Bhagya

Std 11 History Chapter 2 Question Answer First Cities of India Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 2 First Cities of India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 History Chapter 2 First Cities of India Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 11 Chapter 2 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
In the early phase of agriculture, making __________ pots and farming were the jobs of women.
(a) copper
(b) bronze
(c) earthen
(d) stone
Answer:
(c) earthen

Question 2.
Lothal is known for its ancient __________
(a) agriculture
(b) dock
(c) textiles
(d) tools
Answer:
(b) dock

Question 3.
A general impression prevailed that the Harappan seals had some connection with the __________ civilisation.
(a) Chinese
(b) Greek
(c) Mesopotamian
(d) Egyptian
Answer:
(c) Mesopotamian

Question 4.
The bodies (mummies) of dead royalties in Egypt were wrapped in __________ coloured cloth.
(a) white
(b) black
(c) red
(d) blue
Answer:
(d) blue

2A. Choose the correct reason and complete the sentence.

Question 1.
The major reason for the decline of the Mesopotamian civilisation was __________
(a) foreign invasion
(b) deteriorating environment
(c) loss in trade
(d) migration
Answer:
(b) deteriorating environment

2B. Find the incorrect pair from set ‘B’ and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Answer:
(c) Shortugai – Badakshan province of Afghanistan

3. Explain the statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The remains found in cities like Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Kalibangan, Lothal, Dholavira, Rakhigarhi, etc. are evidence of the past glory of this civilization.
Answer:

• A well-developed and rich civilisation flourished in the Indian subcontinent in the period from 3500-3000 B.C.E.
• This period is characterised by systematic town planning, with houses of baked brick, granaries, excellent drainage systems, public baths, and impressive public movements.
• Good administrative control over the distribution of water and other resources.
• Remains also prove a good social organisation, a proper social hierarchy based on the position of power.
• Flourishing internal and distant trade, mass production of goods, and craft specialisation developed writing system of script on Harappan seals give evidence of the past glory of the civilisation.

Question 2.
Lapis lazuli had a very important place in the Harappan trade.
Answer:

• A network of small towns, big and small villages, and campsites of semi-nomadic people functioned to cater to the needs of major urban centres of the Harappan civilisation.
• The Harappan settlement of ‘Shortugai’ in the Badakshan province of Afghanistan, is rich with mines of lapis lazuli, a semi-precious stone in Mesopotamia.
• The Mesopotamian epics describe Goddess Inanna’s palace, the walls of which were embedded with this stone, lapis lazuli.
• This stone was a very important commodity in the Harappan trade with Mesopotamia.

Question 3.
Harappan civilisation declined.
Answer:

• Sir Mortimer Wheeler in his study has concluded that the Harappan civilisation was destroyed by Indra, who destroyed the fortified cities.
• Vedic Aryans destroyed the Harappan cities under the leadership of Indra.
• The civilisation also declined due to the cumulative effects of factors such as the decline in trade, climatic changes, and the weakening of the economy.

4. State your opinion.

Question 1.
The Harappan cities and villages in the vicinity were interdependent.
Answer:

• The interrelationship between Harappan cities and villages was dependent on the mechanism of making available food grains and raw materials.
• A network of small towns, big and small villages, and campsites of semi-nomadic people, functioned to cater to the needs of major urban centres of Harappan civilisation.
• The city people were dependent on natural sources and villages in their vicinity, to meet the needs of urban lifestyle and urban administration.

Question 2.
The Harappan cities seem to have a well-organised administrative system.
Answer:

• The Harappan cities had a well organised administrative system to manage industrial production, import-export, the interrelationship between cities managing trading operations and villages around them.
• The town planning, standardization of bricks, weights, seals, shapes, and ornamentation of various objects, confirm the presence of an efficient administrative system.
• Cities like Harappa and Mohenjodaro were perhaps regional capitals.
• Lothal and Kalibangan were important religious centres.
• However, the nature of Harappan polity, whether it was a single state or a federation of small states, is not yet known.

5. Answer the following questions with the help of given points.

Question 1.
Write about the characteristics of Harappan cities with the help of the given points:
(a) Town planning
(b) Social organisation
(c) Administration
(d) Economy
Answer:
(a) Town planning:

• The town planning of Harappan cities was very systematic.
• Houses were of baked bricks, which included bathrooms, toilets, wells.
• Granaries existed, with impressive public monuments.
• The excellent drainage systems, public baths, and independent fortification walls are highlights.
• The grid pattern was used, where streets crossed each other in right angles, and the resulted blocks were used for building houses.
• The English bond masonry method was used with two headers and two stretchers to build a wall, which was especially useful for earthquake-prone areas.

(b) Social organisation:

• Social hierarchy was based on the position of power.
• Classes of skilled artisans and individuals were based on craft specialisation.
• Belief systems existed, with evidence of burials indicating rituals after death.
• Artifacts and architecture also indicate belief systems.

(c) Administration:

• Administrative control existed over the distribution of water and other resources.
• The size of bricks indicates the use of standardisation and ratio.
• Weights, set style of shapes and painted designs of pottery, majestic and non-residential buildings for public administrative offices are also seen.

(d) Economy:

• Harappan civilisation practiced mass production of goods for trade purposes.
• The concentration of factories and residences of artisans in a particular area of the city indicates the purpose of convenience of production, flourishing internal and distant trade, and administrative control over trade transactions.
• Well-shaped, beautiful earthen pots, statues, metal objects of gold, silver, copper, and bronze were made.
• Various types of beads were prepared, indicating a sound economy.

Activity

Collect information and illustrations with the help of the internet about the town planning of the Harappan cities and Chandigarh. Compare them.
Answer:
The town planning of the Harappan Cities:

• The Harappans were the first to build planned cities with a scientific drainage system.
• Their cities were built on a uniform plan.
• The people of Indus valley lived a highly civilized and developed life.
• This highly developed and scientific plan can be seen in the following areas.

Streets:

• The streets were straight and cut each other at right angles
• They were 13 to 34 feet wide and were well lined.
• The streets and roads divided the city into rectangular blocks.
• Lamp posts were provided at regular intervals.
• Dust bins were also provided on the streets which proves the presence of a good municipal administration.

Drainage System:

• The city was provided with an excellent closed drainage system.
• Each house had its own drainage and soak pit which was connected to the public drainage.
• Brick-laid channels were found through every street.
• The drains were covered and had manholes at regular intervals for cleaning and clearing.
• Large brick culverts were constructed on the outskirts of the city to carry excess water.
• The Indus valley civilization had a perfect underground drainage system.

The Great Bath:

• The most striking feature of Mohenjo Daro is the Great Bath.
• It consists of a large quadrangle. In the center, there is a large swimming pool approx. 39 ft long, 23 ft wide, and 8 ft deep.
• This swimming pool had rooms and galleries on all four sides.
• It had a flight of steps at either end and a well in one of the adjoining rooms. The water was discharged by a huge drain.
• The Great Bath had 8ft thick outer walls.

Granaries:

• The largest building in Mohenjo Daro is the granary which is 45.71 m long and 15.23 m wide.
• Granaries have also been found in Harappa and the southern parts of Kalibangan.
• These granaries were used to store grains which were probably collected as revenue or storehouses to be used in emergencies.

Buildings:

• People of the Indus valley civilization built houses and other buildings on the side streets.
• Built terraced houses of burnt bricks.
• Every house had two or more rooms, there were also more than one-storied houses.

The town planning of Chandigarh City:

• Chandigarh, the capital of the northern Indian states of Punjab and Haryana was designed by the Swiss-French modernist architect, Le Corbusier.
• Buildings include the Capitol Complex with its High Court, Secretariat, and Legislative Assembly.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Textbook Solutions

• First Farmers Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• First Cities of India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Chalcolithic Villages in India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Vedic Period Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Janapadas and Republics Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Second Urbanisation in India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• India and Iran (Persia) Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• India During Mauryan Period Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Post Mauryan India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions

Std 11 History Chapter 1 Question Answer First Farmers Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Solutions Chapter 1 First Farmers Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 History Chapter 1 First Farmers Question Answer Maharashtra Board

History Class 11 Chapter 1 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1A. Choose the correct alternative and write the complete sentences.

Question 1.
“Yellow River” is the English translation of the Chinese name ____________
(a) Kemet
(b) Mother
(c) Sorrow
(d) Huang He
Answer:
(d) Huang He

Question 2.
The Australian archaeologist ____________ coined the term ‘Neolithic Revolution’.
(a) Gorden Willey
(b) Gordon Childe
(c) Herodotus
(d) Collingwood
Answer:
(b) Gordon Childe

Question 3.
The neolithic people at Gilgal had systematically planted ____________ trees.
(a) guava
(b) sapodilla
(c) fig
(d) Indian blackberry
Answer:
(c) fig

Question 4.
____________ in the Shirur taluka of Pune district is an important site of the village of Chalcolithic farmers in Maharashtra.
(a) Saradwadi
(b) Ranjangaon
(c) Pabal
(d) Inamgaon
Answer:
(d) Inamgaon

1B. Find the incorrect pair from set ‘B’ and write the correct ones.

Question 1.

Answer:
(2) The valley of Nile – Egypt

2. Complete the concept maps.

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the following statements with reasons.

Question 1.
The camps of Mesolithic people developed into the first settled villages of neolithic people in Mesopotamia.
Answer:

• Mesopotamia is between the two rivers, Tigris and Euphrates.
• The Mesolithic people began to settle in the region (Mesopotamia) for a longer time, due to the availability of ample water.
• As both the rivers flooded annually, fertile soil was deposited on their banks.
• Ample water and fertile soil resulted in camps of Mesolithic people, who developed into the first settled neolithic villages, which grew wheat and barley.

Question 2.
‘’Huang He’ river is considered to be the mother of the Chinese culture.
Answer:

• The yellow silt brought by the ‘’Huang He’ river, earns her the name of “Yellow River” in English.
• The other names ‘River’ and ‘Mother’, indicate her extraordinary place in the Chinese culture.
• The name ‘River’ indicates her importance as a river.
• The Chinese culture evolved here, with wheat, foxtail millet, and rice being grown by neolithic farmers in the villages.

Question 3.
In the latter half of the neolithic age, Pottery-making had become an art that required special skills.
Answer:

• The neolithic pottery, in the beginning, was in monochrome, i.e., single colour with a burnished surface. Pots were polished by rubbing with a wooden or stone tool.
• Some pots had carved designs, using techniques of stamping and applique work.
• Gradually Neolithic people began to decorate their pots with painted designs.
• Thus, in the latter half of the Neolithic age, pottery making had become an art that required special skills.

4. State your opinion.

Question 1.
There were radical changes in the way of human life during the neolithic age.
Answer:

• In the neolithic age, people lived settled lives with permanently occupied dwellings.
• The common storage places of food grains indicated that transactions related to food production were centrally controlled.
• Hierarchical social and family structure and concept of inheritance have their roots in Neolithic times.
• Pottery making along with polished stone tools is an essential characteristic of neolithic culture.
• Beads of various types of siliceous stones and chank shells were made, indicating craft specialization and various classes of skilled artisans.

Question 2.
The Neolithic people invented the wheel and the technology they had developed so far, underwent a revolution.
Answer:

• Neolithic people produced wheel-made pottery.
• Wheel technology made it possible to produce pottery on a large scale.
• The invention of the wheel made it possible to obtain raw material from distant places in lesser time.
• It became easier to send the finished goods to distant markets, where it was in more demand.
• It helped to develop trade and commerce and transport on a greater scale.

5. Observe the map on page 2 of your textbook and answer the following questions based on it.

Question 1.
What is the name of the sea on the African continent?
Answer:
The name of the sea on the African continent is the Mediterranean Sea.

Question 2.
In which continent did Harappan civilization originate?
Answer:
The Harappan civilization originated in the Continent of Asia.

Question 3.
What is the name of the ocean in the south of India?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean is the name of the ocean in the south of India.

6. Write short notes.

Question 1.
Neolithic ‘Jericho’
Answer:

• The Palestinian city of Jericho, on the banks of the River Jordan, is the first neolithic permanent settle’ in 9000 B.C.E.
• It started getting organized into a well-knit society by about 8000 B.C.E.
• The village had a protective wall around it, with a watchtower, giving evidence of an organized society.
• It is proved that cultivation began in Jericho, as discovered at Gilgal a site near Jericho.
• Laboratory analysis has proved that neolithic people had systematically planted fig cuttings,
• This stands to be the first attempt at planned cultivation.

Question 2.
‘Holocene’ epoch
Answer:

• The last glacial period in the history of our planet came to an end about 12000-11000 years ago.
• This was the beginning of a new epoch, known as ‘Holocene’.
• With the beginning of the Holocene, glaciers began to melt, increasing the volume of water in rivers and oceans.
• As a result, the availability of animals and vegetation for food increased.
• The period witnessed the extinction of gigantic mammoth.
• A variety of fishes, small animals like goats, sheep, deer were available for food.

7. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write in detail about the ‘first farmers’ and the beginning of agriculture in India.
Answer:

• Archaeological sites of Neolithic villages, which have been discovered prove that there were well-settled villages in the Indian subcontinent, as early, as 8000 B.C.E.
• Historian scholars generally agree that the Harappan cities evolved from these early villages.
• Barley was the main crop grown by the farmers in these villages, where wheat was grown on a smaller scale.
• The farmers in these villages were the ‘first farmers’ of the Indian Sub-continent. They lived in mud houses and domesticated cattle and goat-sheep.
• The transition from hunter-gatherer’s life to the beginning of cultivation spans through 10000¬8700 B.C.E.
• The beginning of cultivation is also the beginning of the Neolithic age. The period also marked the domestication of animals along with cultivation.
• While wheat and flaxseeds were grown, barley was the main crop in this period.
• Modified composite tools like fishing harpoons, spears, and arrows were made. Blades known as microliths and tools like sickle and scythe were used for harvesting cereals and fruits.

Question 2.
What knowledge was essential for the Neolithic people to make pottery?
Answer:

• The neolithic pottery, in the beginning, was in monochrome (single colour) with a burnished i.e., polished by running with a wooden or stone tool, surface. Some pots had carved designs.
• The techniques of stamping and applique work i.e., pasting wet clay ribbons and making patterns on them were also used.
• Painted designs on pots in the latter half of the neolithic age, made pottery art that required special skills.
• To master the art of pottery-making one needs to possess knowledge of the following things:
  • To know the source of clay of excellent quality.
  • To manage to obtain clay.
  • To knead and prepare the clay for pottery production.
  • To be able to turn the pot to the desired shape.
  • To have artistic skills for decorating the pottery.
  • To know the technique of making pottery at proper temperatures, approximately 850° – 900° Celsius.
• Pottery helps us to know the cultural history, the material richness of the place, where it was found.
• With the help of pottery, we can also know about the contacts of the residents of the place with other cultures.

Question 3.
Write about the trade and transport in the Neolithic age.
Answer:

• In the latter half of the Neolithic age, people had started using beasts of burden for transporting goods.
• Tools like axes, scrapers, and chisels enabled neolithic people to cut trees and work on wood.
• Probably the round-shaped pieces of wooden logs were used as wheels, as they could easily gain momentum.
• The neolithic people invented the wheel and the technology they had developed so far underwent a revolution.
• The Neolithic people began to produce wheel-made pottery. The wheel technology made it possible to obtain the raw material from distant places in much lesser time.
• It became easier to send the finished goods to distant markets where it was more in demand.
• It helped to develop trade and transport on a greater scale.

Question 4.
Write about the beginning of urbanization in the Neolithic age.
Answer:

• After settling down at one place for a long time, a feeling of ownership arose among neolithic people.
• This feeling was focused on their individual dwellings and the piece of land cultivated by them.
• With social organization and administration, the villages expanded.
• Along with it, awareness of collective landholdings and the village boundaries became prominent.
• It was thus felt that the village community had a natural right over the immediate territory around the village periphery.
• This kind of awareness of natural rights over a particular region is known as ‘territoriality’.
• Rules and norms were created to manage the collective resources, water sources, crafts dependent on it, trade and community life, etc. Consequently, rituals and their details gained importance.
• The need of managing and keeping records of trade, rituals, writing, systems, and administrative machinery developed.
• It gave rise to administrative centers. Such administrative centers attract a large population that includes officials, people from various occupations.
• As a result, the periphery of the original settlement kept expanding and cities came into being.
• Thus, began the process of urbanization in the Neolithic age.

Activity (Textbook Page No. 9)

Write in detail about any of the ancient civilizations.
Answer:
Among the ten oldest civilizations in the world, Mesopotamian, Indus Valley, Egyptian and Chinese are well known.
1. The Mesopotamian Civilization:
Mesopotamia is the Greek name of the region between two rivers, Tigris and Euphrates. Meso means the ’middle one’ and Potamos means ’river’. The region between the two rivers is ’Mesopotamia’.

• Name of the Civilization: Mesopotamian civilization
• Period: 3500BC-500BC
• Original Location: Northeast by the Zagros mountains, Southeast by the Arabian Plateau
• Current Location: Iraq, Syria, and Turkey
• Meaning: Land between rivers (ancient Greek)
• Major Highlights:
  • The first civilization in the world.
  • People developed the idea of agriculture and started domesticating animals for both food and farming.

2. The Indus Valley Civilization:

• Name of the Civilization: Indus Valley civilization
• Period: 3300 BC-1900 BC
• Original Location: Around the basin of the Indus river
• Current Location: Northeast Afghanistan to Pakistan and northwest India
• Major Highlights:
  • One of the oldest civilizations in the world.
  • One of the three earliest civilizations along with Ancient Mesopotamia and Egypt.
  • Most widespread covering an area of 1.25million kilometers. Also known as Harappan and Mohenjo-Daro civilization named after the excavation sites where the remains were originally found.
  • A sophisticated and technologically advanced urban culture. This culture was rich in arts and crafts.

3. The Ancient Egyptian Civilization:

• Name of the Civilization: Egyptian civilization
• Period: 3150 BC-30 BC
• Original Location: Banks of the Nile
• Current Location: Egypt
• Major Highlights:
  • Construction of Pyramids
  • One of the oldest and culturally rich civilizations and a majestic civilization on the banks of the River Nile is known for its Pharaohs, Pyramids, and the Sphinx.

4. The Chinese Civilization:

• Name of the Civilization: The Chinese civilization
• Period:1600 BC -1046 BC
• Original Location: Yellow River and Yangtze region
• Current Location: Country of China
• Major Highlights:
• Agriculture in the Neolithic villages of China began around 7000 B.C.E.
• Wheat, foxtail millet, and rice were grown by farmers in these villages.
• The invention of paper and silk.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 History Textbook Solutions

• First Farmers Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• First Cities of India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Chalcolithic Villages in India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Vedic Period Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Janapadas and Republics Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Second Urbanisation in India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• India and Iran (Persia) Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• India During Mauryan Period Class 11 History Textbook Solutions
• Post Mauryan India Class 11 History Textbook Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
Candidates to the Lok Sabha are elected through ……….. .
(a) Territorial constituencies
(b) Religious constituencies
(c) Local bodies
(d) Proportional Representation System
Answer:
(a) Territorial constituencies

Question 2.
The ………….. of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(b) Vice-President

2. Find and write. 

Question 1.
Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as ……………….. .
Answer:
Members of Parliament (MPs)

Question 2.
The responsibility of making laws is with the ……………… .
Answer:
Parliament

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha does not get over at the same time.
2. 1/3rd of the total membership of Rajya Sabha retire after every two years and equal number of new members get elected.
3. Because the limited members of Rajys Sabha retire step by step, it can function continuously.
   Since Rajya Sabha is never dissolved completely it is called a permanent House.

Question 2.
Lok Sabha is known as the first House.
Answer:

1. Lok Sabha is the lower and the first House of the Parliament of India.
2. Lok Sabha is the House of Representatives directly elected by the people. Hence, Lok Sabha is known as the first House.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
How are members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:

1. As per the Constitution, there can be a maximum of 552 members in Lok Sabha.
2. General elections to Lok Sabha are held after every five years and members are directly elected by the people.
3. To ensure equal representation to all sections of the community, some seats are reserved for members belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. In case there are no representation from the Anglo-Indian community, the President can appoint two members from this community to the Lok Sabha.
5. Thus, Lok Sabha is the representative body of the citizens of India.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are :

1. To conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
2. To take care of the rights and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha.
3. To interpret the rules of daily functioning of the House and work accordingly.
4. To maintain the decorum and dignity of the House.

5. Explain the step involved in the lawmaking process.

Question 1.
Parliament :
Answer:

1. The Legislature at the national level is called the Parliament.
2. It consists of the President and two houses, i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Though the President is an inseparable part of the Parliament, he/she cannot participate in the discussions in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
4. The Constitution of India has created the Parliament.

Question 2.
Amendment to the Constitution :
Answer:

1. According to the changing times, certain necessary changes have to be made in some laws. The process of making such changes is called Amendment.
2. Only the Parliament has the right to make such amendments to the Constitution.
3. The Constitution amendment bill is considered to be an important bill.
4. The Parliament discusses why the amendment is required and decides whether to accept it or not.

Question 3.
Members of Parliament :
Answer:

1. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as Members of Parliament (MPs).
2. The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
3. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected from the constituent States and Union Territories.
4. MPs try to resolve the queries and complaints of their constituencies by raising questions in the Parliament.
5. MPs also participate in the process of formulation of laws.
6. The Government allocates funds to MPs to carry out development activities in their constituencies.

Question 4.
Bill of Law:
Answer:

1. At the initial stage of lawmaking process, a rough draft of the law is prepared.
2. This rough draft or outline is known as ‘draft proposal of the law’ or ‘bill of law’.
3. The Bill clearly mentions the objectives and the details of the proposed law.
4. Every bill has to undergo three readings in both the Houses, and then it is put to vote.

Can you find out?

For the purpose of elections, the State is divided into territorial constituencies. The constituent States in India get seats on the basis of their population. For e.g.

• Maharashtra – 48 seats
• Gujarat – 26 seats
• Madhya Pradesh – 29 seats
• Goa – 02 seats
• Uttar Pradesh – 80 seats

Understand It:
(The gist of the conversation held between Mazy, Radhika, Ran veer and others.)

1. Any Indian citizen who has completed 18 years of age is only eligible to vote.
2. An Indian citizens who has completed 25 years of age can contest for Lok Sabha election.
3. A citizen of India can contest for election from any constituency of any State.
4. Citizens of other countries cannot contest for elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
5. Just as there are set criteria for qualifying for election, there are set criteria for disqualification as well.

Rights regarding passing of Bills:

1. Though Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have same set of rights, Lok Sabha has certain rights which are not available for Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills related to finance (Money Bills) and such other bills are first introduced and passed in Lok Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to money bills.
4. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution on the subject in the State List.

Can you tell?

Certain laws which become out-of-date (obsolete) are abolished. Can you give examples of such obsolete laws? For example, Privy purses.

Know this too:

1. Every year, on 1 February the Union Finance Minister presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha. Previously, it was presented on 28 February.
2. The State Legislatures also follow the same procedure of law making as in the Parliament.
3. The bill passed can become a law only after it is signed by the President at the Union level and by the Governor at the State level.

Project:

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Collect information on what are the criteria for their selection.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
…………….. is the upper House of the Parliament.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 2.
The …………… of India has created the Parliament of India.
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Constitution
(d) British Law
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 3.
1/3rd members of total membership of Rajya Sabha, who have completed their tenure of six years, retire after every ……………….. years.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 4.
If ……………….. feels that the Parliament should make a law of the subject in the state list, it can pass a resolution to that effect.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Executive
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Every year in the month of February, the ………….. presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 6.
The President appoints ……………….. distinguished personalities to the Rajya Sabha.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) fifteen
(d) twelve
Answer:
(d) twelve

Find and write:

Question 1.
……………. represent the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker

Question 2.
The bill passed by the State legislature becomes a law after it is signed by the ………….. .
Answer:
Governor

Question 3.
The House that gives representation to 29 States and 7 Union Territories is ………………. .
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Complete the following Concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha :
Answer:

1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. He exercises a control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
3. Maintaining discipline in the House is the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. He also has the responsibility of facilitating discussions in the House by giving members a chance to speak, etc.

Question 2.
Speaker of Lok Sabha :
Answer:

1. The speaker is elected in the very first meeting after the election of Lok Sabha.
2. The members of Lok Sabha elect one member among them as the Speaker.
3. Lok Sabha functions under the guidance and control of the Speaker.
4. It is the responsibility of the speaker to conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
5. The Speaker has to maintain decorum and dignity of the House.
6. Moreover, he has to interpret the rules and work accordingly.

Question 3.
Control over Council of Ministers :
Answer:

1. Council of Ministers are drawn from the Parliament and hence Parliament exercises control over them.
2. The members of Parliament exercise this control through multiple ways.
3. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to see that the Council of Ministers does not disregard the Parliament.
4. In case the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, it has to resign.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:

1. Since Lok Sabha is a House of people’s representatives, elections are held after every five years.
2. Elections to Lok Sabha which are held every five years are known as General elections.
3. When Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of five years and elections are held, such elections are called mid- term elections.
4. When a member resigns or dies suddenly, election held for such a seat is called by-election.

Question 2.
Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The composition of Rajya Sabha is as follows :

1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha is 250 members.
2. Amongst them, 238 members are elected from the constituent states and Union Territories.
3. Remaining twelve members, who are distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social work, are appointed by the President.
4. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected through the system of proportional representation.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of the Parliament.
Answer:
In order to achieve welfare of the people and the objectives of the 8 Constitution, the Parliament has to perform 8 following functions :

1. To formulate new laws and to repeal the outdated laws.
2. To make necessary changes in the existing laws.
3. To amend the Constitution wherever necessary.
4. To keep control over Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
Mention the ways of amending the Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended in following ways :

1. Few provisions in the Indian Constitution can be amended by simple majority.
2. Some provisions require special (2/3rd) majority of the Parliament.
3. Few other provisions can be amended by special majority plus consent from more than half of the constituent states.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Though Lok Sabha is the Lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

1. Since members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people, it represents the people of the nation in the true sense.
2. Money bills related to financial matters are presented in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
3. Since the total membership of Lok Sabha is more than Rajya Sabha, it always gets an upper hand when decisions are taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.

Hence, though Lok Sabha is the lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Answer the following questions in details:

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the law-making process.
Answer:
The Bill undergoes following process in order to be converted into a Law (Act).
1. First reading :

• The minister of the concerned department/ministry or member of the Parliament presents the bill in the House.
• The objectives and the structure of the Bill are mentioned.

2. Second reading :

• The positive and negative points of the bill are discussed.
• The defects and faults in the bill are stressed.
• After removing the defects and the faults, the bill is put to vote.

3. Committee Stage :

• Sometimes, if required, the Bill is sent to the committee of the House.
• The Bill is discussed in the Committee in details.
• The Committee report consisting of instructions and recommendations is sent to the House.
• The Bill is discussed clause by clause and then voting is taken.

4. Third reading :

• The Bill is once again discussed in the House.
• Voting is taken for approving the Bill.

5. Approval of the other House :

• The Bill has to undergo the same procedure even in the other House.
• The Bill is approved by majority.

6. Assent by the President :

• After getting an approval from both the Houses, the Bill is further sent for assent by the President.
• After the final assent and signature of the President, the Bill is converted into Law.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the basis of following points:
1. Number of members
2. Age limit
3. Election
4. Tenure
Answer:

Question 3.
Why, according to you, the Constitution must have granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
1. The President appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are usually experienced and distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social service.

2. Such personalities are very active and totally devoted to their respective fields. Hence, they have no time for contesting the elections.

3. They keep themselves away from election procedures like campaigning, conducting meetings, etc. So their election to the Parliament is not possible.

4. But, to derive benefit from their profound knowledge and experience for making of laws, their presence in the Parliament is essential.
Therefore, I feel that the Constitution has granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha.

Std 11 Geography Chapter 9 Question Answer Disaster Management Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 9 Disaster Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 9 Disaster Management Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 11 Chapter 9 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Identify the correct Alternative.

Question 1.
Which of the following groups shows the correct type of disaster?
Answer:

Answer:
a

Question 2.
The Meteorological Department has given information that a cyclone is likely to make a landfall at Odisha in 2 days. Which of the following group shows the correct sequence of management process?

Answer:
c

Question 3.
Statement A – The cyclonic depression originating in the Bay of Bengal is marching towards Tamil Nadu at a velocity of 350 km/hr.
Statement B – The loss of life was not much but property loss occurred on a large scale.
(a) A indicates a disaster and B indicates a hazard.
(b) A indicates a hazard while B indicates a disaster.
(c) A indicates a disaster but B does not indicate a hazard.
(d) A does not indicate a disaster but B indicates a hazard.
Answer:
(b) A indicates a hazard while B indicates a disaster.

Question 4.
India has been successful in mitigation the effects of the following disaster.
(a) Earthquake
(b) Volcanic eruptions
(c) Floods
(d) Cyclones
Answer:
(c) Floods

2. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Vulnerability
Answer:

1. The geographical conditions and circumstances of people or region that make them susceptible to a disaster is known as vulnerability.
2. People living in certain areas are exposed to particular disasters. Example, in case of a cyclone, people in the coastal areas of India are more likely to be affected than those in the interior.
3. People living in seismically active areas are prone to earthquakes.
4. At times, the social, economic and political conditions may make people more likely to be affected by disasters. Example, poor people are more likely to be affected by disaster.
5. Old people and children can easily become victims of disasters. Densely populated areas are more likely to be affected than sparsely populated areas.
6. If people are more vulnerable, they have to be better prepared, so that the risk of getting affected by the disaster is less.

Question 2.
Disaster
Answer:

1. A hazard becomes disaster when it affects human population, settlement and their activities.
2. When natural events like volcanic eruptions occur in areas inhabited by humans and cause damage, they are termed as disasters.
3. Disaster causes widespread loss of life and property.

Generally man-made disasters can be prevented as they happen due to mistakes or carelessness by humans.
Disasters can be classified into various types depending on their origin as per following:

1. Tectonic Disasters : Earthquakes, Volcanic eruptions, Tsunamis.
2. Geological Disasters : Landslides, Mudslides, Avalanches, etc.
3. Meteorological Disasters : Floods, Cyclones, Storms, Heat Waves, etc.
4. Biological Disasters : Locust attacks, Pest attacks, Epidemics, etc.
5. Anthropogenic or Man-made Disasters: Industrial accidents, Transportation accidents, Nuclear accidents, etc.

Question 3.
Hazard
Answer:

1. Hazards are phenomena that pose a threat to people, structural or economic assets and which may cause a disaster.
2. They could be either naturally occurring in the environment or man-made.
   Example, high rainfall is a hazard as it may cause floods.
3. A hazard becomes a disaster when it affects human population, settlements and their activities. An earthquake or storm occurring in any area in the world is a hazard but when it occurs in inhabited areas it is called disaster.

Question 4.
Man-made Disasters
Answer:

1. Disasters can be natural or man-made.
2. Man-made disasters are also called Anthropogenic disasters. Example, industrial accidents, transportation accidents, nuclear accidents.
3. The natural disasters cannot be prevented but man-made disasters can be prevented as they happen due to mistakes or carelessness by humans.

3. Write in short.

Question 1.
Mitigation for Cyclone
Answer:

1. Any measure taken to minimize the impact of a disaster before it occurs is called mitigation.
2. It is mainly carried out for those disasters which cannot be prevented.
3. Mitigation for cyclones involve all possible steps taken against potential disaster and reduce the losses.
4. With the help of satellites, forecasting of cyclones can help in knowing the timing of their landfall.
5. People can be evacuated from the vulnerable coastal areas.
6. Thus, mitigation helps the people by creating safer communities and reducing loss of life and property of people.

For example, Effective mitigation measures were taken before the arrival of cyclone Fani in India, Due to proper mitigation measures, there was less financial impact of disaster on government agencies.

Question 2.
Preparedness for Floods
Answer:
Preparedness involves measures taken to prepare and reduce the effect of disaster. You can
prepare for flooding in a number of ways:

1. Carry out awareness campaign like warn the people not to come out of the house during flooding.
2. Ask authorities about relocation centres.
3. Hospitals should be ready for the treatment of victims.
4. Prepare an emergency kit.
5. Prepare a household flood plan.
6. Keep a list of emergency telephone numbers on display.
7. Check your insurance policy to see if you are covered for flood damage.
8. Tell people to be ready with medicines, food, water, etc.
9. Strengthen the weak structures so that loss of property and life of people will be less.

Question 3.
Rehabilitation after Earthquakes
Answer:

1. Rehabilitation is the last stage of disaster management.
2. It tries to restore normalcy in the long term.
3. It may take many years efforts.
4. It may include providing housing to the affected people, reconstructions of schools, hospitals, water and gas pipelines, restoring electricity, transport and communication.

4. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the types of disaster according to origin.
Answer:
Disasters can be classified into various types depending on their origin: They can be of the following types:
1. Tectonic Disasters : Earthquakes, Volcanic eruptions, Tsunamis, etc. Example, in 2004, there was one of the deadliest tsunamis in the Indian Ocean. It affected many surrounding countries like India, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Maldives, Indonesia. Nearly 2,30,210 people were killed.

2. Geological Disasters : Landslides, mudslides, avalanches. Example, Malin landslide of 2014 in Maharashtra, on 7th May 2018, landslides occurred due to heavy rainfall along NH-6 connecting Shillong with Assam, Tripura And Mizoram.

3. Meteorological Disasters : Flood, cyclone, storm, heatwave, etc. Example, in 2008, due to heavy rain, Kosi river was flooded and abruptly changed her course,

4. Biological Disasters : Locust attacks, pest attacks, epidemics, such as flu, dengue, cholera, etc. Example, the 2009 swine flu pandemic.

5. Anthropogenic or Man-made: Industrial accidents, transportation accidents, nuclear accidents, etc. There have been 30 industrial accidents in India, killing 75 workers and injuring over hundred others within two months from May 2020 to July 2020.

Question 2.
Explain the effects of disasters with the help of examples.
Answer:
The disasters can bring a lot of immediate and long-term effects on various sectors of a society:

1. Primary effects : They occur as a result of the disaster itself like damage during a flood or collapse of buildings during earthquake. Example, the great Tsunami and earthquake of Indonesia that occurred on 26th December, 2004 or the Malin mudslide of 2014 in Maharashtra.
2. Secondary effects : They occur because a primary effect has caused them. Example, fires ignited, disruption of electrical power and water service as result of earthquakes.
3. Tertiary effects : They are long-term effects that are a result of a primary and secondary Effect. Example, like loss of homes, permanent changes in the position of river channel and adverse effect on tourism in an affected area due to an earthquake, etc.

Question 3.
Write about the preparedness in Disaster Management in India.
Answer:
1. India’s geo-climatic conditions and its high degree of socio-economic vulnerability, makes it one of the most disaster-prone country in the world.

2. After the Tsunami in 2004, approach towards disaster management has drastically changed. Various State Governments were requested to set up a disaster management office.

3. At the Government of India level two institutes were set up in New Delhi – the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) and the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). The aim was to mitigate the damage potential of natural disasters in future.

4. The disaster management authorities have been established at different levels. At the centre level, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) has been established. At state level, State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) has been established, at district level, District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) has been established.

5. The National Crisis Management Committee, also functions at the centre.

6. The nodal ministers are identified for different disaster types of function under the overall guidance of the ministry of Home Affairs (Nodal Ministry for Disaster Management). These ministers interact at different levels within the disaster management framework. Example, for disasters, such as drought, the Ministry for Agriculture is the Nodal Agency.

7. Military forces and para-military forces such as Home Guard, etc., play an important role.

8. Various agencies such as ISRO, NRSC (National Remote Sensing Centre) etc., also play an important role in disaster management.

Question 4.
Explain with example, how will you carry out disaster management in your region or premises?
Answer:
In Mumbai region there is always flooding either due to continuous heavy downpour or due to cyclone. Disaster management can be done in following ways:
Preparedness and mitigation

1. People be made aware of floods through media. People be warned not to come out of the house during floods.
2. People should be told to be ready with food, medicines, water, etc.
3. People can be evacuated from vulnerable areas.
4. Strengthening of existing building be done.
5. Hospitals should be ready for the treatment of affected people.

Disaster response

1. Government and NGOs should supply food, medicines and temporary shelter to affected people.
2. People should be rescued from affected areas.
3. Efforts be made to restore normal condition.

Recovery

1. Giving financial assistance to victims.
2. Restoration of basic services like transport and repair of physical, economic and social damages.

Rehabilitation

1. Houses be provided to the affected people.
2. Rehabilitation of affected farmers and people involved in agriculture and other sectors of economy.
3. It may also include reconstructions of schools, hospitals, water and gas pipelines, restoring electricity, transport and communication.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 9 Disaster Management Intext Questions and Answers

Try this.

Read about the following disasters which have occurred across the world and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 97)
Answer:

Question 1.
Classify these disasters into natural and man-made disasters.
Answer:

Question 2.
Which of these disasters occurred due to climatic conditions?
Answer:
Bhola Cyclone (India and Bangladesh), Cyclone of Odisha, India; Hailstorm in Maharashtra, India; Cyclone Fani in Odisha, India are disasters that occurred due to climatic conditions.

Question 3.
Which of these disasters occurred due to geological causes?
Answer:
Earthquakes (in China, India, Japan, Pakistan) Ruiz Volcanic Eruption (Colombia), Landslide (Varandha Ghats, Maharashtra, India), Tsunami (India, Indonesia, Sri Lanka) occurred due to geological causes.

Question 4.
Can you relate the location of a disaster with its cause?
Answer:

1. Release of gas Methyl Isocyanate during the Bhopal Gas Tragedy in 1984, India, was an Industrial accident caused by human mistake or carelessness.
2. Tsunami that affected India, Indonesia, Sri Lanka was caused by an earthquake that occurred in the sea-bed off the Indonesian shore.

Question 5.
Besides the number of deaths, what other losses might be occurring after the disasters?
Answer:
Breaching of ghat road, damage to coastal road in the Konkan, many standing crops were destroyed.

Question 6.
Comparing the cyclones of 1999 and 2019, can you think of the reasons behind the reduction in the number of deaths?
Answer:
In the two decades between 1999 and 2019, the capacity to cope with disasters, manage them, the ability of the people and organisations has undergone a huge improvement.

Question 7.
Which of these disasters can be predicted in advance?
Answer:
Cyclones and Tsunamis can be predicted in advance.

Question 8.
Of those disasters for which prediction can be made, can the people be evacuated from the area?
Answer:
Cyclones can be predicted in advance and the people can be evacuated in advance.

Question 9.
Why do some people get affected by the disaster in specific regions?
Answer:
Some people get affected by disasters in specific areas.

1. In case of a cyclone, people in the coastal areas of India are more likely to be affected than those in the interior.
2. People living in seismically active regions are prone to earthquakes.
3. The poor, the old people and children are more likely to be affected by disasters in the same region.
4. Densely populated areas are more likely to be affected than sparsely populated areas.
5. Sometimes due to social, economic and political conditions, people are more likely to be affected by disaster in some regions. E.g. poor people are more likely to be affected by disasters.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 99)

If an earthquake occurs with a magnitude of more than 6 in Sahara Desert area which is totally uninhabited by humans and a similar one occurs in Assam, which one would you call a disaster?
Answer:
An earthquake is a hazard but when it occurs in inhabited area, it is called disaster. An earthquake which occurs in Assam can be called a disaster because it is an inhabited area. But an earthquake in Sahara Desert area is not a disaster because it is not inhabited by people.

Can you do it? (Textbook Page No. 99)

Classify the above components of disaster management into pre-disaster and post-disaster.
Answer:

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 100)

Question 1.
In 1988, an earthquake of magnitude 6.9 struck Armenia and took 25,000 lives. On the other hand, an earthquake in 1989 in Californ ia of magnitude 7 took only 63 lives. Can you think of the reason behind this difference?
Answer:
Armenia is densely populated whereas California has a lesser population. Hence, the damage and death caused in Armenia is much higher than that in California.

Question 2.
Why is disaster management called a cycle? See the figure given below. (extbook Page No. 101)

Answer:
The disaster preparedness, mitigation, disaster response, recovery and rehabilitation are the five stages of disaster management which are followed by one after another so it is called disaster management cycle.

Give it a try. (Textbook Page No. 101)

Given below are a list of measures taken for disaster. Write whether they are pre-disaster or post-disaster and structural or non-structural. Also write the name of the disaster for which they are used. Complete the table.

Answer:

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 102)

Question 1.
Who is responsible for looking after disaster management in our country?
Answer:

1. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) with the Prime Minister as the Chairperson heads the Disaster Management in our country.
2. Another institute is National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM).
3. Both are located in Delhi.
4. At the state level, the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) is in charge.
5. There is also the National Crisis Management Committee which also functions at the centre with NDMA and NIDM.
6. Other agencies are Ministry of Agriculture (disasters such as drought); Military forces and para-military forces like Home Guards.
7. ISRO, NRSC (National Remote sensing Centre) also play an important role.

Question 2.
Find out about the role of the military and paramilitary forces in disaster management of India. (Textbook Page No. 103)
Answer:
Military and paramilitary forces evacuate people from the flood-affected areas. They distribute food packets and clothing in the flood-affected areas. They also help in cleaning debris.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

• Earth Movements Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Weathering and Mass Wasting Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Agents of Erosion Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Climatic Regions Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Global Climate Change Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Ocean Resources Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Biomes Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

Std 11 Geography Chapter 8 Question Answer Biomes Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Biomes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 8 Biomes Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 11 Chapter 8 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. (A) Complete the chain.

Question 1.

Answer:

(B) Choose the correct option by identifying the correct correlation in the sentences.

Question 1.
Ecosystem consists of interaction between ………………….. and abiotic factors.
(a) biotic
(b) animals
(c) human beings
(d) plants
Answer:
(a) biotic

Question 2.
The original meaning of savannah is ………………….
(a) land with many trees
(b) extensive perennial grassland
(c) land which is full of trees with much grass
(d) land which is without trees but with much grass
Answer:
(b) extensive perennial grassland

Question 3.
In Africa, tropical evergreen forest is predominantly found in ………………….
(a) Amazon basin
(b) Sahara Desert
(c) Congo basin
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(c) Congo basin

Question 4.
Mediterranean forest is also known as ………………… forests.
(a) hardwood
(b) chaparral
(c) manmade
(d) softwood
Answer:
(b) chaparral

2. (A) Arrange the given statements as per given instructions.

Question 1.
Arrange the following biomes in proper order from Equator to Pole.
(a) Tundra
(b) Tropical Rainforest
(c) Boreal forest
(d) Sahara Desert
Answer:
(b), (d), (c), (a)

2. (B) Identify the incorrect factor.

Question 1.
Trees in the tropical rainforest
(a) Mahogany
(b) Ebony
(c) Pine
(d) Rosewood
Answer:
(c) Pine

Question 2.
Temperate grassland in the world
(a) Prairies – North America
(b) Steppes – Eurasia
(c) Downs – Africa
(d) Pampas – South America
Answer:
(c) Downs – Africa

Question 3.
Major hot deserts in the world are
(a) Gobi – Asia
(b) Kalahari – Africa
(c) Atacama – South America
(d) Arabian – Asia.
Answer:
(a) Gobi – Asia

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The trees in the tropical rainforests are broad-leaved while those in the taiga are coniferous.
Answer:

1. Tropical rainforest biome has high temperature and heavy rainfall almost throughout the year.
2. The trees grow very densely and very little sunlight falls on the ground of the forest.
3. So, plants near the ground have broad leaves to capture as much sunlight as possible.
4. Such leaves can cope in hot, wet tropical climates because they counteract the day-time heat-trapping effect using transpiration.
5. The taiga biome has cold winter with severe snowfall. Therefore, to adapt to this condition:
6. Coniferous trees that grow here have thick bark to protect against the cold.
7. They are tall, cone-shaped, with flexible branches that taper to the ground and due to their waxy leaves the snow does not stay on the trees.
8. The pine cones protect the seeds in winter

Question 2.
Desert biomes have thorny vegetation.
Answer:

1. There is scarcity of rainfall in the desert biomes.
2. Normally plants lose their moisture through their pores which are present on their leaves and stems.
3. Desert plants need to avoid the loss of water through these pores to lock in the minimum levels of moisture that they have.
4. Hence desert plants have leaves which are modified into thorns to control loss of water through transpiration.

Therefore, desert biomes have thorny vegetation.

Question 3.
Lumbering activity has developed in Taiga forests.
Answer:

1. Lumbering is an economic activity involving felling, hauling and logging of timber.
2. It is well developed in the Taiga coniferous forests because the coniferous forests have soft-wooded trees which are easy to fell with modern machines.
3. Softwood has great demand in the international market.
4. The lack of dense undergrowth and creepers help in easy cutting of these trees.
5. The presence of one type of tree over a large extent, makes commercial lumbering activity more economical.

Hence, lumbering activity has developed in Taiga forests.

Question 4.
Mediterranean biome has proved to be a catalyst to the development of cinema industry.
Answer:

1. The Mediterranean biome has hot or warm and dry summers and mild or cool and wet winters.
2. Clear skies, bright sunshine, natural beauty, pleasant climate and flowers have contributed to the development of cinema industry.
3. Due to clear sky and fine weather outdoor shooting is possible throughout the year.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
Agriculture in temperate grassland biome.
Answer:

1. The climate of the Temperate Grassland biome is favourable for agriculture and animal rearing.
2. In grassland regions such as the Prairies, Steppes, Downs, Pampas, Velds, etc., extensive type of agriculture has developed.
3. Crops like maize, wheat are produced on a large scale.
4. The fields extend to hundreds of hectares and therefore, advanced machines are used for agriculture.
5. As these areas have abundant yields, the countries lying in this biome are famous as exporters.
6. The extent of commercial agriculture is increasing in this area.

Question 2.
Human Life in Tundra biome.
Answer:

1. Human settlements are very sparse because of very cold climate.
2. Lapps, Samoyeds and Eskimos live in adverse climate.
3. Life of Eskimos has changed after they come into contact with westernisers.
4. As they have started getting advanced instruments, their life and fishing methods have changed. Thus, they have started exploitation of fish at a higher speed in this biome.
5. Due to increased transportation and means of communication there is lot of development in this region. There is improvement in the standard of living of people.
6. Due to development there is adverse effect on protected factors of this biome.

Question 3.
Animal adaptation in grasslands.
Answer:

1. The Tropical Grasslands (Savannah) extend between 10° to 20° N and S.
2. The abundance of grass cover and its perennial nature have made savannah biomes rich in herbivore animals.
3. Seasonal change in colour of grass has provided natural shelter for animals.
4. These grassland supports large number of hoofed animals.
5. A variety of herbivore animals of different sizes from rabbits to elephants are found here.
6. With rich herbivore density, these grasslands also support a number of carnivorous animals.
7. In temperate grassland region soft and juicy grass grows, therefore animal life is rich and varied.
8. Herbivore animals like zebras, wolves, deer, gazelles and wild horses are found. Coyote is a carnivore.

Question 4.
Marine Biomes.
Answer:
The biomes we find in ocean/sea water are called marine biome. Approximately 70% of the earth’s surface is covered by oceans. There are three layers in Marine biomes:
(i) Euphotic Layer:

1. It is the top layer of the Marine biome.
2. The sunlight reaches there.
3. It is around 200 m deep.
4. It is home to many fishes, sea turtles jellyfish, seals, coral, zooplankton and mangroves.

(ii) Disphotic Layer:

1. It is the middle layer.
2. Some light penetrates to the bottom part.
3. It is about 1000 m deep from mean sea level.
4. Except few phytoplankton sunk from upper layer, plants are not found here
5. In this layer animals are adapted to darkness, cold water and high pressure.
6. Swordfish, eels, sea dragon, cattle fish, squid and wolfish are found.

(iii) Aphotic layer:

1. It is the deepest layer.
2. It ranges from 1000 m to 4000 m depth.
3. No light penetrates here, therefore there is no living plant life in this layer.
4. Bioluminescent jellyfish, angler fish, hatchet fish, elusive giant squid, etc., are found in this layer.
5. Beyond this layer lies the darkest and the deepest zone extending up to the sea floor. Here animals are adapted to survive on detritus under even greatest pressure.

5. Differentiate between

Question 1.
Biome and Ecosystem.
Answer:

Question 2.
Tropical and Temperate Grassland Biome.
Answer:

Question 3.
Human activities in Tropical Evergreen and Monsoon Regions.
Answer:

6. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account of the Desert Biome with the help of the following points
(i) Location
(ii) Plant life
(iii) Animal life
(iv) Human life
Answer:
(i) Location: The Tropical Desert biome has the latitudinal extent of 20° to 30° N and S.
(ii) Plant Life : The vegetal life is dispersed. It includes date palms, and thorny trees such as khejari, acacia, and bushes like century plant, cactus, etc. There is hardly any vegetal cover due to the dry climatic conditions.
Characteristics of forests:

1. Thick leaves with capacity to store water.
2. Thorny nature reduces speed of evaporation, safety from animals.
3. Trunk like leaves carry out photosynthesis.

(iii) Animal life:

1. As the vegetation is sparse, bio-diversity is also limited.
2. There are relatively few large animals in the desert.
3. The animals are small and tend to burrow, or stay in hideaways till dusk to avoid the heat. They are adapted to survive in hot climate with very little water.
4. They are mainly small carnivores, camels, many species of snakes, types of lizards, desert turtles, rats, mongoose along with goats, sheep, donkeys, etc.

Birds : Ostriches, various raptors; guinea fowl and bustards; desert eagle owls and barn owls; sand larks and pale crag martins; and brown-necked and fan-tailed ravens.
Insects : House flies, beetles, moths, types of termites, etc.

(iv) Human life:

1. The extreme temperatures make human life very difficult here.
2. Depending on the availability of water, animal husbandry or agriculture might be followed.
3. Human settlements are found only near oases, in a dispersed pattern. Nomadic life is found in some areas. In the earlier times, Bedouin tribes used to trade by traveling on camels.

Question 2.
Explain the reasons behind deforestation in your area. What measures will you suggest to minimize deforestation?
Answer:
I am a resident of Goregaon, very close to the Aarey Colony which was formerly called the Aarey Milk Colony due to the presence of the Aarey Dairy that provided milk to the City of Mumbai. It was once known as the Lungs of Mumbai. It also housed a variety of flora and fauna. But soon deforestation began in phases. First came residential areas, followed by the Film City and now it is the metro car shed. In spite of protests from several citizen’s groups, NGOs and celebrities, more than 2000 trees were felled overnight, forcing the Supreme Court to intervene.

I would suggest the government to shift the metro car shed to some other location and immediately start planting saplings to replace the destroyed trees.

11th Geography Digest Chapter 8 Biomes Intext Questions and Answers

Let us recall.

Look at the fig. 8.1. Answer the following questions (Textbook Page No. 84)

Question 1.
What does the figure show?
Answer:
The figure shows the vegetation and animal life from equator to polar areas.

Question 2.
What do the numbers on the figure represent?
Answer:
The numbers in the figure represent latitudes.

Question 3.
How does the latitude influence vegetation?
Answer:
Vegetation in any area depend upon the elements of climate such as temperature, rainfall, humidity, soil condition and amount of insolation received. These conditions vary with latitude. For example, in the lower latitudes that is near the equator there is hot and wet climate, so dense evergreen forests grow. But in higher latitudes due to extreme cold climate and heavy snowfall, there are hardly trees but mosses and lichen grow.
Following vegetation grows in different latitudes:
0° to 10° N and S – Dense, evergreen, hardwood forest
5° to 30° N and S – Tropical deciduous forest
10° to 20° N and S – Tropical grasslands
20° to 30° N and S – Tropical Desert.
30° to 40° N and S – Mediterranean (Evergreen and Deciduous Forest)
40° to 50° N and S – Temperate Deciduous Forest.
40° to 55° N and S – Temperate Grasslands.
50° to 55° N – Taiga (Coniferous Forests)
65° to 90° N – Tundra

Question 4.
How does Latitude influence the fauna of a place?
Answer:
As the vegetation changes with latitude, depending upon vegetation and climate, fauna also changes as per following.

1. 0° to 10° N and S – Monkeys, birds from the vulture family, hornbills, parrots, various species of insects, butterflies and reptiles.
2. 5° to 30° N and S – Microscopic organisms to large elephants, hippopotamus, rhinos, tiger, lion, gaur, monkeys, etc.

Birds : Coucal, hornbills, Asian koel, peacock, vultures, falcon, pigeons, sparrows, etc.
Insects : Ants, butterflies, insects and worms are in plenty.

10° to 20° N and S – Rich in herbivore animals, ranging from rabbits to elephants. Main species – antelopes, buffalo, zebra, rhinos, wild beasts, giraffes, warthogs, etc. The carnivore like cats, lions, leopards, cheetah, wild dogs, jackals, hyenas, etc.
Birds : Vulture, great Indian bustards, twitter and ostriches.

20° to 30° N and S – Mainly carnivores, camels, rats, mongoose, desert turtles, many species of snakes, types of lizards, goats, sheep, donkeys, etc.
Insects : Houseflies, beetles, moths, types of termites, etc.

30° to 40° N and S – Rabbits, deer, goats, pigs, horses, brown bears, fox, berry deer, wild cats, goats and sheep.
Birds : Vultures, eagles.
Alligators, reptiles.
Insects : Various types of insects and honeybees.

40° to 50° N and S – Animals having thick and soft fur like brown bears, red fox, sable, mink, etc. are found.
Birds : Peregrine, falcon, woodpecker, cardinals.
Insects : Many types of insects.

40° to 55° N and S – Rich and varied animal life. Herbivores include gazelles, zebras, wild horses wolves, deer, rabbits, coyote is a carnivore. Ostriches are found in veld grasslands. Kangaroos and dingoes are found in the Downs of Australia.

50° to 55° N – The animals have thick hides and a thick layer of fats and are hairy.
E.g., reindeer, grizzly bears, elk, caribou, etc., are herbivores. Fox mountain lions, puma and panthers are the carnivores.

65° N to 90° N – Very scarce animal life. Thick fur and layer of fats in their body helps them to face very cold climate. Herbivores such as musk ox, bears, reindeer, caribou, lemming, rabbits along with carnivores like Arctic fox, dogs, jackals are found.

Birds : Ptarmigan, ravens, snowy owls and redpolls are found. Majority are migrants. Seals, walruses are found in coastal areas.

Question 5.
Which latitude will have more biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is very high in 0° to 10° N and S and 5° to 30° N and S.

Question 2.
Make a list of products found in your home which have come from this biome. (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
This biome is Tropical Deciduous biome. The wood obtained from the teak tree is used for making furniture. Bamboo is used during painting of buildings. Bamboo products like mats, basket is used in our daily life. We use sandalwood soap, agarbatti as well as paste during pujas and rosewood paste for healing of wounds. We also find in our homes many ayurvedic medicines made from plants of these forests.

Think about it.

Question 1.
Besides latitudes, what other conditions influence the biome? (Textbook Page No. 84)
Answer:
Besides latitudes climate, trophic level, human activities development of agriculture, industries, transportation, tourism etc., also influence the biome.

Question 2.
In which region in India, is desertification occurring? (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
Desertification is occurring in Rajasthan, Delhi, Goa, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Nagaland, Tripura and Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Why is this type of biome not found in Southern Hemisphere? (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
Taiga biome is from 50° to 55° latitude. There is no landmass from 50° to 55° in southern hemisphere, therefore this type of biome is not found in southern hemisphere.

Question 4.
Which activities of human life are affected most by the cold climate? (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
The very cold climate results in sparse human settlements.
It affects human health, the soil and agriculture.
Very cold climate causes thick fog that affects aviation, road, railway and water transport.

Try this.

Question 1.
Find out more differences between an ecosystem and a biome. You can use the following points: scale of area occupied, types, flow of nutrients and energy, examples, etc. (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 86)
Answer:
This is Tropical Rainforest biome. The countries in this biome are Brazil, Congo, Ecuador; Indonesia, Peru, Columbia, Bolivia, Gabon, Guyana, India, Laos, Malaysia, Cameroon, Central African Republic, Mexico, Myanmar, Papua New Guinea, Suriname and Venezuela.

Question 3.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
Central India, Bangladesh, Burma, Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, southern part of China and northern part of Australia.

Question 4.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 88)
Answer:
This is Savannah Grassland biome
Africa : Kenya, Zimbabwe, Botswana, South Africa and Namibia.
Australia, Central America : Belize and Honduras.
South America : Venezuela and Columbia, Southern Asia.

Question 5.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
This is tropical desert biome. Sahara Desert in North Africa, the Australian Desert of Australia, the Arabian Desert and Syrian Desert in Western Asia, the Kalahari Desert in Southern Africa, Sonoran Desert in the U.S. and Mexico, Mojave Desert in the U.S., Thar Desert in India and Pakistan, Dasht-e-Margo and Registan Desert in Afghanistan and Dasht-e-Kavir and Dasht-e Lut in Iran.

Question 6.
Write the names of major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:
This is Mediterranean biome. The major countries are Portugal, Spain, southern France, Italy, Yugoslavia, Turkey, Syria, Israel, Lebanon. Northern Africa, central Chile, California in USA, south west Africa and south west Australia.

Question 7.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 91)
Answer:
This biome is Temperate Deciduous biome. The major countries are the eastern parts of the United States and Canada, most of Europe and parts of China and Japan.

Read the following news item. (Textbook Page No. 91)

A grizzly bear that killed a mother and her baby in Yukon last fall was emaciated and desperately pursuing unusual food sources at the time of the attack, according to an investigation by the territory’s government. Valerie Theoret, 37, and her 10-month-old daughter, Adele Roesholt, died on Nov. 26, 2018, when a grizzly bear attacked them near their trapping cabin in the remote Einarson Lake area northeast of the village of Mayo. Gordon Hitchcock, chief conservation officer for the Government of Yukon, said the 18-year-old male grizzly bear was emaciated to the point that it was incapable of hibernation.

Additionally, it was in significant and chronic pain from having eaten a porcupine which bears do not typically eat – and had quills penetrating its digestive system from mouth to stomach, “This bear had started turning to uncommon food sources,” said Mr. Hitchcock, who presented findings of a necropsy in Whitehorse on Wednesday. -CNN News

Question 1.
Why do such things occur?
Answer:
Such things occur because man has done encroachment in the habitats of animals. Animals are not getting sufficient food, so they are attacking on human beings.

Question 2.
Give examples of such similar incidents in Maharashtra wherein some animal has attacked people in particular region.
Answer:
In Junnar taluka in Pune district, leopard attacked and killed one small girl and goat.

Question 1.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
The biome is temperate grassland region. The major countries are Prairies in USA and Canada, Steppes in Russia, Downs in Australia, Pampas in Argentina, Veld in south Africa.

Question 2.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
This is the Taiga biome. The major countries are parts North America, Eurasia, especially Canada and Russia respectively. In Northern Europe, the countries are Finland, Norway and Sweden and spans across Alaska and Scandinavia.

Question 3.
Write the names of the major countries that lie in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
This is Tundra biome. The major countries in this Biome are parts of the U.S., State of Alaska and the countries of Canada, Greenland, Iceland, Norway and Russia.

Question 4.
Write the names of the major regions in this biome. (Textbook Page No. 94)
Answer:
This biome is mountain or highland region. The Himalayas in Asia, the Scottish Highlands, the Scandinavian Mountains, American Cordillera in North and South Americas, the Rift mountains of Africa, Carpathian and Pyrenees Mountains in Europe and the Caucasus Mountains.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
A person staying in Sahara Desert and a person staying in Arabian Desert belong to the same biome or ecosystem?
Answer:
Yes, the person staying in Sahara Desert and a person staying in Arabian desert belong to the same biome or ecosystem, since climatic conditions are same. But there may be slight variation depending upon the impact of human activities.

Question 2.
(i) The tropical deserts are mainly found in which direction of the continents? What could be the reason behind their formation there?
(ii) In which continent is desert not found? (Textbook Page No. 90)
Answer:
(i) Most of the world’s tropical deserts are located in the western margins of continents in the subtropics because the prevailing winds in the tropics are Tropical Easterly Winds. The Tropical Easterly Winds become dry by the time they reach the western margins of the continents and so they bring no rainfall.

(ii) There is no continent without a desert region. Despite its thick ice, Antarctica is classified as a desert because very little moisture falls from the sky.

Question 3.
In India, where do you find such fruits? What are the reasons for them being found here? (Textbook Page No. 93)
Answer:
The fruits like raspberry, strawberry, blueberry, gooseberry, salmonberry are found in the twin hill towns of Panchgani and Mahabaleshwar because of the cool climate in the summers.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 86)

Question 1.
Find out the regions in this biome where plantation agriculture has developed.
Answer:
The regions where plantation agriculture is developed are tea plantations in NE India and Indonesia, coffee, cocoa and rubber plantations in Brazil, sugarcane plantations in Java island, rubber plantations in Malaysia and Indonesia, cocoa and coffee plantations in Africa.

Question 2.
Look for the names of the tribes dependent on this biome in India including Maharashtra along with their habitats and show them on a map of India. (Textbook Page No. 87)
Answer:
Major Tribes in India

Question 3.
Obtain information regarding the tribes inhabiting this biome. Find out about their habitat, lifestyle, conventional ways of living with nature, cultural heritage, etc. (Textbook Page No. 89)
Answer:
This Biome is the Savannah Grassland biome. The Masai is a Nilotic ethnic group.

1. Habitat : Northern, Central and Southern Kenya and Northern Tanzania, near the game parks of the African Great Lakes.
2. Lifestyle : Traditionally semi-nomadic lifestyle. They speak ‘Maa’ language. The religions followed are Maasai, Christianity, Islam. They are famous for their fearsome reputation as warriors and cattle-rustlers.
3. Conventional ways of living with nature : They are basically cattle-rearers, depending on the Savannah grassland for grazing of cattle.
4. Cultural Heritage : It is strongly patriarchal in nature. Masai worship a single deity called ‘Enkai’ or ‘Engai’. They are known for their intricate jewellery for decades.

Question 4.
Find out the names of countries who produce and export wheat and maize. (Textbook Page No. 92)
Answer:
The countries which produce and export wheat are Canada, USA, European union, Russian federation. The countries which produce and export maize are USA, Argentina, Brazil, Russian federation, and Ukraine.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

• Earth Movements Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Weathering and Mass Wasting Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Agents of Erosion Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Climatic Regions Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Global Climate Change Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Ocean Resources Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Biomes Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

Std 11 Geography Chapter 7 Question Answer Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 11 Chapter 7 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

Answer:

2. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Salinity is less in the Bay of Bengal than in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Salinity is less in the Bay of Bengal than in the Indian Ocean because-

1. The salinity of ocean water is a measure of the concentration of dissolved salts, which are mostly sodium chloride, but also include salts containing magnesium, sulphur, calcium and potassium. It is expressed as parts per thousand (%).
2. The factors that affect the salinity of ocean water are rate of evaporation and quantitative supply of fresh water (primarily from rainfall and stream discharge) is being added to the ocean.
3. The average salinity of sea water is 35% But salinity in the Bay of Bengal is as low as 31%.
4. This is because huge discharge from the Ganga river system, the Peninsular River (Godavari, Krishna, etc.) and Irrawaddy enter the Bay of Bengal, thereby reducing its salinity.

Question 2.
The eastern coastal part of the Indian Ocean is seismically active.
Answer:
The eastern coastal part of the Indian Ocean is seismically active because-

1. The Andaman Sea is seismically active; it is a part of the Indian Ocean.
2. The Andaman sea is a part of the Indian Ocean. It is seismically active.
3. It is one of the most active plate margins in the world that generates frequent earthquakes.
4. Most of the islands in the eastern part of the Arabian Sea are volcanic islands because they are associated with the converging plate boundary. These islands are peaks of submerged mountains.
5. The Krakatau volcanic eruption has caused large tsunamis in the past.
6. Tsunamis have been generated due to earthquakes / volcanic eruption in the Indian region.

Question 3.
Gyre develops in Southern Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Gyre develops in Southern Indian Ocean because-

1. Gyre is a circular pattern of ocean currents. It is influenced by the shape of the coastline its extent and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system prevailing in the region.
2. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to the development of a large gyre.
3. The two major arms of this gyre are:
4. The south equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies.
5. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies.
6. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian currents. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.

Question 4.
Temperatures are high in pre-monsoon season in the equatorial region in northern Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. During the pre-monsoon season, when the summer solstice (June 21st) is approaching, the temperatures generally increase, as the sun shines vertically on 23/4 North, Tropic of Cancer.
2. They are generally much higher in the southern portion closer to the equator. This is the northern portion of the Indian Ocean.
3. Therefore, temperatures are high in pre-monsoon season in equatorial region in northern Indian Ocean.

3. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
The width of continental shelf in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea
Answer:
The continental shelf in the Bay of Bengal is narrow but the continental shelf in the Arabian sea is very wide.

The river which bring sediments to the continental shelf of the Arabian Sea are short and swift. Therefore, the sediments in the river are deposited in the Continental shelf. The rivers which bring sediments to the continental shelf of the Bay of Bengal are long, sluggish and voluminous, therefore sediments are deposited in deltas and not in the continental shelf.

There are a greater number of estuaries along the coastline of Arabian sea. There are a greater number of deltas along the coastline of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
Mineral resources in the Indian Ocean
Answer:
There are large reserves of hydrocarbons being tapped in the offshore areas of Saudi Arabia, Iran, India and Western Australia. About 40% of the world’s offshore oil production comes from the Indian Ocean.

The beach sands along the coastline of the Arabian Sea is very rich in valuable minerals like uranium, thorium, radium, etc. Beach sands, rich in heavy minerals and offshore deposits are activity exploited by bordering countries particularly India, South Africa, Indonesia and Sri Lanka.

The Abyssal plains of Indian ocean have deposits of polymetallic nodules. These nodules are the source of nickel, copper, manganese and cobalt.

Question 3.
Ocean Currents in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The system of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean is highly influenced by shape of its coastline, its extent, and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system that prevails in the region.
2. It has the equatorial currents but the north equatorial current is weaker than the south equatorial current.
3. North of the equator, the currents are influenced by the seasonally reversing monsoon wind system.
4. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to development of a large gyre.
5. South equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies.
6. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies.
7. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian current. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.
8. In the northern portion of the Indian Ocean, seasonal Monsoonal winds drive the currents. Mostly, these currents follow along the coastlines.
9. During summer, they follow in the clockwise direction and during winter, their direction shows a complete reversal and they flow in the anticlockwise direction.

Question 4.
Oil and natural gas in the Indian Ocean
Answer:

1. The oil and natural gas zone are spread across an area of 83,419 sq. km. in the Indian Ocean.
2. Large reserves of hydrocarbons are being tapped in the offshore areas of Saudi Arabia, Iran, India and Western Australia.
3. An estimated 40% of the world’s offshore oil production comes from the Indian Ocean.
4. Offshore deposits of oil and natural gas are actively exploited by bordering countries, particularly India, South Africa, Indonesia and Sri Lanka.

4. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Outline the importance of the Indian Ocean with respect to trade and transport routes.
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean Region connects three continents namely Asia, Africa and Australia.
2. It supports some of Asia’s biggest economies.
3. This shows the economic and political significance that the Indian Ocean has.
4. It contains three busiest straits namely Hormuz, Malacca and Bad-el-Mandeb.
5. Majority of crude oil exported by Gulf Countries passes through this route via Strait of Hormuz which links the Persian Gulf with the Arabian Sea.
6. Hence, the Indian Ocean serves as an important route for crude oil supplies worldwide.
7. The Indian Ocean provides major sea routes connecting the Middle East, Africa and East Asia with Europe and the Americas.
8. It carries a particularly heavy traffic of petroleum and petroleum products from the oil fields of the Persian Gulf and Indonesia.

Question 2.
Evaluate the strategic location of India with respect to its location in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. India occupies a central and strategic location in the Indian Ocean area.
2. India’s national and economic interests are inseparably linked up with the Indian Ocean.
3. The trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West and the countries of East Asia provide a strategic location to India.
4. The Deccan Peninsula protrudes into the Indian Ocean, help India establish a close contact with West Asia, Africa and Europe from the western coast and with south east and East Asia on the eastern coast.
5. India has a long coastline and on the Indian Ocean which becomes favourable for trading ports and commerce hubs for other countries.
6. The coastal regions of India are famous for agriculture, trade and industrial centres, tourist centres, fishing and salt-making. They provide important hinterlands for the ports.

Question 3.
Explain the Indian ocean with respect to following aspects:
(a) Ocean Trenches
(b) Abyssal Plains
(c) ridges
(d) Ocean Currents
Answer:
(a) Ocean Trenches

1. Trenches are the deepest portions in the oceans.
2. There are very few deeps and trenches in the Indian Ocean as compared to other oceans.
3. Most trenches of the Indian Ocean are located towards its eastern boundary.
4. These are located along the converging boundaries of the Indo-Australian Plate and the Pacific Plate.
5. The trenches in Indian Ocean are Java or Sunda Trench (7,450m deep) and Ob Trench (6,875m deep).
6. This area is seismically active because of plate movements.

(b) Abyssal Plains:

1. Beyond the continental slope, lie the abyssal plains. They have a gentle slope and cover about 66 percent of the oceanic floor area.
2. Abyssal plains of the ocean have deposits of polymetallic nodules. These nodules are a source of nickel, copper, manganese and cobalt.
3. India has been allotted an area of 2 million square kilometres for research and excavation of polymetallic nodules by the International Seabed Authority in the Indian Ocean.

(c) Ridges:

1. Mid Oceanic ridges are submerged mountain ranges that separate deep portions of the sea (ocean) floor.
2. The Indian Ocean also Has a Mid Oceanic ridge called as a Mid Indian Oceanic ridge.
3. It originates from the Gulf of Eden near the Peninsula of Somalia.
4. Further it extends toward the south and on the East side of Madagascar, it gets divided into two branches. Among these, one branch diverts towards southwest and extends up to Prince Edward Island. It is known as Southwest Indian Ocean ridge.
5. The second branch extends southeast up to Amsterdam and St. Paul Island.
6. Mid Indian Oceanic Ridge has many parallel ridges. This ridge is not continuous due to many fracture zones in it, such as Owen Fracture Zone, Amsterdam Fracture Zone, etc.

(d) Ocean Currents:

1. The pattern of currents in the Indian Ocean differs from those in Pacific or Atlantic Oceans.
2. The monsoon wind system has an effect on the currents in northern Indian Ocean.
3. The shape of the coastline of the Indian Ocean, its extent, and the peculiar arrangement of the wind system that prevails in the region also influence the system of the ocean currents in the Indian Ocean.
4. It has Equatorial Currents but the north equatorial current is weaker than the south equatorial current.
5. North of the equator the currents are influenced by the seasonally reversing monsoon wind system.
6. The current system in the southern part of the Indian Ocean leads to the development of a large gyre.
7. South equatorial current flowing east to west direction under the influence of easterlies. The circulation is completed in the west by Mozambique – Agulhas currents.
8. The second arm is ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east under the influence of westerlies and the circulation is completed in the east by West Australian current. It is considered to be one of the major gyres on global scale.
9. In the northern portion of the Indian Ocean seasonal monsoonal winds drive the current. During summer, they follow clockwise direction and during winter, their direction shows a complete reversal and they flow in anticlockwise direction.

5. On an outline map of the world, locate the following and make an index:

1. Sunda Trench
2. Diego Garcia
3. SW Monsoon
4. Agulhas Current
5. West Australian Current
6. Ninety East ridge
7. Strait of Holmuz
8. Chabahar port
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 7 Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Intext Questions and Answers

Make friends with maps! (Textbook Page No. 75)

Look at the figure 7.1 and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What does this map show?
Answer:
This map shows the relief of the Indian Ocean floor.

Question 2.
Which continents and sub-continents are visible in this map?
Answer:
The continents of Africa, Antarctica, Australia and the Indian sub-continent are visible in the map.

Question 3.
What lies between the continents?
Answer:
The Indian Ocean and the Southern Ocean lie between the continents.

Question 4.
Chagos Plateau, Sunda Trench, Central Mountain range are a part of what?
Answer:
The Chagos plateau is a part of Lakshadweep Plateau.
The Sunda Trench is a part of the Java Trench located in the Indian Ocean near Sumatra, formed where Australian – Capricorn Plates subduct under a part of the Eurasian Plate. The central Mountain Range is a part of Mid Indian Oceanic ridge.

Question 5.
What are the conclusions you can draw after looking at the map?
Answer:

1. The relief of the ocean floor of the Indian Ocean shows many features.
2. The Indian Ocean lies mostly in the southern hemisphere.
3. It is surrounded by the Continent of Africa in the northwest, the Indian sub-continent in the north and north-east, the continent of Australia in the east and the Southern Ocean and the Continent of Antarctica in the south.
4. The ocean floor has features like the Agulhas plateau, the Madagascar plateau, Chagos and Lakshadweep plateau, and the Kerguelen plateau.
5. It also has ridges like the Southwest Indian Ocean ridge, the Southeast Indian Ocean ridge and the Mid Indian Ocean ridge.
6. The other feature are basins like the Agulhas – Natal basin, the Mauritius basin, the Mascarene basin, the Mid-Indian basin, the Ganga basin and the West Australian basin.
7. The Trenches include Sunda trench.
8. The Island includes Amsterdam and St. Paul Island and Prince Edward Island.

Find Out! (Textbook Page No. 77)

Why Ninety East ridge name has been given to this ridge?
Answer:

1. This land form is named as the Ninety East ridge because it is located near the spot where the parallel of latitude strikes along the 90th Meridian at the centre of the eastern hemisphere.
2. It is one of the important relief features of the Indian Ocean because it divides the Indian Ocean into west and east Indian Ocean.

Try This. (Textbook Page No. 78)

Given below are names of some ocean basins in the Indian Ocean. Identify these in figure 7.1. Write a note on their locations, their separators and the rivers entering into them. Rank these according to their size on the basis of your perception.

(1) Oman basin (2) Arabian basin (3) Somali basin (4) Mauritius basin (5) Mascarene basin (6) Agulhas-Natal basin (7) West Australian basin (8) Mid-Indian basin (9) Ganga basin
Answer:

Can you do it?

1. Study maps given in the figure 7.2 carefully. These maps are showing the portion of Indian Ocean lying north of equator. Maps in the figure depict the temperature conditions in three seasons: (a) pre-SW monsoon (b) NE monsoon (c) during SW monsoon. Answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 78)

Question 1.
Why are isotherms not drawn on the continental part?
Answer:
The isotherms are not drawn on the continental part because there is summer season and the temperature is high almost everywhere. Since there is no variation in temperature, isotherms are not drawn.

Question 2.
Why is the temperature low in Arabian Sea than in Bay of Bengal?
Answer:
The temperature is low in Arabian Sea than in Bay of Bengal due to following reasons-

1. The salinity of the Arabian Sea is high so it lowers the temperature but the salinity of Bay of Bengal is Low.
2. The Arabian Sea is open and broad sea compared to Bay of Bengal which is narrow and enclosed by landmasses. There is a lot of movement of ocean water in the Arabian Sea as compared to the Bay of Bengal.

Question 3.
Why is the temperature higher in southern portion of Indian Ocean during pre-SW monsoon?
Answer:
The southern portion of the Indian Ocean is closer to the equator compared to the northern portion of the Arabian Sea. During pre-SW monsoon period, Uttarayan is observed therefore the temperature is high.

2. The given maps are depicting the salinity distribution of northern Indian Ocean. Study the maps (a) NE monsoon (b) pre-SW monsoon (c) SW monsoon given in the figure 7.3 carefully and answer the following questions. (Textbook Page No. 79)

Question 1.
Why does the Arabian Sea record higher salinity than the Bay of Bengal?
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea experiences higher rate of evaporation due to low air humidity, high temperature and lower rainfall.
2. The number of rivers adding fresh water to the Arabian Sea are fewer in number as compared to the number of long rivers that add fresh water into the Bay of Bengal.
3. Due to huge discharge from Ganga system and also from long rivers of peninsular India like Krishna. Mahanadi. Cauvery (Kaveri), etc., salinity is low.

This leads to higher salinity in the Arabian Sea as compared to the salinity of the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
What is the minimum salinity in the Bay of Bengal? In Which seasons do we find it?
Answer:
The minimum salinity in the Bay of Bengal is 30 PSU (Practical Salinity Unit). This occurs in the late autumn and early winter months (November to January) when the East India Coastal Current flows southwards carrying low salinity water.

Question 3.
Account for the high salinity in the Arabian Sea throughout the year?
Answer:

1. The Arabian Sea experiences higher rate of evaporation due to low air humidity, high temperature and lower rainfall.
2. The number of rivers adding fresh water to the Arabian Sea are fewer in number as compared to the number of long rivers that add fresh water into the Bay of Bengal.
3. The rivers joining the Arabian Sea are short and swift so their volume of water is less. As a result, supply of fresh water is less.

This leads to higher salinity in the Arabian Sea as compared to the salinity of the Bay of Bengal.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 80)

See the maps in figure 7.4 A and B. They show the pattern of ocean currents in the Indian Ocean during different seasons. Study the maps carefully and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the season each map is representing and name them accordingly.
Answer:

1. Map A shows the summer season condition because in the northern portion of Indian Ocean the Ocean Currents (South Equator Current) flow along the coastlines and flow in the clockwise direction.
2. Map B shows the winter season condition because in the northern portion of Indian Ocean, the Ocean Currents flow in a complete reverse direction that is in the anticlockwise direction.

Question 2.
What difference do you notice in the direction of currents between winter and summer in Northern Part of the Indian Ocean?
Answer:
In the Northern Part of the Indian Ocean, during summer, the ocean currents flow along the coastlines and flow in the clockwise direction. In the winter season, these ocean currents flow a complete reverse and they flow in anticlockwise directions.

Question 3.
How many cold currents are there in the Indian Ocean? Name them.
Answer:
There are four cold currents in the Indian Ocean. The cold currents in the Indian Ocean are the North-East Monsoon Current, Somali Current, West Australian Current and South Indian Ocean Current.

Question 4.
Why do you think the cold currents are fewer in Indian Ocean?
Answer:

1. The Indian Ocean has land masses of three sizes.
2. There is varying surface circulation.
3. There is no arctic contact.
4. The waters remain between 72° and 82° Fahrenheit across the upper layer. So, there are fewer colder currents in the Indian Ocean.

Question 5.
Which currents maintain the direction in both the seasons?
Answer:
The Mozambique Current, The Equatorial Counter Current, the Agulhas Current and the Australian Current maintain the direction in both the seasons.

Question 6.
Can you see any circulation in the currents of the Indian Ocean? What are such circulations called? If yes, name the currents sequentially.
Answer:
Yes, such circulations are currents called gyre.

1. The South Equatorial Current flowing east to west direction is under the influence of easterlies.
2. The ‘West Wind Drift’ flowing from west to east is under the influence of the westerlies.
3. The circulation is completed in the west by the Mozambique-Agulhas currents and in the east by West Australian Current,

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 81)

(i) Name the Gulf countries
(ii) In which direction do they lie in the Asian continent?
Answer:
(i) The Gulf countries are Kuwait, Oman, Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar and Bahrain. They are called as Gulf countries because they are members of the GCC (Gulf Co-operation Council).
(ii) They lie in the western direction in the Asian continent.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

• Earth Movements Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Weathering and Mass Wasting Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Agents of Erosion Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Climatic Regions Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Global Climate Change Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Ocean Resources Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Biomes Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

Std 11 Geography Chapter 6 Question Answer Ocean Resources Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Ocean Resources Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Geography Chapter 6 Ocean Resources Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Geography Class 11 Chapter 6 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Complete the chain.

Question 1.

Answer:

2. Identify the correct correlation.

A : Assertion
R : Reasoning
Question 1.
A – Continental shelf is a storehouse of mineral oil and natural gas.
R – Continental shelf receives large quantities of load from continental areas.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
A – More deposition occurs in the continental slope.
R – The slope is steeper here.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 3.
A – The islands are actually peaks of submerged mountains.
R – Some peaks of submerged mountains come above the sea level.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
A – The abyssal plains are the deepest parts of the ocean.
R – They lie at the bottom of the ocean.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) Only R is correct.

Question 5.
A – Sodium chloride and potassium are parts of inorganic oceanic resources.
R – Salt extraction is a major activity in coastal areas.
(a) Only A is correct.
(b) Only R is correct.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

3. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
Fishing has developed in continental shelves.
Answer:
Fishing has developed in continental shelves because-

1. The portion of the continents that is submerged under water and borders the coastal areas is known as a continental shelf.
2. They are broad, shallow and gently-sloping plains covered by water.
3. As the sunlight reaches this part of the ocean bed, plankton grows.
4. These millions of microscopic organisms found in sea water are an important and favourite food for fish.
5. Also, the sediments washed from the continental areas add to the food for fish. Thus, millions of fish thrive in this region.

Question 2.
Our knowledge regarding the oceanic trenches is limited.
Answer:
Our knowledge regarding the oceanic trenches is limited because-

1. At places, deep, narrow and steeply sloping depressions are found on the ocean floor. These are called ocean deeps or ocean trenches.
2. Generally, the shallow ones are called deeps whereas deeper ones are called ocean trenches. The oceanic trenches are the deepest parts of the oceans.
3. These trenches can be thousands of meters deep. For example, The Mariana Trench in the Pacific Ocean is around 11 km deep while the Java Trench in the Indian Ocean is around 7.7 km deep.
4. They generally occur along plate boundaries and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.
5. The knowledge of ocean trenches is limited because of their depth and their remoteness.

Question 3.
The ocean is a storehouse of minerals.
Answer:
The ocean is a storehouse of minerals because-

1. The continental shelves contain the world’s largest reservoirs of natural oil and gas.
2. The other deposits like diamonds, chromite, ilmenite, magnetite, platinum, gold and phosphorite are also found.
3. Sand, gravel aggregates and industrial silica sand are the most important of hard minerals now extracted in the near offshore zone.
4. The abyssal plains are often littered with nodules of manganese containing varying amounts of iron, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
5. The most common resources obtained from oceans are sodium chloride, i.e., common salt.
6. A large number of metallic and non-metallic minerals are found on the ocean floor, e.g., potassium occurs in large quantities.
7. Gypsum forms during evaporation of sea water. The gypsum deposits are mined and converted into Plaster of Paris and used for construction.
8. The most important minerals extracted from the sea floor are petroleum and natural gas.

Question 4.
Like the land, there are landforms below the ocean too.
Answer:
Like the land, there are landforms below the ocean too because-

1. Continental shelf is mere continuation of coastal plain, sloping gently, they resemble gently sloping low-lying areas.
2. As there are plains formed on the surface, similar feature in form of extensive flat land is found on the ocean floor, they are called abyssal plains.
3. Mountains and ranges are found on the earth’s surface, as seamounts and ridges are found as part of ocean floor. For example, Mid-Indian Ridge.
4. Some oceanic ridges have flat and extensive tops, they are called oceanic plateaus. For example, Chagos Plateau in the Indian Ocean.
5. V shaped valleys on the surface of the earth are similar to the deep, narrow and steep sloping depressions, they are called deeps or sea trenches. For example, Kuril Trench in Pacific Ocean in Japan.
6. Many canyons and gorges are also found on the earth’s surface and in the oceans too.

4. Write short notes on.

Question 1.
EEZ
Answer:

1. Generally, a state’s exclusive economic zone is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial sea, extending seaward to a distance of no more than 370 km out from its coastal baseline.
2. The exception to this rule occurs when exclusive economic zones would overlap; that is, state coastal baselines are less than 740 km apart. When an overlap occurs, it is up to the states to delineate the actual maritime boundary.
3. The exclusive economic zone stretches much further into sea than the territorial water, which ends at 22 km from the coastal baseline if following the rules set out in the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea). Thus, the exclusive economic zones include the contiguous zone.
4. States also have rights to the seabed of what is called the continental shelf up to 650 km from the coastal baseline, beyond the exclusive economic zones, but such areas are not part of their exclusive economic zones.
5. The legal definition of the continental shelf does not directly correspond to the geological meaning of the term, as it also includes the continental rise and slope, and the entire seabed within the exclusive economic zone.
6. The idea of allotting nations with EEZs is to give them more control of maritime affairs outside territorial limits, gained acceptance in the late 20th Century.

Question 2.
Oceanic tourism
Answer:

1. Ocean tourism is developed along the coastal areas of seas and oceans.
2. Ocean tourism comes in many forms like cruises, scuba-diving, fishing, beach tourism, etc. Such activities are increasingly becoming popular.
3. Generally, water sports activities such as scuba diving, surfing, water skiing, etc., are developed along the coastline. For example, sport activities along the coast of Goa.
4. There is beautiful scenery along the coastline due greenery of trees along the coast, huge waterbody of sea or ocean, clean air and coolness due to nearness to water, therefore many resorts, hotels, marina, etc., are developed and coastal areas have become popular for tourism.

For example, tourism along Konkan coastline. The cruise tourism is also increasing.

Question 3.
Abundance of minerals in oceans
Answer:

1. The continental shelves contain the world’s largest reservoirs of natural oil and gas.
2. The other deposits like diamonds, chromite, ilmenite, magnetite, platinum, gold and phosphorite are also found.
3. Sand, gravel aggregates and industrial silica sand are the most important of hard minerals now extracted in the near offshore zone.
4. The abyssal plains are often littered with nodules of manganese containing varying amounts of iron, nickel, cobalt, and copper.
5. The most common resources obtained from oceans are sodium chloride i.e. common salt.
6. A large number of metallic and non-metallic minerals are found on the ocean floor, e.g., potassium occurs in large quantities.
7. Gypsum forms during evaporation of sea water. The gypsum deposits are mined and converted into Plaster of Paris and used for construction.
8. The most important minerals extracted from the sea floor are mineral oil and natural gas.

Question 4.
Deposition and Continental Slope
Answer:

1. After the extent of continental shelf is over, there is a sharp drop in the ocean floor.
2. The gradient of slope in this region can be between 2° to 5°. This is called continental slope.
3. The depth of this slope extends from 200 m up to 4000 m from sea level.
4. Due to its steepness, the continental slope stretches over a limited area.
5. The deposition of sediments is also limited in this part.
6. The continental slopes are generally considered as boundaries of continents. Methane hydrate, a compound of water and methane, is present on the continental slopes.
7. On the slope, we find many traces of submarine landslide activity, ocean canyons and huge avalanche fans. For example, Congo Canyon is a submarine canyon found near Africa.

5. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
The marine pollution is ultimately going to be harmful to the man himself. Discuss.
Answer:

1. Though the human activities are a major cause behind climate change, there are some natural causes for climate change. They are as follows:
2. Importance of the ocean is increasing day by day in various ways, human dependence on oceans is likely to increase manifold in the days to come.
3. Nowadays, the oceanic waters are getting polluted on a large scale.
4. This causes deterioration of the natural quality of ocean water.
5. The leakages of oil from oil transporting ships, oil extraction from coastal areas, disposal of solid waste containing radioactive matter, atomic tests etc., are causing large scale pollution of oceanic waters.
6. The effluents brought by river discharges, the disposal of waste from coastal cities, the waste from industries and many other similar factors are polluting the oceanic waters.
7. As a result, the very existence of marine life is threatened.

Question 2.
There is similarity in the relief on the land surface and the ocean bottom.
Answer:
Ocean tourism is developed along the coastal areas of seas and oceans-
Ocean tourism comes in many forms like cruises, scuba-diving, fishing, beach tourism, etc. Such activities are increasingly becoming popular.

Generally, water sports activities such as scuba diving, surfing, water skiing, etc., are developed along the coastline. For example, sport activities along the coast of Goa.

There is beautiful scenery along the coastline due greenery of trees along the coast, huge waterbody of sea or ocean, clean air and coolness due to nearness to water, therefore many resorts, hotels, marina, etc., are developed and coastal areas have become popular for tourism. For example, tourism along Konkan coastline. The cruise tourism is also increasing.

Question 3.
Discuss how development of oceanic tourism should be carried out without disturbing marine life.
Answer:
It is difficult to clean up mass pollution once it has occurred, so the best plan is prevention. Several changes can take place to help keep industry in check and encourage sustainable practices such as:

1. Stricter government regulations on industry and manufacturing is one large scale solution. There are several laws to help protect beaches, reduce pollution from ships, reduce marine debris, and prohibit ocean dumping.
2. Implement renewable energy sources, such as wind or solar power, to limit off-shore drilling.
3. Limit agricultural pesticides and encourage organic farming and eco-friendly pesticide use.
4. Proper sewage treatment and exploration of eco-friendly wastewater treatment options, such as recycling sewage sludge to carbon-phosphorous fertilizer, are other solutions.
5. Cut down on industry and manufacturing waste and contain landfills so they do not spill into the ocean.

6. Show the following on the map of the World

1. Chagos Range
2. Mariana Trench
3. Dogger Bank
4. Mumbai High
5. Sunda Deep
6. Grand Banks
Answer:

11th Geography Digest Chapter 6 Ocean Resources Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No. 68)

Collect information of the following and discuss in the class:

1. Major journeys carried out by explorers in the last millennium
2. Discovery of continents, countries and islands
3. Spread of culture, trade and religions

Comment on how oceans have played a major role in all the three points mentioned above.
Answer:
[Students will find out the journeys and expeditions and comment on it in their own words.]

Try this.

1. Look at figure 6.1 and answer the following question. (Textbook Page No. 68)

Question 1.
What does the figure show?
Answer:
The figure shows various landforms of the ocean floor.

Question 2.
In which part of the figure is the ocean shallow? Which human activities can be carried out here?
Answer:
The ocean is shallow at the continental shelf area. Fishing is carried out here as a major human activity.

Question 3.
In which part does deposition of sediments occur?
Answer:
Deposition of sediments occur on the continental shelf area as well as on the abyssal plains.

Question 4.
Where in the figure do you find islands formed due to submerged mountains?
Answer:
Islands formed due to submerged mountains are found in the oceanic ridges and plateau region.

Question 5.
Label the figure with correct names of landforms.
Answer:

Question 6.
Compare these features with the landforms on the earth.
Answer:
On the earth, different types of mountains and ranges are found, as they are found on the sea floor in the form of sea mounts and ridges, islands. Similarly, on the earth’s surface plains are formed as abyssal plains, which are found on the sea floor. Valleys and canyons on the earth’s surface represent oceanic deeps and trenches as a part of ocean floor.

2. Various institutes are presently working for exploration of ocean, its climate, resources and its impact on our lives. Prepare a list of such institutes which are in India. With the help of internet, complete the table below. (Textbook Page No. 72)
Answer:

3. Do you know that India has got the right to mine manganese nodules from the bed of the Indian Ocean from that area which lies beyond the exclusive economic zone. Identify some other resources which are international in nature. (Textbook Page No. 73)
Answer:
India can mine Cobalt and Nickel from the Indian Ocean from the area which lies beyond the EEZ.

Find out! (Textbook Page No. 70)

Question 1.
Find out the name and locations of islands located in India and list them in the above given categories.
Answer:

1. Continental Islands: Minicoy, Seven Islands of Bombay (Bombay is the present-day Mumbai.), Sundarbans, Amindivi, etc.
2. Volcanic Island: Barren island part of Andaman and Nicobar Islands
3. Coral Island: Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Lakshadweep, Tarkarli in Malvan, etc.

Question 2.
India also produces water from desalination plants. Find out their locations with the help of the internet.
Answer:
The Minjur Desalination Plant is the largest in India, located at Kattupalli village, a northern suburb of Chennai on the coast of the Bay of Bengal that supplies water to the city of Chennai.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

• Earth Movements Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Weathering and Mass Wasting Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Agents of Erosion Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Climatic Regions Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Global Climate Change Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Ocean Resources Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Indian Ocean – Relief and Strategic Importance Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Biomes Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 11 Geography Textbook Solutions

Std 8 English Lesson 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 English Solutions Chapter 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions, and Answers.

Class 8 English Chapter 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Textbook Questions and Answers

Warming Up

1. Discuss in your class:

Question 1.
Do you like to study science?
Answer:
(Points: yes, no, the reasons why)

Question 2.
What are the advantages of learning science?
Answer:
(Points: knowledge, information- more career opportunities, etc.)

Question 3.
Are robots truly useful to human beings?
Answer:
(Points: yes, no, why – examples of robots you have read of, seen in movies, etc.)

Question 4.
How can we take the help of robots in our daily life?
Answer:
(Points: household chores – boring,monotonous work – heavy manual jobs very intricate, minute jobs – dangerous; jobs – operations, surgeries, etc.)

Question 5.
Name some gadgets and: appliances we use in day-to-day life.
Answer:
(Points: washing machine, mixer, grinder, gas stoves, TV, dishwasher, heaters, etc.)

2. Imagine that one of your family members I friends I classmates has recently undergone a surgery. You were curious and wanted to learn about his/her experience.
Match the questions you asked with their answers.

Question 1.
What health problem did you suffer from?
Answer:
I had fractured my ankle while playing hockey.

Question 2.
Whom did you Inform about It first?
Answer:
Our school hockey coach.

Question 3.
What type of doctor did you consult?
Answer:
I consulted an orthopedic surgeon.

Question 4.
How did he/she find out that you needed surgery?
Answer:
The doctor took an X-ray of my ankle, and he found a fracture In my ankle.

Question 5.
What preparation was done before the surgery?
Answer:
I was given a bath and I wore a surgical gown.

Question 6.
How did you feel when you were taken to the operation theatre?
Answer:
I was very nervous.

Question 7.
What was the first step before the actual surgery?
Answer:
I was given an injection of anesthesia.

Question 8.
Did you feel any pain during the surgery?
Answer:
No, I did not feel anything. I was fast asleep.

Question 9.
What did you feel when you opened your eyes after the operation?
Answer:
I was relieved and happy that the operation was over.

Question 10.
How soon did you recover?
Answer:
I recovered and I could walk normally after three weeks.

3. We have learned that sentences may have two, three or more sets of subject + predicate, joined by a conjunction. Each set of subject and predicate.
that is a part of a larger sentence is culled clause.
Separate the clauses in the following sentences and write the conjunction.

Question 1.
The thief stole the money and he ran away.
Answer:
Clause (i): The thief stole the money.
Clause (ii): he ran away
Conjunction: and

Question 2.
She told me that she was a doctor.
Answer:
Clause (i): She told me
Clause (ii): that she was a doctor
Conjunction: that

Question 3.
He ran fast but he did not win the race.
Answer:
Clause (i): He ran fast
Clause (ii): he did not win the race
Conjunction: but

Question 4.
The traveller arrived at the station after the train had left.
Answer:
Clause (i): The traveller arrived at the station
Clause (ii): after the train had left
Conjunction: after

4. Coordination
Observe the clauses in the following sentences.
(1) He is intelligent and he is hardworking.
(2) Asit was tired but he could not rest.
(3) You can go for a walk or you can exercise at home.
(4) Seerna has recovered from fever, so she can attend school.
Each of the above sentences have clauses which do not depend on each other for complete sense. They are called Independant or Co-ordinate clauses. They are joined by conjunctions like and, but, o, so. Such conjunctions are called Co-ordinators.
Other Co-ordinators are:

• as well as / not only but also
• yet / still I however / nevertheless
• or / nor / else / either or / neither nor
• so / therefore / thus / hence / for

From the sentences given in Activity 2 pick out two sentences having Co-ordinate Clauses. Point out the Co-ordinators:

Question 1.
I was given a bath and I wore a surgical gown.
Answer:
Coordinate Clause (i): I was given a bath.
Coordinate Clause (ii): I wore a surgical gown.
Conjunction: and

Question 2.
The doctor took an X-ray of my ankle and he found a fracture in my ankle.
Answer:
Coordinate Clause (i): The doctor took an X-ray of my ankle.
Coordinate Clause (ii): He found a fracture in my ankle.
Conjunction: and

1. Read the lesson and name the following:

Question a.
First surgeon to perform operations
Answer:
Sushruta

Question b.
Anaesthetics used from mid 19th century
Answer:
Ether and chloroform

Question c.
First successful Cardiac Surgeon
Answer:
Dr. Williams

Question d.
A sack around the heart
Answer:
pericardium

Question e.
Father of modern neurosurgery
Answer:
Harvey Cushing

Question f.
World’s most advanced surgical robot
Answer:
the Da Vinci.

2. Match the terms in ‘A’ with their explanation in ‘B’:

Question 1.

Answer:
(1) – (f).
(2) – (d).
(3) – (g).
(4) – (h).
(5) – (a).
(6) – (e).
(7) – (b).
(8) – (i).

3. Fill in the web with words related to ‘Surgery’:

Answer:

4. Write 3 to 4 lines about each of the following in your own words:

Question a.
Sushruta Samhita
Answer:
It is thought that Sushruta was probably the first surgeon to perform surgical operations, and the Sushruta Samhita is one of the oldest works In the world that deal with surgery.

Question b.
First Cardiac Surgery
Answer:
The first cardiac surgery was done by Dr Williams. A patient, James Cornish. was suffering from a very serious knife wound, and the knife had cut an artery less than an inch from his heart. It had punctured the pcricardium. Dr Williams and six staff doctors performed a complicated and daring operation and repaired the heart. This became the first successful cardiac surgery.

Question c.
First Neurosurgeon
Answer:
Harvey Cushing was the first neurosurgeon and is considered to be the father of modern neurological surgery. In the early part of the 20g” century, he developed basic techniques and instruments for operating on the brain. Cushing reduced the mortality rate for neurosurgery from 90% to less than 10%. By 1937, when he retired, he had successfully removed more than 2000 tumours. One of his most significant achievements was the development of a method to stem blood loss by inventing a clip called the ‘silver clip’ or the ‘Cushing clip’.

Question d.
The Robotic Surgery
Answer:
Robotic surgery is a type of minimal invasive surgery. Use Is made of miniature surgical Instruments, that fit through quarter-inch Incisions. Robotic surgery gives the surgeon a 3-D view of the operating site. Every movement he makes with the master controls Is replicated accurately by the robot. When necessary. the surgeon can even change the scale of the robot’s movements. Surgeons can use this technology to perform complex surgical procedures.

5. A. Fill in the gap in the table of Degrees of Comparison:

Answer:

5. B. Adjectives which have more than two syllables (long words) take more and most before them to form Comparative and Superlative degrees:
For example : successful – Positive Degree
more successful – Comparative Degree
most successful – Superlative Degree
Give the Comparative and Superlative forms of:

Answer:

6. Join the sentences using appropriate Co-ordinators. (but, or, so, and):

Question a.
There was lack of technology. Major surgery could not develop for centuries.
Answer:
There was lack of technology,so Major surgery could not develop for centuries.

Question b.
Cardiac Surgery was tried in the past. Patients did not survive.
Answer:
Cardiac Surgery was tried in the past butPatients did not survive.

Question c.
He places his fingers into the master controls. He operates all four arms of the Da vinci.
Answer:
He places his fingers into the master controls and He operates all four arms of the Da vinci.

Question d.
Open heart surgery can help to repair heart valves. It can also replace them.
Answer:
Open heart surgery can help to repair heart valves or It can also replace them.

Question e.
Heart patients were treated with sedatives. They did not survive.
Answer:
Heart patients were treated with sedatives but They did not survive.

Question f.
These procedures can be performed through very small incisions. Our patients experience a number of benefits.
Answer:
These procedures can be performed through very small incisions so Our patients experience a number of benefits.

7. Write in your notebook an imaginary telephonic conversation between you and your family – secretary, asking for an appointment to consult the doctor for a health problem you are suffering from. Begin with

Secretary: Good morning! This is XYZ Clinic. How can I help you?
Myself: Good morning! I am
(Now continue……)

Class 8 English Chapter 4.2 Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Additional Important Questions and Answers

Write if the following statements True or False:

Question 1.
General anaesthesia makes the whole body numb.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Daniel Williams was a young African American surgeon.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Cardiac surgery was unknown after 1893.
Answer:
False

Question 4.
Cardiac surgery relates to the nerves and brain.
Answer:
False

Give reasons:

Question 1.
Doctors began to use anesthesia:
Answer:
Doctors could not cut open the part of the body that was not healthy to remove or set right the part, for this would involve a lot of pain to the patient. Hence, doctors began to use general or local anaesthesia, which benumbs the whole body or part of the body. After this, the surgery could be done without pain to the patient.

Question 2.
Cardiac surgery had not developed:
Answer:
Cardiac surgery had not developed because doctors did not have modern medical tools and procedures essential for heart surgery.

Activities based on Contextual Grammar:

Question 1.
Daniel Williams attempted a new medical technique in order to save a patient’s life.
(Pick out the subject and predicate.)
Answer:
subject – Daniel Williams
predicate – attempted a new medical technique in order to save a patient’s life

Question 2.
Sushruta was the first surgeon to perform surgical operations.
(Rewrite as a negative sentence.)
Answer:
No other surgeon had performed surgical operations before Sushruta.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
How do you feel when you are sick and have to go to a doctor?
Answer:
When I am sick and have to go to a doctor, I usually feel a little frightened that he may give me an injection or ask me to have a blood test. I also feel afraid that he may put me on a strict diet.

Name the following:

Question 1.
First successful Cardiac Surgeon:
Answer:
Dr. Williams

Question 2.
A sack around the heart:
Answer:
pericardium

Question 3.
Father of modern neurosurgery:
Answer:
Harvey Cushing

Question 4.
He was suffering from very serious knife wound:
Answer:
James Cornish

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Describe what kind of cardiac surgery is done nowadays.
Answer:
Nowadays, more advanced techniques are used to deal with heart complications. Open heart surgery, which helps to repair heart defects and heart valves and even replace them, is also performed successfully.

Question 2.
Explain who neurosurgeons operate upon and on what body parts.
Answer:
Neurosurgeons treat those who have disorders of the nervous system.
They can treat patients of all ages, from the newborn to the elderly, who have suffered a stroke. They operate on the brain, the spine, or the nerves.

Pick out the main clause and the subordinate clause in the following sentences:

Question 1.
Open heart surgery, which can help to repair heart defects, is also performed successfully.
Answer:
main clause: Open heart surgery is also performed successfully
subordinate clause: which can help to repair heart defects

Question 2.
They can treat patients of all ages who have suffered a stroke.
Answer:
main clause: They can treat patients of all ages.
subordinate clause: who have suffered a stroke

Personal Response:
Question 1.
Name a scientist whom you admire and say why you admire him/her.
Answer:
I admire the scientist Thomas Alva: Edison. He was an American inventor who has been described as America’s greatest inventor. He developed many devices that have greatly influenced our lives, including the phonograph, the motion picture camera, and the long-lasting electric light bulb.

Complete the following:

Question 1.
Da Vinci is the word’s ______.
Answer:
most advanced surgical robot

Question 2.
The Da Vinci’s miniaturized instruments are mounted on ______.
Answer:
three separate robotic arms

Question 3.
The surgeon controls the instruments from a ______.
Answer:
console located in the operating room

List the advantages of robotic surgery.
Answer:
The advantages of robotic surgery:

• Instead of operating on patients through large incisions, use is made of miniature surgical instruments, that fit through quarter inch incisions.
• Robotic surgery gives the surgeon a 3-D view of the operating site.
• Every movement the surgeon makes with the master controls is replicated accurately by the robot.
• When necessary, the surgeon can even change the scale of the robot’s movements.
• Surgeons can use this technology to perform complex surgical procedures.
• Since the incisions made are very small, the patients too benefit.

Activities based on Contextual Grammar:

Question 1.
Our surgeons are able to perform a growing number of complex surgical procedures. (Pick out the non-Jlnite verbs and say what they are.)
Answer:
to perform – Infinitive;
growing – present participle

Question 2.
The surgeon controls these instruments and the camera from a console, located in the operating room.
(Pick out the prepositions.)
Answer:
from

Personal Response:

What are the qualities needed to be a doctor?
Answer:
To be a doctor, one must be very sincere, intelligent, hardworking and dedicated. A doctor must be prepared to work odd hours. He must be strong- minded and ready to face people who are in pain and distress, and who may be facing death. Finally, last but not the least, the main aim of a doctor should be to cure people. Money should be secondary.

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Complete the word chain of 5 nouns:
surgery → …….. → ………. → ……… →
Answer:
surgery → youth → happiness → strength → health

Question 2.
Pick out the antonyms of the following words from those given in brackets:
simple, increased (successful, complicated, reduced, invasive, separate)
Answer:
simple x complicated
increased x reduced

Question 3.
Arrange the following words in alphabetical order:
dramatically, mortality, disorders,magnified.
Answer:
disorders, dramatically, magnified, mortality.

Std 8th English Workbook Answers Maharashtra Board Unit 4

• The Vet Class 8 English Solutions
• Revolutionary Steps in Surgery Class 8 English Solutions
• The Bees Class 8 English Solutions
• Ramanujan Class 8 English Solutions
• A Battle to Baffle Class 8 English Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Solutions Chapter 5 Reconstitution of Partnership (Death of Partner) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Book Keeping & Accountancy Solutions Chapter 5 Reconstitution of Partnership (Death of Partner)

1. Objective questions:

A. Select the most appropriate answer from the alternative given below and rewrite the sentences.

Question 1.
Benefit Ratio is the ratio in which _______________
(a) The old partner gain on the admission of a new partner
(b) The Goodwill of a new partner on admission is credited to old partners
(c) The continuing partners’ benefits on retirement or death of a partner
(d) All partners are benefitted.
Answer:
(c) The continuing partner’s benefits on retirement or death of a partner

Question 2.
The ratio by which existing partners are benefitted _______________
(a) gain ratio
(b) sacrifice ratio
(c) profit ratio
(d) capital ratio
Answer:
(a) gain ratio

Question 3.
Profit and Loss Suspense Account is shown in the new Balance Sheet on _______________ side.
(a) debit
(b) credit
(c) asset
(d) liabilities
Answer:
(c) asset

Question 4.
Death is a compulsory _______________
(a) Dissolution
(b) Admission
(c) Retirement
(d) Winding up
Answer:
(c) Retirement

Question 5.
The balance on the Capital Account of a partners, on his death is transferred to _______________ Account.
(a) Relatives
(b) Legal Heir’s Loan/Executors Loan
(c) Partners’ Capital
(d) Partners’ Loan
Answer:
(b) Legal Heir’s Loan/Executors Loan.

B. Write a word, term, phrase, which can substitute each of the following statements.

Question 1.
Excess of credit side over the debit side of Profit and Loss Adjustment Account.
Answer:
Profit

Question 2.
A person who represents the deceased partner on the death of the partner.
Answer:
Legal Heir’s or Executor

Question 3.
Accumulated past profit kept in the form of reserve.
Answer:
Reserve fund or General reserve

Question 4.
The partner who died.
Answer:
Deceased partner

Question 5.
The proportion in which the continuing partners benefit due to the death of a partner.
Answer:
Gain/Benefit ratio

C. State whether the following statements are True or False with reasons.

Question 1.
A deceased partner is not entitled to the Goodwill of the firm.
Answer:
This statement is False.
A deceased partner’s contribution was there in the development of business and goodwill is the value of the business in terms of money. Hence, a deceased partner is entitled to receive goodwill from the firm.

Question 2.
A deceased partner is entitled to his share of General Reserve.
Answer:
This statement is True.
General reserve is created out of past undistributed profit. Past profit is earned due to the efforts and hard work of all the partners including the partner who is now dead. Hence a deceased partner has right on it and therefore a deceased partner is entitled to receive his share of General reserve.

Question 3.
If goodwill is written off, a Deceased Partner’s Capital Account is debited.
Answer:
This statement is False.
When the benefits of goodwill are given to the deceased partner, his capital account is credited and when such goodwill is written off, capital accounts of remaining partners are debited.

Question 4.
After the death of a partner, the entire amount due to the deceased partner is paid to the legal representative of the deceased partner.
Answer:
This statement is True.
After the death of a partner, the entire amount due to the deceased partner is paid to the legal representative of the deceased partner as he is the only person who has the legal right to that amount.

Question 5.
For recording the profit or loss up to the death, the Profit and Loss Appropriation Account is operated.
Answer:
This statement is False.
For recording the profit or loss up to the death, the Profit and Loss suspense Account is created and operated. This is because final accounts cannot be prepared on the date of death of a partner. Till that period a separate account called Profit and Loss Suspense A/c is prepared.

D. Fill in the blanks and rewrite the following sentence.

Question 1.
Deceased Partners’ Executors Account is shown on the _______________ side of the Balance Sheet.
Answer:
Liabilities

Question 2.
On the death of a partner, a ratio in which the continuing partners get more share of profits in future is called as _______________ Ratio.
Answer:
Gain

Question 3.
Deceased partners share of profit up to the death is shown on _______________ side of Balance Sheet.
Answer:
Assets

Question 4.
Benefit Ratio = New Ratio – _______________
Answer:
Old Ratio

Question 5.
When Goodwill is raised at its full value and it is written off _______________ Account is to be credited.
Answer:
Goodwill

E. Answer in one sentence only.

Question 1.
What is Gain Ratio?
Answer:
The profit-sharing ratio which is acquired by the surviving or continuing partners on account of the death of any partner is called gain ratio or benefit ratio.

Question 2.
In which ratio general reserve is distributed on the death of a partner?
Answer:
General reserve is distributed on the death of a partner in their old profit sharing ratio.

Question 3.
To whom do you distribute general reserve on the death of a partner?
Answer:
On the death of a partner general reserve is distributed among all partners in their old profit and loss ratio.

Question 4.
How the death of a partner is a compulsory retirement?
Answer:
After the death of a partner, the business is not able to get any kind of services from the deceased partner and so we can say that the death of a partner is like a compulsory retirement.

Question 5.
To which account profit is to be transferred up to the date of his death?
Answer:
Profit of the deceased partner, up to the date of his death, is transferred to his Legal Heir’s/Executor’s Account.

Practical Problems

Question 1.
Rajesh, Rakesh, and Mahesh were equal Partners on 31st March 2019. Their Balance Sheet was as follows 31st March 2019.
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019

Mr. Rajesh died on 30th June 2019 and the following adjustment was agreed as:
1. Furniture was to be adjusted to its market price of ₹ 3,40,000.
2. Land and Building were to be depreciated by 10%.
3. Provide R.D.D. @ 5% on debtors.
4. The profit up to the date of death of Mr. Rajesh is to be calculated on the basis of last year’s profit which was ₹ 1,80,000.
Prepare:
1. Profit and Loss Adjustment A/c
2. Partners’ Capital Account
3. Balance Sheet of the continuing firm.
Solution:
In the books of the Partnership Firm


Balance Sheet as of 1st July 2019

Working Note:
The profit of the firm of last year was ₹ 1,80,000.
Proportionate profit up to the date of death for Rajesh is as follows
= 1,80,000 × \(\frac{3}{12} \times \frac{1}{3}\) (Period) (P & L ratio)
= ₹ 15,000 (Profit and Loss Suspense A/c)

Question 2.
Rahul, Rohit, and Ramesh are in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 respectively. Their Balance Sheet as of 31st March, 2017 was as follows:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2017

On 1st October 2017, Ramesh died and the Partnership deed provided that
1. R.D.D. was maintained at 5% on Debtors.
2. Plant and Machinery and Investment were valued at ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 4,10,000 respectively.
3. Of the creditors an item of ₹ 6,000 was no longer a liability and hence was properly adjusted.
4. Profit for 2017-18 was estimated at ₹ 1,20,000 and Ramesh’s share in it up to the date of his death was given to him.
5. Goodwill of the firm was valued at two times the average profit of the last five years, which were
2012-13 – ₹ 1,80,000
2013-14 – ₹ 2,00,000
2014-15 – ₹ 2,50,000
2015-16 – ₹ 1,50,000
2016-17 – ₹ 1,20,000
Ramesh’s share in it was to be given to him.
6. Salary ₹ 5,000 p.m. was payable to him.
7. Interest on capital at 5% i.e. was payable and on Drawings ₹ 2,000 were charged.
8. Drawings made by Ramesh up to September 2017 were ₹ 5,000 p.m.
Prepare Ramesh’s Capital A/c showing the amount payable to his executors.
Give working of Profit and Goodwill.
Ramesh Capital Balance ₹ 3,41,000
Solution:
In the books of the Partnership Firm

Working Notes:
1. Calculation of share of Goodwill:
(a) Average profit = \(\frac{Total Profit}{No. of years}\)
= \(\frac{1,80,000+2,00,000+2,50,000+1,50,000+1,20,000}{5}\)
= \(\frac{9,00,000}{5}\)
= ₹ 1,80,000

(b) Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years
= 1,80.000 × 2
= ₹ 3,60,000

(c) Share of Goodwill to Ramesh = Goodwill of the firm × Ramesh’s share
= 3,60,000 × \(\frac{1}{6}\)
= ₹ 60,000

2. Calculation of share of profit due to Ramesh:
Share of profit = Last year profit × Share of profit × Period
= 1,20,000 × \(\frac{1}{6} \times \frac{6}{12}\)
= ₹ 10,000 (Profit and Loss Suspense A/c)

3. Interest on Capital is calculated for six months.
∴ Interest = 2,40,000 × \(\frac{6}{12} \times \frac{5}{100}\) = ₹ 6,000

4.

Question 3.
Ram, Madhav, and Keshav are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio 5 : 3 : 2 respectively. Their Balance Sheet as of 31st March, 2018 was as follows:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2018

Keshav died on 31st July 2018 and the following adjustments were agreed by as per the partnership deed.
1. Creditors have increased by ₹ 10,000.
2. Goodwill is to be calculated at 2 years purchase of average profits of 5 years.
3. The profits of the preceding 5 years was
2013-14 – ₹ 90,000
2014-15 – ₹ 1,00,000
2015-16 – ₹ 60,000
2016-17 – ₹ 50,000
2017-18 – ₹ 50,000 (Loss)
Keshav’s share in it was to be given to him.
4. Loose Tools and livestock were valued at ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 1,20,000 respectively.
5. R.D.D. was maintained at ₹ 10,000.
6. Commission ₹ 2,000 p.m. was payable to Keshav. Profit for 2018-19 was estimated at ₹ 45,000 and Keshav’s share in it up to the date of his death was given to him.
Prepare Revaluation A/c, Keshav’s Capital A/c showing the amount payable to his executors.
Solution:
In the books of the Partnership Firm

Working Notes:
1. Calculation of share of Goodwill:
(a) Average profit = \(\frac{\text { Total profit }}{\text { No. of years }}\)
= \(\frac{90,000+1,00,000+60,000+50,000-50,000}{5}\)
= \(\frac{2,50,000}{5}\)
= ₹ 50,000

(b) Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years
= 50,000 × 2
= ₹ 1,00,000

(c) Share of Goodwill to Keshav = Goodwill of the firm × Keshav’s share
= 1,00,000 × \(\frac{2}{10}\)
= ₹ 20,000

2. Calculation of share of profit due to Keshav
Share of profit = Last year profit × Share of Keshav × Period
= 45,000 × \(\frac{2}{10} \times \frac{4}{12}\)
= ₹ 3,000 (Profit and Loss Suspense Account)

Question 4.
Virendra, Devendra, and Narendra were partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. Their Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019 was as follows.
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019

Mr. Virendra died on 31st August 2019 and the partnership deed provided that the event of the death of Mr. Virendra his executors be entitled to be paid out.
1. The capital to his credit at the date of death.
2. His proportion of Reserve at the date of last Balance Sheet.
3. His proportion of Profits to date of death is based on the average profits of the last four years.
4. His share of Goodwill should be calculated at two years purchase of the profits of the last four years for the year ended 31st March were as follows:
2016 – ₹ 40,000
2017 – ₹ 60,000
2018 – ₹ 70,000
2019 – ₹ 30,000
5. Mr. Virendra has drawn ₹ 3,000 p.m. to date of death, There is no increase and decrease in the value of assets and liabilities.
Prepare Mr. Virendra Executors A/c.
Solution:
In the books of the Partnership Firm

Working Notes:
1. Calculation of share of profit:
(a) Average Profit = \(\frac{\text { Total profit }}{\text { No. of years }}\)
= \(\frac{40,000+60,000+70,000+30,000}{4}\)
= \(\frac{2,00,000}{4}\)
= ₹ 50,000

(b) Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years
= 50,000 × 2
= ₹ 1,00,000

(c) Share of Goodwill to Virendra = Goodwill of the firm × Virendra’s share
= 1,00,000 × \(\frac{3}{6}\)
= ₹ 50,000

2. Share of profit due to Virendra
Share of profit = Last year profit × Share of Virendra × Period
= 50,000 × \(\frac{3}{6} \times \frac{5}{12}\)
= ₹ 10,417 (Profit and Loss Suspense A/c)

Question 5.
The Balance Sheet of Sohan, Rohan, and Mohan who were sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1 is as follows:
Balance Sheet as of 31st March 2019

Mr. Rohan died on 1st October 2019 and the following adjustments were made:
1. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 30,000.
2. Land and Building and Machinery were found to be undervalued by 20%.
3. Investments are valued at ₹ 60,000.
4. Stock to be undervalued by ₹ 5,000 and a provision of 10% as debtors were required.
5. Patents were valueless.
6. Mr. Rohan was entitled to share in profits up to the date of death and it was decided that he may be allowed to retain his drawings as his share of profit. Rohan’s drawings till the date of death were ₹ 25,000.
Prepare Partners’ Capital Accounts.
Solution:
In the books of the Partnership firm

Working Notes:
1.

2. Firm’s goodwill = ₹ 30,000.
DistrIbute among partners in their profit and loss ratio 3 : 2 : 1.

3. Revised value of Land & Building = \(\frac{\text { Book value }}{(100-20)} \times 100\)
= \(\frac{40,000}{80} \times 100\)
= ₹ 50,000.
∴ Increase In the value of Land & Building = Revised value – Book value
= 50,000 – 40,000
= ₹ 10,000.

4. Revised value of Machinery = \(\frac{\text { Book value }}{(100-20)} \times 100\)
= \(\frac{80,000}{80} \times 100\)
= ₹ 1 ,00,000.
∴ Increase in the value of Machinery = 1,00,000 – 80,000 = ₹ 20,000.

5. Patents were valueless means it is a loss for the business.

6. Rohan’s share In profit is ₹ 25,000 and his drawings are ₹ 25,000. Rohan is allowed to retain his drawings as his share of profit. Means write ₹ 25,000 as drawings on the debit side and write ₹ 25,000 as Profit and Loss Suspense A/c on the Credit side of Partners’ Capital A/c.

Std 12 Economics Chapter 10 Question Answer Foreign Trade of India Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Foreign Trade of India Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Economics Chapter 10 Foreign Trade of India Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Economics Class 12 Chapter 10 Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Types of foreign trade
a) Import trade
b) Export trade
c) Entrepot trade
d) Internal trade
Options:
1) a and b
2) a, b and c
3) a, b, c and d
4) None of these
Answer:
2) a, b and c

Question 2.
Export trends of India’s foreign trade includes
a) Engineering goods
b) Gems and Jewellery
c) Textiles and ready-made garments
d) Gold
Options:
1) a and c
2) a, b and c
3) b, c and d
4) None of these
Answer:
2) a, b and c

Question 3.
Role of foreign trade is
a) To earn foreign exchange
b) To encourage investment
c) Lead to division of labour
d) Bring change in composition of exports
Options:
1) a and b
2) a, b and c
3) b and d
4) None of these
Answer:
2) a, b and c

2. Identify and explain the concepts from the given illustrations:

Question 1.
India purchased petroleum from Iran.
Answer:
Concept: Import trade
Explanation: Import trade means purchase of goods and services by one country from another country.

Question 2.
Maharashtra purchased wheat from Punjab.
Answer:
Concept: Internal/Home/Domestic trade Explanation : Internal trade is also known as home trade or domestic trade. This trade is within the country. It is between two or more states of the country.

Question 3.
England imported cotton from India, made readymade garments from it and sold them to Malaysia.
Answer:
Concept: Entrepot trade
Explanation : It means purchase of goods and services from one country and selling the same to another country.

Question 4.
Japan sells smart phones to Myanmar.
Answer:
Concept: Export trade
Explanation : It means sell of goods and services by one country to another country.

3. Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Internal trade and International trade.
Answer:

Question 2.
Trends in imports and Trends in exports of foreign trade.
Answer:

Question 3.
Balance of payments and Balance of trade.
Answer:

4. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Explain the concept of foreign trade and its types.
Answer:

Foreign trade is the exchange of goods and c services between two or more countries, Foreign trade is the trade across the j boundaries of a country.

There are three important types of foreign trade.

• Import trade : It is a buying of goods and services from other country by home country. Excessive import can have a negative impact on home country. E.g. India buying petroleum from Iraq, Kuwait, etc.
• Export trade : It is selling of goods and services by home country to another country.
  Excessive export can have a positive impact on the home country. E.g. India exporting tea and spices to USA, China, etc.
• Entrepot trade : It means buying of goods and services from one country and selling them to another country. E.g. England importing cotton from India, making readymade garments from it and selling them to Malaysia.

Question 2.
Explain any four features of composition of Indias foreign trade.
Answer:
There are many changes in India’s foreign trade from last seven decades (70 years)

• Gross National Income : India’s foreign trade has great significance for its GNP. It increased upto 48.8% in the year 2016-17.
• Change in composition of exports : After independence there was change in the composition of India’s export trade from primary products to manufactured goods.
• Change in composition of imports :
  After independence there was change in the composition of India’s import trade from consumer goods to capital goods.
• Development of new ports : India’s foreign trade is handled mainly by Mumbai, Calcutta and Chennai ports. India has developed more new ports at Kandla, Cochin, Vishakhapatnam.
• Oceanic trade : Most of India’s foreign trade is by sea. About 68% of India’s trade is by sea.

Question 3.
Explain the trend in India’s imports.
Answer:
India is importing various goods from other countries. Following are the major imported goods of India :

• Petroleum : It has largest share in India’s import. In the year 2016-17, it has 22.6% share in India’s total import.
• Gold: After petroleum, the second most imported item is gold. In the year 2011, ) India’s import of gold was $53.9 billion and in the year 2018-19 it declined upto $32.8 billion.
• Fertilizers: The share of fertilizers in import expenditure declined from 4.1% in 1990-91 to only 1.3% in 2016-17.
• Iron and Steel: In the year 2016-17, the share of iron and steel in India’s total import was 2.1%.

5. State with reasons whether you agree or disagree with the following statements:

Question 1.
During British nile, indigenous handicrafts suffered a severe blow.
Answer:
Yes, I do agree with this statement.

• During the British rule India was exporting raw materials to England and was importing final goods from England.
• Indian handicraft was unable to face competition with imported goods from England.
• An imported goods were cheaper as compared to handicraft goods.
• The demand for machine made cheap commodity had raised in Indian market.
• That’s why Indian handicraft industries suffered during the British rule.

Question 2.
Trade is an engine of growth for an economy.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Trade permits a more efficient allocation of national resources.
• Foreign trade provide foreign exchange which can be used to import modern machinery and technology from advanced countries.
• Foreign trade encourages producers to produce more goods for export.
• It leads to an increase in total investment in an economy.
• Thus, we can say, trade is an engine to growth for an economy.

Question 3.
Foreign trade leads to division of labour and specialization at world level.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement.

• Some countries have abundant natural resources.
• These countries should export raw material and import finished goods from countries which are advanced in skilled man power
• Under specialisation specific work is given to the workers within a production process.
• Specialisation can increase the productivity of a firm or economy.
• Eg. Incase of car manufacturing company, some workers will design the cars, some workers will work on different section of assembly line, some workers will work on j testing cars, some workers will work on marketing of cars.

6. Observe the following table and answer the questions geven below it.

Direction of Indias imports

Questions:

Question 1.
Which organisation has the least share in the direction of India’s imports in 2015-16?
Answer:
Eastern Europe has the least share in the direction of India’s import.

Question 2.
Which orgamsation has maximum share in India’s direction of imports in 1990-91?
Answer:
OECD [Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development has maximum share in India’s direction of imports in 1990-91.

Question 3.
Expand the abbreviations of OECD and OPEC
Answer:
OECD : Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development.
OPEC : Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries.

Question 4.
State your opinion regarding the direction of India’s imports from 1990-91 to 2015-16.
Answer:
In the year 1990-91, OECD (54.0%) and in the year 2015-16, Developing nations (43.2%) has the highest share in the direction of India’s imports. India should encourage industries those are producing import substitute goods,which will help to reduce import from developing nations and help to save foreign exchange.

Question 5.
How much is the percentage of increase in the imports of developing nations in 2015-16 as
compared to 1990-9 1?
Answer:
There is 24.6% increase in the imports of developing nations.

7. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Explain the meaning and role of foreign trade.
Answer:
Trade means buying and selling of goods and services. Foreign trade means when goods and services are exchanged between two or more countries.
According to Wasserman and Hultman “International trade consists of transaction between residents of different countries”.
Role of foreign trade :

• Brings reputation and helps earn goodwill : Exporting country can earn reputation and goodwill in the international market. Eg. Japan in electronic goods- Panasonic, Canon, Sony, Hitachi. Germany in Automobile – BMW, Audi, Mercedes- Benz, Volkswagen, Porsche. USA in food- McDonalds, KFC, USA in computers – Dell HP, IBM.
• Division of labour and specialisation: It helps to increase the productivity of a firm or economy. Under specialisation specific work is given to the workers within a production process. Eg. Some workers will design cars, some workers will work on assembly lines, some workers will work on testing cars, some workers will work on marketing of cars.
• To earn foreign exchange: Foreign trade is playing very important role in earning foreign exchange. This foreign exchange can be used to import advanced technology and machinery from developed countries.
• Encourages investment : Foreign trade leads to an increase in total investment in an economy. The rise in investment help to produce more goods and services for export.
• Availability of multiple choices : Due to availability of imported goods, it helps to improve standard of living of the people in the country.
• Stability in price level : Foreign trade helps to control the changes in price level by keeping demand and supply position stable,
• Helpful during natural calamities : Foreign trade enables a country to import food grains and medicines from other countries to help the affected people.
• Optimum allocation and utlization of resources : Due to foreign trade those goods are produced which have demand in international market. There is maximum allocation and utlisation of resources to produce more goods and services for export.
• Promotes world peace : Foreign trade is bringing countries closer which leads to better understanding, co-operation and integration.

Question 2.
Explain the recent trends in India’s exports.
Answer:
Export means selling of goods and services by home country to another country. Excessive export can have a positive impact on the home country.

(i) Engineering Goods : Engineering goods includes transport equipment, automobiles and auto components, machinery and instruments. India’s top export item is engineering goods accounting for 22.5% in India’s total export in 2014-15 and this share has increased upto 25% in the year 2017-18. India is exporting engineering goods to Sri Lanka, UAE and USA.

(ii) Petroleum Products : India’s refining capacity increased significantly since 2001-02 due to which India turned a net exporter of petroleum refinery products. In the year 2013-14 the share of petroleum products in total export was 20.1% and in the year 2016-17 it declined upto 11.7%.

(iii) Chemicals and chemical products:
It includes drugs (Medicines) and pharmaceuticals. This is one sector where India is highly competitive on both quality and pricing factor. India became global hub for pharma production. India is exporting its chemicals and chemical products to USA, China and Germany. The share of this item was 10.4% in 2014-15.

(iv) Gems and Jewellery: Gems and Jewellery plays an important role in earning the foreign exchange for India. In the year 2014¬15 the share of Gems and Jewellery was 13.3% in India’s total export and it declined upto 5.32% in the year 2018-19.

(v) Textiles and readymade garments :
India’s readymade garments have huge demand in the international market. India is exporting textiles to USA, China and Bangladesh. India is exporting readymade garments to USA, UAE and UK. In the year 2014-15 India’s export of textile and garments was 11.3% of total export of India and it has declined upto 6.3% in the year 2016-17.

Intext Questions

Try this : (Text Book Page No. 94)

Name the goods exported to and imported from India to China and Japan in recent years
Answer:

Find out: (Text Book Page No. 95)

Find the recent share of India’s foreign trade in Gross National Income.
Answer:
India’s foreign trade accounts for 48.8% of her Gross National Income.

Find out: (Text Book Page No. 97)

List the countries coming under OPEC and OECD.
Answer:
The countries coming under OPEC (Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries) are :
(a) Algeria, (b) Angola, (c) Congo, (d) Equatorial Guinea, (e) Gabon, (f) Iran, (g) Iraq, (h) Kuwait, (i) Libya, (j) Nigeria, (k) Saudi Arabia (1) United Arab Emirates, 0 Venezuela.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Economics Textbook Solutions

• Introduction to Micro and Macro Economics Class 12 Economics Textbook Solutions
• Utility Analysis Class 12 Economics Textbook Solutions
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