Bhagya

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the chart.

Answer:

2. Which undesirable customs are prevalent in today’s society ? Suggest measures for their eradication.
Answer:
The bad traditions prevalent in the society are:

• No Education for girls.
• Female infanticide.
• Dowry.
• Animal sacrifice
• Superstitions.
• Bonded labour.

The ways to get rid of these bad traditions are:

• Special provisions for girl’s education.
• Awareness programme for women.
• Inculcating scientific attitude.
• Special law to protect the women and girl child.
• Thinking positive, parental guidance to think in a systematic way, to get science knowledge update to disperse the blind belief will eradicate superstition.

3. Make a detailed notes of the festivals and auspicious days in your area.
Answer:
(a) Diwali, Holi, Mahashivaratri, Eid, Raksha Bandhan, Navaratri, Krishna Janmashtami, Gurpurabh, Parsi new year, Onam are celebrated with great pomp and show in our area.

(b) Sanskasthi Chaturthi, Ekadashi, Akshaya Tritiya etc., are some of the auspicious days celebrated in our area.

4. Use the following points to compare life in the era of Shivaji Maharaj and today’s life.

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	……………	…………
(2)	Houses	…………….	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	………….	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	……………	…………….

Answer:

S. No.	Point	At the time of Shivaji Maharaj	Today
(1)	Transactions	Barter system	Coins, Paper money, Plastic money, Currency – Rupee, Cashless transaction through banks.
(2)	Houses	Village Houses: Made with simple mud and bricks. Cities- Wadas with one or two storeys.	Permanent, Well-constructed cement-concrete multi-storeyed house.
(3)	Transportation	Bullock cart, Horseback, Boat	Bus, Railway and Aeroplane.
(4)	Entertainment	Tamasha, Ballads on Dap	Music, Drama, Dance, Watching Television, Play, movie, Opera etc.

Activity

Gather information about the capable women of our country and read it aloud in your class, e.g. information on P.V. Sindhu, Sakshi Malik.

Class 7 History Chapter 13 Life of the People in Maharashtra Textbook Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate words from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Patils were given some land as Inam for his job as a _____. (Patil, Jagir, Watans)
Answer:
Patil

Question 2.
For any major or minor events or for battles an ______ was checked. (Time, Muhurta, Place)
Answer:
Muhurta

Question 3.
The _______ festival was celebrated on a large scale during the Peshwa Era. (Ganesh, Diwali, Makar Sankranti)
Answer:
Ganesh

Question 4.
______ script was used for day to day affairs. (Marathi, Sanskrit, Modi)
Answer:
Modi

Question 5.
______ was very popular sport. (Wrestling, Mallakhamb, Martial arts)
Answer:
Martial arts

Question 6.
The Jain Mandir at Jamod in Vidarbha had paintings of Jin Charitra, ______ stories (mythological, various festivals, animals)
Answer:
Mythological

Question 7.
________ was popular as an entertainment programme during the Peshwa Era. (Stage show, Tamasha, Lavani)
Answer:
Tamasha

Question 8.
_______ was a well-known painter. (Mallamma Desai, Gopikabai, Gangaram Tambat)
Answer:
Gangaram Tambat

Question 9.
The letters were carried by _______and messengers. (Birds, Camel riders, Post)
Answer:
Camel riders

Question 10.
People used to believe in ______ a lot. (astrology, scientific vision, dreams)
Answer:
astrology

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Festival	(a) Mankoji
(2) Sport	(b) Bail-Pola
(3) Sculpture	(c) Mallakhamb
(4) Ghat	(d) Ghrishneshwar Temple
(5) Painter	(e) Toke

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e
5 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Patils	(a) To manage the revenue
(2) The Kulkarni	(b) To protect the village
(3) Black Soil,	(c) Work in an office
(4) White-collared	(d) Farmers

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the chief source of production at the village level during the Peshwa era?
Answer:
Agriculture and agriculture based businesses were die chief source of production at the village level.

Question 2.
When was Ganesh festival celebrated?
Answer:
Ganesh festival was celebrated every year Bhadrapad Chaturthi to Anant Chaturdashi.

Question 3.
Which festivals were celebrated during Diwali?
Answer:
During Diwali the Balipratipada and Bhau- beej days were celebrated on large scale.

Question 4.
What were organised during the Jatras days?
Answer:
Wrestling Match were Organised during the Jatras days.

Question 5.
Which Subjects were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas?
Answer:
Writing, reading, accounting were taught in Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 6.
Which games were played during the Peshwa Era?
Answer:
Martial arts were very popular, Mallakhamb Dand, Wrestling, Lathi, Dandpatta, Bothati these games were played.

Question 7.
What was the religious policy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?
Answer:
(i) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj had a liberal religious policy.
(ii) He believed that everyone should follow his or her own religion but nobody should force his or her religion upon others.

Question 8.
What did the daily meal of the people consist of?
Answer:
The daily meal consisted of Bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy.

Question 9.
What did men and women use to wear during that period?
Answer:
(a) Men used to wear dhoti, kurta, angarakha, turban.
(b) Women use to wear sarees (nine-yard) and blouses.

Question 10.
What were used in Wada decoration?
Answer:
Artwork, decorative painting, firewood, sculptures, mirrors were used in wada decoration.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The land was given as inam to Patils do the job.
Answer:
Patilaki

Question 2.
Festival celebrated on large scale.
Answer:
The Ganesh festival.

Question 3.
Crops grown.
Answer:
Jowar, bajra, wheat, nachni, corn, rice etc.

Question 4.
Education was given in.
Answer:
Pathshalas and Madarasas.

Question 5.
Modes of transport.
Answer:
Ghat roads, the bridges on the river, boats.

Question 6.
Means of communication.
Answer:
Camel riders and Messengers.

Question 7.
Popular outdoor games.
Answer:
Hututu, Kho-kho and Atyapatya.

Question 8.
Learned women in the Peshwa Era.
Answer:
(a) Veermata Jijabai
(b) Maharani Yesubai
(c) Maharani Tarabai
(d) Umabai Dabhade.

Question 9.
Famous architect during that period.
Answer:
Hiroji Indulkar.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Discuss everyday living of the people in that Era.
Answer:
Most of the people were staying in the village. The villages were self sufficient.

(a) Crops grown: The farmers grown the crops like jowar, bajra, wheat, nachani, com, rice etc.

(b) Food: The farmers’ daily meal consisted of bhakari, onion, chutney and gravy. Rich people’s meal consisted of rice, dal-varan, chapatis, vegetables, salads and milk products.

(c) The transaction in rural area were based on barter system.

(d) Houses: The houses were simple and were made of soil and bricks.

(e) Clothing :
(i) Men wear – Dhoti, Kurta, Angarakha, Turban.
(ii) Women wear – Saree (nine yard) and blouse.

Question 2.
The life of women’s during Peshwa Period.
Answer:
(a) Their world were confined to the house of first their father and then their husband.

(b) Their education was neglected.

(c) Only a few exceptional women had achieved any progress in literacy, administration and battle skills.

(d) They include Veermata Jijabai, Maharani Yesubai, Maharani Tarabai, Umabai Dabhade, Gopikabai, Punyashlok Ahilyabai.

(e) Customs like child marriage, unequal marriage, widowhood, keshwapan, sati, polygamy had imposed harsh restrictions on the way women lived.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Answer in one word:

Question 1.
She took the charge of the Indore administration.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 2.
The most capable and brave man in Nagpurkar Bhosale family.
Answer:
Raghuji

Question 3.
He reinstated the Emperor on the throne of Delhi.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 4.
He managed politics in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

2. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Ashti.
• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

Answer:

• Maratha dominance over Odisha.
• The battle of Ashti.
• The British hoisted the Union Jack in Pune.

3. Write briefly:

Question 1.
The work done by Ahilyabai Holkar.
Answer:

• She created new laws for agricultural tax and tax recovery.
• She brought barren land under cultivation.
• Dug wells for farmers.
• She promoted trade and industry.
• Built water reservoirs.
• She constructed mandirs, ghats, matts and dharamshalas.
• Provided water facilities over India.
• She brought cultural integration in the country.

Question 2.
The valour shown by Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
(a) He played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha power in the North after the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat.

(b) He realised that guerilla tactics would not be any more useful so he trained and modernised his army under a French military expert de Boigne.

(c) With this trained army, he defeated the Rohillas, the Jats, the Rajputs and the Bundellas.

(d) Mahadji managed the difficult affairs with strong determination and looked after the Delhi affairs during CE 1784 to CE 1794.
The Mughal Emperor honoured him with the title Vakil-i-Mutlak.

Question 3.
The Maratha rule in Gujarat.
Answer:
(a) General Khanderao Dabhade and his son laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat.

(b) After the death of Khanderao, his wife Umabai took the charge, bravely fought the battle with Mughal Sardar at Ahmadabad and captured a fort.

(c) The Gaikwads made Vadodara their centre of power.

4. Discuss the reasons behind the end of the Maratha rule.
Answer:
The reasons behind the end of Maratha rule were:

(a) After the death of Mahadji Shinde and Nana Phadnavis, the Maratha power started declining.

(b) Raghunathrao’s son, Bajirao II the Peshwa did not have leadership qualities which could create solidarity among the Maratha Sardars.

(c) Maratha power got weakened due to these differences among the Maratha Sardars.

(d) The supremacy of the Marathas declined in the North and the South during the period of Bajirao II.

(e) The British dethroned the Maratha power and became the rulers

Activity:

Create a pictorial chart to show the families that contributed to the expansion of the Maratha power. Exhibit it in your school.

Class 7 History Chapter 12 Progression of the Empire Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
The Gaikwads made _______ in Gujarat a seat of their power. (Vadodara, Ahmadabad, Surat)
Answer:
Vadodara

Question 2.
_____ was the founder of the Holkar rule in Indore. (Mahadji, Malharrao, Raghunathrao)
Answer:
Malharrao

Question 3.
_____ managed to take care of the politics in the South. (Nana Phadnavis, Kanhoji, Khanderao)
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 4.
________ strengthened the naval power of Shivaji. (Patwardhan, Bhosale of Nagpur,Kanhoji Tulaji Angre)
Answer:
Kanhoji Tulaji Angre

Question 5.
During the reign of _____ there was a complete breakdown of the Maratha power. (Ahilyabai, Bhosale, Bajirao-ll)
Answer:
Bajirao-ll

Question 6.
_____ laid the foundation of Maratha power in Gujarat. (Khanderao Dabhade, Madhavrao, Raghuji)
Answer:
Khanderao

Question 7.
Malharrao Holkar was well versed in ________ (Sword fighting, Martial art, Guerrilla Warfare)
Answer:
Guerrilla warfare

Question 8.
The British managed to get the rights of the _______ of the Bengal region. (Diwani, Chauthai, Sardeshmukhi)
Answer:
Diwani

Question 9.
Delhi was under the influence of Maratha power till ______. (1803 CE, 1807 CE, 1819 CE)
Answer:
1803 CE

Question 10.
British defeated the Marathas in the battle of Ashti in Solapur in _________. (CE 1818, CE 1820, CE 1814)
Answer:
1818 CE

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Khanderao Dabhade’s wife	(a)  Raghuji Bhosale
(2) The most capable and brave Maratha Sardar.	(b) Umabai
(3) Mahadji’s death	(c) Akhilyabai Holkar
(4) She played a role in the judiciary	(d) Wanawadi (e) Wadgaon

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – c

Answer in one word:

Question 1.
Title conferred to Mahadji Shinde.
Answer:
Vakil-i-Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor)

Question 2.
An expert in guerilla tactics.
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde

Question 3.
She was the wife of Khanderao, Malharrao’s son.
Answer:
Ahilyabai Holkar

Question 4.
Managed the supremacy in the South.
Answer:
Nana Phadnavis

Question 5.
Peshwa who didn’t have leadership qualities.
Answer:
Bajirao II

Question 6.
Appointed as Sardar in the North.
Answer:
Ranoji Shinde

Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which regions were given as jagirs to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj?
Answer:
Varhad and Gondawan were given to Parasoji by Shahu Maharaj.

Question 2.
What rights were assigned to Raghuji?
Answer:
Raghuji Bhosale was assigned the Chauthai rights of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.

Question 3.
Who laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat?
Answer:
Khanderao Dabhade and his son Trimbakrao laid the foundation of the Maratha power in Gujarat.

Question 4.
Why did Mahadji Shinde train his army?
Answer:
Mahadji Shinde trained his army because the Marathas generally used the guerrilla tactics in 1 the hilly regions of the South. But would not be
suitable in the plains of the North.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Punyashloka Ahilyabai?
Answer:
(a) Punyashloka Ahilyabai ruled for twenty-eight years and enhanced the Maratha prestige in the North.
(b) She brought peace and order in her kingdom and made her people happy.

Question 6.
What was crystal clear amongst the British and Marathas?
Answer:
It was crystal clear that whoever will rule India will be ultimately decided by the war between the Marathas and the British.

Give reason:

Question 1.
Mahadji Shinde conferred the title of Vakil-i- Mutlak (Chief agent of the Emperor).
Answer:
British wanted to take the Delhi Emperor in their captivity. Even though the conditions were unfavourable, Mahadji Shinde defeated the British and again reinstated the Emperor on the throne. The Emperor was pleased with his bravery and conferred the title of Vakili- Mutlak. (Chief Agent of the Emperor).

Question 2.
The Maratha Sardars became successful in establishing the supremacy in North and South India.
Answer:
After the death of Madhavrao Peshwa, the Maratha Empire went in a disarray, Nana Phadnavis and Mahadji Shinde brought it back to normal. Mahadji was busy in the North to establish the supremacy of Marathas, Nana Phadnavis managed to take care of the politics in South. Leadership and capability helped the Maratha power to reach to a new pinnacle. Hence the Maratha Sardar became successful in establishing the supremacy in north and south India.

Question 3.
The supremacy of Marathas in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.
Answer:
Bajirao II became the Peshwa. He didn’t have any leadership qualities. On the contrary he had many vices. He couldn’t create solidarity amongst the Maratha Sardars. Because of many such reasons, the supremacy of the Maratha power in the North and the South declined in the times of Bajirao II.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Malharrao Holkar
Answer:

• He was the founder of the Holkar rule at Indore.
• He served the Maratha kingdom for a long time.
• He was expert in guerilla warfare.
• He proved his valour in the eras of Bajirao I and Nanasaheb Peshwa.
• He played a major role in establishing the supremacy of the Marathas in Malwa and Rajputana.
• He greatly helped Madhavrao Peshwa in re-establishing the Maratha supremacy after the defeat at Panipat.

Question 2.
Mahadji Shinde
Answer:

• Madhavrao Peshwa was conferred the title of Vakil-i-Mutlak by the Emperor. He was brave and an astute statesmen.
• After the Maratha defeat at Panipat, he played a major role in re-establishing the Maratha dominance and prestige in the Northern India.
• He realised that the guerilla tactics of Marathas would not be useful in the plains of the northern region.
• He trained his army under the French military expert de-Boigne and updated his artillery.
• With the help of his trained army, he subdued the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs, Bundellas, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 History Solutions Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Name them:

Question 1.
They came from Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Pathans

Question 2.
They settled at the foothills of the Himalayas.
Answer:
The Rohillas

Question 3.
The brother of Nanasaheb Peshwa.
Answer:
Raghunathrao

Question 4.
The chief of Jats at Mathura.
Answer:
Surajmaljat

Question 5.
Defeated the Nizam at Rakshasbhuvan near Paithan.
Answer:
Madhavrao

2.Write in brief about:

Question 1.
Raising the Maratha standard at Attack. Or Hoisting the Maratha standard at Attack.
Answer:

• Najib Khan, the Rohillas chief could not tolerate the Maratha supremacy.
• Najib Khan requested Abdali to invade India again. He captured Delhi.
• He returned to Afghanistan and collected huge wealth.
• Raghunathrao and Madhavrao Holkar marched to the North and captured Delhi.
• They defeated Abdali’s officers and captured Punjab.

Question 2.
Conflict with the Afghans.
Or
Battle with the Afghans.
Answer:

• In CE 1751, Ahmadshah Abdali conquered Punjab.
• Due to that, the Mughals were facing threat from Abdali.
• So they joined hands with the Marathas to protect Delhi.
• The Emperor signed a treaty with Marathas in 1752.
• As per the treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire.
• The Maratha army marched towards Delhi.
• As Abdali got this news, he returned to his native country (Afghanistan).
• Due to the Maratha power, the threat of Abdali got subsided.

Question 3.
The after effects of the battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• The Marathas were defeated.
• The whole generation of Marathas were killed.
• Many brave soldiers died on the battlefield.
• It caused a great harm to the reputation of Marathas in Northern India.

3. Arrange chronologically:

• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Tipu Sultan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Buradi Ghat

Answer:

• The battle of Buradi Ghat
• The battle of Panipat
• The battle of Rakshasbhuvan
• The death of Madhavrao Peshwa
• The death of Tipu Sultan.

4. Find the names of people in the chapter :

Question 1.
N _ n _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 2.
D _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 3.
N _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Nizamshah

Activity:

Find more information about the battle of Panipat on the internet and make a presentation in your class.

Class 7 History Chapter 11 Marathas – The Protectors of the Nation Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the sentence by choosing the appropriate word from the options given below:

Question 1.
Ahmadshah Abdali was the Emperor of ______. (Mysore, Paithan, Afghanistan)
Answer:
Afghanistan

Question 2.
The chief of the Maratha artillery was ____. (Ibrahim khan, Hyder Ali, Najib Khan)
Answer:
Ibrahim khan

Question 3.
The Marathas defeated _________ in a battle at Motitalao near Srirangapattan. (Hyder Ali, Ibrahim Khan, Abdali)
Answer:
Hyder Ali

Question 4.
Safadarjung was the Nawab of ______.(Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Ayodhya

Question 5.
_____ the ruler of Afghanistan conquered Punjab in 1751 CE. (Ahmadshah Abdali, Rohillas, Hyder Ali)
Answer:
Ahmadshah Abdali

Question 6.
Nanasaheb sent ________ to the North to crush Abdali. (Sadashivraobhau, Surajmal Jat, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Sadashivraobhau

Question 7.
Hyder Ali usurped the throne of _____ (Mysore, Paithan, Ayodhya)
Answer:
Mysore

Question 8.
______was a Rohilla chief. (Ibrahimkhan, Najibkhan, Ahmadshah)
Answer:
Najibkhan

Question 9.
Madhavrao defeated the Nizam at ______ near Paithan. (Srirangapattan, Rakshasbhuvan, Buradi Ghat)
Rakshasbhuvan

Question 10.
After the death of Peshwa Nanasaheb, his son ________ succeeded him. (Bajirao II, Madhavrao, Vishwasrao)
Answer:
Madhavrao

Match the following:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) The Nawab of Ayodhya	(a) Raja Sawal Jaysingh.
(2) The Rohilla Chief	(b) Safadarjung
(3) The Chief of the Jats	(c) Najib Khan
(4) The chief of the Maratha artillery	(d)  Surajmal (e)  Ibrahim Khan Gardi

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Find the name of people in the chapter:

Question 1.
I _ _ _ h _ _ _ _ _ _
Answer:
Ibrahimkhan

Name them:

Question 1.
He met a heroic death in the battle.
Answer:
Dattaji

Question 2.
He became Peshwa after Bajirao.
Answer:
Nanasaheb

Question 3.
They do not help Marathas in the Battle of Panipat.
Answer:
Jats and Rajputs

Question 4.
The army of the Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
Answer:
Battle of Panipat

Question 5.
The Sultan who took advantage of the defeat of the Marathas at Panipat and attacked the Maratha territory in Karnataka.
Answer:
Sultan Hyder Ali

Question 6.
The death of this capable Peshwa caused a great loss to Maratha Kingdom.
Answer:
Peshwa Madhavrao

Question 7.
Understood that only Marathas can rule over the chaos in North and wished that Marathas should rule the North.
Answer:
Abdali and his heirs

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why did the Peshwa send Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to the North?
Answer:
The Peshwa sent Dattaji Shinde and Janakoji Shinde to crush the power of Najibkhan and to get a firm hold over the Punjab.

Question 2.
Why did the Nawab of Ayodhya invite the Marathas?
Answer:
The Nawab invited the Marathas to subdue the Rohillas.

Question 3.
Who helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle?
Answer:
Surajmal Jat, Queen Kishori helped the wounded Maratha soldiers in the Panipat battle.

Question 4.
When did the third battle of Panipat start?
Answer:
The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761 and the third battle of Panipat started.

Question 5.
What conditions were laid in the treaty signed between the Emperor and the Marathas in April 1752?
Answer:
According to this treaty, the Marathas agreed to protect the Mughal Empire from enemies like the Rohillas, Jats, Rajputs and Afghans, etc. In return, the Marathas got cash and the rights to collect Chauthai from a few regions of North (Punjab, Multan, Rajputana, Sindh and Rohilkhand).

Question 6.
With whom did Nanasaheb campaign against Abdali?
Answer:
Jayappa Shinde, Madhavrao Holkar along with Nanasaheb campaigned against Abdali.

Question 7.
Why did Hyder Ali attack Marathas when they were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak?
Answer:
Hyder Ali thought that the Marathas were defeated at Panipat and they had become weak and so he attacked them.

Question 8.
In which battle did the Marathas defeat Hyder Ali?
Answer:
In the battle at Moti Talav, near Srirangapattan

Question 9.
From where did the Pathans migrate and settle?
Answer:
The Pathans had migrated from Afghanistan and they settled near Ayodhya at the foot of the Himalayas.

Question 10.
How did the history of Maratha describe Madhavrao?
Answer:
Madhavrao is described as an honest, hardworking, determined and a caring administrator for the common people.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
The battle of Panipat.
Answer:

• Sadashivraobhau captured Delhi.
• The third battle of Panipat started.
• The Marathas attacked Abdali on 14th January, 1761.
• A bullet hit Vishwasrao and he fell dead.
• When Sadashivraobhau heard this, he attacked the enemy in madness, and disappeared from the battlefield.
• The Maratha soldiers lost courage.
• Abdali with the reserve contingent attacked the Marathas.
• The Marathas got defeated.

Complete the following family tree of Peshwa:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Balaji alias Nanasaheb
2. Raghunathrao
3. Madhavrao (Peshwa)
4. Sawai Madhavrao (Peshwa)

Question 2.
Find the name of people in the lesson in following grid:
Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism

Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write proper words from the following group of words in the blanks and rewrite the completed sentences:
(magnetism, 4.5V, 3.0V, gravitational attraction, potential difference, potential, higher, lower, 0V)

Question a.
Water in the waterfall flows from a higher level to the lower level because of …………… .
Answer:
Water in the waterfall flows from a higher level to the lower level because of gravitational attraction.

Question b.
In an electric circuit, electrons flow from a point of potential to the point of ……….. potential.
Answer:
In an electric circuit, electrons flow from a point of lower potential to the point of higher potential.

Question c.
The difference between the electrostatic potential of the positive end and the negative end of an electric cell is the …………. of the cell.
Answer:
The difference between the electrostatic potential of the positive end and the negative end of an electric cell is the potential difference of the cell.

Question d.
Three electric cells of potential difference 1.5 V each have been connected as a battery. The potential difference of the battery will be ……………… V.
Answer:
Three electric cells of potential difference 1.5 V each have been connected as a battery. The potential difference of the battery will be 4.5 V.

Question e.
An electric current flowing in a wire creates ………………… around the wire.
Answer:
An electric current flowing in a wire creates magnetism around the wire.

2. A battery is to be formed by joining 3 dry cells with connecting wires. Show how you will connect the wires by drawing a diagram.

Question a.
A battery is to be formed by joining 3 dry cells with connecting wires. Show how you will connect the wires by drawing a diagram.
Answer:

3. In an electric circuit, a battery and a bulb have been connected and the battery consists of two cells of equal potential difference. If the bulb is not glowing, then which tests will you perform in order to find out the reason for the bulb not glowing?

Question a.
In an electric circuit, a battery and a bulb have been connected and the battery consists of two cells of equal potential difference. If the bulb is not glowing, then which tests will you perform in order to find out the reason for the bulb not glowing?
Answer:
If you can see the filament of the bulb, check whether it is intact or broken. Check whether the cells are connected in a proper manner:

Or in a wrong way:
If they are connected in a wrong way as shown above, the total potential difference will be 2V + (-2V) = zero.
Figures for reference:

4. Electric cells having potential difference 2V each have been connected in the form of a battery. What will be the total potential difference of the battery in both cases?

Question a.
Electric cells having potential difference 2V each have been connected in the form of a battery. What will be the total potential difference of the battery in both cases?

Answer:
(i) 6V
(ii) 8V.
[Note: In (i), three cells are connected in series.
∴ Total potential difference = 2V + 2V + 2V = 6V.
In (ii), four cells are connected in series.
∴ Total potential difference = 2V + 2V + 2V + 2V
= 8 V]

5. Describe the construction, working and usefulness of a dry cell, with the help of a diagram.
Question a.
Describe the construction, working and usefulness of a dry cell, with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

Dry cell:
Take a lead dry cell and remove its outer coating. Inside you will find a whitish, metal layer. This is the zinc (Zn) metal layer. This is the negative terminal of the cell. Now, carefully break open this layer. There is another layer inside. An electrolyte is filled between these two layers.

The electrolyte contains negatively charged and positively charged ions. These are the carriers of electricity. The electrolyte is a wet pulp of zinc chloride (ZnCl₂) and ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl). There is a graphite rod at the centre of the cell. This is positive terminal of the cell. A paste of manganese dioxide (MnO₂) is filled outside the rod. Because of the chemical reactions of all these chemicals, electrical charge is produced on the two terminals (graphite rod and zinc layer) and an electric current flows in the circuit.

Due to the wet pulp used in this cell, the chemical reaction proceeds very slowly. Hence a large electric current cannot be obtained from this. Compared to the electric cells using liquids, the shelf life of dry cells is longer. Dry cells are very convenient to use as these can be held in any direction with respect to ground and can be used in mobile instruments such as radio sets, wall clocks and torches.

6. Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of a diagram.

Question a.
Describe the construction and working of an electric bell with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Figure shows the construction of an electric bell and also the electric circuit. The bell consists of an electromagnet, contact screw, iron strip, metal striker and metal gong. A coil of copper wire wound around an iron piece works as an electromagnet and an iron strip along with a striker is fitted near it. A contact screw touches the strip.

The circuit is closed with the key. The current flows in the circuit when the screw is in contact with the iron strip. The current – carrying coil becomes a magnet and attracts the iron strip towards it. As a result, the metal striker hits the metal gong producing sound. At the same time, the screw loses the contact with the strip. The circuit is now incomplete.

Hence, no current flows in the circuit. Therefore, the electromagnet loses its magnetism and the electric iron strip returns to its initial condition, making contact with the screw. As the circuit is now completed, the electromagnet attracts the iron strip and the striker strikes the gong producing sound.

The action repeats itself and the bell continues to ring till the circuit is broken by opening the key in the circuit.
The working of the electric bell is thus based on the magnetic effect of electric current.

Project:

Present all the activities that you performed in this chapter in Science exhibition.

Class 8 Science Chapter 4 Current Electricity and Magnetism Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
The SI unit of electric charge is the ……………… .
Answer:
The SI unit of electric charge is the coulomb.

Question 2.
The SI unit of electric current is the ……………… .
Answer:
The SI unit of electric current is the ampere.

Question 3.
The SI unit of electric potential is the ………………. .
Answer:
The SI unit of electric potential is the volt.

Question 4.
1 ampere = 1 coulomb per …………… .
Answer:
1 ampere = 1 coulomb per second.

Question 5.
When a glass rod is rubbed on a silk cloth, the glass rod acquires …………… charge.
Answer:
When a glass rod is rubbed on a silk cloth, the glass rod acquires positive charge.

Rewrite the following statements selecting the correct options:

Question 1.
The potential difference between the two electrodes of the lead-acid cell is nearly ………………. .
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.5 V
(d) 2 V
Answer:
(d) 2 V

Question 2.
The Ni-Cd cell delivers a potential difference of …………….. .
(a) 1 V
(b) 1.2 V
(c) 1.5 V
(d) 2 V
Answer:
(b) 1.2 V

Question 3.
…………….. is a scalar quantity.
(a) Force
(b) Acceleration
(c) Velocity
(d) Electric current
Answer:
(d) Electric current

Question 4.
The working of an electric bell is based on ………….. .
(a) the heating effect of electric current
(b) the chemical effect of electric current
(c) the magnetic effect of electric current
(d) the optical effect of electric current
Answer:
(c) the magnetic effect of electric current

Question 5.
The coulomb is the SI unit of electric ………….. .
(a) current
(b) resistance
(c) potential
(d) charge
Answer:
(d) charge

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
The SI unit of electric potential is the ampere.
Answer:
False. (The SI unit of electric potential is the volt. OR The SI unit of electric current is the ampere.)

Question 2.
In the external circuit, the conventional current flows from the positive terminal of the cell to the negative terminal of the cell.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Very small current flows when lightning occurs.
Answer:
False. (A large current flows when lightning occurs.)

Question 4.
Sensation is felt by us due to a microscopically small current flowing to the brain.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
In a car battery, a current is produced by the flow of both negatively and positively charged particles.
Answer:
True.

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Pressure exerted by a liquid, Electric current, Electric potential difference, Buoyant force.
Answer:
Buoyant force. It is a vector quantity. Others are scalar quantities.

Question 2.
Electric bulb, Electric heater, Electric bell, Electric iron.
Answer:
Electric bell. Its working is based on the magnetic effect of electric current. The working of other devices is based on the heating effect of electric current.

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
State the relation among the SI units of electric current, electric charge and time.
Answer:
1 ampere = 1 coulomb per second.

Question 2.
Name the positive terminal of the dry cell.
Answer:
The graphite rod at the centre is the positive terminal of the dry cell.

Question 3.
What constitutes an electric current in a metal?
Answer:
A continuous flow of electrons constitutes an electric current in a metal.

Question 4.
What is a battery?
Answer:
A group of two or more cells connected in series to obtain more potential difference is called a battery.

Question 5.
What is a solar cell?
Answer:
A solar cell is a device that converts solar energy into electrical energy.

Question 6.
State one characteristic of the Ni-Cd cell.
Answer:
The Ni-Cd cell is rechargeable.

Question 7.
Give one example in which the magnetic effect of electric current is used.
Answer:
The working of an electric bell is based on the magnetic effect of electric current.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
When do we get current electricity?
Answer:
We get current electricity when charged particles such as electrons, positive ions and negative ions are made to flow in a conductor by applying electric force.

Question 2.
Explain the concept of electrostatic potential (electric potential).
Answer:
A liquid flows from a higher level to a lower level. Heat flows from a body at a higher temperature to a body at a lower temperature. Also when different parts of a body are at different temperatures, heat flows from the part at a higher temperature to the part at a lower temperature.

Similarly, a positive charge (free to move) flows from a point at a higher electric level to a point at a lower electric level and a negative charge (free to move) flows from a point at a lower electric level to a point at a higher electric level. The electric level deciding the direction of flow of electric charge is called electrostatic potential (electric potential).

Question 3.
What is the SI unit of electric potential?
Answer:
The SI unit of electric potential is the volt (V).
[Note : This unit is named in honour of Alessandro Volta (1745-1827), Italian physicist, the inventor of the electric battery.]

Question 4.
What is potential difference?
Answer:
Potential difference is the difference
between the potentials at two points. It is similar to the height of a waterfall or the temperature difference between a hot body and a cold body. Potential difference is expressed in volt.

Try this: 

Take connecting copper wires and connect the ‘circuit’ as shown in Fig.(a). No current is seen to flow in the bulb. Now connect in the same ‘circuit’ a 1.5 V dry cell available in the market as shown in Fig.(b). Now it will be realized from glowing of the bulb that a current is flowing in the circuit. Electrons in the wire flow due to the potential difference between the two ends

In Fig.(a), there is no current as ) there is no potential difference in the absence of any cell. Current starts flowing in the circuit as soon as the potential difference is applied. The unit of potential difference in SI system is the volt (V). We will learn about it in the next standard.

Question 5.
What is electric circuit or electrical circuit?
Answer:
A continuous path consisting of conducting wires, a switch or a plug key and other resistances (for example, resistance of an electric bulb) between the terminals of a cell (or a battery) along which an electric current flows is called an electric circuit.

Question 6.
What is electric current?
Answer:
Electric current is the electric charge flowing through a conductor, such as a metal wire, per unit time.

Question 7.
What is one ampere?
Answer:
If one coulomb of charge is passing through any cross section of a conductor in one second, the amount of current flowing through it is called one ampere.
[Note: 1 ampere = 1 coulomb per second OR 1A = 1 C/s. The coulomb is named in honour of Charles Augustin de Coulomb (1736 – 1806), French physicist. The ampere is named in honour of Andre Ampere (1175 – 1836), French physicist and mathematician.]

Think about it:

Question a.
How can we measure water flow emerging from a pipe? We can find it from the amount of water (litres) coming out in a specific time period. How then is the electric current measured?
Answer:
Electric current, I = Q/t. In principle, if we can measure the quantity of charge (Q) flowing through a cross section of a conductor in time t, we can determine the current (i) using this formula (for a steady current). In practice, this is not done. Usually, electric current is measured using the magnetic effect of electric current. One can also use the heating effect and chemical effect of electric current for measurement of electric current.

Question 8.
What is an electric cell? What is its main function?
Answer:
An electric cell is a general device used to produce a uniform flow of charges in a circuit. Its main function is to maintain a constant potential difference between its two terminals.

Question 9.
Name ten devices in which electric cells are used.
Answer:
Electric cells are used in radio sets, wall clocks, wrist watches, torches, toys, mobile phones, cars, invertors, remote controls, ships, submarines, satellites, etc.

Question 10.
Draw a neat labelled diagram to show the design of the lead-acid cell and explain its principle of working.
Answer:
The lead-acid cell contains two electrodes, Pb and PbO₂, dipped in dilute H₂SO₄. Chemical reaction between the substances in the cell produces electric charges on the electrodes. PbO₂ carries a positive charge and Pb carries a negative charge. The potential difference between the electrodes is nearly 2V.

If a load, such as a bulb, is connected externally between the two electrodes, an electric current flows through it. It can deliver a large current. This cell can be recharged after getting electrically discharged.

Question 11.
State applications of the lead-acid cell.
Answer:
Lead-acid cells are connected in series to obtain higher potential difference. The lead-acid battery is used in cars, trucks, motorcycles and uninterrupted power supplies (UPS).

Question 12.
What is the potential difference delivered by the Ni-Cd cell?
Answer:
The potential difference delivered by the Ni-Cd cell is (about) 1.2 V.
[Note: In this cell, nickel oxide is the positive electrode and cadmium is the negative electrode. It is often used as a dry cell and it can be recharged. These cells are used in some portable machines that run on electricity like a drilling machine or a gardening tool.]

Question 13.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a simple electric circuit containing a cell, an electric bulb and a plug key. What happens when the key is (i) open (ii) closed?
Answer:

(i) When the key is open, there is no current in the circuit. Hence, the bulb does not glow.
(ii) When the key is closed, a current flows in the circuit. Hence, the bulb glows.

Figure for reference:
Here, six cells can be connected in series to obtain more potential difference.

Research:
Lithium ion cells are used in modern equipment for example, a smart phone, laptop, etc. These cells can be recharged. More electrical energy can be stored in these cells as compared to that in Ni-Cd cells.

Question 14.
See Fig. What is the potential difference between A and B if each cell delivers a potential difference of 2V?

Answer:
Potential difference between A and B
= 2V + 2V + (-2V) + 2V = 4V.

Use your brain power!

Question a.
You must have seen the car battery available in the market. It is called a battery and not a cell. Why?
Answer:
In a car battery, a number of cells are connected in series to obtain more potential difference.

Here, two identical cells are connected in parallel. The potential difference between A and B is 2V. This arrangement can be used for a longer time compared to a single cell.

Series and parallel arrangement for higher potential difference and longer life.
Here, the potential difference between A and B is 8V.

Try this:

Magnetic effects of electric current :
Activity 1 :
Take the inside tray of a used up matchbox. Place a small magnetic needle inside the tray. Now take a long connecting wire and wind it around the tray. Complete the electric circuit by connecting in it, this wire, electric cell, plug key and a bulb Figure.

Mark the position of the magnetic needle. Take a bar magnet near to the magnetic needle.
1. What do you observe? Keep looking at the needle and close the plug key. The bulb will light up, and you will realize that the current has started flowing.
2. Does the magnetic needle change its position? Now open the plug key.
3. Does the magnetic needle come back to the original position?
4. What will you conclude from this experiment?
You know that a magnetic needle is indeed a magnet. You have seen that the magnetic needle changes its direction when a bar magnet is taken near the magnetic needle. Also, you have observed that the magnetic needle changes its direction when a current starts flowing in the circuit. This means that magnetic field is created when an electric current flows in a wire. Hans Christian Oersted made this observation first. Briefly we can say that when an electric current passes through a wire, a magnetic field is produced around that wire.
Answer:

1. The magnetic needle is deflected.
2. Yes.
3. Yes.
4. The electric current produces a magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor.

Activity 2 :
Take a metre long flexible copper wire having resistive coating and wind it tightly on a long iron screw. Connect the two ends of the wire in a circuit as shown in the Figure. Also connect an electric cell and a plug key in the circuit. Keep 2-4 iron pins/small nails near the screw. Now start the current in the circuit by plugging the key. It will be noticed that the pins/nails have stuck to the tip of the screw. Will the pins/nails continue to stick when the plug key is opened?

Answer:
No.
When the electric current flows in the wire, magnetism is produced in the coil around the screw and because of that the screw also attains magnetism. As soon as the current is stopped, this magnetism vanishes. The system of the coil and the screw is called an electromagnet. You have seen various uses of the electromagnet in the sixth standard. Electromagnets are used to produce a strong magnetic field useful in scientific research.

Question 15.
What is an electromagnet? State ! its applications.
Answer:
If a coil is wound around an iron screw (or an iron rod) and a current is passed through the coil with a cell (or a battery), the screw behaves as a magnet as long as there is current in the coil. The i system of the coil and the screw is called an electromagnet. It is an example of magnetic effect of electric current.
Applications: Electric bell, cranes for moving heavy loads from one place to another, toys that run on electric cells.

Question 16.
How can the strength of an electromagnet be increased?
Answer:
The strength of an electromagnet can be increased by increasing the current producing the magnetic field.

Question 17.
What is the use of the elastic iron strip in the electric bell?
Answer:
Due to the elastic iron strip, the making and breaking of the circuit occur alternately and the bell continues to ring as long as the key in the circuit is closed.

Question 18.
What will happen if the elastic iron strip in the electric bell loses its flexibility?
Answer:
When the circuit breaks and the electromagnet loses its magnetism, the strip, due to loss of flexibility, will not return to its normal position of contact with the screw. Hence, the circuit will not be completed and the bell will not ring.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Composition of Matter Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 6 Composition of Matter

Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Composition of Matter Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the appropriate option and rewrite the following statements:

Question a.
The intermolecular force is ……………. in the particles of solid.
(a) minimum
(b) moderate
(c) maximum
(d) indefinite
Answer:
(c) maximum

Question b.
Solids retain their volume even when external pressure is applied. This property is called …………… .
(a) plasticity
(b) incompressibility
(c) fluidity
(d) elasticity
Answer:
(d) elasticity

Question c.
Matter is classified into the types mixture, compound and element, by applying the criterion …………… .
(a) states of matter
(b) phases of matters
(c) chemical composition of matter
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) chemical composition of matter

Question d.
Matter that contain two or more constituent substances is called ……… .
(a) mixture
(b) compound
(c) element
(d) metalloid
Answer:
(a) mixture

Question e.
Milk is an example of type of matter called …………. .
(a) solution
(b) homogeneous mixture
(c) heterogeneous mixture
(d) suspension
Answer:
(c) heterogeneous mixture

Question f.
Water, mercury and bromine are similar to each other, because the three are ……….. .
(a) liquids
(b) compounds
(c) nonmetals
(d) elements
Answer:
(a) liquids

Question g.
Valency of carbon is 4 and that of oxygen is 2. From this, we understand that there are …………. chemical bond/bonds between the carbon atom and one oxygen atom in the compound- carbon dioxide.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4.
Answer:
(b) 2

2. Identify the odd term out and explain.

Question a.
Gold, silver, copper, brass.
Answer:
Brass. (Others are elements.)

Question b.
Hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide, carbon dioxide, water vapour.
Answer:
Hydrogen. (Others are compounds.)

Question c.
Milk, lemon juice, carbon, steel.
Answer:
Carbon. (Others are mixtures.)

Question d.
Water, mercury, bromine, petrol.
Answer:
Petrol. (Others are inorganic compounds.)

Question e.
Sugar, salt, baking soda, blue vitriol.
Answer:
Sugar. (Others are inorganic compounds.)

Question f.
Hydrogen, sodium, potassium, carbon.
Answer:
Carbon. (Others are monovalent elements)

3. Answer the following question.

Question a.
Plants synthesize glucose in sunlight with the help of chlorophyll from carbon dioxide and water and give away oxygen. Identify the four compounds in this process and name their types.
Answer:
Photosynthesis:

Carbon dioxide, water, glucose, and Chlorophyll are compounds.
Types: Organic compounds: Glucose
Inorganic compounds: Carbon dioxide and water
Complex compounds: Chlorophyll.

Question b.
In one sample of brass, the following ingredients were found: copper (70%) and zinc (30%). Identify the solvent, solute and solution from these.
Answer:
Brass is an alloy, it contains 70% copper and 30% zinc. The largest proportion is solvent, i.e. copper. The smaller proportion is solute, i.e. zinc. The solution is Brass.

Question c.
Seawater tastes salty due to the dissolved salt. The salinity (the proportion of salts in water) of some water bodies Lonar lake – 7.9%, Pacific Ocean 3.5%, Mediterranean sea – 3.8%, 5 Dead sea – 33.7%. Explain two characteristics of mixtures from the above information.
Answer:

1. The constituents of a mixture (the proportion of salts in water) do not combine chemically.
2. Their constituents are present in any proportion by weight.
3. The constituent of a mixture can be separated by a physical process.

4. Give two examples each.

Question a.
Liquid element.
Answer:
Mercury (Hg), Bromine (Br₂)

Question b.
Gaseous element.
Answer:
Hydrogen (H₂), Oxygen (O₂).

Question c.
Solid element.
Answer:
Iron (Fe), Copper (Cu), Silver (Ag).

Question d.
Homogeneous mixture.
Answer:
Sea water, blue vitriol dissolved in water.

Question e.
Colloid.
Answer:
Milk, blood.

Question f.
Organic compound.
Answer:
Glucose, urea.

Question g.
Complex compound.
Answer:
Chlorophyll, Haemoglobin.

Question h.
Inorganic compound.
Answer:
Soda, rust, limestone.

Question i.
Metalloid.
Answer:
Silicon, arsenic.

Question j.
Element with valency 1.
Answer:
Sodium (Na), potassium (K), chlorine (Cl).

Question l.
Element with valency 2.
Answer:
Magnesium (Mg), Calcium (Ca).

5. Write the names and symbols of the constituent elements and identify their valencies from their molecular formulae given below:
KCl, HBr, MgBr₂. K₂O, NaH, CaCl₂, CCl₄, HI, H₂S, Na₂S, FeS, BaCl₂.

Question a.
Write the names and symbols of the constituent elements and identify their valencies from their molecular formulae given below:
KCl, HBr, MgBr_2, K₂O, NaH, CaCl₂, CCl₄, HI, H₂S, Na₂S, FeS, BaCl₂.
Answer:

Molecular formula	Constituent element/Name symbol	Valency
1. KCl	Potassium (K) Chlorine (Cl)	1 1
2. HBr	Hydrogen (H) Bromine (Br)	1 1
3. MgBr2	Magnesium (Mg) Bromine (Br)	2 1
4. K2O	Potassium (K) Oxygen (O)	1 2
5. NaH	Sodium (Na) Hydrogen (H)	1 1
6. CaCl2	Calcium (Ca) Chlorine (Cl)	2 1
7. CCl4	Carbon (C) Chlorine (Cl)	4 1
8. HI	Hydrogen (H) Iodine (I)	1 1
9. H2S	Hydrogen (H) Sulphur (S)	1 2
10. Na2S	Sodium (Na) Sulphur (S)	1 2
11. FeS	Iron (Fe) Sulphur (S)	2 2
12. BaCl2	Barium (Ba) Chlorine (Cl)	2 1

6. Chemical composition of some matter is given in the following table. Identify the main type of matter from them.

Question a.
Chemical composition of some matter is given in the following table. Identify the main type of matter from them.

Answer:

Name of matter	Chemical composition	Main type of matter
Sea water	H2O + NaCl + MgCl2 +…	Mixture
Distilled water	H2O	Compound
Hydrogen gas filled in a balloon	H2	Element
The gas in LPG cylinder	C4H10 + C3H8	Mixture
Baking soda	NaHCO3	Compound
Pure gold	Au	Element
The gas in oxygen cylinder	O2	Element
Bronze	Cu + Sn	Mixture
Diamond	C	Element
Heated white powder of blue vitriol	CuSO4	Compound
Limestone	CaCO3	Compound
Dilute hydrochloric acid	HCl + H2O	Mixture

7. Write scientific reason.

Question a.
Hydrogen is combustible, oxygen helps combustion, but water helps to extinguish fire.
Answer:

1. Water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen.
2. In a compound, the constituents do not retain their individual properties. Hence, hydrogen is combustible and oxygen helps combustion, but water is neither combustible nor supports combustion, it helps to extinguish fire.

Question b.
The constituent substances of a colloid cannot be separated by oridinary filtration.
Answer:

1. A colloidal solution is heterogeneous.
2. The diameters of colloidal particles are of the order of 10^-5 m.
3. The particles of a colloid can easily pass through a filter paper as the pore size of a filter paper is big. Hence, the constituents of a colloidal cannot be separated by filtration.

Question c.
Lemon sherbat has sweet, sour and salty taste and it can be poured in a glass.
Answer:

1. Lemon sherbat is a mixture. It is made up of lemon juice, sugar, salt and water.
2. Formation of lemon sherbat does not involve any chemical reaction.
3. The constituents of sherbat retain their individual properties. Hence, lemon sherbat is sweet, sour and salty to taste and it can be poured in a glass.

Question d.
A solid matter has the properties of definite shape and volume.
Answer:

1. The forces among the constituent particles (atom/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In solids these forces are strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result solids have a definite shape and volume.

8. Deduce the molecular formulae of the compound obtained from the following pairs of elements by the cross multiplication method.

Question a.
C (Valency 4) & Cl (Valency 1)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The molecular formula: CCl₄

Question b.
N (Valency 3) & H (Valency 1)
Use your brain power!
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The molecular formula: NH₃

Question c.
C (Valency 4) & O (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The formula: C₂O₄
The number of constituent atoms in the final molecular formula should be the smallest possible whole number. Divide the formula C₂O₄ by suitable number.
Final molecular formula obtained by dividing by ‘2’.
Molecular formula: CO₂

Question d.
Ca (Valency 2) & O (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The formula: Ca₂O₂
Divide the formula by suitable number ‘2’.
The molecular formula: CaO.

Project:

Question a.
Collect the wrappers of ready-made foodstuff. Use the information given and prepare a chart of foodstuff and the ingredients in it. Procure the ingredients available. Discuss with friends and teacher, test the procured ingredients with combustion test under the supervision of your teacher. Thereby identify the ingredients as organic or inorganic.

Class 8 Science Chapter 6 Composition of Matter Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
………….. have no definite shape, but have a definite volume.
Answer:
Liquids have no definite shape, but have a definite volume.

Question 2.
………… have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
Answer:
Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.

Question 3.
The properties of a …………… are different than those of the constitute elements.
Answer:
The properties of a compound are different than those of the constitute elements.

Question 4.
The part of matter having uniform composition is called ………………. .
Answer:
The part of matter having uniform composition is called phase.

Question 5.
The heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a ……………. .
Answer:
The heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a suspension.

Question 6.
A colloid is a ………………. .
Answer:
A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.

Question 7.
Bronze contains atoms of the elements ……………. and ………….. .
Answer:
Bronze contains atoms of the elements copper and tin.

Question 8.
When all the components of a mixture form one phase, it is called ………….. .
Answer:
When all the components of a mixture form one phase, it is called homogeneous mixture.

Question 9.
…………… is a mixture of water, lactose, fats and proteins.
Answer:
Milk is a mixture of water, lactose, fats and proteins.

Question 10.
The intermolecular force is …………….. in the gaseous state.
Answer:
The intermolecular force is very weak in the gaseous state.

Choose the appropriate option and rewrite the following statements:

Question 1.
When a liquid is poured from one container to another, its shape may change, but its volume ………….. .
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) none of them
Answer:
(c) remains the same

Question 2.
The property by which some solids maintain their shape even when subjected to external forces is called ………. .
(a) elasticity
(b) fluidity
(c) rigidity
(d) plasticity
Answer:
(c) rigidity

Question 3.
…………… is a complex compound.
(a) Glucose
(b) Blue vitriol
(c) Chlorophyll
(d) Soda
Answer:
(c) Chlorophyll

Question 4.
………….. is a homogeneous mixture.
(a) Sand + water
(b) Flour + water
(c) Salt + water
(d) Oil + water
Answer:
(c) Salt + water

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
Liquids do not have a definite shape
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Gases have a definite shape and volume.
Answer:
False. (Gases do not have shape and volume.)

Question 3.
The crystals of blue vitriol form a single phase.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Water is a mixture.
Answer:
False. (Water is a compound)

Question 5.
Milk is a colloid.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
A suspension does not scatters light.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Copper sulphate is a mixture.
Answer:
False. (Copper sulphate is a compound.)

Question 8.
An atom forms as many chemical bonds with other atom as its valency.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The strength of intermolecular forces is weak in the liquid state.
Answer:
False. (The strength of intermolecular forces is moderate in the liquid state.)

Question 10.
All the gases present together constitute a single phase.
Answer:
True.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
1. Potassium dichromate	a. Complex compound
2. Cyanocobalamine	b. Element
3. Air	c. Compound
4. Silver	d. Mixture

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Potassium dichromate	c. Compound
2. Cyanocobalamine	a. Complex compound
3. Air	d. Mixture
4. Silver	b. Element

Question 2.

Column 1	Column II
1. Milk	a. Alloy
2. Lemonade	b. Colloid
3. Sand and water	c. Solution
4. Brass	d. Suspension

Answer:

Column 1	Column II
1. Milk	b. Colloid
2. Lemonade	c. Solution
3. Sand and water	d. Suspension
4. Brass	a. Alloy

Question 3.

Column I	Column II
1. Sea water	a. Solid in solid
2. Vinegar	b. Solid in liquid
3. Air	c. Liquid in liquid
4. Bronze	d. Gas in liquid
5. Chlorinated water	e. Gas in gas

Answer:

Column I	Column II
1. Sea water	b. Solid in liquid
2. Vinegar	c. Liquid in liquid
3. Air	e. Gas in gas
4. Bronze	a. Solid in solid
5. Chlorinated water	d. Gas in liquid

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Why does a solid have definite volume ?
Answer:
In solids intermolecular forces are strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result solids have definite volume.

Question 2.
Why does a liquid have indefinite shape?
Answer:
In a liquid intermolecular forces are not strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result liquid has indefinite shape.

Question 3.
Why does a gas have indefinite volume and shape?
Answer:
In a gas intermolecular forces are very weak and the distance between the particles is very large, as a result gas has indefinite volume and shape.

Question 4.
What can you say about the distance between the neighbouring particles of solid?
Answer:
The particles of solid are very close to each other and the distance between them is minimum.

Question 5.
What can you say about the distance between the constituent particles of gas?
Answer:
The intermolecular force is very weak in gases. The distance between the particles of gas is very large. They move freely and occupy all the available space.

Question 6.
State whether the mixture of oil in water is a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture.
Answer:
The mixture of oil in water is a heterogeneous mixture.

Question 7.
State whether seawater is a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture.
Answer:
Seawater is a homogeneous mixture.

Question 8.
Give two examples of liquid in liquid.
Answer:
Examples of liquid in liquid:
Vinegar, dilute sulphuric acid.

Question 9.
Give two examples of gas in gas.
Answer:
Examples of gas in gas: Air, cooking gas.

Question 10.
Give two examples of solid in solid.
Answer:
Examples of solid in solid: Brass, stainless steel.

Question 11.
Give two examples of gas in liquid.
Answer:
Examples of gas in liquid: Chlorinated water, hydrochloric acid.

Question 12.
Give molecular formulae of 1. potassium chloride, 2. sodium sulphide.
Answer:

1. Molecular formula of potassium chloride: KCl
2. Molecular formula of sodium sulphide: Na₂S.

Question 13.
State the molecular formula and number of hydrogen atoms in methane.
Answer:
Molecular formula of methane: CH₄
The number of hydrogen atoms in methane is 4.

Question 14.
Identify the valency of chlorine in
(i) KCl and (ii) CaCl₂.
Answer:
i. The valency of chlorine in KCl is 1.
ii. The valency of chlorine in CaCl₂ is 1.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
State two principal ways of classifying matter.
Answer:
Two principal ways of classifying matter are:

1. On the basis of physical state as a solid, liquid or gas.
2. On the basis of chemical constitution as an element, compound or mixture.

Question 2.
What are the different states of matter?
Answer:
The different states of matter are solid, liquid and gas.

Question 3.
Define solid.
Answer:
A substance which has a definite shape and volume is called a solid.

Question 4.
State any three characteristics of solids.
Answer:

1. Solids have a definite shape and volume.
2. Most of the solids are rigid while some are plastic and some elastic.
3. Solids have practically negligible compressibility, i.e., their volume is not very much changed by external forces.

Question 5.
What is meant by rigidity of solids?
Answer:
The property by which solids maintain their shapes when subjected to external forces is called rigidity.

Question 6.
What is meant by elasticity of solids?
Answer:
Some solids undergo a change in their shapes and volume when subjected to external forces and regain their original shapes and volume on removal of the forces. This property of solids is called elasticity.

Question 7.
What is meant by plasticity?
Answer:
Some solids are deformed by external forces and do not regain their original shapes on removal of the forces. This property of solids is called plasticity.

Question 8.
Solids have a high density and negligible compressibility. Explain.
Answer:

1. The forces among the constituent particles (atoms/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In solids these forces are strong enough to keep the particles together in fixed positions, as a result solids have a high density and negligible compressibility.

Question 9.
Define liquid.
Answer:
A substance which does not have a definite shape, but has a definite volume is called a liquid.

Question 10.
State any three characteristics of liquids.
Answer:

1. Liquids have a definite volume.
2. Liquids do not have a definite shape. They take the shape of the container in which they are stored.
3. When they spill on a plane surface, they spread and flow in the surrounding areas, i.e., they have fluidity.
4. They have very small compressibility.

Question 11.
What is meant by fluidity?
Answer:
Liquids flow easily and change their shapes in response to external forces. This property of liquids is called fluidity. It is exhibited by gases also.

Question 12.
Liquids have fluidity and they do not have a definite shape. Explain.
Answer:
1. The forces among the constituent particles (atoms/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In liquids, the intermolecular forces are strong enough to keep the particles within the bulk in aggregation, but not strong enough to keep them in fixed positions. As a result, they flow easily and change shapes according to that of container.

Question 13.
Define gas.
Answer:
A substance which has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume is called a gas.

Question 14.
State any three characteristics of gases.
Answer:

1. Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
2. They spread in all directions.
3. They can be compressed or expanded easily.
4. In gases intermolecular forces are very weak.

Question 15.
Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume. Explain.
Answer:

1. The forces among the constituent particles (atoms/molecules) are called intermolecular forces.
2. In gases the intermolecular forces are extremely weak. As a result, the molecules of a gas move freely and a gas occupies all the available space.

Question 16.
Why are gases more compressible, than liquids?
Answer:
In liquids the distances between the neighbouring molecules are less than those in the gases. The intermolecular forces are extremely weak in gases, but not so weak in liquids. Hence, gases are more compressible than liquids.

Question 17.
What is an element? Give two examples.
Answer:
A type of matter composed of only one kind of substances where each smallest indivisible part of it has the same properties is called an element. It cannot be subdivided into simpler substances by any physical or chemical means.
Examples: Oxygen, nitrogen, silver.

Question 18.
Write any two characteristics of an element.
Answer:

1. All the atoms/molecules of an element are alike.
2. Atoms/molecules of different elements are different.
3. An element cannot be decomposed into simple substances by any chemical reaction or simple physical process.

Question 19.
What is a compound? Give two examples.
Answer:
A substance produced by a chemical reaction of two or more elements combined in a fixed proportion is called a compound.
Examples: Water, common salt, sugar.

Question 20.
Write any two characteristics of a compound.
Answer:

1. The proportion of constituent elements in a compound is constant.
2. The properties of a compound is different than those of the constituent elements.

Question 21.
What is a mixture? Give two examples.
Answer:
When two or more elements or compounds which do not react chemically with each other are mixed in any proportion, a mixture is formed.
Examples: Air, steel, milk.

Question 22.
Write any two characteristics of a mixture.
Answer:

1. The constituent molecules of mixture are different from each other and notoined by chemical bonds.
2. The proportion of constituent substances are retained in the mixture.
3. The constituents of a mixture can be separated by a physical process.

Question 23.
Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures:
Sugar, sodium, nitrogen, sodium carbonate, air, sulphuric acid, mercury, stainless steel, cement, potassium dichromate.
Answer:

• Elements: Sodium, nitrogen, mercury.
• Compounds: Sugar, sodium carbonate, sulphuric acid, potassium dichromate.
• Mixtures: Air, stainless steel, cement.

Question 24.
Write the composition of the following materials by means of chemical formulae and classify them accordingly.

Answer:

Name of the material	Chemical formulae/composition	Type of matter
Water	H2O	Compound
Carbon	C	Element
Oxygen	O2	Element
Air	O2 + N2 + CO2 + other gases	Mixture
Aluminium	Al	Element
Brass	Cu + Zn	Mixture
Carbon dioxide	CO2	Compound

Question 25.
What is meant by an organic compound? Give two examples.
Answer:
The compound which when heated strongly gives black coloured carbon residue is called an organic compound or carbon compound.
Examples: Carbohydrates, proteins, hydrocarbons (petrol, cooking gas).

Question 26.
What is meant by an inorganic compound? Give two examples.
Answer:
Compounds which when heated strongly decomposes to give a residue behind are called inorganic compounds.
Examples: Common salt, rust, blue vitriol, limestone.

Question 27.
What is meant by complex compounds? Give two examples.
Answer:
The molecules of compounds which have a complex structure formed by many atoms and in the centre of this structure metal atoms are also included are called complex compounds.
Examples: Haemoglobin, chlorophyll.

Question 28.
Classify the following compounds into organic compounds, inorganic compounds and complex compounds.
Petrol, common salt, haemoglobin, blue vitriol, cyanocobalamine, cooking gas.
Answer:

• Organic compounds: Petrol, cooking gas
• Inorganic compounds: Common salt, blue vitriol.
• Complex compounds: Cyano cobalamine, haemoglobin.

Question 29.
What is a phase?
Answer:
The part of matter with uniform composition is called a phase.

Question 29.
What is a homogeneous mixture? Give two examples.
Answer:
When all the components of a mixture form one phase, it is called homogeneous mixture.
Example: Solution of blue vitriol in water, solution of sugar in water.

Question 30.
What is heterogeneous mixture? Give two examples.
Answer:
When the components of a mixture are distributed into two or more phases, it is called a heterogeneous mixture.
Examples: Oil and water, sand and water.

Question 31.
Define solution or What is meant by a solution? Give two examples.
Answer:
A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances is called a solution.
Examples: Seawater, sugar, syrup.

Question 32.
What is meant by a solvent?
OR
Define solvent. Give two examples.
Answer:
The component which is present in largest proportion in a solution is called a solvent.
Examples:

1. In sea water, water is the solvent.
2. In tincture iodine, alcohol is the solvent.

Question 33.
What is meant by a solute?
OR
Define solute. Give two examples.
Answer:
The component of a solution which is present in smaller proportion than the solvent is called a solute.
Examples:

1. In sea water, salt is a solute.
2. When a small of amount of sugar is dissolved in water, sugar is the solute in the solution.

Question 34.
Define suspension.
OR
What is meant by a suspension?
Answer:
A heterogeneous mixture of a liquid and a solid is called a suspension. The diameter of the solid particles in a suspension is larger than 10^-4 m.

Question 35.
Define colloid.
Answer:
A heterogeneous mixture in which the particles cannot be seen with a naked eye is called a colloid. The diameter of colloidal particles is around 10^-5 m.

Question 36.
State the characteristics of a solution.
Answer:

1. A solution is clear and transparent, it passes through a filter paper.
2. The particles are not visible to the naked eye.
3. A light can easily pass through it without scattering.
4. A solution is homogeneous mixture.

Question 37.
State the characteristics of a suspension.
Answer:

1. In suspension, the solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended in it. The liquid and solid components of suspension are separated by filtration.
2. The particles are visible to the naked eye.
3. The particles in suspension are of very small size and scatter a beam of light passing through it.
4. It is heterogeneous in nature.

Question 38.
State the characteristics of a colloid.
Answer:

1. In a colloid, the particles are spread uniformly throughout the solution.
2. The size of the particles is less than that of the particles in a suspension.
3. The particles are not visible to the naked eye.
4. The particles scatter a beam of light.
5. A colloidal solution appears to be homogeneous, but actually it is heterogeneous. ‘

Question 39.
Give two examples of each of the following:

1. Phase
2. Homogeneous matter
3. Heterogeneous matter
4. Homogeneous mixture
5. Heterogeneous mixture
6. Solution
7. Suspension
8. Colloid.

Answer:

1. Phase: (i) Solid: Sodium chloride, blue vitriol, sand, (ii) Liquid: Water, alcohol, (iii) Gas: Chlorine, ammonia.
2. Homogeneous matter: Blue vitriol (solid), a solution of blue vitriol in water (a solid in a liquid), chlorinated water (a gas in a liquid).
3. Heterogeneous matter: Sand and water, sand and alcohol, blue vitriol and sand.
4. Homogeneous mixture: A solution of sodium chloride in water, air, a mixture of water and alcohol.
5. Heterogeneous mixture: A mixture of sand and blue vitriol, sodium chloride and iron filings, oil and water.
6. Solution: Seawater, a solution of sugar in water, a solution of blue vitriol in water.
7. Suspension: A mixture of sand and water, sand and alcohol, muddy water, limestone in water.
8. Colloid: Milk, milk of magnesia, blood, printing ink.

Question 40.
State the different types of solutions. Give one example.
Answer:
The different types of solutions:

• Liquid in liquid. Examples: Vinegar, dilute sulphuric acid.
• Gas in gas. Example: Air.
• Solid in solid. Examples: Brass, stainless steel, bronze.
• Gas in liquid. Examples: Chlorinated water.

Question 41.
Classify the following into homogeneous solution and heterogeneous solution?
Soda water, potassium permanganate solution, milk, alcohol in water, ink solution, wheat flour in water.
Answer:

• Homogeneous solution: Soda water, potassium permanganate solution, alcohol in water.
• Heterogeneous solution: Milk, ink solution, wheat flour in water.

Question 42.
Classify the following into solution, suspension and colloids:
Milk, sand in water, lemonade, smoke, oxygen in water.
Answer:

• Solution: Lemonade, oxygen in water.
• Suspension: Sand in water.
• Colloids: Milk, smoke.

Question 43.
What is meant by molecular formula?
Answer:
The number of atom of each of the constituent elements present in one molecule of a compound is called molecular formula.

Question 44.
What is meant by valency of an element?
Answer:
The capacity of an element to combine with another element is known as valency.

Question 45.
Deduce the molecular formulae of the compound obtained from the following pairs of elements by the cross multiplication method.
Answer:
Question a.
H (Valency 1) and O (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

∴ The molecular formula: H₂O.

Question b.
Fe (Valency 2) and S (Valency 2)
Answer:
Step 1: Write the symbols of the constituent elements.

Step 2: Write the valency below the respective elements.

Step 3: Cross multiply the valencies.

The molecular formula: FeS

Question c.
The valencies of the atom H, O and N are 1, 2 and 3 respectively. The molecular formulae of these gaseous elements are H₂, O₂ and N₂ respectively. How many chemical bonds are there in each of these molecules?
Answer:
Chemical bond in H₂ is one

Chemical bond in O₂ are two

Chemical bond in N₂ are three

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Hydrogen is an element.
Answer:

1. Hydrogen has only one kind of atoms.
2. Hydrogen cannot be further divided into new substances by any physical or chemical means. Therefore, hydrogen is an element.

Question 2.
Water is a compound.
Answer:

1. The composition of water is same throughout i.e., the elements hydrogen and oxygen whose atoms are combined in the ratio by weight is always 1 : 8.
2. The properties of water are totally different from those of its constituents, i.e. hydrogen and I oxygen. Hence, water is a compound.?

Question 3.
Air is a mixture.
Answer:

1. Air contains nitrogen, oxygen and other gases.
2. These gases retain their original properties. They do not combine with each other. Hence, air is a mixture.

Question 4.
A potassium permanganate solution in water is a homogeneous mixture, while a mixture of oil and water is a heterogeneous mixture.
Answer:

1. In a potassium permanganate solution in water the constituents, i.e. potassium permanganate and water are uniformly mixed throughout.
2. The properties and composition of a homogeneous mixture are the same throughout the mixture. Hence, potassium permanganate solution is a homogeneous mixture.
3. In a mixture of oil and water, the constituents are not uniformly mixed throughout the mixture.
4. The properties and composition of a heterogeneous mixture are not the same throughout the mixture. Hence, a mixture of oil and water is a heterogeneous mixture.

Question 5.
Milk is a colloid.
Answer:

1. In milk, the particles are spread uniformly throughout and due to very small size of the particles, milk appears to be homogeneous.
2. But milk is a colloid solution and it is a heterogeneous mixture. Here, milk is liquid particles of proteins and fats having a diameter around 10^-5 m dispersed in the aqueous medium. Hence, a milk is a colloid.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Answer:

Solids	Liquids
1.  Solids have a definite shape.	1. Liquids have no definite shape.
2.  They have very low compressibility.	2. They have moderate compressibility.
3. In solids, the intermolecular forces are very strong. E.g. iron, stone, salt.	3. In liquids, the intermolecular forces are moderately strong. E.g., water, alcohol, mercury.

Question 2.
Liquids and Gases:
Answer:

Liquids	Gases
1. Liquids have a definite volume.	1. Gases do not have a definite volume.
2. They have moderate compressibility.	2. They have high compressibility.
3. In liquids, the intermolecular forces are moderately strong. E.g. water, alcohol, mercury.	3. In gases, the intermolecular forces are very weak. E.g. oxygen, air.

Question 3.
Solids and Gases:
Answer:

Solids	Gases
1. Solids have a definite shape and volume.	1. Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
2. They have incompressibility.	2. They have high compressibility
3. In solids, the intermolecular forces are very strong. E.g. iron, stone.	3. In gases, the intermolecular forces are very weak. E.g. hydrogen, oxygen.

Question 4.
Element and Compound:
Answer:

Element	Compound
1. An element consists of only one kind of substance.	1. A compound is formed from two or more elements.
2. An element cannot be further divided into simpler substances by any physical or chemical means. E.g. iron, copper, oxygen.	2. A compound can be further divided into simple substances by chemical means. E.g. common salt, sugar, water.

Question 5.
Compound and mixture:
Answer:

Compound	Mixture
1. A compound is made of two or more elements chemically combined in a fixed proportion.	1. A mixture is obtained by just mixing two or more substances in any proportion.
2. A compound can be further subdivided into simpler substances by chemical means only.	2. A mixture can be further subdivided into simpler substances by simple physical processes.
3. The properties of a compound are entirely different from the properties of its constituents. E.g. common salt, sugar, water.	3. The constituents of a mixture retain their original properties. E.g. air, seawater.

Question 6.
Colloidals and Suspension:
Answer:

Colloidals	Suspension
1. The particles in a colloidal solution can pass through a filter paper.	1. The particles in a suspension cannot pass through a filter paper.
2. The colloidal particles cannot be seen with a naked eye.	2. The suspended particles can be seen with a naked eye.
3. The diameter of solid particles is around 10-5 m	3. The diameter of the solid particles is larger than 10-4 m.

Activity-based questions:

Activity 1:
Apparatus: Plastic jar, balloon, thread
Material: Mustard seeds
Take some mustard seeds in a transparent plastic jar. Thread a long thread at the centre of a big balloon by means of a needle and tie it tight. Stretch this rubber diaphragm and fix it on the mouth of the jar by means or a rubber band. Pull the diaphragm up and down with the help of the thread first slowly, then with moderate force and then vigorously. Record your observation in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 2:
Apparatus: Hammer, sand paper
Material: Iron nail, copper wire, aluminium wire, coal.
Take the following objects: iron nail/sheet, copper wire, aluminium wire, a piece of coal. Rub each object on a fresh surface of sandpaper and observe. Hammer each object with force. (Take care not to hurt yourself.) Record your observations in the following table.
The objects in the activity are made of the elements iron (Fe), copper (Cu), aluminium (Al) and carbon (C); respectively. Fill the following table on the basis of the observations obtained on doing the above two tests on each of the objects.

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 3:
Apparatus: Evaporating dish, tripod stand, burner, etc.
Chemicals: Camphor, washing soda, blue vitriol, sugar, glucose, urea.
Keep the evaporating dish on the tripod stand. Take some camphor in the evaporating dish. Heat the camphor in the dish strongly with the help of a burner. Find out what remains behind in the evaporating dish. Repeat the above procedure using limestone, washing soda, blue vitriol, sugar, glucose and urea instead of camphor. Record your observation in the following table. (Do this activity carefully under the supervision of your teacher, as some of the powders may catch fire.)

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 4: (Textbook page 43)
Apparatus: Beakers, rods
Chemicals: Blue vitriol, sand, water, etc.
Take three beakers. Take a little sand and water in the first beaker. Take some crystals of blue vitriol and water in the second beaker. Take some blue vitriol and sand in the third beaker. Stir the materials in all the three beakers and observe. Record your observation in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.
In the above activity after stirring a homogeneous mixture is formed in only one beaker? Which is that?
Answer:
The homogeneous mixture is formed in the second beaker. It is a solution of blue vitriol.

Activity 5:
Apparatus: Beaker, conical flask, funnel, filter paper
Chemicals: Common salt, saw dust, milk.
Procedure: Take three beakers. Take 10 g common salt in the first beaker, 10 g saw dust in the second beaker and 10 ml milk in the third beaker. Add 100 ml water to all the three beakers and stir. Which of the mixtures shows separate water phase ? Place the three beakers in front of a vertically held paper and pass a laser beam through the beakers from the opposite side. (Use the laser beam under the guidance of teacher.) At the same time observe what appears on the paper in front of the beaker. Also look at the beaker from the side. Arrange three filtration assemblies using conical flask, funnel and filter paper for doing filtration. Stir the mixtures in the three beakers and carry out filtration. Record all the observations in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Activity 6: (Textbook page 44)
Apparatus: Horseshoe magnet, evaporating dish, burner. Chemicals: Iron filings, sulphur.
Procedure: Take two evaporating dishes. Take 7 g iron filings in the first dish and 4 g sulphur in the second. Take a horseshoe magnet near the matter in both the dishes and observe. Transfer the entire iron filings from the first dish to the second, stir with a glass rod and observe by taking the horseshoe magnet near the matter. Also observe the colour of the matter. Now heat the matter in the second dish for a while and let it cool. Observe the colour change, if any in the matter and observe whether there is any effect of the horseshoe magnet on it. Record all the observation in the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Complete the following:

Question 1.
Complete the table:

Answer:
Molecular formulae of some compounds are given in the following table. Use these to fill in the gaps in the table.

Question 2.
Complete the table:

Answer:
Molecular formulae of various compounds formed by hydrogen with other elements are given in the following table. From that, deduce the valencies of the concerned elements.

Question 3.
Complete the table:

Answer:

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Winds Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Winds

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
When the air expands, it ______.
(a) becomes solid,
(b) becomes thinner,
(c) gets lost.
(d) becomes humid.
Answer:
(b) becomes thinner,

Question 2.
From high air pressure regions, winds ______.
(a) blow to regions of still higher pressure.
(b) blow towards regions of cooler air.
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.
(d) remains still.
Answer:
(c) blow towards regions of low air pressure.

Question 3.
In the northern hemisphere, winds blowing towards the equator due to the _____.
rotation of the earth.
(a) turn to the south
(b) turn to the east,
(c) turn to the west
(d) turn to the north.
Answer:
(c) turn to the west

Question 4.
The direction of seasonal winds blowing over the Indian subcontinent during winter is from the _____.
(a) south-east to north-west.
(b) south-west towards north-east.
(c) north-east to south-west.
(d) north-west to south-east.
Answer:
(c) north-east to south-west.

Question 5.
The Roaring Forties in the southern hemisphere ______.
(a) blow towards the equator.
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.
(c) blow from the subpolar region of low pressure.
Answer:
(b) blow in the areas around 40°S parallel.

2. Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
These winds from the south-west bring rains to Indian subcontinent. During June to September, India gets rains. After this period these winds retreat.
Answer:
South West Monsoon Winds.

Question 2.
These winds blowing from the north pole region towards 60°N parallel cause cold wave conditions in extensive areas covering North America, Europe and Russia
Answer:
Polar Winds.

Question 3.
Hilltops get heated quickly during the day. The air in this part becomes hot, light and starts ascending. Hence, a low pressure area forms in this region. At the same time the air at the foothills become cooler and also experiences high pressure. Air in that area blows towards low pressure.
Answer:
Valley Winds.

3. Given below are the values of air pressure in millibars. Using the same, draw diagrams to show a cyclone and an anticyclone:

Question 1.
990, 994, 996,1000
Answer:

Question 2.
1030,1020,1010,1000
Answer:

4. State one reason why:

Question 1.
A belt of calm exists near the equator.
Answer:
(i) A belt of calm exists near the equator because there is not much difference in the temperature and air pressure.
(ii) So winds do not blow in this region.

Question 2.
The winds coming from the north-west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocities than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
(i) In the southern hemisphere the obstacle caused by the relief of the land surface is almost absent.
(ii) Therefore the winds coming from the north – west in the southern hemisphere have greater velocity than the winds coming from the south-west in the northern hemisphere.

Question 3.
The monsoon winds in the summer come from the sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.
Answer:
(i) Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.

(ii) During summers, land heats up quickly as compared to water & an area of low pressure is created on the land whereas an area of high pressure is created on the water.

(iii) But during winters low pressure is created on the water and an area of high pressure is created on land as it cools down quickly as compared to the water.

(iv) As winds blow from high pressure areas to low pressure areas, it blows from sea to land in summers & from land to sea in winters.
Thus the monsoon winds in summer come from sea but the retreating monsoon winds come from land.

5. Complete the flow chart:

Answer:

6. Answer in short:

Question 1.
Why is the air pressure high in polar areas in both the hemispheres?
Answer:

• In both the polar areas the temperature here is below 0°C.
• Hence the air is cold & heavy.
• Hence the air pressure is high in the polar areas in both the hemispheres.

Question 2.
What effect does the rotation of the earth have on the wind?
Answer:

• The direction of the winds is influenced by the rotation of the earth.
• In the northern hemisphere, winds get deflected towards the right of their original direction, whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected toward the left of their original direction.

Question 3.
Why do the cyclonic winds blow in a circular manner?
Answer:
(i) Cyclones are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas. In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.

(ii) But due to the rotation of the earth in the northern hemisphere the winds deflected towards the right of their original direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they get deflected towards the left of their original direction which causes the cyclone winds to blow in a circular manner.

Question 4.
State the reasons that lead to the formation of cyclones and describe the effects of cyclones.
Answer:
(i) Cyclonic conditions are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas.
(ii) In these conditions, winds start blowing towards the low pressure area from the surrounding high pressure areas.
(iii) The effects of cyclone are as follows.

• The sky is cloudy
• Winds blow with a very high velocity
• It rains heavily
• It may cause loss of life and property in coastal regions.

Activity:

Using the internet, obtain information, photos and maps of the recent cyclone that arrived at India’s eastern coast.
Write the social and economic effects of that cyclone.

ICT Question:

Use the mobile app ‘Windyty’ and try to know the direction of winds and pressure areas in the world.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds InText Questions and Answers

Formative Assessment
Can you tell?

Observe the diagrams given below. Answer the questions related to sea and land breeze


Question 1.
Why do the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day?
Answer:
During the day as land gets heated up faster than water, an area of low pressure is created on land whereas there is a region of comparatively higher pressure on the sea. As a result the breezes blow from the sea to the land during the day.

Question 2.
When do the winds blow from the d to the sea?
Answer:
The winds blow from land to the sea during the night.

Question 3.
Describe the winds shown in fig. (a).
Answer:
It is sea breeze.

Question 4.
Compare fig.(a) and (b) with reference fo temperature conditions, air pressure and
winds.
Answer:
In figure (a) the temperature is higher on land & the pressure is low so winds blow from sea to land. In figure (b) the temperature is low on the land & the pressure is high. Winds blow from land to sea.

Question 5.
Which winds are called sea breezes and which are called land breezes? Why?
Answer:
Winds in (a) are sea breeze because they blow from the sea and (b) are land breeze because they blow from the land.

Question 6.
In which part of India are land and sea breezes experienced?
Answer:
In India, it is experienced near the coastal areas.

Question 7.
Do you experience sea and land breezes in your area?
Answer:
The answer may vary.

Give it a try.

Write the changed directions of the wind in the table below:

Question 1.

Pressure Belts	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Mid Latitudes	………..	…………..
	…………	…………..
Poles	………………..	…………….

Answer:

Pressure Belts	Northern Hemisphere	Southern Hemisphere
Mid Latitudes	(1) Easterlies blow from northeast to south west	Easterlies blow from south east to northwest
	(2) Westerlies blow from southwest to northeast	Westerlies blow from northwest to southeast
Poles	Polar winds blow from northeast to south west	Polar winds blow from southeast to northwest

Try this:

Question 1.
Observe the pictures given below and describe the valley breeze considering the elevation of land, the heating and cooling properties of land and water, the air pressure, etc.

Answer:
Characteristics of Valley Breeze:

• Valleys are cooler compared to mountain tops during the day.
• Mountains are comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater in the valley.
• Winds blow from valley to the mountain tops.
• Hot and light air from the mountains descend downwards and cool air from valleys ascend upwards.
• Valley breeze are set after the sun rises.

Question 2.
Read the following information carefully and draw a diagram for the mountain breeze accordingly.
Characteristics of the Mountain breeze:

• Mountains cool down quickly at night.
• The valley zone is comparatively warmer.
• Air pressure is greater on the mountains.
• Winds blow from the mountain towards the valley.
• The hot and light air from the valley is pushed upwards and the cool air rushes down into the valley.
• Mountain winds set in after sunset.

Answer:

Try this:

• Fold a piece of paper into two same sized rolls.
• Keep both the paper rolls on one side of a table
• You & your friend should select one roll each.

Question 1.
Without touching the roll of the paper on the table, what can be done to move the paper rolls to the other end of the table?
Answer:
To move the paper rolls to the other end of the table without touching a person can

• Blow the air from his mouth towards the roll of paper
• Use a newspaper a book or a hand fan
• Tilt the table towards the other end.

Question 2.
See who moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table:
Answer:
The object which blows the air with maximum force, moves the paper roll first to the other end of the table.

Question 3.
What could be the reason of the delay in making the rolls reach to the other end of the table?
Answer:
There will be a delay in making the rolls reach the other end of the table if the air is blown with lesser force.

Question 4.
What can we do to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed?
Answer:
We mostly use the technique/object which will blow air with maximum force to move the rolls to the other end of the table with a greater speed.

Question 5.
Can a bottle filled with water be moved to the other end of the table in this manner? Can we use the same method that you tried for moving paper rolls?
Answer:
A bottle filled with water cannot be moved to the other end of the table in this manner. We cannot use the same methods that we tried for moving paper rolls to move a bottle filled with water as it is heavier in weight, (we can if we tilt the table which was an option.)

Class 7 Geography Chapter 5 Winds Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from the bracket:

Question 1.
Air moves from high pressure to low pressure areas in a ______ manner. (vertical, horizontal, parallel)
Answer:
horizontal.

Question 2.
Winds velocity is measured in the units of ________. (knots, metres, seconds)
Answer:
knots.

Question 3.
Wind which cover a large portion of the earth are called _____ wind. (local, polar, planetary)
Answer:
planetary.

Question 4.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the equator are called ______. (westerlies, easterlies, polar)
Answer:
easterlies.

Question 5.
Winds blowing between mid latitudinal high pressure belt and the sub polar low pressure belt are called _______. (easterlies, westerlies, polar)
Answer:
westerlies.

Question 6.
Winds that blow for a short duration of time, over a limited area are called ______. wind. (polar, local, easterlies)
Answer:
local.

Question 7.
Mountain winds blow during ______ .(morning, night, midday)
Answer:
night.

Question 8.
Winds that blow at night in coastal areas are called ________ breeze, (sea, land, valley)
Answer:
land.

Question 9.
Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean are called ______.(hurricane, typhoons)
Answer:
typhoons.

Question 10.
Hot winds blowing in the Thar Desert are called the _______ (simoons, loo, chinook)
Answer:
loo.

Rewrite the following statements after choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
During an anticyclone the sky ______.
(a) is dark.
(b) is cloudy.
(c) is clear.
(d) is white.
Answer:
(c) is clear.

Question 2.
Winds blowing from the polar high pressure to sub polar low pressure belt
(a) blow from west to east.
(b) blow from east to west.
(c) blow from south to north.
(d) blow from north to south.
Answer:
(b) blow from east to west.

Question 3.
The minimum velocity of cyclonic storms is ________.
(a) 50 km per hour
(b) 60 km per hour
(c) 70 km per hour
(d) 80 km per hour.
Answer:
(b) 60 km per hour

Question 4.
Winds which originate in specific regions and blow over a limited area are called _____.
(a) local winds.
(b) seasonal winds
(c) monsoon winds
(d) planetary winds
Answer:
(a) local winds.

Find out the odd man out and give reason for your answer:

Question 1.
Polar winds, Local winds, Easterlies, Westerlies
Answer:
Local winds – Others are names of planetary winds.

Question 2.
Landbreeze, Valley winds, Westerlies, Mountain winds.
Answer:
Westerlies – Others are names of local winds.

Question 3.
Mistral, Bora, Pampero, Foehn
Answer:
Foehn – Others are cold and dry winds.

Question 4.
Loo, Foehn, Mistral, Simoon
Answer:
Mistral – Others are hot and dry winds.

Question 5.
Mistral, Bora, Chinook, Foehn
Answer:
Chinook – Others originate in the Alps Mountain.

Question 6.
Southeast Asia, West Europe, East Africa, North Australia.
Answer:
West Europe – Others receive monsoon rains.

Question 7.
India, Japan, China, Phillippines.
Answer:
India – Others experience typhoons.

Question 8.
Furious Fifties, Screaming Seventies, Screeching Sixties,, Roaring Forties.
Answer:
Screaming Seventies – Others are names of winds in the southern hemisphere.

Place a tick mark (✓) against the correct option:

Question 1.
Towards which direction do the southern hemisphere winds get deflected? .
(a) Towards the left.
(b) Towards the right.
(c) Towards the centre.
Answer:
(a) Towards the left.

Question 2.
What are the winds blowing between polar high pressure belt and subpolar low pressure belt called?
(a) Monsoon winds
(b) Polar winds
(c) Westerlies winds
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds

Question 3.
Hot and destructive winds blowing in the Sahara
(a) Chinook
(b) Simoom
(c) Loo
Answer:
(b) Simoom

Question 4.
Cold winds around the Mediterranean.
(a) Foehn
(b) Pampero
(c) Mistral
Answer:
(b) Pampero

Question 5.
How is cyclonic condition created?
(a) Low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure.
(b) A high pressure area is surrounded by low pressure.
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.
Answer:
(c) A low pressure area is surrounded by mid pressure.

Identify the type of winds from the description given below:

Question 1.
In coastal areas, land cools down faster as compared to the sea, the air blows from land to sea.
Answer:
Land Breeze.

Question 2.
In the Indian subcontinent, dry winds blow from the Indian Subcontinent towards the equator.
Answer:
North-East monsoon winds.

Question 3.
The winds blowing over the earth’s surface throughout the year and covering a large portion of the earth.
Answer:
Planetary winds.

Question 4.
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific regions & blow over a limited area.
Answer:
Local winds.

Match the pairs correctly:

Question 1.

Name of the Wind	Nature of the Wind
(1) Loo	(a) Hot and dry
(2) Simoom	(b) Cold and dry
(3) Chinook	(c) Hot, dry and destructive
(4) Mistral	(d) Warm and dry

Answer:
1 – a
2 – c
3 – d
4 – b

Define the following terms:

Question 1.
Roaring Forties:
Answer:
Beyond 40°S winds blow with tremendous velocity. These winds are called the Roaring Forties.

Question 2.
Furious Fifties:
Answer:
Around 50°S winds are stormy hence they are called the Furious Fifties.

Question 3.
Screeching Sixties:
Answer:
The stormy winds around 60°S make tremendous noise and hence they are called the Screeching Sixties.

Question 4.
Local Winds:
Answer:
The winds that blow for a short duration of time, originate in specific region and blow over a limited area are called Local Winds.

Question 5.
Doldrums:
Answer:
The region up to 5° North and 5° South of the equator remains calm for most of the year and winds do not blow in this region. It is called the equatorial calm zone or Doldrums.

Question 6.
Horse Latitudes:
Answer:
In the area near the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn, that is between 25° and 35° north and south, there exist a high pressure belt, which is a calm belt. This belt is called as the Horse latitudes.

Question 7.
Typhoons:
Answer:
Storms arising in the months between June and October in the western part of the Pacific Ocean which blow with high velocity winds and heavy rains causing destruction are called Typhoons.

Question 8.
Hurricanes:
Answer:
The cyclones in the Caribbean sea which are destructive in nature are called Hurricanes.

Observe the pictures given below of Seasonal winds and write its characteristics:

Question 1.

Answer:
Characteristics of the Seasonal winds (Monsoon):

• Monsoon winds are generated due to the uneven heating of land and water in the different seasons.
• During summer, monsoon winds blow from the sea to the land and in winter they blow from the land to the sea.
• Southern Asia, East Africa, North Australia are the regions where the pronounced effects of these winds are felt.
• The influence of monsoon winds is seen in the summer and winter seasons in the Indian subcontinent.

change in direction of wind:

Draw a neat labelled diagram:

Question 1.
Planetary winds and pressure belts on the earth
Answer:

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Easterlies and Westerlies:
Answer:

Easterlies	Westerlies
(i) Easterlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt in both the hemispheres	(i) Westerlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to subpolar low pressure belt in both the hemispheres
(ii) In the northern hemisphere, they blow from the northeast to the southwest.	(ii) In the northern hemisphere, they blow from the southwest to the northeast.
(iii) In the southern hemisphere, they blow from the southeast to the northwest.	(iii) In the southern hemisphere, they blow from northwest to the southeast.

Question 2.
Valley breeze and Mountain breeze:
Answer:

Valley Breeze	Mountain Breeze
(i) Valley breeze blow during the day.	(i) Mountain breeze blow during the night.
(ii) Winds blow from the valley to the mountain.	(ii) Winds blow from the mountain to the valley.
(iii) Valley breeze blows because of the high pressure area created iin the valley.	(iii) Mountain Breeze blows because of the high pressure area created on the mountains.

Question 3.
Cyclones and Anticyclones:
Answer:

Cyclones	Anticyclones
(i) Cyclonic conditions are created when a low pressure area is surrounded by high pressure areas.	(i) Anticyclonic conditions are created when a high pressure area is surrounded by low pressure areas.
(ii) The cyclonic winds move in an anticlockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.	(ii) The anticyclonic winds move in a clockwise direction in the northern hemisphere and anticlockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
(iii) The sky is cloudy.	(iii) The skies are clear.
(iv) The velocity of wind is very high and cause rain.	(iv) The velocity of wind is less and weather is pleasant.

State one reason why:

Question 1.
Planetary winds change their original direction.
Answer:
The rotation from the west to east causes the change in the original direction of the planetary winds.

Question 2.
The air pressure in land and water is different
Answer:
(a) The land is made up of dense matter. Land is stable and opaque. As a result, heat is transferred at a greater speed and in a higher proportion. Hence, land gets heated quickly.

(b) The density of water is comparatively less. Water is transparent and unstable. Hence, water does not get heated quickly.

(c) As a result, the air pressure in land and water areas is different.

Question 3.
The Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon and retreating monsoon seasons.
Answer:
(a) Monsoon winds are generated due to uneven heating of land & water in different seasons. During summers, monsoon winds blow from sea to land & in winter they blow from land to the sea.

(b) The influence of monsoon winds is seen in summer season in the Indian subcontinent due to high temperature & low pressure in Thar desert region & Punjab plains.

(c) As these winds blow from sea to land the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon (rainy) season.

(d) During winters, due to high pressure & low temperature in the Indian subcontinent & comparatively low pressure & high temperature in the Indian ocean winds blow from land to sea.

(e) This is the retreating monsoon season in the Indian subcontinent.
Thus the Indian subcontinent experiences monsoon & retreating monsoon season.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give detailed information about the types of planetary winds.
Answer:
The following are the types of Planetary winds:
(i) Easterlies:

• In both the hemispheres, the winds that blow from the high pressure area between 25° & 35° parallels, to the equatorial low pressure belt (between 5°N & 5°S parallel) are called Easterlies.
• In the northern hemisphere they blow from northeast to southwest whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow from southeast to the northwest.

(ii) Westerlies:

• In both the hemispheres, winds that blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belt to sub polar low pressure belt situated near 60° parallel are called westerlies.
• In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow from the southwest to the northeast & in the southern hemisphere, they blow from the northwest to the southeast.

(iii) Polar winds:

• In both the hemispheres, winds blowing from the polar high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt (55° to 65°) are called polar winds.
• Generally they blow from east to west.

Question 2.
Write in detail about cyclonic storms.
Answer:
(i) Cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific ocean along the coasts of Japan, China, Philippines, etc. are known as ‘Typhoons’.
(ii) These storms arise in the months between June & October.
(iii) Due to high velocity winds & heavy rains, these prove to be destructive.
(iv) The cyclones in the Caribbean Sea are known as ‘hurricanes’. These are also destructive in nature.
(v) During these storms, the minimum velocity of the wind is 60 km per hour.
(vi) Cyclones also originate in the temperate zone but they are not so powerful & hence are not destructive.

Question 3.
What are anticyclones?
Answer:
(i) Under specific atmospheric conditions, the air pressure in a particular region increases & the pressure in the surrounding areas remain low.

(ii) In this situation, winds blow from the centre towards the surrounding areas in a circular manner.

(iii) In the northern hemisphere, these winds blow in a clockwise direction whereas in the southern hemisphere they blow in an anticlockwise direction.

(iv) During anticyclone, the skies are clear, winds blow with lesser velocities and the weather is pleasant.

Can you tell?

Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.:

Question 1.
Which are the winds in the northern hemisphere that blow from the mid latitudinal high pressure belt to the equatorial low pressure belt?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belt to equatorial low pressure belt in the northern hemisphere

Question 2.
What is the direction of the Westerlies in the southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Westerlies blow from north west to south east in the southern hemisphere

Question 3.
Which planetary winds blow from the mid-latitudinal high pressure belts to the subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere?
Answer:
The Westerlies blow from mid latitudinal high pressure belts to subpolar low pressure belts in the northern hemisphere

Question 4.
Why is the direction of polar winds not the same in both the hemispheres?
Answer:
The rotation of the earth causes the change in the direction of winds in both the hemisphere. So polar winds blow from northeast to south west in the northern hemisphere & from south east to north-west in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Name the winds that blow in the southern hemisphere.
Answer:
Easterlies, Westerlies and Polar Winds blow in the southern hemisphere.

Question 6.
In which direction do the Easterlies blow in the Northern and Southern hemisphere?
Answer:
Easterlies blow from northeast to southeast in northern hemisphere & from southeast to northwest in the southern hemisphere.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Solutions Kumarbharti Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण (संतकाव्य) Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Marathi Kumarbharti Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण (संतकाव्य)

Marathi Kumarbharti Std 10 Digest Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण Textbook Questions and Answers

प्रश्न. पुढील कवितेच्या आधारे दिलेल्या सूचनांनुसार कृती करा :

कृती १ : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
आकृत्या पूर्ण करा :
(i)

उत्तर :

(ii)

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
चौकटी पूर्ण करा :

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 3.
पुढील गोष्टींबाबत संत रामदास कोणती दक्षता घ्यायला सांगतात. (मार्च ‘१९)

उत्तर :

कृती २ : (आकलन)

प्रश्न 1.
शब्दजाल पूर्ण करा :
(i)

उत्तर :

(ii)

उत्तर :

(iii)

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
पुढील व्यक्तींशी कसे वागावे, असे संत रामदास म्हणतात :

उत्तर :

प्रश्न 3.
पुढील गोष्टींबाबत कोणती दक्षता घ्यावी, ते लिहा :

उत्तर :
(i) तोंडाळासी भांडू नये.
(ii) संतसंग खंडू नये.
(iii) सत्यमार्ग सोडू नये.

प्रश्न 4.
असत्य विधान ओळखा :
(i) संतसंग सोडू नये.
(ii) अपकार घेऊ नये.
(iii) व्यापकपण सांडू नये.
(iv) खोटेपणाच्या पंथाला जाऊ नये.
उत्तर :
असत्य विधान – अपकार घेऊ नये.

प्रश्न 5.
अचूक विधान ओळखा : (मार्च ‘१९)
(i) पैज, होड लावावी.
(ii) सत्याची वाट धरावी.
(iii) पापद्रव्य सहज जोडावे.
(iv) नेहमी अभिमानाने वागावे.
उत्तर :
अचूक विधान – सत्याची वाट धरावी.

प्रश्न 6.
तुमच्यातील प्रत्येकी तीन गुण व तीन दोष शोधून लिहा.
उत्तर :
नमुना उत्तर :
गुण : (i) मी रोज व्यायाम करतो.
(ii) मी खोटे बोलत नाही.
(iii) मी आईला कामात मदत करतो.

दोष : (i) मला चटकन राग येतो.
(ii) मी ताटात अन्न टाकतो.
(iii) माझे अक्षर चांगले नाही.

कृती ३ : (काव्यसौंदर्य)

प्रश्न 1.
‘सभेमध्ये लाजों नये। बाष्कळपणे बोलों नये।’ या ओळीतील विचार स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तर :
‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या कवितेमध्ये संत रामदास यांनी आदर्श गुणसंपन्न व्यक्तीची लक्षणे समजावून सांगितली आहेत. त्यांपैकी एक लक्षण उपरोक्त चरणात सूचित केले आहे.

मनुष्य हा समाजप्रिय प्राणी आहे. माणसांमध्ये तो नित्य वावरत असतो. समूहामध्ये आदर्श व्यक्तीचे वर्तन कसे असावे, हे सांगताना संत रामदास म्हणतात – सभेमध्ये वावरताना, आपले मत मांडताना कधीही लाजू नये. स्पष्टपणे आपले म्हणणे मांडावे; परंतु त्याच वेळी बालिशपणे बोलून आपले हसे करून घेऊ नये. निरर्थक असे वक्तव्य करू नये. बाष्कळपणे बोलू नये. उत्तम पुरुषाचे एक मर्मग्राही लक्षण या ओवीतून मांडले आहे.

प्रश्न 2.
‘आळसें सुख मानूं नये,’ या ओळीचा तुम्हांला समजलेला अर्थ स्पष्ट करा.
उत्तर :
‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या ओव्यांमध्ये संत रामदास यांनी उत्तम व्यक्तीची लक्षणे विशद करताना आळस हा माणसाचा शत्रू आहे, असे ठासून प्रतिपादिले आहे.

‘आळस’ हा माणसाच्या अंगी असलेला दुर्गुण आहे. आळसामुळे कार्य करायला उत्साह राहत नाही व त्यामुळे बरीच कामे खोळंबून राहतात. ‘आळसे कार्यभाग नासतो!’ या समर्थ रामदासांच्या उक्तीमध्ये हेच तत्त्व सांगितले आहे. माणसाच्या मनाला जे षड्विकार जडतात, त्यात ‘आळस’ हा एक विकार आहे. दैनंदिन कामांमध्ये आळसाला स्थान देऊ नये. आळसामुळे प्रगती खुंटते, भविष्य अंधारते. आळसामुळे मनाला जडत्व प्राप्त होते व माणूस नाकर्ता होतो. आळशी माणसाला समाजात मान मिळत नाही. म्हणून आळसात सुख मानू नये, समाधान मानू नये, असे समर्थ रामदास सांगतात.

Marathi Kumarbharti Class 10 Textbook Solutions Chapter 4 उत्तमलक्षण Additional Important Questions and Answers

प्रश्न. पुढील कवितेसंबंधी त्याखाली दिलेल्या मुद्द्यांच्या आधारे कृती सोडवा :

प्रश्न 1.
कविता-उत्तमलक्षण.

उत्तर : उत्तमलक्षण.
(१) प्रस्तुत कवितेचे कवी : संत रामदास.
(२) कवितेचा रचनाप्रकार : ओवी.
(३) कवितेचा काव्यसंग्रह : श्रीदासबोध.
(४) कवितेचा विषय : उत्तम माणसाची लक्षणे.
(५) कवितेतून व्यक्त होणारा (स्थायी) भाव : आदर्श माणसे घडवण्याचा ध्यास.

(६) कवितेच्या कवींची लेखनवैशिष्ट्ये : प्रस्तुत कवितेची रचना ओवी या छंदात केलेली आहे. ओवी हा उच्चारणाला सुलभ असा अत्यंत लवचीक रचनाप्रकार आहे. त्यामुळे या कवितेतील भाषा ओवी या छंदाला साजेशी सुबोध व सर्वसामान्यांना सहज समजेल अशी आहे. साहजिक कवितेची आवाहन शक्ती वाढली आहे. चुकीचे वर्तन व चांगले वर्तन या दोन्ही बाबी समर्थांनी स्पष्ट शब्दांत कोणतीही संदिग्धता न ठेवता सांगितल्या आहेत. समर्थांच्या या रचनेत प्रासादिकता आढळते.

(७) कवितेची मध्यवर्ती कल्पना : प्रस्तुत कवितेत संत रामदासांनी उत्तम, गुणसंपन्न, आदर्श व्यक्तीची लक्षणे सांगितली आहेत. समाजात वावरताना कसे वागावे, काय करावे व काय टाळावे यांचे सुस्पष्ट शब्दांत निवेदन केले आहे. समाज नीतिमान व कर्तबगार व्हावा, ही तळमळ या पदयपाठातून स्पष्टपणे जाणवते.

(८) कवितेतून व्यक्त होणारा विचार : प्रस्तुत कवितेत संत रामदासांनी, व्यक्तीने समाजात कसे वागावे याचे मार्गदर्शन केले आहे. नेहमीच सावध मनाने वागावे. इतरांना सहकार्य करावे. कोणाशीही कपटाने वागू नये. तोंडाळ, वाचाळ माणसांना टाळावे. आळस झटकून टाकावा. पूर्ण विचार करून वागावे. उपकाराची परतफेड करावी. नेहमी उदारपणाने वागावे. मनाचा मोठेपणा बाळगावा. परावलंबी होऊ नये. नेहमी सत्याने वागावे. कुप्रसिद्धी टाळावी इत्यादी अनेक गुणांचे आचरण करण्यास या कवितेत संत रामदासांनी सांगितले आहे.

(९) कवितेतील आवडलेलो ओळ :
अपकीर्ति ते सांडावी। सत्कीर्ति वाडवावी।।
विवेके दृढ धरावी । वाट सत्याची ।।

(१०) कविता आवडण्याची वा न आवडण्याची कारणे : मला ही कविता खूप आवडली. एकतर हे विचार पटकन पटण्यासारखे आहेत. ही कविता उच्चारताना, वाचताना आनंद होतो. उच्च, उदात्त विचार मनात घोळवल्याने मनही आनंदित होते. सर्व गुण-अवगुण रामदासांनी अत्यंत स्पष्टपणे, परखडपणे सांगितले आहेत. कुठेही शब्दांचा बोजडपणा नाही. प्रत्येक शब्दागणीक अर्थ स्पष्ट होत जातो. मुख्य म्हणजे दैनंदिन जीवनात वागताना आवश्यक असलेल्या गुणांचे मार्गदर्शन घडत असल्याने कविता आपली, स्वतःची, स्वतःसाठी असलेली वाटत राहते.

(११) कवितेतून मिलणाग संदेश : प्रत्येक व्यक्तीने चांगले वागण्याचाच प्रयत्न केला पाहिजे. त्यासाठी वाईट गुण कोणते व चांगले गुण कोणते हे स्पष्टपणे समजून घ्यावे. प्रत्येकाने उत्तम माणूस बनण्याचा प्रयत्न करावा. यातूनच चांगला व समर्थ समाज निर्माण होतो.

कृतिपत्रिकेतील प्रश्न २ (इ) साठी…

प्रश्न. पुढील ओळींचे रसग्रहण तुमच्या शब्दांत लिहा :

प्रश्न 1.
‘जनी आर्जव तोडूं नये । पापद्रव्य जोडूं नये ।
पुण्यमार्ग सोडूं नये । कदाकाळीं ।।’ (मार्च ‘१९)
उत्तर :
आशयसौंदर्य : ‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या श्रीदासबोधातील एका समासामध्ये समर्थ रामदासांनी गुणसंपन्न आदर्श व्यक्तिमत्त्वाची महत्त्वाची लक्षणे सांगितली आहेत. त्यांपैकी उपरोक्त ओवीमध्ये तीन लक्षणांचा ऊहापोह केला आहे.

काव्यसौंदर्य : समाजात वावरताना व्यक्तीने कोणते आचरण करावे हे सांगताना संत रामदास म्हणतात – लोकांचे मन मोडू नये. लोकांनी केलेली विनंती धुडकावू नये. उलट जनभावनांचा आदर . करावा. तसेच वाईट मार्गाने संपत्ती साठवू नये. अशी संपत्ती हे पापाचे धन असते. म्हणून सत्शील मार्गाने जीवन व्यतीत करावे. पुण्यमार्ग आचारावा. कधीही पुण्यमार्गाने जाण्याचे सोडू नये.

भाषिक वैशिष्ट्ये : वरील ओवीमध्ये जनांसाठी खूप सुगम निरूपण केले आहे. ‘तोडू नये, जोडू नये, सोडू नये’ अशा सोप्या यमकांद्वारे संदेशामध्ये आवाहकता आली आहे. ओवीछंदाला साजेशी सुबोध भाषा वापरल्यामुळे जनमानसावर तत्त्व ठसवणे सुलभ झाले आहे. पापद्रव्य व पुण्यमार्ग यांतील विरोधाभास ठळकपणे उठून दिसतो. ओवीमध्ये प्रासादिकता हा गुण आढळतो.

प्रश्न 2.
‘अपकीर्ति ते सांडावी। सत्कीर्ति वाडवावी।
विवेकें दृढ धरावी। वाट सत्याची।।’ (मार्च ‘१९)
उत्तर :
आशयसौंदर्य : संत रामदासांनी ‘उत्तमलक्षण’ या कवितेत आदर्श गुणवान व्यक्तीची वैशिष्ट्ये सांगताना या ओळींमधून सद्वर्तन कशा प्रकारे करावे, याची शिकवण दिली आहे.

काव्यसौंदर्य : संत रामदास म्हणतात – लोक आपल्याला दूषणे देतील व निंदा करतील असे वर्तन कदापिही करू नये. ज्या वागण्याने आपली अपकीर्ती होईल, असे वागणे टाळावे. उलट आपल्या व्यक्तिमत्त्वाची कीर्ती पसरेल, अशी वागणूक करायला हवी. स्वतः चांगले वागून सत्कीर्ती वाढवायला हवी. त्यासाठी बुद्धीचा विवेक महत्त्वाचा ठरतो. सद्विचाराने, विवेकाने सत्याचा मार्ग ठामपणे आचरावा. विवेकबुद्धी ठोस असणे गरजेचे आहे.

भाषिक वैशिष्ट्ये : सन्मार्गाचे लक्षण सांगताना जनसामान्यांना समजतील असे तीन मुद्दे या ओळीत सहजपणे सांगितले आहेत. अपकीर्ती व सत्कीर्ती तसेच सांडावी व वाढवावी या विरोधी शब्दांमुळे ओवीची खुमारी वाढली आहे. दृढ धरणे हा वाक्प्रचार चपखलपणे उपयोगात आणला आहे. जनमानसावर तत्त्व ठसवण्याची समर्थांची हातोटी समर्थपणे व्यक्त झाली आहे.

व्याकरण व भाषाभ्यास

कृतिपत्रिकेतील प्रश्न ४ (अ) आणि (आ) यांसाठी…

अ. व्याकरण घटकांवर आधारित कृती:

१. समास :

प्रश्न 1.
पुढील तक्ता पूर्ण करा : (ठळक अक्षरांत उत्तरे दिली आहेत.)

२. अलंकार :
पुढील ओळी वाचून तक्ता पूर्ण करा :
प्रश्न 1.
‘ऊठ पुरुषोत्तमा । वाट पाही रमा ।
दावि मुखचंद्रमा । सकळिकांसी।।’

प्रश्न 2.
‘नयनकमल’ हे उघडित हलके जागी हो जानकी.

उत्तर :

३. वृत्त :
पुढील ओळींचे लगक्रम लिहा :

प्रश्न 1.
ऐकू न ये तुज पिकस्वर मंजुळे का?
उत्तर :

प्रश्न 2.
मना सज्जना भक्तिपंथेचि जावे.
उत्तर :

उत्तमलक्षण Summary in Marathi

कवितेचा भावार्थ :
उत्तम पुरुषाची (आदर्श व्यक्तीची) लक्षणे सांगताना संत रामदास श्रोत्यांना म्हणतात – श्रोतेहो, तुम्हांला आता मी उत्तम, गुणवान व्यक्तीची लक्षणे सांगतो, ती सावध मनाने ऐकावीत. ही लक्षणे ऐकून तुम्ही सर्व गोष्टी जाणण्याची खूण अंगी बाणवावी. ।।१।।

पूर्ण माहिती असल्याशिवाय कुठल्याही रस्त्याने जाऊ नये. वाटेमधील अडथळे जाणून घेतल्याशिवाय प्रवास करू नये. फळाचे अंतरंग (गुण) ओळखल्याशिवाय ते खाऊ नये. रस्त्यात पडलेली वस्तू अचानक पटकन उचलू नये. ।।२।।

लोकांनी केलेली विनंती लक्षात घ्यावी. तिला अमान्य करू नये. पाप किंवा कपट करून मिळवलेल्या संपत्तीचा साठा करू नये. कपट करून पैसा मिळवू नये. पुण्याचा मार्ग म्हणजे सच्छील मार्ग, सद्वर्तन कधीही सोडू नये. ।।३।।

जी तोंडाळ, भांडकुदळ व्यक्ती असेल, त्या व्यक्तीशी कधीही भांडू नये. व्यर्थ बडबड करणाऱ्या वाचाळ माणसाशी तंटा करू नये. सज्जनाची संगत कधी मध्येच सोडू नये, (हे कायम मनात ठेवा.) मनापासून झालेली संतांची मैत्री सोडू नये. ।।४।।

काम न करता ऐदीपणे, आळस करून आनंद घेऊ नये. आळसात सुख नसते. कुणाबद्दल उखाळ्यापाखाळ्या करून चहाडी करू नये. दुसऱ्याबद्दल खोटेनाटे बोलणे मनातही आणू नये. संपूर्ण शोध घेतल्याशिवाय कोणतेही काम करू नये. (काम अर्धवट सोडू नये.) ।।५।।

सभेमध्ये, समूहाच्या बैठकीमध्ये लाजू नये, मुखदुर्बळ राहू नये. मोकळ्या मनाने बोलावे परंतु बालिशपणे बोलू नये. बाष्कळ बडबड करू नये, कोणत्याही प्रकारची पैज, शर्यत लावू नये. कुणाशीही स्पर्धा करू नये. ।।६।।

कोणाचे उपकार सहसा घेऊ नयेत आणि घेतलेच तर त्यांची लगेच परतफेड करावी, उपकारातून लवकर उतराई व्हावे. दुसऱ्यांना दुःख देऊ नये, त्यांना व्यथित करू नये. कुणाचा विश्वासघात किंवा बेइमानी मुळीच करू नये. ।।७।।

स्वत:च्या मनाचा मोठेपणा कधी सोडून देऊ नये. मन कोते करू नये, ते व्यापक ठेवावे. परावलंबी होऊ नये. कुणावरी आपल्या आयुष्याचे ओझे लादू नये. ।।८।।

सत्याचा मार्ग कधी सोडू नये. खरेपणाने वागावे, असत्याच्या, खोटेपणाच्या मार्गाने जाऊ नये. खोटारडेपणा करून वागू नये. खोटेपणाचा कधीही वृथा अभिमान, व्यर्थ गर्व करू नये. ।।९।।

अपकीर्तीला बळी पडू नये. कुप्रसिद्धी टाळावी. चांगली कीर्ती वाढवावी. चांगल्या प्रकारे प्रसिद्ध पावावे. सारासार विचाराने, विवेकाने वर्तन करून सत्यमार्ग पत्करावा. ।।१०।।

उत्तमलक्षण शब्दार्थ

• उत्तम – आदर्श, गुणसंपन्न,
• लक्षण – गुणवैशिष्ट्य.
• श्रोतीं – ऐकणाऱ्या लोकांनो.
• सावधान – सावध होणे, सजग होणे.
• उत्तम – उत्कृष्ट, जेणें – ज्याने.
• बाणे – बाणणे, अंगिकारणे, सवय लागणे,
• सर्वज्ञ – सारे जाणणारा.
• पुसल्याविण – विचारल्याशिवाय,
• येकायेकी – एकदम, पटकन.
• जनीं – लोकांचे. आर्जव – विनंती.
• पापद्रव्य – पापाने (कपटाने) मिळवलेली संपत्ती.
• जोडू नये – साठवू नये.
• पुण्यमार्ग – चांगला रस्ता, सद्वर्तन,
• कदाकाळी – कोणत्याही वेळी.
• तोंडाळ – वाटेल ते बोलणारा, भांडकुदळ.
• वाचाळ – व्यर्थ बडबड करणारा.
• तंडो नये – तंटा (भांडण) करू नये.
• संतसंग – सज्जन माणसाची संगत.
• खंडू नये – तोडू नये.
• अंतर्यामी – मनातून, हृदयातून.
• आळस – काम न करणे.
• चाहाडी – एखादयाबद्दल वाईट सांगणे, आगलावेपणा.
• कार्य – काम,
• सभा – समूहाची बैठक.
• बाष्कळपणा – बालिशपणा.
• पैज – स्पर्धा, शर्यत.
• होड – पैज,
• परपीडा – दुसऱ्याला छळणे, दुःख देणे.
• विश्वासघात – बेइमानी.
• व्यापकपण – (मनाचा) मोठेपणा.
• पराधेन – परावलंबी, दुसऱ्यावर विसंबणे.
• वोझें – (स्वत:चा) भार,
• कोणीयेकासी – कोणावरही.
• सत्यमार्ग – खऱ्याचा मार्ग, सद्वर्तन.
• असत्य – खोटेपणा.
• पंथे – मार्गाने, वाटेने.
• कदा – कधीही.
• अभिमान – व्यर्थ गवं.
• अपकीर्ति – बेअब्रू, वाईट प्रसिद्धी,
• सत्कीर्ति – चांगली प्रसिद्धी.
• वाडवावी – वाढवावी.
• विवेके – चांगल्या विचाराने.
• दृढ – ठाम, मजबूत, ठोस.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 9 History Solutions Chapter 5 Education

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the right option and rewrite the sentence:

Question 1.
The Scientist who developed the Param – 8000 supercomputer _________.
(a) Dr Vijay Bhatkar
(b) Dr R. H. Dave
(c) P. Parthasarathy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Dr. Vijay Bhatkar

Question 2.
The magazine Jeevan Shikshan is published by _______.
(a) Balbharati
(b) University Education Commission
(c) MSCERT
(d) NCERT
Answer:
(c) MSCERT

Question 3.
The educational institution called IIT is famous for educational in the area of _______.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Medicine
(c) Skilled managers
(d) Engineering
Answer:
(d) Engineering

2. Do as directed.

Question 1.
Complete the table below with details about individuals in the education field and their work.

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
—————–	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	…………..
……………………..	Kosbad Project

Answer:

Individual	Work
First education minister of India	Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishna	Chairman of the University Education Commission
Prof Sayyad Rauf	Preparation of common state-wide curriculum for Std. I to VII for Maharashtra.
Anutai Wagh	Kosbad Project

Question 2.
Obtain information about the National Council of Educational Research and Training, from the internet, and present it in the form of a timeline.
Answer:

1st September 1961	The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi.
27th January 1967	The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune.
1986	The National Policy on Education was adopted.
1988	The ‘Primary Education Curriculum was prepared.
1995	The Competency-based primary education curriculum.
1975	India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education.
1970	The United Nations declared the year 1970 as the International Education Year. A seminar was organised in New Delhi and led to the establishment of an open university.
1974	The government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy

3. Explain the following statements giving reasons for your answer:

Question 1.
The District Primary Education Programme was undertaken.
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
The NCERT was established.
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE).

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Question 3.
The farmers were benefited by the Indian Agricultural Research Institute.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments.

(ii) Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(iii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

4. Write notes:

Question 1.
Indira Gandhi National Open University
Answer:
(i) Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established with the objective that the stream of education should make
its way into every average household of the country.

(ii) The United Nations had declared 1970 as the International Education Year. In the same year, a seminar was organised in New Delhi on the subject of Open University by the Government of India Departments of Education and Social Welfare, Information and Broadcasting, University Grants Commission along with UNESCO. The idea of establishing an open university evolved in this seminar.

(iii) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarathy and the Open University took shape on 20 September, 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions. It was named after Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. Those who are unable to get a college education in the formal way are given concessions in eligibility criteria, age and other conditions for admission to this university.

(iv) In 1990, the IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashvani and Doordarshan. It conducted more than one thousand curricula of various branches.
It provides facilities for education through 58 training centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 2.
Kothari Commission
Answer:
(i)In 1964 a Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of Dr D. S. Kothari. Dr J. P. Naik made valuable contributions to the work of this Commission.

(ii)The Commission also recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(iii)The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iv)It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes. Maharashtra government adopted the 10+2+3 pattern in 1972 and conducted the first Std X Board exam in 1975.

Question 3.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
Answer:
(i) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) has conducted valuable research in the fields of nuclear physics, solid state physics, spectroscopy, chemical and life sciences.

(ii) It also started a school to train scientists for setting up nuclear reactors.

Question 4.
Balbharati
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Bureau of Textbook Production and Curriculum Research (Balbharati) was established in Pune on 27 January 1967.

(ii) Balbharati prepares textbooks for school children. Textbooks are made in eight languages, namely, Marathi, Hindi, English, Urdu, Kannad, Sindhi, Gujarati and Telugu. ‘Kishor’, a monthly magazine for children, is also published by Balbharati.

5. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Which programmes were included in the Operation Blackboard scheme?
Answer:
(i) The government made funds available to help improve the standard of the schools and to fulfil minimum educational needs such as at least two proper classrooms, toilets, one of the two teachers to be female, a blackboard, maps, laboratory apparatus, a small library, a playground, sports equipment, etc. This scheme helped the primary education system to gain some momentum.

(ii) In 1994, this scheme was expanded and provision was made for one additional classroom and for appointing one more teacher in schools with an enrolment of more than 100 students, with priority given to girls’ schools, schools with a majority of scheduled caste and tribe students and schools in rural areas.

(iii) It was also made binding upon the State government to appoint female teachers to fifty per cent of the posts in schools.

Question 2.
What role do agriculture schools/colleges play in the development of agriculture?
Answer:
(i) The Indian Agricultural Research Institute was given the status of a University in 1958 and work began in departments such as the development of the agriculture sector, research, well-equipped laboratories, soil science, agricultural sciences, economic botany and other departments. Research also began on wheat, pulses, oilseeds, vegetables and many other problems.

(ii) Its most significant achievement is the fundamental research it has conducted on the methods of taking multiple crops in a year, which has been of great benefit to farmers.

Question 3.
Describe with examples of the progress that India has made in the field of medicine.
Answer:
(i) The Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field. It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

(ii) Twenty-six centres were started in different parts of the country for research on various diseases. Their research has made it possible to control tuberculosis and leprosy.

(iii) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(iv) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and postgraduate courses in medicine. Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well- equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(v) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates. It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

(vii) These institutes have the responsibility of conducting research on various diseases, developing tests and standardisation of medicines.

Question 4.
Write a note on the curricular and co-curricular activities conducted in your school.
Answer:
(i) Languages – Our school motivates us to participate in theatres or plays organised on works of Shakespeare and Munshi Premchand. We also take part in elocution and poetry recitation competitions to enhance public speaking. Our school makes every child read the newspaper headlines from Marathi and English dailies in the auditorium turn wise.

(ii) Maths and Science – Scientific experiments mentioned in our textbook are practically performed by each of us under the supervision of our teachers. On Sundays, our Math teachers take special classes on Vedic Maths. Our school has also organised trips to Nehru Planetarium and ‘Jantar Mantar’ to give us an understanding of the astronomical aspects of science. Every year our school conducts Homi Bhabha scholarship exam. A display of the best 25 science projects is done in the school hall.

(iii) Social Studies – Field studies are taken up to explain to us the topography of Indian landscapes. The school library holds a large number of book and documentaries over world history trips to museums and historical places.

Class 9 History Chapter 5 Education Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option from the given options and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In 1995, the _____ scheme was started to provide proper nourishment for the students.
(a) free ration
(b) foodgrain subsidy
(c) mid-day meal
(d) medical-check up
Answer:
(c) mid-day meal

Question 2.
_______was the first education minister of Independent India.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Sachchidanand Sinha
(d) J.B.Kriplani
Answer:
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

Question 3.
_____ recommended increased provision in government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the SC/ST.
(a) University Education Commission
(b) Mudaliar Commission
(c) National Council of Educational Research and Training
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(d) Kothari Commission

Question 4.
_______, a scientist with ISRO played an important role in providing satellite education.
(a) K. Kasturirangan
(b) Eknath Chitnis
(c) A. S. Kirankumar
(d) G. Madhavan Nair
Answer:
(b) Eknath Chitnis

Question 5.
In 1990 _____ started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.
(a) ISRO
(b) NCERT
(c) IGNOU
(d) CSIR
Answer:
(c) IGNOU

Question 6.
The National Institute for Research in Mathematical and Physical Sciences’ in ______ was established in 1962.
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(d) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
India’s first IIT was setup at _______ at West Bengal in 1951.
(a) Kharagpur
(b) Midnapore
(c) Hooghly
(d) Howrah
Answer:
(a) Kharagpur

Identify and write the wrong pair in the following sets:

Question 1.
(1) TCS – obtained an American contract for software production.
(2) FTII – Systematic training in all aspects of film-making.
(3) C-DAC – developed Param – 8000
(4) IIM – imparting training in industrial design.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : IIM – imparting training in industrial design.

Question 2.
(1) The Advanced Centre for Treatment Research and Education in Cancer – Branch of Tata Memorial Centre
(2) AIIMS – advanced education and research in medicine.
(3) DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.V
(4) National Policy on Education 1986 – Common core curriculum was framed for all states.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : DPEP – Charts showing learning competencies upto Std.

Question 3.
(1) National Institute of Design – Ahmedabad
(2) Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Pune
(3) The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi
(4) Indian Institute of Technology – West Bengal
Answer:
Wrong Pair: The National Institute for Research in the Mathematical and Physical Science – Delhi

Question 4.
(1) J.P. Naik – Kothari Commission
(2) P. Parthasarthy – Committee on Open University
(3) Sayyad Rauf – Drafted common state wide curriculum
(4) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan – Director of NCERT.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Director of NCERT.

Question 5.
(1) Dave Committee – minimum levels of learning.
(2) The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.
(3) Kosbad project – Education of Adivasis
(4) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research – Promote scientific research.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Art Department – designing workbooks and hand books.

Question 6.
(1) MSCERT – Jeevan Shikshan
(2) Balbharati – Kishor
(3) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom.
(4) SITE – Satellite Education.
Answer:
Wrong Pair : The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education – Countrywide classroom

Question 7.
(1) Tarabai Modak – Kuranshalas
(2) Anutai Wagh – Kosbad Projects
(3) Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister
(4) R. H. Dave – Competency based Primary Education Curriculum.
Answer:
Wrong Pair: Eknath Chitnis – Education Minister

Complete the concept maps:

Question 1.
Objectives of Education:
Answer:

Question 2.
Central Council for Research in Indian Medicine and Homeopathy:
Answer:

Question 3.
Departments of the Indian Agricultural Research Institute:
Answer:

Question 4.
Role of Dave Committee:
Answer:

Question 5.
Features of the IIT
Answer:

Question 6.
IIMs in India
Answer:

Question 7.
Concept map of basic responsibilities of NCERT
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
AIIMS
Answer:
(i) The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was established to give further impetus to advanced education and research in medicine.

(ii) It was given the responsibility of undergraduate and post-graduate courses in medicine.

(iii) Colleges for undergraduate and postgraduate education in most branches of medicine, good research facilities and well-equipped hospitals are the significant features of this institute.

(iv) The institute also provides medical treatment to the common people at nominal rates.

(v) It has established special colleges for training in nursing, and super-speciality centres for treatment of disorders of the heart, brain and eyes.

(vi) For further development of the medical field, the Medical Council of India was restructured in 1958 and was entrusted with the task of determining criteria for quality of medical education, its supervision and inspection.

Question 2.
Achievements of CSIR
Answer:
(i) In the post-independence period in 1950, the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(ii) The achievements of the CSIR include making the ink used for marking voters’ fingers during elections, medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis, water purification technology, reduction in the time required for bamboo production.

(iii) It also used DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India, conducted a genetic study of the Adivasis of the Andamans and proved that those tribes are 60,000 years old and developed the earthquake early warning system.

(iv) It has also played an important role in the use of neem as a pesticide, use of turmeric for healing wounds and in the case of the patents for varieties of rice.

(v) The CSIR has prepared a digital encyclopedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Question 3.
NCERT
Answer:
(i) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961.

(ii) Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks.

(iii) It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). ’

(iv) It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments.

(v) It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.

Read the passage and answer the questions and answer the questions based on it.

Passage I

National Council of Educational Research and Training. This body was established in Delhi on the 1st of September 1961. Its main objective is to help the Central Government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes. The NCERT was given the responsibility of educational research and development, training, extension, educational programmes, restructuring of school curriculum and textbooks. It has played a central role in designing school curricula and textbooks with the cooperation of the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). It provides guidance and cooperation in the area of primary and secondary education to the state governments. It has been involved in designing workbooks and handbooks for teachers, in teacher training, in developing teaching-learning techniques and conducting talent search examinations at the national level.
SCERTs were established in all States on the lines of the NCERT. The Maharashtra State Council of Educational ‘Research and Training was established in Pune, This institute performs various functions such as , improving the standard of primary education, in service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabii and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other , educational functions This institute is known as the , academic authority. It brings out a periodical called Jeevan Sikshan. ‘

Question 1.
What was the main objective behind establishment of NCERT?
Answer:
The main objective behind establishment of NCERT is to help the central government in matters of school education in the context of a comprehensive policy and in implementing educational schemes.

Question 2.
SCERT was established only in Maharashtra State on the lines of the NCERT. Identify True or False.
Answer:
False.

Question 3.
State 4 research institutes in India.
Answer:
Following are the 4 research institutes in India:

• Council of Scientific & Industrial Research.
• Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
• Indian Council of Medical Research.
• Indian Agricultural Research Institute.

Passage II

National Policy on Education 1986: According to this policy, certain changes of a fundamental nature were brought about in primary, secondary and higher , secondary education in keeping with the changing needs of society. Under this policy, a common core curriculum was framed for all States. The expectation , is that, by this means, all students in India will get equal educational opportunity. There is scope in the national curriculum for individual States to bring in flexibility in accordance with their cultural, geographical and historical needs.
The ‘Primary Education Curriculum 1988’ was prepared on the basis of the plan of action designed at the national level for the effective implementation of the National Policy on Education 1986. The competency based primary Education curriculum 1995: Even as the Primary Education Curriculum , 1988 was being implemented, a Committee was formed at the national level with Dr. R. H. Dave as its Chairman, to determine minimum levels of learning, The Dave as Committee developed charts of minimum , levels of learning in language, mathematics and environmental studies up to Std V. The charts showed the sequence of learning of the competencies meant for each class.
Use of a satellite: In 1975, India met with success in its attempt to use a satellite for the purpose of education, Eknath Chitnis, a scientist with ISRO, played an , important role in it.
SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) , was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad. The concept of satellite education came , out of this experiment. America had helped India in , this programme. The programme helped to make provisionsforagoodstandardofeducationinruralareas.

Question 1.
What was done to implement the National Policy on Education 1986?
Answer:
For the effective implementation of National Policy on Education 1986, the Primary Education Curriculum 1988 was prepared on the basis of the action plan formulated at the National level.

Question 2.
How did the Dave committee determine the minimum levels of learning?
Answer:
To determine the minimum levels of learning the Dave committee developed charts in language, mathematics and environmental studies upto Std. V. Sequential learning competencies were depicted on these charts to set standards through levels of learning.

Question 3.
Who is your favourite educationist? State his/ her educational ideas which impacted the society.
Answer:
(i) My favourite educationist are Rabindranath Tagore, Dr. Annie Besant and Dr. Sarvapalli Radha Krishnan.

(ii) They all enlightened the society with their educational ideas and deeds. Dr. Annie Besant in particular was iconic.

(iii) Her ideas of education were imbibed with political freedom, women’s liberation and universal brotherhood. Her teachings of ‘Home Rule’ and ‘theosophy’ impacted our society during British Rule. She taught these ideas through political lectures to motivate the youth.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
What does the District Primary Education Programme envisage?
Answer:
(i) In 1994, the District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) was started with the objective of universalisation of primary education. It was implemented in seven States including Maharashtra.

(ii) The plan envisaged 100% attendance in primary schools, arresting student drop-out, education for girls and for the physically handicapped.

(iii) It included programmes such as research on and evaluation of primary education, alternative education, creating societal awareness, etc.

Question 2.
State the contribution of Tarabai Modak in educating adivasis.
Answer:
(i) Tarabai Modak began work in the field of education in Bordi and Kosbad.
(ii) She started Anganwadis for Adivasi children.
(iii) She worked hard to bring in the Teaming by doing’ method, to start kuranshalas (meadow schools) and to spread vocational technical education.

Question 3.
What purpose did the Kosbad Project serve?
Answer:
(i) Anutai Wagh established an institution at Kosbad for the progress of Adivasis in Thane district.
(ii) It is known as the Kosbad Project.
(iii) She started creches, nurseries, primary schools, adult education classes, balsevika training schools, etc. for the education of Adivasis.

Question 4.
What was proposed by the Mudaliar Commission?
Answer:
(i) In 1952-53, the Mudaliar Commission was appointed.
(ii) At that time, the pattern of education consisted of 11 + 4 years for the first degree or of 11 + 1 + 3 years.
(iii) The Commission studied secondary education, the nature of the curriculum, medium of instruction, teaching methodology and made certain recommendations.
(iv) This Commission proposed the concept of Higher Secondary Education. However, it was found difficult to implement it all over the country.

Question 5.
State the recommendation of Kothari Commission.
Answer:
(i) The Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education. This system was implemented from 1972.

(ii) The Commission also suggested a uniform national system of education, the inclusion of the mother tongue, Hindi and English in education, as well as continuing education, adult education, education by correspondence and open universities to make education trickle down to the lowest rungs of society.

(iii) It also recommended increased provision in the government’s budget for expenditure on education of neglected sections like the scheduled castes and tribes.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Education Board of your state?
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education was established on the 1st of January 1966 at Pune.
(ii) This Board conducts the school leaving examinations of Std. X and Std. XII.
(iii) It also publishes a periodical called ‘Shikshan Sankraman’.

Question 7.
State the functions of MSCERT.
Answer:
(i) The Maharashtra State Council of Educational Research and Training was established in Pune.
(ii) This institute performs various functions such as improving the standard of primary education,
in-service training of teachers, training in the areas of syllabi and evaluation, vocational guidance for students after Std X and Std XII exams and other educational functions.

Question 8.
How did the concept of satellite education evolve in India?
Answer:
(i) SITE (Satellite Instructional Television Experiment) was undertaken for educational purposes under the leadership of the Space Applications Centre at Ahmedabad.
(ii) The concept of satellite education came out of this experiment. America had helped India in this programme.
(iii) The programme helped to make provisions for a good standard of education in rural areas.

Question 9.
Discuss the responsibilities of Indian Council for Medical Research.
Answer:
(i) Indian Council for Medical Research (ICMR) was established for conducting research in the medical field.
(ii) It was given the responsibility of cooperating with universities, medical colleges, government and non-government research institutes and giving them guidance and financial support for research activities.

Question 10.
Which institute works for advanced research in cancer?
Answer:
The Advanced Centre for Treatment, Research and Education in Cancer is a branch of the Tata Memorial Centre. It functions as the national centre for treatment, research and education in relation to cancer.

Observe the pictures/personality and write relevant information:

Question 1.

Answer:
(i) Kothari Commission recommended the 10+2+3 pattern for secondary, higher secondary and university education.
(ii) The objectives of Education were :

• Modernisation of Education.
• Social and national integration.
• Nurture of social, moral, spiritual values.
• Education and Productivity.
• Securing and strengthening of democracy.

(iii) The following are the other recommendations made by the Kothari commission:

• A uniform national system of education
• inclusion of mother tongue (along with Hindi and English)
• Continuing education
• Adult education
• Education by correspondence
• Open Universities.

Question 2.

Answer:
(1) The open university was established with the objective that the stream of education should make its way into every average household of the country.

(2) In 1974, the government appointed a committee under the chairmanship of P. Parthasarthy and open university took shape on 20th September 1985 in accordance with its recommendations and suggestions.
It was named after Prime Minister – Indira Gandhi.

(3) In 1990, IGNOU started an audio-visual distance education programme through Akashwani and Doordarshan.

(4) It provides facilities for education through 58 centres in the country and 41 centres in foreign countries.

Question 3.

Answer:
(1) CSIR was established with the objective to promote scientific research in the country and to take the benefits of the research to all the people.

(2) CSIR conducted research in fields like:

• Physics, chemistry, pharmaceuticals, food processing and mining

(3) The achievements of CSIR include:

• Making the ink used for marking voter’s fingers during elections
• Medicines for malaria, elephantiasis and tuberculosis
• water purifying technology
• DNA fingerprinting for the first time in India.

(4) CSIR has prepared a digital encylopoedia of Indian traditional knowledge and made it available in eight international languages.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Soils Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Soils

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following table.

Factor/Process	Role in the formation of soil
(1) Parent rock	…………….
(2) Regional climate	……………
(3) Organic material	…………..
(4) Micro­organisms	……………..

Answer:

Factor/Process	Role in the formation of soil
(1) Parent rock	The rock gets weathered depending on the hardness of the rock and the climate of the region. It turns into powdery material which further turns into soil.
(2) Regional climate	When the rock is exposed to a different climates, the same type of rock gives rise to different types of soil.
(3) Organic material	The organic material gets mixed into weathered powdery material and turn it into soil.
(4) Micro­organisms	Microorganisms help in decomposing the dead remains of organic materials and get mixed into the soil to form humus.

2. Why do the following occur?

Question 1.
To the west of Sahyadris, laterite soils are formed from the basalt rock.
Answer:

• Laterite soils are formed in regions of heavy rainfall.
• The climate of western Sahyadris is hot & humid.
• This leads to leaching of basalt rocks due to which there is formation of laterite soils.

Question 2.
Humus content in the soil increases.
Answer:

• Microorganisms and certain other organism help in decomposing the dead remains of organic materials.
• The biotic material thus produced is called humus.
• If organic manures, vermicompost compost are used regularly, the humus content in the soil increases.

Question 3.
Soil formation process is faster in the equatorial climate.
Answer:

• In the region of high rainfall and higher temperature the process of soil formation is faster.
• Equatorial climatic region have high temperature and receive high rainfall.
• Thus soil formation process is faster in the equatorial region.

Question 4.
The salinity of the soil increases.
Answer:

• Due to excessive irrigation, the salts from the soil are drawn upwards.
• This increases the salinity of the soil.

Question 5.
Rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.
Answer:

• Hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall & fertile alluvial soil are favourable for rice cultivation.
• This soil has good water holding capacity. Since these conditions are found in the konkan region, rice is grown on a large scale here.
• So rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.

3. Give information on:

Question 1.
Measures of soil conservation
Answer:
The following are the measures of soil conservation:

(i) Afforestation / Planting trees: Planting trees can control the velocity of wind. This helps reducing erosion by wind. The plant roots hold the soil and also reduces the erosion of soil.

(ii) Continuous contour trenches: Construction of continuous contour trenches at different height checks the velocity of water running along the slopes & hence reduces soil erosion. The water arrested in these trenches percolates into the ground.

(iii) Implementation of watershed Development program: The Government of Maharashtra has implemented the watershed development programme under which constructing embankment along slopes in rural areas, introducing CCTs along steep slopes etc. are undertaken. This led to the success of the scheme ‘Arrest water, let it percolate’. This has resulted in raising the ground water levels & reducing the erosion of soil.

(iv) Implementation of Jalayukt Shivar: Under the scheme of Jalayukt Shivar, works like construction of farm bunds, arresting waters of small streams, connecting the streams etc. are being carried out on a large scale.

Question 2.
Organic Manures.
Answer:
(i) Organic manures in farming, helps to maintain the pH balance.
(ii) It also increases the proportion of humus, and retain the fertility of soil.

Question 3.
Place where you will get the information about the suitability of a soil for a particular crop.
Answer:
(i) The information about the suitability of a soil can be obtained from Department of Agriculture of Government of Maharashtra, Natural Resource conservation services, soil testing laboratories in various states and at many agricultural universities.

(ii) The type of soil, soil fertility, pH status of the soil, etc. are determined in soil testing.

(iii) Based on the testing, an analysis of the soil is done & information about the suitability of a soil for a particular crop is provided.

Question 4.
Importance of soils for plant growth.
Answer:
(i) Soil is important for plant as it hold roots that provide support for plants and stores nutrient for the growth of plants.
(ii) Fertile soils favour plant growth.

4. Complete the following table with reference to soil.

Action	Effect	Result (W.R.T. fertility)
Construction of embankments.
	Wind speed decreased.
Farm land is kept fallow for some period.	Helps to maintain the pH balance and increase the proportion of humus.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Regular use of organic manures, vermicompost and compost.
	Check the velocity of water running along the slopes.
Litter is burnt in the farm.
Decomposed vegetal litters, roots of plants and remains of animals.
	Salt content in the soil increases.
	Leads to the lowering of humus content in the soil.

Answer:

Action	Effect	Result (W.R.T. fertility)
Construction of embankments.	Protects soil from being washed away.	Protects fertility of soil.
Planting trees.	Wind speed decreased.	Protects fertility of soil
Farm land is kept fallow for some period.	Helps to maintain the pH balance and increase the proportion of humus.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Regular use of organic manures, vermicompost[1] and compost.	Humus content increased.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Trenches are dug across a slope.	Check the velocity of water running along the slopes.	Protects fertility of soil
Litter is burnt in the farm.	Decreases the amount of organic material in soil.	Decreases the fertility of soil.
Decomposed vegetal litters, roots of plants and remains of animals.	Proves favourable for micro organism.	Increases the fertility of soil.
Excessive Irrigation	Salt content in the soil increases.	Decreases the fertility of soil
Chemical fertilizers used excessively.	Leads to the lowering of humus content in the soil.	Decreases the fertility of soil

Activity:

1. Visit a soil testing centre/laboratory and note the work that is carried out in the centre.
2. Prepare compost at home or in your housing society.
3. Visit a place where ‘Arrest water, let it percolate’ is being implemented. Collect information about it and make a note of it.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils InText Questions and Answers

Think about it:

Question 1.
Rohit and Prateeksha noted that their field had yielded a bumper crop. But they also noted that a part of their field had a stunted growth of plants. What investigation will you suggest to them?
Answer:
I would suggest that they should check whether organic manures, are used evenly on all the parts of the field. Also, they should check whether that part of the field is getting adequate supply of water or not.

Question 2.
Why do equatorial regions have fertile soils?
Answer:
The sun rays are perpendicular in equatorial
regions so the climate is very hot and humid. This region also receives very heavy rainfall. As the process of soil formation is faster in these regions, equatorial regions have fertile soil. Also vegetal litter roots of plants, remains of animals, etc.; get decomposed adding to soil fertility.

Question 3.
Why is the vegetation sparse in deserts?
Answer:
A desert is a barren area of land where a little precipitation occurs and consequently living conditions for plant and animal life are very hostile. It is an area where the soils are not fertile & hence vegetation is scanty.

Try this:

• Take three flower pots of the same size.
• Keep one pot empty. Fill the second pot. With water after closing the hole at the bottom and fill the third pot with soil.
• Put a few seeds in all of them. (You may use aserio, peas, gram, fenugreek, wheat, green gram, coriander seeds, etc.)
• Keep all the three pots in the sun. and water the empty pot and the soil-filled pot for 4-5 days. Observe and answer the following.

Question 1.
What happened to the seeds put in the empty pot and pot filled with water?
Answer:
Seeds in the empty pot and the pot filled with water did not germinate and did not show any sign of growth.

Question 2.
What happened to the seeds put in the pot (c) filled with soil?
Answer:
Seeds germinated and we could see some small twigs branching out.

Question 3.
What do you learn from this?
Answer:
We learn that plants need sunlight, water and soil to grow.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 7 Soils Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_____ rock in a region is an important factor in soil. (Parent, Basalt, Granite)
Answer:
Parent

Question 2.
The process of weathering depends on the _____ of the region. (climate, weather, soil)
Answer:
climate

Question 3.
The _____ rock of the Deccan Plateau in Maharashtra turns into black soil after weathering. (granite, basalt, parent)
Answer:
basalt

Question 4.
______ soils along the river beds give higher yields. (Infertile, Fertile, Coarse)
Answer:
Fertile

Question 5.
The _____ material comes from the decomposition of the remains of the plants and animals in that region. (biotic1, abiotic, pH)
Answer:
biotic1

Question 6.
______ is a complete ecosystem.(Soil, Humus, weathered rocks)
Answer:
Soil

Question 7.
Food crops like jowar and bajra are produced in the _____ soils of Maharashtra Plateau. (regur, coarse, laterite)
Answer:
regur

Question 8.
The local agriculture produce determines the _______ diet of the people. (staple, supplementary, secondary)
Answer:
staple

Question 9.
The proportion of humus is negligible in _____ soil. (coarse, black, laterite)
Answer:
coarse

Question 10.
Planting trees can also control the _____ of the wind. (velocity, direction, temperature)
Answer:
velocity

Question 11.
Rocks like granite or gneiss in South India give rise to ____ soil. (black, red, regur)
Answer:
red

Question 12.
In the humid climate of western Sahyadris the leaching of basalt rocks leads to formation of ___ soil. (black, lateritic, red)
Answer:
lateritic

Question 13.
The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers lead to ______; (soil degradation soil fertility, soil powder)
Answer:
soil degradation

Complete the following sentences:

Question 1.
The biotic material comes from _____.
Answer:
the decomposition of the remains of the plants and animals in that region

Question 2
Microorganisms ajnd certain other organisms help decompose the dead remains of ______.
Answer:
organic materials

Question 3.
Production of compost needs sufficient period of time and ______.
Answer:
elements like organic waste, water, heat, etc.

Question 4.
In the region of high rainfall and higher temperatures, _____.
Answer:
the process of soil formation is faster

Question 5.
In regions of low temperatures and low rainfall the _____.
Answer:
soil formation takes more time

Question 6.
High use of chemical fertilizers, insecticides _____.
Answer:
leads to the degradation of soils

Question 7.
In the areas where the soil is not fertile, _______.
Answer:
egetation is scanty

Question 8.
When man realized that sowing of seeds in the soil leads to the growth of plants and yields crops, ______.
Answer:
he started using soil as a resource

Question 9.
Excessive irrigation draws the salts from the soil upwards and ______.
Answer:
makes the soil saline and then unproductive

Question 10.
Keeping the farmland fallow for some period and cultivating different crops alternatively is important ________.
Answer:
to help retain the fertility of soils.

Give one word for the following:

Question 1.
Soil formed due to weathering of basalt rock.
Answer:
Black soil

Question 2
Soil formed due to the leaching of the basalt rock.
Answer:
Lateritic soil

Question 3.
Biotic material mixed into the soils.
Answer:
Humus

Question 4.
The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers.
Answer:
Soil degradation

Question 5.
The govt, scheme, work like construction of farm bunds, arresting waters of small streams, etc.
Answer:
Jalayukt Shivar.

Who am I?

Question 1.
I am a very important rock factor in soil formation.
Answer:
Parent rock

Question 2
I form due to weathering of basalt rock. Jowar and Bajra mostly grow on this soil.
Answer:
Regur soil / Black soil

Question 3.
I am found in the hilltops of the western part of the Deccan plateau.
Answer:
Coarse soil

Question 4.
I am black in colour and have less organic components.
Answer:
Regur or Black soil

Question 5.
I am orange in colour and mostly found in the coastal belt of Konkan.
Laterite soil

Question 6.
I am found at the mouth of the river in the western coastal strip.
Answer:
Alluvial soil of the coastal strip

Question 7.
I am mainly found in areas of extreme rainfall but not very useful for agriculture.
Answer:
Yellow brown soil

Question 8.
I am a method of soil conservation which controls the velocity of wind.
Answer:
Afforestation / planting trees

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column I	Column II
(1) Coarse soil	(a) Alluvium deposition
(2) Regur soil	(b) Eastern part of Bhandara
(3) Laterite soil	(c) Ajanta, Balaghat, Mahaden hills
(4) Alluvial soil	(d) Coastal belt of konkan
(5) Yellow-brown soil	(e) Weathering of basalt rock

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – d
4 – a
5 – b

Answer the following questions in short:

Question 1.
What do you mean by ‘Soil’?
Answer:
(i) The uppermost layer of the earth’s crust is called ‘Soil’.
(ii) It contains the organic as well as mineral matter necessary for the growth of plants.

Question 2
What are the factors necessary for the soil formation?
Answer:
Soil is formed by:

• Weathering of the parent rock material.
• Climatic conditions of the region.
• The decomposition of plant remains.
• Animal manures and dead animals.
• Very long period of time.

Question 3.
What is leaching ?
Answer:
(i) Leaching is a process is which the salts & other soluble material are washed out of the rock through percolation of water.
(ii) This process is dominant in the areas of high rainfall & humid climate.

Question 4.
What is Humus?
Answer:
(i) The decaying of organic material such as dead leaves, stems, root of the plant, vegetal litters, decomposed remains of animals get mixed into the soil.
(ii) This results in the formation of “Humus” thus retaining the fertility of soil.
(iii) If the proportion of humus in the soil is greater, the soil becomes fertile.

Question 5.
What leads to the degradation of soils?
Answer:
(i) For getting higher production, different types of chemical fertilizers, insecticides are used profusely.
(ii) This leads to the degradation of soils.

Question 6.
What led to record agricultural production?
Ans,
(i) To get richer harvests man made efforts to increase the fertility of soils.
(ii) In the process, use of different fertilizers became a practice which led to record agricultural production.

Question 7.
What is soil erosion?
Answer:
(i) When a layer of soil (top layer of soil) get removed due to wind or water it is called soil erosion.
(ii) Running water, climate and diversity in physiography are the reasons of soil erosion.

Question 8.
What helps to maintain the pH balance of the soil?
Answer:
(i) Organic manures, vermicompost, compost are used regularly.
(ii) It helps in maintaining the pH balance and retaining the fertility of the soil.

Why do the following occur:

Question 1.
Rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.
Answer:
(i) Hot & humid climate, heavy rainfall & fertile alluvial soil are favourable for rice cultivation.
(ii) This soil has good water holding capacity. Since these conditions are found in the konkan region, rice is grown on a large scale here.
(iii) So rice is the staple diet of the people from Konkan.

Question 2.
Soil Erosion.
(i) A layer of soil gets removed due to wind or water.
(ii) Running water, climate and diversity in physiography are the reasons of soil erosion.

Question 3.
Soil degradation.
Answer:
(i) To obtain a higher agricultural yield, chemical fertilizers, insecticides, weedicides, etc. are used.
(ii) The excessive spraying of chemicals and use of chemical fertilizers leads to soil degradation.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Planting trees is necessary to conserve the soil.
Answer:
(i) A layer of soil gets removed due to wind or water which leads to soil erosion.
(ii) Planting trees controls the velocity of the wind, thus reducing the erosion of soil by wind.
(iii) The roots of the plants hold the soil which also prevents soil erosion.

Question 2
Continuous contour trenches are constructed along the slopes.
Answer:
(i) Construction of continuous contour trenches (CCTs) at different heights checks the velocity of water running along the slopes.
(ii) This reduces soil erosion.

Question 3.
It is advisable to use organic manures, vermicompost and compost regularly.
Answer:
(i) Use of organic manures, vermicompost, compost helps maintain the pH balance.
(ii) It also increases the proportion of humus thus retaining the fertility of soil.
(iii) Hence, it is advisable to use organic manures, vermicompost & compost regularly.

Question 4.
There emerged competition among the people to discover fertile lands and settle there.
Answer:
(i) Man started producing greater amount of food crops for the growing population.
(ii) He realized that crop production and prosperity in agriculture depends on the fertility of soil and the optimum availability of water.
Hence, there emerged competition among the people to discover fertile lands & settle there.

Question 5.
There was a rise of Indus civilization.
Answer:
(i) When man realized that the fertile soils along the river beds give higher yields.
(ii) He settled in the valleys and started living there in groups.
(iii) This led to the rise of Indus civilization.

Question 6.
Countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman, etc., fulfil their requirements by importing food from other countries.
Answer:
(i) In countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman etc. the soils are not arable so there is need to fulfil their food requirement.
(ii) Hence, countries like Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Oman import food from other countries.

Question 7.
Lets find the names of the soils we have learnt and which regions they are found?
Answer:

Soils	Answers	Regions
(1) RUGER	Regur	(a) Western part of Deccan Plateau and eastern part of Vidarbha.
(2) LUILALVA	Alluvial	(b) Panvel, Uran Coast, Dharamtar creek.
(3) OARCSE	Coarse	(c) Ajanta, Balaghat and Mahadeo hills.
(4) AEILTRITE	Laterite	(d) Coastal belt of Konkan, West of Sahyadris and East of Vidarbha.

Make Friends with maps!
Observe the map given below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which soil occupies most of the areas in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Black (Regur) soil occupies most of the areas in Maharashtra.

Question 2
In which areas are laterite soils found?
Answer:
Laterite soil is found in Raigad, Ratnagiri,Sindhudurg and some parts of Gadchiroli and Nashik.

Question 3.
Which soil is found in parts of the Sahyadri ranges?
Answer:
Yellow Brown soil is found in parts of the Sahyadri ranges.

Question 4.
In which region is alluvial soil found?
Answer:
Alluvial soil is found in Mumbai Suburban District, Mumbai city district some parts of Thane & Palghar district.

Question 5.
Which soil is found in the river valleys of Maharashtra?
Answer:
Fertile Alluvial Soil is found in the river valleys of Maharashtra.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Tides

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Prepare a chain by matching the following:

Question 1.

Group ‘A’	Group ‘B’	Group ‘C’
(1) Waves	(a) 8th phase of the moon (Quarter)	(i) Objects get thrown towards the outer side.
(2) Centrifugal force	(b) Newmoon day	(ii) Highest high tide occurs on this day.
(3) Gravitational force	(c) Rotation of the earth	(iii) These are also generated due to earthquakes and volcanoes.
(4) Spring Tide	(d) The moon, the sun and the earth	(iv) The forces of the sun and the moon operate in different directions.
(5) Neap tide	(e) Wind	(v) Operates in the direction towards the centre of the earth.

Answer:

1 – e – iii
2 – c – i
3 – d – v
4 – b – ii
5 – a – iv

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.
Answer:

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth is one of the factor responsible for occurrence of tides.
• But compared to the sun, the moon is closer to the earth.
• Due to this the gravitational force of the moon becomes more effective than that of the sun.
• Therefore, tides are influenced more by the moon than the sun.

Question 2.
At some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.
Answer:
(i) Generally the areas along the sea coast are low lying and get flooded easily by the sea water during high tide.

(ii) This leads to accumulation of sea water over a long period of time leading to formation of swamps & marshes.

(iii) The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity here.

(iv) Certain areas near the sea coast being low lying & waters being shallow also lead to sediment deposition by sea waves leading to formation of lagoons.

(v) In this way, at some places along the coast, the low lying areas turn into lagoons or marshy lands.

Question 3.
Place located on the opposite meridian experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.
Answer:
(i) The gravitational force of moon, the sun & the earth and the centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth are two major factors responsible for the occurrence of tides.

(ii) When a place (meridian) faces the moon the gravitational force of the moon exceeds the centrifugal force of the earth leading to high tide here as the water is pulled towards the moon.

(iii) At the same time the place on the earth located at the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high tide, the centrifugal force of the earth exceeds the gravitational force of the moon. Thus, the water is pulled in the direction away from the moon leading to high tide.

(iv) The water required for the high tide moves in from places that are at right angles to those having high tides causing a low tide at those places.

(v) Thus, place located on the opposite meridian to the place experiencing high or low tide will also experience high or low tide respectively.

3. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
If there is high tide at 7 am, find the timings of the next high and low tides on the same day at a given place.
Answer:

• There is high tide & low tide twice a day i.e. in 24 hours.
• One cycle of high tide & low tide is completed after every 12 hours & 25 minutes.
• If there is a high tide at 7 am, the next low tide will be at 1.12 pm (after 6 hrs & 12 min.) & the next high tide will be at 7.25 pm (after 12 hrs & 25 min.)

Question 2.
If at Mumbai (73° E meridian), there is high tide at 1.00 pm on Thursday, then on which other meridian will there be a high tide too? State with reasons.
Answer:
The other meridian which will experience high tide will be 107°W (180°-73°) because it is exactly 180° opposite from 73°E.

Question 3.
Explain the reasons for the generation of waves.
Answer:

• The main reason of wave generation is the force of the wind i.e. water appears to be moving.
• But at times waves get generated due to earthquake or volcanic eruptions occurring below the floor of the sea.
• Large or small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural and regular phenomenon.

4. In what way will the following depend on the tides:

Question 1.
Swimming:
Answer:
A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Question 2.
Steering a ship:
Answer:
Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.

Question 3.
Fishing:
Answer:
With the high tide, fish moves into the creeks and this helps the fishing activity.

Question 4.
Salt Pans:
Answer:
During high tide, seawater can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.

Question 5.
Going to coastal areas for trips:
Answer:
Plan for going to trips after full moon or new moon day. Also one must have details about the timings of the tides for better enjoyment.

5. Observe figure of neap tide and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Which phase of the moon does it show?
Answer:
The diagram shows the phase of the quarter moon.

Question 2.
What are the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth?
Answer:
The moon, the earth and the sun make an angle of 90° (right angle)

Question 3.
What effect will it have on the tides?
Answer:
It will lead to neap tide. Due to such conditions during high tide the water level will rise less than usual while during low tide water level will fall less than usual.

6. Differentiate between:

Question 1.
High tide and low tide:
Answer:

High tide	Low Tide
(i) The rise in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.	(i) The fall in the level of sea water is caused by the combined effect of centrifugal and gravitational force of the moon and the sun.
(ii) At the time of high tide, sea water is very close to the coast.	(ii) At the time of low tide, sea water is far away from the coast.

Question 2.
Spring tide and neap tide.
Answer:

Spring tide	Neap Tide
(i) It occurs on the new moon day and the full moon day.	(i) It occurs on the the first and the third quarter days.
(ii) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth are in a straight line and act in the same direction.	(i) The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun are at right angle.
(iii) Spring tides are a little higher than the average high tides and a little lower than the average low tides.	(iii) Neap tides are a little lower than the average high tides and little higher than the average low tides.

7. Describe the positive and negative effects of tides:
Answer:
The positive effects of tides are as follows:

• The tides clear the waste and hence the coasts become clean.
• Ports do not get filled with sediments .
• Ships can move up to the ports during high tide.
• During high tide, sea water can be stored in salt pans from which salt can be obtained.
• The tidal force can be used to generate electricity.
• With the high tide, fish move into the creeks and this helps fishing activity.
• The tides help in maintaining the mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.

The negative effects of tides are as follows:

• A lack of an understanding of the timings of high and low tides may cause accidents to swimmers entering the sea.

Activities:

1. Visit the nearest sea coast. From a higher location, observe the waves approaching the coast. See if the approaching waves change their direction. With the help of your teacher find the answer to why this change occurs.
2. Collect information from the internet about how electricity is generated from waves. Find places where such electricity is being generated.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides InText Questions and Answers

Differentiate between:

Question 1.
Centrifugal force and Gravitational
Answer:

Centrifugal force	Gravitational force
(i) Due to rotation, the earth gets a type of power of force. This force works away from the centre. It is called centrifugal force. (ii) Centrifugal force works away from the centre. (iii) Due to centrifugal force an object on the earth would be thrown into the space.	(i) Gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth. This force is many times greater than the centrifugal force. (ii) Gravitational force works towards the centre. (iii) Due to gravitational force an object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Spring tide
Answer:
(i) On new moon & full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction due to which the total pull increases.

(ii) Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

(iii) This is known as spring tide.

Question 2.
Neap tide
Answer:
(i) While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun, twice a month.

(ii) This position occurs on the first and third quarter of each month. On both these days the forces of both the sun & the moon operate at right angles on the earth.

(iii) At the places where the sun causes high tide, the gravitational pull of the moon which is at right angles also acts on the water.

(iv) Due to such conditions the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide. Similarly, fall in water level is less than usual at the time of low tide.

(v) Such tides are called neap tides.

Question 3.
Waves
Answer:

• The sea water gets pushed by the wind and ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.
• The sea water moves up & down or slightly forward & backward due to the waves.
• The waves bring the energy contained in them to the coast.
• Large & small waves are formed continuously at the surface of the sea.
• Generation of waves is a natural & regularly occurring phenomenon.

Question 4.
Struture of the waves
Answer:
(i) The sea water gets pushed up & down because of the wind. The raised up portion of the wave is called crest & the depressed one is called trough.

(ii) The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave whereas the distance between two successive crests or troughs is called wave length.

(iii) The wave length, its amplitude & its velocity depend on the velocity of the wind.

Formative Assessment:
Observe the activity on pages 9, 10 of the textbook & discuss the result of the activities and answer the question given below:

Question 1.
In which direction will the piece of chalk fall? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The chalk will fall to the right.

Question 2.
Where did the water in the glass show a bulge? (fig. 2)
Answer:
At the sides of the glass.

Question 3.
What effect did the movement have on the things attached to the keyring? (fig. 3)
Answer:
The things attached to the keyring will move round.

Question 4.
What happened to the water in the container and the mixer? (fig. 1)
Answer:
The water will swirl round forming a bulge at the sides and a depression in the centre.

Question 5.
Which forces could be operating in activities listed above?
Answer:
In the first activity (fig. 1) gravitational force acted and in the fig. 2, fig. 3 centrifugal force.

Question 6.
In the following activities, which force is greater, centrifugal or gravitational?
Answer:
The centrifugal force was greater than the gravitational force.

Can you tell?
Answer the following of questions with the help of figure

Question 1.
How do the tides occur?
Answer:
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun, and the earth.

Question 2.
Which force is applied when the moon is closer to the earth?
Answer:
Gravitational force becomes more effective than that of the sun when the moon is closer to the earth.

Question 3.
If it is high tide those having high tide at 0° and 180° meridian then at which meridians will low tide occur?
Answer:
The meridians that are at right angle to those having high tide will experience low tide at the same time ie. at 90°E & 90°W.

Class 7 Geography Chapter 3 Tides Additional Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks choosing the correct options from the brackets:

Question 1.
Due to rotation, the force that works away from the centre of the earth is the ______force. (gravitational, rotational, centrifugal)
Answer:
centrifugal

Question 2.
Neap tide occurs on the days of the ______ and _______ quarter of each month. (first, second, third)
Answer:
first, third

Question 3.
The tidal range in open seas is ______ cms. (20, 30, 40)
Answer:
30

Question 4.
The highest tidal range in the world is observed at _______.(Bay of Fundy, Bay of Biscay, Bay of Bengal)
Answer:
Bay of Fundy

Question 5.
The main reason for wave generation is ______ (wind, gravitational force, centrifugal force)
Answer:
wind

Question 6.
The raised up portion of a wave is called a _______ .(trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
crest

Question 7.
The depressed portion of a wave is called a ______. (trough, wave length, crest)
Answer:
trough

Question 8.
The vertical distance between a crest and a trough is called the _____.(wave length, amplitude, tide)
Answer:
amplitude

Question 9.
The distance between a crest or trough is called _____ (amplitude, wave length, tide)
Answer:
wave length

Question 10.
Tall sea waves caused by earthquakes below the floor of the sea are called _____.(cyclones, tsunamis, eruption)
Answer:
tsunamis

Match the following:

Question 1.

‘A’	‘B’
(1)  Bay of Fundy (2)  Gulf of Khambhat (3)  Open Seas (4)  Peninsular India	(a)  1100 cm (b)  100 -150 cm (c)  1600 cm (d)  30 cm

Answer:
1 – c
2- a
3 – d
4 – b

Fill in the blanks:
Question 1.
High and low tides are _______ phenomena.
Answer:
Natural

Question 2.
_________ are movements of sea water occurring daily and regularly.
Answer:
Tides

Question 3.
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place due to the ______ force.
Answer:
Gravitational

Question 4.
The meridians that are at right angles to those having high, tide will experience tide _______.
Answer:
Low

Question 5.
On the days of the first and the third quarter, the high tide is at its _____.
Answer:
Minimum

Question 6.
On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon acting the ______ direction.
Answer:
Same

Question 7.
At every ______ a cycle of high tide and low tide gets completed.
Answer:
12 hrs & 25 min

Name the following:

Question 1.
Movement of sea water.
Answer:
Tides.

Question 2.
Two forces directly related with tides.
Answer:
Gravitational and Centrifugal forces.

Question 3.
Two types of tide.
Answer:
Spring tide and Neap tide.

Question 4.
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide.
Answer:
Tidal range.

Question 5.
The region with highest tidal range in India.
Answer:
The Gulf of Khambhat.

Question 6.
Tall waves caused by earthquakes in the shallow waters near the coast, which are very destructive.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Question 7.
Place where tsunami waves were generated in 2004.
Answer:
Sumatra islands of Indonesia.

Question 8.
Type of tide occuring on full moon day.
Answer:
Spring tide.

Question 9.
Type of tide occuring when sun and the moon are at right angles to each other.
Answer:
Neap tide.

Question 10.
Distance between two successive crests or troughs.
Answer:
Wavelength.

Define the following:

Question 1.
Tide:
Answer:
The alternate rising and falling of the sea water after a specific period is called tide.

Question 2.
Centrifugal force:
Answer:
Due to the earth’s rotation, the earth gets a type of power or force. This force works away from the centre. It is called the centrifugal force.

Question 3.
Tidal range:
Answer:
The difference in the water level of the high tide and low tide is called tidal range.

Question 4.
Waves:
Answer:
The sea water gets pushed by the wind and so ripples are generated on the water surface. These are called waves.

Question 5.
Amplitude of the wave:
Answer:
The vertical distance between a crest and the following trough is called the amplitude of the wave.

Question 6.
Wave length:
Answer:
The wave length is the distance between two successive crests or troughs.

Write whether the following statements are true or false:

Question 1.
The gravitational force is many times greater than the centrifugal force.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Spring tides are lower than average high tides.
Answer:
False

Question 3.
Centrifugal force is generated due to the revolution of the earth.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
When there is high tide at 0° meridian, the 180° meridian also experiences high tide.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Tides occur due to the relative positions of the moon, the sun and the earth.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The tides clean the waste and hence the coastal areas become clean.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The tides worsen the maintaining of mangroves and the coastal biodiversity.
Answer:
False

Question 8.
Generation of waves is a natural and regularly occurring phenomenon.
Answer:
True

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1
Any object on the surface of the earth remains at the place where it exists.
Answer:

• Due to the earths rotation, it gets a type of power or force
• The force acting in the centre is centrifugal force.
• Due to this force any object on the earth would be thrown into the space.
• But the gravitational force is working towards the centre of the earth at the same time.
• This force is greater than the centrifugal force.
• Hence, any object on the surface of earth remains at the place where it exists.

Question 2.
On new moon and full moon days the tides are higher than average.
Answer:

• On new moon and full moon days, the gravitational pull of the sun and the moon act in the same direction.
• Due to this, the total pull increases.
• Hence, the tide on these days is much higher than the average high tide.

Question 3.
Neap tides are a little lower than average high tides.
Answer:

• While revolving around the earth, the moon makes a right angle with respect to the earth and the sun.
• This position occurs on the first and the third quarter of each month.
• On both these days, the forces of both the sun and the moon operate at right angles on the earth.
• The attraction of the sun and the moon are not complementary but at right angles to each other.
• Due to this, the water level rise is less than usual at the time of high tide

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Which factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides?
Answer:
The following factors are responsible for the occurrence of tides.

• The gravitational pull of the moon and the sun as well as that of the earth.
• Revolution of the earth around the sun and the indirect revolution of the moon around the sun.
• Centrifugal force generated due to the rotation of the earth.

Draw a neat labelled diagram of:

Question 1.
The structure of a wave:
Answer:

Question 2.
Springtide:
Answer:

Question 3.
Neap tide:
Answer:

Question 4.
Occurrence of tides:
Answer:

Observe the following pictures and answer the following questions given below and discuss:


Question 1.
Do the above photographs show the same place or different places?
Answer:
Both the photographs show the same place.

Question 2.
Observe and note the spread of water seen in both the photographs.
Answer:
The level of water is higher in the first picture and lower in the second.

Question 3.
What is this natural event called?
Answer:
This natural event is called tide.

Try this:

Take a wide open large dish.
Keep the dish on a table or a flat surface.
Fill water in the dish up to the rim,(we have to generate waves in the dish).

Question 1.
Is it possible to generate waves without touching or shoving the dish? Try doing so.
Answer:
By blowing air with your mouth on the water surface of the dish.

Question 2.
In what different ways can you generate waves in the dish?
Answer:

• By dropping an object in the dish.
• By blowing air on the water surface.
• By strong fan breeze.