This squashing means particles hit the walls of the pump more often, increasing the pressure. The increased pressure of a gas can be felt on palm by pushing in the piston of a bicycle pump.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 143)

Question 1.
i. Watch Boyle’s law experiment.
ii. Find applications of Boyle’s law.
iii. Try to study how Boyle’s law helps in ‘scuba-diving’ i.e., importance of Boyle’s law in scuba diving an exhilarating sport.
Answer:
i. Students can refer to ‘Boyle’s law experiment’ on YouTube channel of ‘Socratica’.
ii. a. Syringes: When the plunger of a syringe is pulled back out, it causes the volume of the gas inside it to increase due to the reduction of pressure. This creates a vacuum in the syringe, which is constantly trying to adjust the pressure back to normal. However, since the only substance available, such as the blood or medication, is on the other side of the needle, this liquid is sucked into the vacuum, increasing the pressure and decreasing the volume of the gas. When we push the plunger back down, the pressure again increases, lowering the volume inside the syringe, and pushing the fluid out.

b. Respiration: Boyle’s law is essential for the human breathing process. When person breathes in, his/her lung volume increases and the pressure within decreases. Since air always moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure, air is drawn into the lungs. The opposite happens when person exhales. Since the lung volume decreases, the pressure within increases, forcing the air out of the lungs

c. Storage of Gases: Many industries store gases under high pressure. This allows the gas to be stored at a low volume, saving plenty of storage space.
[Note: Students are expected to search more on the internet about various other applications of Boyle’s law on their own.]

iii. Importance of Boyle’s law in scuba diving:
a. Boyle’s law affects scuba diving in many ways.
b. It explains the role of pressure in the aquatic environment.
c. As divers descend, the water pressure surrounding them increases, causing air in their body and equipment to have a smaller volume. As the divers ascend, water pressure decreases, causing their body and equipment to expand to acquire a greater volume.
d. Furthermore, it is crucial that scuba divers never attempt to hold their breath when immersed in water.
e. According to Boyle’s law, if divers attempt this when they ascend to a body of water of less pressure, then the air that is trapped in their lungs will over-expand and rupture. This is known as Pulmonary Barotrauma. Thus, it is important for scuba divers to exhale as they ascend because the external pressure increases.
f. Also, if a diver returns to the surface too quickly, dissolved gases in the blood expand and form bubbles, which can get stuck in capillaries and organs (causing the ‘bends’).
[Note: Students are expected to collect additional information their own.]

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 144)

Question i.
Why does bicycle tyre burst during summer?
Answer:

• According to Charles’ law, at constant pressure, the volume of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with the temperature. This means that as the temperature increases, the volume also increases.
• During summer, the temperature of the surrounding air is high. Due to the high temperature, the air inside the tyre gets heated. This will increase the volume of the tyres and it will burst.

Question ii.
Why do the hot air balloons fly high?
Answer:

• According to Charles’ law, at constant pressure, gases expand on heating and become less dense. Thus, hot air is less dense than cold air.
• In a hot air balloon, the air inside it is heated by a burner. Upon heating, the air inside the balloon expands and becomes lighter (less dense) than the cooler air on the outside. This causes the hot air balloon to fly high in air.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 145)

Question 1.
i. List out various real-life examples of Charles’ law.
ii. Refer and watch Charles’ law experiments.
Answer:
i. Few real-life examples of Charles’ law:
a. Helium balloon: If we fill a helium balloon in a warm or hot room, and then take it into a cold room, it shrinks up and will look like it has lost some of the air inside it. This shows that gases expand on heating and contract on cooling.
b. A bottle of deodorant: If we expose a bottle of deodorant to sunlight and high temperatures, the air molecules inside the bottle will expand which can lead to the bursting of the deodorant bottle. This is another example of Charles’ law.
c. Basketball: You may have noticed that a basketball has less responsive bounce during winter than in summer. This yet another example of Charles’ law. When a basketball is inflated, the air pressure inside it is set to a fixed value. As the temperature falls, the volume of the gas inside the ball also decreases proportionally.
[Note: Students are expected to collect additional real-life examples on their own,]

ii. pi [Note: Students can scan the adjacent QR code to visualize Charles’ law with the aid of a relevant video.]

Use your brainpower. (Textbook Page No. 146)

Question 1.
Why does the pressure in the automobile tyres change during hot summer or winter season?
Answer:

• According to Gay-Lussac’s law, at constant volume, pressure of a fixed amount of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
• During hot summer, the temperature of automobile tyre increases faster. Consequently, the air inside the tyre gets heated and the gas molecules starts moving faster.
• As the volume of the tyre remains constant, the pressure inside it increases.
• During winter, the temperature of automobile tyre decreases. Consequently, the air inside the tyre gets cooled and the gas molecules starts moving much slower and the pressure inside the tyre decreases.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 149)

Question 1.
Do all pure gases and mixtures of gases obey the gas laws?
Answer:
Yes, the gas laws are also applicable to the mixtures of gases. The measurable properties of a mixture of the gases such as pressure, temperature, volume, and amount of gaseous mixture are all related by an ideal gas law.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 150)

Question 1.
Where is Dalton’s law applicable?
Answer:
Air is a gaseous mixture of different gases. Dalton’s law is useful for the study of various phenomena in air, for example, air pollution.

Just think. (Textbook Page No. 155)

Question 1.
What makes the oil rise through the wick in an oil lamp?
Answer:
In an oil lamp, oil rises through the wick due to the capillary action. Such a capillary rise of oil is due to the surface tension of oil. The wick acts as a capillary tube. When the wick is placed in oil, the attractive forces between the oil and the inner wall of the capillary (wick) pull the oil up through the wick.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 9 Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Chemistry Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 11 Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question A.
Which of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
a. buckyball
b. diamond
c. graphite
d. emerald
Answer:
d. emerald

Question B.
………… is inorganic graphite.
a. borax
b. diborane
c. boron nitride
d. colemanite
Answer:
c. boron nitride

Question C.
Haber’s process is used for the preparation of ………….
a. HNO3
b. NH3
c. NH2CONH2
d. NH4OH
Answer:
b. NH3

Question D.
Thallium shows a different oxidation state because ……………
a. of inert pair effect
b. it is an inner transition element
c. it is metal
d. of its high electronegativity
Answer:
a. of inert pair effect

Question E.
Which of the following shows the most prominent inert pair effect?
a. C
b. Si
c. Ge
d. Pb
Answer:
d. Pb

2. Identify the group 14 element that best fits each of the following description.

A. Non-metallic element
B. Form the most acidic oxide
C. They prefer +2 oxidation state.
D. Forms strong π bonds.
Answer:
i. Carbon (C)
ii. Carbon
iii. Tin (Sn) and lead (Pb)
iv. Carbon

3. Give reasons.

A. Ga³⁺ salts are better reducing agent while Tl³⁺ salts are better oxidising agent.
B. PbCl₄ is less stable than PbCl₂
Answer:
A. i. Both gallium (Ga) and thallium (Tl) belong to group 13.
ii. Ga is lighter element compared to thallium Tl. Therefore, its +3 oxidation state is stable. Thus, Ga+ loses two electrons and get oxidized to Ga³⁺. Hence, Ga+ salts are better reducing agent.
iii. Thallium is a heavy element. Therefore, due to the inert pair effect, Tl forms stable compounds in +1 oxidation state. Thus, Tl³⁺ salts get easily reduced to Tl¹⁺ by accepting two electrons. Hence, Tl³⁺ salts are better oxidizing agent.
[Note: This question is modified so as to apply the appropriate textual concept.]

B. i. Pb has electronic configuration [Xe] 4f¹⁴ 5d¹⁰ 6s² 6p².
ii. Due to poor shielding of 6s² electrons by inner d and f electrons, it is difficult to remove 6s² electrons (inert pair).
iii. Thus, due to inert pair effect, +2 oxidation state is more stable than +4 oxidation state.
Hence, PbCl₄ is less stable than PbCl₂.

4. Give the formula of a compound in which carbon exhibit an oxidation state of

A. +4
B. +2
C. -4
Answer:
A. CCl₄
B. CO
C. CH₄

5. Explain the trend of the following in group 13 elements :

A. atomic radii
B. ionization enthalpy
C. electron affinity
Answer:
A. Atomic radii:

• In group 13, on moving down the group, the atomic radii increases from B to Al.
• However, there is an anomaly observed in the atomic radius of gallium due to the presence of 3d electrons. These inner 3d electrons offer poor shielding effect and thus, valence shell electrons of Ga experience greater nuclear attraction. As a result, atomic radius of gallium is less than that of aluminium.
• However, the atomic radii again increases from Ga to Tl.
• Therefore, the atomic radii of the group 13 elements varies in the following order:
  B < Al > Ga < In < Tl

B. Ionization enthalpy:

• Ionization enthalpies show irregular trend in the group 13 elements.
• As we move down the group, effective nuclear charge decreases due to addition of new shells in the atom of the elements which leads to increased screening effect. Thus, it becomes easier to remove valence shell electrons and hence, ionization enthalpy decreases from B to Al as expected.
• However, there is a marginal difference in the ionization enthalpy from Al to Tl.
• The ionization enthalpy increases slightly for Ga but decreases from Ga to In.
  In case of Ga, there are 10 d-electrons in its inner electronic configuration which shield the nuclear charge less effectively than the s and p-electrons and therefore, the outer electron is held fairly strongly by the nucleus. As a result, the ionization enthalpy increases slightly.
• Number of d electrons and extent of screening effect in indium is same as that in gallium. However, the atomic size increases from Ga to In. Due to this, the first ionization enthalpy of In decreases.
• The last element Tl has 10 d-electrons and 14 f-electrons in its inner electronic configuration which exert still smaller shielding effect on the outer electrons. Consequently, its first ionization enthalpy increases considerably.

C. Electron affinity:
a. Electron affinity shows irregular trend. It first increases from B to A1 and then decreases. The less electron affinity of boron is due to its smaller size. Adding an electron to the 2p orbital in boron leads to a greater repulsion than adding an electron to the larger 3p orbital of aluminium.

b. From Al to Tl, electron affinity decreases. This is because, nuclear charge increases but simultaneously the number of shells in the atoms also increases. As a result, the effective nuclear charge decreases down the group resulting in increased atomic size and thus, it becomes difficult to add an electron to a larger atom. The electron affinity of Ga and In is same.
Note: Electron affinity of group 13 elements:

6. Answer the following

Question A.
What is hybridization of Al in AlCl₃?
Answer:
Al is sp² hybridized in AlCl₃.

Question B.
Name a molecule having banana bond.
Answer:
Diborane (B₂H₆)

7. Draw the structure of the following

Question A.
Orthophosphoric acid
Answer:

Question B.
Resonance structure of nitric acid
Answer:

8. Find out the difference between

Question A.
Diamond and Graphite
Answer:
Diamond:

1. It has a three-dimensional network structure.
2. In diamond, each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized.
3. Each carbon atom in diamond is linked to four other carbon atoms.
4. Diamond is poor conductor of electricity due to absence of free electrons.
5. Diamond is the hardest known natural substance.

Graphite:

1. It has a two-dimensional hexagonal layered structure.
2. In graphite, each carbon atom is sp² hybridized.
3. Each carbon atom in graphite is linked to three other carbon atoms.
4. Graphite is good conductor of electricity due to presence of free electrons in its structure.
5. Graphite is soft and slippery.

Question B.
White phosphorus and Red phosphorus
Answer:
White phosphorus:

1. It consists of discrete tetrahedral P₄ molecules.
2. It is less stable and more reactive.
3. It exhibits chemiluminescence.
4. It is poisonous.

Red phosphorus:

1. It consists chains of P₄ molecules linked together by covalent bonds.
2. It is stable and less reactive.
3. It does not exhibit chemiluminescence.
4. It is nonpoisonous.

9. What are silicones? Where are they used?
Answer:
i. a. Silicones are organosilicon polymers having R₂SiO (where, R = CH₃ or C₆H₅ group) as a repeating unit held together by

b. Since the empirical formula R₂SiO (where R = CH₃ or C₆H₅ group) is similar to that of ketones (R₂CO), these compounds are named as silicones.

ii. Applications: They are used as

• insulating material for electrical appliances.
• water proofing of fabrics.
• sealant.
• high temperature lubricants.
• for mixing in paints and enamels to make them resistant to high temperature, sunlight and chemicals.

10. Explain the trend in oxidation state of elements from nitrogen to bismuth.
Answer:

• Group 15 elements have five valence electrons (ns² np³). Common oxidation states are -3, +3 and +5. The range of oxidation state is from -3 to +5.
• Group 15 elements exhibit positive oxidation states such as +3 and +5. Due to inert pair effect, the stability of +5 oxidation state decreases and +3 oxidation state increases on moving down the group.
• Group 15 elements show tendency to donate electron pairs in -3 oxidation state. This tendency is maximum for nitrogen.
• The group 15 elements achieve +5 oxidation state only through covalent bonding.
  e. g. NH₃, PH₃, ASH₃, SbH₃, and BiH₃ contain 3 covalent bonds. PCl₅ and PF₅ contain 5 covalent bonds.

11. Give the test that is used to detect borate radical is qualitative analysis.
Answer:
i. Borax when heated with ethyl alcohol and concentrated H₂SO₄, produces volatile vapours of triethyl borate, which bum with green edged flame.

ii. The above reaction is Used as a test for the detection and removal of borate radical \(\left(\mathrm{BO}_{3}^{3-}\right)\) in qualitative analysis.

12. Explain structure and bonding of diborane.
Answer:

• Electronic configuration of boron is 1s² 2s² 2p¹. Thus, it has only three valence electrons.
• In diborane, each boron atom is sp³ hybridized. Three of such hybrid orbitals are half filled while the fourth sp3 hybrid orbital remains vacant.
• The two half-filled sp³ hybrid orbitals of each B atom overlap with 1s orbitals of two terminal H atoms and form four B – H covalent bonds. These bonds are also known as two-centred-two-electron (2c-2e) bonds.
• When ‘1s’ orbital of each of the remaining two H atoms simultaneously overlap with half-filled hybrid orbital of one B atom and the vacant hybrid orbital of the other B atom, it produces two three-centred-two- electron bonds (3c-2e) or banana bonds.
• Hydrogen atoms involved in (3c-2e) bonds are the bridging H atoms i.e., H atoms in two B – H – B bonds.
• In diborane, two B atoms and four terminal H atoms lie in one plane, while the two bridging H atoms lie symmetrically above and below this plane.

13. A compound is prepared from the mineral colemanite by boiling it with a solution of sodium carbonate. It is white crystalline solid and used for inorganic qualitative analysis.

a. Name the compound produced.
b. Write the reaction that explains its formation.
Answer:
a. Borax
b. Borax is obtained from its mineral colemanite by boiling it with a solution of sodium carbonate.

14. Ammonia is a good complexing agent. Explain.
Answer:
i. The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom facilitates complexation of ammonia with transition metal ions. Thus, ammonia is a good complexing agent as it forms complex by donating its lone pair of electrons.

ii. This reaction is used for the detection of metal ions such as Cu²⁺ and Ag⁺.

15. State true or false. Correct the false statement.

A. The acidic nature of oxides of group 13 increases down the graph.
B. The tendency for catenation is much higher for C than for Si.
Answer:
A. False
The acidic nature of oxides of group 13 decreases down the group. It changes from acidic through amphoteric to basic.
B. True

16. Match the pairs from column A and B.

Answer:
i – d,
ii – c,
iii – b

17. Give the reactions supporting basic nature of ammonia.
Answer:
In the following reactions ammonia reacts with acids to form the corresponding ammonium salts which indicates basic nature of ammonia.

18. Shravani was performing inorganic qualitative analysis of a salt. To an aqueous solution of that salt, she added silver nitrate. When a white precipitate was formed. On adding ammonium hydroxide to this, she obtained a clear solution. Comment on her observations and write the chemical reactions involved.
Answer:
i. When silver nitrate (AgNO₃) is added to an aqueous solution of salt sodium chloride (NaCl), a white precipitate of silver chloride (AgCl) is formed.

ii. On adding ammonium hydroxide (NH₄OH) to this, the white precipitate of silver chloride gets dissolved and thus, a clear solution is obtained.

11th Chemistry Digest Chapter 9 Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 123)

Question 1.
If the valence shell electronic configuration of an element is 3s² 3p¹, in which block of the periodic table is it placed?
Answer:
The element having valence shell electronic configuration 3s² 3p¹ must be placed in the p-block of the periodic table as its last electron enters in p-subshell (3p).

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 127)

Question 1.
What is common between diamond and graphite?
Answer:
Both diamond and graphite are made up of carbon atoms as they are two allotropes of carbon.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 129)

Question i.
Which element from the following pairs has higher ionization enthalpy?
B and TI, N and Bi
Answer:
Among B and Tl, boron has higher ionization enthalpy while, among N and Bi, nitrogen has higher ionization enthalpy.

Question ii.
Does boron form covalent compound or ionic?
Answer:
Yes, boron forms covalent compound.

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 131)

Question 1.
Find out the structural formulae of various oxyacids of phosphorus.
Answer:

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Elements of Group 13, 14 and 15 Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• States of Matter Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Adsorption and Colloids Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Equilibrium Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Nuclear Chemistry and Radioactivity Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Hydrocarbons Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemistry in Everyday Life Class 11 Chemistry Textbook Solutions