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Halogen Derivatives Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 10 Halogen Derivatives Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 10 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 10 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct option.

Question i.
The correct order of increasing reactivity of C-X bond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is

a. I < II < III < IV
b. II < I < III < IV
c. III < IV < II < I
d. IV < III < I < II
Answer:
(d) IV < III < I < II

Question ii.

The major product of the above reaction is,

Answer:
(c)

Question iii.
Which of the following is likely to undergo racemization during alkaline hydrolysis?

Answer:
(a) Only I

Question iv.
The best method for preparation of alkyl fluorides is
a. Finkelstein reaction
b. Swartz reaction
c. Free radical fluorination
d. Sandmeyer’s reaction
Answer:
b. Swartz reaction

Question v.
Identify the chiral molecule from the following.
a. 1-Bromobutane
b. 1,1- Dibromobutane
c. 2,3- Dibromobutane
d. 2-Bromobutane
Answer:
(d) 2-Bromobutane

Question vi.
An alkyl chloride on Wurtz reaction gives 2,2,5,5-tetramethylhexane. The same alkyl chloride on reduction with zinc-copper couple in alchol give hydrocarbon with molecular formula C₅H₁₂. What is the structure of alkyl chloride

Answer:
(a)

Question vii.
Butanenitrile may be prepared by heating
a. propanol with KCN
b. butanol with KCN
c. n-butyl chloride with KCN
d. n-propyl chloride with KCN
Answer:
(d) n-propyl chloride with KCN

Question viii.
Choose the compound from the following that will react fastest by S_N1 mechanism.
a. 1-iodobutane
b. 1-iodopropane
c. 2-iodo-2 methylbutane
d. 2-iodo-3-methylbutane
Answer:
(c) 2-iodo-2 methylbutane

Question ix.

The product ‘B’ in the above reaction sequence is,

Answer:
(d)

Question x.
Which of the following is used as source of dichlorocarbene
a. tetrachloromethane
b. chloroform
c. iodoform
d. DDT
Answer:
(b) chloroform

2. Do as directed.

Question i.
Write IUPAC name of the following compounds

Answer:

Question ii.
Write structure and IUPAC name of the major product in each of the following reaction.


Answer:
Structure and IUPAC name

Question iii.
Identify chiral molecule/s from the following.

Answer:
Chiral molecule

Question iv.
Which one compound from the following pairs would undergo S_N2 faster from the?

Answer:
(1) Sincey is a primary halide it undergoes S_N2 reaction faster than .
(2) Since iodine is a better leaving group than chloride, 1-iodo propane (CH₃CH₂CH₂I) undergoes S_N2 reaction faster than l-chloropropane (CH₃CH₂CH₂CI).

Question v.
Complete the following reactions giving major product.

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Answer:

Question vi.
Name the reagent used to bring about the following conversions.
a. Bromoethane to ethoxyethane
b. 1-Chloropropane to 1 nitropropane
c. Ethyl bromide to ethyl isocyanide
d. Chlorobenzene to biphenyl
Answer:

Question vii.
Arrange the following in the increase order of boiling points
a. 1-Bromopropane
b. 2- Bromopropane
c. 1- Bromobutane
d. 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane
Answer:
l-Bromo-2-methylpropane, 2-Bromopropane, 1-Bromopropane, 1-Bromo butane

Question viii.
Match the pairs.

Answer:

3. Give reasons

Question i.
Haloarenes are less reactive than haloalkanes.
Answer:
Haloarenes (Aryl halides) are less reactive than (alkyl halides) haloalkanes due to the following reasons :

(1) Resonance effect : In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen atom are in conjugation with 7r-electrons of the benzene ring. The delocalization of these electrons C-Cl bond acquires partial double bond character.

Due to partial double bond character of C-Cl bond in aryl halides, the bond cleavage in haloarene is difficult and are less reactive. On the other hand, in alkyl halides, carbon is attached to chlorine by a single bond and it can be easily broken.

(2) Aryl halides are stabilized by resonance but alkyl halides are not. Hence, the energy of activation for the displacement of halogen from aryl halides is much greater than that of alkyl halides.

(3) Different hybridization state of carbon atom in C-X bond :
(i) In alkyl halides, the carbon of C-X bond is sp³-hybridized with less 5-character and greater bond length of 178 pm, which requires less energy to break the C-X bond.

(ii) In aryl halides, the carbon of C-X bond is sp³-hybridized with more 5-character and shorter bond length which requires more energy to break C-X bond. Therefore, aryl halides are less reactive than alkyl halides.

(iii) Polarity of the C-X bond : In aryl halide C-X bond is less polar than in alkyl halides. Because sp³-hybrid carbon of C-X bond has less tendency to release electrons to the halogen than a sp³-hybrid carbon in alkyl halides. Thus halogen atom in aryl halides cannot be easily displaced by nucleophile.

(2) Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions.
Answer:
Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction due to the following reasons : (1) Resonance effect : In haloarenes, the electron pairs on halogen atom are in conjugation with 7r-electrons of the benzene ring. The delocalization of these electrons C-Cl bond acquires partial double bond character.

Due to partial double bond character of C-Cl bond in aryl halides, the bond cleavage in haloarene is difficult and are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution.

(2) Sp² hybrid state of C : Different hybridization state of carbon atom in C-X bond : In aryl halides, the carbon of C-X bond is sp²-hybridized with more 5-character and shorter bond length of 169 pm which requires more energy to break C-X bond. It is difficult to break a shorter bond than a longer bond, in alkyl chloride (bond length 178 pm) therefore, aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.

(3) Instability of phenyl cation : In aryl halides, the phenyl cation formed due to self ionisation will not be stabilized by resonance which rules out possibility of S_N1 mechanism. Also backside attack of nucleophile is blocked by the aromatic ring which rules out S_N2 mechanism. Thus cations are not formed and hence aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction easily.

(4) As any halides are electron rich molecules due to the presence of re-bond, they repel electron rich nucleophilic, attack. Hence, aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions. However, the presence of electron withdrawing groups at o/p position activates the halogen of aryl halides towards substitution.

(3) Aryl halides undergo electrophilic substitution reactions slowly.
Answer:
Aryl halides undergo electrophilic substitution reactions slowly and it can be explained as follows :

(1) Inductive effect : The strongly electronegative halogen atom withdraws the electrons from carbon, atom of the ring, hence aryl halides show reactivity towards electrophilic attack.

(2) Resonance effect : The resonating structures of aryl halides show increase in electron density at ortho and para position, hence it is o, p directing.

The inductive effect and resonance effect compete with each other. The inductive effect is stronger than resonance effect. The reactivity of aryl halides is controlled by stronger inductive effect and o, p orientation is controlled by weaker resonating effect.

The attack of electrophile (Y) on haloarenes at ortho and para positions are more stable due to formation of chloronium ion. The chloronium ion formed is comparatively more stable than other hybrid structures of carbonium ion.

(4) Reactions involving Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous condition.
Answer:
(1) Grignard reagent (R Mg X) is an organometallic compound. The carbon-magnesium bond is highly polar and magnesium halogen bond is in ionic in nature. Grignard reagent is highly reactive.

(2) The reactions of Grignard reagent are carried out in dry conditions because traces of moisture may spoil the reaction and Grignard reagent reacts with water to produce alkane. Hence, reactions involving Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous condition.

(5) Alkyl halides are generally not prepared by free radical halogenation of alkane.
Answer:
(1) Free radical halogenation of alkane gives a mixture of all different possible Monohaloalkanes as well as polyhalogen alkanes.
(2) In this method, by changing the quantity of halogen the desired product can be made to predominate over the other
products. Hence, alkyl halides are generally not prepared by free radical halogenation of alkane.

Question ii.
Alkyl halides though polar are immiscible with water.
Answer:
(1) In alkyl halide, the halogen atom is more electronegative than carbon atom, the C – X bond is polar.
(2) Though alkyl halide is polar, it is insoluble in water because alkyl halide is not able to form hydrogen bonds with water. Attraction between alkyl halide molecule is stronger than attraction between alkyl halide and water.

(2) C-F bond in CH₃F is the strongest bond and C-I bond in CH₃I is the weakest bond. Explain.
Answer:
(1) Methyl fluoride (CH₃F) is highly polar molecule and has the shortest C-F bond length (139 pm) and the strongest C-F bond due to greater overlap of orbitals of the same principal quantum number i.e., overlap of 2sp³ orbital of carbon with 2pz orbital of fluorine.
(2) Methyl iodide (CH₃I) is much less polar and has the longest (C-I) bond length (214 pm) and the weakest C-I bond due to poor overlap of 2sp³ orbital carbon with 5pz orbital of iodine i.e., 2sp³ orbital of carbon cannot penetrate into larger p-orbitals.

(3) The boiling point of alkyl iodide is higher than that of alkyl fluoride.
Answer:
For a given alkyl group, the boiling point increases with increasing atomic mass of the halogen, because magnitude of van der Waals force increases with increase in size and mass of halogen. Therefore, boiling point of alkyl iodide is higher than that of alkyl fluoride.

(4) The boiling point of isopropyl bromide is lower than that of it-propyl bromide.
Answer:
For isomeric alkyl halides (isopropyl bromide and n-propyl bromide), the boiling point decreases as the branching increases, surface area decreases on branching and van der Waals forces decrease, therefore, the boiling point of isopropyl bromide is lower than that of n-propyl bromide.

(5) p-Dichlorobenzene has mp. higher than those of o-and rn-isomers.
Answer:
p-Dichlorobenzene has higher melting point than those of o-and m-isomers. This is because of its symmetrical structure which can easily fits in crystal lattice. As a result intermolecular forces of attraction are stronger and therefore greater energy is required to overcome its lattice energy.

Question iii.
Reactions involving Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous conditions.

Question iv.
Alkyl halides are generally not prepared by free radical halogenation of alkanes.
Answer:
(1) Direct fluorination of alkanes is highly exothermic, explosive and invariably leads to polyfluorination and decomposition of the alkanes. It is difficult to control the reaction.
(2) Direct iodination of alkanes is highly reversible and difficult to carry out.
(3) In direct chlorination and bromination, the reaction is not selective. It can lead to different isomeric monohalogenated alkanes (alkyl halides) as well as polyhalogenated alkanes.
Hence, halogenation of alkanes is not a good method of preparation of alkyl halides.

4. Distinguish between – S_N1 and S_N2 mechanism of substitution reaction ?
Answer:

5. Explain – Optical isomerism in 2-chlorobutane.
Answer:
(1) 2-Chlorobutane contains an asymmetric. carbon atom (the starred carbon atom) which is attached to four different groups, i.e., ethyl (-CH₂ – CH₃), methyl (CH₃), chloro (Cl) and hydrogen (H) groups.

(2) Two different arrangements of these groups around the carbon atom are possible as shown in the figure. Hence, it exists as a pair of enanti¬omers. The two enantiomers are mirror images of each other and are not superimposable.

(3) One of the enantiomers will rotate the plane of plane-polarized light to the left hand side and is called the laevorotatory isomer (/-isomer). The other enantiomer will rotate the plane of plane-polarized light to the right hand side and is called the dextrorotatory isomer (d-isomer).

(4) Equimolar mixture of the d- and the 1-isomers is optically inactive and is called the racemic mixture or the racemate (dl-mixture). The optical inactivity of the racemic mixture is due to external compensation.

6. Convert the following.

Question i.
Propene to propan-1-ol
Answer:

Question ii.
Benzyl alcohol to benzyl cyanide
Answer:

Question iii.
Ethanol to propane nitrile
Answer:

Question iv.
But-1-ene to n-butyl iodide
Answer:

Question v.
2-Chloropropane to propan-1-ol
Answer:

Question vi.
tert-Butyl bromide to isobutyl bromide
Answer:

Question vii.
Aniline to chlorobenzene
Answer:

Question viii.
Propene to 1-nitropropane
Answer:

7. Answer the following

Question i.
HCl is added to a hydrocarbon ‘A’ (C₄H₈) to give a compound ‘B’ which on hydrolysis with aqueous alkali forms tertiary alcohol ‘C’ (C₄H10O). Identify ‘A’ , ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Answer:

Question ii.
Complete the following reaction sequences by writing the structural formulae of the organic compounds ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’.

Answer:

Question iii.
Observe the following and answer the questions given below.

a. Name the type of halogen derivative
b. Comment on the bond length of C-X bond in it
c. Can react by S_N1 mechanism? Justify your answer.
Answer:
a. Vinyl halide
b. C – X bond length shorter in vinyl halide than alkyl halide. Vinyl halide has partial double bond character due to resonance.

In vinyl halide, carbon is sp hybridised. The bond is shorter and stronger and the molecule is more stable.

c. Yes, It reacts by S_N1 mechanism. S_N1 mechanism involves formation of carbocation intermediate. The vinylic carbocation intermediate formed is resonance stabilized, hence S_N1 mechanism is favoured.

Activity :
1. Collect detailed information about Freons and their uses.
2. Collect information about DDT as a persistent pesticide.
Reference books
i. Organic chemistry by Morrison, Boyd, Bhattacharjee, 7^th edition, Pearson
ii. Organic chemistry by Finar, Vol 1, 6^th edition, Pearson

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 9 Halogen Derivatives Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power….. (Textbook page 212)

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names of the following:

Answer:

Question 10.1 : (Textbook page 213)

How will you obtain 1.bromo.1-methylcyclohexane from alkene? Write possible structures of alkene and the reaction involved.

Answer:

Use your brain power ….. (Textbook page 213)

Question 1.
Rewrite the following reaction by filling the blanks:

Answer:

Question 10.2 : (Textbook page 216)

Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing boiling points : bromoform, chloromethane, dibromomethane, bromomethane.
Answer:
The comparative boiling points of halogen derivatives are mainly related with van der Waals forces of attraction which depend upon the molecular size. In the present case all the compounds contain only one carbon. Thus the molecular size depends upon the size of halogen and number of halogen atoms present.

Thus increasing order of boiling point is, CH₃CI < CH₃Br < CH₂Br₂ < CHBr₃

Try this ….. (Textbook page 2016)

Question 1.
(1) Make a three-dimensional model of 2-chlorobutane.
(2) Make another model which is a mirror image of the first model.
(3) Try to superimpose the two models on each other.
(4) Do they superimpose on each other exactly ?
(5) Comment on whether the two models are identical or not.
Answer:
(1) (2) and (3)

(4) Two models are non-superimposable mir ror images of each other called enantiomers.

(5) Two enantiomers are identical. Theyhave the same physical properties (such as melting points, boiling points, densities refractive index). They also have identical chemical properties. The magnitude of their optical rotation is equal but the sign of optical rotation is opposite.

Try this ….. (Textbook page 219)

Question 1.
1. Draw structares of enantiomers of lactic acid using Fischer projection formulae.
2. Draw structures of enantiomers of 2-bromobutane using wedge formula.
Answer:
(1)

(2) Wedge formula : 2-brornobutane

Can you tell? (Textbook page 220)

Question 1.
Alkyl halides, when treated with alcoholic solution of silver nitrite, give nitroalkanes whereas with sodium nitrite they give alkyl nitrites. Explain.
Answer:
Nitrite ion is an ambident nucleophile, which can attack through ‘O’ or ‘N’.

Both nitrogen and oxygen are capable of donating electron pair. C – N bond, being stronger than N – O bond, attack occurs through C atom from alkyl halide forming nitroalkane.

However, sodium nitrite (NaNO₂) is an ionic compound and oxygen is free to donate pair of electrons. Hence, attack occurs through oxygen resulting in the formation of alkyl nitrite.

Use your brain power! (Textbook page 222)

Question 1.
Draw the Fischer projection formulae of two products obtained when compound (A) reacts with OHe by S_N1 mechanis.

Answer:

Question 2.
Draw the Fischer projection formula of the product formed when compound (B) reacts with OHΘ by S_N2 mechanism.

Answer:

Question 10.4 : (Textbook page 223)

Allylic and benzylic halides show high reactivity towards the S_N1 mechanism than other primary alkyl halides. Explain.
Answer:
In allylic and benzylic halide, the carbocation formed undergoes stabilization through the resonance. Hence, allylic and benzylic halides show high reactivity towards the S_N1 reaction. The resonating structures are

Resonance stabilization of allylic carbocation

Resonance stabilization of benzylic carbocation

Question 10.5 : (Textbook page 224)

Which of the following two compounds would react faster by SN2 mechanism and Why?

Answer :
In S_N2 mechanism, a pentacoordinate T.S. is involved. The order of reactivity of alkyl halides towards S_N2 mechanism is.
Primary > Secondary > Tertiary, (due to increasing crowding in T.S. from primary to tertiary halides.
1- Chlorobutane being primary halide will react faster by S_N2 mechanism, than the secondary halide 2- chlorobutane.)

Can you tell? (Textbook page 227)

Question 1.
Conversion of chlorobenzene to phenol by aqueous sodium hydroxide requires a high temperature of about 623K and high pressure. Explain.

Answer:
Due to the partial double bond character in chlorobenzene, the bond cleavage in chlorobenzene is difficult and is less reactive. Hence, during the conversion of chlorobenzene to phenol by a question NaOH requires high temperature & high pressure.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Coordination Compounds Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Halogen Derivatives Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Amines Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Introduction to Polymer Chemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Coordination Compounds Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 9 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct option.

Question i.
The oxidation state of cobalt ion in the complex [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄ is ……………………….
a. + 2
b. + 3
c. + 1
d. + 4
Answer:
(b) + 3

Question ii.
IUPAC name of the complex [Pt(en)₂(SCN)₂]²⁺ is ………………………
a. bis (ethylenediamine dithiocyanatoplatinum (IV) ion
b. bis (ethylenediamine) dithiocyantoplatinate (IV) ion
c. dicyanatobis (ethylenediamine) platinate IV ion
d. bis (ethylenediammine)dithiocynato platinate (IV) ion
Answer:
(a) bis(ethylenediamine dithiocyanatoplatinum (IV) ion

Question iii.
Formula for the compound sodium hexacynoferrate (III) is
a. [NaFe(CN)₆]
b. Na₂[Fe(CN)₆]
c. Na[Fe(CN)₆]
d. Na₃[Fe(CN)₆]
Answer:
(d) Na₃[Fe(CN)₆]

Question iv.
Which of the following complexes exist as cis and trans isomers?
1. [Cr(NH₂)₂Cl₄]^⊕
2. [Co(NH₃)₅Br]^2⊕
3. [PtCl₂Br₂]^2⊕ (square planar)
4. [FeCl₂(NCS)₂]^2⊕ (tetrahedral)
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 4 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

Question v.
Which of the following complexes are chiral?
1. [Co(en)₂Cl₂]^⊕
2. [Pt(en)Cl₂]
3. [Cr(C₂O₄)₃]^3⊕
4. [Co(NH₃)4CI₂]^⊕
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

Question vi.
On the basis of CFT predict the number of unpaired electrons in [CrF₆]^3⊕.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question vii.
When an excess of AgNO₃ is added to the complex one mole of AgCl is precipitated. The formula of the complex is ……………..
a. [CoCl2(NH₃)₄]Cl
b. [CoCl(NH₃)₄] Cl₂
c. [CoCl₃(NH₃)₃]
d. [Co(NH₃)₄]Cl₃
Answer:
(a) [COCI₃(NH₃)₄]CI

Question viii.
The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of M in [M(en)₂C₂O₄]Cl is
a. 6
b. 7
c. 9
d. 8
Answer:
(c) 9

2. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question i.
Write the formula for tetraammineplatinum (II) chloride.
Answer:
Formula of tetraamineplatinum(II) chloride : [Pt(NH₃)₄]CI₂

Table 9.1 : IUPAC names of anionic and neutral ligands

Table 9.2: IUPAC names of anionic complexes

Table 9.3 : IUPAC names of some complexes

Question ii.
Predict whether the [Cr(en)₂(H₂O)₂]³⁺ complex is chiral. Write structure of its enantiomer.
Answer:
(i) Complex is chiral.
(ii) The following are its enantiomers

Question iv.
Name the Lewis acids and bases in the complex [PtCl₂(NH₃)₂].
Answer:
Lewis acid : Pt²⁺
Lewis bases : Cl^– and NF₃

Question v.
What is the shape of a complex in which the coordination number of central metal ion is 4?
Answer:
A complex with the coordination number of central metal ion equal to 4 may be tetrahedral or square planar.

Question vi.
Is the complex [CoF₆] cationic or anionic if the oxidation state of cobalt ion is +3?
Answer:
In the complex, Co carries + 3 charge while 6F^– carry – 6 charge. Hence the net charge on the complex is – 3.
Therefore it is an anionic complex.

Question vii.
Consider the complexes [Cu(NH₃)₄][PtCl₄] and [Pt(NH₃)₄] [CuCl₄]. What type of isomerism these two complexes exhibit?
Answer:
Since in these two given complexes, there is an exchange of ligands between cationic and anionic constituents, they exhibit coordination isomerism.

Question viii.
Mention two applications of coordination compounds.
Answer:
(1) In biology : Several biologically important natural compounds are metal complexes which play an important role in number of processes occurring in plants and animals.

For example, chlorophyll in plants is a complex of Mg²⁺ ions, haemoglobin in blood is a complex of iron, vitamin B₁₂ is a complex of cobalt.

(2) In medicine : The complexes are used on a large scale in medicine. Many medicines in the complex form are more stable, more effective and can be assimilated easily.

For example, platinum complex [Pt(NH₃)₂CI₂] known as cisplatin is effectively used in cancer treatment. EDTA is used to treat poisoning by heavy metals like lead.

(3) To estimate hardness of water :

• The hardness of water is due to the presence Mg²⁺ and Ca²⁺ ion in water.
• The strong field ligand EDTA forms stable complexes with Mg²⁺ and Ca²⁺. Hence these ions can be removed by adding EDTA to hard water.

Similarly these ions can be selectively estimated due to the difference in their stability constants.

(4) Electroplating : This involves deposition of a metal on the other metal. For smooth plating, it is necessary to supply continuously the metal ions in small amounts.
For this purpose, a solution of a coordination compound is used which dissociates to a very less extent. For example, for uniform and thin plating of silver and gold, the complexes K[Ag(CN)₂] and K[Au(CN)₂] are used.

3. Answer in brief.

Question i.
What are bidentate ligands? Give one example.
Answer:
Bidentate ligand : This ligand has two donor atoms in the molecule or ion. For example, ethylenediamine, H₂N – (CH₂)₂ – NH₂.

Question ii.
What is the coordination number and oxidation state of metal ion in the complex [Pt(NH₃)Cl₅]²?
Answer:
Coordination number = 6
Oxidation state of Pt = +4.

Question iii.
What is the difference between a double salt and a complex? Give an example.
Answer:

Question iv.
Classify the following complexes as homoleptic and heteroleptic
[Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄, [Cu(en)₂(H₂O)Cl]^3⊕, [Fe(H₂O)₅(NCS)]^2⊕, tetraammine zinc (II) nitrate.
Answer:
Homoleptic complex :
(a) [Cu(NH₃)₄]SO₄
(d) Tetraaminezinc (II) nitrate : [Zn(NH₃)₄](NO₃)₂

Heteroleptic Complex :
(b) [Cu(en)₂(H₂O)CI]²⁺
(c) [Fe(H₂O)₅(NCS)]²⁺

Question v.
Write formulae of the following complexes
a. Potassium ammine-tri chloroplatinate (II)
b. Dicyanoaurate (I) ion
Answer:
(a) Potassium amminetrichloroplatinate(II) K[Pt(NH₃)CI₃]
(b) Dicyanoaurate (I) ion [AU(CN)₂]^–

Question vi.
What are ionization isomers? Give an example.
Answer:
Ionisation isomers : The coordination compounds having same molecular composition but differ in the compositions of coordination (or inner) sphere and outer sphere and produce different ions on ionisation in the solution are called ionisation isomers. For example, Pentaamminesulphatocobalt (III) bromide [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄] Br, Pentaamminebromocobalt(III) sulphate [Co(NH₃)₅Br] SO₄.

Question vii.
What are the high-spin and low-spin complexes?
Answer:
(1) High spin complex (HS) :

• The complex which has greater iwmher of unpaired electrons and hence a higher value of resultant spin and magnetic moment is called high spin (or spin free) or IlS complex.
• It is formed with weak field ligands and the complexes have lower values for crystal field splitting energy (CFSE). Δ₀
• The paramagnetism of HS complex is larger.

(2) Low spin complex (LS) :

• The complex which has the Icasi number of unpaired electrons or all electrons paired and hence the lowest
  (or no) resultant spin or magnetic moment is called low spin (or spin paired) or LS complex.
• It is formed with strong tickl ligands and the complexes have higher values of crystal field splitting energy (Δ₀).
• Low spin complex is diamagnetic or has low paramagnetism.

Table 9.5 : d-orbitai diagrams fir high spin and low spin complexes

(Only the electronic configurations c4 to d1 render the high spin and low spin complexes)

Question viii.
[CoCl₄]^2⊕ is a tetrahedral complex. Draw its box orbital diagram. State which orbitals participate in hybridization.
Answer:
₂₇Co [Ar] 3d⁷4s²
Oxidation state of Co = +2 Co²⁺ [Ar] 3d⁷ 4s°
Since CI^– is a weak ligand, there is no pairing of electrons. Since C.N. is 4, there is sp³ hybridisation.

Question ix.
What are strong field and weak field ligands? Give one example of each.
Answer:
The ligands are then classified as (a) strong field and (b) weak field ligands. Strong field ligands are those in which donor atoms are C,N or P. Thus CN^–, NC^–, CO, HN₃, EDTA, en (ethylenediammine) are considered to be strong ligands. They cause larger splitting of d orbitals and pairing of electrons is favoured. These ligands tend to form low spin complexes. Weak field ligands are those in which donor atoms are halogens, oxygen or sulphur.

For example, F^–, CI^–, Br^–, I^–, SCN^–, C₂O₄^2-. In case of these ligands the A0 parameter is smaller compared to the energy required for the pairing of electrons, which is called as electron pairing energy. The ligands then can be arranged in order of their increasing field strength as
I^– < Br^– < CI^– < S^2- < F^– < OH^– < C₂O₄^2- < H₂O < NCS^– < EDTA < NH₃ < en < CN^– < CO.

Question x.
With the help of a crystal field energy-level diagram explain why the complex [Cr(en)₃]^3⊕ is coloured?
Answer:

Since (en) is a strong field ligand there is pairing of electrons. The electrons occupy the t_2g orbitals of lower energy. It has one unpaired electron. Due to d-d transition, it is coloured.

4. Answer the following questions.

Question i.
Give valence bond description for the hybrid orbitals are used by the metal? State the number of unpaired electrons.
Answer:
Since CI^– is a weak ligand, there is no pairing of electrons.
Number of unpaired electrons = 2
Type of hybridisation = sp³

Geometry of complex ion = Tetrahedral
The complex ion is paramagnetic.

Question ii.
Draw a qualitatively energy-level diagram showing d-orbital splitting in the octahedral environment. Predict the number of unpaired electrons in the complex [Fe(CN)₆]^4⊕. Is the complex diamagnetic or paramagnetic? Is it coloured? Explain.
Answer:
(A) r-orbital splitting in the octahedral environment :

(B) [Fe (CN)₆]^4- is an octahedral complex.
(C) Since CN^– is a strong ligand, there is pairing of electrons and the complex is diamagnetic.
(D) The complex exists as lemon yellow crystals.
(In the complex all electrons in t_2g are paired and requires high radiation energy for excitation.)

Question iii.
Draw isomers in each of the following
a. [Pt(NH₃)₂ClNO₂]
b. [Ru(NH₃)4Cl₂]
c. [Cr(en₂)Br₂]^⊕
Answer:
(a) [Pt(NH₃)₂CINO₂]

(b) [RU(NH₃)₄CI₂]

(c) [Cr(en₂)Br₂]⁺

Question iv.
Draw geometric isomers and enantiomers of the following complexes.
a. [Pt(en)₃]^4⊕
b. [Pt(en)₂ClBr]^2⊕
Answer:
The complex [Pt(en)₃]⁴⁺ has two optical isomers.

Question v.
What are ligands? What are their types? Give one example of each type.
Answer:
Ligands : The neutral molecules or negatively charged anions (or rarely positive ions) which are bonded by coordinate bonds to the central metal atom or metal ion in a coordination compound are called ligands or donor groups. For example in [Cu(CN)₄]^2-, four CN^– ions are ligands coordinated to central metal ion Cu²⁺. Ligands can be classified on the basis of number of electron donor atoms in the ligand i.e. denticity.

(1) Monodentate or unidentate ligand : A ligand molecule or an ion which has only one donor atom with a lone pair of electrons forming only one coordinate bond with metal atom or ion in the complex is called monodentate or unidentate ligand. For example NH₃, Cl^–, OH^–, H₂O, etc.

(2) Polydentate or multidentate ligand : A ligand molecule or an ion which has two or more donor atoms with the lone pairs of electrons forming two or more coordinate bonds with the central metal atom or ion in the complex is called polydentate or multidentate ligand. For example, ethylene diamine, H₂N – (CH₂)₂ – NH₂.
According to the number of donor atoms they are classified as follows :

• Bidentate ligand : This ligand has two donor atoms in the molecule or ion. For example, ethylenediamine, H₂N – (CH₂)₂ – NH₂.
• Tridentate ligand : This ligand molecule has three donor atoms or three sites of attachment.
  E.g. Diethelene triamine, H₂N – CH₂ – CH₂ – NH – CH₂ – CH₂ – NH₂. This has three N donor atoms.
• Tetradentate (or quadridentate) ligand : This ligand molecule has four donor atoms.
  Eg. Triethylene tetraamine which has four N donor atoms.
• Hexdentate ligand : This ligand molecule has six donor atoms. E.g. Ethylenediamine tetracetato.

(3) Ambidentate ligand : A ligand molecule or an ion which has two or more donor atoms, however in the formation of a complex, only one donor atom is attached to the metal atom or an ion is called ambidentate ligand. For example, NO^–₂ which has two donor atoms N and O forming a coordinate bond, M ← ONO (nitrito) or M ← NO₂ (nitro).

(4) Bridging ligand : A monodentate ligand having more than one lone pairs of electrons, hence can attach to two or more metal atoms or ions and hence acts as a bridge between different metal atoms is called bridging ligand. For example : OH^–, F^–, SO₄^-2, etc.

Question vi.
What are cationic, anionic and neutral complexes? Give one example of each.
Answer:
(1) Cationic sphere complexes : A positively charged coordination sphere or a coordination compound having a positively charged coordination sphere is called cationic sphere complex.

For example : [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺ and [Co(NH₃)₅CI] SO₄ are cationic complexes. The latter has coordination sphere [Co(NH₃)₅CI]²⁺, the anion SO₄²⁺ makes it electrically neutral.

(2) Anionic sphere complexes : A negatively charged coordination sphere or a coordination compound having negatively charged coordination sphere is called anionic sphere complex. For example, [Ni(CN)₄]²⁺ and K₃[Fe(CN)₆] have anionic coordination sphere; [Fe(CN)₆]^3- and three K+ ions make the latter electrically neutral.

(3) Neutral sphere complexes : A neutral coordination complex does not possess cationic or anionic sphere.

[Pt(NH₃)₂CI₂] or [Ni(CO)₄] are neither cation nor anion but are neutral sphere complexes.

Question vii.
How stability of the coordination compounds can be explained in terms of equilibrium constants?
Answer:
Stability of the coordination compounds : The stability of coordination compounds can be explained on the basis of their stability constants. The stability of coordination compounds depends on metal-ligand interactions. In the complex, metal serves as electron-pair acceptor (Lewis acid) while the ligand as Lewis base (since it is electron
donor). The metal-ligand interaction can be realized as the Lewis acid-Lewis base interaction. Stronger the interaction greater is stability of the complex.

Consider the equilibrium for the metal-ligand interaction :
M^a+ + nL^x- ⇌ [ML_n]^a+(-nx)
where a, x, [a + ( – nx)] denote the charge on the metal, ligand and the complex, respectively. Now, the equilibrium constant K is given by

Stability of the complex can be explained in terms of K. Higher the value of K larger is the thermodynamic stability of the complex hence K is called stability constant, and denoted by Kstah. The equilibria for the complex formation with the corresponding K values are given below.

Ag⁺ + 2CN^– ⇌ [Ag(CN)2]^– K = 5.5 x 10¹⁸
Cu²⁺ + 4CN^– ⇌ [CU(CN)4]^2- K = 2.0 x 10²⁷
Co³⁺ + 6NH₃ ⇌ [CO(NH3)6]³⁺ K = 5.0 x 10³³

From the above data, the stability of the complexes is [Co(NH₃)₆]³⁺ > [Cu(CN)₄]^2- > [Ag(CN)₂]^–.

Question viii.
Name the factors governing the equilibrium constants of the coordination compounds.
Answer:
The equilibrium constant of the complex depends on the following factors :

(a) Charge to size ratio of the metal ion : Higher the ratio greater is the stability. For the divalent metal ion complexes their stability shows the trend : Cu²⁺ > Ni²⁺ > Co²⁺ > Fe²⁺ > Mn²⁺ > Cd²⁺. The above stability order is called the Irving-William order. In the above list both Cu and Cd have the charge + 2, however, the ionic radius of Cu2 + is 69 pm and that of Cd2 + is 97 pm. The charge to size ratio of Cu²⁺ is greater than that of Cd²⁺. Therefore the Cu²⁺ forms stable complexes than Cd²⁺.

(b) Nature of the ligand : A second factor that governs stability of the complexes is related to how easily the ligand can donate its lone pair of electrons to the central metal ion that is, the basicity of the ligand. The ligands those are stronger bases tend to form more stable complexes.

Activity :
1. The reaction of chromium metal with H 2SO4 in the absence of air gives blue solution of chromium ion.
Cr(s) + 2H^⊕(aq) → Cr^2⊕(aq) + H₂(s)
Cr^2⊕ forms octahedral complex with H₂O ligands.
a. Write formula of the complex
b. Describe bonding in the complex using CFT and VBT.
Draw crystal field splitting and valence bond orbital diagrams.

2. Reaction of complex [Co(NH₃)₃(NO₂)₃ with HCl gives a complex [Co(NH₃)₃H₂OCl₂]^⊕ in which two chloride ligands are trans to one another.
a. Draw possible stereoisomers of starting material
b. Assuming that NH₃ groups remain in place, which of two starting isomers would give the observed product?

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds Intext Questions and Answers

Use your brain power ……. (Textbook page 192)

Question 1.
Draw Lewis structures of the following ligands and identify the donor atom in them :
NH₃, H₂O.
Answer:

Try this ………. (Textbook page 193)

Question 1.
Can you write ionisation of [Ni (NH₃)₆] CI₂?
Answer:
[Ni (NH₃)₆] CI₂ → [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺ + 2CI^–

Question 2.
Identify coordination sphere and counter ions.
Answer:
Coordination sphere : [Ni(NH₃)₆]²⁺
Counter ions : CI^–

Can you tell ? (Textbook page 193)

Question 1.
A complex is made of Co (III) and consists of four NH₃ molecules and two CI^– ions as ligands. What is the charge number and formula of complexion?
Answer:
The complex ion has formula, [Co(NH₃)₄CI₂]⁺.
The charge number is + 1.

Use vour brain power ……………… (Textbook page 193)

Question 1.
Coordination number used in coordination of compounds is somewhat different than that used in solid state. Explain.
Answer:

• In a coordination compound the coordination number is the number of donor atoms of ligands directly attached to metal atom or ion.
• In a solid state, the number of closest constituent atoms or ions in contact with a particular atom in the crystal lattice is called coordination number.
• In a coordination compound, coordination number depends upon nature of metal atom or ion, and its electronic configuration.
• In a solid state, the coordination number depends upon the crystalline structure of the unit cell.

Can you tell? ………………. (Textbook page 194)

Question 1.
What is the coordination number of
(a) Co in [CoCl₂(en)₂]⁺ = 6
(b) Ir in [Ir(C₂O₄)₂Cl₂]³⁺ and
(c) Pt in [Pt(NO₂)₂(NH₃)₂] ?
Answer:
(a) Coordination number of Co in [CoCl₂(en)₂]⁺ = 6
(b) Coordination number of Ir in [Ir(C₂O₄)₂Cl₂]³⁺ = 6
(c) Coordination number of Pt in [Pt(NO₂)₂(NH₃)₂] = 4

Use your brain power ……… (Textbook page 195)

Question 1.
Classify the complexes as homoleptic and heteroleptic:
(a) [Co (NH₃)₅CI]SO₄,
(b) [CO(ONO)(NH₃)₅]CI₂,
(c) [CoCl(NH₃)(en)₂]²⁺ and
(d) [Cu(C2O₄)₃]^3-
Answer:
Homoleptic Complexes : (d) [Cu(C₂O₄)₃]^3-
Heteroleptic Complexes : (a) [CO(NH₃)₅CI]SO₄
(b) [CO(ONO)(NH₃)₅]CI₂,
(C) [CoCl(NH₃)(en)₂]²⁺

Use your brain power ……… (Textbook page 195)

Question 1.
Classify the complexes as cationic, anionic or Cr(H₂O)₂(C₂O₄)_2^3-, PtCI₂(en)₂ and Cr(CO)₆.
Answer:
Cationic complexes : [CO(NH₃)₆]CI₂
Anionic complexes : Na4[Fe(CN)₆], [Cr(H₂O)₂ (C₂O₄)2]^3-
Neutral complexes : Cr(CO)₆, Pt CI₂(en)₂

Try this ……. (Textbook page 197)

Question 1.
Write the representation of the following :
(i) Tricarbonatocobaltate(III) ion.
(ii) Sodium hexacyanoferrate(III).
(iii) Potassium hexacyafioferrate(II).
(iv) Aquachlorobis(ethylenediamine)cobalt(III).
(v) Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride.
(vi) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II).
Answer:
(i) [Co(C0₃)₃]^3-
(ii) Na₃[Fe(CN)₆]
(iii) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
(iv) Co(en)₂(H₂O)(Cl)
(v) [Cr(H₂O)₄CI₂]CI
(vi) Pt(NH₃)₂CI₂

Try this …… (Textbook page 196)

Question 1.
Find out the EAN of
(a) [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺
(b) [Fe(CN)₆]⁴⁺
Answer:
(a) For the complex ion, [Zn(NH₃)₄]²⁺ :
Atomic number of Zn = Z = 30
Charge on metal ion = + 2
∴ Number of electrons lost by Zn atom = X = 2 Total number of electrons donated by 4NH^₂3
ligands = Y = 2 x 4 = 8
EAN = Z – X + Y
= 30 – 2 + 8
= 36

(Note : This is atomic number of the nearest inert element 3₆Kr.)

(b) For the complex ion, [Fe(CN)J^4- :
For Fe, Z = 26 (Atomic number)
X = 2 (Due to + 2 charge on Fe)
Y = 12 (Due to 6 CN^– ligands)
∴ EAN = Z – X + Y
= 26 – 2 + 12
= 36

Use your brain power …… (Textbook page 197)

Question 1.
Do the following complexes follow the EAN rule
(a) Cr(CO)₄,
(b) Ni(CO)₄,
(c) Mn(CO)₅,
(d) Fe(CO)₅?
Answer:
(a) Cr(CO)₄ : EAN = Z – X + Y
(b) Ni(C0)4 : EAN = Z – X + Y
= 24 – 0 + 8
= 28 – 0 + 8
= 32
= 36
(c) Mn(CO)₅ : EAN = Z – X + Y
= 25 – 0 + 10
= 35

(d) Fe(CO)5 : EAN = Z – X + Y
= 26 – 0 + 10
= 36

Conclusion :
(a) Cr(CO)₄ and (c) Mn(CO)₅ do not follow EAN Rule.

Try this ….. (Textbook page 199)

Question 1.
Draw structures of ci,c and trans isomers of [Fe(NH₃)₂(CN)₄]
Answer:

Remember ….. (Textbook page 199)

Our hands are non-superimposable mirror images. When you hold your left hand up to a mirror the image looks like right hand.

Try this ….. (Textbook page 199)

Question 1.
Draw enantiomers of [Cr(OX)₂]³ where OX = C₂O4 :
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw (A) enantiomers and (B) cis and trans isomers of [Cr(H₂O)₂(OX)₂] :
Answer:
(A) Enantiomers :

(B) as and trans isomers :

Can you tell ? ….. (Textbook page 200)

Question 1.
Can you write IUPAC names of isomers (I) [Co(NH₃)₅SO₄]Br and (II) [Co(NH₃)₅Br]SO₄?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write linkage isomers of [Fe(H₂O)₅SCN]⁺. Write their IUPAC names.
Answer:

Use your brain power …..(Textbook page 201)

Question 1.
The stability constant K of the [Ag(CN)₂]^– is 5.5 x 10 while that for the corresponding [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ is 1.6 x 10⁷. Explain why [Ag(CN)₂]^2- is more stable.
Answer:
Stability constant of [Ag(CN)₂]^2- is larger than that of [Ag(NH₃)₂]⁺ and hence [Ag(CN)₂]^2- is more stable. Also, CN is a stronger ligand than NH₃.

Remember …… (Textbook Page 202)

Question 1.
Complete the missing entries.

(Note : The missing entries are underlined.)

Table 9.3: Type of hybridisation and geometry of a complex

Try this ….. (Textbook page 204)

Question 1.
Based on the VBT predict structure and magnetic behaviour of the [Ni(NH₃)₆]
Answer:
₂₈Ni [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s²
Ni³⁺ [Ar] 3d⁷ 4s°
Hybridisation : sp³d²
Geometry : Octahedral
Magnetic property : Paramagnetic

Try this …… (Textbook page 202)

Question 1.
Give VBT description of bonding in each of following complexes. Predict their magnetic behaviour.
(a) [ZnCI₄]²⁺
(b) [CO(H₂O)₆]^2- (high spin)
(c) [Pt(CN)₄]^2- (square planar)
(d) [CoCI₄]^2- (tetrahedral)
(e) [Cr(NH₃)₆]³⁺

Try this ……. (Textbook page 206)

Question 1.
Sketch qualitatively crystal field d orbital energy level diagrams for each of the following complexes :
(a) [Ni(en)₃]²⁺ (b) [Mn(CN)₆]^3- (c) [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺
Predict whether each of the complexes is diamagnetic or paramagnetic.
Answer:
(a) The complex ion, [Ni(en)₃]²⁺ is octahedral.
₂₈Ni [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s²
Ni²⁺ [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s°.

Since en is a strong ligand there is pairing of electrons.
Number of unpaired electrons = n = 2 in t_2g, orbitals
Magnetic moment = \(\mu=\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)
\(=\sqrt{2(2+2)}=2.83 \mathrm{~B} . \mathrm{M} .\)

The complex ion is paramagnetic.

(b) The complex ion [Mn(CN)₆]^3- is octahedral.
₂₅Mn [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s²
Mn³⁺ [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s°

Since CN^– is a strong ligand there is pairing of electrons.
Number of unpaired electrons = n = 2 in t_2g, orbitals
Magnetic moment = \(\mu=\sqrt{n(n+2)}\)
\(=\sqrt{2(2+2)}=2.83 \mathrm{~B} . \mathrm{M}\).

The complex ion is paramagnetic.

(c) The complex ion [Fe(H₂O)₆]²⁺ is octahedral.
₂₆Fe [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s²
Fe²⁺ [Ar] 3d⁶ 45°

Since H₂O is a weak ligand, there is no pairing of electrons.
Number of unpaired electrons = n = 4 in t_2g and e_g orbitals.
Magnetic moment
\(\begin{aligned}
=\mu &=\sqrt{n(n+2)} \\
&=\sqrt{4(4+2)} \\
&=4.90 \mathrm{~B} . \mathrm{M} .
\end{aligned}\)
The complex ion is paramagnetic.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Coordination Compounds Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Halogen Derivatives Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Amines Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Biomolecules Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Introduction to Polymer Chemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Green Chemistry and Nanochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 8 Transition and Inner Transition Elements Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 8 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the most correct option.

Question i.
Which one of the following is diamagnetic
a. Cr^3⊕
b. Fe^3⊕
c. Cu^2⊕
d. Sc^3⊕
Answer:
d. Sc^3⊕

Question ii.
Most stable oxidation state of Titanium is
a. +2
b. +3
c. +4
d. +5
Answer:
c. +4

Question iii.
Components of Nichrome alloy are
a. Ni, Cr, Fe
b. Ni, Cr, Fe, C
c. Ni, Cr
d. Cu, Fe
Answer:
(c) Ni, Cr

Question iv.
Most stable oxidation state of Ruthenium is
a. +2
b. +4
c. +8
d. +6
Answer:
(b) +4

Question v.
Stable oxidation states for chromium are
a. +2, +3
b. +3, +4
c. +4, +5
d. +3, +6
Answer:
d. +3, +6

Question vi.
Electronic configuration of Cu and Cu⁺¹
a. 3d¹⁰, 4s⁰; 3d⁹, 4s⁰
b. 3d⁹, 4s¹; 3d⁹4s⁰
c. 3d¹⁰, 4s¹; 3d¹⁰, 4s⁰
d. 3d⁸, 4s¹; 3d¹⁰, 4s⁰
Answer:
c. 3d¹⁰, 4s¹; 3d¹⁰, 4s°

Question vii.
Which of the following have d0s0 configuration
a. Sc^3⊕
b. Ti^4⊕
c. V^5⊕
d. all of the above
Answer:
d. All of the above

Question viii.
Magnetic moment of a metal complex is 5.9 B.M. Number of unpaired electrons in the complex is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Answer:
d. 5

Question ix.
In which of the following series all the elements are radioactive in nature
a. Lanthanoids
b. Actinoids
c. d-block elements
d. s-block elements
Answer:
b. Actinides

Question x.
Which of the following sets of ions contain only paramagnetic ions
a. Sm^3⊕, Ho^3⊕, Lu^3⊕
b. La^3⊕, Ce^3⊕, Sm^3⊕
c. La^3⊕, Eu^3⊕, Gd^3⊕
d. Ce^3⊕, Eu^3⊕, Yb^3⊕
Answer:
d. Ce^3⊕, Eu^3⊕, Yb^3⊕

Question xi.
Which actinoid, other than uranium, occur in a significant amount naturally?
a. Thorium
b. Actinium
c. Protactinium
d. Plutonium
Answer:
a. Thorium

Question xii.
The flux added during extraction of Iron from hematite are its?
a. Silica
b. Calcium carbonate
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Alumina
Answer:
b. Calcium carbonate

2. Answer the following

Question i.
What is the oxidation state of Manganese in
\(\text { (i) } \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{2-}(\mathrm{ii}) \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-} \text {? }\)
Answer:
Oxidation state of Manganese in
\((i) \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{2-} is +6
(ii) \mathrm{MnO}_{4}^{-}is +7\)

*Question ii.
Give uses of KMnO₄

Question iii.
Why salts of Sc^3⊕, Ti^4⊕, V^5⊕ are colorless?
Answer:
(i) Sc³⁺ salts are colourless :

• The electronic configuration of ₂₁Sc [Ar| 3d¹ 4s² and Sc³⁺ [Ar] d°.
• Since there are no unpaired electrons in 3d subshell, d → d transition is not possible.
• Therefore, Sc³⁺ ions do not absorb the radiations in the visible region. Hence salts of Sc³⁺ are colourless (or white).

(ii) Ti⁴⁺ salts are colourless :

• The electronic configuration of ₂₂Ti [Ar] 3d²4s² and Ti⁴⁺ : [Ar] d°
• Since there are no unpaired electrons in 3d subshell, d-*d transition is not possible.
• Therefore, Ti³⁺ ions do not absorb the radiation in visible region. Hence salts of Ti³⁺ are colourless.

(iii) Vs⁵⁺ salts are eolourless :

• The electronic configuration of ₂₃V : [Ar] 3d³4s² and V⁵⁺ : [Ar] 3d°
• Since there are no unpaired electrons in 3d-subshell, d – d transition is not possible.
• Therefore, V⁵⁺ ions do not absorb the radiations in the visible region. Hence, V⁵⁺ salts are colourless, a

Question iv.
Which steps are involved in the manufacture of potassium dichromate from chromite ore?
Answer:
Steps in the manufacture of potassium dichromate from chromite ore are :

• Concentration of chromite ore.
• Conversion of chromite ore into sodium chromate (Na₂CrO₄).
• Conversion of Na₂CrO₄ into sodium dichromate (Na₂Cr₂O₇).
• Conversion of Na₂Cr₂O₇ into K₂Cr₂O₇.

Question v.
Balance the following equation
(i) KMnO₄ + H₂C₂O4 + H₂SO₄ → MnSO₄ + K₂SO₄ + H₂O + O₂
(ii) K₂Cr₂O₇ + KI + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + 7H₂O + 3I₂
Answer:
(i) 2KMnO₄ + 3H₂SO₄ + 5H₂C₂O₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 8H₂O + 10CO₂
(ii) Acidified potassium dichromate oxidises potassium iodide (KI) to iodine (I2). Potassium dichromate is reduced to chromic sulphate. Liberated iodine turns the solution brown K₂Cr₂O₇ + 6KI + 7H₂SO₄ → 4K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + 7H₂O + 3I₂ [Oxidation state of iodine increases from – 1 to zero]

Question vi.
What are the stable oxidation states of plutonium, cerium, manganese, Europium?
Answer:
Stable oxidation states :
Plutonium + 3 to + 7
Cerium + 3, + 4
Manganese + 2, + 4, + 6, + 7
Europium +2, +3

Question vii.
Write the electronic configuration of chromium and copper.
Answer:
Chromium (₂₄Cr) has electronic configuration,
₂₄Cr (Expected) : Is² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁴ 4s²
(Observed) : Is² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵ 4s¹

Explanation :

• The energy difference between 3d- and 45-orbitals is very low.
• d-orbitals being degenerate, they acquire more stability when they are half-filled (3d⁵).
• Therefore, there arises a transfer of one electron from 45-orbital to 3d-orbital in Cr giving more stable half-filled orbital. Hence, the configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹ and not [Ar] 3d⁴ 4s².

Copper (₂₉CU) has electronic configuration,
₂₉Cu (Expected) : Is² 2s³ 2p⁶ 3s³ 3p⁶ 3d⁹ 4s²
(Observed) : Is² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s¹

Explanation :

• The energy difference between 3d- and 45-orbitals is very low.
• d-orbitals being degenerate, they acquire more stability when they are completely filled.
• Therefore, there arises a transfer of one electron from 45-orbital to 3d-orbital in Cu giving completely filled more stable d-orbital.

Hence, the configuration of Cu is [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s¹ and not [Ar] 3d⁹ 4s².

Question viii.
Why nobelium is the only actinoid with +2 oxidation state?
Answer:

• Nobelium has the electronic configuration ₁₀₂NO : [Rn] 5f¹⁴6d°7s²
• No²⁺ : [Rn] 5f¹⁴6d°
• Since the 4f subshell is completely filled and 6d° empty, + 2 oxidation state is the stable oxidation state.
• Other actinoids in + 2 oxidation state are not as stable due to incomplete 4f subshell.

Question ix.
Explain with the help of balanced chemical equation, why the solution of Ce(IV) is prepared in acidic medium.
Answer:
Ce⁴⁺ undergoes hydrolysis as, Ce⁴⁺+ 2H₂O → Ce(OH)₄ + 4H⁺.
Due to the presence of H⁺ in the solution, the solution is acidic.

Question x.
What is meant by ‘shielding of electrons’ in an atom?
Answer:
The inner shell electrons in an atom screen or shield the outermost electron from the nuclear attraction. This effect is called the shielding effect.

The magnitude of the shielding effect depends upon the number of inner electrons.

Question xi.
The atomic number of an element is 90. Is this element diamagnetic or paramagnetic?
Answer:
The 90th element thorium has an electronic configuration, [Rn] 6d²7s². Since it has 2 unpaired electrons it is paramagnetic.

3. Answer the following

Question i.
Explain the trends in atomic radii of d-block elements
Answer:

1. The atomic or ionic radii of 3-d series transition elements are smaller than those of representative elements, with the same oxidation states.
2. For the same oxidation state, there is an increase in nuclear charge and a gradual decrease in ionic radii of 3d-series elements is observed. Thus ionic radii of ions with oxidation state + 2 decreases with increase in atomic number.
3. There is slight increase is observed in Zn²⁺ ions. With the higher oxidation states, effective nuclear charge increases. Therefore ionic radii decrease with increase in oxidation state of the same element. For example, Fe²⁺ ion has ionic radius 77 pm whereas Fe³⁺ has 65 pm.

Question ii.
Name different zones in the Blast furnace. Write the reactions taking place in them.
Answer:
(i) Zone of combustion : The hot air oxidises coke to CO which is an exothermic reaction, due to which the temperature of furnace rises.
C + ^1/2 O₂ → CO ΔH= – 220kJ
Some part of CO dissociates to give finely divided carbon and O₂.
2CO → 2C + O₂
The hot gases with CO rise up in the furnace and heats the charge coming down. CO acts as a fuel as well as a reducing agent.

(ii) Zone of reduction : At about 900 °C, CO reduces Fe₂O₃ to spongy (or porous) iron.
Fe₂O₃ + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO₂
Carbon also reduces partially Fe₂0₃ to Fe.
Fe₂O₃ + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO

(iii) Zone of slag formation : At 1200 K limestone, CaCO₃ in the charge, decomposes and forms a basic flux CaO which further reacts at 1500 K with gangue (SiO₂, Al₂O₃) and forms a slag of CaSiO₃ and Ca₃AlO₃.
CaCO₃ + CaO + CO₂.
CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃
12CaO + 2Al₂O₃ → 4Ca₃AlO₃ + 3O₂

The slag is removed from the bottom of the furnace through an outlet.

(iv) Zone of fusion : The impurities in ore like MnO₂ and Ca₃(PO₄)₂ are reduced to Mn and P while SiO₂ is reduced in Si. The spongy iron moving down in the furnace melts in the fusion zone and dissolves the impurities like C, Si, Mn, phosphorus and sulphure. The molten iron collects at the bottom of furnace. The lighter slag floats on the molten iron and prevents its oxidation.

The molten iron is removed and cooled in moulds. It is called pig iron or cast iron. It contains about 4% carbon.

Question iii.
What are the differences between cast iron, wrought iron and steel?
Answer:

Question iv.
Iron exhibits +2 and +3 oxidation states. Write their electronic configuration. Which will be more stable? Why?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of Fe^{2 +} and Fe³⁺ :
Fe²⁺ : Is² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁶
Fe³⁺ : Is² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵

Due to loss of two electrons from the 4.v-orbital and one electron from the 3d-orbital, iron attains 3⁺ oxidation state. Since in Fe³⁺, the 3d-orbital is half-filled, it gets extra stability, hence Fe³⁺ is more stable than Fe²⁺.

Question v.
Give the similarities and differences in elements of 3d, 4d and 5d series.
Answer:
Similarity :

• They are placed between .s-block and p-block of the periodic table.
• All elements are metals showing metallic characters.
• Some are paramagnetic.
• Most of them give coloured compounds.
• They have catalytic properties.
• They form complexes.
• They have variable oxidation states.

Differences :

• In 4d and 5d series lanthanide and actinoid contraction is observed. In 3d series atomic size changes are less marked.
• 4d and 5d elements have high coordination numbers compared to 3d elements.
• 4d and 5d series have similar properties whereas 3d series have different properties.

Question vi.
Explain trends in ionisation enthalpies of d-block elements.
Answer:

1. The ionisation enthalpies of transition elements are quite high and lie between those of 5-block and p-block elements. This is because the nuclear charge and atomic radii of transition elements lie between those of 5-block and p-block elements.
   
2. As atomic number of transition elements increases along the period and along the group, first ionisation enthalpy increases even though the increase is not regular.
3. If IE_1; IE₂ and IE₃ are the first, second and third ionisation enthalpies of the transition elements, then IE₁ < IE₂ < IE₃.
4. In the transition elements, the added last differentiating electron enters into (n – 1) d-orbital and shields the valence electrons from the nuclear attraction. This gives rise to the screening effect of (n – 1) d-electrons.
5. Due to this screening effect of (n – 1) d electrons, the ionisation enthalpy increases slowly and the increase is not very regular.

Question vii.
What is meant by diamagnetic and paramagnetic metal? Give one example of diamagnetic and paramagnetic transition metal and lanthanoid metal.
Answer:

1. Paramagnetic substances : When a magnetic field is applied, substances which are attracted towards the applied magnetic field are called paramagnetic substances. Example : Ni²⁺, Pr⁴⁺
2. Diamagnetic substances : When a magnetic field is applied, substances which are repelled by the magnetic fields are called diamagnetic substances. Example : Zn²⁺, La³⁺
3. Ferromagnetic substances : When a magnetic field is applied, substances which are attracted very strongly are called ferromagnetic substances. These substances can be magnetised. For example, Fe, Co, Ni are ferromagnetic.

Question viii.
Why the ground-state electronic configurations of gadolinium and lawrencium are different than expected?

Question ix.
Write steps involved in the metallurgical process
Answer:
The various steps and principles involved in the extraction of pure metals from their ores are as follows.:

• Concentration of ores in which impurities (gangue) are removed.
• Conversion of ores into oxides or other reducible compounds of metals.
• Reduction of ores to obtain crude metals.
• Refining of metals giving pure metals.

Question x.
Cerium and Terbium behaves as good oxidising agents in +4 oxidation state. Explain.
Answer:

• The most stable oxidation state of lanthanoids is +3.
• Hence, Ce⁴⁺ (cerium) and Tb⁴⁺ (terbium) tend to get + 3 oxidation state which is more stable.
• Since they get reduced by accepting electron, they are good oxidising agents in + 4 oxidation state.

Question xi.
Europium and Ytterbium behave as good reducing agents in +2 oxidation state explain.
Answer:

• The most stable oxidation state of lanthanoids is + 3.
• Hence, Eu²⁺ and Yb²⁺ tend to get + 3 oxidation states by losing one electron.
• Since they get oxidised, they are good reducing agents in + 2 oxidation state.

Activity :
Make groups and each group prepare a PowerPoint presentation on the properties and applications of one element. You can use your imagination to create some innovative ways of presenting data.

You can use pictures, images, flow charts, etc. to make the presentation easier to understand. Don’t forget to cite the reference(s) from where data for the presentation is collected (including figures and charts). Have fun!

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 8 Transition and Inner Transition Elements Intext Questions and Answers

Do you know? (Textbook Page No 165)

Question 1.
In which block of the modern periodic table are the transition and inner transition elements placed?
Answer:
The transition elements are placed in d-block and inner transition elements are placed in f-block of the modern periodic table.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 167)

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks with correct outer electronic configurations.
Answer:
Answers are given in bold.

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 168)

Question 1.
Write the electronic configuration of Cr and Cu.
Answer:
₂₄Cr : [Ar] 3d⁵4s¹ ₃₀Cu : [Ar] 3d¹⁰4s¹

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 168)

Question 1.
Which of the first transition series element shows the maximum number of oxidation states and why?
Answer:

• ₂₅Mn shows the maximum number of oxidation states, + 2 to +7.
• ₂₅Mn : [Ar] 3d⁵4s³
• Mn has incompletely filled J-subshell.
• Due to small difference in energy between 3d and 4s -orbitals, Mn can lose (or share) electrons from both the orbitals.
• Hence Mn shows oxidation states from + 2 to +7.

Question 2.
Which elements in the 4d and 5d-series will show maximum number of oxidation states?
Answer:
In 4d-series maximum number of oxidation states are for Ruthenium Ru ( + 2, +3, + 4„ +6, +7, + 8). In 5d-series, maximum number of oxidation states are for Osmium, Os ( + 2 to + 8).

Try this ….. (Textbook Page No 168)

Question 1.
Write the electronic configuration of Mn⁶⁺, Mn⁴⁺, Fe⁴⁺, Co⁵⁺, Ni²⁺.
Answer:

Try this ….. (Textbook Page No 171)

Question 1.
Pick up the paramagnetic species from the following : Cu¹⁺, Fe³⁺, Ni²⁺, Zn²⁺, Cd²⁺, Pd²⁺.
Answer:
The following ions are paramagnetic : Fe³⁺, Ni²⁺, Pd²⁺

Try this ….. (Textbook Page No 171)

Question 1.
What will be the magnetic moment of transition metal having 3 unpaired electrons?
(a) equal to 1.73 B.M.?
(b) less than 1.73 BM.
(c) more than 1.73 B.M.?
Answer:
By spin-only formula, \(\mu=\sqrt{n(n+2)}\) where n is number of unpaired electrons.
\(\mu=\sqrt{3(3+2)}=\sqrt{3(5)}=3.87 \mathrm{~B} . \mathrm{M}\)
Thus the value is more than 1.73 B.M.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 171)

Question 1.
A metal ion from the first transition series has two unpaired electrons. Calculate the magnetic moment.
Answer:
\(\)\begin{aligned}
\mu &=\sqrt{n(n+2)} \\
&=\sqrt{2(2+2)} \\
&=\sqrt{8} \\
&=2.84 \text { B.M. }
\end{aligned}\(\)

Problem (Textbook Page No 172)

Question 1.
Calculate the spin-only magnetic moment of divalent cation of a transition metal with atomic number 25.
Answer:
For element with atomic number 25. electronic configuration of its divalent cation will be : [Ar] 3d⁵.

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 172)

Question 1.
Calculate the spin-only magnetic moment of a divalent cation of element Slaving atomic number 27.
Answer:
Electronic configuration of divalent ion of an element with atomic number 27 : [Ar] 3d⁷;

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 172)

Question 1.
Compounds of s and p-block elements are almost white. What could be the absorbed radiation? (uv or visible)?
Answer:
The white colour of a compound indicates the absorption of uv radiation.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 181)

Question 1.
Why f-block elements are called inner transition metals?
Answer:
f-block elements are called inner transition elements since f-orbital lies much inside the f-orbital in relation to the transition metals, These elements have 1 to 14 electrons in their f-orbital.

Question 2.
Are there an similarities between transition and inner transition metals?
Answer:
There are some properties similarity between transition and inner transition metals.

• They are placed between s and p-block elements.
• They are metals with filling of inner suhshells in their electronic configuration.
• They show variable oxidation slates.
•  They show magnetism.
• They form coloured compounds.
• They have catalytic property.

Problem (Textbook Page No 184)

Question 1.
Which of the following will have highest fourth ionisation enthalpy, La⁴⁺, Gd⁴⁺, Lu⁴⁺.
Answer:
La : 4f°5d¹6s²
Gd : 4f¹5d¹6s²
Lu : 4f¹⁴5d¹6s²
Lu will have the highest fourth ionisation enthalpy since Lu³⁺ has the most stable configuration of 4f¹⁴.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 185)

Question 1.
Do you think that lanthanoid complex would show magnetism?
Answer:
Lanthanoid complexes may show magnetism.

Question 2.
Can you calculate the spin only magnetic moment of lanthanoid complexes using the same formula that you used for transition metal complexes?
Answer:
You cannot calculate magnetic moment of lanthanoid complexes using spin only formula as you have to consider orbital momentum also.

Question 3.
Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of La³⁺. Compare the value with that given in the table.
Answer:
La³⁺ ion has no unpaired electron.

La³⁺ ion has zero value of magnetic moment same as given in the table.

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Solid State Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Electrochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 12th Chemistry Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 7 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Chemistry Class 12 Chapter 7 Exercise Solutions

1. Select appropriate answers for the following.

Question i.
Which of the following has the highest electron gain enthalpy?
A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
Answer:
B. Chlorine

Question ii.
Hydrides of group 16 are weakly acidic. The correct order of acidity is
A. H₂O > H₂S > H₂Se > H₂Te
B. H₂Te > H₂O > H₂S > H₂Se
C. H₂Te > H₂Se > H₂S > H₂O
D. H₂Te > H₂Se > H₂O > H₂S
Answer:
C. H₂Te > H₂Se > H₂S > H₂O

Question iii.
Which of the following element does not show oxidation state of +4 ?
A. O
B. S
C. Se
D. Te
Answer:
A. O

Question iv.
HI acid when heated with conc. H₂SO₄ forms
A. HIO₃
B. KIO₃
C. I₂
D. KI
Answer:
C. I₂

Question v.
Ozone layer is depleted by
A. NO
B. NO₂
C. NO₃
D. N₂O₅
Answer:
A. NO

Question vi.
Which of the following occurs in liquid state at room temperature?
A. HIO₃
B. HBr
C. HCl
D. HF
Answer:
D. HF

Question vii.
In pyrosulfurous acid oxidation state of sulfur is
A. Only +2
B. Only +4
C. +2 and +6
D. Only +6
Answer:
B. Only + 4

Question viii.
Stability of interhalogen compounds follows the order
A. BrF > IBr > ICl > ClF > BrCl
B. IBr > BeF > ICl > ClF > BrCl
C. ClF > ICl > IBr > BrCl > BrF
D. ICl > ClF > BrCl > IBr > BrF
Answer:
C. ClF > ICl > IBr > BrCl > BrF

Question ix.
BrCl reacts with water to form
A. HBr
B. Br₂ + Cl₂
C. HOBr
D. HOBr + HCl
Answer:
D. HOBr + HCl

Question x.
Chlorine reacts with excess of fluorine to form.
A. ClF
B. ClF₃
C. ClF₂
D. Cl₂F₃
Answer:
B. ClF₃

Question xi.
In interhalogen compounds, which of the following halogens is never the central atom.
A. I
B. Cl
C. Br
D. F
Answer:
D. F

Question xii.
Which of the following has one lone pair of electrons?
A. IF₃
B. ICl
C. IF₅
D. ClF₃
Answer:
C. IF₅

Question xiii.
In which of the following pairs, molecules are paired with their correct shapes?
A. [I₃] : bent
B. BrF₅ : trigonal bipyramid
C. ClF₃ : trigonal planar
D. [BrF₄] : square planar
Answer:
A. [I₃] : bent

Question xiv.
Among the known interhalogen compounds, the maximum number of atoms is
A. 3
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer:
D. 8

2. Answer the following.

Question i.
Write the order of the thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 elements.
Answer:
The thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 elements decreases in the order of H₂O > H₂S > H₂Se > H₂Te.

Question ii.
What is the oxidation state of Te in TeO₂?
Answer:
The oxidation state of Te in TeO₂ is + 4.

Question iii.
Name two gases which deplete ozone layer.
Answer:
Nitrogen oxide (NO) released from exhaust systems of car or supersonic jet aeroplanes and chlorofluorocarbons (Freons) used in aerosol sprays and refrigerators deplete ozone layer.

Question iv.
Give two uses of ClO₂
Answer:
(i) ClO₂ is used as a bleaching agent for paper pulp and textiles.
(ii) It is also used in water treatment.

Question v.
What is the action of bromine on magnesium metal?
Answer:
Bromine reacts instantly with magnesium metal to give magnesium bromide.

Question vi.
Write the names of allotropic forms of selenium.
Answer:
Selenium has two allotropic forms as follows :
(i) Red (non-metallic) form
(ii) Grey (metallic) form

Question vii.
What is the oxidation state of S in H₂SO₄.
Answer:
The oxidation state of S in H₂SO₄ is + 6.

Question viii.
The pKa values of HCl is -7.0 and that of HI is -10.0. Which is the stronger acid?
Answer:
For HCl, pK_a = -7.0, hence its dissoClation constant is, K_a = 1 x 10^-7.
For HI pK_a = – 10.0, hence its dissoClation constant is K_a = 1 x 10^-7. Hence HCl dissoClates more than HI.
Therefore HCl is a stronger acid than HI.

Question ix.
Give one example showing reducing property of ozone.
Answer:
Ozone decomposes to liberate nascent oxygen, hence it is a powerful oxidising agent. O_3(g) → O_2(g) + O

For example :
(i) It oxidises lead sulphide (PbS) to lead sulphate (PbSO₄).
pbS_(s) + 4O_3(g) → PbSO_(s) + 4O_2(g)
(ii) Potassium iodide, KI is oxidised to iodine, I₂ in the solution.
2KI_(aq) + H₂O₍₁₎ + O_3(g) → 2KOH_(aq) + I_2(s) + O_2(g)

Question x.
Write the reaction of conc. H₂SO₄ with sugar.
Answer:
Concentrated sulphuric acid when added to sugar, it is dehydrated giving carbon.

The carbon that is left behind is called sugar charcoal and the process is called char.

Question xi.
Give two uses of chlorine.
Answer:
Chlorine is used for :

• for sterilization of drinking water.
• bleaching wood pulp required for the manufacture of paper and rayon, cotton and textiles are also bleached using chlorine.
• in the manufacture of organic compounds like CHCl₃, CCl₄, DDT, dyes and drugs.
• in the extraction of metals like gold and platinum.
• in the manufacture of refrigerant like Freon (i.e., CCl₂F₂).
• in the manufacture of several poisonous gases like mustard gas (Cl-C₂H₄-S-C₂H₄-Cl), phosgene (COCl₂) used in warfare.
• in the manufacture of tear gas (CCl₃NO₂).

Question xii.
Complete the following.
1. ICl₃ + H₂O …….. + …….. + ICl
2. I₂ + KClO₃ ……. + KIO₂
3. BrCl + H₂O ……. + HCl
4. Cl₂ + ClF₃ ……..
5. H₂C = CH₂ + ICl …….
6. XeF₄ + SiO₂ ……. + SiF₄
7. XeF₆ + 6H₂O …….. + HF
8. XeOF₄ + H₂O ……. + HF
Answer:
1. 2ICI₃ + 3H₂O → 5HCl + HlO₃ + ICl
2. I₂ + KCIO₃ → ICl + KIO₃
3. BrCl + H₂O → HOBr + HCl
4. Cl₂ + C1F₃ → 3ClF
5. CH₂ = CH₂ + ICl → CH₂I – CH₂Cl
6. 2XeF₆ + SiO₂ → 2XeOF₄ + SiF₄
7. XeF₆ + 3H₂O → XeO₃ + 6HF
8. XeOF₄ + H₂O→  XeO₂F₂ + 2HF

Question xiii.
Match the following
A – B
XeOF₂ – Xenon trioxydifluoride
XeO₂F₂ – Xenon monooxydifluoride
XeO₃F₂ – Xenon dioxytetrafluoride
XeO₂F₄ – Xenon dioxydifluoride
Answer:
XeOF₂ – Xenon monooxydifluoride
XeO₂F₂ – Xenon dioxydifluoride
XeO₃F₂ – Xenon trioxydifluoride
XeO₂F₄ – Xenon dioxytetrafluoride

Question xiv.
What is the oxidation state of xenon in the following compounds?
XeOF₄, XeO₃, XeF₅, XeF₄, XeF₂.
Answer:

3. Answer the following.

Question i.
The first ionisation enthalpies of S, Cl and Ar are 1000, 1256 and 1520 kJ/mol^-1, respectively. Explain the observed trend.
Answer:
(i) The atomic number increases as, ₁₆S < ₁₇Cl < ₁₈Ar₁.
(ii) Due to decrease in atomic size and increase in effective nuclear charge, Cl binds valence electrons strongly.
(iii) Hence ionisation enthalpy of Cl (1256 kJ mol^-1) is higher than that of S(1000 kJ mol^-1)
(iv) Ar has electronic configuration 3s²3p⁶. Since all electrons are paired and the octet is complete, it has the highest ionisation enthalpy, (1520 kJ mol^-1)

Question ii.
“Acidic character of hydrides of group 16 elements increases from H₂O to H₂Te” Explain.
Answer:
(i) The thermal stability of the hydrides of group 16 elements decreases from H₂O to H₂Te. This is because the bond dissociation enthalpy of the H-E bond decreases down the group.
(ii) Thus, the acidic character increases from H₂O to H₂Te.

Question iii.
How is dioxygen prepared in laboratory from KClO₃?
Answer:
By heating chlorates, nitrates and permanganates.
Potassium chlorate in the presence of manganese dioxide on heating decomposes to form potassium chloride and oxygen.

Question iv.
What happens when
a. Lead sulfide reacts with ozone (O₃).
b. Nitric oxide reacts with ozone.
Answer:
(i) It oxidises lead sulphide (PbS) to lead sulphate (PbSO₄) changing the oxidation state of S from – 2 to +6.
PbS_(s) + 4O_3(g) → PbSO_(s) + 4O_2(g)

(ii) Ozone oxidises nitrogen oxide to nitrogen dioxide.
NO_(g) + O_3(g) → NO_2(g) + O_2(g)

Question v.
Give two chemical reactions to explain oxidizing property of concentrated H₂SO₄.
Answer:
Hot and concentrated H₂SO₄ acts as an oxidising agent, since it gives nascent oxygen on heating.

Question vi.
Discuss the structure of sulfur dioxide.
Answer:
(i) SO₂ molecule has a bent V shaped structure with S-O-S bond angle 119.5° and bond dissoClation enthalpy is 297 kJ mol^-1.
(ii) Sulphur in SO₂ is sp² hybridised forming three hybrid orbitals. Due to lone pair electrons, bond angle is reduced from 120° to 119.5°.
(iii) In SO₂, each oxygen atom is bonded to sulphur by σ and a π bond.
(iv) a bond between S and O are formed by sp²-p overlapping.
(v) One of π bonds is formed by pπ – pπ overlapping while other n bond is formed by pπ – dπ overlap.
(vi) Due to resonance both the bonds are identical having observed bond length 143 pm due to resonance,

Question vii.
Fluorine shows only -1 oxidation state while other halogens show -1, +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation states. Explain.
Answer:

• Halogens have outer electronic configuration ns² np⁵.
• Halogens have tendency to gain or share one electron to attain the stable configuration of nearest inert element with configuration ns²np⁶.
• Hence they are monovalent and show oxidation state – 1.
• Since fluorine does not have vacant d-orbital, it shows only one oxidation state of – 1 while all other halogens show variable oxidation states from – 1 to +7.
• These oxidation states are, – 1, +1, + 3, +5 and + 7. Cl and Br also show oxidation states + 4 and + 6 in their oxides and oxyaClds.

Question viii.
What is the action of chlorine on the following
a. Fe
b. Excess of NH₃
Answer:
(a) Chlorine reacts with Fe to give ferric chloride.
2Fe + 3Cl₂ → 2FeCl₃

(b) Chlorine reacts with the excess of ammonia to form ammonium chloride, NH₄Cl and nitrogen.

Question ix.
How is hydrogen chloride prepared from sodium chloride?
Answer:

1. In the laboratory, hydrogen chloride, HCl is prepared by heating a mixture of NaCl and concentrated H₂SO₄.
   
2. Hydrogen chloride gas, is dried by passing it through a dehydrating agent like concentrated H₂SO₄ and then collected by upward displacement of air.

Question x.
Draw structures of XeF₆, XeO₃, XeOF₄, XeF₂.
Answer:

Question xi.
What are interhalogen compounds? Give two examples.
Answer:
Interhalogen compounds : Compounds formed by the combination of atoms of two different halogens are called interhalogen compounds. In an interhalogen compound, of the two halogen atoms, one atom is more electropositive than the other. The interhalogen compound is regarded as the halide of the more electropositive halogen.
For example ClF, BrF₃, ICl

Question xii.
What is the action of hydrochloric acid on the following?
a. NH₃
b. Na₂CO₃
Answer:
a. Hydrochloric acid reacts with ammonia to give white fumes of ammonium chloride.
NH₃ + HCl → NH₄Cl

b. Hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate to give sodium chloride, water with the liberation of carbon dioxide gas.
Na₂CO₃ + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H₂O + CO₂

Question xiii.
Give two uses of HCl.
Answer:
Hydrogen chloride (OR hydrochloric acid) is used :

• in the manufacture of chlorine and ammonium chloride,
• to manufacture glucose from com, starch
• to manufacture dye
• in mediClne and galvanising
• as an important reagent in the laboratory
• to extract glue from bones and for the purification of bone black.
• for dissolving metals, Fe + 2HCl_(aq) → FeCl₂ + H_2(g)

Question xiv.
Write the names and structural formulae of oxoacids of chlorine.
Answer:

Question xv.
What happens when
a. Cl₂ reacts with F₂ in equal volume at 437 K.
b. Br₂ reacts with excess of F₂.
Answer:
(a) Cl₂ reacts with F₂ in equal volumes at 437 K to give chlorine monofluoride ClF.

(b) Br₂ reacts with excess of F₂ to give bromine trifluoride BF₃.

Question xvi.
How are xenon fluorides XeF₂, XeF₄ and XeF₆ obtained ? Give suitable reactions.
Answer:
Xenon fluorides are generally prepared by the direct reaction of xenon and fluorine in different ratios and under appropriate experimental conditions, such as temperature, in the presence of an electric discharge and by a photochemical reaction.
(i) Preparation of XeF₂ :

(ii) Preparation of XeF₄ :

(iii) Preparation of XeF₆ :

Question xvii.
How are XeO₃ and XeOF₄ prepared?
Answer:
Preparation of XeO₃ : Xenon trioxide (XeO₃) is prepared by the hydrolysis of XeF₄ or XeF₆.

• By hydrolysis of XeF₄ :
  3XeF₄ + 6H₂0 → 2Xe + XeO₃ + 12 HF + \(1 \frac{1}{2} \mathrm{O}_{2}\)
• By hydrolysis of XeF₆ :
  XeF₆ + 3H₂O → XeO₃ + 6HF
• Preparation of XeOF₄ :
  Xenon oxytetrafluoride (XeOF₄) is prepared by the partial hydrolysis of XeF₆.
  XeF₆ + H₂O → XeOF₄ + 2HF

Question xviii.
Give two uses of neon and argon.
Answer:
Uses of neon (Ne) :

• Neon is used in the production of neon discharge lamps and signs by filling Ne in glass discharge tubes.
• Neon signs are visible from a long distance and also have high penetrating power in mist or fog.
• A mixture of neon and helium is used in voltage stabilizers and current rectifiers.
• Neon is also used in the production of lasers and fluorescent tubes.

Uses of argon (Ar) :

• Argon is used to fill fluorescent tubes and radio valves.
• It is used to provide inert atmosphere for welding and production of steel.
• It is used along with neon in neon sign lamps to obtain different colours.
• A mixture of 85% Ar and 15% N2 is used in electric bulbs to enhance the life of the filament.

Question xix.
Describe the structure of Ozone. Give two uses of ozone.
Answer:
(A)

• Ozone has molecular formula O₃.
• The lewis dot and dash structures for O₃ are :
  
• Infrared and electron diffraction spectra show that O₃ molecule is angular with 0-0-0 bond angle 117°.
• Both 0-0 bonds are identical having bond length 128 pm which is intermediate between single and double bonds.
• This is explained by considering resonating structures and resonance hybrid.
  

(B) Uses of Ozone :

• Ozone sterilises drinking water by oxidising germs and bacteria present in it.
• It is used as a bleaching agent for ivory, oils, starch, wax and delicate fabrics like silk.
• Ozone is used to purify the air in crowded places like Clnema halls, railways, tunnels, etc.
• In industry, ozone is used in the manufacture of synthetic camphor, potassium permanganate, etc.

Question xx.
Explain the trend in following atomic properties of group 16 elements.
i. Atomic radii
ii. Ionisation enthalpy
iii. Electronegativity.
Answer:
(1) Atomic and ionic radii :

1. As compared to group 15 elements, the atomic and ionic radii of group 16 elements are smaller due to higher nuclear charge.
2. The atomic and ionic radii increase down the group from oxygen to polonium. This is due to the addition of a new shell at each successive elements on moving down the group. The atomic radii increases in the order O < S < Se < Te < Po

(2) Ionisation enthalpy :

• The ionisation enthalpy of group 16 elements has quite high values.
• Ionisation enthalpy decreases down the group from oxygen to polonium. This is due to the increase in atomic volume down the group.
• The first ionisation enthalpy of the lighter elements of group 16 (O, S, Se) have lower values than those of group 15 elements in the corresponding periods. This is due to difference in their electronic configurations.

Group 15 : (valence shell) ns² np_x¹ np_y¹ np_z¹
Group 16 : (valence shell) ns² np_x² np_y¹ np_z¹

Group 15 elements have extra stability of half-filled and more symmetrical orbitals, while group 16 elements acquire extra stability by losing one of paired electrons from npx- orbital forming half-filled p-orbitals.

Hence group 16 elements have lower first ionisation enthalpy than group 15 elements.

(3) Electronegativity :

• The electronegativity values of group 16 elements have higher values than corresponding group 15 elements in the same periods.
• Oxygen is the second most electronegative elements after fluorine. (O = 3.5, F = 4)
• On moving down the group electronegativity decreases from oxygen to polonium.
• On moving down the group atomic size increases, hence nuclear attraction decreases, therefore electro-negativity decreases.

4. Answer the following.

Question i.
Distinguish between rhombic sulfur and monoclinic sulfur.
Answer:

Question ii.
Give two reactions showing oxidizing property of concentrated H₂SO₄.
Answer:
Hot and concentrated H₂SO₄ acts as an oxidising agent, since it gives nascent oxygen on heating.

Question iii.
How is SO₂ prepared in the laboratory from sodium sulfite? Give two physical properties of SO₂.
Answer:
(A) Laboratory method (From sulphite) :

• Sodium sulphite on treating with dilute H₂SO₄ forms SO₂.
  Na₂SO₃ + H₂SO_4(aq) → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O₍₁₎ + SO_2(g)
• Sodium sulphite, Na₂SO₃ on reaction with dilute hydrochloric acid solution forms SO₂.
  Na₂SO_3(aq) + 2HCl_(aq) → 2NaCl_9aq0 + H₂O₍₁₎ + SO_2(g)

(B) Physical properties of SO₂

• It is a colourless gas with a pungent smell.
• It is highly soluble in water and forms sulphurous acid, H₂SO₃ SO_2(g) + H₂O₍₁₎ → H₂SO_3(aq)
• It is poisonous in nature.
• At room temperature, it liquefies at 2 atmospheres. It has boiling point 263K.

Question iv.
Describe the manufacturing of H₂SO₄ by contact process.
Answer:
Contact process of the manufacture of sulphuric acid involves following steps :

(1) Preparation of SO₂ : Sulphur or pyrite ores like iron pyrites, FeS₂ on burning in excess of air, form SO₂.

(2) Oxidation of SO₂ to SO₃ : SO₂ is oxidised to SO₃ in the presence of a heterogeneous catalyst V₂O₅ and atmospheric oxygen. This oxidation reaction is reversible.

To avoid the poisoning of a costly catalyst, it is necessary to make SO₂ free from the impurities like dust, moisture, As₂O₃ poison, etc.

The forward reaction is exothermic and favoured by increase in pressure. The reaction is carried out at high pressure (2 bar) and 720 K temperature. The reacting gases, SO₂ and O₂ are taken in the ratio 2:3.

(3) Dissolution of SO₃ : SO₃ obtained from catalytic converter is absorbed in 98%. H₂SO₄ to obtain H₂S₂O₇, oleum or fuming sulphuric acid.


Flow diagram for the manufacture of sulphuric acid

Question 7.1 (Textbook Page No 141)

12th Chemistry Digest Chapter 7 Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Intext Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Elements of group 16 generally show lower values of first ionisation enthalpy compared to the elements of corresponding period of group 15. Why?
Answer:
Group 15 elements have extra stable, half filled p-orbitals with electronic configuration (ns²np³). Therefore more amount of energy is required to remove an electron compared to that of the partially filled orbitals (ns²np⁴) of group 16 elements of the corresponding period.

Question 7.2 (Textbook Page No 141)

Question 1.
The values of first ionisation enthalpy of S and Cl are 1000 and 1256 kJ mol^-1, respectively. Explain the observed trend.
Answer :
The elements S and Cl belong to second period of the periodic table.
Across a period effective nuclear charge increases and atomic size decreases with increase in atomic number. Therefore the energy required for the removal of electron from the valence shell (I.E.) increases in the order S < Cl.

Question 7.4 (Textbook Page No 141)

Question 1.
Fluorine has less negative electron gain affinity than chlorine. Why?
Answer :
The size of fluorine atom is smaller than chlorine atom. As a result, there are strong inter electronic repulsions in the relatively small 2p orbitals of fluorine and therefore, the incoming electron does not experience much attraction. Thus fluorine has less negative electron gain affinity than chlorine.

Try this… (Textbook Page No 140)

Question 1.
Explain the trend in the following properties of group 17 elements.

(1) Atomic size,
(2) Ionisation enthalpy,
(3) Electronegativity,
(4) Electron gain enthalpy.
Answer:
(1) Atomic size :

• Atomic and ionic radii increase down the group as atomic number increases due to the addition of new electronic valence shell to each succeeding element.
• The atomic radii increase in the order F < Cl < Br < 1
• Halogens possess the smallest atomic and ionic radii in their respective periods since the effective nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons in halogen atoms is the highest.

(2) Ionisation enthalpy :

• The ionisation enthalpies of halogens are very high due to their small size and large nuclear attraction.
• The ionisation ethalpies decrease down the group since the atomic size increases.
• The ionisation enthalpy decreases in the order F > Cl > Br > I.
• Among halogens fluorine has the highest ionisation enthalpy due to its smallest size.

(3) Electronegativity :

• Halogens have the highest values for electronegativity due to their small atomic radii and high effective nuclear charge.
• Each halogen is the most electronegative element of its period.
• Fluorine has the highest electronegativity as compared to any element in the periodic table.
• The electronegativity decreases as,
  F > Cl > Br > I
  4.0 3.2 3.0 2.7 (electronegativity)

(4) Electron gain enthalpy (Δ_egH) :

• The halogens have the highest negative values for electron gain enthalpy.
• Electron gain enthalpies of halogens are negative indicating release of energy.
• Halogens liberate maximum heat by gain of electron as compared to other elements.
• Since halogens have outer valence electronic configuration, ns² np⁵, they have strong tendency to accept an electron to complete an octet and acquire electronic configuration of the nearest inert elements.
• In case of fluorine due to small size of 2 p-orbitals and high electron density, F has less negative electron gain enthalpy than Cl.
  F_(g) + e^– → F^–_(g) Δ_egH = – 333 klmol^-1
  Cl_(g) + e^– → Cl^–_(g) Δ_egH = – 349 kJ mol^-1
• The variation in electron gain enthalpy is in the order of, Cl > F > Br > I.

Question 2.
Oxygen has less negative electron gain enthalpy than sulphur. Why?
Answer:

• Oxygen has a smaller atomic size than sulphur.
• It is more electronegative than sulphur.
• It has a larger electron density.
• Due to high electron density, oxygen does not accept the incoming electron easily and therefore has less electron gain enthalpy than sulphur.

Question 7.3 (Textbook Page No 141)

Question 1.
Why is there a large difference between the melting and boiling points of oxygen and sulphur?
Answer :
Oxygen exists as diatomic molecule (O₂) whereas sulphur exists as polyatomic molecule (S₈). The van der Waals forces of attraction between O₂ molecules are relatively weak owing to their much smaller size. The large van der Waals attractive forces in the S₈ molecules are due to large molecular size. Therefore oxygen has low m.p. and b.p. as compared to sulphur.

Question 7.5 (Textbook Page No 141)

Question 1.
Bond dissoClation enthalpy of F₂ (158.8 kj mol^-1) is lower than that of Cl₂ (242.6 kj mol^-1) Why?
Answer :
Fluorine has small atomic size than chlorine. The lone pairs on each F atom in F₂ molecule are so close together that they strongly repel each other, and make the F – F bond weak. Thus, it requires less amount of energy to break the F – F bond. In Cl₂ molecule the lone pairs on each Cl atom are at a larger distance and the repulsion is less.

Thus Cl – Cl bond is comparatively stronger. Therefore bond dissoClation enthalpy of F₂ is lower than that of Cl₂.

Question 7.6 (Textbook Page No 142)

Question 1.
Noble gases have very low melting and boiling points. Why?
Answer :
Noble gases are monoatomic, the only type of interatomic interactions which exist between them are weak van der Waals forces. Therefore, they can be liquefied at very low temperatures and have very low melting or boiling points.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 142)

Question 1.
The first member of the a group usually differs in properties from the rest of the members of the group. Why?
Answer:
The first member of a group usually differs in properties from the rest of the members of the group for the following reasons :

• Its small size
• High electronegativity
• Absence of vacant d-orbitals in its valence shell.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 142)

Question 1.
Oxygen forms only OF₂ with fluorine while sulphur forms SF₆. Explain. Why?
Answer:

• Oxygen combines with the most electronegative element fluorine to form OF₂ and exhibits positive oxidation state (+ 2). Since, oxygen does not have vacant J-orbitals it cannot exhibit higher oxidation states.
• Sulphur has vacant d-orbitals and hence can exhibit + 6 oxidation state to form SF₆.

Question 2.
Which of the following possesses hydrogen bonding? H₂S, H₂O, H₂Se, H₂Te
Answer:

• Oxygen being more electronegative, is capable of forming hydrogen bonding in the compound H₂O.
• The other elements S, Se and Te of Group 16, being less electronegative do not form hydrogen bonds.
• Thus, hydrogen bonding is not present in the other hydrides H₂S, H₂Se and H₂Te.

Question 3.
Show hydrogen bonding in the above molecule with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 143)

Question 1.
Complete the following tables :

Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No 146)

Question 1.
What is allotropy?
Answer:
The property of some elements to exist in two or more different forms in the same physical state is called allotropy.

Question 2.
What is the difference between allotropy and polymorphism?
Answer:

• Allotropy is the existence of an element in more than one physical form. It means that under different conditions of temperature and pressure an element can exist in more than one physical forms.
• Coal, graphite and diamond etc., are different allotropic forms of carbon.
• Polymorphism is the existence of a substance in more than one crystalline form.
• It means that under different conditions of temperature and pressure, a substance can form more than one type of crystal. For example, mercuric iodide exists in the orthorhombic and trigonal form.

Question 7.7 (Textbook Page No 146)

Which form of sulphur shows paramagnetic behaviour?
Answer :
In the vapour state, sulphur partly exists as S₂ molecule, which has two unpaired electrons in the antibonding π^* orbitals like O₂. Hence it exhibits paramagnetism.

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 149)

Question 1.
Why water in a fish pot needs to be changed from time to time?
Answer:
A fish pot is an artificial ecosystem and the fish in it are selective and maintained in a restricted environment.

In a fish pot, the unwanted food and waste generated by the fish mix with the water and remain untreated due to lack of decomposers.

Accumulation of waste material will decrease the levels of dissolved oxygen in the water pot.

Hence, it is necessary to change the water from time to time.

Question 7.8 (Textbook Page No 149)

Dioxygen is paramagnetic in spite of having an even number of electrons. Explain.
Answer :
Dioxygen is a covalently bonded molecule.
The paramagnetic behaviour of O₂ can be explained with the help of molecular orbital theory.
Electronic configuration O₂
KK σ(2s)² σ(2s)² σ^*(2p_z)² π(2p_x)² π(2p_x)² π(2p_y)² π^*(2p_x)¹ π^*(2p_y)¹. Presence of two unpaired electrons in antibonding orbitals explains paramagnetic nature of dioxygen.

Question 7.9 (Textbook Page No 150)

High concentration of ozone can be dangerously explosive. Explain.
Answer :
Thermal stability : Ozone is thermodynamically unstable than oxygen and decomposes into O₂. The decomposition is exothermic and results in the liberation of heat (ΔH is – ve) and an increase in entropy (ΔS is positive). This results in large negative Gibbs energy change (ΔG). Therefore high concentration of ozone can be dangerously explosive. Eq O₃ → O₂ + O

Try this…… (Textbook Page No 151)

(a) Ozone is used as a bleaching agent. Explain.
Answer:

• Ozone due to its oxidising property can act as a bleaching agent. O_3(g) → O_2(g) + O
• It bleaches coloured matter. coloured matter + O → colourless matter
• Ozone bleaches in the absence of moisture, so it is also known as dry bleach.
• Ozone can bleach ivory and delicate fabrics like silk.

(b) Why does ozone act as a powerful oxidising agent?
Answer:
Ozone decomposes to liberate nascent oxygen, hence it is a powerful oxidising agent. O_3(g) → O_2(g) + O
For example :

• It oxidises lead sulphide (PbS) to lead sulphate (PbSO₄).
  pbS_(s) + 4O_3(g) → PbSO_(s) + 4O_2(g)
• Potassium iodide, KI is oxidised to iodine, I₂ in the solution.
  2KI_(aq) + H₂O₍₁₎ + O_3(g) → 2KOH_(aq) + I_2(s) + O_2(g)

Question 7.10 : (Textbook Page No 154)

What is the action of concentrated H₂SO₄ on (a) HBr (b) HI
Answer :
Concentrated sulphuric acid oxidises hydrobromic acid to bromine.

2HBr + H₂SO₄ → Br₂ + SO₂ + 2H₂O
It oxidises hydroiodic acid to iodine.
2HI + H₂SO₄ → I₂ + SO₂ + 2H₂O

Try this….. (Textbook Page No 156)

Question 1.
Give the reasons for the bleaching action of chlorine.
Answer:

• Chlorine acts as a powerful bleaching agent due to its oxidising nature.
• In moist conditions or in the presence of water it forms unstable hypochlorous acid, HOCl which decomposes giving nascent oxygen which oxidises the vegetable colouring matter of green leaves, flowers, litmus, indigo, etc.
  Cl₂ + H₂O → HCl + HOCl
  HOCl → HCl + [O]
  Vegetable coloured matter + [O] → colourless matter.

Question 2.
Name two gases used in war.
Answer:
Phosgene : COCl₂
Mustard gas: Cl – CH₂ – CH₂ – S – CH₂ – CH₂ – Cl

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 157)

Question 1.
Chlorine and fluorine combine to form interhalogen compounds. The halide ion will be of chlorine or fluorine?
Answer:
Among the- two halogens, chlorine is more electropositive than fluorine (Electronegativity values: F = 4.0, Cl = 3.2)

The interhalogen compound is regarded as the halide of the more electropositive halogen. Hence, the interhalogen compound is the fluoride of chlorine, i.e. chlorine monofluoride, CiF.

Question 2.
Why does fluorine combine with other halogens to form maximum number of fluorides?
Answer:
Since fluorine is the most electronegative element and has the smallest atomic radius compared to other halogen fluorine forms maximum number of fluorides.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 158)

Question 1.
What will be the names of the following compounds: ICl, BrF?
Answer:
ICl : Iodine monochloride
BrF : Bromine monofluoride

Question 2.
Which halogen (X) will have maximum number of other halogen (X ) attached?
Answer:
The halogen Iodine (I) will have the maximum number of other halogens attached.

Question 3.
Which halogen has tendency to form more interhalogen compounds?
Answer:
The halogen fluorine (F) has the maximum tendency to form more interhalogen compounds as it has a small size and more electronegativity.

Question 4.
Which will be more reactive?
(a) ClF₃ or ClF,
(b) BrF₅ or BrF
Answer:
ClF₃ is more reactive than ClF, while BrF₅ is more reactive than BrF. Both ClF₃ and BrF₅ are unstable compared to ClF and BrF respectively due to steric hindrance hence are more reactive.

Question 5.
Complete the table :

Answer:

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 159)

Question 1.
In the special reaction for ICl, identify the oxidant and the reductant? Denote oxidation states of the species.
Answer:

Potassium chlorate, KClO₃ is the oxidising agent or oxidant and iodine is the reducing agent or reductant.

Use your brain power! (Textbook Page No 162)

Question 1.
What are missing entries?

Answer:

Maharashtra State Board 12th Std Chemistry Textbook Solutions

• Solid State Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Solutions Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Ionic Equilibria Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Thermodynamics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Electrochemistry Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Kinetics Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Elements of Groups 16, 17 and 18 Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions
• Transition and Inner Transition Elements Class 12 Chemistry Textbook Solutions

Skeleton and Movement Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 16 Skeleton and Movement Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 16 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 16 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A).
The functional unit of striated muscle is …………..
a. cross-bridges
b. myofibril
c. sarcomere
d. z-band
Answer:
c. sarcomere

Question (B).
A person slips from the staircase and breaks his ankle bone. Which bones are involved?
a. Carpals
b. Tarsal
c. Metacarpals
d. Metatarsals
Answer:
b. Tarsal

Question (C).
Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of ……..
a. pyruvic acid
b. lactic acid
c. malic acid
d. succinic acid
Answer:
b. lactic acid

Question (D).
Which one of the following is NOT antagonistic muscle pair?
a. Flexo-extensor
b. Adductor-abductor
c. Levator-depressor
d. Sphinetro-suprinater
Answer:
d. Sphinetro-suprinater

Question (E).
Swelling of sprained foot is reduced by soaking in hot water containing a large amount of common salt,
a. due to osmosis
b. due to plasmolysis
c. due to electrolysis
d. due to photolysis
Answer:
a. due to osmosis

Question (F).
Role of calcium in muscle contraction is ……….
a. to break the cross bridges as a cofactor in the hydrolysis of ATP
b. to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the actin filament is exposed
c. to transmit the action potential across the neuromuscular junction.
d. to re-establish the polarisation of the plasma membrane following an action potential
Answer:
b. to bind with troponin, changing its shape so that the actin filament is exposed

Question (G).
Hyper-secretion of parathormone can cause which of the following disorders?
a. Gout
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Gull’s disease
Answer:
c. Osteoporosis

Question (H).
Select correct option between two nasal bones

Answer:
(c)

Question 2.
Answer the following questions

Question (A).
What kind of contraction occurs in your neck muscles while you are reading your class assignment?
Answer:

1. Isometric contractions occur in the neck muscles while reading class assignment.
2. These contractions are important for supporting objects in a fixed position.

Question (B).
Observe the diagram and enlist importance of ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’.

Answer:

1. A – Posterior portion of vertebral foramen of atlas vertebrae; Importance – The spinal cord runs through this portion of vertebral foramen
2. B – Anterior portion of vertebral foramen of axis vertebrae; Importance – In this portion, the odontoid process of axis vertebrae forms ‘NO’ joint.
3. C – Inferior articular facet; Importance – It articulates with superior articular facet of axis and permits rotatory movement of head.

Question (C).
Raju intends to train biceps; while exercising using dumbbells, which joints should remain stationary and which should move?
Answer:
While performing exercise of biceps using dumbbells, the joint which should remain stationary are wrist joint or radiocarpal joint, ball and socket joint of shoulder. The only joint which should move is hinge joint of elbow.

Question (D).
In a road accident, Moses fractured his leg. One of the passers by, tied a wodden plank to the fractured leg while Moses
was rushed to the hospital Was this essential? Why?
Answer:

1. Fracture is a significant and traumatic injury which requires medical attention however, getting timely first aid is important.
2. If any bone is fractured, it is essential that the fractured part be immobilized to prevent further injury. It can be done with the help of any available wooden plank or batons or rulers. Thus, a wooden plank was tied to Moses’s fractured leg as a first aid for fracture.
3. A fractured bone is immobilized to prevent the sharp edges of the fractured bone from moving and cutting tissue, muscle, blood vessels and nerves. Immobilization can also help reduce pain or control shock.

Question (E).
Sprain is more painful than fracture. Why?
Answer:

1. A sprain is an injury that involves the ligaments (tissues that connect bones at joints), whereas a fracture is an injury that involves bones.
2. Sprains can be of three degree: 1^st degree: Mild with micro-tears, 2^nd degree: Partial with visible tear in ligament, 3^rd degree: Completely torn ligament.
3. If a sprain is 3^rd degree, it will be more painful than a fracture. It usually requires a surgery to fix this injury, while breaking a bone, most of the time does not require surgery.
4. Breaks or Fractures also vary greatly. Minor fractures (like stress/ hairline fractures) are much less painful than compound/ complex fractures in which the bone may be cracked into half.
5. Blood supply is essential for growth and regeneration. Bones are highly vascularized whereas, ligaments are not. This causes the bones to heal comparatively faster than severe sprains. Thus, the duration of enduring pain until the injury heals also differs.
6. Also, ligaments have a rich supply of sensory nerves, which may also be responsible for an elevated sense of pain during severe sprains.

[Note: 1^st and 2^nd degree sprains are not very serious and may be lesser painful than a fracture. Depending on the severity of the injury, intensity of pain will vary.]

Question (F).
Why a red muscle can work for a prolonged period whereas white muscle fibre suffers from fatigue after a shorter work? (Refer to chapter animal tissues.)
Answer:

1. Red muscle fibres contain large amount of myoglobin and mitochondria (site of aerobic respiration), whereas white muscles fibres contain lesser amount of myoglobin and mitochondria.
2. Myoglobin is an iron-containing pigment that carries oxygen molecules to muscle tissues. Abundance of these pigments in red muscle fibres supports higher rate of aerobic respiration, whereas white muscle fibres have less mitochondria and depend upon anaerobic respiration.
3. Anaerobic respiration in muscle white fibres leads to the production of lactic acid and accumulation of higher of levels lactic acid can result in fatigue in white muscle fibres.

Thus, red muscle fibres can perform prolonged work and show less fatigue due to accumulation of negligible amount loss or of lactic acid, whereas white muscle fibres suffer from fatigue after a shorter work due to accumulation of higher amount of lactic acid.

3. Answer the following questions in detail

Question (A).
How is the structure of sarcomere suitable for the contractility of the muscle? Explain its function according to sliding
filament theory. (Refer to chapter animal tissues.)
Answer:
i. Sarcomere is the functional unit of myofibril. It has specific arrangement of actin and myosin filaments. The components of sarcomere are organized into variety of bands and zones. Actin and myosin are referred as contractile proteins. Actin is called as thin filament whereas myosin in called as thick filament. The structure of sarcomere:

ii. ‘A’ band – dark bands present at the centre of sarcomere and contain myosin as well as actin.
‘H’ zone or Hensen’s zone – light area present at the centre of ‘A’ band
‘M’ line – present at the centre of ‘H’ zone
‘I’ band – light bands present on the either side of ‘A’ band containing only actin
Z’ line – adjacent ‘I’ bands are separated by ‘Z’ line.

iii. Sliding filament theory: It was put forth by H.E Huxley and A.F Huxley. It is also known as ‘Walk along theory’ or Ratchet theory.

• According to the sliding filament theory, the interaction between actin and myosin filaments is the basic cause of muscle contraction. The actin filaments are interdigitated with myosin filaments.
• The head of the myosin is joined to the actin backbone by a cross bridge forming a hinge joint. From this joint, myosin head cannot tilt forward or backward. This movement is an active process as it utilizes ATP.
• Myosin head contains ATPase activity. It can derive energy by the breakdown of ATP molecule. This energy can be used for the movement of myosin head.
• During contraction, the myosin head gets attached to the active site of actin filaments and pull them inwardly so that the actin filaments slide over the myosin filaments. This results in the contraction of muscle fibre.
  

Question (B).
Ragini, a 50 year old office goer, suffered hair-line cracks in her right and left foot in short intervals of time. She was worried about minor jerks leading to hair line cracks in bones. Doctor explained to her why it must be happening and prescribed medicines.

What must be the cause of Ragini’s problem? Why has it occurred? What precautions she should have taken earlier? What care she should take in future?
Answer:

1. Considering Ragini’s age, she may be undergoing menopause. After menopause, oestrogen level declines resulting in lower bone density.
2. Osteoporosis:
   • In this disorder, bones become porous and hence brittle. It is primarily age related disease and is more common in women than men.
   • Osteoporosis may be caused due to decreasing estrogen secretion after menopause, deficiency of vitamin D, low calcium diet, decreased secretion of sex hormones and thyrocalcitonin.
3. As age advances, bone resorption outpaces bone formation. Hence, the bones lose mass and become brittle. More calcium is lost in urine, sweat, etc., than it is gained through diet. Thus, prevention of disease is better than treatment by consuming adequate amount of calcium and exercise at young age.
4. A person with previous hairline fractures is more susceptible to reoccurrence of fractures. Hence, Ragini needs to take her medications and supplements properly, avoid jerky movements and maintain body weight.

Question (C).
How does structure of actin and myosin help muscle contraction?
Answer:
i. Myosin filament:

1. Each myosin filament is a polymerized protein.
   Many meromyosins (monomeric proteins) constitute one thick filament.
2. Myosin molecule consists of two heavy chains (heavy meromyosin / HMM) coiled around each other forming a double helix. One end of each of these chains is projected outwardly is known as cross bridge. This end folds to form a globular protein mass called myosin head.
3. Two light chains are associated with each head forming 4 light chains/light meromyosin / LMM.
4. Myosin head has a special ATPase activity. It can split ATP to produce energy.
5. Myosin contributes 55% of muscle proteins.
6. In sarcomere, myosin tails are arranged to point towards the centre of the sarcomere and the heads point to the sides of the myofilament band.
   

ii. Actin filament: It is a complex type of contractile protein. It is made up of three components:

1. F actin: It forms the backbone of actin filament. F actin is made up of two helical strands. Each strand is composed of polymerized G actin molecules. One ADP molecule is attached to G actin molecule.
2. Tropomyosin: The actin filament contains two additional protein strands that are polymers of tropomyosin molecules. Each strand is loosely attached to an F actin. In the resting stage, tropomyosin physically covers the active myosin-binding site of the actin strand.
3. Troponin: It is a complex of three globular proteins, is attached approx. 2/3^rd distance along each tropomyosin molecule. It has affinity for actin, tropomyosin and calcium ions. The troponin complex is believed to attach the tropomyosin to the actin. The strong affinity of troponin for calcium ions is believed to initiate the contraction process.
   

Question (D).
Justify the structure of atlas and axis vertebrae with respect to their position and function.
Answer:
i. Atlas vertebrae:

1. Atlas is the ring-like, 1^st cervical vertebrae. It has anterior, posterior arches and large lateral masses.
2. It lacks centrum and spinous process. The superior surfaces of the lateral masses are concave and are known as superior articular facets.
3. These facets articulate with the occipital condyles of the occipital bone thereby forming atlanto-occipital joints. This articulation permits ‘YES movement’ or nodding movement.
4. The inferior surfaces of the lateral masses known as inferior articular facets articulate with axis vertebrae,

ii. Axis vertebrae:

1. It is the 2^nd cervical vertebrae.
2. A peg-like process called odontoid process projects superiorly through the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas.
3. The odontoid process forms a pivot on which the atlas and head rotate. This arrangement allows ‘NO movement’ or side to side movement of the head.
4. The articulation formed between the anterior arch of atlas, the odontoid process of the axis and between their articular facets is called as atlanto-axial joint.

Question (E).
Observe the blood report given below and diagnose the possible disorder.

Answer:
On observing Report D, it is clear that the level of uric acid is more than normal, thus the patient must be suffering from gouty arthritis.

Also, the elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) indicates dysfunctional liver and/ or kidneys. It generally occurs due to decrease in GFR, caused by renal disease or obstruction of urinary tract.

Question 4.
Write short notes on following points

Question (A).
Actin filament
Answer:
Actin filament: It is a complex type of contractile protein. It is made up of three components:

1. F actin: It forms the backbone of actin filament. F actin is made up of two helical strands. Each strand is composed of polymerized G actin molecules. One ADP molecule is attached to G actin molecule.
2. Tropomyosin: The actin filament contains two additional protein strands that are polymers of tropomyosin molecules. Each strand is loosely attached to an F actin. In the resting stage, tropomyosin physically covers the active myosin-binding site of the actin strand.
3. Troponin: It is a complex of three globular proteins, is attached approx. 2/3rd distance along each tropomyosin molecule. It has affinity for actin, tropomyosin and calcium ions. The troponin complex is believed to attach the tropomyosin to the actin. The strong affinity of troponin for calcium ions is believed to initiate the contraction process.
   

Question (B).
Myosin filament
Answer:
i. Myosin filament:

1. Each myosin filament is a polymerized protein.
   Many meromyosins (monomeric proteins) constitute one thick filament.
2. Myosin molecule consists of two heavy chains (heavy meromyosin / HMM) coiled around each other forming a double helix. One end of each of these chains is projected outwardly is known as cross bridge. This end folds to form a globular protein mass called myosin head.
3. Two light chains are associated with each head forming 4 light chains/light meromyosin / LMM.
4. Myosin head has a special ATPase activity. It can split ATP to produce energy.
5. Myosin contributes 55% of muscle proteins.
6. In sarcomere, myosin tails are arranged to point towards the centre of the sarcomere and the heads point to the sides of the myofilament band.
   

Question (C).
Role of calcium ions in contraction and relaxation of muscles.
Answer:
Calcium ions play a major role in contraction and relaxation of muscles.

1. Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasm during muscle contraction and stored in sarcoplasmic reticulum during muscle relaxation.
2. When a skeletal muscle is excited and an action potential travels along the T tubule, the concentration of calcium ions increases.
3. These calcium ions bind to troponin which in turn undergoes a conformational change that causes tropomyosin to move away from the myosin-binding sites on actin. Once these binding sites are free, myosin heads bind to them to form cross-bridges and the muscle fiber contracts.
4. The decrease in calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes tropomyosin to slide back and block the myosin binding sites on actin. This causes the muscle to relax.

Question 5.
Draw labelled diagrams

Question (A).
Synovial joint.
Answer:
i. Synovial joints / freely movable joints / diarthroses:

1. It is characterized by presence of a space called synovial cavity between articulating bones that renders free movement at the joint.
2. The articulating surfaces of bones at a synovial joint are covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage. It reduces friction during movement and helps to absorb shock.
3. Synovial cavity is lined by synovial membrane that forms synovial capsule. Synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid.
4. Synovial fluid is a clear, viscous, straw coloured fluid similar to lymph. It is viscous due to hyaluronic acid. The synovial fluid also contains nutrients, mucous and phagocytic cells to remove microbes.
   Synovial fluid lubricates the joint, absorbs shocks, nourishes the hyaline cartilage and removes waste materials from hyaline cartilage cells (as cartilage is avascular). Phagocytic cells destroy microbes and cellular debris formed by wear and tear of the joint.
5. If the joint is immobile for a while, the synovial fluid becomes viscous and as joint movement starts, it becomes less viscous.
6. The joint is provided with capsular ligament and numerous accessory ligaments. The fibrous capsule is attached to periosteum of articulating bones. The ligament helps in avoiding dislocation of joint.
7. The types of synovial joints are on follows:

1. Pivot joint: In this type of joint, the rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by the ligament. Rotation only around its own longitudinal axis is possible. e.g. in joint between atlas and axis vertebrae, head turns side ways to form ‘NO’ joint.

2. Ball and socket joint: The ball like surface of one bone fits into cup like depression of another bone forming a movable joint. Multi-axial movements are possible. This type of joint allows movements along all three axes and in all directions. e.g. Shoulder and hip joint.

3. Hinge joint: In a hinge joint, convex surface of one bone fits into concave surface of another bone. In most hinge joints one bone remains stationary and other moves. The angular opening and closing motion (like hinge) is possible. In this joint only mono-axial movement takes place like flexion and extension. e.g. Elbow and knee joint.

4. Condyloid joint: It is an ellipsoid joint. The convex oval shaped projection of one bone fits into oval shaped depression in another bone. it is a biaxial joint because it permits movement along two axes viz, flexion, extension, abduction, adduction and circumduction is possible. e.g. Metacarpophalangeal joint.

5. Gliding joint: It is a planar joint, where the articulating surfaces of bones are flat or slightly curved. These joints are non-axial because the motion they allow does not occur along an axis or a plane. e.g. Intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

6. Saddle joint: This joint is a characteristic of Homo sapiens. Here the articular surface of one bone is saddle-shaped and that of other bone fits into saddle (each bone forming this joint have both concave and convex areas). It is a modified condyloid joint in which movement is somewhat more free. It is a biaxial joint that allows flexion, extension, abduction, adduction and circumduction.
e.g. Carpometacarpellar joint between carpal (trapezium) and metacarpal of thumb.

Question (B).
Different cartilagenous joints.
Answer:
Cartilaginous / slightly movable joints / amphiarthroses:
These joints are neither fixed nor freely movable. Articulating bones are held together by hyaline or fibrocartilages. They are further classified as

a. Synchondroses: The two bones are held together by hyaline cartilage. They are meant for growth. On completion of growth, the joint gets ossified, e.g. Epiphyseal plate found between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone, Rib – Sternum junction.

b. Symphysis: In this type of joint, broad flat disc of fibrocartilage connects two bones. It occurs in mid-line of the body. e.g. Intervertebral discs, manubrium and sternum, pubic symphysis.

Practical / Project :

Identify the following diagrams and demonstrate the concepts in classroom.

Answer:
The diagrams A, B and C represent Class I, Class II and Class III lever respectively.
For description:

1. Class I lever: The joint between the first vertebra and occipital condyle of skull is an example of Class I lever. The force is directed towards the joints (fulcrum); contraction of back muscle provides force while the part of head that is raised acts as
   
2. Class II lever: Human body raised on toes is an example of Class II lever. Toe acts as fulcrum, contracting calf muscles provide the force while raised body acts as resistance.
   
3. Class III lever: Flexion of forearm at elbow exhibit lever of class III. Elbow joint acts as fulcrum and radius, ulna provides resistance. Contracting bicep muscles provides force for the movement.
   

[Students are expected to perform the given activity on their own]

12th Biology Digest Chapter 16 Skeleton and Movement Intext Questions and Answers

Movements And Locomotion (Textbook Page No. 193)

Question 1.
Streaming of protoplasm, peristalsis, walking, running, etc. Which of the above-mentioned movements are internal? Which are external? Can you add few more examples?
Answer:

1. Streaming of protoplasm, peristalsis are internal movements. Walking and running are external movements.
2. Examples of internal movement: Contraction and relaxation heart, inspiration and expiration, contraction of blood vessels, etc.
3. Examples of external movement: Swimming; movement tongue, jaws, snout, tentacles, movement of ear pinna, etc.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 193)

Question 1.
Which are different types of muscular tissues?
Answer:

1. Smooth / non-striated / visceral / involuntary muscles
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Skeletal / straited / voluntary muscles.

Question 2.
Name the type of muscles which bring about running and speaking.
Answer:
Skeletal muscles (Voluntary muscles)

Question 3.
Name the muscles which do not contract as per our will.
Answer:
Involuntary muscles (smooth muscles and cardiac muscles)

Question 4.
Which type of muscles show rhythmic contractions?
Answer:
Cardiac muscles

Question 5.
Which type of muscle is present in the diaphragm of the respiratory system?
Answer:
Skeletal muscle

Question 6.
State the functions of:

1. Smooth muscles
2. Cardiac muscles
3. Striated muscles

Answer:

1. Smooth muscles: They bring about involuntary movements like peristalsis in the alimentary canal, constriction and dilation of blood vessels.
2. Cardiac muscles: They bring about contraction and relaxation of the heart.
3. Striated muscles: They control voluntary movements of limbs, head, trunk, eyes, etc.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 193)

Question 1.
Name the part of human skeleton situated along the vertical axis.
Answer:
Axial skeleton

Question 2.
Give an account of bones of human skull.
Answer:
Skull is made up of 22 bones. It is located at the superior end of vertebral column. The bones of skull are
joined by fixed or immovable joints except for jaw.

Skull consists of cranium or brain box and facial bones.

i. Cranium: It is made up of four median bones and two paired bones.

1. Frontal bone: It is median bone (unpaired) forming forehead, roof of orbit (eye socket) and the most anterior part of cranium. It is connected to two parietals, sphenoid and ethmoid bone.
2. Parietal bones: These paired bones form the roof of cranium and greater portion of sides of the cranium.
3. Temporal bones: These paired bones are situated laterally just above the ear on either side. Each temporal bone gives out zygomatic process that joins zygomatic bone to form zygomatic arch. Just at the base of zygomatic process is mandibular fossa, a depression for mandibles (lower jaw bone) that forms the only movable joint of the skull. This bone harbors the ear canal that directs sound waves into the ear. The processes of temporal bones provide points for attachment for various muscles of neck and tongue.
4. Occipital bone: It is a single bone present at the back of the head. It forms the posterior part and most of the base of cranium. The inferior part of this bone shows foramen magnum, the opening through which medulla oblongata connects with spinal cord. On the either sides of foramen magnum are two prominent protuberances called occipital condyles. These fit into the corresponding depressions present in 1^st vertebra.
5. Sphenoid bone: Median bone present at the base of the skull that articulates with all other cranial bones and holds them together. This butterfly shaped bone has a saddle shaped region called sella turcica. In this hypophyseal fossa, the pituitary gland is lodged.
6. Ethmoid bone: This median bone is spongy in appearance. It is located anterior to sphenoid and posterior to nasal bones. It contributes to formation of nasal septum and is major supporting structure of nasal cavity.

ii. Facial Bones: Fourteen facial bones give a characteristic shape to the face. The growth of face stops of the
age of 16.
Following bones comprise the facial bones:

1. Nasals: These are paired bones that form the bridge of nose.
2. Maxillae: These form the upper jaw bones. They are paired bones that join with all facial bones except mandible. Upper row of teeth are lodged maxillae.
3. Palatines: These are paired bones forming the roof of buccal cavity or floor of the nasal cavity.
   
4. Zygomatic bones: They are commonly called as cheek bones.
5. Lacrimal bones: These are the smallest amongst the facial bones.
   These bones form the medial wall of each orbit. They have lacrimal fossa that houses lacrimal sacs. These sacs gather tears and send them to nasal cavity.
6. Inferior nasal conchae: They form the part of lateral wall of nasal cavity. They help to swirl and filter air before it passes to lungs.
7. Vomer: The median, roughly triangular bone that forms the inferior portion of nasal septum.
8. Mandible: This median bone forms the lower jaw. It is the largest and strongest facial bone. It is the only movable bone of skull. It has curved horizontal body and two perpendicular branches i.e. rami. These help in attachment of muscles. It has lower row of teeth lodged in it.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 193)

Question 1.
Did you ever feel tickling in muscles?
Answer:
Yes, the tickling sensation in muscles can be felt and sometimes it is also accompanied by itching sensation.

Question 2.
What is locomotion?
Answer:
The change in locus of whole body of living organism from one place to another place is called locomotion.

Question 3.
State the four basic types of locomotory movements seen in animals.
Answer:
The four basic types locomotory movements seen in animals are:

1. Amoeboid movement: It is performed by pseudopodia, e.g. leucocytes.
2. Ciliary movement: It is performed by cilia, e.g. ciliated epithelium. In Paramoecium, cilia help in passage of food through cytopharynx.
3. Whirling movement: It is performed by flagella, e.g. sperms.
4. Muscular movement: It is performed by muscles, with the help of bones and joints.

Question 4.

Question 1.
Why do muscles show spasm after rigorous contraction?
Answer:

1. Rigorous contraction of muscles occurs during strenuous activities (swimming. running, cycling, aerobics. etc.)
2. Muscle contraction requires energy. Glucose in muscle cells breakdown during anerobic respiration resulting in accumulation of lactic acid.
3. This lactic acid buildup triggers muscle spasm around muscle cells.

Question 2.
Why do we shiver during winter?
Answer:

1. Humans are homeotherms as the can regulate their body temperature with respect to the surrounding temperature. During winter, when temperature falls, the thermoreceptors detect the change in temperature and send signals to the brain.
2. Shivering reflex i.e. rapid contraction of muscles is triggered by the brain to generate heat and raise the body temperature.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 194)

Question 1.
Why are movement and locomotion necessary among animals?
Answer:

• Movement is one of the important characteristics of all the living organisms. Animals exhibit wide range of
  movements like rhythmic beating of heart, movement of diaphragm during respiration, ingestion of food,
  movement of eyeballs, etc.
• Locomotion results into change in place or location of an organism. Animals locomote in search of food, mate, shelter, breeding ground. while escaping from the enemy, etc.
• Thus, locomotion and movement are necessary to support the living of animals.

Question 2.
All locomotions are movements but all movements are not locomotion. Justify
Answer:
Locomotion occurs when body changes its position, however all movements may not result in locomotion. Thus, all locomotions are movements but all movements are not locomotion.

Question 3.
Kriti was diagnosed with knee tendon injury. She asked the doctor whether she will be able to walk due to the injury? If not then state the reason.
Answer:
Knee tendon injury affects the ability to walk. Kriti may not be able to walk freely as the tendons attached to the bones help in the movement of the parts of skeleton.

Question 4.
What are antagonistic muscles? Explain with example.
Answer:

1. The muscles that work in pairs and produce opposite action are known as antagonistic muscles, e.g. biceps and triceps of upper arm.
2. The biceps (flexors) bring flexion (folding) and triceps (extensors) bring extension of the elbow joint.
3. One member from a pair is capable of bending the joint by pulling of bones the other member is capable of straightening the same joint by pulling.
4. In antagonistic pair of muscles, one member is stronger than the other, e.g. The biceps are stronger than the triceps.

Question 5.
Describe the antagonistic muscles in detail.
Answer:
Following are the important antagonistic muscles:

1. Flexor and extensor: Flexor muscle on contraction results into bending or flexion of joint, e.g. Biceps. Extensor muscle on contraction results in straightening or extension of a joint, e.g. Triceps.
2. Abductor and adductor: Abductor muscle moves a body part away from the body axis. e.g. Deltoid muscle of shoulder moves the arm away from the body. Adductor muscle moves a body part towards the body axis, e.g. Latissimus dorsi of shoulder moves the arm near the body.
3. Pronator and supinator: Pronator turns the palm downwards and supinator turns the palm upward.
4. Levator and depressor: Levator raises a body part and the depressors lower the body part.
5. Protractor and retractor: Protractor moves forward, whereas the retractor moves backward.
6. Sphincters: Circular muscles present in the inner walls of anus, stomach, etc., for closure and opening.

Question 6.
Differentiate between:
i. Flexor and extensor muscles
Answer:

ii. Pronator and supinator: Pronator turns the palm downwards and supinator turns the palm upward.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 194)

Question 1.
Comment on contraction of skeletal muscles.
Answer:
Skeletal muscles show quick and strong voluntary contractions. They bring about voluntary movements of the body. For mechanism of muscle contraction:

When the muscles are relaxed, the active sites remain covered with tropomyosin and troponin complex. Due to this, myosin cannot interact with active site of actin and thus contraction cannot occur.

1. When an impulse (action potential) comes to muscle through motor end plate, it spreads throughout the sarcolemma of the myofibril.
2. The transverse tubules of sarcoplasmic reticulum release large number of Ca⁺⁺ ions into sarcoplasm. These calcium ions interact with the troponin molecules and the interaction inactivates troponin-tropomyosin complex. This causes change in the structure of tropomyosin.
3. As a result, tropomyosin gets detached from the active site of actin (F actin) filament, exposing the active site for actin.
4. The myosin head cleaves the ATP to derive energy and gets attached to the uncovered active site of actin. This results into the formation of acto-myosin complex.
5. The myosin heads are now tilted backwards and pull the attached actin filament inwardly. This results in contraction of the muscle fibres.

Do You Know How (Textbook Page No. 195)

Question 1.
Do skeletal muscles contract and bring about movement and locomotion?
Answer:
When the muscles are relaxed, the active sites remain covered with tropomyosin and troponin complex. Due to this, myosin cannot interact with active site of actin and thus contraction cannot occur.

1. When an impulse (action potential) comes to muscle through motor end plate, it spreads throughout the sarcolemma of the myofibril.
2. The transverse tubules of sarcoplasmic reticulum release large number of Ca⁺⁺ ions into sarcoplasm. These calcium ions interact with the troponin molecules and the interaction inactivates troponin-tropomyosin complex. This causes change in the structure of tropomyosin.
3. As a result, tropomyosin gets detached from the active site of actin (F actin) filament, exposing the active site for actin.
4. The myosin head cleaves the ATP to derive energy and gets attached to the uncovered active site of actin. This results into the formation of acto-myosin complex.
5. The myosin heads are now tilted backwards and pull the attached actin filament inwardly. This results in contraction of the muscle fibres.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 196)

Question 1.
Collect information about‘T’ tubules of sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answer:

1. T tubules or the transverse tubules are invaginations of the sarcolemma penetrating into the myocyte interior, forming a highly branched and interconnected network that makes junctions with the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
2. These tubules are selectively enriched with specific ion channels and proteins crucial in the development of calcium transients necessary in excitation-contraction coupling, thereby facilitating a fast-synchronous contraction of the entire cell volume.
3. They are unique to straited muscle cells.
   [Source: https://www. uniprot. org/locations]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 197)

Question 1.
Explain the chemical changes taking place in muscle contraction.
Answer:
The muscle undergoes various chemical changes during contraction, they are as follows:

1. A nerve impulse arrives at the motor nerve. The neurotransmitter – acetylcholine is released at the neuromuscular junction (N-M junction or motor endplate) enters into the sarcomere.
2. This leads to inflow of Na+ inside the sarcomere and generates an action potential in the muscle fibre.
3. The action potential passes down the T tubules and activates calcium channels in the T tubular membrane. Activation of calcium channel allows calcium ions to pass into the sarcoplasm. These Ca⁺⁺ ions binds to the specific sites on troponin of actin filaments and a conformational change occurs in the troponin – tropomyosin complex, thereby removing the masking of active sites for myosin on the actin filament.
4. In the myosin head, the enzyme ATPase gets activated in the presence of Ca⁺⁺ and converts ATP into ADP and inorganic phosphate.
5. This energy from ATP hydrolysis is utilized by myosin bridges or myosin heads to bind with active sites of actin and form actomyosin complex pulling the actin filaments towards the centre of sarcomere. The myosin heads are now tilted backwards and pull the attached actin filament inwardly towards them. The actin filament slides over mysosin and contraction occurs.
6. Also, the ADP needs to be converted back to ATP immediately as they required for muscular contraction, This is achieved in the muscles by the presence of another high energy compound, creatine phosphate.
7. ADP combines with creatine phosphate to produce ATP and creatinine due to which the supply of ATP for muscle contraction is restored but the level of creatine phosphate keeps decreasing and the level of creatinine keeps on increasing.
8. The creatinine formed needs to be reconverted to creatine phosphate. This is done by ATP produced during oxidation of glycogen through glycolysis.

Question 2.
Why are muscle rich in creatine phosphate?
Answer:

1. Creatine phosphate or phosphocreatine is formed from ATP, when the muscle is in relaxed state. It is a phosphorylated form of creatine.
2. Muscle cells contain creatine phosphate which acts as energy reserve as this high energy compound acts as a phosphate donor for ATP formation.
3. ATP acts as an immediate source of energy for contraction

Question 3.
Explain the mechanism of muscle contraction and relaxation.
Answer:
Mechanism of muscle contraction:

When the muscles are relaxed, the active sites remain covered with tropomyosin and troponin complex. Due to this, myosin cannot interact with active site of actin and thus contraction cannot occur.

1. When an impulse (action potential) comes to muscle through motor end plate, it spreads throughout the sarcolemma of the myofibril.
2. The transverse tubules of sarcoplasmic reticulum release large number of Ca⁺⁺ ions into sarcoplasm. These calcium ions interact with the troponin molecules and the interaction inactivates troponin-tropomyosin complex. This causes change in the structure of tropomyosin.
3. As a result, tropomyosin gets detached from the active site of actin (F actin) filament, exposing the active site for actin.
4. The myosin head cleaves the ATP to derive energy and gets attached to the uncovered active site of actin. This results into the formation of actomyosin complex.
5. The myosin heads are now tilted backwards and pull the attached actin filament inwardly. This results in contraction of the muscle fibres.

Muscle relaxation: During relaxation, all the events occur in reverse direction as that of muscle contraction.

1. When the stimulation is terminated, the actomyosin complex is broken down and myosin head gets detached from actin filaments. This process utilizes ATP.
2. Also, the Ca⁺⁺ ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This process too is an energy dependent process and utilizes ATP.
   
3. As a result, the troponin-tropomyosin complex is restored again which covers the active sites of act in filament, due to disappearance of the Ca⁺⁺ ions. The interaction between actin and myosin ceases and the actin filaments return back to their original position.
4. This results in muscle relaxation.

Question 4.
What do you understand by muscle twitch?
Answer:
Single muscle twitch:

Single muscle twitch: It is a muscle contraction initiated by a single brief-stimulation. It occurs in 3 stages: a latent period of no contraction, a contraction period and a relaxation period.

1. The involuntary contraction of muscle fibers is known as muscle twitch.
2. Muscle twitch is also known as fasciculation.
3. It is caused due accumulation of lactic acid in muscles.

Do You Know How (Textbook Page No. 198)

Question 1.
Exoskeletal components change from lower to higher group of animals. These include chitinous structures, nails, horns, hooves, scales, hair, shell, plates, fur, muscular foot, tube feet, etc.

Question 1.
Do you know any of these exoskeletal structures help in movement and locomotion?
Answer:
Nails, hooves, scales, plates, muscular foot and tube feet help in movement and locomotion.

Question 2.
How do scales and plates help in movement and locomotion?
Answer:
Scales and plates in reptiles like snakes provide grip to move on rough edgy surfaces.

Question 3.
Are scales of a fish and that of snake similar?
Answer:
Fishes have dermal scales (bony scales), whereas reptiles like snakes have epidermal scales or scutes (horny, tough extensions of outer layer of skin i.e., stratum corneum).

Question 4.
Find out more information about exoskeletal structures and their role in movement and locomotion.
Answer:
Exoskeletal structures: Exoskeleton provide support, help in movement and also provides protection from predators. The exoskeletal structures vary from organism to organism. Echinoderms have tube feet for locomotion whereas molluscs (e.g. Chiton) have muscular foot for movement and locomotion

[Students are expected to find out more information about exoskeletal structures on their own.]

Question 2.
Name the tissues that form the structural framework of the body.
Answer:
Cartilage and bone

Do you remember? (Textbook Page No. 198)

Question 1.
What are the components of skeletal system?
Answer:
The components of skeletal system are bones, tendons, ligaments and joint.

Question 2.
What type of bones are present in our body?
Answer:
Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones and sesamoid bones.

Question 3.
How do bones help in various ways?
Answer:

1. Bones form the framework of our body and thus provide shape to the body.
2. They protect vital organs thus help in the smooth functioning of body.
3. The joints between the bones help in movement and locomotion.
4. They provide firm surface for attachment of muscles.
5. They are reservoirs of calcium and form important site for hemopoiesis.

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 198)

Question 1.
Can you compare bone, muscle and joint which help in locomotion with any simple machines you have studied earlier?
Answer:
Bone, muscle and joint can be compared to the simple machines called levers. Joints act as fulcrum, respective muscle generates the force required to move the bone associated with joint.

Question 2.
Explain the three types of lever found in human body.
Answer:
The three types of lever are as follows:

1. Class I lever: The joint between the first vertebra and occipital condyle of skull is an example of Class I lever. The force is directed towards the joints (fulcrum); contraction of back muscle provides force while the part of head that is raised acts as resistance.
   
2. Class II lever: Human body raised on toes is an example of Class II lever. Toe acts as fulcrum, contracting calf muscles provide the force while raised body acts as resistance.
   
3. Class III lever: Flexion of forearm at elbow exhibit lever of class III. Elbow joint acts as fulcrum and radius, ulna provides resistance. Contracting bicep muscles provides force for the movement.
   

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 199)

Question 1.
Why are long bones slightly bent and not straight?
Answer:

1. Long bones include tibia, fibula, femur, humerus, radius, ulna, etc.
2. They have greater length than width. They consist of a shaft and variable number of epiphysis.
3. They are slightly bent or curved to absorb the stress of the body’s weight and evenly distribute the body weight at several different points.
4. If long bones were straight, the weight of the body would be unevenly distributed and the bone would fracture more easily.

Identify and label. (Textbook Page No. 199)

Question 1.
Identify the different bones.
Answer:

Identify and label. (Textbook Page No. 200)

Question 1.
Name A, B, C and D from the given figure and discuss in group.

Answer:
A – Coronal suture,
B – Sagittal suture,
C – Lambdoidal suture,
D – Lateral / Squamous suture

Skull has many sutures (type of immovable joints) present, out of which four prominent ones are:

1. Coronal suture: Joins frontal bone with parietals.
2. Sagittal suture: Joins two parietal bones.
3. Lambdiodal suture: Joins two parietal bones with occipital bone.
4. Lateral/squamous sutures: Joins parietal and temporal bones on lateral side.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 201)

Question 1.
Give schematic plan of human skeleton.
Answer:

[Note: Numbers in the bracket indicate the number of bones.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 201)

Question 1.
Enlist the bones of cranium.
Answer:
Cranium: It is made up of four median bones and two paired bones.

1. Frontal bone: It is median bone (unpaired) forming forehead, roof of orbit (eye socket) and the most anterior part of cranium. It is connected to two parietals, sphenoid and ethmoid bone.
2. Parietal bones: These paired bones form the roof of cranium and greater portion of sides of the cranium.
3. Temporal bones: These paired bones are situated laterally just above the ear on either side. Each temporal bone gives out zygomatic process that joins zygomatic bone to form zygomatic arch. Just at the base of zygomatic process is mandibular fossa, a depression for mandibles (lower jaw bone) that forms the only movable joint of the skull. This bone harbors the ear canal that directs sound waves into the ear. The processes of temporal bones provide points for attachment for various muscles of neck and tongue.
4. Occipital bone: It is a single bone present at the back of the head. It forms the posterior part and most of the base of cranium. The inferior part of this bone shows foramen magnum, the opening through which medulla oblongata connects with spinal cord. On the either sides of foramen magnum are two prominent protuberances called occipital condyles. These fit into the corresponding depressions present in 1st vertebra.
5. Sphenoid bone: Median bone present at the base of the skull that articulates with all other cranial bones and holds them together. This butterfly shaped bone has a saddle shaped region called sella turcica. In this hypophyseal fossa, the pituitary gland is lodged.
6. Ethmoid bone: This median bone is spongy in appearance. It is located anterior to sphenoid and posterior to nasal bones. It contributes to formation of nasal septum and is major supporting structure of nasal cavity.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 201)

Question 1.
Write a note on structure and function of skull.
Answer:
i. Structure of skull:
Skull is made up of 22 bones. It is located at the superior end of vertebral column. The bones of skull are joined by fixed or immovable joints except for jaw.

Skull consists of cranium or brain box and facial bones.

i. Cranium: It is made up of four median bones and two paired bones.

1. Frontal bone: It is median bone (unpaired) forming forehead, roof of orbit (eye socket) and the most anterior part of cranium. It is connected to two parietals, sphenoid and ethmoid bone.
2. Parietal bones: These paired bones form the roof of cranium and greater portion of sides of the cranium.
3. Temporal bones: These paired bones are situated laterally just above the ear on either side. Each temporal bone gives out zygomatic process that joins zygomatic bone to form zygomatic arch. Just at the base of zygomatic process is mandibular fossa, a depression for mandibles (lower jaw bone) that forms the only movable joint of the skull. This bone harbors the ear canal that directs sound waves into the ear. The processes of temporal bones provide points for attachment for various muscles of neck and tongue.
4. Occipital bone: It is a single bone present at the back of the head. It forms the posterior part and most of the base of cranium. The inferior part of this bone shows foramen magnum, the opening through which medulla oblongata connects with spinal cord. On the either sides of foramen magnum are two prominent protuberances called occipital condyles. These fit into the corresponding depressions present in 1^st vertebra.
5. Sphenoid bone: Median bone present at the base of the skull that articulates with all other cranial bones and holds them together. This butterfly shaped bone has a saddle shaped region called sella turcica. In this hypophyseal fossa, the pituitary gland is lodged.
6. Ethmoid bone: This median bone is spongy in appearance. It is located anterior to sphenoid and posterior to nasal bones. It contributes to formation of nasal septum and is major supporting structure of nasal cavity.

ii. Facial Bones: Fourteen facial bones give a characteristic shape to the face. The growth of face stops of the age of 16.
Following bones comprise the facial bones:

1. Nasals: These are paired bones that form the bridge of nose.
2. Maxillae: These form the upper jaw bones. They are paired bones that join with all facial bones except mandible. Upper row of teeth are lodged maxillae.
   
3. Palatines: These are paired bones forming the roof of buccal cavity or floor of the nasal cavity.
4. Zygomatic bones: They are commonly called as cheek bones.
5. Lacrimal bones: These are the smallest amongst the facial bones. These bones form the medial wall of each orbit. They have lacrimal fossa that houses lacrimal sacs. These sacs gather tears and send them to nasal cavity.
6. Inferior nasal conchae: They form the part of lateral wall of nasal cavity. They help to swirl and filter air before it passes to lungs.
7. Vomer: The median, roughly triangular bone that forms the inferior portion of nasal septum.
8. Mandible: This median bone forms the lower jaw. It is the largest and strongest facial bone. It is the only movable bone of skull. It has curved horizontal body and two perpendicular branches i.e. rami. These help in attachment of muscles. It has lower row of teeth lodged in it.

ii. Functions of skull:

1. It protects the brain.
2. It provides sockets for ear, nasal chamber and eyes.
3. Mandible bone of the skull helps in opening and closing of the mouth.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 201)

Question 1.
Cleft palate and cleft lip
Answer:

1. Cleft palate and cleft lip are the birth defects that occur when a baby’s lip or mouth does develop properly.
2. Cleft palate happens when the tissue that forms the roof of the mouth does not join together completely during pregnancy.
3. Cleft lip happens when the tissue that makes up the lip does not join completely before birth. This leads to formation of an opening in the upper lip.

[Students are expected to find more information about Cleft Palate and lip on internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 202)

Question 1.
Why skull is important for us? Enlist few reasons.
Answer:
Functions of skull:

• It protects the brain.
• It provides sockets for ear, nasal chamber and eyes.
• Mandible bone of the skull helps in opening and closing of the mouth.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 202)

Question 1.
Find out information about sinuses present in skull, functions of skull and disorder ‘sinusitis’.
Answer:
Sinuses are the hollow cavities present in the skull. They humidify the air we breathe.

i. The four types of sinuses present in the skull:

• Frontal sinuses: They are located above each eye. There are right and left frontal sinuses.
• Maxillary sinuses: They are the largest among all sinuses, located just behind the cheekbones near to upper jaws.
• Sphenoid sinuses: These are present just behind the nose.
• Ethmoid sinuses: These are present between the eyes.

ii. Functions of skull:

Functions of skull:

• It protects the brain.
• It provides sockets for ear, nasal chamber and eyes.
• Mandible bone of the skull helps in opening and closing of the mouth.

iii. Sinusitis: It is the inflammation of tissue lining the sinuses. Healthy sinuses when get blocked with mucus and germs causing infection which may lead to sinusitis.

[Students are expected to find more information about sinusitis, using the internet.]

Something interesting. (Textbook Page No. 202)

Question 1.
If police suspect strangulation, they carefully inspect hyoid bone and cartilage of larynx. These get fractured during strangulation. V arious such investigations are done in case of suspicious death of an individual where ossification of sutures in skull, width of pelvic girdle, etc. are examined to find out approximate age of victim or gender of victim, etc. You may find out information about forensic science.
Answer:
Forensic science is an application of science which is used in the matter of criminal determination and civil law. It is generally used in investigation of crimes. Forensic scientists collect, preserve and analyze the evidence during the course of investigation.
[Students are expected to find more information about forensic science on internet.]

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 202)

Question 1.
Feel your spine (vertebral column). Is it straight or curved?
Answer:
Our spinc shows four slight curves which are visible when viewed from the sides.

Question 2.
Find information about slipped disc. (Textbook page no.202)
Answer:

1. The bones of vertebral column are supported by the intervertebral discs.
2. These intervertebral discs act as shock absorbers due to which they are constantly compressed.
3. The disc consists of two parts – soft gelatinous inner part (nucleus pulposus) and tough outer ring.

If the ligaments of the intervertebral discs become injured, the pressure developed in the nucleus pulposus protrudes posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebrae. This is known as slipped disc.

[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 204)

Question 1.
Write a note on curvatures of vertebral column and mention their importance.
Answer:

1. The four curvatures in human spine are cervical, lumbar, thoracic and sacral curvatures.
2. The cervical and lumbar curvatures are secondary and convex whereas the thoracic and sacral curvatures are
   primary and concave.
3. Importance: Curvatures help in maintaining balance in upright position. They absorb shocks while walking
   and also protect the vertebrae from fracture.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of typical vertebra.
Answer:

1. Each vertebra has prominent central body called centrum.
2. The centra of human vertebrae are flat in anterio-posterior aspect. Thus, human vertebrae are amphiplatyan.
3. From the either side of the centrum are two thick short processes which unite to form an arch like structure called neural arch, posterior to centrum.
4. Neural arch forms vertebral foramen which surrounds the spinal cord.
5. Vertebral foramina of all vertebrae form a continuous ‘neural canal’. Spinal cord along with blood vessels and protective fatty covering passes through neural canal.
6. The point where two processes of centrum meet, the neural arch is drawn into a spinous process called neural spine.
   
7. From the base of neural arch, two articulating processes called zygapophyses are given out on either side. The anterior is called superior zygapophyses and posterior called inferior zygapophyses.
8. In a stack of vertebrae, inferior zygapophyses of one vertebra articulates with superior zygapophyses of next vertebra. This allows slight movement of vertebrae without allowing them to fall.
9. At the junction of zygapophyses, a small opening is formed on either side of vertebra called intervertebral foramen that allows passage of spinal nerve.
10. From the base of neural arch, lateral processes are given out called transverse processes. Neural arch, neural spine and transverse processes are meant for attachment of muscles.

Question 2.
How will you identify a thoracic vertebra?
Answer:
Thoracic vertebrae can be identified on the basis of centrum, as the centrum of the thoracic vertebrae is heart shaped.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 206)

Question 1.
How does humerus form ball and socket joint? Where is it located?
Answer:
The head of humerus fits into the glenoid cavity of scapula and forms ball and socket joint. it is located in shoulder and hips.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 208)

Question 1.
Differentiate between the skeleton of palm and foot.
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the longest bone in human body.
Answer:
Femur: The thigh bone is the longest bone in the body. The head is joined to shaft at an angle by a short neck. It forms ball and socket joint with acetabulum cavity of coxal bone. The lower one third region of shaft is triangular flattened area called popliteal surface. Distal end has two condyles that articulate with tibia and fibula.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 212)

Question 1.
Find out information about types of fractures and how they heal.
Answer:

1. Fractures are classified based on their severity, shape or position of the fracture line or the physician who first described them.
2. Types of fractures:
   1. Open fractures: The broken ends of the bone protrude through skin.
   2. Comminuted fractures: The bone is splintered, crushed or broken into pieces at the site of impact and smaller bone fragments lie between the two main fragments.
   3. Greenstick fractures: A partial fracture in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side bends.
   4. Impacted fractures: One end of the fractured bone is forcefully driven into the inferior of the other.
   5. Pott fractures: Fracture of the distal end lateral leg bone with serious injury of the distal tibial articulation.
   6. Codes fractures: Fracture of the distal end of the lateral forearm in which the distal fragment is displaced posteriorly.
3. A fractured bone heals in four phases viz, reactive phase, fibrocartilaginous formation phase, bony callus formation phase and bone remodeling phase.

[Source: Tortora, G., Derrickson, B. Principles of Anatomy and Physiology. 15^th Edition]

[Students are expected to find out more information about healing of fractures using the internet.]

Do you remember? (Textbook Page No. 208)

Question 1.
What are joints? What are the types?
Answer:
i. A point where two or more bones get articulated is called joint or articulation or athrosis.
They are classified based on degree of flexibility or movement they permit into lastly synovial or freely movable or diarthroses type of joints.

ii. Synarthroses / fibrous joints / movable joints:
In this joint, the articulating bones are held together by means of fibrous connective tissue. Bones do not exhibit movement. Hence, it is immovable or fixed type of joint. Synarthroses are further classified into sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses.

• Sutures: It is composed of thin layer of a dense fibrous connective tissue. Sutures are places of growth. They remain open till growth is complete. On completion of growth, they tend to ossify. Sutures may permit some moulding during childhood. Sutures are further classified into butt joint, scarf joint, lap joint and serrate joint.
• Syndesmoses: It is present where there is greater distance between articulating bones. At such locations, fibrous connective tissue is arranged as a sheet or bundle, e.g. Distal tibiofibular joint, interosseous membrane between tibia and fibula and that between radius and ulna.
• Gomphoses: In this type of joint, a cone shaped bone fits into a socket provided by other bone,
  e. g. Tooth and jaw bones.
  

iii. Cartilaginous / slightly movable joints / amphiarthroses:
These joints are neither fixed nor freely movable. Articulating bones are held together by hyaline or
fibrocartilages. They are further classified as

• Synchondroses: The two bones are held together by hyaline cartilage. They are meant for growth.
  On completion of growth, the joint gets ossified, e.g. Epiphyseal plate found between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone, Rib – Sternum junction.
• Symphysis: In this type of joint, broad flat disc of fibrocartilage connects two bones. It occurs in mid-line of the body. e.g. Intervertebral discs, manubrium and sternum, pubic symphysis.
  

iv. Synovial joints / freely movable joints / diarthroses:

1. It is characterized by presence of a space called synovial cavity between articulating bones that renders free movement at the joint.
2. The articulating surfaces of bones at a synovial joint are covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage. It reduces friction during movement and helps to absorb shock.
   
3. Synovial cavity is lined by synovial membrane that forms synovial capsule. Synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid.
4. Synovial fluid is a clear, viscous, straw coloured fluid similar to lymph. It is viscous due to hyaluronic acid. The synovial fluid also contains nutrients, mucous and phagocytic cells to remove microbes. Synovial fluid lubricates the joint, absorbs shocks, nourishes the hyaline cartilage and removes waste materials from hyaline cartilage cells (as cartilage is avascular). Phagocytic cells destroy microbes and cellular debris formed by wear and tear of the joint.
5. If the joint is immobile for a while, the synovial fluid becomes viscous and as joint movement starts, it becomes less viscous.
6. The joint is provided with capsular ligament and numerous accessory ligaments. The fibrous capsule is attached to periosteum of articulating bones. The ligament helps in avoiding dislocation of joint.

g. The types of synovial joints are on follows:

1. Pivot joint: In this type of joint, the rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by the ligament. Rotation only around its own longitudinal axis is possible. e.g. in joint between atlas and axis vertebrae, head turns side ways to form ‘NO’ joint.

2. BaIl and socket joint: The ball like surface of one bone fits into cup like depression of another bone forming a movable joint. Multi-axial movements are possible. This type of joint allows movements along all three axes and in all directions. e.g. Shoulder and hip joint.

3. Hinge joint: In a hinge joint, convex surface of one bone fits into concave surface of another bone. In most hinge joints one bone remains stationary and other moves. The angular opening and closing motion (like hinge) is possible. In this joint only mono-axial movement takes place like flexion and extension. e.g. Elbow and knee joint.

4. Condyloid joint: It is an ellipsoid joint. The convex oval shaped projection of one bone fits into oval shaped depression in another bone. It is a biaxial joint because it permits movement along two axes viz, flexion, extension, abduction, adduction and circumduction is possible. e.g. Metacarpophalangeal joint.

5. Gliding joint: It is a planar joint, where the articulating surfaces of bones are flat or slightly curved. These joints are non-axial because the motion they allow does not occur along an axis or a plane. e.g. Intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

Saddle joint: This joint is a characteristic of Homo sapiens. Here the articular surface of one bone is saddle-shaped and that of other bone fits into saddle (each bone forming this joint have both concave and convex areas). It is a modified condyloid joint in which movement is somewhat more free. It is a biaxial joint that allows flexion, extension, abduction, adduction and circumduction. e.g. Carpometacarpellar joint between carpal (trapezium) and metacarpal of thumb.

Imagine. (Textbook Page No. 208)

Question 1.
If your elbow joint would be a fixed type of joint and joint between teeth and gum would be freely movable.
Answer:

1. If the elbow joint would be fixed the flexion and extension of the forearm won’t be possible. Also, rotation of the forearm and wrist would not be not possible.
2. Gomphoses is the type of joint that holds the teeth in the jaw bone. If this joint would be freely movable, we would not be able to chew and all our teeth would fall out.

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 210)

Question 1.
Why are warming up rounds essential before regular exercise?
Answer:

1. Warming up before exercise stimulates the production and secretion of synovial fluid which reduces the stress on joints during exercise.
2. Also, if a joint is immobile for a while, the synovial fluid becomes viscous and as joint movement starts, it becomes less viscous.
3. Warming up increases the blood circulation, loosening the joints and increasing the blood flow. It also prepares the muscles for physical activity and prevents injuries.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 211)

Question 1.
Classify various types of joints found in human body. Present the information in the form of chart. Give example of each type.
Answer:

i. A point where two or more bones get articulated is called joint or articulation or athrosis.
They are classified based on degree of flexibility or movement they permit into lastly synovial or freely movable or diarthroses type of joints.

ii. Synarthroses / fibrous joints / movable joints:
In this joint, the articulating bones are held together by means of fibrous connective tissue. Bones do not exhibit movement. Hence, it is immovable or fixed type of joint. Synarthroses are further classified into sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses.

1. Sutures: It is composed of thin layer of a dense fibrous connective tissue. Sutures are places of growth. They remain open till growth is complete. On completion of growth, they tend to ossify. Sutures may permit some moulding during childhood. Sutures are further classified into butt joint, scarf joint, lap joint and serrate joint.
2. Syndesmoses: It is present where there is greater distance between articulating bones. At such locations, fibrous connective tissue is arranged as a sheet or bundle, e.g. Distal tibiofibular joint, interosseous membrane between tibia and fibula and that between radius and ulna.
3. Gomphoses: In this type of joint, a cone shaped bone fits into a socket provided by other bone,
   e. g. Tooth and jaw bones.
   

iii. Cartilaginous / slightly movable joints / amphiarthroses:
These joints are neither fixed nor freely movable. Articulating bones are held together by hyaline or
fibrocartilages. They are further classified as

• Synchondroses: The two bones are held together by hyaline cartilage. They are meant for growth.
  On completion of growth, the joint gets ossified, e.g. Epiphyseal plate found between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone, Rib – Sternum junction.
• Symphysis: In this type of joint, broad flat disc of fibrocartilage connects two bones. It occurs in mid-line of the body. e.g. Intervertebral discs, manubrium and sternum, pubic symphysis.
  

iv. Synovial joints / freely movable joints / diarthroses:

1. It is characterized by presence of a space called synovial cavity between articulating bones that renders free movement at the joint.
2. The articulating surfaces of bones at a synovial joint are covered by a layer of hyaline cartilage. It reduces friction during movement and helps to absorb shock.
   
3. Synovial cavity is lined by synovial membrane that forms synovial capsule. Synovial membrane secretes synovial fluid.
4. Synovial fluid is a clear, viscous, straw coloured fluid similar to lymph. It is viscous due to hyaluronic acid. The synovial fluid also contains nutrients, mucous and phagocytic cells to remove microbes.
   Synovial fluid lubricates the joint, absorbs shocks, nourishes the hyaline cartilage and removes waste materials from hyaline cartilage cells (as cartilage is avascular). Phagocytic cells destroy microbes and cellular debris formed by wear and tear of the joint.
5. If the joint is immobile for a while, the synovial fluid becomes viscous and as joint movement starts, it becomes less viscous.
6. The joint is provided with capsular ligament and numerous accessory ligaments. The fibrous capsule is attached to periosteum of articulating bones. The ligament helps in avoiding dislocation of joint.

g. The types of synovial joints are on follows:

1. Pivot joint: In this type of joint, the rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed partly by another bone and partly by the ligament. Rotation only around its own longitudinal axis is possible. e.g. in joint between atlas and axis vertebrae, head turns side ways to form ‘NO’ joint.

2. BaIl and socket joint: The ball like surface of one bone fits into cup like depression of another bone forming a movable joint. Multi-axial movements are possible. This type of joint allows movements along all three axes and in all directions. e.g. Shoulder and hip joint.

3. Hinge joint: In a hinge joint, convex surface of one bone fits into concave surface of another bone. In most hinge joints one bone remains stationary and other moves. The angular opening and closing motion (like hinge) is possible. In this joint only mono-axial movement takes place like flexion and extension. e.g. Elbow and knee joint.

4. Condyloid joint: It is an ellipsoid joint. The convex oval shaped projection of one bone fits into oval shaped depression in another bone. It is a biaxial joint because it permits movement along two axes viz, flexion, extension, abduction, adduction and circumduction is possible. e.g. Metacarpophalangeal joint.

5. Gliding joint: It is a planar joint, where the articulating surfaces of bones are flat or slightly curved. These joints are non-axial because the motion they allow does not occur along an axis or a plane. e.g. Intercarpal and intertarsal joints.

Saddle joint: This joint is a characteristic of Homo sapiens. Here the articular surface of one bone is saddle-shaped and that of other bone fits into saddle (each bone forming this joint have both concave and convex areas). It is a modified condyloid joint in which movement is somewhat more free. It is a biaxial joint that allows flexion, extension, abduction, adduction and circumduction. e.g. Carpometacarpellar joint between carpal (trapezium) and metacarpal of thumb.

[Students are expected to prepare a chart on their own.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 211)

Question 1.
Human beings can hold an object in a better manner than monkeys. Why?
Answer:

1. Humans and monkeys both have five fingers including thumb, however humans can hold an object in better manner than monkeys because humans have highly developed opposable thumbs. The opposable thumb allows better grip.
2. The saddle joint in thumb allows free and independent movement to the thumb the carpometacarpellar joint between carpal (trapezium) and metacarpal of thumb makes the thumb opposable. It allows biaxial movements, i.e. flexion – extension and adduction – abduction but not rotation.

[Note: Gorillas, chimpanzees, orangutans and some other variants of apes have opposable thumb.]

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 211)

Question 92.
Now a days we hear from many elderly people that they are undergoing knee replacement surgery. Find out why one has to undergo knee replacement; how it is carried out and how it can be prevented.
Answer:
Knee replacement is done in following cases:

1. Osteoarthritis: The cartilage in the knee undergoes degradation. It is caused by many factors such as muscle weakness, aging, obesity, etc.
2. Rheumatoid arthritis: It is characterised by inflammation of the synovial membrane, where it starts secreting excess of synovial fluid in the joint. This fluid exerts extensive pressure on the joint and causes severe pain.
3. Post-traumatic arthritis: This is caused due to breakage of ligament or cartilage. The breakage can be due to severe injury or accident. It causes severe pain and requires knee replacement.
4. Procedure:
   The procedure involves removal of the damaged cartilage or ligament and replaces it with artificial implant made up of either metal, plastic or both. Metal or plastic knee caps are used to cover the knees. The implant is connected to the bone and an artificial knee joint is made between them.
5. Prevention: Maintaining body weight, exercising regularly, consuming appropriate medications and supplements, etc.

[Students are expected to find out more information about knee replacement on internet]

Find out. (Textbook Page No. 212)

Question 1.
You must have heard of Sachin Tendulkar suffering from ‘tennis elbow’, a cricketer suffering from a disorder named after another game. Can common people too suffer from this disorder? Find out more information about this disorder.
Answer:

1. Tennis elbow is caused due to inflammation of tendon which joins muscles of forearm to the bone of upper arm (humerus). It is known as lateral epicondylitis.
2. It causes severe pain in the elbow. It occurs due to extensive repetitive movement of hand. This damages the tendon and increases the tenderness of the elbow joint.
3. This disorder develops not only in athletes but also in other common people whose job involves extensive movement of hand such as carpenter, painter, plumber, etc.

[Students are expected to find more information about tennis elbow on their own.]

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Plant Tissues and Anatomy Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Morphology of Flowering Plants Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Animal Tissue Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Study of Animal Type : Cockroach Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Photosynthesis Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Respiration and Energy Transfer Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Human Nutrition Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Excretion and Osmoregulation Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Skeleton and Movement Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Excretion and Osmoregulation Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 15 Excretion and Osmoregulation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 15 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 15 Exercise Solution

1. Chose the correct option

Question (A).
Which one of the following organisms would spend maximum energy in the production of nitrogenous waste?
a. Polar bear
b. Flamingo
c. Frog
d. Shark
Answer:
b. Flamingo

Question (B).
In human beings, uric acid is formed due to metabolism of __________.
a. amino acids
b. fatty acids
c. creatinine
d. nucleic acids
Answer:
d. nucleic acids

Question (C).
Visceral layer : Podocytes :: PCT : _______
a. Cilliated cells
b. Squamous cells
c. Columnar cells
d. Cells with brush border
Answer:
d. Cells with brush border

Question (D).
Deproteinised plasma is found in __________.
a. Bowman’s capsule
b. Descending limb
c. Glomerular capillaries
d. Ascending limb
Answer:
a. Bowman’s capsule, b. Descending limb, d. Ascending limb

Question (E).
Specific gravity of urine would _______ if level of ADH increases.
a. remain unaffected
b. increases
c. decreases
d. stabilise
Answer:
b. increases

Question (F).
What is micturition?
a. Urination
b. Urine formation
c. Uremia
d. Urolithiasis
Answer:
a. Urination

Question (G).
Which one of the following organisms excrete waste through nephridia?
a. Cockroach
b. Earthworm
c. Crab
d. Liver Fluke
Answer:
c. Crab

Question (H).
Person suffering from kidney stone is advised not to have tomatoes as it has _______.
a. seeds
b. lycopene
c. oxalic acid
d. sour taste
Answer:
c. oxalic acid

Question (I).
Tubular secretion does not take place in ________.
a. DCT
b. PCT
c. collecting duct
d. Henle’s loop
Answer:
b. PCT

Question (J).
The minor calyx ____________.
a. collects urine
b. connects pelvis to ureter
c. is present in the cortex
d. receives column of Bertini
Answer:
a. collects urine

Question (K).
Which one of the followings is not a part of human kidney?
a. Malpighian body
b. Malpighian tubule
c. Glomerulus
d. Loop of Henle
Answer:
b. Malpighian tubule

Question (L).
The yellow colour of the urine is due to presence of ___________
a. uric acid
b. cholesterol
c. urochrome
d. urea
Answer:
c. urochrome

Question (M).
Hypotonic filtrate is formed in _______
a. PCT
b. DCT
c. LoH
d. CT
Answer:
a. PCT

Question (N).
In reptiles, uric acid is stored in _____
a. cloaca
b. fat bodies
c. liver
d. anus
Answer:
a. cloaca

Question (O).
The part of nephron which absorbs glucose and amino acid is______
a. collecting tubule
b. proximal tubule
c. Henle’s loop
d. DCT
Answer:
b. proximal tubule

Question (P).
Bowman’s capsule is located in kidney in the ________
a. cortex
b. medulla
c. pelvis
d. pyramids
Answer:
a. cortex

Question (Q).
The snakes living in desert are mainly__________
a. aminotelic
b. ureotelic
c. ammonotelic
d. uricotelic
Answer:
d. uricotelic

Question (R).
Urea is a product of breakdown of ___________
a. fatty acids
b. amino acids
c. glucose
d. fats
Answer:
b. amino acids

Question (S).
Volume of the urine is regulated by__________
a. aldosterone
b. ADH
c. both a and b
d. none
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer the following questions

Question (A).
Doctors say Mr. Shaikh is suffering from urolithiasis. How it could be explained in simple words?
Answer:
Urolithiasis is the condition of having calculi in the urinary tract (which also includes the kidneys), which may pass into urinary bladder.

Question (B).
Anitaji needs to micturate several times and feels very thirsty. This is an indication of change in permeability of certain part of nephron. Which is this part?
Answer:

1. Need to micturate several times (polyuria) and feeling very thirsty (polydipsia) is a symptom of diabetes insipidus (imbalance of fluids in the body).
2. ADH prevents diuresis and due to absence of ADH, large amount of dilute urine is excreted.
3. ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.
4. If the permeability of these cells changes, it will result in increase in urine volume (frequent micturition) and increase in the osmolarity of blood. An imbalance in volume and osmolarity of body fluids increases thirst.

[Note: Water is reabsorbed by osmosis in PCT, DCT and descending limb of loop of Henle)

Question (C).
Effective filtration pressure was calculated to be 20 mm Hg; where glomerular hydrostatic pressure was 70 mm of Hg. Which other pressure is affecting the filtration process? How much is it?
Answer:
The other pressure affecting the filtration process is osmotic pressure of blood and filtrate hydrostatic pressure. Commonly effective filtration pressure (EFP) is represented as;
EFP = Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure in glomerulus – (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate Hydrostatic pressure)
If EFP = 20 mmHg and Glomerular Hydrostatic pressure = 70 mmHg
20 = 70 – (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate hydrostatic pressure)
∴ (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate hydrostatic pressure) = 70-20
Then (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate Hydrostatic pressure) = 50 mmHg .

[Note: Given values are insufficient to calculate the exact osmotic pressure of blood and filtrate hydrostatic pressure. The sum of the two values can be calculated to be 50 mmHg ]

Question (D).
Name any one guanotelic organism.
Answer:
Spiders, scorpions and penguins are guanotelic organisms as they excrete guanine.

Question (E).
Why are kidneys called ‘retroperitoneal’?
Answer:
Kidneys are located in abdomen. Kidneys are not surrounded by peritoneum instead they are located posterior to it. Thus, kidneys are called retroperitoneal.

Question (F).
State role of liver in urea production.
Answer:

1. Ammonia formed during the breakdown of amino acids is converted into urea in the liver of ureotelic animals.
2. This conversion takes place by the help of the ornithine / urea cycle.
3. 3 ATP molecules are used to produce one molecule of urea using the ornithine/ urea cycle. Since, the liver contains carrier molecules and enzymes necessary for urea cycle, it plays a major role in urea production.

Question (G).
Why do we get bad breath after eating garlic or raw onion?
Answer:

1. Raw onion and garlic contain volatile sulphur-containing compounds.
2. Sulphur-containing compounds have a distinctive odour which remain in the mouth after consumption of onion and garlic.
3. Also, volatile compounds (like certain sulphur containing compounds) in foodstuffs are generally excreted through the lungs and may result in bad breath.

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A).
John has two options as treatment for his renal problem : Dialysis or kidney transplants. Which option should he choose? Why?
Answer:

1. If John has two options of dialysis and kidney transplant, readily available he must opt for kidney transplant.
2. A kidney transplant, if successful, can improve the quality of life of a patient and reduce the risk of death.
3. The patient would not have to endure frequent dialysis procedures. Repeated visits for dialysis takes time and may not allow the patient to perform normal activities or go to office regularly.
4. Dialysis is regarded as a holding measure until kidney transplant can be performed or a supportive measure in those for whom a transplant would be inappropriate. However, dialysis cannot replace all the functions of a normal kidney such as production of hormones like erythropoietin, calcitriol and renin. Hence, if John has an option of kidney transplant, he must opt for it.

Question (B).
Amphibian tadpole can afford to be ammonotelic. Justify.
Answer:

1. Tadpole (larval stage of life cycle of amphibian) is aquatic. They are ammonotelic as they excrete nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia.
2. Ammonia is very toxic and requires large amount of water for its elimination.
3. It is readily soluble in water and diffuses across the body surface and into the surrounding water.
4. Also, the water lost during excretion can be made up through the surrounding water in ammonotelic organisms.

Hence, amphibian tadpole can afford to be ammonotelic.

Question (C).
Birds are uricotelic in nature. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Birds are capable of converting ammonia into uric acid by ‘inosinic acid pathway’ in their liver.
2. Uric acid is least toxic and hence, it can be retained in the body for some time.
3. It is least soluble water hence, negligible amount of water is required for its elimination.
4. This mode of excretion can also help reduce body weight (an adaptation for flight) and those animals which
   need to conserve more water follow uricotelism.

Hence, in order to conserve water as an adaptation for flight, birds are uricotelic in nature.

Question 4.
Write the explanation in your word

Question (A).
Nitya has been admitted to hospital after heavy blood loss. Till proper treatment could be given; how did Nitya’s body must have tackled the situation?
Answer:

1. Heavy blood loss is called haemorrhage. In case of haemorrhage or severe dehydration, the osmoreceptors stimulate Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion.
2. ADH is important in regulating water balance through the kidneys. For detailed mechanism of reabsorption by ADH:

Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.

This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.

Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.

[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

Another regulatory mechanism that must have been activated is RAAS. For detailed mechanism of electrolyte reabsorption:

Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).

Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin-converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na⁺ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

Question 5.
Complete the diagram / chart with correct labels / information. Write the conceptual details regarding it

Question (A).

Answer:

The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.
This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.

Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.

[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).

Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na⁺ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

Question (B).

Answer:

1. Nephrons are structural and functional units of kidney.
2. Each nephron consists of a 4 – 6 cm long, thin-walled tube called the renal tubule and a bunch of capillaries known as the glomerulus.
3. The wall of the renal tubule is made up of a single layer of epithelial cells.
4. Its proximal end is wide, blind, cup-like and is called as Bowman’s capsule, whereas the distal end is open.
5. The nephron is divisible into Ilowman’s capsule, neck, proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle (LoH), distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting tubule (CT).
6. The glomerulus is present in the cup-like cavity of Bowman’s capsule and both are collectively known as renal corpuscle or Malpighian body.

Question (C)

Answer:
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney.
Structure of nephron:
A nephron (uriniferous tubule) is a thin walled, coiled duct, lined by a single layer of epithelial cells. Each nephron is divided into two main parts:

i. Malpighian body
ii. Renal tubule

i. Malpighian body: Each Malpighian body is about 200pm in diameter and consists of a Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus.

a. Glomerulus:
Glomerulus is a bunch of fine blood capillaries located in the cavity of Bowman’s capsule.
A small terminal branch of the renal artery, called as afferent arteriole enters the cup cavity (Bowman capsule) and undergoes extensive fine branching to form network of several capillaries. This bunch is called as glomerulus.
The capillary wall is fenestrated (perforated).

All capillaries reunite and form an efferent arteriole that leaves the cup cavity.
The diameter of the afferent arteriole is greater than the efferent arteriole. This creates a high hydrostatic pressure essential for ultrafiltration, in the glomerulus.

b. Bowman’s capsule:
It is a cup-like structure having double walls composed of squamous epithelium.
The outer wall is called as parietal wall and the inner wall is called as visceral wall.
The parietal wall is thin consisting of simple squamous epithelium.
There is a space called as capsular space / urinary space in between two walls.
Visceral wall consists of special type of squamous cells called podocytes having a foot-like pedicel. These podocytes are in close contact with the walls of capillaries of glomerulus.
There are small slits called as filtration slits in between adjacent podocytes.

ii. Renal tubule:

a. Neck:
The Bowman’s capsule continues into the neck. The wall of neck is made up of ciliated epithelium. The lumen of the neck is called the urinary pole. The neck leads to proximal convoluted tubule.

b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule :
This is highly coiled part of nephron which is lined by cuboidal cells with brush border (microvilli) and surrounded by peritubular capillaries. Selective reabsorption occurs in PCT. Due to convolutions (coiling), filtrate flows slowly and remains in the PCT for longer duration, ensuring that maximum amount of useful molecules are reabsorbed.

c. Loop of Henle :
This is ‘U’ shaped tube consisting of descending and ascending limb.
The descending limb is thin walled and permeable to water and lined with simple squamous epithelium.
The ascending limb is thick walled and impermeable to water and is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium.
The LoH is surrounded by capillaries called vasa recta.
Its function is to operate counter current system – a mechanism for osmoregulation.
The ascending limb of Henle’s loop leads to DCT.

d. Distal convoluted tubule:
This is another coiled part of the nephron.
Its wall consists of simple cuboidal epithelium.
DCT performs tubular secretion / augmentation / active secretion in which, wastes are taken up from surrounding capillaries and secreted into passing urine.
DCT helps in water reabsorption and regulation of pH of body fluids.

e. Collecting tubule:
This is a short, straight part of the DCT which reabsorbs water and secretes protons.
The collecting tubule opens into the collecting duct.

Question (D).

Answer:

The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.
This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.

Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.

[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).
Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin-converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na⁺ and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

Question (E).

Answer:

1. When renal function of a person falls below 5 – 7 %, accumulation of harmful substances in blood begins. In such a condition the person has to go for artificial means of filtration of blood i.e. haemodialysis.
2. In haemodialysis, a dialysis machine is used to filter blood. The blood is filtered outside the body using a dialysis unit.
3. In this procedure, the patients’ blood is removed; generally from the radial artery and passed through a cellophane tube that acts as a semipermeable membrane.
4. The tube is immersed in a fluid called dialysate which is isosmotic to normal blood plasma. Hence, only excess salts if present in plasma pass through the cellophane tube into the dialysate.
5. Waste substances being absent in the dialysate, move from blood into the dialyzing fluid.
6. Filtered blood is returned to vein.
7. In this process it is essential that anticoagulant like heparin is added to the blood while it passing through the tube and before resending it into the circulation, adequate amount of anti-heparin is mixed.
8. Also, the blood has to move slowly through the tube and hence the process is slow.

Question 6.
Prove that mammalian urine contains urea.
Answer:

1. Urea is a nitrogenous waste formed by breakdown of protein (deamination of amino acids).
2. During this process, amino groups are removed from the amino acids present in the proteins and converted to highly toxic ammonia. The ammonia is finally converted to area through ornithine cycle. Thus, the urea formed is passed to kidneys and excreted out of the body through urine.
3. Reabsorption of urea (proximal tubule, collecting ducts) and active secretion of urea (Henle loop) leads to a urea circulation (urea recycling) between the lumen of the nephron and renal medulla, which is an important element of the renal urine concentration.
4. About 54 g of urea is filtered per day in the glomerular capsule, of which approximately 30 g is excreted in the urine and 24 g is reabsorbed into blood (assuming GFR is 180 litres/day).
5. Urinalysis can help detect the amount of urea in urine (Urine urea nitrogen test, urease test, etc.).

Practical / Project :

Visit to a nearby hospital or pathological laboratory and collect detailed information about different blood and urine tests.
Answer:
Testing the urine is known as urinalysis. It generally has three parts:

1. Visual examination: Check sample colour and clearness.
2. Dipstick examination: Checks for abnormal amounts of glucose, protein, etc.
3. Microscopic examination: Check for presence of RBCs. WBCs, bacteria, crystals, etc.
4. Apart from routine urine examination, specific tests may also be done. They are as follows:
   • BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) Test: It measures the amount of nitrogen in blood and evaluates kidney function.
   • Urease Test/ Urea Nitrogen Test: It is done to check the amount of urea in urine sample.
   • Urine albumin to creatine ratio (UACR) test: Estimates the amount of albumin in urine.

[Students are expected to collect more information and perform the given activity on their own]

12th Biology Digest Chapter 15 Excretion and Osmoregulation Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Why are various waste products produced in the body of an organism?
Answer:
Metabolism produces a variety of by-products, some of which need to be eliminated. Such by-produçts are called metabolic waste products.

Question 2.
How are these waste eliminated?
Answer:
Depending on the type of waste product, they are eliminated through various organs of the body:

The various excretory products produced by the human body are as follows:

1. Fluids such as water; gaseous wastes like CO₂ nitrogenous wastes like ammonia, urea and uric acid, creatinine; minerals; salts of sodium, potassium. calcium, etc. if present in body in excess are excreted through urine, faeces and sweat.
2. Pigments formed due to breakdown of haemoglobin like bilirubin (excreted through faeces) and urochrome (eliminated through urine).
3. The pigments present in consumed foodstuffs like beet root or excess of vitamins, hormones and drugs.
4. Volatile substances present in spices (eliminated through lungs).

Have you ever observed? (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
When does urine appear deeply coloured?
Answer:
Urine can appear deeply coloured due to various reasons:

• Severe dehydration resulting in production of concentrated urine.
• Consumption of foodstuff like beet root, which contain coloured pigments.
• Some medications can also cause the urine to appear deeply coloured.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 174)

Question 1.
Do organisms differ in type of metabolic wastes they produce?
Answer:
Yes, organisms differ in the type of metabolic wastes they produce. Some organisms excrete ammonia while some excrete urea or uric acid as metabolic wastes.

Question 2.
Do environment or evolution have any effect on type of waste produced by an organism?
Answer:

• The theory of evolution proposes that life started in an aquatic environment.
• Aquatic organisms are generally ammonotelic. It is believed that the urea cycle evolved to adapt to a changing environment when terrestrial life forms evolved.
• Arid conditions probably led to the evolution of the uric acid pathway as a means of conserving water.
• However, the correlation between evolution and type of waste production is uncertain.

Question 3.
How do thermoregulation and food habits affect saste production?
Answer:

1. To generate heat. endotherms convert the food that they eat into energy through a process called metabolism. Hence, they consume more tì.od in order to meet their energy requirements.
2. Also, carnivorous diet contains more proteins than herbivores.
3. Consumption of high protein or more food containing proteins can result in production of large amount of nitrogenous waste
4. These animals would also require more energy to eliminate the high levels oF nitrogenous wastes which build up when animal protein is digested.

Use your brain power. (Textbookpage No. 175)

Question 1.
Why ammonia is highly toxic?
Answer:

1. Ammonia is basic in nature and its retention in the body would disturb the pH of the body.
2. An increase in pH would disturb all enzyme catalysed reactions in the body and also make the plasma membrane unstable.

Hence, ammonia is highly toxic to the body.

Find out. (Textbook page No. 175)

You will study about a type of arthritis called gouty arthritis caused due to accumulation of uric acid in joints. Where does uric acid come from in case of ureotelic human beings?
Answer:

1. Uric acid produced as a waste product during the normal breakdown of nucleic acids (purines) and certain naturally occurring substances found in foods such as mushrooms. Mackerel, dried beans. etc.
2. This uric acid is generally excreted out along with urine.
3. If uric acid is produced in excess or not excreted, it accumulates in joints causing gouty arthritis.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No.175)

Endotherms consume more food in order to meet energy requirements. Also, carnivorous diet contains more proteins than herbivorous. Does it affect excretion of nitrogenous waste?
Answer:

1. To generate heat, endotherms convert the food that they eat into energy through a process called metabolism. Hence, they consume more food in order to meet their energy requirements.
2. Also, carnivorous diet contains more proteins than herbivores.
3. Consumption of high protein or more food containing proteins can result in production of large amount of nitrogenous waste.
4. These animals would also require more energy to eliminate the high levels of nitrogenous wastes which build up when animal protein is digested.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
These are blood reports of patients undergoing investigations for kidney function. What is creatinine? What is your observation and opinion about the findings? Why is it used as an index of kidney function?


Answer:
i. Creatinine:

• Plasma creatinine is produced from catabolism of creatinine phosphate during skeletal muscle contraction.
• It provides a ready source of high energy phosphate.

ii. Observations and Opinion:
Report A indicates a value of creatinine which is higher than the normal range. This would indicate impaired kidney function.
Report B indicates high fasting blood sugar and detection of sugar in the blood is known as glucosuria. High fasting blood sugar (>126 mg/dL) is usually indicative of diabetes.

iii. Creatinine used as an index of kidney function:

• Normally blood creatinine levels remain steady because the rate of production matches his excretion in urine.
• Hence, plasma creatinine is used as an index of kidney function and its level above normal is an indication of poor renal function.

Think about it. (Textbook Page No. 176)

Question 1.
During summer, we tend to produce less urine, is it so?
Answer:

1. Generally, excess water containing wastes is lost from the body in the time of urine. sweat and faeces.
2. During summer when the surrounding temperature is high. we also lose a considerable amount of water in the form of sweat.

Thus, the kidneys retain water for maintaining the concentration of body fluids and reduce the amount of water lost through urine.

Question 2.
Marine birds like Albatross spend their life on the sea. That means the water the, drink is salty. how do they manage osnioregulation then?
Answer:

1. Marine birds like Albatross have special glands called salt glands near their nostrils.
2. These glands are capable of secreting salts by active transport and help to manage osmotic balance,

[Note: The salt glands in Albatross are located in or on the skull in the area of eyes.]

Question 3.
like ectothermic and endothermic animals, do organisms differ in the way they maintain salt balance?
Answer:
Yes, organisms differ in the way they maintain salt balance.

1. Animals can be either isosmotic to the surrounding (osmoconformers or control the internal environment independent of external environment (osmoregulators).
2. Marine organisms are mostly osmoconfòrmers because their body fluids and external environment are isosmotic in nature while fresh water forms and terrestrial organisms are osmoregulators,
3. Generally, most organisms can tolerate only a narrow range of salt concentrations. Such organism are known as stenohaline organisms.
4. Organisms which are capable of handling a wide change in salinity are called euryhaline organisms.e.g. Barnacles, clams etc.

Find out. (Textbook Page No 176)

Question 1.
How do freshwater fishes and marine fishes carry out osmoregulation?
Answer:
Osmoregulation is the process of maintaining an internal concentration of salt and water in the body of fishes.

i. Freshwater fishes:
The salt concentration inside the body of freshwater fishes is higher than their surrounding water. Due to this, water enters the body due to osmosis.
If the flow of water into the body is not regulated. fishes would swell and get bigger.
To compensate this, the kidneys produce a large amount of urine,
Excretion of large amounts of urine regulates the level of water in the body hut results in the loss of salts.
Thus, in order to maintain a sufficient salt level, special cells in the gills (chloride cells) take tip ions from
the water, which are then directly transported into the blood.

ii. Marine fishes:
Since the salt content in blood of marine fishes is much lower than that of seawater, they constantly tend to lose water and build up salt.
To replace the water loss, they continually need to drink seawater.
Since their small kidney can only excrete a relatively small amount of urine, salt is additionally excreted through gills, where chloride cells work in reverse as in freshwater fishes.

Make a table. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
The details of modes of excretion of nitrogenous wastes.
Answer:
The three main modes of excretion in animals are as follows:

i. Ammonotelism
ii. Ureotelism
iii. Uricotelism

i. Ammonotelism:

1. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes in the form of ammonia is called as ammonotelism.
2. Ammonia is basic in nature and hence it can disturb the pH of the body, if not eliminated immediately.
3. Any change in pH would disturb all enzyme catalyzed reactions in the body and would also make the plasma membrane unstable.
4. Ammonia is readily soluble in water and needs large quantity of water to dilute and reduce its toxicity.
5. This is however an energy saving mechanism of excretion and hence all animals that have plenty of water available for dilution of ammonia, excrete nitrogenous wastes in the form of ammonia.
6. Animals that follow this mode of excretion are known as ammonotelic animals.
7. 1 gm ammonia needs about 300 – 500 ml of water for elimination.
8. Ammonotelic animals excrete ammonia through general body surface (skin), gills and kidneys.
   e.g. Ammonotelism is found in aquatic invertebrates, bony fishes, and aquatic / larval amphibians. Animals without excretory system (Protozoa) are also ammonotelic.

ii. Ureotelism:

1. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes in the form of urea is called as ureotelism.
2. Urea is comparatively less toxic and less water-soluble than ammonia. Hence, it can be concentrated to some extent in body.
3. The body requires less water for elimination.
4. Since it is less toxic and less water soluble, ureotelism is suitable for animals that need to conserve water to some extent. Hence, ureotelism is common in terrestrial animals, as they have to conserve water.
5. It takes about 50 ml H₂O for removal of 1 gm NH₂ in form of urea.
6. Ureotelic animals generally convert ammonia to urea in the liver by operating ornithine / urea cycle in which 3 ATP molecules are used to produce one molecule of urea.
   e.g. Mammals, cartilaginous fishes (sharks and rays), many aquatic reptiles, most of the adult amphibians, etc. are ureotelic.

iii. Uricotelism:

1. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes in the form of uric acid is called as uricotelism.
2. Uric acid is least toxic and hence, it can be retained in the body for some time in concentrated form.
3. It is least soluble in water. Hence there is minimum (about 5 – 10 ml for 1 gm) or no need of water for its elimination.
4. Those animals which need to conserve more water follow uricotelism. However, these animals need to spend more energy.
5. Ammonia is converted into uric acid by ‘inosinic acid pathway’ in the liver of birds, e.g. Birds, some insects, many reptiles, land snails, are uricotelic.

[Students can Refer these and make a chart on their own.]

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
Creatinine is considered as index of kidney function. Give reason.
Answer:

1. Plasma creatinine is produced from catabolism of creatinine phosphate during skeletal muscle contraction.
2. It provides a ready source of high energy phosphate.
3. Normally blood creatinine levels remain steady because the rate of production matches its excretion in urine.
4. Hence, plasma creatinine is used as an index of kidney function and its level above normal is an indication of poor renal function.

[Note: Plasma creatinine is a waste product produced by muscles from the breakdown of a compound called ‘creatine phosphate ’.]

Make a table. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
The excretory organs found in various animal phyla.
Answer:

Observe and complete. (Textbook Page No. 178)

Question 1.
Label the diagram and complete following paragraphs.

i. Kidney: A pair of ____ shaped kidneys are present on either side of the ____ from 12^th thoracic to 3^rd lumbar vertebra. Kidneys are present behind ___. Hence are called retroperitoneal. Dimensions of
each kidney are 10 × ____ × ____ cms. Average weight is ___ g in males and 135 g in ____. Outer surface is ___ and inner is concave. Notch on the inner concave surface is called ___. Renal artery enters and renal vein as well as ureter leave the kidney through hilus. Each kidney has almost 1 million functional units called ___.

ii. Ureters: A pair of ureters arise from ___ of each kidney. Each ureter is a long muscular tube 25 – 30 cm in length. Ureters open into ___ by separate openings, which are not guarded by valves. They pass obliquely through the wall of urinary bladder. This helps in prevention of ___ of urine due to compression of ureters while bladder is filled.

iii. Urinary bladder: It is a median ___ sac. A hollow muscular organ, the bladder is situated in pelvic cavity posterior to pubic symphysis. At the base of the ___ there is a small inverted triangular area called trigone. At the apex of this triangle is opening of urethra. At the two points of the base of the triangle are openings of ureters. Urinary bladder is covered externally by peritoneum. Inner to peritoneum is muscular layer. It is formed by detrusor muscles which consist of three layers of smooth muscles. Longitudinal – circular – longitudinal respectively. Innermost layer is made up of transitional ___. It helps bladder to stretch.

iv. Urethra: It is a ___ structure arising from urinary bladder and opening to the exterior of the body.
There are ___ urethral sphincters between urinary bladder and urethra.
a. Internal sphincter: Made up of ___ muscles, involuntary in nature.
b. External sphincter: Made up of ___ muscles, voluntary in nature.
Answer:

i. Kidney: A pair of bean shaped kidneys are present on either side of the backbone from 12^th thoracic to 3^rd lumbar vertebra. Kidneys are present behind peritoneum. Hence are called retroperitoneal. Dimensions of each kidney are 10 × 5 × 4 cms. Average weight is 150 g in males and 135 g in females. Outer surface is convex and inner is concave. Notch on the inner concave surface is called hilum. Renal artery enters and renal vein as well as ureter leave the kidney through hilus. Each kidney has almost 1 million functional units called nephron.

ii. Ureters: A pair of ureters arise from hilum of each kidney. Each ureter is a long muscular tube 25 – 30 cm in length. Ureters open into urinary bladder by separate openings, which are not guarded by valves. They pass obliquely through the wall of urinary bladder. This helps in prevention of backward flow of urine due to compression of ureters while bladder is filled.

iii. Urinary bladder: It is a median pear-shaped sac. A hollow muscular organ, the bladder is situated in pelvic cavity posterior to pubic symphysis. At the base of the urinary bladder there is a small inverted triangular area called trigone. At the apex of this triangle is opening of urethra. At the two points of the base of the triangle are openings of ureters. Urinary bladder is covered externally by peritoneum. Inner to peritoneum is muscular layer. It is formed by detrusor muscles which consist of three layers of smooth muscles. Longitudinal – circular – longitudinal respectively. Innermost layer is made up of transitional epithelial tissue. It helps bladder to stretch.

iv. Urethra: It is a fibromuscular tube-like structure arising from urinary bladder and opening to the exterior of the body. There are two urethral sphincters between urinary bladder and urethra.
a. Internal sphincter: Made up of detrusor muscles, involuntary in nature.
b. External sphincter: Made up of striated muscles, voluntary in nature.
If this valve is not functioning properly during inflammation of bladder, it can lead to kidney infection.

Internet is my friend. (Textbook Page No. 179)

Question 1.
Find out what is floating kidney.
Answer:

1. Floating kidney or nephroptosis, is an inferior displacement or dropping of the kidney.
2. This condition occurs when the kidney slips from its normal position because it is not held securely in place by the adjacent organs or its fat covering.
3. It generally develops in extremely thin people whose adipose capsule or renal fascia is deficient.
4. It may result in twisting of the ureter and cause blockage of urine flow. The resulting backup of urine would put pressure on the kidney and damage the tissues.
5. Twisting of the ureter may also cause pain and discomfort.
6. This condition is more common in females than males and happens commonly among one in four people.
7. Weakening of the fibrous bands that hold the kidney in place can predispose to floating kidney.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 179)

Question 1.
Observe the figure carefully and label various regions of L.S. of kidney.

Answer:

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No.182)

Question 1.
Why are kidneys called ‘retroperitoneal’?
Answer:
Kidneys are located in abdomen. Kidneys are not surrounded by peritoneum instead they are located posterior to it. Thus, kidneys are called retroperitoneal.

Question 2.
Why urinary tract infections are more common in females than males?
Answer:

• The urethra in women (4 cm) is much shorter than that of males (20 cm).
• This allows easy passage of bacteria into the urinary bladder.

Hence, urinary tract infections are more common in females than males.

Question 3.
What is nephron? Which are its main parts? Why are they important?
Answer:
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney.
Structure of nephron:
A nephron (uriniferous tubule) is a thin walled, coiled duct, lined by a single layer of epithelial cells. Each nephron is divided into two main parts:

i. Malpighian body
ii. Renal tubule

i. Malpighian body: Each Malpighian body is about 200pm in diameter and consists of a Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus.

a. Glomerulus:
Glomerulus is a bunch of fine blood capillaries located in the cavity of Bowman’s capsule.
A small terminal branch of the renal artery, called as afferent arteriole enters the cup cavity (Bowman capsule) and undergoes extensive fine branching to form network of several capillaries. This bunch is called as glomerulus.
The capillary wall is fenestrated (perforated).

All capillaries reunite and form an efferent arteriole that leaves the cup cavity.
The diameter of the afferent arteriole is greater than the efferent arteriole. This creates a high hydrostatic pressure essential for ultrafiltration, in the glomerulus.

b. Bowman’s capsule:
It is a cup-like structure having double walls composed of squamous epithelium.
The outer wall is called as parietal wall and the inner wall is called as visceral wall.
The parietal wall is thin consisting of simple squamous epithelium.
There is a space called as capsular space / urinary space in between two walls.
Visceral wall consists of special type of squamous cells called podocytes having a foot-like pedicel. These podocytes are in close contact with the walls of capillaries of glomerulus.
There are small slits called as filtration slits in between adjacent podocytes.

ii. Renal tubule:

a. Neck:
The Bowman’s capsule continues into the neck. The wall of neck is made up of ciliated epithelium. The lumen of the neck is called the urinary pole. The neck leads to proximal convoluted tubule.

b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule :
This is highly coiled part of nephron which is lined by cuboidal cells with brush border (microvilli) and surrounded by peritubular capillaries. Selective reabsorption occurs in PCT. Due to convolutions (coiling), filtrate flows slowly and remains in the PCT for longer duration, ensuring that maximum amount of useful molecules are reabsorbed.

c. Loop of Henle :
This is ‘U’ shaped tube consisting of descending and ascending limb.
The descending limb is thin walled and permeable to water and lined with simple squamous epithelium.
The ascending limb is thick walled and impermeable to water and is lined with simple cuboidal epithelium.
The LoH is surrounded by capillaries called vasa recta.
Its function is to operate counter current system – a mechanism for osmoregulation.
The ascending limb of Henle’s loop leads to DCT.

d. Distal convoluted tubule:
This is another coiled part of the nephron.
Its wall consists of simple cuboidal epithelium.
DCT performs tubular secretion / augmentation / active secretion in which, wastes are taken up from surrounding capillaries and secreted into passing urine.
DCT helps in water reabsorption and regulation of pH of body fluids.

e. Collecting tubule:
This is a short, straight part of the DCT which reabsorbs water and secretes protons.
The collecting tubule opens into the collecting duct.

Think about ¡t. (Textbook Page No. 182)

Question 1.
How much blood ¡s supplied to kidney?
Answer:
Around 600 ml of blood passes through each kidney per minute.

Do this. (Textbook Page No. 183)

Question 1.
Check blood reports of patients and comment about possibility of glucosuria.
Answer:
Glucosuria is the presence of glucose sugar in urine. High glucose in urine is usually indicative of diabetes mellitus.

[Students can get access to sample reports on the internet and refer the above table to comment on blood reports of patients on their own.]

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
In which regions of nephron the filtrate will he isotonic to blood?
Answer:
Filtrate leasing the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is isotonic to the blood plasma.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
Explain the process of urine formation in details.
Answer:
Process of urine formation is completed in three steps, namely;

i. Ultrafiltration/ Glomerular filtration,
ii. Selective reabsorption,
iii. Tubular secretion / Augmentation

i. Ultrafiltration / Glomerular filtration :
Diameter of afferent arteriole is greater than the efferent arteriole. The diameter of capillaries is still smaller than both arterioles. Due to the difference in diameter, blood flows with greater pressure through the glomerulus. This is called as glomerular hydrostatic pressure (GHP) and normally, it is about 55 mmHg. GIIP is opposed by osmotic pressure of blood (normally, about 30 mm Hg) and capsular pressure (normally, about 15 mm Hg).

Hence net / effective filtration pressure (EFP) is 10 mm Hg.
EFP = Hydrostatic pressure in glomerulus – (Osmotic pressure of blood + Filtrate Hydrostatic pressure)
= 55 – (30 + 15)
= 10 mm Hg

Under the effect of high pressure, the thin walls of the capillary become permeable to major components of blood (except blood cells and macromolecules like protein).
Thus, plasma except proteins oozes out through wall of capillaries.
About 600 ml blood passes through each kidney per minute.

The blood (plasma) flowing through kidney (glomeruli) is filtered as glomerular filtrate, at a rate of 125 ml / min. (180 L/d).
Glomerular filtrate / deproteinized plasma / primary urine is alkaline, contains urea, amino acids, glucose, pigments, and inorganic ions.
Glomerular filtrate passes through filtration slits into capsular space and then reaches the proximal convoluted tubule.

ii. Selective reabsorption :
Selective reabsorption occurs in proximal convoluted tubule (PCT). It is highly coiled so that glomerular filtrate passes through it very slowly. Columnar cells of PCT are provided with microvilli due to which absorptive area increases enormously.
This makes the process of reabsorption very effective.
These cells perform active (ATP mediated) and passive (simple diffusion) reabsorption.

Substances with considerable importance (high threshold) like – glucose, amino acids, vitamin C, Ca⁺⁺, K⁺, Na⁺, Cl^– are absorbed actively, against the concentration gradient. Low threshold substances like water, sulphates, nitrates, etc., are absorbed passively.
In this way, about 99% of glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in PCT and DCT.

iii. Tubular secretion / Augmentation :
Finally filtrate reaches the distal convoluted tubule via loop of Henle. Peritubular capillaries surround DCT. Cells of distal convoluted tubule and collecting tubule actively absorb the wastes like creatinine and ions like K⁺, H⁺ from peritubular capillaries and secrete them into the lumen of DCT and CT, thereby augmenting the concentration of urine and changing its pH from alkaline to acidic.
Secretion of H⁺ ions in DCT and CT is an important homeostatic mechanism for pH regulation of blood. Tubular secretion is the only process of excretion in marine bony fishes and desert amphibians.

Question 2.
How does counter current mechanism help concentration of urine?
Answer:
Under the conditions like low water intake or high water loss due to sweating, humans can produce concentrated urine. This urine can be concentrated around four times i.e. 1200 mOsm/L than the blood (300 mOsm/L). Hence, a mechanism called countercurrent mechanism is operated in the human kidneys. The countercurrent mechanism operating in the Limbs of Henle’s loop of juxtamedullary nephrons and vasa recta is as follows:

1. It involves the passage of fluid from descending to ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
2. This mechanism is called countercurrent mechanism, since the flow of tubular fluid is in opposite direction through both limbs.
3. In case of the vasa recta, blood flows from ascending to descending parts of itself.
4. Wall of descending limb is thin and permeable to water, hence, water diffuses from tubular fluid into tissue fluid due to which, tubular fluid becomes concentrated.
5. The ascending limb is thick and impermeable to water. Its cells can reabsorb Na⁺ and Cl^– from tubular fluid and release into tissue fluid.
6. Due to this, tissue fluid around descending limb becomes concentrated. This makes more water to move out from descending limb into tissue fluid by osmosis.
7. Thus, as tubular fluid passes down through descending limb, its osmolarity (concentration) increases gradually due to water loss and on the other hand, progressively decreases due to Na⁺ and Cl^– secretion as it flows up through ascending limb.
8. Whenever retention of water is necessary, the pituitary secretes ADH. ADH makes the cells in the wall of collecting ducts permeable to water.
9. Due to this, water moves from tubular fluid into tissue fluid, making the urine concentrated.
10. Cells in the wall of deep medullar part of collecting ducts are permeable to urea. As concentrated urine flows through it, urea diffuses from urine into tissue fluid and from tissue fluid into the tubular fluid flowing through thin ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
11. This urea cannot pass out from tubular fluid while flowing through thick segment of ascending limb, DCT and cortical portion of collecting duct due to impermeability for it in these regions.
12. However, while flowing through collecting duct, water reabsorption is operated under the influence of ADII. Due to this, urea concentration increases in the tubular fluid and same urea again diffuses into tissue fluid in deep medullar region.
13.  Thus, same urea is transferred between segments of renal tubule and tissue fluid of inner medulla. This is called urea recycling; operated for more and more water reabsorption from tubular fluid and thereby excreting small volumes of concentrated urine.
14. Osmotic gradient is essential in the renal medulla for water reabsorption by counter current multiplier system.
15. This osmotic gradient is maintained by vasa recta by operating counter current exchange system.
16. Vasa recta also have descending and ascending limbs. Blood that enters the descending limb of the vasa recta has normal osmolarity of about 300 mOsm/L.
17.  As it flows down in the region of renal medulla where tissue fluid becomes increasingly concentrated, Na⁺, Cl^– and urea molecules diffuse from tissue fluid into blood and water diffuse from blood into tissue fluid.
18. Due to this, blood becomes more concentrated which now flows through ascending part of vasa recta. This part runs through such region of medulla where tissue fluid is less concentrated.
19. Due to this, Na⁺, Cl^– and urea molecules diffuse from blood to tissue fluid and water from tissue fluid to blood. This mechanism helps to maintain the osmotic gradient.
    

Try this. (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
Read the given urine report and prepare a note on composition of normal urine.

Answer:
The composition of normal urine is as follows:

1. A volume of 1 – 2 litres of urine in 24 hours is normal. This volume can however vary considerably as it depends on fluid intake, physical activity, temperature, etc.
2. The colour of normal urine is generally pale yellow due to urochrome (pigment produced by breakdown of bile). The colour of urine may vary slightly due to urochrome concentration and diet.
3. The appearance of urine is generally clear and transparent.
4. Any form of deposits (sediments/ crystals) is generally absent in normal urine.
5. The pH of normal urine is acidic and is generally around 6.0 (Range: 4.6 to 8.0). The pH varies considerably with the diet of a person.
6. The specific gravity of urine is an average of 1.02 ( Range : 1.001 to 1.035).
7. Albumin, sugar, bile salts bile pigments, ketone bodies and casts are absent in normal urine.
8. Occult blood is generally not seen in normal urine.

Think (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
What would happen if ADH secretion decreases due to any reason?
Answer:
In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus. Frequent excretion of large amount of dilute urine may cause a person to feel thirsty.

Think and appreciate. (Textbook Page No. 185)

Question 1.
How do kidneys bring about homeostasis? Is there any role of neuro endocrine system in it?
Answer:
The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.
If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.

This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.
Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.
[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).
Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

No. Both ADH and RAAS are essential for homeostasis.

1. Only ADH can lower blood Na⁺ concentration by way of water reabsorption in DCI and collecting duct. whereas RAAS stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption and maintains osmolarity of body fluid.
2. Action of ADH and RAAS leads to increase in blood volume and osmolarity.
3. For mechanism of Atrial natriuretic peptide:

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

ADH is produced by the hypothalamus and is stored and released by the posterior pituitary or the neurohypophysis in response to appropriate trigger. Hence, there is a role of the neuroendocrine system in homeostasis.

Use your brain power. (Textbook Page No. 186)

Question 1.
Can we use this knowledge in treatment of high blood pressure? Why high BP medicines are many a times diuretics?
Answer:

1. Yes, the knowledge of homoeostasis is used in the treatment of high blood pressure.
2. Some commonly used theories for treatment of high blood pressure are as follows:
   • Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) are used as medications to treat high blood pressure. These medications block the action of angiotensin II by preventing angiotensin II from binding to angiotensin II receptors on the muscles surrounding blood vessels. As a result, blood vessels enlarge (dilate), and blood pressure is reduced.
   • Another method is the use of ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ ACE blockers. These inhibitors inhibit activity of ACE and therefore decrease the production of angiotensin II. As a result, these medications cause the blood vessels to enlarge or dilate, and this reduces blood pressure.
3. Vasodilation reduces arterial pressure. Reduced angiotensin II leads to natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis, thereby reducing blood pressure.
4. Too much salt can cause extra fluid to build up in the blood vessels, raising blood pressure. Diuretics are substances that slow renal absorption of water and thereby cause diuresis (elevated urine flow rate) which in turn reduces blood volume and blood pressure by flushing out salt and extra fluid. Hence, high BP medicines are many a times diuretics.

Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 186)
How do skin and lungs help in excretion?
OR
Can you tell? (Textbook page no. 187)
Explain role of lungs and skin in excretion.
Answer:
Yes, various organs other than the kidney participate in excretion. They are as follows:

i. Skin:

Skin acts as an accessory excretory organ. The skin of many organisms is thin and permeable. It helps in diffusion of waste products like ammonia.
Human skin however is thick and impermeable. It shows presence of two types of glands namely, sweat glands and sebaceous glands.

• Sweat glands are distributed all over the skin. They are abundant in the palm and facial regions.
  These simple, unbranched, coiled, tubular glands open on the surface of the skin through an opening called sweat pore. Sweat is primarily produced for thermoregulation but it also excretes substances like water, NaCl, lactic acid and urea.
• Sebaceous glands are present at the neck of hair follicles. They secrete oily substance called sebum.
  It forms a lubricating layer on skin making it softer. It protects skin from infection and injury.

ii. Lungs:

Lungs are the accessory excretory organs. They help in excretion of volatile substances like CO₂ and water vapour produced during cellular respiration. Along with CO₂, lungs also remove excess of H₂O in the form of vapours during expiration. They also excrete volatile substances present in spices and other food stuff.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 187)

Question 1.
When does kidney produce renin? Where is it produced in kidney?
Answer:
Kidney produces renin whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration).
The juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGA) cells secrete renin.

Question 2.
Explain how electrolyte balance of blood plasma maintained.
Answer:
The composition of urine depends upon food and fluid consumed by an individual. There are two ways in which it the composition is regulated. They are as follows:

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH
ii. Electrolyte reabsorption though RAAS
iii. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide

i. Regulating water reabsorption through ADH:
Hypothalamus in the midbrain has special receptors called osmoreceptors which can detect change in osmolarity (measure of total number of dissolved particles per liter of solution) of blood.

If osmolarity of blood increases due to water loss from the body (after eating namkeen or due to sweating), osmoreceptors trigger release of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary). ADH stimulates reabsorption of water from last part of DCT and entire collecting duct by increasing the permeability of cells.

This leads to reduction in urine volume and decrease in osmolarity of blood.
Once the osmolarity of blood comes to normal, activity of osmoreceptor cells decreases leading to decrease in ADH secretion. This is called negative feedback.
In case of hemorrhage or severe dehydration too, osmoreceptors stimulate ADH secretion. ADH is important in regulating water balance through kidneys.

In absence of ADH, diuresis (dilution of urine) takes place and person tends to excrete large amount of dilute urine. This condition called as diabetes insipidus.
[Note: Hypothalamus is a part of forebrain]

ii. Electrolyte reabsorption through RAAS:
Another regulatory mechanism is RAAS (Renin Angiotensin Aldosterone System) by Juxta Glomerular Apparatus (JGA).

Whenever blood supply (due to change in blood pressure or blood volume) to afferent arteriole decreases (e.g. low BP/dehydration), JGA cells release Renin. Renin converts angiotensinogen secreted by hepatocytes in liver to Angiotensin I. ‘Angiotensin converting enzyme’ further modifies Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II, the active form of hormone. It stimulates adrenal cortex to release another hormone called aldosterone that stimulates DCT and collecting ducts to reabsorb more Na and water, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure.

iii. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

No. Both ADH and RAAS are essential for homeostasis.

1. Only ADH can lower blood Na⁺ concentration by way of water reabsorption in DCI and collecting duct. whereas RAAS stimulates Na⁺ reabsorption and maintains osmolarity of body fluid.
2. Action of ADH and RAAS leads to increase in blood volume and osmolarity.
3. For mechanism of Atrial natriuretic peptide:

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): A large increase in blood volume and pressure stimulates atrial wall to produce atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP). ANP inhibits Na⁺ and Cl^– reabsorption from collecting ducts inhibits release of renin, reduces aldosterone and ADH release too. This leads to a condition called Natriuresis (increased excretion of Na⁺ in urine) and diuresis.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 187)

Question 1.
What is the composition of sweat?
Answer:
Sweat is composed of water, NaCl, lactic acid and urea.

Internet my friend. (Textbook Page No. 189)

Question 1.
Treatments other than surgical removal of kidney stone like Lithotripsy. (Breaking down of kidney stones using shock waves).
Answer:
a. Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy:
During cystoscopy, the doctor uses a cystoscope to look inside the urethra and bladder to find a stone in the urethra or bladder.
During ureteroscopy, the doctor uses a ureteroscope, which is longer and thinner than a cystoscope, to see detailed images of the lining of the ureters and kidneys.

The doctor inserts the cystoscope or ureteroscope through the urethra to see the rest of the urinary tract. Once the stone is found, the doctor can remove it or break it into smaller pieces.
The doctor performs these procedures in the hospital with anesthesia.

b. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy:
The doctor uses a thin viewing tool, called a nephroscope, to locate and remove the kidney stone.
The doctor inserts the tool directly into your kidney through a small cut made in your back.
For larger kidney stones, the doctor also may use a laser to break the kidney stones into small pieces. The doctor performs percutaneous nephrolithotomy in a hospital with anesthesia.

c. Generally for smaller stones doctors recommend drinking lots of water, consuming pain relievers and consuming medicines like alpha blocker to relax the ureter muscles, and help pass the kidney stones more quickly and with less pain

[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Question 2.
Dietary restrictions suggested for kidney patients.
Dietary restrictions for kidney patients include the following:

1. Drinking large amounts of water.
2. Reduce consumption of oxalate rich food like rhubarb, beets, okra, spinach, Swiss chard, sweet potatoes, nuts, tea, chocolate and soy products.
3. Follow a diet low in salt and animal protein.
4. Reduce consumption of calcium supplements (if any) but consume appropriate amount of calcium in food.

[Students are expected to find more information using the internet.]

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Plant Tissues and Anatomy Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Morphology of Flowering Plants Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Animal Tissue Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Study of Animal Type : Cockroach Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Photosynthesis Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Respiration and Energy Transfer Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Human Nutrition Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Excretion and Osmoregulation Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Skeleton and Movement Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Human Nutrition Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 14 Human Nutrition Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 14 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option

Question A.
Acinar cells are present in ……………..
a. liver
b. pancreas
c. gastric glands
d. intestinal glands
Answer:
b. pancreas

Question B.
Which type of teeth is maximum in number in the human buccal cavity?
a. Incisors
b. Canines
c. Premolars
d. Molars
Answer:
d. Molars

Question C.
Select odd one out on the basis of digestive functions of tongue.
a. Taste
b. Swallowing
c. Talking
d. Mixing of saliva in food
Answer:
c. Talking

Question D.
Complete the analogy:
Ptyalin: Amylase : : Pepsin : …………….. .
a. Lipase
b. Galactose
c. Proenzyme
d. Protease
Answer:
d. Protease

2. Answer the following questions

Question A.
For the school athletic meet, Shriya was advised to consume either Glucon-D or fruit juice but no sugarcane juice. Why it must be so?
Answer:
Sugarcane juice contain disaccharides. Disaccharides take time to digest i.e. breaking into monosaccharides, Glucon — D and fruit juices contain monosaccharide. Therefore, for instant supply of energy during athletic meet Glucon – D or fruit juices are preferred and not sugarcane.

Question B.
Alcoholic people may suffer from liver disorder. Do you agree? Explain your answer.
Answer:

1. Liver disorder in alcoholic people may occur after years of heavy drinking.
2. Most of the alcohol in the body is broken down in the liver by an enzyme called alcohol dehydrogenase, which transforms ethanol into a toxic compound called acetaldehyde (CH₃CHO).
3. ver consumption of alcohol leads to cirrhosis (distorted or scarred liver) and eventually to liver failure.
   Therefore, alcoholic people may suffer from liver disorder.

Question C.
Digestive action of pepsin comes to a stop when food reaches small intestine. Justify.
Answer:
Pepsin acts in acidic medium thus it is active in stomach. There is alkaline condition in the small intestine. pH of small intestine is very high for pepsin to work. Therefore, pepsin gets denatured in the small intestine.

Question D.
Small intestine is very long and coiled. Even if we jump and run, why it does not get twisted? What can happen if it gets twisted?
Answer:

1. Mesentery is a tissue that is located in the abdomen. It attaches the small intestine to the wall of the abdomen and keeps it in place and therefore it does not get twisted while running and jumping.
2. If small intestine gets twisted, the affected spot may block the food, liquid passing through it. It may sometimes cut off the blood flow if the twist is very severe. If this happens the surrounding tissue may die and can cause serious problems.

3. Write down the explanation

Question A.
Digestive enzymes are secreted at appropriate time in our body. How does it happen?
Answer:

1. The digestive enzymes and juices are produced in sequential manner and at a proper time.
2. These secretions are under neurohormonal control.
3. Sight, smell and even thought of food trigger saliva secretion.
4. Tenth cranial nerve stimulates secretion of gastric juice in stomach.
5. Even the hormone gastrin brings about the same effect.

B. Explain the structure of tooth. Explain why human dentition is considered as thecodont, diphydont and heterodont.
Answer:

1. Structure of tooth:
   • A tooth consists of the portion that projects above the gum called crown and the root that is made up of two or three projections which are embedded in gum.
   • A short neck connects the crown with the root.
   • The crown is covered by the hardest substance of the body called enamel which is made up of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate.
   • Basic shape of tooth is derived from dentin which is a calcified connective tissue.
   • The dentin encloses the pulp cavity. It is filled with connective tissue pulp. It contains blood vessels and nerves.
   • Pulp cavity has extension in the root of the tooth called root canal.
   • The dentin of the root of tooth is covered by cementurn which is a bone like substance that attaches the root to the surrounding socket in the gum.
2. Human dentition is described as thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont.
3. It is called the codont type because each tooth is fixed in a separate socket present in the jaw bones by gomphosis type of joint.
4. It is called diphyodont type because we get only two sets of teeth, milk teeth and permanent teeth.
5. It is called heterodont type because humans have four different type of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars.
   

Question C.
Explain heterocrine nature of pancreas with the help of histological structure.
Answer:
Pancreas:

1. Pancreas is a leaf shaped heterocrine gland present in the gap formed by bend of duodenum under the stomach.
2. Exocrine part of pancreas is made up of acini, the acinar cells secrete alkaline pancreatic juice that contains various digestive enzymes.
3. Pancreatic juice is collected and carried to duodenum by pancreatic duct.
4. The common bile duct joins pancreatic duct to form hepato-pancreatic duct. It opens into duodenum.
5. Opening of hepato-pancreatic duct is guarded by sphincter of Oddi.
6. Endocrine part of pancreas is made up of islets of Langerhans situated between the acini.
7. It contains three types of cells a-cells which secrete glucagon, P-cells which secretes insulin and 5 cells secrete somatostatin hormone.
8. Glucagon and insulin together control the blood-sugar level.
9. Somatostatin hormone inhibits glucagon and insulin secretion.

4. Write short note on

Question A.
Position and function of salivary glands.
Answer:
Salivary Glands:

• There are three pairs of salivary glands which open in buccal cavity.
• Parotid glands are present in front of the ear.
• The submandibular glands are present below the lower jaw.
• The glands present below the tongue are called sublingual.
• Salivary glands are made up of two types of cells.
• Serous cells secrete a fluid containing digestive enzyme called salivary amylase.
• Mucous cells produce mucus that lubricates food and helps swallowing.

Question B.
Jaundice
Answer:

1. Jaundice is a disorder characterized by yellowness of conjunctiva of eyes and skin and whitish stool.
2. It is a sign of abnormal bilirubin metabolism and excretion.
3. Jaundice develops if excessive break down of red blood cells takes place along with increased bilirubin level than the liver can handle or there is obstruction in the flow of bile from liver to duodenum.
4. Bilirubin produced from breakdown of haemoglobin is either water soluble or fat soluble.
5. Fat soluble bilirubin is toxic to brain cells.
6. There is no specific treatment to jaundice.
7. Supportive care, proper rest are the treatments given to the patient.
   [Note: Treatment ofjaundice will depend on the underlying cause of it. For example, hepatitis-induced jaundice would require treatment which includes antiviral or steroid medications ]

Question 5.
Observe the diagram. This is histological structure of stomach. Identify and comment on significance of the layer marked by arrow.

Answer:
The layer marked in the diagram represents glandular epithelium of mucosa.
Significance of the glandular epiihelium of mucosa:
Goblet cells of the epithelial layer of a mucous membrane secrete mucus which lubricates the lumen of the alimentary canal. This helps in movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract.

Question 6.
Find out pH maxima for salivary amylase, trypsin, nucleotidase and pepsin and place on the given pH scale

Answer:
Salivary amylase = 6.8
Trypsin = 8
Nucleotidase = 7.5
Pepsin = 2

Question 7.
Write the name of a protein deficiency disorder and write symptoms of it.
Answer:

1. Kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency disorder.
2. This protein deficiency disorder is found generally in children between one to three years of age.
3. Children suffering from Kwashiorkor are underweight and show stunted growth, poor brain development, loss of appetite, anaemia, protruding belly, slender legs, bulging eye, oedema of lower legs and face, change in skin and hair colour.

Question 8.
Observe the diagram given below label the A, B, C, D, E and write the function of A, C in detail.

Answer:
A- Bile duct, B- Stomach, C- Common hepatic duct, D- Pancreas, E- Gall Riadder

Functions: Bile duct: It carries hile from the gall bladder and empties it into the tipper part of the small intestine. Common hepatic duct: It drains bile from the liver. It helps in transportation of waste from liver and helps in digestion by releasing bile.
[Note: Labels (A) and (O) have been modified for the better understanding of the students]

Practical / Project : Here are the events in the process of digestion. Fill in the blanks and complete the flow chart.

Answer:

11th Biology Digest Chapter 14 Human Nutrition Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
What is nutrition?
Answer:

1. Nutrition is the sum of the processes by which an organism consumes and utilizes food substances,
2. WHO defines nutrition as the intake of food, considered in relation to the body’s dietary needs.
3. The term nutrition includes the process like ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.

Question 2.
Enlist life processes that provide us energy to perform different activities.
Answer:
The life processes which are essential and provide us energy are nutrition and respiration.

Think about it (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
Our diet includes all necessary nutrients. Still we need to digest it. Why is it so?
Answer:

1. Digestion is a very important process of converting complex, noil-diffusible and non-absorbable food substances into simple, diffusible and assimilable substances.
2. Our diet includes all necessary nutrients, which are in the form of complex substances like carbohydrates, proteins, fats and vitamins.
3. These complex substances are converted into simple, diffusible and assimilable substances through the process of digestion.
   Hence, there is a need for digestion of food.

Human Digestive System (Textbook Page No. 161)

Question 1.
Label the diagram
Answer:

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
Who controls the deglutition?
Answer:
The process of swallowing is called deglutition. Medulla oblongata controls the deglutition.

Question 2.
Is deglutition voluntary or involuntary?
Answer:

• Deglutition consists of three phases: oral phase, pharyngeal phase and oesophagal phase.
• The oral phase is voluntary whereas the pharyngeal and oesophagal phases are involuntary.
  [Source: Goya!, R. K., & Mashimo, H. (2006,.). Physio!o’ of oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal motility. GI Motility online.]

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 165)

Question 1.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of human alimentary canal and associated glands in situ.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note on human dentition.
Answer:

1. Human dentition is described as thecodont, diphyodont and heterodont.
2. It is called thecodont type because each tooth is fixed in a separate socket present in the jaw bones by gomphosis type of joint.
3. It is called diphyodont type because we get only two sets of teeth, milk teeth and permanent teeth.
4. It is called heterodont type because humans have four different type of teeth like incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

Question 3.
Muscularis layer in stomach is thicker than that in intestine. Why is it so?
Answer:
Muscularis layer in stomach is thicker than that of intestine because food is churned and gastric juices are mixed in the stomach whereas in intestine only absorption takes place.

Question 4.
Liver is a vital organ. Justify.
Answer:

1. Kupffer cells of liver destroy toxic substances, dead and worn-out blood cells and microorganisms.
2. Bile juice secreted by liver emulsifies fats and makes food alkaline.’
3. Liver stores excess of glucose in the form of glycogen.
4. Deamination of excess amino acids to ammonia and its further conversion to urea takes place in liver.
5. Synthesis of vitamins A, D, K and BI2 takes place in liver.
6. It also produces blood proteins like prothrombin and fibrinogen.
7. During early development, it acts as haemopoietic organ.
   Therefore, liver is a vital organ.

Internet my friend: (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Collect the different videos of functioning of digestive system,
Answer:
[Note: Students can scan the adjacent Q.R code to get conceptual clarity with the aid of a relevant video.]

Find out (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
What will be the dental formula of a three years old child?
Answer:
The dental formula of a three-year-old child will be: I \(\frac{2}{2}\), C \(\frac{1}{1}\), M \(\frac{2}{2}\) = \(\frac{2,1,2}{2,1,2}\)
i. e. 5 × 2 = 10 teeth in each jaw = 20 teeth.
As a child has 20 teeth by the age of three.

Question 2.
What is dental caries and dental plaque? How can one avoid it?
Answer:

• Dental caries are tooth decay or cavities caused by acids secreted by bacteria. Dental caries may be yellow or black in color.
• Dental plaques also known as tooth plaque is a soft, sticky film which forms on the teeth regularly. It is colourless to pale yellow in colour.
• Tooth decay and dental plaque can be prevented by brushing teeth twice a day with a fluoride containing tooth paste.
• Rinsing mouth thoroughly with a mouth wash and use of dental floss or interdental cleaners to clean teeth daily can help to avoid dental caries and dental plaque.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 162)

Question 1.
Find out the role of orthodontist and dental technician.
Answer:
a. Orthodontics is a specialization in dental profession. Orthodontist straightens the crooked teeth, locates problem in patients’ teeth and their overall oral development. They might use X-rays, plaster molds or dental appliances like retainers and space maintainers to correct the problems,

b. Dental technicians are the ones which improves patients’ appearance, ability to chew and speech. They make dentures, crowns, bridges and dental braces.

Question 2.
What is a root canal treatment?
Answer:

• Root canal treatment is also known as endodontic treatment.
• It is a dental treatment of removing infection from inside of a tooth.
• Root canal is hollow section of tooth which contains the nerve tissue, blood vessels and other cells, this is also known as pulps.
• Crown and root are a part of tooth. Crown is present above the gum while root is embedded in the gum.
  e. Pulp which is present inside the root canal nourishes the tooth and provides moisture to the surrounding material.
• The nerves present inside the pulp sense hot cold temperatures as pain.
• First step of a root canal treatment is removal of dead pulp tissues by making a hole on the surface of tooth.
• In second step, the dentist cleans and decontaminates the area and fills the hollow area with adhesive cement in order to seal the canal completely.
• The tooth is dead after the therapy and the patient no longer feel any pain but the tooth becomes more fragile than ever.
• The last step of root canal is adding a crown or filling. Until the crown or filling is complete, patient is not supposed to chew or bite using that tooth. After the crown or filling patient can use that tooth as before.

Find out (Textbook Page No. 163)

Question 1.
You must have heard about appendicitis. It is inflammation of appendix. Find more information about this disorder.
Answer:

1.  Appendicitis is a condition where there is inflammation of appendix.
2. Appendix is a vestigial organ. It is a linger shaped pouch that projects from colon on the lower right side of the abdomen.
3. Appendicitis pain is very severe. It initially starts from the navel and then moves.
4. It occurs in the people of age group between 10 to 30.
5. Surgical removal is the standard treatment for appendicitis.
6. Symptoms: Nausea and vomiting, loss of appetite, low grade fever, constipation, abdominal bloating, severe pain in the right side of the abdomen.
7. Appendicitis is caused when there is blockage in the lining of the appendix that results in infection. The bacteria multiply rapidly and causes inflammation and it is then filled with pus.
8. If not treated properly appendix can rupture which can lead to further complications.
   [Students can use above answer for reference and find more information about appendicitis.]

Question 2.
What is heartburn? Why do we take antacids to control it?
Answer:
Heart burn is a problem created when stomach contents (acid) are forced back up to oesophagus. It causes a burning pain in lower chest.

Antacids are bases and help to treat heartburn by neutralizing the stomach acid. The key ingredients of antacids are calcium carbonate, magnesium hydroxide, aluminium hydroxide or sodium bicarbonate.

Activity (Textbook Page No. 163)

Make a model of human digestive system in a group.
Answer:
[Students are expected to perform this activity on their own.]

Always Remember (Textbook Page No. 166)

Question 1.
Food remains for a very short time in mouth but action of salivary amylase continues for further IS to 30 minutes till gastric juice mixes with food in the stomach. Why do you think it stops after the food gets mixed with gastric juice?
Answer:

1. The gastric juices are mixed with food in the stomach.
2. The pH of the stomach is 1.0-2.0 which is very acidic. Such high level of acidity leads to denaturation of salivary amylase’s protein structure.
3. On the other hand, pH 6.8 is required for salivary amylase to carry out the activity which is not found in stomach. Thus, activity of salivary amylase is stopped when food is mixed with gastric juice.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
How are bile pigments formed?
Answer:

1. When old and worn out red blood cells are destroyed by macrophages in liver, the globin portion of hemoglobin is split off and heme is converted to biliverdin.
2. Most of this biliverdin is converted to bilirubin, which gives bile its major pigmentation.
   [Source http://www.biologydiscussion.com/human-physiology/digestive-system/bile-pigments/bile-pigments-origin-and-formation-digestive-juice-human-biology/81803]

Think about it (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
How can I keep my pancreas healthy? Can a person live without pancreas?
Answer:

1. Pancreas can be kept healthy by:
   • Eating proper balanced and low-fat diet, with plenty of whole grains, fruits and vegetables.
   • Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy weight.
   • Limiting alcohol consumption and avoid smoking.
   • Adequate intake of water.
   • Regular checkups.
2. The pancreas is a gland that secretes digestive enzymes and insulin which is needed for a person to survive.
3. Without pancreas the person will develop diabetes and will have to take insulin for the rest of the life.
4. Without pancreas the body’s ability to absorb nutrients also decreases.
   Hence, though a person can survive without pancreas he may have to remain dependent on the medicines for survival.

Do it yourself? (Textbook Page No. 167)

Question 1.
You have studied the representation of enzymatic actions in the form of reactions.
Write the reactions of pancreatic enzymes.
Answer:

Do it yourself (Textbook Page No. 168)

Question 1.
Observe the following reactions and explain in words.

Answer:

1. Maltase acts on maltose to form glucose.
2. Sucrase acts on sucrose to form glucose and fructose.
3. Lactase acts on lactose to form glucose and galactose.
4. Dipeptidase acts on dipeptides to form amino acids.
5. Emulsified fats are converted into fatty acids and glycerol by lipase.

Use your brain power (Textbook Page No. 168)

Question 1.
Make a flow chart for digestion of carbohydrate.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is a proenzyme? Enlist various proenzymes involved in process of digestion and state their function.
Answer:
Proenzymes are synthesized in cells as an inactive precursor that undergo some modification before becoming catalytically active.
The various proenzymes involved in process of digestion are as follows:

• Pepsinogen: Pepsinogen when converted into its active form pepsin acts on proteins to form peptones and proteoses.
• Trypsinogen: Trypsinogen when converted to it active form trypsin converts proteins, proteoses and peptones to polypeptides.
• Chymotrypsinogen: Chymotrypsinogen when converted to active form chymotrypsin it converts polypeptides to dipeptides.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Chyme and Chyle.
Answer:

Question 4.
Digestion of fats take place only after the food reaches small intestine. Give reason.
Answer:
Digestion of fats takes place in small intestine because the presence of fats in small intestine stimulates the release of pancreatic lipase from pancreas and bile from liver. Pancreatic lipases hydrolyze fat molecules into fatty acids and monoglycerides and bile brings about emulsification of fats. Therefore, digestion of fats occur when food reaches small intestine.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 169)

Question 1.
Action of digestive juice in your group.
Answer:

Can you recall? (Textbook Page no. 170)

Question 1.
What is balanced diet?
Answer:
Balanced diet is a diet which contains proper amount of carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, proteins and minerals to maintain a good health.

Question 2.
Explain the terms undernourished, over-nourished and malnourished in details.
Answer:

• Undernourished: When supply of nutrients is less than the minimum amount of nutrients or food required for good health is called undernourished.
• Over-nourished: The intake of nutrients is excessive. In over-nourished the amount of nutrients exceeds the amount required for normal growth.
• Malnourished: Malnourished is a condition where a person’s diet does not contain right amount of nutrients.

Do you know? (Textbook Page No. 170)

Question 1.
What is gross calorific value?
Answer:
The amount of heat liberated by complete combustion of lg food in a bomb calorimeter is termed as gross calorific (gross energy) value.

Question 2.
What is physiological value?
Answer:
The actual energy produced by 1 g food is its physiological value.

Question 3.
Name the following
Energy content of food in animals is expressed in terms of?
Answer:
Heat Energy

Question 4.
Complete the following table representing Gross calorific value and physiological value of food component.

Answer:

Find out (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Find out the status of nialnutrition among children in Maharashtra and efforts taken by the government to overcome the situation. Search for various NGOs working in this field.
Answer:
93,783 children have been diagnosed with severe acute malnutrition and 5.7 lakh with moderate acute malnutrition in Maharashtra.
Steps taken by government to overcome malnutrition:

1. Promotion of infant and young child feeding practices.
2. Management of malnutrition at community and facility level by trained service providers.
3. Treatment of children with severe acute malnutrition at special units called the Nutrition Rehabilitation Centres (NRCs), set up at public health facilities.
4. A special program to combat micronutrient deficiencies of Vitamin A, Iron and Folic acid.
5. The initiatives like Mother and Child protection card, village health and nutrition days, are taken by the government for addressing the nutrition concerns in children, pregnant women and lactating mothers.

Various NCOs working in this field:

1. Akshay Patra
2. Fight Hunger Foundation,
3. Feeding India,
4. No Hungry child
   [Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=l 13725; https://yourstory.com/2016/10/world- food-day-ngosj
   [Note: Students can use above answer as reference and find more information from the internet.]

Question 2.
Are jaundice and hepatitis same disorders?
Answer:
Jaundice and Hepatitis are two different disorders.

Jaundice: Jaundice occurs when the rate of bilirubin production exceeds the rate of its elimination. It causes yellowing of skin and eyes.

Hepatitis: It is a disease where there is inflammation of liver. It may be caused because of infection, over alcohol consumption, immune system disorder etc.

Do you know (Textbook Page No. 171)

Question 1.
Alcoholism causes different disorders of liver like steatosis (fatty liver), alcoholic hepatitis, fibrosis and cirrhosis. Collect more information on these disorders and try to increase awareness against alcoholism in society. Collect information about NGOs working against alcoholism.
Answer:
Steatosis (fatty liver): Steatosis is accumulation of fat in the liver. Treatment can help but it cannot be cured. Major risk factors are obesity and Diabetes type II, it is also associated with excessive alcohol consumption. Fatigue, weight loss and abdominal pain are some symptoms. It is a benign condition but in very smaller number of patients it can lead to liver failure. Treatment involves diet and exercise to reduce obesity.

Alcoholic hepatitis: Alcoholic Hepatitis is liver inflammation caused by excessive consumption of alcohol. It occurs in people who drink heavily for many years. Symptoms like yellowing of skin and eye, accumulation of fluid in stomach which leads to increase in stomach size. Treatments like completely stopping of alcohol consumption, hydration and nutrition care are carried out. Administration of steroid drugs reduces liver inflammation.

Fibrosis: There is significant scarring of liver tissue in this condition. Fibrosis itself does not cause any symptoms. Diagnosis includes doctor’s evaluation, blood tests and imaging tests, liver biopsy. Treatments include stopping the consumption of alcohol. There are no such effective drugs for curing of fibrosis.

Cirrhosis: It is a chronic liver damage caused due to various reasons which leads to irreversible scarring of liver and liver failure. Causes of cirrhosis are chronic alcohol abuse and hepatitis. Patients may experience fatigue, weakness and weight loss. In later stages, patients may develop jaundice, abdominal swelling and gastrointestinal bleeding. In advanced stage, a liver transplant is required.

NGOs working against alcoholism:

1. Muktangan Rehabilitation Centre
2. Anmol Jeevan Foundation
3. Sankalp Rehabilitation Trust
4. Kripa Foundation
5. Harmony Foundation
6. Hands for you Rehab Centre

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Plant Tissues and Anatomy Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Morphology of Flowering Plants Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Animal Tissue Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Study of Animal Type : Cockroach Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Photosynthesis Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Respiration and Energy Transfer Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Human Nutrition Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Excretion and Osmoregulation Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Skeleton and Movement Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Respiration and Energy Transfer Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 13 Respiration and Energy Transfer Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 13 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the Correct option.

Question (A)
The reactions of the TCA cycle occur in
(A) ribosomes
(B) grana
(C) mitochondria
(D) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
(C) mitochondria

Question (B)
In eukaryotes the complete oxidation of a molecule of glucose results in the net gain of
(A) 2 molecules of ATP
(B) 36 molecules of ATP
(C) 4 molecules of ATP
(D) 38 molecules of ATP
Answer:
(D) 38 molecules of ATP

Question (C)
Which step of Krebs cycle operates substrate-level phosphorylation?
(A) ∝-ketoglutarate → succinyl CoA.
(B) Succinyl CoA → succinate
(C) Succinate → fumarate
(D) Fumarate → malate
Answer:
(B) Succinyl CoA → succinate

2. Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

Question 1.
A. Acetyl CoA is formed from __________ and co-enzyme A.
B. In the prokaryotes ________ molecules of ATP are formed per molecule of glucose oxidised.
C. Glycolysis takes place in ________ .
D. F₁ – F₀ particles participate in the synthesis of _________ .
E. During glycolysis _________ molecules of NADH⁺H⁺ are formed.
Answer:
A. pyruvic acid
B. 2/38
C. cytoplasm
D. ATP
E. 2
[Note: ii. In prokaryotes, during anaerobic respiration 2 ATPs are formed per glucose and 38 ATPs are formed during aerobic respiration.]

3. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
When and where does anaerobic respiration occur in man and yeast?
Answer:
1. In absence of oxygen, anaerobic respiration takes place in skeletal muscles of man during vigorous exercise.
2. Anaerobic respiration occurs in the cytoplasm of the yeast cell.

Question (B)
Why is less energy produced during anaerobic respiration than in aerobic respiration?
Answer:
Anaerobic respiration produces less energy because:

1. Incomplete breakdown of respiratory substrate takes place.
2. Some of the products of anaerobic respiration can be oxidised further to release energy which shows that anaerobic respiration does not liberate the whole energy contained in the respiratory substrate.
3. NADH₂ does not produce ATP, as electron transport is absent.
4. Only 2 ATP molecules are generated from one molecule of glucose during anaerobic respiration.

Question (C)
Which is the site for ETS in mitochondrial respiration?
Answer:
The inner mitochondrial membrane is the site for ETS in mitochondrial respiration.

Question (D)
Which compound is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
Answer:
Molecular oxygen is the terminal electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.

Question (E)
What is RQ.? What is its value for fats?
Answer:
1. Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) or respiratory ratio is the ratio of volume of CO₂ released to the volume of O₂ consumed in respiration.
2. R.Q. = Volume of CO₂ released / Volume of O₂ consumed

Question (F)
What are respiratory substrates? Name the most common respiratory substrate.
Answer:
Respiratory substrates are the molecules that are oxidized during respiration to release energy which can be used for ATP synthesis. Carbohydrates, fats and proteins are the common respiratory substrate. Glucose is the most common respiratory substrate.

Question (G)
Write explanatory notes on:

Question (i)
Glycolysis
Answer:
Glycolysis is a process where glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvic acid, hence called glycolysis (glucose-breaking). It is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration. It occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It involves ten steps.
Glycolysis consists of two major phases:
1. Preparatory phase (1-5 steps).
2. Payoff phase (6-10 steps).
1. Preparatory phase:
a. In this phase, glucose is phosphorylated twice by using two ATP molecules and a molecule of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is formed.
b. It is then cleaved into two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxy acetone phosphate. These two molecules are 3-carbon carbohydrates (trioses) and are isomers of each other.
c. Dihydroxy acetone phosphate is isomerised to second molecule of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
d. Therefore, two molecules of glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate are formed.
e. Preparatory phase of glycolysis ends.

2. Payoff phase:
a. In this phase, both molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are converted to two molecules of 1,3- bisphoglycerate by oxidation and phosphorylation. Here, the phosphorylation is brought about by inorganic phosphate instead of ATP.
b. Both molecules of 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate are converted into two molecules of pyruvic acid through series of reactions accompanied with release of energy. This released energy is used to produce ATP (4 molecules) by substrate-level phosphorylation.

Question (ii)
Write explanatory notes on: Fermentation by yeast
Answer:
Alcoholic fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration where the pyruvate is decarboxylated to acetaldehyde. The acetaldehyde is then reduced by NADH+H⁺ to ethanol and Carbon dioxide. Since ethanol is produced during the process, it is termed alcoholic fermentation.

Question (iii)
Write explanatory notes on: Electron transport chain
Answer:

1. NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
2. These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
3. NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
4. FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
5. During oxidation of NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂ , electrons and protons are released but only electrons are canned forward whereas protons are released into outer chamber of mitochondria (intermembrane space).
6. Ubiquinol is oxidised by complex-III (Cytochrome bcl complex) and it’s electrons are transferred to cytochrome C. Cytochrome C is a small, iron-containing protein, loosely associated with inner membrane. It acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring the electrons between complex III and IV.
7. Cytochrome C is oxidised by complex IV or cytochrome C oxidase consisting of cytochrome a and a₃. Electrons are transferred by this complex to the molecular oxygen. This is terminal oxidation.
8. Reduced molecular oxygen reacts with protons to form water molecule called as metabolic water.
9. Protons necessary for this are channelled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner chamber by F₀ part of oxysome (complex V) present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
10. This proton channelling by F₀ is coupled to catalytic site of F₁ which catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is oxidative phosphorylation.
11. As transfer of protons is accompanied with synthesis of ATP, this process is named as ‘Chemiosmosis’ by Peter Mitchell.

Significance of ETS:

1. Major amount of energy is generated through ETS or terminal oxidation in the form of ATP molecules.
2. Per glucose molecule 38 ATP molecules are formed, out of which 34 ATP molecules are produced through ETS.
3. Oxidized coenzymes such as NAD and FAD are regenerated from their reduced forms (NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂) for recycling.
4. In this process, energy is released in a controlled and stepwise manner to prevent any damage to the cell.
5. ETS produces water molecules.

Question (H)
How are glycolysis, TCA cycle and electron transport chain-linked? Explain.
Answer:
Glycolysis, TCA cycle and electron transport chain are linked in the following manner:

1. The coenzymes are initially present in the form of NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ which latter get reduced to NADH+H⁺ and FADH+H⁺ by accepting the hydrogen from organic substrate during glycolysis, link reaction and Krebs cycle.
2. During glycolysis, glucose is oxidised to two molecules of pyruvic acid with net gain 2 molecules of NADH+H⁺.
3. This pyruvic acid undergoes link reaction to form two molecules of acetyl CoA and two molecules of NADH+H⁺.
4. Acetyl CoA, thus formed enters into the Krebs cycle and it gets completely oxidised to C0₂ and H₂0; with a net gain of 6 NADH+H+ and 2 FADH+H⁺ are formed.
5. During ETS, reduced coenzymes are reoxidized to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ with a net gain of 34 ATPs. The ATPs thus formed are used during glycolysis.
6. The oxidized NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ will again accept the hydrogen from organic substrate. Thus, reduced coenzymes are converted back to their oxidized forms by dehydrogenation to keep the process going.

Question (I)
How would you demonstrate that yeast can respire both aerobically and anaerobically?
Answer:
Respiration in yeast can be demonstrated with the help of an experiment.
Anaerobic respiration in yeast:

1. A pinch of dry baker’s yeast suspended in water containing 10ml of 10% glucose in a test tube (test tube A).
2. The surface of the liquid is covered with oil to prevent entry of air and the test tube is closed tightly with rubber stopper to prevent leakage.
3. One end of a short-bent glass tube is inserted through it to reach the air inside the tube.
4. Other end of the glass tube is connected by a polyethylene or rubber tubing to another bent glass tube fitted into a stopper.
5. The open end of the glass tube (delivery tube) is dipped into lime water containing in a test tube
   (Tube B).
6. Stoppers of both the tubes are fitted tightly to prevent leakage of gases. First test tube is placed in warm water (37° C-38° C) in a beaker.
7. Lime water gradually turns milky, indicating the evolution of carbon dioxide from the yeast preparation.
8. Level of the lime water in the delivery tube does not rise, showing that there is no decline in volume of gas in test tube A and consequently no utilization of oxygen by yeast. Preparation is stored for a day or two.
9. When we open the stopper of tube A we will notice a smell of alcohol indicating the formation of ethanol.
10. From this activity it may be inferred that yeast respires anaerobically to ferment glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide.

Aerobic respiration in yeast: Experiment explained can be carried out for demonstrating aerobic respiration in yeast.

1. If the level of the lime water in the test tube B rises, indicating intake of oxygen, hence the level of volume of gas rises.
2. The preparation tube is stored for a day or two, if no smell of alcohol is noticed it indicates that the yeast respires aerobically.

Question (J)
What is the advantage of step wise energy release in respiration?
Answer:
In ETS energy is released in step wise manner to prevent damage of cells.

1. A stepwise release of the chemical bond energy facilitates the utilization of a relatively higher proportion of that energy in ATP synthesis.
2. Activities of enzymes for the different steps may be enhanced or inhibited by specific compounds. This provides a means of controlling the rate of the pathway and the energy output according to need of the cell.
3. The same pathway may be utilized for forming intermediates used in the synthesis of other biomolecules like amino acids.

Question (K)
Explain ETS.
Answer:

1. NADH₂ and FADH₂ produced during glycolysis, connecting link reaction and Krebs cycle are oxidized with the help of various electron carriers and enzymes.
2. These carriers and enzymes are arranged on inner mitochondrial membrane in the form of various complexes as complex I, II, III, VI and V.
3. NADH+H⁺ is oxidised by NADH dehydrogenase (complex I) and it’s electrons are transferred to ubiquinone (coenzyme Q-CoQ) present on inner membrane of mitochondria. Reduced ubiquinone is called as ubiqunol.
4. FADH₂ is oxidised by complex II (Succinate dehydrogenase) and these electrons are also transferred to CoQ.
5. During oxidation of NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂ , electrons and protons are released but only electrons are canned forward whereas protons are released into outer chamber of mitochondria (intermembrane space).
6. Ubiquinol is oxidised by complex-III (Cytochrome bcl complex) and it’s electrons are transferred to cytochrome C. Cytochrome C is a small, iron-containing protein, loosely associated with inner membrane. It acts as a mobile electron carrier, transferring the electrons between complex III and IV.
7. Cytochrome C is oxidised by complex IV or cytochrome C oxidase consisting of cytochrome a and a₃. Electrons are transferred by this complex to the molecular oxygen. This is terminal oxidation.
8. Reduced molecular oxygen reacts with protons to form water molecule called as metabolic water.
9. Protons necessary for this are channelled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner chamber by F₀ part of oxysome (complex V) present in inner mitochondrial membrane.
10. This proton channelling by F₀ is coupled to catalytic site of F₁ which catalyses the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate. This is oxidative phosphorylation.
11. As transfer of protons is accompanied with synthesis of ATP, this process is named as ‘Chemiosmosis’ by Peter Mitchell.

Question (L)
Discuss “The respiratory pathway is an amphibolic pathway”.
OR
Question (M)
Why is Krebs cycle referred as amphibolic pathway?
Answer:

1. Respiration is considered as a catabolic process; however, it is not entirely correct in case of Krebs cycle.
2. Many reactions of Krebs cycle involve oxidation of acetyl CoA to release energy and C02.
3. However, the breakdown of respiratory substrates provides intermediates like a-ketoglutarate, oxaloacetate are used as precursors for synthesis of fatty acids, glutamic acid and aspartic acid respectively.
4. Thus, as the same respiratory process acts as catabolic as well as anabolic pathway for synthesis of various intermediate metabolic products, it is called amphibolic pathway.

Question (N)
The common pathway for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration is
(A) Krebs cycle
(B) Glycolysis
(C) ETS
(D) Terminal oxidation
Answer:
(B) Glycolysis

4. Compare

Question (A)
Photosynthesis and respiration.
Answer:

Question (B)
Aerobic respiration and Anaerobic respiration
Answer:

5. Differentiate between

Question (A)
Respiration and combustion.
Answer:

Question (B)
Distinguish between Glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
Answer:

Question (C)
Aerobic respiration and fermentation.
Answer:

Question 6.
Identify the cycle given below. Correct it and fill in the blanks and write description of it in your own
Answer:

1. Krebs cycle or citric acid cycle is the second phase of aerobic respiration which takes place in the matrix of the mitochondria.
2. The acetyl CoA formed during the link reaction undergoes aerobic oxidation.
3. This cycle serves a common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
4. In mitochondria pyruvic acid is decarboxylated and the remaining 2-carbon fragment is combined with a molecule of coenzyme A to form acetyl-CoA.
5. This reaction is an oxidative decarboxylation process and produces H⁺ ions and electrons along with carbon dioxide. During the process NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH+H⁺.
6. P-oxidation of fatty acids also produces acetyl-CoA as the end product.
7. Acetyl-CoA from both sources is condensed with oxaloacetic acid to form citric acid. Citric acid is oxidized step-wise by mitochondrial enzymes, releasing carbon dioxide.
8. Regeneration of oxaloacetic acid occurs to complete the cycle.
9. There are four steps of oxidation in this cycle, catalyzed by dehydrogenases (oxidoreductases) using NAD⁺ or FAD⁺ as the coenzyme.
10. The coenzymes are consequently reduced to NADH+H⁺ and FADH₂ respectively. These transfer their electrons to the mitochondrial respiratory chain to get reoxidised.
11. One molecule of GTP (ATP) is also generated for every molecule of citric acid oxidized.

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Make Powerpoint Presentation on Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle and Conduct the group discussion on it in classroom.
[Note: Students are expected to perform above activity on their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 13 Respiration and Energy Transfer Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

(i) Which nutrients are used for energy production?
Answer:
Nutrients like carbohydrates, fats and proteins are used for energy production.

(ii) Why do organisms take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide?
Answer:
a. At cellular level, organisms require energy to carry out different metabolic activities.
b. The energy is made available by oxidizing/breaking the food.
Therefore, oxygen is required by aerobic organisms for breaking the food and carbon dioxide is released as a byproduct of oxidation.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 152)

Why is glycolysis considered as biochemical proof of evolution?
Answer:

1. Glycolysis does not require oxygen. Hence it might have been used by earlier organisms for energy production, as there was no free oxygen in atmosphere of primitive earth.
2. Glycolysis is the first metabolic pathway, an ancient pathway which is common to both aerobic and anaerobic organisms.
3. All cells have glycolysis in their metabolic pathway.
4. Upto pyruvate the pathway is similar to all aerobic and anaerobic organisms. Later, the fate of pyruvic acid can be either C0₂ or ethanol or lactic acid depending upon the type of organism.
5. Hence it is considered as a biochemical proof of evolution.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 152)

(i) What is role of Mg⁺⁺, Zn⁺⁺ in various steps of glycolysis?
Answer:
a. Mg⁺⁺ and Zn⁺⁺ are the cofactors that are tightly bound to enzymes and helps the enzymes to perform their functions.
b. They regulate the activity of the most important enzymes like Hexokinase, Phosphoffuctokinase, Triose phosphate dehydrogenase, Phosphoglycerate kinase, Enolase, Pyruvate kinase.

(ii) Why some reactions of glycolysis are reversible and some irreversible?
Answer:
Irreversible chemical reactions:
Some chemical reactions can occur in only one direction i.e. these reactions are irreversible reactions. The reactants can change to the products, but the products cannot change back to the reactants.

Reversible chemical reactions:

1. Some chemical reactions can occur in both directions i.e. these reactions are reversible reactions. In this case the reactants change to the products and the products can change back to the reactants, atleast under specific conditions.
2. Out of ten, four are irreversible reactions which involves the enzyme kinase that is required for phosphorylation reactions, these reactions involve large negative energy AG, hence the reactions are irreversible.
3. Other reversible reactions do not involve high negative energy hence are reversible.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 152)

Why do athletes like sprinters have higher proportion of white muscle fibers?
Answer:
1. The white muscle fibres produce energy in a very short period of time that is required for fast and severe work. Thus, the energy becomes immediately available to the athletes.
2. On the other hand, the red muscle produce energy over a prolonged period of time, hence athletes have higher proportion of white muscle fibers.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

Which steps are involved in aerobic respiration?
Answer:
It involves glycolysis, acetyl CoA formation (connecting link reaction), Krebs cycle, electron transfer chain reaction and terminal oxidation.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

What is aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
For anaerobic respiration: Anaerobic respiration is the cellular respiration that does not involve the atmospheric oxygen. It is also called as fermentation. It involves glycolysis where the product of glycolysis i.e. pyruvate is converted to either lactic acid or ethanol and for aerobic respiration.
1. Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of free molecular oxygen during oxidation of glucose.
2. In this type of respiration, the glucose is completely oxidized to C0₂ and H₂0 with release of large amount of energy. It involves glycolysis, acetyl CoA formation (connecting link reaction), Krebs cycle, electron transfer chain reaction and terminal oxidation.

Use your brainpower (Textbook Page No. 157)

Do the plants breath like animals? If yes, how and why?
Answer:

1. Yes, plants breath like animals because they also require energy to carry out different metabolic activities. Hence, plants take up oxygen required for respiration and they also give out C0₂.
2. Plants take care of their gas exchange needs. The stomata and lenticels are important for this purpose.
3. Leaves are well adapted for gaseous exchange during photosynthesis.
4. Large amount of gases is exchanged. In plants, each living cell is located quite close to the surface of the plants.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 155)

What is effect of carbon monoxide poisoning on cytochromes?
Answer:

1. At sub-cellular level, carbon monoxide is toxic for mitochondria.
2. It alters the mitochondrial respiratory chain at the cytochrome c oxidase level (complex IV of the mitochondrial respiratory chain) and causes inhibition of ETS.
3. This inhibition leads to the development of symptoms observed in acute CO poisoning, and in some diseases related to smoking.
4. These symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, weakness, difficulty in concentration or confusion, visual changes, syncope, seizures, abdominal pain and muscle cramping.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 151)

Which is most preferred nutrient among carbohydrate, protein and fat for energy production? Why?
Answer:

1. The preferred nutrient is carbohydrate because it quickly supplies energy as compared to other nutrients.
2. Carbohydrates are easy to digest as compared to fats.
3. The RQ of carbohydrate is 1. Hence allows complete oxidation of food. Thus, the preferred nutrient is carbohydrate.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 158)

Calculate the RQ for different respiratory substrates using appropriate formula.
Answer:
The RQ for different respiratory substrates are:
1. Carbohydrates (R.Q. is 1)
When carbohydrates are used as substrate, equal volumes of C0₂ and 0₂ are released and consumed respectively, thus its R.Q. is 1.
C₆ H₁₂ O₆ + 6O₂ → 6 C0₂ + 6H₂0
R.Q. = 6C0₂ / 60₂ = 1.0

2. Fats (R.Q. is less than 1)
Substrates like fats are poorer in oxygen than carbohydrates. Thus, more oxygen is utilized for its complete oxidation.
2(C₅₁ H₉₈ O₆) + 145O₂ → 102CO₂ + 98H₂O + Energy
R.Q. = C0₂ / 0₂ = 102 / 145 = 0.7

3. Protein respiration (R.Q. is less than 1)

1. When proteins serve as respiratory substrate, they are first degraded to amino acids.
2. Then, amino acids are converted into various intermediates of carbohydrates.
3. However, amino acids have low proportion of O₂ as compared to carbohydrates.
4. Thus, they require more O₂ during their complete oxidation and value of R.Q. becomes less than 1.
5. In case of proteins, the R.Q. is approximately 0.9.

Maharashtra State Board Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

• Plant Tissues and Anatomy Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Morphology of Flowering Plants Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Animal Tissue Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Study of Animal Type : Cockroach Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Photosynthesis Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Respiration and Energy Transfer Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Human Nutrition Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Excretion and Osmoregulation Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions
• Skeleton and Movement Class 11 Biology Textbook Solutions

Photosynthesis Class 11 Exercise Question Answers Solutions Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 12 Photosynthesis Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Class 11 Biology Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions Maharashtra Board

Biology Class 11 Chapter 12 Exercise Solutions

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
A cell that lacks chloroplast does not
(a) evolve carbon dioxide
(b) liberate oxygen
(c) require water
(d) utilize carbohydrates
Answer:
(b) liberate oxygen

Question (B)
Energy is transferred from the light reaction step to the dark reaction step by
(a) chlorophyll
(b) ADP
(c) ATP
(d) RuBP
Answer:
(c) ATP

Question (C)
Which one is wrong in photorespiration?
(a) It occurs in chloroplasts
(b) It occurs in day time only
(c) It is characteristic of C₄-plants
(d) It is characteristic of C₃-plants
Answer:
(c) It is characteristic of C₄-plants

Question (D)
Non-cyclic phosphorylation differs from cyclic photophosphorylation in that former
(a) involves only PS
(b) Include evolution of 02
(c) involves formation of assimilatory power
(d) both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c)

Question (E)
For fixation of 6 molecules of C0₂ and formation of one molecule of glucose in Calvin cycle, requires
(a) 3 ATP and 2 MADPPE
(b) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH₂
(c) 30 ATP and 18 NADPH₂
(d) 6 ATP and 6 NADPIT₂
Answer:
(b) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH₂

Question (F)
In maize and wheat, the first stable products formed in bundle sheath cells respectively are
(a) OAA and PEPA
(b) OAA and OAA
(c) OAA and 3PGA
(d) 3PGA and OAA
Answer:
(c) OAA and 3PGA

Question (G)
The head and tail of chlorophyll are made up of
(a) porphyrin and phytin respectively
(b) pyrrole and tetrapyrrole respectively
(c) porphyrin and phytol respectively
(d) tetrapyrole and pyrrole respectively
Answer:
(c) porphyrin and phytol respectively

Question (H)
The net result of photo-oxidation of water is release of ……………. .
(a) electron and proton
(b) proton and oxygen
(c) proton, electron and oxygen
(d) electron and oxygen
Answer:
(c) proton, electron and oxygen

Question (I)
For fixing one molecule of C0₂ in Calvin cycle are required.
(a) 3ATP + 1NADPFE
(b) 3ATP + 2NADPH₂
(c) 2ATP + 3NADPH₂
(d) 3ATP + 3NADPFE
Answer:
(b) 3ATP + 2NADPH₂

Question (J)
In presence of high concentration of oxygen, RuBP carboxylase converts RuBP to …………… .
(a) Malic acid and PEP
(b) PGA and PEP
(c) PGA and malic acid
(d) PGA and phosphoglycolate
Answer:
(d) PGA and phosphoglycolate

Question (K)
The sequential order in electron transport from PSII to PSI of photosynthesis is
(a) FeS, PQ, PC and Cytochrome
(b) FeS, PQ, Cytochrome and PC
(c) PQ, Cytochrome, PC and FeS
(d) PC, Cytochrome, FeS, PQ
Answer:
(c) PQ, Cytochrome, PC and FeS

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
Describe the light-dependent steps of photosynthesis. How are they linked to dark reactions?
Answer:
The light dependent steps of photosynthesis include cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation,
1. Cyclic photophosphorylation:
a. Illumination of photosystem-I causes electrons to move continuously out of the reaction center of photosystem-I and back to it.
b. The cyclic electron-flow is accompanied by the photophosphorylation of ADP to yield ATP. This is termed as Cyclic photophosphorylation.
c. Since this process involves only pigment system I, photolysis of water and consequent evolution of oxygen does not take place.

2. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation:
a. It involves both photosystems- PS-I and PS-II.
b. In this case, electron transport chain starts with the release of electrons from PS-II.
c. In this chain high energy electrons released from PS-II do not return to PS-II but, after passing through an electron transport chain, reach PS-I, which in turn donates it to reduce NADP to NADPH.
d. The reduced NADP⁺ (NADPH) is utilized for the reduction of CO₂ in the dark reaction.
e. Electron-deficient PS-II brings about oxidation of water-molecule. Due to this, protons, electrons and oxygen atom are released.
f. Electrons are taken up by PS-II itself to return to reduced state, protons are accepted by NADP⁺ whereas oxygen is released.
g. As in this process, high energy electrons released from PS-II do not return to PS-II and it is accompanied with ATP formation, this is called Non-cyclic photophosphorylation.

3. Link between light-dependent and dark reactions:

1. The light reaction gives rise to two important products, a reducing agent NADPH₂ and an energy rich compound ATP. Both these are utilized in the dark phase of photosynthesis.
2. ATP and NADPH₂ molecules function as vehicles for transfer of energy of sunlight into dark reaction leaving to carbon fixation. In this reaction C0₂ is reduced to carbohydrate.
3. During dark reaction, ATP and NADPH₂ are transformed into ADP, iP and NADP which are transferred to the grana in which light reaction takes place.

(B)

Question (a)
Distinguish between Respiration and Photorespiration
Answer:

Question (b)
Distinguish between Cyclic photophosphorylation and Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Answer: