Bhagya

Std 6 Science Chapter 13 Sound Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 13 Sound Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Sound Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Fill in the blanks with the proper words.

Question a.
The propagation of sound does not occur through a ………….. .
Answer:
vacuum

Question b.
Noise pollution is a …………… issue.
Answer:
social/serious

Question c.
The sound which is disagreeable to our ears is called …………… .
Answer:
noise

Question d.
Noise has adverse effects on our …………….. .
Answer:
health

2. What should we do?

Question a.
The silencer of a motorcycle is broken.
Answer:

1. If the silencer of a motorcycle is broken, vehicle should be immediately taken to the garage for repair.
2. If silencer is not maintained properly, it will continue making loud noise on the road while in motion, resulting in increasing noise pollution.

Question b.
A factory in the surrounding is producing continuous loud noise.
Answer:
Factories should be located at a proper distance away from residential areas. Authorities should be contacted who will control the decibel level.

3. Write the answers in your own words.

Question a.
What is meant by vibration?
Answer:
Vibration of an object is necessary for the production of sound. As long as the object vibrates, the sound is heard. When the vibration stops, the sound also stops.

Question b.
Explain with the help of practical examples how sound is propagated through solids.

Answer:

1. Singing
2. Chirping of birds
3. Bursting of crackers
4. Whispering
5. Whistling
6. Flute
7. Honking
8. Dog barking

Question c.
What is meant by noise pollution?
Answer:
Continuous noise which has ill effects is called noise pollution.

Question d.
What measures will you take to control noise pollution?
Answer:
Measures for preventing noise pollution:

1. As far as possible, we should avoid blowing horns.
2. The volume of the TV or radio in the house should be restricted to those watching the programmes.
3. Vehicles should be maintained properly to reduce the unnecessary sounds they produce.
4. Factories, airports, railway stations and bus stands should be located at the proper distance away from residential area.
5. Planting of trees helps reduce noise as trees act as a natural barrier.

4. Complete the table.

Question a.

Answer:

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a list of the harsh sounds mheard near your house. Write about those sounds which produce noise pollution.

Question 2.
Collect information about places where loud noise is prohibited and discuss why it is so.

Class 6 Science Chapter 13 Sound Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Some sounds are ……………… and are heard easily.
Answer:
loud

Question 2.
Some sounds are very ……………… and cannot be heard unless we listen attentively.
Answer:
soft

Question 3.
As long as the object ……………… the sound is heard.
Answer:
vibrates

Question 4.
When the vibration ……………… the sound also stops.
Answer:
stops

Question 5.
The intensity of sound is measured in a unit called ……………… .
Answer:
decibels(dB)

Question 6.
The voice box is located in our ……………… .
Answer:
throat

Question 7.
Sound travels in the form of ……………… through air, water and ……………. .
Answer:
waves, solids

Question 8.
The sound is propagated more clearly through a ……………… than through air.
Answer:
solid

Question 9.
Transmission of sound occurs at a different ……………… through different mediums.
Answer:
speed

Question 10.
Continuous noise which may have ill effects, is called noise ……………… .
Answer:
pollution

Question 11.
Some of the sounds that we enjoy can be a ……………… for others.
Answer:
nuisance

Question 12.
The vibration of an object is necessary for the ……………… of sound.
Answer:
production

Answer in one sentence.

Question 1.
List characteristics of sound.
Answer:
Sounds are soft, loud, pleasant and unpleasant.

Question 2.
What do you mean by unpleasant sounds?
Answer:
The sounds by which we get annoyed are called unpleasant sounds.

Question 3.
What do you mean by loud and soft sounds?
Answer:
The sounds which are heard easily, are loud sounds and the sounds which cannot be heard unless we listen attentively, are soft sounds.

Question 4.
Which movement is exhibited by diaphragm of a speaker and a tabla?
Answer:
Diaphragm of a speaker and a tabla exhibit rapid oscillatory motion which gives rise to vibrations.

Question 6.
What is source of the sound?
Answer:
The object due to which sound is produced is called the source of the sound.

Question 7.
What is acoustics?
Answer:
The science of sound, resonance, production, propagation and effects of sound is called acoustics.

Question 8.
What produces sound in living beings?
Answer:
The vibration of the vocal chords in our larynx or voice box produces sound.

Question 9.
On what does quality of sound depend?
Answer:
Quality of sound produced in the larynx depends upon the tautness of the vocal chords.

Question 10.
How is sound propagated?
Answer:
The sound is propagated in the form of waves through air, water or through a solid.

Question 11.
Why is sound heard more clearly through solids?
Answer:
Transmission of sound occurs at a different speed through different mediums. Transmission of sound is faster through a solid than through a liquid and gas.

Question 12.
What is noise?
Answer:
A loud sound is harsh to ears. Such sounds produce noise.

Question 13.
List the effects of very loud or continuous noise on the people.
Answer:

1. Very loud or continuous noise can cause hearing impairment.
2. This can even lead to deafness.
3. It also causes restlessness, irritability and mental exhaustion.

Question 14.
What is noise pollution?
Answer:
Continuous noise which has ill effects is called noise pollution.

Question 15.
How can we prevent noise pollution with respect to watching TV?
Answer:
The volume of the TV or radio in the house should be restricted to those watching the programmes.

Explain the terms.

Question 1.
Propagation of sound:
Answer:
Sound is said to be propagated when sound waves spread in all directions from a source of sound.

Question 2.
Medium of propagation of sound:
Answer:
The substance around a source of sound through which sound waves spread is called the medium of propagation of sound.

Question 3.
Which sounds do you hear during the recess in the school?
Answer:
During the recess in the school, we hear.

1. laughing
2. students running
3. talking loudly
4. ringing of the bell
5. stamping on the staircase
6. shouting

Question 4.
When there is silence in the classroom, close your eyes and sit quietly. Which sounds in your surroundings can you hear now?
Answer:

1. Loud: Laughing, running, talking, horn of cars, marriage procession, school band, teacher’s voice in next classroom.
2. Pleasant: P.T. teacher’s whistle, chirping of birds.
3. Unpleasant: Shouting, bell ringing, stamping on staircase, dog barking, horns of vehicles.

Question 5.
When a song is being played on a radio or a music system in the house, place your hand on its speaker. What do you feel? Put off the music. What do you feel now?
Answer:

1. When a hand is placed on the speakers of the music system, we feel vibrations on the hand.
2. When music is put off, we don’t feel any vibrations on the hand.

Question 6.
When a metal dish falls on the floor; it makes a loud noise. What do we do to stop the noise? What is the effect of that action?
Answer:
To stop the noise of metal dish falling on the floor, quickly put hand on the dish. Vibrations of the metal dish are stopped and the noise stops.

Question 7.
What is it that vibrates when the sounds of sitar, bell, water tap, and breaking of a saucer, etc. are produced?
Answer:
Strings of the sitar, tongs of the bell, water drops hitting the floor of the basin, pieces of saucers that hit the ground vibrate to produce the sounds.

Question 8.
Take a pot full of water. Strike it lightly on the rim. What do you see? Why are waves formed on the water in the pot?
Answer:

1. We see ripples on the water.
2. When we strike the rim of the pot, our striking causes vibrations. These vibrations are transferred or moved from the pot to the water. Hence, water waves/ripples are seen on the water in the pot.

Question 9.
On rubbing balloon filled with water and another filled with air, of which balloon do we hear a clear or sound?
Answer:
We hear a clearer sound of the water balloon.

Question 10.
If a bell is rung in a vacuum container, will its sound be heard outside?
Answer:
Its sound will not be heard outside.

Observe and Discuss.

Observe the figure and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Which of these sounds is pleasant?
Answer:
The singing of the girl is a pleasant sound.

Question 2.
Which sound is a nuisance to people?
Answer:

1. Boy shouting/screaming.
2. Boy moving/ walking with a toy rattle.

Observe the figure and answer the following.

Question 1.
Make a list of all sounds implied in the picture.

Answer:

1. Chirping of bird outside the house on the tree.
2. Collision of two vehicles – honking of the vehicles.
3. Baby crying.
4. Father talking on the phone.
5. Brother playing in the house – jumping.
6. Sister playing the drum – hitting the drum.
7. Sound of TV.
8. Dog barking.
9. Mother talking to the neighbour.

Question 2.
How would this atmosphere affect a person who is not feeling well?
Answer:
This atmosphere is not convenient for a patient who is ill. He cannot take rest.

Question 3.
Would you be able to study in these conditions?
Answer:
No, students cannot study in this condition. They cannot concentrate on their study.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Work and Energy Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Simple Machines Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Light and the Formation of Shadows Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Fun with Magnets Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Universe Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Give examples of 3 plants that have:

Question a.
Spiny fruits
Answer:
Jack fruit, Pineapple, Lychee (litchi), Datura

Question b.
Spiny stem
Answer:
Cactus, Wild rose, Catclaw acacia, Silk, Cotton

Question c.
Red flowers
Answer:
Rose, Dahlia, Hibiscus, Tulips,

Question d.
Yellow flowers
Answer:
Marigold, Daffodil, Sunflower, Daisy

Question e.
Leaves which close at night
Answer:
Mimosa plant, Tallwood, Prayer plant, Gulmohar

Question f.
Single seeded fruits
Answer:
Mango, Lychee, Jamun

Question g.
Many seeded fruits
Answer:
Custard apple, Papaya, Watermelon.

2. Observe any one flower and its various parts and describe it in your own words.

Question a.
Answer:

A flower has following parts:
1. Pedicel: (a) Flower may have a long or a short stalk called pedicel, (b) One end of the pedicel is attached to the stem, (c) The other end of the pedicel is expanded and swollen. It is called the receptacle, (d) Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the receptacle.
2. Calyx: In the bud condition, the petals are covered by leaf like parts called sepals which are green in colour. They form the calyx.
3. Corolla: This is made up of colourful parts called petals.
4. Androecium: (a) This is the male reproductive part of the flower, (b) It consists of stamens, (c) Each stamen is made up of anther and filament.
5. Gynoecium: (a) This is the female reproductive part of the flower, (b) This is made up of carpels, (c) A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.

3. What are the similarities and differences between?

Question a.
Jowar and Moong
Differences:

Similarities:
Jowar and Moong both are angiosperms.

Question b.
Onion and Coriander
Differences:

Similarities:

1. Both are used in cooking.
2. Both are edible.
3. Both belongs to kingdom plantae.

Question c.
Leaves of banana and Leaves of mango
Answer:

Question d.
Coconut tree and Jowar stalk plant
Answer:
Differences:

Similarities:

1. Both are from same kingdom plantae.
2. Both are autotrophic.
3. Both are monocotyledonous plants.

4. Explain the following images in your own words.

Question a.

Answer:

1. Diagram A is of maize seed. It is a monocotyledonous seed and does not divide into two equal parts. The plant has fibrous root system.
2. Diagram B is of bean seed. It is a dicotyledonous seed and it divides into two equal parts. The plant has tap root system.

5. Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.

Question a.
Describe the functions of various parts of a plant.
Answer:
The functions of various parts of a plant are as below.
1. Root: (a) Fixation: It anchors the plant body to the soil, so helps in fixation, (b) Absorption: It absorbs water and nutrients from the soil, so helps in absorption, (c) Conduction: The root translocates water and mineral salts into the stem. (d) Storage: A certain amount of food is stored in the root which is utilized as it grows.
(e) Preventing soil erosion: It helps to bind the soil particles and prevent them from being blown away by wind or water.
2. Stem: (a) It supports and holds leaves, flower and fruits, (b) The stem conducts the water and minerals from roots to leaves and fruits, (c) It stores the food.
3. Leaves: (a) It synthesizes food for the plant, (b) Stomata, the tiny openings in the leaf help in gaseous exchange and are responsible for the process of transpiration.
4. Flower: It helps in pollination.
5. Fruit: (a) It protects the seed, (b) It helps in seed dispersal.
6. Seed: A new plant develops from it.

6. Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.

Question a.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
leaves with smooth surface, leaves with rough surface, fleshy leaf, spines on leaf.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Ci/cas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

7. Find the plant parts.

Question a.

Answer:

ROOT, ROOT CAP, ROOT HAIR, BUD, PETALS, STEM, RADICLE, FLOWER, LEAF, VEIN, CALYX, NODE, OVUM.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Activity:

Sketch various types of leaves in Paintbrush on the computer and save the sketches in a folder of your own name.

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants: Structure and Function Important Questions and Answers

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Fill in the blanks:

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
The part that grows from inside the seed towards the soil is called the …………….. .
Answer:
radicle

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Question 2.
The part that grows above the soil from the seed is called the …………….. .
Answer:
plumule

Plants Structure And Function Question And Answer Question 3.
The part of the plant growing below the soil from radicle for support is called …………….. .
Answer:
root

Plants Structure And Function Class 7 Exercise Question 4.
The …………….. protects the root-tip from injuries.
Answer:
root cap

Plants Structure And Function Exercise Question 5.
Roots bearing hair like processes near the root tips are called …………….. .
Answer:
root hairs

Class 7 Science Chapter 2 Plants Structure And Function Question Answer Question 6.
Thread-like or fibre like roots arising from the stem are called ……………. .
fibrous roots

Question 7.
The stem grows above the soil from the …………….. of the sprouting seed.
Answer:
plumule

Question 8.
Leaves come out at the …………….. .
Answer:
nodes

Question 9.
The part of the stem between two nodes is called …………….. .
Answer:
inter node

Question 10.
The tip or the apical end of the stem is called a …………….. .
Answer:
bud

Question 11.
The broad, spread out part of the leaf is called the …………….. or …………….. .
Answer:
leaf blade, lamina

Question 12.
The tip of the leaf is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf apex

Question 13.
Leaves of some plants have a stalk called a …………….. .
Answer:
petiole

Question 14.
The portion of the leaf attached to the stem is called the …………….. .
Answer:
leaf base

Question 15.
Small leaf like structures near the leaf base is called …………….. .
Answer:
stipides

Question 16.
Flowers may have a long or a short stalk called …………….. .
Answer:
pedicel

Question 17.
One end of the pedicel is attached to the …………….. .
Answer:
stem

Question 18.
…………….. is a male reproductive organ of the flower.
Answer:
Androecium

Question 19.
…………….. is a female reproductive organ of the
Answer:
gynoecium

Question 20.
Androecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
stamens

Question 21.
Gynoecium consists of …………….. .
Answer:
carpels

Question 22.
Seeds which get divided into two equal parts are called …………….. seeds.
Answer:
dicotyledonous

Question 23.
Seeds which do not divide into two equal parts are …………….. called seeds.
Answer:
monocotyledonous

Question 24.
Petals and other parts of the flower are supported on the …………….. .
Answer:
receptacle

Question 25.
Sepals are …………….. in colour.
Answer:
green.

Match the columns:

Question  1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Say whether True or False Correct and rewrite the false statements:

Question 1.
Stem grows from radicle.
Answer:
False. Stem grows from the Plumule

Question 2.
Leaf margins may be entire, dentate or lobed.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The leaf blade of leaves in some plants is divided into many small parts called leaflets.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Maize plant has reticulate venation.
Answer:
False. Maize plant has parallel venation

Question 5.
A carpel consists of stigma, style and ovary.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
A stamen is made up of nodes and internodes.
Answer:
False. A stamen is made up of anther filament

Question 7.
The ovary develops into a fruit.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Fertilized ovules form the seeds.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
A mango fruit contains many seeds.
Answer:
False. A mango fruit contains only one seed

Question 10.
A fruit like cashew have seed outside the fruit.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Leaves of some plants do not have a petiole.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The peepal leaf has parallel venation.
Answer:
False. It has reticulate venation.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Pea, Moong, maize, groundnut
Answer:
Maize – Its seed is monocotyledonous, while others have dicotyledonous seeds.

Question 2.
Cashew, apple, mango, chikoo
Answer:
Cashew – Its seed is outside the fruit, others have internal seeds.

Question 3.
Stigma, anther, style, ovary
Answer:
Anther – It is a part of androecium, while others are a part of gynoecium.

Question 4.
Petiole, vein, calyx, apex
Answer:
Calyx – It is a part of flower, whereas others are parts of leaf.

Question 5.
Aerial, stilt, runner, lobed
Answer:
Lobed – It is a type of leaf margin, while others are types of modified roots.

Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen fixing bacteria.

Question 2.
What are called prop roots?
Answer:
Roots emerging from the trunk and branches of a banyan tree grow towards the soil. These roots are called prop roots.

Question 3.
What is called reticulate venation?
Answer:

1. A leaf is divided into two equal parts by a single mid-vein which lies along the midline of the leaf blade.
2. Secondary veins arise from the mid-vein. They are branched and form a network or reticulum. Such a type of venation is called reticulate venation.

Question 4.
What is called parallel venation?
Answer:
In a leaf all the veins are parallel, running from the leaf base to the leaf apex. Such a venation is called parallel venation.

Question 5.
What is pollination?
Answer:
After maturity, anthers burst and the pollen grains which are released fall on the stigma. This process is called pollination.

Question 6.
Why are the underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato thick, fleshy and swollen? Which parts of the plant are they?
Answer:
The underground parts of plants like radish, carrot, beet and sweet potato are thick, fleshy and swollen because they store food in the form of starch. These are the root part of the plant.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Tap roots and fibrous roots.
Answer:

Question 2.
Dicotyledonous seeds and monocotyledonous seeds.
Answer:

Draw neat and labelled diagram for the following:

Question 1.
Tap root
Answer:

Question 2.
Parts of a leaf.
Answer:

Question 3.
Parts of stem
Answer:

Do as directed:

Question 1.
Certain properties are mentioned below. Find a leaf corresponding to each property and describe those plants.
Answer:

1. Leaves with smooth surface: e.g. Banana leaf. It is large in size. It is closely rolled up one over the other. Together they look like a trunk but they form only an apparent trunk. It has parallel venation.
2. Leaves with rough surface: e.g. Hibiscus leaf. It has reticulate venation. Leaf margin is toothed.
3. Fleshy leaf: e.g. Jade plant, water hyacinth. It has fleshy, glossy and smooth leaves. They are coloured jade green and having a slightly red tinge towards the edge of leaves when exposed to higher level of light.
4. Spines on leaf: e.g. Opuntia, Cycas, kevda. Opuntia is a desert plant. Leaf is thick, fleshy and having spines on it.

Use your brainpower!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What would have happened if plants like tamarind, banyan and mango had fibrous roots?
Answer:
If plants like banyan, mango, tamarind had fibrous roots they would get uprooted and fall even with a little strong wind as the roots would not be able to support and anchor the trees firmly.

Question 2.
What will happen if the root-tip is injured?
Answer:

1. Root cap helps the root to grow downward It protects the sensitive part of the root and eases the movement of the root through the soil.
2. Injury of the root tip causes the root to grow randomly and it also may lead to injury of the sensitive part of the root.

Question 3.
Which types of roots do the fenugreek, spinach and onion plants have?
Answer:

1. Fenugreek and spinach have tap roots with a few secondary roots whereas onion has fibrous root.
2. Fenugreek roots also have some nodules which contain nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

Question 4.
Of what use to a plant are the insects flitting about around its flowers?
Answer:

1. The insects try to suck the nectar from the flowers and in that process the pollen grains stick to their legs.
2. When they sit on another flower the pollen grain stick to the stigma and the pollination takes place. Thus, these insects help in the pollination.

Observe the figure and answer the questions given.

1.

Question a.
What is shown in the picture?
Answer:
The picture shows the arrangement of leaves on the stem.

Question b.
What arrangement is shown in (A), (B), and (C)?
Answer:
(A) Alternate (B) Opposite (C) Whorled

2.

Question a.
Lable parts 1 to 6.
Answer:

1. Gynoecium or carpel
2. Corolla
3. Androecium (Stamen)
4. Ovary
5. Corolla
6. Pedicel

Question b.
Name the female reproductive part.
Answer:
Gynoecium

Question c.
Name the colourful part of the flower.
Answer:
Corolla

Question d.
Which part develops into fruit?
Answer:
Ovary

Question e.
Which pa pollination?
Answer:
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of flower is called pollination.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

• The Living World: Adaptations and Classification Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Plants: Structure and Function Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Properties of Natural Resources Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition in Living Organisms Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Food Safety Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Measurement of Physical Quantities Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion, Force and Work Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Static Electricity Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Heat Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Fill in the blanks:

Question a.
The process of intake of food and utilizing it for all life processes is called ……………. .
Answer:
nutrition

Question b.
All the substances in our food which are useful for various body processes are called ………… .
Answer:
nutrients

Question c.
Carbohydrates and …………. provide …………… to our body.
Answer:
fats, energy

Question d.
In a balanced diet, all the nutrients are present in the ……………. proportion.
Answer:
right

Question e.
In the food pyramid, cereals are given the maximum space because they fulfill our …………… requirement.
Answer:
energy

Question f.
Intake of more food than necessary causes ………….. .
Answer:
overnutrition

2. Spot the following in the table of vitamins and minerals.

Question a.
The nutrient present in citrous fruits.
Answer:
Vitamin C

Question b.
Vitamins/minerals present in milk.
Answer:
Vitamin A, Vitamin B, Vitamin D, calcium, phosphorus.

Question c.
Causes and symptoms of night blindness, scurvy, rickets, beriberi.
Answer:

Question d.
Foods required to prevent the above diseases.
Answer:

Question e.
Causes of anaemia.
Answer:
Deficiency of Vitamin B₁₂, iron.

Question f.
Essential mineral for healthy bones and teeth.
Answer:
Calcium, phosphorus.

Question g.
Sensory organ affected due to the deficiency of Vitamin A.
Answer:
Eyes, skin.

3. Choose the correct alternative. 

Question a.
Pulses are a very good source of ……………. .
(1) carbohydrates
(2) proteins
(3) fats
(4) minerals
Answer:
(2) proteins

Question b.
…………. provide maximum energy to our body.
(1) Cereals
(2) Leafy Vegetables
(3) Water
(4) Amla
Answer:
(1) Cereals

Question c.
Goitre is caused by the deficiency of ……….. .
(1) iron
(2) calcium
(3) iodine
(4) potassium
Answer:
(3) iodine

Question d.
……….. is a type of junk food.
(1) Orange
(2) Milk
(3) Bhakri
(4) Chocolate
Answer:
(4) Chocolate

4. Use the food pyramid to select food items of your choice for three days.
Conditions:
1. The diet for all three days should be balanced.
2. There should be variety in the items chosen for the three days.
Answer:

Day 1:
Cereal like cornflakes and milk, apple, roti, sabzi and dal.

Day 2:
Bread and butter with milk, rice/ roti and chicken, curd, any one type of fruit, salad.

Day 3:
Poha, green vegetable and dal with rice or roti, raita, one fruit, vegetable sandwich.

Activity:

Question 1.
Obtain information on simple methods of spotting the adulteration in foodstuffs and try them out.

Class 6 Science Chapter 7 Nutrition and Diet Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct alternative:

Question 1.
Vitamin ……………. and vitamin …………….. dissolve easily in water.
(a) A, B
(b) B, C
(c) B, D
(d) B, E
Answer:
(b) B, C

Question 2.
……………. carries oxygen to all parts of the body.
(a) Calcium
(b) Iron
(c) Iodine
(d) Sodium?
Answer:
(b) Iron

Question 3.
Deficiency of vitamin ……………. causes excessive bleeding after an injury.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) K
(d) D
Answer:
(c) K

Question 4.
In accordance with the food pyramid, the proportion of ……………. should be least in our diet.
(a) cereals
(b) fruits
(c) milk
(d) oil
Answer:
(d) oil

Question 5.
……………. is a rich source of vitamin C.
(a) Carrot
(b) Amla
(c) Meat
(d) Milk
Answer:
(b) Amla

Question 6.
Children of growing age need to get approximately ……………. to ……………. calories from the food they eat.
(a) 1500-2000
(b) 3150-4150
(c) 2000-2500
(d) All of them
Answer:
(c) 2000-2500

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
All food that we consume during the day is together called our ………. .
Answer:
diet

Question 2.
………….. convert milk into yogurt.
Answer:
Probiotics.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Pick out the odd one:

Question 1.
Chocolate, chapatti, banana, milk
Answer:
Chocolate

Question 2.
Rice, chapatti, carrot, dal.
Answer:
Carrot

Question 3.
Scurvy, Rickets, Beriberi, Goitre.
Answer:
Goitre

Question 4.
Vitamin A, Vitamin C, Vitamin D, Vitamin E
Answer:
Vitamin C

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Why do living things need food and water?
Answer:
Living things take food and water and use them for:

1. Obtaining energy
2. Growth of the body
3. Carrying out day to day functions of the body.
4. Fighting against diseases

Question 2.
Name the main nutrients in our food.
Answer:
There are six main nutrients in our food. They are:

1. Carbohydrates
2. Fats
3. Proteins
4. Fibres
5. Vitamins
6. minerals

Question 3.
How do we get energy from the food?
Answer:

1. We get energy in the form of heat from the food we eat.
2. Heat is measured in kilocalories (calories).
3. Hence, the energy in food items is also measured in kilocalories (calories).

Question 4.
Vitamin C rich food should be eaten raw. Why?
Answer:

1. Vitamin C is very sensitive to heat and light.
2. It is destroyed easily during cooking. Hence, Vitamin C rich food should be eaten raw.

Question 5.
What is balanced diet? Give its significance.
Answer:
A diet containing adequate quantities of all nutrients is called as balanced diet. Significance of a balanced diet are:

1. An increased capacity to work.
2. Good physical and mental health.
3. Increased capacity to fight/resist diseases.
4. Helps in proper growth of the body.

Question 6.
What is obesity? How to avoid obesity?
Answer:

• Obesity is the state of being overweight.
• Junk food eaten frequently causes obesity.
• Obesity is not good for health.

To avoid obesity:

1. Have a balanced diet.
2. Eat whole grains, fruits and vegetables with their skins.
3. Increase use of bicycles.
4. Play more outdoor games.
5. Do not eat if you are not hungry.
6. Do not watch T.V while eating.
7. Avoid precooked, packaged food.
8. Exercise regularly.

Write short notes.

Question 1.
Vitamins:
Answer:
1. Vitamins are vital substances required by our body in small quantities. They help to improve the body’s resistance to diseases. Their deficiency can lead to various diseases, e.g.: deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness and that of Vitamin D causes rickets. The sources of vitamins are vegetables, fruits, milk, fish, meat etc.
2. There are two kinds of vitamins – water soluble vitamins and water insoluble vitamins.
3. Vitamin B and Vitamin C are water soluble vitamins because they dissolve easily in water. They are thrown out of the body through the water in sweat and urine. Hence, a regular supply of these vitamins is essential. B₁₇B₂, B₃, B₆, B₉, and Bp are the types of vitamin B.
4. Vitamins A, D, E and K are insoluble in water but are fat soluble vitamins. They get stored in the body.

Question 2.
Probiotics:
Answer:

1. The useful microorganisms which convert milk into yoghurt are present in yoghurt and buttermilk are called probiotics.
2. Lakhs of such useful microorganisms are present in our intestine.
3. They are essential for our health.
4. Hence, to maintain them in our body we should include food rich in probiotics in our daily diet.

Question 3.
Junk food:
Answer:

1. Foods which gives us energy but do not supply the necessary nutrients are called junk food.
2. Foods like chocolate, pizzas, burgers, noodles, fried foods like pakodas are junk food.
3. These foods contain refined flour, sugar and oil in large proportion.
4. If we consume these foods frequently, our body experiences shortage of proteins, vitamins and minerals.
5. This may lead to malnutrition and obesity.

Question 4.
Adulteration of food:
Answer:
To earn more profits, cheaper substances of low quality called adulterants, are mixed with the foodstuffs. The mixing adulterants to foodstuffs is called adulteration of food. Adulterants may be poisonous or harmful and such food is impure and unfit for consumption.
Some of the adulterants added to foodstuffs are given below:

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Deficiency of vitamin B and C are common in our body.
Answer:

1. Vitamin B and vitamin C are water soluble vitamins.
2. They are thrown out of the body through the water in sweat and urine.
3. Hence, a regular supply of these vitamins is essential.
4. If we don’t intake food rich in these vitamins, deficiency occurs.

Question 2.
Exposure to sunlight is essential.
Answer:

1. On exposure to sunlight our body synthesizes Vitamin D from substances in milk, fish, eggs and butter.
2. Its deficiency causes softening of bones (Rickets).
3. Vitamin D helps in absorbing calcium and phosphorous for healthy bones and teeth.
4. Hence, exposure to sunlight is essential.

Complete the tables given below:

1.

2.

3.

Using the food items given below, prepare a balanced diet pyramid.
[Chapatti, banana, carrot, butter, Nan, egg, bread, cheese, dal, spinach, milk]
Answer:

Can you recall?

Question 1.
Which are the various groups of foodstuff? Which main constituents of food do we get?
Answer :
The various groups of foodstuffs are:

1. Milk and milk products, meat, fish, eggs.
2. Cereals and pulses
3. Vegetables and fruits.
4. Fatty substances oil, butter and ghee.

There are six main nutrients in our food: carbohydrates, fats, proteins, fibres, vitamins and minerals.

Question 2.
What trouble do we have to face if we do not get enough fibre from our daily diet?
Answer:
Fibres help in excretion of food, if we do not get enough fibre we will face indigestion and stomach-ache.

Question 3.
What care must be taken to make sure that fibre is not lost or removed from the food we get?
Answer:
We must not over-cook the foodstuff containing fibres. Fruits should be eaten raw.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Natural Resources – Air, Water and Land Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Living World Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Proper Class 6 Science Textbook Solutionsties
• Substances in Daily Use Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition and Diet Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Our Skeletal System and the Skin Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion and Types of Motion Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Types of Force Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 8 Science Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Write proper word In the blank space:

Question a.
The SI unit of force is the ………..
(dyne, newton, joule)
Answer:
The SI unit of force is the newton.

Question b.
The air pressure on our body is equal to the …………. pressure.
(atmospheric, sea bottom, space)
Answer:
The air pressure on our body is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

Question c.
For a given object, the buoyant force in liquids of different ………… is ………….. .
(the same, density, different, area)
Answer:
For a given object, the buoyant force in liquids of different density is the same.

Question d.
The SI unit of pressure is ………………
(N/m³, N/m², kg/m², Pa/m²)
Answer:
The SI unit of pressure is N/m².

2. Make a match.

Question a.

Answer:

3. Answer the following questions in brief. 

Question a.
A plastic cube is released in water. Will it sink or come to the surface of water?
Answer:
It will come to the surface of water.
[Note: This is because its density is less than that of water. When it floats, the unbalanced force acting on it is zero.]

Question b.
Why do the load carrying heavy vehicles have large number of wheels?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The greater the surface area, the less is the pressure produced. Load carrying heavy vehicles have large number of wheels so that the load (weight, force) is distributed over large surface area of the wheels in contact with the road. Hence, the pressure decreases and the tyres do not burst.

Try this :
Pressure of a liquid:

Activity 1:
Take a plastic bottle. Take a 10 cm long piece of a glass tube on which a rubber balloon can be fitted. Warm up one end of the glass tube and gently push it into the bottle at about balloon inflates. What is observed? The pressure of water acts on the side of the bottle as well.

[Note: Here, the area of cross section of the tube remains the same. As the level of the water in the bottle rises, the mass of the water increases resulting in increase in the weight. As the applied force increases, the pressure increases. Therefore, the balloon increases in size.]

Activity 2:
Take a plastic bottle. Pierce it with a thick needle (or with a hot nail) at the points 1, 2, 3 as shown in the Fig. Fill water in the bottle up to full height. A shown in the figure, water jets will be seen emerging and projecting out. The water jet emerging from the hole at the top will fall closest to the bottle. The jet from the lowest hole falls farthest from the bottle.

Also, jets coming out from the two holes at the same level fall at the same distance from the bottle. What is understood from this? At any one level, the liquid pressure is the same. Also, the pressure increases as the depth of the liquid increases.

Question c.
How much pressure do we carry on our heads? Why don’t we feel it?
Answer:
The air pressure at the sea level is about 101 × 10³ Pa. This is the pressure that we carry on our heads. The cavities in our body are filled with air, and arteries and veins are filled with blood. Their pressure balances the pressure due to the atmosphere. Hence, we don’t feel the atmospheric pressure.

4. Why does it happen?

Question a.
Why does it happen? A ship dips to a larger depth in freshwater as compared to marine water.
Answer:
The buoyant force acting on a body is proportional to the density of the fluid in which the body is immersed. The density of freshwater is less than that of marine water. Hence, the buoyant force on a body in freshwater is less than that in marine water. Therefore, a ship dips to a larger depth in freshwater as compared to marine water.

Question b.
Why does it happen? Fruits can easily he cut with a sharp knife.
Answer:

1. It is easy to cut vegetables. fruits with a sharp knife. A blunt knife does not work here.
2. The force exerted perpendicularly on a unit area is called ‘pressure’
   
3. Presently we are considering only the force acting on an area in a direction perpendicular to it.

Question c.
Why does it happen? The wall of a dam is broad at its base.
Answer:
1. The pressure at a point in a liquid is proportional to the height of the liquid column above it. Hence, the pressure of water in a dam is much greater at the bottom of the dam than at the top.
2. To withstand this high pressure, the wall of a dam is made stronger and thicker (broad) at the base than at the top.

Question d.
Why does it happen? If a stationary bus suddenly speeds up, passengers are thrown in the backward direction.
Answer:
1. When passengers sit or stand in a stationary bus, they are in a state of rest. When the bus suddenly speeds up, the lower (parts of their body in contact with the bus acquire the speed of the bus.
2. The upper parts of their body, however, continue to be in the state of rest due to inertia. Hence, they are thrown in the backward direction.

5. Complete the following tables. 

Question a.

Answer:
Using the formula,
density = mass/volume:

Question b.

Answer:
Using the formula, relative density = density of a metal/density of water:

Question c.

Answer:
Using the formula, pressure = weight/area:

6. The density of a metal is 10.8 × 10³ kg/m³. Find the relative density of the metal.

Question a.
The density of a metal is 10.8 × 10³ kg/m³. Find the relative density of the metal.
Solution:
Data: Density of the metal = 10.8 × 10³ kg/m³
density of water = 10³ kg/m³
relative density of the metal = ?

The relative density of the metal = 10.8.

7. The volume of an object is 20 cm³ and the mass is 50 g. The density of water is 1 gm^-3. Will the object float on water or sink in water?

Question a.
The volume of an object is 20 cm³ and the mass is 50 g. The density of water is 1 gm^-3. Will the object float on water or sink in water?
Solution :

It is greater than the density of water.
Hence, the object will sink in water.

8. The volume of a plastic-covered sealed box is 350 cm³ and the box has a mass 500 g. Will the box float on water or sink in water? What will be the mass of water displaced by the box?

Question a.
The volume of a plastic-covered sealed box is 350 cm³ and the box has a mass 500 g. Will the box float on water or sink in water? What will be the mass of water displaced by the box?
Solution:

It is greater than that of water.
Hence, the box will sink in water.
The volume of water displaced by the box (V) = the volume of the box = 350 cm³

∴ The mass of water displaced by the box = 1 g.cm^-3 × 350 cm³ = 350 g.

Project:

Question a.
Video record all the experiments (Try it) in this chapter with the help of mobile phone and send to others.

Class 8 Science Chapter 3 Force and Pressure Additional Important Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks

Question 1.
The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its …………. .
Answer:
The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its inertia.

Question 2.
Pressure = ……………
Answer:

Question 3.
1 bar = ……………….. N/m².
Answer:
1 bar = 10⁵ N/m².

Question 4.
1 atmosphere = ………….. Pa.
Answer:
1 atmosphere = 101 × 10³ Pa.

Question 5.
The SI unit of density is …………. .
Answer:
The SI unit of density is kg/m³

Write proper word In the blank space:

Question 1.
According to Archimedes’ principle, the magnitude of the force of buoyancy acting on a body is …………. .
(Vρg, Vρ/g, Vρm, mρg)
Answer:
According to Archimedes’ principle, the magnitude of the force of buoyancy acting on a body is Vρg.

Question 2.
The pascal is the unit of ……………. .
(velocity, pressure, mass, force)
Answer:
The pascal is the unit of pressure.

Question 3.
Keeping the surface area constant, if the applied force is doubled, the pressure …………….. .
(becomes double, remains the same, becomes four times, becomes half)
Answer:
Keeping the surface area constant, if the applied force is doubled, the pressure becomes double.

State whether the following statements are True or False:

Question 1.
The density of water is 1000 g/cm³.
Answer:
False. [The density of water is 1000 kg/m³ (or 1 g/cm³)]

Question 2.
Force and weight have the same units.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is about 10⁶ dynes/cm².
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The buoyant force due to a liquid is proportional to the acceleration due to gravity.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
Answer:
False. (Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude.)

Question 6.
Pressure due to a given force is directly proportional to the area on which the force acts.
Answer:
False. (Pressure due to a given force is inversely proportional to the area on which the force acts.)

Question 7.
When a body is completely immersed in a liquid, the buoyant force acting on it due to the liquid is proportional to the volume of the liquid displaced by the body.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
The density of a material is useful to determine its purity.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
One tends to slip over a banana peel on the street and one can slip due to mud are events that occur due to reduced friction.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Frictional force is electromagnetic in origin.
Answer:
True.

Identify the odd term:

Question 1.
Density, Pressure exerted by a gas, Mass, Force.
Answer:
Force. (Force is a vector quantity; other quantities are scalar quantities.)

Question 2.
Lactometer, Hydrometer, Voltmeter, Submarine.
Answer:
Voltmeter. (Its working is not based on Archimedes’ principle. The working of a lactometer, hydrometer and submarine is based on Archimedes’ principle.)

Rewrite the following table in such a way that Column 2 and Column 3 will match with Column 1:

Question 1.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which of the following has more inertia? A ₹ 10 coin and a ₹ 1 coin.
Answer:
A ₹ 10 coin has more inertia than a ₹ 1 coin.

Question 2.
Name the physical quantity expressed in pascal.
Answer:
Pressure is expressed in pascal.

Question 3.
State the SI unit of pressure.
Answer:
The SI unit of pressure is N/m², also called the pascal.

Question 4.
Name the property of a liquid due to which it exerts an upward force on an object immersed in it.
Answer:
Buoyancy is the property of a liquid due to which it exerts an upward force on an object immersed in it.

Question 5.
Name the principle used in designing ships and submarines.
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle is used in designing ships and submarines.

Question 6.
What is specific gravity?
Answer:
The specific gravity of a substance is another name used for relative density, i. e., the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of water.

Question 7.
State any one factor on which the pressure exerted by a liquid at a point inside the liquid depends.
Answer:
The pressure exerted by a liquid at a point inside the liquid depends on the density of the liquid.

Question 8.
State any one factor on which the buoyant force due to a liquid depends.
Answer:
The buoyant force due to a liquid depends on the density of the liquid.

Question 9.
Name the device used to determine the purity of a sample of milk.
Answer:
The lactometer is used to determine the purity of a sample of milk.

Question 10.
Name the device used to determine the density of a liquid.
Answer:
The hydrometer is used to determine the density of a liquid.

Question 11.
Name two instruments whose working is based on Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
Working of the lactometer and hydrometer is based on Archimedes’ principle.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Give three examples to show that a force acts on two bodies through an interaction between them.
Answer:

1. Consider a car at rest on a level (plane) road. If it is pushed from behind, it moves in the forward direction.
2. Iron nails get attracted to the poles of a magnet and stick to the magnet.
3. The moon revolves around the earth.

Question 2.
What is a contact force? Give one example.
Answer:
A force that acts through a direct contact of two objects or via one more object, is called a contact force.
Example: If a ball at rest on the ground is kicked, it starts moving.

Question 3.
What is a non contact force? Give one example.
Answer:
A force that acts between two objects even if the two objects are not in contact, is called a non contact force.
Example: The earth revolves around the Sun.

Use your brainpower!
Make a list of some more examples in which contact and non contact forces are applied. Write the types of force.
Answer:
1. Some examples in which contact forces are applied:

• to cut an apple with a knife (muscular force, frictional force)
• to lift a ball lying on the ground (muscular force, frictional force)

2. Some examples in which non contact forces are applied:

• the motion of the earth around the Sun (gravitational force)
• the motion of an electron around the nucleus of an atom (mainly the electric force).

Question 4.
In the following examples, state whether the force is a contact force or non contact force:

1. a reluctant dog is being pulled by his master
2. a boy playing football is kicking the ball away
3. when iron nails are brought near a magnet, they are attracted to the poles of the magnet and stick to the magnet
4. a coconut is falling from the coconut tree
5. when a comb is rubbed against hair, small pieces of paper kept on a table get attracted to the comb
6. when brakes are applied to a moving bicycle, it stops after some time

Answer:

1. contact force
2. contact force
3. non contact force
4. non contact force
5. non contact force
6. contact force.

Question 5.
Give one example in which frictional force is useful.
Answer:
While walking, we push the ground behind with our feet. In the absence of friction between the ground and the lower surface of our feet, we will slip and will not be able to walk.
[Note: Frictional force is electromagnetic in origin.]

Try this: 
Take two plastic bottles with rectangular shape. Close their openings by fitting the lids tightly. Keep two small bar magnets on them and fix them neatly using a sticking tape.

Fill a big plastic tray with water and leave the two bottles floating with magnets at the top. Take one bottle near the other. If the north pole of the magnet is near the south pole of the other magnet, the bottles will head towards each other, because unlike poles attract each other.

Observe what will happen when the directions of the bottles are changed. We can observe change in the motion of the bottles without any direct contact. This means that there exists a non contact force between the two magnets.

Observation: When the directions of the bottles are changed, if the north pole of one magnet is near the north pole of the other magnet (or the south pole of one magnet is near the south pole of the other magnet), the bottles will move away from each other because like poles repel each other.

Use your brain power!

Question.
You have learnt about static electricity in the previous standard. Electrostatic force is a non contact force. To verify this, which experiment will you perform?
Answer:

Do not switch on the fan in the room. Keep very small pieces of paper on the table. Rub a plastic comb against hair and bring it near the bits of paper. You will find that the bits of paper are attracted by the comb. The comb, on rubbing acquires electrostatic charge. It induces opposite charges on the bits of paper. Hence, the bits of paper are attracted by the comb.

Try this: 
Balanced forces and unbalanced force:

Take a cardboard box, tie thick string to its two sides and keep it on a smooth table as shown in Fig. Take the strings on both sides of the table. Tie weighing pans to the two ends. Keep equal masses in both the pans. The box does not move on the table.

If more mass is kept in one of the pans than in the other, the box starts moving in the direction of that pan. Equal gravitational force acts on both the pans when equal masses are kept in them. This means balanced forces act on the box, with effective force equal to zero as these are acting in opposite directions.

On the contrary, if more mass is kept in one pan than in the other, the box starts moving in the direction of the pan with more mass. When unequal forces are applied to the box on the two sides, an unbalanced force acts on the box resulting in imparting motion to the box.

Children playing tug of war pull the rope in their respective directions. If the pull of the force is equal on the two sides, the rope does not move. If the force is more on one side, the rope moves in that direction. This means that initially, the two forces are balanced; the rope moves in the direction of higher force when the forces become unbalanced.

Let us see one more example. When a big grain storage container is required to slide on the ground, it becomes easier if two persons push it rather than one person. When the force is applied by both in the same direction, the movement is easy. You may have experienced this. What do we understand from this example?

1. If several forces are applied on an object in the same direction, a force equal to their addition acts on that object.
2. If two forces are applied on one object in directions opposite to each other, a force equal to their difference acts on the object.
3. A force is expressed in magnitude and direction.

Force is a vector quantity. If more than one force are acting on a body, then the effect on the body is due to the net force. When a force is applied on a stationary object it moves, its speed and direction change. Similarly, a force is required to stop an object in motion.

An object can change its shape due to force. While kneading a dough made from flour, the dough changes its shape when a force is applied. A potter applies a force in a specific direction while shaping the pot. Rubber, when stretched, expands. There are many such examples. ,

Question 6.
What are balanced forces?
Answer:
If a body is acted upon by two forces, equal in magnitude, opposite in direction and having the same line of action, the forces are called balanced forces. Here, the net force acting on the body is zero.

Question 7.
What is an unbalanced force?
Answer:
If two or more forces act on a body such that their resultant is not zero, the resultant is an unbalanced force.
[Note: Unbalanced force acting on a body = mass of the body × acceleration of the body.]

Question 8.
Explain: Force has magnitude as well as direction. OR Force is a vector quantity.
Answer:
The effect of force applied to a body depends upon how much force we supply, i.e., the magnitude of the force, and the direction in which the force is applied. Consider a ball at rest on the ground. When ; we push it, it starts rolling. The greater the applied force, the greater is the speed acquired by the ball.

Consider a body moving in a straight line, If we apply a force in the direction of motion of the body, the speed of the body increases. On the contrary, if we apply a force in the direction opposite to that of motion of the body, the speed of the body decreases. These ( examples show that force has magnitude as well as direction, i.e., force is a vector quantity.

Question 9.
Explain the term balanced forces.
Answer:
Consider a rigid body acted upon by two forces, equal in magnitude, opposite in . direction and having the same line of action. These forces are called balanced forces as their net effect on the body is zero.
Example: A glass slab kept on a table is acted upon by two balanced forces: (i) the weight of the slab acting downward and (ii) the upward force on the slab due to the table. Their net effect on the slab being zero, the slab remains at rest.

Question 10.
Explain the term unbalanced force.
Answer:
A single force acting on a body is an unbalanced force. It produces acceleration in the body. If two or more forces act on a body such that their resultant is not zero, the resultant is an unbalanced force responsible for accelerating the body.
Example: When a ball lying on the ground is hit with a bat, the ball is set in motion by the applied force.

Question 11.
What will happen if the force is removed completely when an object acquires a certain speed?
Answer:
If the force is removed completely when an object acquires a certain speed, the object will move with the velocity it has at the instant the force is removed.

For example, a body moving with constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal plane will fly tangentially in the sense of motion if the centripetal force (the force directed towards the centre of the circle) is removed completely.

Always remember:

1. The tendency of an object to remain in its existing state is called its inertia.
2. This is why an object in stationary state remains in the same state and an object in motion remain in the state of motion in the absence of an external force.

Types of inertia:

1. Inertia of the state of rest: An object in the state of rest cannot change its state of rest due to its inherent property. This property is called the inertia of the state of rest.

2. Inertia of motion: The inherent property of an object due to which its state of motion cannot change, is called its inertia of motion. For example, a revolving’ electric fan continues to revolve even after it is switched off, passengers sitting in the running bus get aerk in the forward direction if the bus suddenly stops.

3. Directional inertia: The inherent property of an object due to which the object cannot change the direction of its motion, is called directional inertia. For example, if a vehicle in motion along a straight line suddenly turns, the passengers sitting in it are thrown opposite to the direction of turning.

Try this:
Activity 1:
Take a postcard and keep it on a glass. Keep a 5 Rupee coin on it. Now skilfully push the card. The coin straight away falls in the glass. Have you ever done this?
Answer:
Yes. (Explanation: The postcard moves forward due to the applied force and then falls due to the earth’s gravitational force. In the absence of adequate frictional force between the coin and the postcard, the coin does not move forward with the postcard, but straightaway falls in the glass due to the earth’s gravitational force.)

Activity 2: Hang a half a kg mass from a stand, with a string 1. Tie another string 2 to the mass and keep it hanging. Now pull the string 2 with a jerk. The string 2 breaks but the mass does not fall. Heavy mass does not move. Now pull the string 2 slowly. The string 1 breaks and the mass fall down. This is because of the tension developed in the string 2 due to the mass.

(Explanation: (1) As no force acts on the mass, it remains at rest due to inertia. (2) The transmission of force results in the tension in the string 1. As the string 1 cannot withstand it, it breaks and the mass falls down.)

Question 12.
What are the three types of inertia?
Answer:
Types of inertia:

• inertia of rest
• inertia of motion
• inertia of direction.

Question 13.
What is inertia of rest ? Give two examples of inertia of rest.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body by virtue of which it cannot change its state of rest is called the inertia of rest.
Examples:

1. When we dust a carpet, the carpet moves but the dust particles in it remain at rest due to inertia and hence get separated from the carpet. Hence, the carpet becomes clean.
2. When a bus starts suddenly, the passengers experience a backwarderk due to inertia.

Question 14.
What is inertia of motion? Give two examples of inertia of motion.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body by virtue of which it cannot change its state of motion is called the inertia of motion.
Examples:

1. When a fan is switched off, its blades continue to rotate for some time. Due to internal friction and friction with air, the blades of the fan stop rotating after some time.
2. Passengers in a bus experience a forwarderk when the bus stops suddenly due to application of brakes.

Question 15.
What is inertia of direction? Give two examples of inertia of direction.
Answer:
The inherent property of a body by virtue of which it cannot change its direction of motion is called the inertia of direction.
Examples:

1. While sharpening a knife, sparks fly off tangentially in the sense of motion from the grinding stone.
2. When a vehicle moves, the mud particles sticking to its wheels fly off tangentially in the sense of motion. Hence, mudguards are fitted to vehicles.

Question 16.
Why do we fall sideways when we are sitting in a bus and it takes a sharp turn?
Answer:
When we sit in a bus and the bus is in motion, we are in a state of motion in the same direction. When the bus takes a sharp turn, our body tends to maintain the state of motion in the straight line due to inertia. The portion of our body in firm contact with the seat acquires the motion along the curved path, but the upper portion of our body, tends to move in the initial direction of motion. Hence, we fall sideways.

Question 17.
What happens when you shake a wet piece of cloth? Explain your observation.
Answer:

1. When we shake a wet piece of cloth, water droplets come out.
2. Initially, the wet piece of cloth is at rest. When the cloth is shaken, it is accelerated, but the water droplets in it, due to inertia, tend to maintain the state of rest. Hence, the droplets come out.

Question 18.
If brakes are suddenly applied to a moving car, the passengers in the car are pushed in the forward direction. Explain why.
Answer:
1. The passengers in a moving car have the same velocity as that of the car. When brakes are suddenly applied to the car, it stops suddenly and the lower parts of the passengers’ bodies in contact with the seats, come to rest.

2. The upper parts of their bodies, however, continue to be in a state of motion due to inertia. Hence, the passengers are pushed in the forward direction.

Question 19.
A person alighting from a moving train is likely to fall in the direction of motion of the train. Explain why.
Answer:

1. A person in a moving train has the same velocity as that of the train. After alighting from the moving train his feet come to rest on the platform.
2. However, due to inertia, the upper part of his body continues to be in a state of motion in the direction of motion of the train. Hence, he is likely to fall in the direction of motion of the train.

Try this: 

Activity 3: Take some sharp pointed nails and push them into a wooden plank by hammering on their heads. Now take? a nail and hold it with its head on the plank and hammer it down from the pointed end. When pressing the drawing pins into a drawing board, they get into the board easily. By applying a force using the thumb one can push the pins into the boards. On the contrary, while pressing ordinary pins into the board with a thumb, the thumb may get hurt.

What does this simple experiment tell?
The nail easily penetrates into wood from its pointed end. From this you will notice that when a force is applied on the head of the nail, it is easy to hammer it into the plank.
Explanation: The less the area of the surface on which the force is applied, the greater is the effect of the force.

Question 20.
Define pressure.
Answer:
The force exerted perpendicularly on a unit area is called pressure.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
It is easy to cut vegetables, fruits with a sharp knife. A blunt knife does not work here. Why does this happen?
Answer:
The effect of a given force varies l inversely as the area of the surface on ( which the force is applied. The less the surface area, the greater is the effect of the force. The cutting edge of a sharp ’ knife has less cross sectional area relative to that of a blunt knife. Hence, it is easy to cut vegetables, fruits with a sharp knife, rather than with a blunt knife. For a given force, pressure is inversely proportional to the area of the surface on which the force acts.

Question 21.
State the formula for pressure, Hence, determine the unit of pressure.
Answer:

The SI unit of force is the newton (N) and that of area is m². Therefore, the SI unit of pressure is N/m². It is called the pascal (Pa). 1 Pa = 1 N/m².
[Note: The unit pascal is named in honour of Blaise Pascal (1623-62), French mathematician, physicist and philosopher.]

Question 22.
State the CGS unit of pressure. State the relation betweeen the SI and CGS units of pressure.
Answer:
The CGS unit of pressure is the dyne/cm².
IN = 105 dynes, 1m² = (102 cm)² = 104 cm² 1 Pa = 1 N/m² = 105 dynes/104 cm² = 10 dynes/cm².

Question 23.
State the factors on which pressure depends.
Answer:
Pressure depends on the applied force and the area of the surface on which the force is applied.

Question 24.
Explain with a suitable example that pressure varies inversely as the area of the surface on which the force is applied, if the force remains constant.
Answer:
The tip of a pointed nail has an extremely small area, while that of a blunt nail has a comparatively large area. A given force creates a large pressure on the pointed nail and it can be easily hammered into the wood, while a very less pressure is created on the blunt nail and it cannot be easily hammered into the wood.

This shows that pressure varies inversely as the area of the surface on which the force is applied, if the force remains constant. If the same force is applied to surfaces having different areas, the pressure is more on the surface having a smaller area.

[Note: The bottom surface of a camel’s feet is broad. Hence, the camel’s weight acts on a large surface area. This reduces the pressure on the sand. Hence, the camel’s feet do not penetrate deep into the sand. Therefore, it becomes easier for the camel to walk on sand.]

Question 25.
With neat diagrams, describe an experiment to show that pressure increases if the surface area is decreased, keeping the applied force the same.
Answer:
Take a brick measuring 20 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm. Take some clay in a glass trough. Add water to it and knead it into a soft dough. Place the brick on the dough with one of its faces measuring 20 cm x 10 cm in contact with the dough. Observe how deep the brick penetrates into the dough.

Clean the brick and place it on the dough with one of its faces measuring 10 cm x 5 cm in contact with the dough. Observe how deep the brick penetrates into the dough. You will find that the brick penetrates deeper in this case than that in the first case.

• In the first case, the weight of the brick acts on a surface area of 200 cm².
• In the second case, the weight of the brick acts on a surface area of 50 cm².
• This shows that pressure increases if the surface area is decreased, keeping the applied force the same.

Question 26.
State the unit for pressure used in atmospheric science. How is it related to the unit pascal?
Answer:
In atmospheric science, the unit used for pressure is the bar. 1 bar = 10 Pa (pascal).

Try this:

Question 1.
Do the activity as depicted in Figure What is seen?
Answer:
In Fig.(a), the plank is horizontal. In Fig.(b), four books are placed side by side on the plank. The plank bends slightly due to the pressure produced by the weight of the books.

In Fig.(c), the four books are placed one above the other in the middle of the plank. Here the area of the surface of the plank on which the force acts is reduced by a factor of four relative to the earlier case. Hence, the plank bends considerably.
[Note: This shows that for a given force, pressure varies inversely as the area of the surface on which the force acts.]

Use your brainpower! 

Question 1.
You must have seen a vegetable vendor carrying a basket on her head. She keeps a twisted piece of cloth on the head, below the basket. How does it help?
Answer:
Keeping a twisted piece of cloth on the head increases the area of the surface on which the weight of the basket containing vegetables acts. Hence, the pressure produced by the force (weight) is reduced and it becomes easier to carry the basket.

Question 2.
We cannot stand at one place for a long time. How then can we sleep on a place for 8 and odd hours?
Answer:
When we stand, our weight acts on relatively small surface area, resulting in increased tension on the muscles of our legs. Hence, we cannot stand at one place for a long time. When we sleep, our weight acts on relatively large surface area, resulting in comparatively reduced tension. Therefore, we can sleep on a place for 8 and odd hours.

Question 3.
For skiing on ice, why are long flat skis used?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The greater the surface area, the less is the pressure produced. The skis used to slide over snow are long and flat so that the area is increased and hence the pressure is decreased. This makes it easier to slide over snow.

Question 27.
Why do the blades of a pair of scissors have sharp edges?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The less the surface! area, the greater is the pressure produced, The blades of a pair of scissors have sharp edges so that the area is decreased and hence the pressure is increased. This makes cutting • an object such as cloth easier.
[Note: Answers to questions such as why is the blade of an axe sharp? or why is the blade of a saw sharp? can be written on the basis of the answer given above.]

Question 28.
Why does a needle have s sharp point?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the areas of the surface on which the force acts. The less the surface area, the greater is the pressure produced. A needle has a sharp point so that the area is decreased and hence the pressure is increased. This makes the action of piercing easier.

Question 29.
Why do school bags have broad shoulder straps?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force depends on the area of the surface on which the force acts. The greater the surface area, the less is the pressure produced. School bags have broad shoulder straps so that the weight of the bag is distributed over a large surface area thereby decreasing the pressure on the shoulders of the student carrying the bag.

Question 30.
How will the pressure change if the area is doubled keeping the force the same?
Answer:
If the area is doubled, keeping the force the same, the pressure will become half the initial pressure.

Question 31.
How will the pressure change if the force is doubled, keeping the area the same?
Answer:
If the force is doubled, keeping the area the same, the pressure will become double the initial pressure.

Question 32.
State the characteristics of the pressure due to a liquid (or a fluid in general).
OR
Write a short note on the pressure due to a liquid (a fluid in general).
Answer:
Characteristics of the pressure due to a liquid (or a fluid):

1. The pressure at a point in a liquid (or a fluid) is due to the weight of the liquid (fluid) column above that point.
2. It acts on all sides of the container.
3. At a given depth it is the same in all directions.
4. It is independent of the size and shape of the container.
5. It is proportional to the height of the liquid (fluid) column above the given point.
6. It is proportional to the density of the liquid (fluid).
7. It is proportional to the acceleration due to gravity at the given place.

[Note: The pressure exerted by a liquid (or gas or fluid) at a depth h below the free surface of the liquid = hpg, where p is the density of the liquid (or gas or fluid) and g is the acceleration due to gravity.]

Question 33.
Give two examples to show that air exerts equal pressure in all directions.
Answer:

1. When air is filled in a balloon, it acquires its characteristic shape such as round or oval.
2. When a bicycle tube is filled with air, it acquires its characteristic (tube-like) shape throughout. This shows that air exerts equal pressure in all directions.

Question 34.
Whatisafluid?Givetwoeamples.
Answer:
A fluid is a substance which can flow.
Examples:

1. Water (liquid)
2. Air (gas)

[Note: Liquids and gases together are called fluids. Gases have very low viscosity compared to liquids. A liquid with low viscosity flows easily. A liquid with high viscosity does not flow easily.]

Question 35.
Take two rubber balloons. Fill one with water and blow air into the other. Now prick both balloons with a pin. What do you observe?
Answer:
Water and air both come out of the balloons. Air escapes quickly compared to water and produces a loud sound.

Question 36.
State the characteristics of pressure exerted by a fluid.
OR
Write a short note on pressure exerted by a fluid.
Answer:
Characteristics of pressure exerted by a fluid:

1. A fluid due to its weight, exerts pressure on the base as well as the walls of the container that holds it.
2. A fluid exerts pressure on a body immersed in it.
3. The pressure exerted on any confined mass of fluid is transmitted undiminished in all directions.

[Note: The pressure exerted by a fluid is a scalar quantity.]

Question 37.
Take an empty can. Pour small quantity of water in it. Boil this water for a few minutes until the steam has driven out most of the air. Now close the can with the stopper tightly. Allow it to cool by pouring cold water over it. What do you observe?
Answer:
The can gets gradually crushed.
[Note: The steam inside the can condenses to form water as the can cools. Therefore, the pressure inside the can becomes much less than the external pressure of the air. Hence, the can gets crushed.]

Question 38.
Put a folded newspaper on a plastic bag. Blow air into the bag. What do you observe?
Answer:
The plastic bag inflates as air is blown into it. This raises the folded news¬paper put on the bag.

Question 39.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The earth is surrounded by air from all sides. This layer of air is called the atmosphere. Its density is high up to about 16 km from the earth’s surface. Beyond that, up to about 400 km, its density is very low. Air, due to its weight, exerts pressure on the surface of the earth.

The pressure exerted by air or the atmosphere surrounding the earth is known as the atmospheric pressure. It is the ratio of the weight of the air to the area of the surface of the earth. It decreases with altitude as the density of air decreases with altitude and also the weight of the air column above a given place.
[Note: At sea level the atmospheric pressure is about 105 Pa. We do not feel it because the pressure of blood and other fluids in our body balances it.]

Question 40.
State the relation between 1 atmosphere and the pascal.
Answer:
1 atmosphere = (about) 101 × 10³ Pa (pascal)
[Note: The air pressure at the sea level is (about) 1 atmosphere.
1 atmosphere = 101325 Pa.
1 bar = 10³ mbar (millibar)
1 mbar w 10³ Pa (hectopascal)
Atmospheric pressure is expressed in mbar or hectopascal (hPa).]

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
At the sea level the atmospheric pressure 101 × 10³ Pa is acting on a table top of size 1 m². Under such a heavy pressure, why doesn’t the table top crumble down?
Answer:
The air below the table top exerts pressure 101 × 10³ Pa on it in the upward direction. Hence, the table top doesn’t crumble down.

Question 41.
Think – Why?
Question i.
Some people feel their ears popping at the top of a mountain.
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude. At the top of a mountain, it becomes less than the internal pressure in the ear. Hence, some people feel their ears popping at the top of a mountain.

Question ii.
Some people feel breathless as they climb higher and higher on a mountain.
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude. Hence, some people feel breathless as they climb higher and higher on a mountain.

Question iii.
We can enjoy a cold-drink or fruit juice with the help of a straw but can we imagine drinking a cold-drink or fruit juice on the moon using a straw?
Answer:
When we suck air in the straw, the pressure of the air in the straw becomes less than that of the outside air on the cold drink or fruit juice in the bottle (or the glass). Hence, the cold drink or fruit juice rises in the straw and enters our mouth. We can then drink it. There is no atmosphere on the moon. Hence, it is not possible to enjoy a cold drink or fruituice on the moon by using a straw.

Question iv.
People are often advised not to carry fountain pens while travelling by air.
Answer:
The ink in a fountain pen (filled at sea level at atmosphere pressure) may come out through its mouth while travelling by air if the outside pressure becomes less than the pressure in the ink holder of the pen. This can spoil the clothes/purse/bag. Hence, people are often advised not to carry fountain pens while travelling by air.

Question 42.
Why do some people have earache when they travel by an aeroplane?
Answer:
When an aeroplane descends at a high speed, there is an increase in air pressure. This increases the pressure on the ear drum. Hence, some people have earache when they travel by an aeroplane.

Question 43.
Explain why a person may bleed from the nose when at a great height above the sea level.
Answer:
The pressure exerted by the blood in blood capillaries is slightly more than the atmospheric pressure and acts in a direction opposite to that of the atmospheric pressure. Atmospheric pressure decreases with height and at a great height above the sea level, it is very low.

As a result, there arises a difference in the internal and external pressures on the walls of the cells and blood capillaries. If the difference is large, it may cause the cell wall and the blood capillaries to burst. Thus, the capillaries in the nose (and ear) may burst causing bleeding.

Question 44.
When a rubber sucker is pressed onto a flat glass surface, it sticks tightly on the surface. Why? You need a large force to separate it from the surface. Why?
Answer:
When a rubber sucker is pressed onto a flat glass surface, practically all the air between the surfaces of the sucker and the glass is pushed out. The air pressure there becomes much less than the atmospheric pressure. Hence, the sucker sticks to the glass due to the external atmospheric pressure. The atmospheric pressure is about 105 Pa. It is very large. Hence, to work against it to separate the sucker from the glass, a large force is needed.

Question 45.
Describe a simple experiment to demonstrate atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
Fill a glass completely with water (to its brim) and cover it with a flat and stiff card paper (or a piece of glass). Holding your palm on the card, turn the glass upside down and take the palm away from the card.

You will find that the water does not spill. The atmospheric pressure on the card (acting upward) is greater than the pressure of the water in the glass (acting downward). Hence, the water in the glass does not spill.

Question 46.
Explain the working of an ink dropper.
[Application]
Answer:
An ink dropper consists of a tube of glass or plastic, with one end tapering to a narrow opening and the other end fitted with a small rubber bulb. When the narrow open end is dipped into the ink and the rubber bulb is pressed, some air in the tube escapes through the open end. This reduces the air pressure inside the dropper.

On releasing the bulb, the atmospheric pressure on the ink pushes the ink into the dropper. The dropper is then taken out and its open end is held over the open barrel of the pen. The bulb is then pressed so that the ink in the dropper enters the pen.
[Note: The medicine dropper works in the same manner.]

Question 47.
Why is the opening of a dropper very narrow?
Answer:
The pressure produced by a given force is inversely proportional to the area of the surface on which the force acts. The opening of a dropper is very narrow. Hence, its area of cross-section is very small. As a result, even if the dropper has a small amount of ink it, its pressure can equal the atmospheric pressure. As the opening is narrow, it is easier to transfer the ink to the pen. The possibility of ink spilling is very low.

Question 48.
What is the characteristic of the cap of eye drop bottles?
Answer:
The cap of an eye drop bottle is fitted with a dropper.

Question 49.
Explain the working of a syringe
used by children when they play with coloured water. [Application]
Answer:
As shown in the figure, a syringe used by children when they play with coloured water consists of a cylinder made of plastic or metal fitted with a piston. One end of the cylinder is in the form of a narrow

tube. The snugly fitting piston can slide in , and out smoothly. The rod connected to the i piston passes through a hole in the centre of the lid and has a handle at the other end. When the tip of the narrow tube is dipped in coloured water (or any other liquid) and the piston is pushed towards the tip, up to the bottom, most of the air in the cylinder escapes through the tube, reducing the pressure.

When the piston is moved up, the coloured water rises in the part of the cylinder below the piston due to the atmospheric pressure. Finally, the inner pressure equals the atmospheric pressure and no more coloured water enters in or comes out.

To spray the coloured water, the tube is taken out and the piston is moved towards the opening of the tube. As the inner pressure is now greater than the atmospheric pressure, the coloured water gushes out of the narrow opening of the tube.

Question 50.
How does the doctor’s syringe work?
Answer:
As shown in the figure, a syringe used by children when they play with coloured water consists of a cylinder made of plastic or metal fitted with a piston. One end of the cylinder is in the form of a narrow

tube. The snugly fitting piston can slide in , and out smoothly. The rod connected to the i piston passes through a hole in the centre of the lid and has a handle at the other end.

When the tip of the narrow tube is dipped in coloured water (or any other liquid) and the piston is pushed towards the tip, up to the bottom, most of the air in the cylinder escapes through the tube, reducing the pressure. When the piston is moved up, the coloured water rises in the part of the cylinder below the piston due to the atmospheric pressure.

Finally, the inner pressure equals the atmospheric pressure and no more coloured water enters in or comes out. To spray the coloured water, the tube is taken out and the piston is moved towards the opening of the tube. As the inner pressure is now greater than the atmospheric pressure, the coloured water gushes out of the narrow opening of the tube.

The tip of a syringe is fitted with a very fine and hollow needle. The required quantity of medicine can be taken in the syringe with the help of the piston. The medicine can then be injected into the body of a patient using the needle and the piston.

Question 51.
Explain the origin of pressure due to a gas enclosed in a container.
Answer:
Molecules of a gas are in a state of continuous random motion. These molecules possess energy due to motion. When the molecules collide with a wall of the container, they rebound. A large number of molecules collide with the wall every second. Hence, a significant force is exerted on the wall. Pressure is the force per unit surface area. Thus, a pressure is exerted by the gas on a wall of the container.

Try this: 

Buoyant force:
Take a plastic bottle and fix the lid tightly. Now place it in wafer and see. It will float on water. Try and push it into the water. Even when pushed, it continues to float. This experiment can also be done with a plastic hollow ball. Now fill the bottle with water to the fullest capacity and close the lid, and release in water. The bottle will float inside the water. Why does this happen?

The empty plastic bottle floats on the surface of water. On the contrary, the bottle full of water floats inside water but does not go to the bottom. The weight of the empty bottle is negligible as compared with the weight of the water inside.

Such a bottle with water neither floats on the surface, nor does it go to the bottom. This means the force due to gravity acting downwards (fg), must have been balanced by an opposing force in the upward direction (fb) on the bottle filled with water. This force must have originated from the water surrounding the bottle. The upward force acting on the object in water or other fluid or gas is called buoyant force (fg).

Question 52.
Define buoyant force.
Answer:
The upward force acting on the object in water or other fluid or gas is called the buoyant force.

Question 53.
State the factors on which the buoyant force depends.
Answer:
The buoyant force depends upon the volume of the object immersed in the fluid (V), the density of the fluid (ρ1) and the acceleration due to gravity (g) at that place.
[Note: Magnitude of the buoyant force = Vρ1 g.]

Use your brain power!

Question.
While pulling a bucket from a well, the bucket full of water immersed fully in water appears to weigh less than when it has been pulled out of water. Why?
Answer:
1. When a bucket full of water is immersed in water, the net force acting on the bucket = weight of the bucket full of water-the buoyant force exerted by the water on the bucket. The buoyant force due to a fluid is proportional to the density of the fluid.

2. The density of water is much greater than that of air. Therefore, the buoyant force acting on a bucket full of water while it is in water is much greater than that when it is out of water, i.e., in air. Hence, it appears to weigh less, while it is in water than when it has been pulled out of water.

Try this:

Question 1.
Take a piece of thin aluminum sheet and dip it in water in a bucket. What do you observe?
Answer:
It sinks in the water.

Question 2.
Now shape the same piece of aluminium into a small boat and place it on the surface of water. It floats, isn’t it?
Answer:
Yes, the boat floats on the surface of water.

Question 54.
A lemon sinks in a glass filled with water but it floats when we stir in two spoons of salt in the water. Explain why.
Answer:
When salt is dissolved in water, the density of the water increases. The buoyant force is proportional to the density of the liquid. Hence, when the lemon is immersed in the water containing salt, the magnitude
of the buoyant force acting on the lemon becomes greater than the magnitude of the weight of the lemon. Therefore, it floats in water.

Do you know?

How is it decided that an object left in a liquid will get sink in the liquid, will float on the surface, or will float inside the liquid?
1. The object floats if the buoyant force is larger than its weight.
2. The object sinks if the buoyant force is smaller than its weight.
3. The object floats inside the liquid if the buoyant force is equal to its weight. Which forces are unbalanced in the above cases?
Answer:
Unbalanced force:
1. Magnitude of the unbalanced force acting on the object = magnitude of the buoyant force on the object-magnitude of the weight of the object. The direction of the unbalanced force is the direction of the buoyant force.

2. Magnitude of the unbalanced force on the object = magnitude of the weight of the object – magnitude of the buoyant force on the object. The direction of the unbalanced force is the direction of the weight of the object.

3. Here, the unbalanced force is zero.

Try this:

Take a long rubberband and cut it at one point. At one of its ends tie a clean washed stone or a 50 g weight as shown in Figure
Now hold the other end of the rubberband and make a mark there. Keep the stone hanging in air and measure the length of the rubberband from the stone to the mark made earlier.

Now take water in a pot and hold the rubberband at such a height that the stone sinks in it. Again measure the length of the rubberband up to the mark. What is observed? This length is shorter than the earlier length. While dipping the stone in water, length of the stretched rubber gets slowly reduced and is minimum when it sinks completely. What could be the reason for a shorter length of the rubberband in water?

When the stone is sunk in water, a buoyant force acts on it in the upward direction. The weight of the stone acts downwards. Therefore, the force which acts on it in the downward direction is effectively reduced.
(This decreases the downard force on the rubberband. Hence, its length decreases.)

Question 55.
State Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle: When an object is partially or fully immersed in a fluid, a force of buoyancy acts on it in the upward direction. This force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object.
[Note: The two forces mentioned here are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction.]

Question 56.
Using Archimedes’ principle, determine the magnitude of the buoyant force.
Answer:
Let m = mass of the body (object) immersed in the fluid, V = volume of the body, ρ = density of the body, ρ1 = density of the fluid, g = magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity. Suppose that the body is completely immersed in the fluid. Then the volume of the fluid displaced by the body = V. According to Archimedes’ principle, magnitude of the buoyant force = magnitude of the weight of the fluid displaced by the body = mass of the displaced fluid × g = volume of the displaced fluid × density of the fluid × g
(as density = mass/volume)

If the body is partially immersed in the fluid, the volume of the fluid displaced by the immersed part of the body = xV ; here 0 < x < 1.
In this case, the magnitude of the buoyant force

Question 57.
Using the formula for the magnitude of the buoyant force, state under what conditions the body will
1. sink in the fluid
2. float in the fluid
3. remain in equilibrium anywhere within the fluid.
Answer:
Magnitude of the buoyant force on the body = mg \(\left(\frac{\rho_{1}}{\rho}\right)\)
= magnitude of the weight of the body × \(\left(\frac{\rho_{1}}{\rho}\right)\)
1. If the density of the fluid (ρ1) is less than the density of the body (ρ), the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body will be less than the magnitude of the weight of the body. Therefore, the body will sink in the fluid.|

2. If the density of the fluid is greater than that of the body, the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body will be greater than that of the weight of the body. Therefore, the body will float in the fluid.

3. If the density of the fluid is equal to that of the body, the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body will be equal to that of the weight of the body. Therefore, the body will remain in equilibrium anywhere within the fluid.

Use your brain power!

Question.
Explain the observations in the earlier experiments according to the Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
The increase in the length of the rubberband (y) is proportional to the downward force (f) acting on it.
1. When the stone tied to the rubberband is hanging in air, the magnitude of the buoyant force exerted by air on the stone is negligible compared to that of the weight of the stone. Hence, ignoring it, we have f = fg = mg, where m is the mass of the stone and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

2. When the stone is immersed partially in water, f = fg – fb, where fb is the magnitude of the buoyant force exerted by water on the stone.
Now, fg = Vρg and fb = xVρwg, where V = volume of the stone, ρ = density of the stone, xV= volume of the water displaced by the part of the stone immersed in water = volume of the part of the stone immersed in water (x < 1) and ρ = density of water.

This shows that as the stone is gradually lowered in water, x goes on increasing and hence/goes on decreasing. Therefore, elongation (y) of the rubberband goes on decreasing, i.e., the length of the rubberband goes on decreasing.

3. When the stone is completely immersed in water, x becomes maximum, equal to 1. Here, f = fg \(\left(1-\frac{\rho_{\mathrm{W}}}{\rho}\right)\). This is the minimum value of. Here, the elongation of the rubberband is minimum, i.e., the length of the rubberband is minimum.

Question 58.
State the applications of Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
Archimedes’ principle is used in the construction of ships and submarines. The working of the lactometer and hydrometer is based on Archimedes’ principle.
[Note: The hydrometer is used to determine the density or relative density of a liquid.]

Question 59.
If a spring balance is used to weigh a body, will the weight of the body be the same in vacuum and air? Explain why.
Answer:
When a body is suspended in air, the buoyant force acts on the body. Hence, the magnitude of the net downward force on 1 the body = the magnitude of the weight of the body – the magnitude of the buoyant force on the body. Hence, when a spring balance is used to weigh a body, the weight of the body in air is less than that in vacuum.

Question 60.
What is density of a substance? I Obtain its SI unit.
Answer:
The density of a substance is the ratio of its mass to volume.
The SI unit of density = \(\frac{\text { the SI unit of mass }}{\text { the SI unit of volume }}\) = kg/m³
[Note: Density is useful in determining the purity of a substance. The CGS unit of density is g/cm³.
1 kg/m³ = 10³g/(100 cm)³ = 10^-3g/cm³
∴ 1g/cm³ = 1000 kg/m³]

Question 61.
What is relative density of a substance?
Answer:
The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of water.
[Note: Relative density is also called specific gravity. It is a ratio of two equal (same) physical quantities. Hence, it has no unit.]

Question 62.
A piece of wood floats both in water and kerosine. In which liquid does it sink more during floating? Why?
Answer:
The piece of wood sinks more in kerosine than in water during floating. The density of kerosine is less than that of water. The buoyant force on a body is proportional to the density of the liquid in which the body is immersed. When a body floats, the magnitude of the buoyant force acting on the body is equal to that of the weight of the body.

Hence, the volume of the liquid displaced by a floating body is inversely proportional to the density of the liquid. As a result, when a piece of wood floats in kerosine, it displaces greater volume of kerosine compared to the volume of water displaced when the piece of wood floats in water. Hence, it sinks more in kerosine than in water.
[Note: When a body floats in a liquid fb = fg
∴ Vρ1g = Vbρbg
∴ The volume of the liquid displaced by the body is V = Vb \(\frac{\rho_{\mathrm{W}}}{\rho_{1}}\), where Vb is the volume of the body, ρb is the density of the material of the body and ρ1 is the density of the liquid. Thus, V ∝ 1 /ρ1]

Question 63.
State whether the body will float or sink in a liquid if the density of the body is 1. greater than that of the liquid 2. less than that of the liquid 3. equal to that of the liquid.
Answer:

1. The body will sink in the liquid if the density of the body is greater than that of the liquid.
2. The body will float in the liquid if the density of the body is less than that of the liquid.
3. The body will float inside the liquid if the density of the body is equal to that of the liquid.

Question 64.
If the relative density of a body is greater than 1, will it float in water?
Answer:
If the relative density of a body is greater than 1, it will not float in water.
[Note: The relative density of a pin is much greater than 1. But when kept gently on the surface of water, it floats. This is due to the surface tension of water.]

Question 65.
A glass of water has an ice cube floating in water. The water level must touches the rim of the glass. Will the water overflow when the ice melts? Give the reason.
Answer:
The water will not overflow when the ice melts. The water level will remain the same. Ice floats on water because its density is less than that of water. When ice melts, the volume of the water formed is less than the volume of the ice which has melted.

When ice in water melts, this difference equals the volume of the water formed when the part of ice above the surface of water melts. Therefore, the water level remains the same. Hence, there is no overflow of water when the ice melts.

Question 66.
A plastic ball is released underwater. State whether it will sink or come up to the surface of water. Give the reason.
Answer:
A plastic ball released under water will come up to the surface of water. The density of water is greater than that of plastic. Hence, when a plastic ball is under water, the magnitude of the buoyant force exerted by water on the ball is greater than the magnitude of the weight of the ball.

Therefore, the ball will start moving upward. As it comes up with part of the ball above the water surface, the volume of the water displaced by the ball becomes less and hence at a certain stage, the buoyant force and the weight balance each other. Then the ball continues to remain in that state, as the net force on the ball becomes zero.
[Note: Initially, the ball moves slightly up and down near the water surface. The force due to friction with water, opposing the motion of the ball, finally makes the ball steady.]

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Buoyant force.
Answer:
1. When a body is immersed partially or completely in a liquid, the liquid exerts forces on all sides of the body. This force is perpendicular to the surface of the body and equals the product of pressure and area at that point.

2. The resultant of all these forces acts upward. It is called the upthrust or buoyant force.

3. The buoyant force is proportional to (i) the volume of the liquid displaced by the body (ii) the density of the liquid (iii) the acceleration due to gravity. Its magnitude equals the magnitude of the weight of the liquid displaced by the body.

Question 2.
Applications of Archimedes’ principle.
Answer:
1. The working of a lactometer, a device used to determine the purity of a sample of milk, and a hydrometer, a device used to determine the density of a liquid, is based on Archimedes’ principle. The extent to which a lactometer floats (or sinks) depends on the density (and hence purity) of the milk. The same thing is true for a hydrometer. The greater the density of a liquid, the less is the extent to which a body sinks in it.

2. Archimedes’ principle is used in design of ships and submarines. A submarine is provided with large tanks at the front and the back. Its weight can be increased by filling the tanks with sea water or air from compressed air reservoirs. The weight can be decreased by pumping out water from the tanks by forcing compressed air in them. By controlling the weight, it can be made to sink or rise to the surface as desired.

3. The density of a body that floats or sinks in water or kerosine can be determined by. Archimedes’ principle.
4. The density of kerosine can be determined by Archimedes’ principle, using a body of material that is not affected by water and kerosine.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
The tiles are placed over a slushy patch of ground to help cross It.
Answer:

1. Tiles have greater area than the area of our feet.
2. The weight of the person crossing the slushy patch is exerted over a large area of the tiles.
3. Therefore, there is a decrease in the pressure and hence the tiles do not sink much in the slushy patch of ground. This helps to cross the slushy patch of ground.

[Note: If there were no tiles, the feet will come in direct contact with the slushy ground. The area of the feet being less, the weight of the person will act over a smaller area. Therefore. there will be more pressure and hence the feet will sink into the slushy ground.]

Question 2.
Drawing pins have flattened heads.
Answer:

1. The head of a drawing pin is flattened and the other end is pointed.
2. When enough force is applied to the head of the pin, the pressure due to the force on the pointed end increases tremendously and the pin can be easily inserted in the drawing board.
3. When we press the flattened end, the force applied spreads over a larger area. This reduces the pressure of the reaction force acting on the thumb. Hence, the thumb is not injured.
4. If the head of the pin is sharp, then the pressure due to the force would be more and hence the pressure of the reaction force would also be more and the sharp end would prick the thumb causing injury.

Question 3.
An iron nail sinks in water but a ship made from iron floats on water.
Answer:
1. An iron nail sinks in water because its density is more than that of water.
2. A ship made from iron, due to the particular shape given to it, displaces a large amount of water so that the buoyant force acting on the ship due to water balances the weight of the ship. Hence, the ship floats on water.

Question 4.
A piece of iron sinks in water but floats on mercury.
Answer:
The density of iron is more than that of water but less than that of mercury. Hence, a piece of iron sinks in water but floats on mercury.

Question 5.
A sheet of metal that sinks in water can float if shaped like a pan.
Answer:

1. A sheet of metal sinks in water because its density is more than that of water.
2. If the sheet is shaped like a pan, it can displace a large amount of water such that the buoyant force on the pan due to water balances the weight of the pan. Hence, it can float on water.

Solve the following examples:

Problem 1.
(i) Calculate the pressure exerted by the wooden block when it is kept in the vertical position.
Given: The length of the wooden block is 80 cm, the breadth is 50 cm, the thickness is 20 cm and the weight is 500 N
(ii) Also calculate the pressure when the wooden block is kept in the horizontal position with its surface 80 cm × 50 cm touching the floor.

Solution:
Data: F = W = 500 N, l = 80 cm = 0.8 m, b = 50 cm = 0.5 m. h = 20 cm = 0.2 m
(i) A = bh = 0.5 m × 0.2 m = 0.1 m²

The pressure exerted in the vertical position of the block = 5000 N/m² or 5000 Pa.

(ii) A = lb = 0.8 m × 0.5 m = 0.4 m²

The pressure exerted in the horizontal position of the block = 1250 N/m² or 1250 Pa.

Problem 2.
Measure the length, breadth, height and mass of a rectangular tiffin box. Find the weight of the box and calculate the pressure in two different positions as in Ex. (1) above.
Solution:
Let l = 0.25 m, 6 = 0.1 m, h = 0.05 m, F = W= 0.5 N
(i) A = bh = 0.1 m × 0.05 m = 0.005 m²

(ii) A = lb = 0.25 m × 0.1 m = 0.025 m²

Problem 3.
A force of 1000 N is applied over an area 50 cm × 20 cm. Find the corresponding pressure.
Solution:
Data: F = 1000 N,
A = 50 cm × 20 cm = 0.5 m × 0.2 m = 0.1 m², pressure = ?

The pressure = 10 N/m².

Problem 4.
A metal block has thmensions 10 cm × 5 cm × 2 cm and the density of the metal is 8 × 10³ kg/m³. It is kept on a table with the face 10 cm × 5 cm in contact with the table. Find the force and pressure exerted by the block on the table. (g = 9.8 m/s²)
Solution :
Data : 1 = 10 cm, b = 5 cm,
h = 2 cm, p= 8 × 10 kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s²,
A = lb = 10cm × 5cm = 50cm² = 50 × 104m²
= 5 × 10^-5m², force =?, pressure = ?
Volume of the block = lbh =
10 cm × 5 cm × 2 cm= 100 cm³
= 100 × 10^-6 m³ = 1 × 10^-4m³
Mass of the block = volume × density
(∵ density = mass/volume)
∴Mass of the block,
m = 1 × 10^-4 m³× 8 × 10³ kg/m³ = 0.8 kg
Weight of the block = mg = 0.8 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 7.84 N
∴ The force exerted by the block on the table = 7.84 N.
force 7.84 N

= 1.568 × 10³ N/m² or 1.568 × 10³ Pa
The pressure exerted by the block on the table = 1.568 × 10 N/m2 or 1.568 × 10³ Pa.

Problem 5.
A body of volume loo cm³ is immersed completely in water. Find the weight of the water displaced by the body. 1g = 9.8 m/s². p (water) = kg/m³]
Solution :
Data: V = 100 cm³ = 100 × 10^-6 m³
= 1 × 10 m³, p(water) = 10 kg/m³
g = 9.8 m/s², weight of the displaced water ?
Density = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)
∴ Mass = volume × density
Volume of the water displaced by the body = l × 10^-4 m³
∴Mass of the water displaced,
m = l × 10^-4 m³ × 10 kg/m³ = 0.1 kg
∴Weight of the water displaced
= mg = 0.1 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 0.98 N.
The weight of the water displaced by the body = 0.98 N.

Problem 6.
A body of mass 200 g and volume 50 cm³ is put in a bucket containing water. Will it float or sink ?
[ρ(water) = 1 g/cm³]
Solution:
Data: m = 200 g, V= 50 cm³,
ρ (water) = 1 g/cm³
Density(ρ) = \(\frac{\text { mass }}{\text { volume }}\)
∴ ρ (body) = \(\frac{200}{50 \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}\)
It is greater than the density of water.
Hence, the body will sink in water.

Problem 7.
A body of mass 200 g and volume 400 cm³ is put in a bucket containing water. Will it float or sink?
[ρ (water)=1 g/cm³]
Solution:
Proceed as above.
ρ (body) = \(\frac{200 \mathrm{~g}}{400 \mathrm{~cm}^{3}}\) = 0.5 g/cm³
It is less than the density of water.
∴ The body will float in water.

Problem 8.
The mass of a tile is 500 g. If the density of the tile is 2.5 g/cm³, what will be the weight of the tile when it is completely immersed in water?
(g = 9.8 m/s², ρ(water) = 1000 kg/m³)
Solut10n:
Data: m = 500, g = 0.5 kg, ρ
(tile) = 2.5 g/cm³ = 2500 kg/m³, g = 9.8 m/s²,
ρ (water) = 1000 kg/m³, weight of the tile when completely immersed in water (also called the apparent weight) = ?
ρ = \(\frac{m}{V}\)

∴ Volume of water displaced by the tile
= 2 × 10^-4 m³
∴ Mass of water displaced by the tile
m’ = ρ (water) V = 1000 kg/m³ × 2 × 10^-4 m³
= 0.2kg
∴ Magnitude of the weight of this water
= mg = 0.2 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 1.96 N
∴ Buoyant force exerted on the tile = 1.96 N
Magnitude of the weight of the tile =
mg = 0.5 kg × 9.8 m/s² = 4.9 N
∴ Weight of the tile when completely immersed in water (apparent weight) = weight of the tile in air-buoyant force on the tile
= 4.9 N – 1.96 N = 2.94 N(downward)

Examples For Practice:

[g = 9.8 m/s², ρ (water) = 10³ kg/m³ = 1 g/cm³]

Question 1.
Calculate the relative density of a metal having density 7.5 g/cm³.
Answer:
7.5

Question 2.
Find the density of steel if its relative density is 8 and the density of water is 10 kg/m³.
Answer:
8 × 10³ g/cm³

Question 3.
A body has mass 200 g and volume 100 cm³. Find its density and relative density.
Answer:
2 g/cm³, 2

Question 4.
If the relative density of a material is 2.5, find its density.
Answer:
2.5 × kg/m³ or 2.5 g/cm³

Question 5.
A force of 100 N is applied on an area 40 cm × 25cm. Find the corresponding pressure.
Answer:
10³ N/m²

Question 6.
If the pressure exerted on an area 10 cm × 10 cm is 1000 dynes/cm², find the applied force.
Answer:
10⁵ dynes

Question 7.
A metal block of mass 10 kg is kept on a table. If the contact surface area Is 100 cm², find the pressure on the table.
Answer:
9.8 × 10³ N/m² or 9.8 × 10³ Pa

Question 8.
A body of volu.me 50 cm³ is immersed completely in water. Find the weight of the water displaced by the body.
Answer:
0.49 N

Question 9.
A block of mass 100 g and volume 20 cm³ is put in a bucket filled with water. Will it float or sink?
Answer:
The body will sink in water.

Question 10.
Will a block of mass 100g and volume 400 cm³ float or sink in water?
Answer:
The block will float in water.

Question 11.
The volume of a cube is 125 cm³ and its mass is 250 g. It is put in a tub containing water. Will it float or sink?
Answer:
It will sink in water.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 8th Std Science Textbook Solutions 

• Living World and Classification of Microbes Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Health and Diseases Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Pressure Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Current Electricity and Magnetism Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Inside the Atom Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Composition of Matter Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Metals and Nonmetals Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Pollution Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Cell and Cell Organelles Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 7 Science Chapter 9 Heat Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 9 Heat Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Heat Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Fill in the blanks:

Question a.
Maximum heat is absorbed by a ………….. coloured object.
Answer:
black

Question b.
……………. of heat does not require a medium.
Answer:
Radiation

Question c.
Conduction of heat takes place through a ……………. substance.
Answer:
solid

Question d.
The shining surface in a thermos flask decreases the outgoing heat by ……………… .
Answer:
reflection

Question e.
Cooking utensils are made from metals due to their property of ……………… .
Answer:
conduction

Question f.
The earth receives heat from the sun by ………………. .
Answer:
radiation

2. What will absorb heat?
Steel spoon, wooden board, glass vessel, iron griddle (lava), glass, wooden spoon, plastic plate, soil, water, wax.

Question a.
What will absorb heat?
Steel spoon, wooden board, glass vessel, iron griddle (lava), glass, wooden spoon, plastic plate, soil, water, wax.
Answer:
Following will absorb heat fast: steel spoon, iron griddle, water, wax. Remaining objects also obsorb heat but very slowly.

3. Write Answers to the following questions. 

Question a.
How does a fever get lowered by putting a cold compress on the forehead of a patient?
Answer:
The water in the cold compress will evaporate by the heat of fever thus taking some local heat of the body and temperature of the body is lowered, therefore the fever gets lowered by putting a cold compress on the forehead of a patient.

Question b.
Why are the houses in Rajasthan painted white?
Answer:
Rajasthan being a desert, temperature is very high. So there is excess heat. White colour doesn’t absorb the heat but reflects back, so houses will not become hot due to excess heat and inside of the house will be cool. So the houses in Rajasthan are painted white.

Question c.
What are the modes of heat transfer?
Answer:
There are three modes of heat transfer:

1. conduction
2. convection
3. radiation.

Question d.
Explain which mode of heat transfer causes sea breezes and land breezes?
Answer:

1. Unequal heating of air above the sea and land sets up convection currents which cause sea breezes during the day time.
2. The land near the sea is heated by sunlight to a higher temperature than the sea.
3. As the air above the land is heated, it becomes lighter and moves upwards, its place is then taken by cooler air moving from the sea towards the land.
4. Sea breezes are thus set up. At night, the land cools faster than water in the sea. Therefore air above sea water is hotter than air above the land.
5. So cooler air from the land moves towards the sea forming land breeze.

Question e.
Why is the outer coat of the penguins of Antarctica black?
Answer:
The outer coat of the penguins of Antarctica is black because black colour absorbs heat so penguins get lots of heat due to this black colour and they can live easily in very, very cold Antarctica region.

Question f.
Why are heaters fitted near the floor and air conditioners near the ceiling of a room?
Answer:
1. Due to air conditioners, air becomes cool so its density increases and it becomes heavy. So it goes down and warm air with less density comes up and take the place of cold air. This cycle goes on and on and the whole room becomes cool.
2. If it is fitted near the floor then cool air of high density can’t go up and upper air with low density cannot come down and cooling of the room does not take place properly so air conditioners are fitted near the ceiling of a room.
3. Heaters are fitted near the floor. Due to heating, air becomes hot which is lighter than cold air. So it goes up and upper air with high density comes down.
4. This cycle goes on and on and the full room becomes warm. So heaters are fitted near the floor.

4. Give scientific reasons.

Question a.
An ordinary glass bottle cracks when boiling water is poured into it, but a borosil glass bottle does not.
Answer:

1. An ordinary glass bottle cracks when we pour boiling water into it because there is a lot of temperature difference between the inner and outer parts of the glass.
2. The inner part gets hot and expands while the outer part remains cold since glass is a bad conductor of heat.
3. This unequal expansion causes the crack of glass bottle.
4. But the borosil glass bottle has a very high melting point so the temperature difference is very less, hence it doesn’t crack.

Question b.
The telephone wires which sag in summer become straight in winter.
Answer:

1. Telephone wires are made up of copper metal. Metals expand on heating.
2. In summer the copper wire expands, thus the length of the wire increases between the two poles and instead of remaining straight it sags.
3. In winter due to cold, it contracts and comes back to the original position, so it becomes straight in winter.

Question c.
Dewdrops form on the grass in winter.
Answer:

1. During the winter, the temperature of air is low, its capacity to hold the vapour is less.
2. At such times the excess water vapour is transformed into water droplets due to cold. And so the dew drops form on the grass in winter.

Question d.
In winter, why does an iron pillar feel colder than a wooden pole.
Answer:

1. Iron is a metal and metals are very good conductors of heat so it transfers heat at a much faster rate than wood.
2. That means, when we touch them, metals conducts away energy in the form of heat emitted by our hand and temperature of our hand lowers down and we get a cold’ sensation.
3. This is what makes the metal appear colder than the wood.
4. The wood is taking away heat at a much slower rate.

Project:

Question 1.
Make a note of the various examples of heat transfer seen in day-to-day life.

Class 7 Science Chapter 9 Heat Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
………………… is an indicator of the heat in a substance.
Answer:
Temperature

Question 2.
………………. flows from higher temperature to lower temperature.
Answer:
Heat

Question 3.
Transfer of heat from one place to another takes place by ……………. or ……………. .
Answer:
conduction, convection, radiation

Question 4.
During conduction, particles of the substance …………….. in their place.
Answer:
vibrate

Question 5.
In a convection current, warm air travels …………….. .
Answer:
upwards

Question 6.
A …………….. is necessary for the conduction of heat.
Answer:
medium

Question 7.
The ………………. of conduction of heat through a medium depends on the medium.
Answer:
speed

Question 8.
Convection takes place only in …………… medium.
Answer:
fluid

Question 9.
Transfer of heat in the absence of a medium is called ……………… .
Answer:
radiation

Question 10.
Substances through which heat travels easily and quickly are called …………… .
Answer:
good conductors

Question 11.
Substances through which heat travels very slowly are called ………… of heat.
Answer:
bad conductors

Question 12.
Copper is a better ………… of heat than …………. .
Answer:
conductor, iron

Question 13.
………………. made first thermos flask in 1892.
Answer:
Sir James Dewar

Question 14.
Neither conduction nor convection of the heat occurs in thermos flask due to the ……………… .
Answer:
vacuum.

Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Say whether true or false, correct and rewrite the false statements:

Question 1.
Glass is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In a thermos flask, hot things remain hot and cold things become warm.
Answer:
False. In a thermos flask, hot things remain hot and cold things remain cold.

Question 3.
Radiation of heat depends upon the colours of the outer surface of the body.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
During radiation, the particles of the medium vibrate.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Copper is better conductor of heat than iron.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
During conduction, particles of the conductor leave their original place.
Answer:
False. During conduction, particles of the conductor do not leave their original place, but only vibrate in their own place.

Question 7.
Hot water is heavier than cold water.
Answer:
False – Hot water is lighter than cold water.

Question 8.
A convection current always travels down wards.
Answer:
False – A convection current always travels upwards.

Question 9.
Every warm substance continuously emits heat in all directions around itself.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Air is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
True

Define the following:

1. Conduction
2. convection
3. radiation
4. Transfer of heat.

Answer:

1. Conduction: The transfer of heat from one end of a solid substance to the other, without the particles leaving their original place is called conduction.
2. Convection: Transfer of heat in fluids due to formation of currents is called convection.
3. Radiation: Transfer of heat in all directions in the absence of a medium is called radiation.
4. Transfer of heat: The flow of heat from one place to another is called transfer of heat.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Cricketers wear white clothes when playing in the sun.
Answer:
White clothes do not absorb heat but reflect back therefore cricketers wear white clothes while playing in the sun.

Question 2.
Sawdust is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer:
Sawdust is a bad conductor of heat because heat travels very slowly through it.

Question 3.
We can feel the heat of table lamp under it.
Answer:
We can feel the heat of table lamp under it because every warm substance continuously emits heat in all directions around itself by radiation.

Question 4.
Medium is necessary for conduction.
Answer:
Conduction is the transfer of heat from one end of a substance to another. Transfer of heat has to be done by particles of a substance and particles of a substance are particles of a medium. Hence, a medium is necessary for conduction.

Question 5.
Explain the structure and functioning of thermometer containers-
Answer:

1. Thermoware containers keep food hot. These containers consist two boxes fitted one inside the other.
2. The outer box is made up of plastic while the inner one is made up of a shiny metal, there is air between the two boxes.
3. Air is a bad conductor of heat. Thus, heat is not lost by either conduction or convection. Also, the shiny inner surface prevents heat loss due to radiation.
4. The container has a plastic lid. This also prevents any transfer of heat.

Question 6.
what is mailed infrared camera? Write its uses.
Answer:

1. Radiation of heat takes place from many objects in nature such as trees, mountains, stones and roads.
2. A camera has been developed which uses these radiations to make our surroundings visible even at night. This is called infrared camera.
3. It is used to keep watch on the movements of the enemy during the night.
4. It is also used to track the movements of animals in the wild.

Question 7.
Why is mercury used in a thermometer?
Answer:
Mercury is used in a thermometer because of the following properties.

1. There is a big difference between the freezing point and boiling point of mercury. Its freezing point is – 39° C and its boiling point is 357° C.
2. It is shiny and can be easily seen.
3. It does not stick to glass.
4. It expands regularly and uniformly in all conditions.

Question 8.
Write the difference between Conduction, Convection and Radiation.
Answer:

Question 9.
Draw and explain about the Thermos flask or Dewar flask.
Answer:

Principle:
1. As there is no medium in the vacuum between the two bottles, no transfer of heat can take place by conduction or convection.
2. Radiant heat is reflected back inside from the shiny surfaces.
3. Glass and plastic are bad conductors of heat hence they do not transfer heat either into or out of the bottle. Thus transfer of heat does not take place by any of the three modes, namely conduction, convection or radiation Hence, hot things in the flask remain hot and cold things cold.

Structure:

1. A thermos flask consists of two thin glass bottles fitted one inside the other.
2. The inner surfaces of the bottles have a silver coating to shine like a mirror.
3. A vacuum is created in the space between the two bottles by removing all the air from it.
4. A plastic or cork lid is provided to fit on the mouth of the bottle.

Draw neat labelled diagrams of:

Question 1.
The relation between density and convection
Answer:

Question 2.
Conduction of heat
Answer:

Question 3.
Convection of heat
Answer:

Question 4.
Expansion and contraction of a liquid
Answer:

Question 5.
Thermos flask
Answer:

Can you tell?

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why does the halwai wrap up cloth around the end of his slotted spoon while stirring the boiling milk in his large kadhai?
Answer:
The halwai wrap up cloth around the end of his slotted spoon while stirring the boiling milk in his large kadhai because (i) His slotted spoon is made up of metal and metal is a good conductor of heat so due to constant heating spoon gets very hot which makes hand to get burnt, (ii) But cloth is a bad conductor of heat so it does not allow heat to reach till hand and halwai does not feel hot when he stirs the boiling milk.

Question 2.
Why do we hold a steel glass in a handkerchief while drinking hot milk from it?
Answer:

1. Steel is metal and it is a good conductor of heat. So due to hot milk it becomes hot and it is difficult to hold. Person’s hand get burnt due to it.
2. So it is better to hold in a handkerchief because handkerchief is made up of cloth which is a bad conductor of heat. So your hand does not feel hot.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Why do we wear woollen clothes in winter?
Answer:
We wear woollen clothes in winter because

1. Air is a poor conductor of heat and woollen clothes do not allow the transfer of body heat.
2. Therefore we do not feel cold in woollen clothes and get protected from cold in winter.

Question 2.
Why do we use white clothes in summer and dark or black clothes in winter?
Answer:

1. White clothes do not absorb heat, so in summer, weather is very hot and white clothes protect us from heat whereas in winter it is very cold so we need more heat.
2. Dark or black clothes absorb more heat so we get protection from cold.

Question 3.
Why is there a gap at the joints of rails and of cement concrete bridges?
Answer:

1. The joints of rails and cement concrete bridges are made of iron. Metal is a good conductor of heat so in summer due to heat it expands and its length will be increased.
2. To allow for this expansion, gaps are kept.
3. If these gaps are not kept, then after expansion the rails and cement concrete would have buckled upwards due to lack of space.
4. Due to that bridges would crack and railway tracks get crooked.

Question 4.
Why is mercury or alcohol used in a thermometer?
Answer:
Mercury is used in a thermometer because of the following properties.
Alcohol is used in a thermometer for the following properties.

1. It can measure a low temperature because its freezing point is low. (-115°C) but it can not measure higher temperature as its boiling point is low.
2. It can measure the temperature precisely because it has large expansion coefficient.
3. It’s expansion is regular.
4. Less hazardous.

Question 5.
Why hot substance does not remain as hot after two or three hours?
Answer:
A little heat is lost from around the lid and by a small amount of conduction through the vessel. So hot substance does not remain as hot after two or three hours.

Diagram based questions.

Observe the diagram and answer the given questions below it.

1.

Question a.
What is the diagram about?
Answer:
The diagram is showing us the relation between density and convection.

Question b.
Why is the ice wrapped in wire gauze?
Answer:
Ice floats on water, to make it sink, it is wrapped in wire gauze.

Question c.
What does this experiment prove?
Answer:
When a liquid is heated, its density decreases and it rises upwards. This leads to the convection currents which makes the heated liquid rise upwards and cooler liquid takes it place.

2.

Question a.
What is the diagram about?
Answer:
Expansion and contraction of a solid substance.

Question b.
Does the same thing happen in liquids and gases?
Answer:
Yes. Generally substances solids, liquids and gases expand on heating and contract on cooling.

Question c.
Give one example of this property in everyday life.
Answer:
Gaps are present in between two railway line track joints so that they do not bend due to expansion.

3.

Question a.
Label parts 1 – 4
Answer:

1. Vacuum
2. metal/plastic jar
3. Spring
4. silvered surface of the glass.

Question b.
What is the principle of this object?
Answer:
As there is no medium in the vacuum between the two bottles, no transfer of heat takes place due to conduction and convection and radiated heat is reflected back by the shiny surface.

Question c.
State the uses of the given object.
Answer:
The temperature of substances inside it are maintained for some time. Hot things remain hot and cold things cold for 2 – 3 hours.

Question d.
What is an infrared camera?
Answer:
It is a camera which uses radiations to make our surroundings visible at night. Using this camera, it is possible to keep a watch on the movements of the enemy during the night.

Question e.
What is thermoware?
Answer:
Thermoware are object which do not allow heat to escape from them. So things stay warm in them. eg. hot pot, thermos flask.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

• The Living World: Adaptations and Classification Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Plants: Structure and Function Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Properties of Natural Resources Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition in Living Organisms Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Food Safety Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Measurement of Physical Quantities Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion, Force and Work Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Static Electricity Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Heat Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Solutions Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Classify according to food-type.
Tiger, cow, vulture, bacteria, deer, goat, human, fungus, lion, sparrow, buffalo, frog, cockroach, tick.
Answer:

• Carnivores: tiger, Lion
• Herbivores: cow, deer, goat, buffalo
• Scavengers: vulture
• Decomposers: fungus, bacteria
• Granivores: sparrow
• Insectivores: frog Parasitic: tick
• Omnivores: human, cockroach

2. Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Match the pairs.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Question Answer Question 1.

Answer:

3. Answer the following questions in your words. 

Question a.
Why do living organisms need nutrition?
Answer:
Living organisms need nutrition due to the following: (a) To supply the energy required for doing work, (b) For growth and development of the body, (c) To replace the damaged cells and repair tissues, (d) To fight diseases.

Question b.
Explain the process of production of food in plants.
Answer:
1. Green plants can produce their own food. With the help of sunlight and chlorophyll, plants make their own food in their leaves, using water and nutrients from the soil and carbon dioxide from the air.

2. This process is called as photosynthesis. In this process plants give out oxygen and take in carbon dioxide.

Question c.
What is meant by parasitic plants? Name their different types with examples of each.
Answer:
The plants that grow on the body of other plants to obtain food are called as parasitic plants.

There are two types of parasitic plants:

• Holoparasites: e.g. Rafflesiaceae
• Hemiparasites: e.g. Loranthaceae

Question d.
Explain the various steps of nutrition in animals.
Answer:
Steps of nutrition in animals are as follows:

1. Ingestion: Food is taken into the body.
2. Digestion: Conversion of food into simple soluble forms.
3. Absorption: Transfer of soluble food to the blood.
4. Assimilation: Utilization of absorbed food by cells and tissues for energy production, growth and repair.
5. Egestion: Removal of waste products and undigested food from body.

Question e.
Name some unicellular organisms in which all life processes take place within their unicellular body.
Answer:
Unicellular organisms like amoeba, euglena, paramoecium in which all life processes take place within their unicellular body.

4. Give reasons.

Question a.

Insectivorous plants are attractively coloured.
Answer:

1. Insectivorous plants generally grow in soil or water deficient in nitrogen compounds.
2. The plant body of the Drosera burmanii has a flower like appearance. It grows close to the ground. Even its leaves are attractively pink or red in colour with hairs at the margin.
3. Droplets of a sticky substances found on tips of the hairs attract insects.
4. These plants consume insects to fulfill their need for nitrogen. To attract the insects these plants are attractively coloured.

Question b.
Butterflies have a long tube-like proboscis.
Answer:
Holozoic mode of nutrition means the feeding of solid and liquid food by animals. Butterflies live on nectar from flowers. Therefore to suck the nectar from flowers, they have a long tube-like structure called proboscis.

5. Prepare and complete the flowchart according to type of nutrition.

Question a.
Prepare and complete the flowchart according to type of nutrition.

Answer:

6. Think and answer.

Question a.
We prepare a variety of foodstuffs and dishes at home. Are we then autotrophic organisms?
Answer:

1. We prepare a variety of foodstuffs and dishes at home but we are not autotrophic organisms.
2. In autotrophic organisms they have chlorophyll in their body and food is prepared here with help of sunlight, water and CO₂ for the organisms.
3. But the food which we prepare at home is not generated in our body.

Question b.
Which organisms are greater in number – autotrophs or heterotrophs? Why?
Answer:

1. Autotrophs have chlorophyll in the cell and here the organic food is prepared using sunlight, water and CO₂.
2. They do not depend on any other organism for survival.
3. But the heterotrophs depend on autotrophs and other organisms for survival. Hence autotrophs are more in number than heterotrophs.

Question c.
The number of heterotrophs found in desert regions is smaller. However, they are found in greater numbers in the sea. Why is this so?
Answer:

1. In desert region due to scarcity of water and excess heat, very few cactus are found as autotrophs compared to sea. As autotrophs are less, number of heterotrophs dependent on autotrophs are smaller.
2. Whereas in sea due to greater numbers of autotrophs, greater number of heterotrophs are found.

Question d.
What damage or harm do ectoparasitic and endoparasitic animals cause?
Answer:

1. Ectoparasitic animals suck the blood of the animal on which it remains and endoparasitic animals get readymade food from the body of animal in which it remain.
2. This way both the parasites make the animal weak by sucking their blood or by eating prepared food from them.

Question e.
Why is plant food not produced in any other parts of the plant except the green ones?
Answer:
Plant food is not produced in any other parts of the plant except the green ones because only green part contains chlorophyll and chlorophyll is very necessary for the production of food.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Project:

Question 1.
Many heterotrophic organisms live on one and the same plant. Observe one such plant in your neighborhood and find out about the heterotrophs that depend upon it for their food. Observe and make flotes about other organisms that use these heterotrophs as their food.

Question 2.
Prepare a Power point presentation on the topic ‘Nutrition in Living Organisms’.

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition in Living Organisms Important Questions and Answers

Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Fill in the blanks.

Nutrition In Living Organisms Class 7 Exercise Question 1.
Leaves have microscopic openings called ……………. .
Answer:
Stomata

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Question 2.
In the process of photosynthesis plants take in ……………. and ……………. gas is given out.
Answer:
Carbondioxide, oxygen

Question 3.
The ……………. transports minerals and water from roots to all aerial parts of the plant.
Answer:
xylem

Question 4.
The ……………. transports the food from the leaves to other parts of the plant.
Answer:
phloem

Question 5.
Plants produce ……………. by the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
Carbohydrates

Question 6.
……………. are made from carbon, hydrogen, oxygen.
Answer:
Carbohydrates

Question 7.
……………. are made from carbon, hydrogen and oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
proteins

Question 8.
……………. plants contain rhizobium micro-organisms.
Answer:
leguminous

Question 9.
Micro-organisms like ……………. are present in soil.
Answer:
azotobacter

Question 10.
Lichen is of a symbiosis between ……………. and ……………. .
Answer:
algae, fungi

Question 11.
The scientist ……………. identified Drosera plant in Sri Lanka in 1737.
Answer:
Johannes Burman

Question 12.
Fungi like mushroom and yeast are ……………. .
Answer:
saprophytes

Question 13.
Removal of waste products and undigested food from the body is called …………….
Answer:
Egestion

Question 14.
Amoeba moves with the help of ……………. .
Answer:
pseudopodia

Question 15.
Butterflies suck food with a tube like ……………. .
Answer:
proboscis

Question 16.
The ……………. or ……………. is an ant eating animal found in India.
Answer:
bobcat, udmanjar

Question 17.
Seed eating animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
granivores

Question 18.
Fruit eating animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
frugivores

Question 19.
Animals that obtain their food from both plants and animals are called ……………. .
Answer:
Omnivores

Question 20.
Roundworms are known as ……………. .
Answer:
endoparasites

Class 7 Science Chapter 4 Nutrition In Living Organisms Match the column:

Question 1.

Answer:

Say whether true or false, correct and rewrite the false statements.

Question 1.
Bed bug is an example of endoparasitic nutrition.
Answer:
False, Bed bug is an example of ectoparasitic nutrition

Question 2.
Spider shows saprozoic nutrition.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The anteater is found in India.
Answer:
False. The anteater is found in Central and South America

Question 4.
Yellowing of leaves occur due to deficiency of iron.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Mushroom is used in making bread.
Answer:
False. Yeast is used in making bread

Question 6.
Cuscuta is completely a parasitic plant.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The nitrogen dioxide dissolves in rainwater and is converted into nitric acid.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Micro-organism Rhizobium is found in soil.
Answer:
False. Micro-organism Azotobacter is found in soil.

Question 9.
Fixation of nitrogen occurs by biological and atmospheric methods.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
The chloroplasts present in the leaves contain chlorophyll.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
Decomposers obtain their food from living organisms.
Answer:
False, They obtain their food by decomposing the dead bodies of organisms or other materials

Question 12.
Carbondixode is given out during the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:
False, Oxygen is given out during the process of photosynthesis

Question 13.
Phloem transports the food from leaves to other parts of the plant.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
Carbohydrates are made up of carbon, hydrogen oxygen and nitrogen.
Answer:
False, Protein are made up of carbon, hydrogen, Oxygen and nitrogen.

Give scientific reasons.

Question 1.
Micro-organisms like Rhizobium are useful.
Answer:

1. Rhizobium micro-organisms are useful because plants cannot take gaseous nitrogen from air.
2. These micro-organisms absorb atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into its nitrate, a compound which is useful for plant.

Question 2.
Lichen is an example of a symbiotic nutrition.
Answer:
Lichen is a symbiosis between algae and fungi in which fungi provides water, minerals, as well as shelter to algae and in return the algae Master Key General Science (Std. 7), provide food to the fungi. So Lichen, is an example of symbiotic nutrition.

Question 3.
Drosera burmanii is an insectivorous plant.
Answer:
Drosera burmanii grows in a soil which has nitrogen deficiency. It feeds upon insects to obtain nitrogen, so it is an insectivorous plant.

Question 4.
Human is an omnivore.
Answer:
Humans obtain their food from both, plants and animals so human is an omnivore.

Question 5.
Tapeworm is an endoparasite.
Answer:
Tapeworm lives inside the body of other animals and obtain its food. So tapeworm is an endoparasite.

Question 6.
Decomposers are important for the ecosystem
Answer:
Decomposers feed on dead and decaying matter and therefore indirectly clean the ecosystem. If decomposers were not there then nutrients would not be able to return back and get recycled. Therefore decomposers are very important for the ecosystem.

Question 7.
Cuscuta is a total parasite while Loranthus is a partial parasite.
Answer:
Cuscuta is a nongreen yellow thread-like plant completely dependent on the host plant, loranthus is a partial parasitic because it can prepare its own food and it only takes water and minerals from the host plant.

Answer the following in your own words:

Question 1.

Classify the types of nutrients.
Answer:
There are two types of nutrients.

1. Nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins and fats are required in large quantity. These are macro-nutrients.
2. Minerals and vitamins are required in very small quantity. They are called micro-nutrients.

Question 2.
Explain the types of nutrition.
Answer:
There are two types of nutrition.

1. Some organisms can produce their own food and thus nourish themselves. This is called autotrophic nutrition.
2. Some organisms depend on other organisms, plants and animals for their food. This is called heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 3.
Write differences between xylem and phloem.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is chemosynthesis? Which plants produce their food by chemosynthesis?
Answer:

1. Chemosynthesis is the biological conversion of one or more carbon-containing molecules and nutrients into organic matter.
2. It uses the oxidation of inorganic compounds or methane as a source of energy rather than sunlight.
3. Sulphur bacteria and nitrosomonas produce their food by chemosynthesis.

Question 5.
Name the micro-organisms which help in biological fixation of nitrogen. How?
Answer:
Two different types of micro-organisms can bring about biological nitrogen fixation.

1. Root-nodules of leguminous plants contain the micro-organism rhizobium. These micro-organisms absorb atmospheric nitrogen and convert if into its nitrate, a compound.
2. Micro-organisms like azotobacter are’present in soil. They also convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates.

Question 6.
What is symbiotic nutrition? Give one example of it.
Answer:

1. Two or more than two different types of plant live together to fulfill their needs of nutrition, protection, support etc. with each other’s help. This type of nutrition is called symbiotic nutrition.
2. e.g. Lichen is an example of symbiosis between algae and fungi.

Question 7.
Write about Drosera burmanii.
Answer:

1. It is art insectivorous plant.
2. The scientist Johannes Burman identified this plant in Sri Lanka in 1737. Hence, the plant is named after him.
3. It grows close to the ground.
4. Its leaves are attractively pink or red in colour with hairs at the margin.
5. Droplets of a sticky substance found at the tips of the hairs attract insects.
6. It grows in a place where deficiency of nitrogen in the soil. To get nitrogen for its growth, it eats insects.

Question 8.
What are called saprophytic plants? Give Examples.
Answer:
Plants which obtain the food from dead and decaying bodies of other organisms are called saprophytic plants e.g. Yeast and mushrooms.

Question 9.
Classify the animals according to the type of food they eat.
microbes, vulture, monkey, tiger, lion, goat, cow, buffalo, crow, hyena, human, chimpanzee
Answer:

• Herbivores: goat, cow, buffalo.
• Carnivores: tiger, lion
• Omnivores: monkey, human, chimpanzee
• Scavengers: vulture, crow, hyena
• Decomposers: microbes

Explain the terms:

1. Herbivores: Animals that depend on plants only for their food are called Herbivores.
2. Carnivores: Animals that depend on other animals for their food are called Carnivores.
3. Granivores: Animals that eat grains (seed) are called Granivores.
4. Frugivores: Animals that eat fruits are called frugivores.
5. Omnivores: Animals that obtain their food from both plants and animals are called omnivores.
6. Scavengers: Animals that obtain their food from dead bodies of animals are called Scavengers.
7. Decomposers: Microbes which obtain their food by decomposing the dead bodies of organisms or other materials are called decomposers.
8. Ectoparasitic nutrition: Some animals live on the body surface of other animals and obtain their food by sucking their blood. This is called ectoparasitic nutrition.
9. Endoparasitic nutrition: Some animals live inside the body of other animals and obtain their food. This is called endoparasitic nutrition.
10. Symbiotic nutrition: In some cases, two or more than two different types of plants live together to fulfill their needs of nutrition, protection, support etc. with each other’s help. This type of nutrition is called symbiotic nutrition.

Write the role of different nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium,magnesium, Iron, manganese and zinc and effects of their deficiency on plants.

Question 1.
Write the role of different nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, magnesium, Iron, manganese and zinc and effects of their deficiency on plants.
Answer:
Role of nutrients and effects of their deficiency on plants:

Can you tell?

Answer the following question: 

Question 1.
How does ingestion occur in unicellular animals like amoeba?
Answer:

1. Amoeba does not have organs like hands and mouth.
2. It is a unicellular animal. It can take in food through any part of the surface of its unicellular body.
3. It surrounds the food particle from all sides to take it into the cell.
4. After that it digests the food with the help of different enzymes.
5. Undigested food is left behind as the amoeba moves further with the help of pseudopodia.
6. In unicellular animals like amoeba, euglena, paramoecium,. etc. all the steps of nutrition occur within their unicellular body.

Question 2.
How do plants produce their own food?
Answer:
Green plants produce their own food with the help of sunlight, chlorophyll, water, nutrients from soil and carbon dioxide from the air. This process is called as photosynthesis

Use your brain power!

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write the uses of yeast and mushrooms.
Answer:
Yeast is used in fermentation processes and making bread.
Mushrooms are a rich source of vitamins and iron.

Question 2.i
Which part of the loranthus plant carries out photosynthesis?
Answer:
Leaves of the loranthus plant carries out photosynthesis.

Question 2.ii
From where do they obtain minerals and water?
Answer:
They obtain water and minerals from the xylem and phloem of the other host plant.

Question 2.iii
Why is loranthus known as a partially parasitic plant?
Answer:
Loranthus is known as partially parasitic plant because it does photosynthesis with the help of leaves but only for water and minerals it depends on other plants.

Question 3.
Why does the pitcher plant feed on insects even though it produces food by photosynthesis?
Answer:
Pitcher plants grow in a place where soil has deficiency of nitrogen compounds so to fulfill the need of nitrogen they feed on insects.

Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

Question a.
Name the process shown in the picture.
Answer:
The process shown is photosynthesis.

Question b.
Which type of plants use the above process for their nutrition?
Answer:
Autotrophic plants (green plants) use the above process for their nutrition.

Question c.
What is the pigment in the leaf that helps in the above process?
Answer:
Chlorophyll

Question d.
Give the chemical equation of the above process?
Answer:

Question e.
What is the importance of this process to living things?
Answer:
Photosynthesis helps the plants to prepare their own food and also store it in their plant bodies. Animals depend upon this stored food for their nutrition.
During photosynthesis, oxygen is given out which is important for all living organisms for respiration.

Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.

Question a.
What is shown in the picture?
Answer:
Roots of leguminous plants having root nodules.

Question b.
What is the importance of these types of plants?
Answer:
These types of plants help to provide nitrogen to the soil.

Question c.
What is the process called?
Answer:
Biological Nitrogen fixation

Question d.
Explain the process.
Answer:
Root nodules of leguminous plants contain Rhizobium micro-organisms. These micro¬organisms convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates. Thus the soil becomes rich in nitrogen.

Maharashtra State Board Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

• The Living World: Adaptations and Classification Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Plants: Structure and Function Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Properties of Natural Resources Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition in Living Organisms Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Food Safety Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Measurement of Physical Quantities Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion, Force and Work Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Static Electricity Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Heat Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 7 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 8 Science Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Who am I?

Question a.
I am ATP producing factory.
Answer:
Mitochondria

Question b.
I am single-layered but maintain cellular osmotic pressure.
Answer:
Vacuole

Question c.
I support the cell, but I am not cell wall. I have a body resembling net.
Answer:
Endoplasmic reticulum

Question d.
I am chemical factory of the cell.
Answer:
Chloroplasts in case of plant cells can be called chemical factory as they synthesise carbohydrates. Ribosomes also synthesise proteins, so those can also be called chemical factory. Golgi complex is secretory in function, hence it can be also called factory. Mitochondria though mainly referred to as powerhouse of the cell, it is also mentioned as chemical factory by some authors.

Question e.
Leaves are green because of me.
Answer:
Chloroplast.

2. What would have happened? If……….

Question a.
RBCs had mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondria continuously carry out oxidation and form energy inside the cell. They produce energy-rich compound, ATP. In this process, they utilize carbohydrates, fats and proteins present in the cell. If RBCs has mitochondria, they would have used oxygen for this purpose than carrying it to all the cells of the body. The cells would not have obtained oxygen.

Question b.
There had been no difference between mitochondria and plastids.
Answer:
Mitochondria carry out oxidation of carbohydrates, fats, etc. with the help of enzymes. Plastids are synthesising carbohydrates with the help of solar energy and chlorophyll. Both the cell organelles have their own sets of different enzymes as per their role. If there would have been no difference between mitochondria and plastids, the specific functions would not have been taken place.

Question c.
Genes had been absent on the chromosomes.
Answer:
Genes are functional segments on the chromosomes which are responsible for transmitting the hereditary information.

Question d.
Plasma membrane had not been selectively permeable.
Answer:
Selectively permeable membrane allows some substances to enter the cell, while prevents other unwanted or harmful substances. If plasma membrane would not have been selectively permeable, there would be no control over entry and exit of any substances. The process of osmosis would also be erroneous in such case.

Question e.
Plants lacked anthocyanin.
Answer:
If plants lacked anthocyanin, no part of the plant would display purple or blue colour. Anthocyanin attracts the insects for pollination and seed dispersal. These processes will be affected due to lack of anthocyanin. These pigments are also said to be protective in nature for the plant. This protection will not be given to the plant in absence of anthocyanin.

3. Who is odd man among us? Give reason.

Question a.
Nucleolus, mitochondria, plastids, endoplasmic reticulum
Answer:
Nucleolus. (All the others are cell organelles but nucleolus is not a cell organelle present in cytoplasm.)

Question b.
DNA, Ribosomes, Chlorophyll
Answer:
Chlorophyll. (DNA and Ribosomes are present in plant as well as in animal cells. Chlorophyll is present only in plant cells.)

4. Give functions.

Question a.
Plasma membrane.

Answer:

1. Plasma membrane acts as a selectively permeable membrane. It allows entry of those useful substances which are needed for the cell. It does not allow entry of the harmful and unwanted substances.
2. Plasma membrane keeps the homeostasis in the cell. The cell is kept in steady state even if the external environment changes.
3. Plasma membrane is responsible for processes of endocytosis and exocytosis.
4. The processes of diffusion and osmosis are possible only due to plasma membrane.
5. In animal cells, plasma membrane is the outermost protective covering of the cell.

Question b.
Cytoplasm.
Answer:

1. All the cell organelles are spread in the cytoplasm of a cell.
2. The cytoplasm is the medium for many cellular chemical reactions.
3. The cytosol which is the part of cytoplasm other than cell organelles stores many vital substances like amino acids, glucose, vitamins, etc.
4. Cytosol also helps in the cellular movements.

Question c.
Lysosome.

Answer:

1. Lysosome helps in the destruction of attacking viruses and bacteria and thereby help in the immune response.
2. Lysosomes act as demolition squads. They destroy worn-out cellular organelles and organic debris. This process is called autolysis which All Pagesmeans self-destruction.
3. They are also called suicide bags as in a worn out, damaged or old cell, lysosomes automatically burst. The lytic enzymes present in the lysosome digest their own cells.
4. Lysosomes can digest stored proteins, fats during starvation.

Question d.
Vacuole.

Answer:

1. Vacuoles maintain the osmotic pressure of the cell.
2. Various metabolic byproducts and end products such as glycogen, proteins, water, etc. are stored in the lysosome.
3. In food vacuole of amoeba, the food is temporarily stored till digestion. In other animal cells, vacuoles can store waste products and food.
4. Vacuoles of plant cells can provide turgidity and rigidity as it contains good amount of cell sap.

Question e.
Nucleus.

Answer:

1. Nucleus is the controlling centre for the entire cell.
2. It controls all metabolic activities of the cell.
3. The cell division is possible due to the nucleus.
4. The chromosomes present in the nucleus carry the genes. These genes are responsible for the transmission of hereditary characters from parental generation to the next generations.

5. Who gives me the colour? (Select the correct option).

Question a.

Answer:

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare model of a cell using different ecofriendly materials.

Question 2.
Study osmosis using parchment paper or a similar membrane.

Question 3.
Form a friends’ group in your class. Give each one role of a cell organelle. Present a skit accordingly.

Class 8 Science Chapter 10 Cell and Cell Organelles Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the sentences after filling the blanks:

Question 1.
Cell wall is mainly composed of carbohydrates like ……….. and …………. .
Answer:
Cell wall is mainly composed of carbohydrates like cellulose and pectin.

Question 2.
Plasma membrane is said to be a ……………. …………….. membrane as it allows some substances to enter the cell, while prevents other substances.
Answer:
Plasma membrane is said to be a selectively permeable membrane as it allows some substances to enter the cell, while prevents other substances.

Question 3.
Homeostasis is maintained in the cell by ………….. .
Answer:
Homeostasis is maintained in the cell by plasma membrane.

Question 4.
An …………… is a specialized subunit having specific function within the cell.
Answer:
An organelle is a specialized subunit having specific function within the cell.

Question 5.
……………. has ribosome granules on its outer surface.
Answer:
Rough ER has ribosome granules on its outer surface.

Question 6.
During starvation, ………………… digest stored proteins, fats.
Answer:
During starvation, lysosomes digest stored proteins, fats.

Question 7.
……………….. is the secretory organ of the cell.
Answer:
Golgi complex is the secretory organ of the cell.

Question 8.
……………. compound ATP is produced in the mitochondria.
Answer:
Energy-rich compound ATP is produced in the mitochondria.

Given below are incorrect statements. Rewrite them after correcting them:

Question 1.
In mitochondria, the inner membrane is porous and the outer membrane is deeply folded.
Answer:
In mitochondria, the outer membrane is porous and the inner membrane is deeply folded.

Question 2.
Vacuole is bound by double membrane.
Answer:
Vacuole is bound by single membrane.

Question 3.
If fruit pieces are kept in thick saturated sugar solution, the water from fruit pieces enter the sugar solution resulting into their swelling.
Answer:
If fruit pieces are kept in a thick saturated sugar solution, the water from fruit pieces enter the sugar solution resulting into their shrinking.

Question 4.
Raisins kept in water shrink after an hour.
Answer:
Raisins kept in water swell after an hour.

Question 5.
Lysosome produces vacuoles and secretory vesicles.
Answer:
Golgi complex produces vacuoles and secretory vesicles.

Who gives me the colour? (Select the correct option)

Question 1.

Answer:

Find the odd one out by giving suitable reasons:

Question 1.
Demolition squads, Suicide Bags, Immune system, Powerhouse of the cell.
Answer:
A powerhouse of the cell. (All the others are descriptions of the lysosomes.)

Question 2.
Lignin, Suberin, Cutin, Iodine
Answer:
Iodine. (All the others are polymers present in the cell wall.)

Question 3.
Nucleolus, Genes, Chromosomes, Ribosomes
Answer:
Ribosomes. (All the others are inclusions in the nucleus.)

Write definitions/Give meanings:

1. Homeostasis: The tendency of the cell to keep the cellular environment constant in spite of changes in the outer: environment is called homeostasis.

2. Endocytosis: To take in the food or any other substance from outer environment into the cell is called endocytosis.

3. Exocytosis: To give out the unwanted substances from the cell to the outer « environment is called exocytosis.

4. Diffusion: The movement of the molecules from region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration is called diffusion.

5. Osmosis: The movement of solute from low concentration to high concentration and the movement of solvent from high concentration to the region of low concentration across semipermeable membrane is called osmosis.

6. Plasmolysis: When the cell is kept ?! in hypertonic medium, the water exits through the process of exosmosis causing shrinkage of the cytoplasm, this is known as plasmolysis.

7. Isotonic solution: When the concentration of the cell and that of the medium in which the cell is kept is same, then such solution is called isotonic solution.

8. Hypotonic solution: When the concentration of the water in the cell is less than that of the concentration of the water in the surrounding medium in which the cell is kept, then such solution is called hypotonic solution.

9. Hypertonic solution: When the concentration of the water in the cell is more than that of the concentration of water in the surrounding medium then such solution is called hypertonic solution.

Distinguish between the following:

Question 1.
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell:
Answer:

Question 2.
Plant cell and animal cell
Answer:

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
What are the components of plasma membrane?
Answer:
In plasma membrane, protein molecules are embedded in two layers of phospholipids.

Question 2.
Which part of the cell maintains the homeostasis?
Answer:
Plasma membrane of the cell maintains the homeostasis.

Question 3.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the functional segments on the chromosomes that carry hereditary i information from the parental generation to the offspring.

Question 4.
What is meant by rough ER?
Answer:
The endoplasmic reticulum that has ribosomes on its outer membrane is called rough ER.

Question 5.
Write the examples of plant pigments.
Answer:
Chlorophyll, Carotene, Xanthophyll, Anthocyanin, Betalains and Lycopene are some of the plant pigments.

Question 6.
What are the inclusions in the stroma of chloroplasts?
Answer:
Enzymes, DNA, ribosomes and carbohydrates that are necessary for photosynthesis are present in the stroma of the chloroplasts.

Question 7.
Which staining technique was developed by Camilio Golgi? Where was this technique used?
Answer:
Camilio Golgi developed the staining technique called ‘Black reaction’ which was used in the study of nervous system.

Question 8.
What type of work is done by National Centre for Cell Science?
Answer:
National Centre for Cell Science – NCCS is involved in research in cytology and research about cancer treatment and it also provides services for National Animal cell repository.

Question 9.
Ripe tomatoes appear red.
Answer:
When green tomatoes become ripe they lose chlorophyll and develop red pigment in them called lycopene. Therefore, ripe tomatoes appear red.

Give scientific reasons:

Question 1.
Raisins swell after keeping in plain water.
Answer:
When raisins are placed in plain water, there is action of endosmosis. The outer skin of raisins acts like selectively permeable membrane. Since the concentration of water inside the raisin is lesser than the concentration of water in the outer medium, water enters in the raisin. This causes raisins to swell after keeping them in plain water.

Question 2.
The fruit pieces kept in sugar syrup show shrinking.
Answer:
There is more concentration of water in the fruit pieces as compared to the concentration of water in the sugar syrup. Therefore, water is lost out by exosmosis. The membranes of the fruit pieces act as selectively permeable membranes. Thus the process of plasmolysis occurs resulting into shrinking of the fruit pieces.

Question 3.
The nucleus of the sieve tubes of the plant phloem is lost.
Answer:
The sieve tubes of the plant phloem conduct the food in plants. To make this transport easier, the nucleus of the sieve tubes of the plant phloem is lost,

Question 4.
Plant cells have less mitochondria than those of animal cells.
Answer:
Mitochondria are the cell organelles which are called powerhouse of the cell. They produce energy in the form of ATP. Animals are motile and need more energy for walking, running and moving. Plants are stationary. They do not need energy to greater extent. Therefore, they have lesser number of mitochondria.

Question 5.
Vacuoles do not have any typical size or shape.
Answer:
Vacuoles change their shape and size as per the need of the cell. Thus they do not have any fixed shape or size.

Question 6.
Ripe tomatoes appear red.
Answer:
When green tomatoes become ripe they lose chlorophyll and develop red pigment in them called lycopene. Therefore, ripe tomatoes appear red.

Give functions:

Question 1.
Endoplasmic reticulum.

Answer:

1. Endoplasmic reticulum or ER is the supporting framework of the cell.
2. The ribosomes attached to the membrane of the ER synthesize proteins. These proteins are conducted by ER.
3. The detoxification process is done by ER. The toxins that enter the cell through food, air and water are removed out by making them water soluble.

Question 2.
Golgi complex.

Answer:

1. Different secretions are prepared in the Golgi complex. Hence it is called the secretory organ of the cell.
2. The secretions are modified and sorted out as per their functions. They are further packed.
3. The enzymes, mucus, proteins, pigments, etc. are sorted and then dispatched to various target regions like plasma membrane, lysosome, etc.
4. Golgi complex also produces vacuoles and secretory vesicles.
5. Formation of cell wall, plasma membrane and lysosomes is aided by Golgi complex.

Question 3.
Plastids.
Answer:

1. Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll. They carry out the process of photosynthesis. They convert solar energy to chemical energy in the form of food.
2. Chromoplasts with different pigments can impart different colours to flowers and fruits.
3. Leucoplasts are responsible for the synthesis and storage of food like starch, oils and proteins.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How does endosmosis and exosmosis occur in the cell?
Answer:

1. When the water concentration inside the cell is less as compared to the medium in which it is present, then the endosmosis takes place. This makes the water to enter inside the cell.
2. When water concentration inside the cell is more than the water concentration in the medium in which it is present, then the water comes out of the cell. This is called exosmosis.
3. Since the cell membrane acts as a semipermeable membrane, the processes of endosmosis and exosmosis takes place in the cell.

Question 2.
What is cytoplasm? What are the constituents of cytoplasm?
Answer:

1. The jelly like material present between the cell membrane and nucleus is called cytoplasm.
2. Cytoplasm without cell organelles is called cytosol.
3. All the cell organelles are spread in the cytoplasm.
4. Cytosol stores many vital constituents such as amino acids, glucose, vitamins, etc.
5. The cytoplasm of animal cells is dense and granular while that of plant cells is thin and peripheral. It is pushed to sides due to large central vacuole.

Question 3.
Describe the structure of the nucleus in the cell.

Answer:

1. Nucleus is the most important part of the eukaryotic cell.
2. Inside the nucleus there is round darkly stained nucleolus.
3. The nucleus is covered over by double membrane which is porous.
4. The nuclear pores allow the transport of different substances in and out of the nucleus to cytoplasm.
5. Inside the nucleus is the chromatin network which contains chromosomes. Chromatin fibres are thin which condense to form chromosomes. The chromosomes become clear and distinct at the time of cell division.
6. In every cell there are specific number of chromosomes. Chromosomes contain genes which are bearers of hereditary characters.

Question 4.
Why is endoplasmic reticulum compared with the pipelines?
Answer:

1. The endoplasmic reticulum works as pipelines to carry different substances in the cell.
2. It is a net like structure consisting of interconnected small tubes and sheets filled with fluid.
3. On the inner side the E.R. is connected to nucleus while at the outer side it is in contact with plasma membrane. Therefore, it works like a pipeline.

Question 5.
Write an account of the different structures seen in Golgi complex.
Answer:

1. Golgi complex is made up of 5-8 hollow and flat sacs called cisternae.
2. These are placed parallel to each other and are filled with different enzymes.
3. Golgi complex has two faces called forming face and maturation face.
4. The proteins packed in vesicles and coming from ER reach Golgi complex through cytoplasm.
5. They fuse with the formation face of the Golgi membranes for emptying their contents in the cisternae.
6. When these contents pass through the cisternae, they are chemically modified with the help of enzymes and are again packed in the vesicles.
7. These vesicles come out of Golgi ‘ complex at the maturation face.

Question 6.
How is energy produced in the mitochondria? How the structures of mitochondria help in this process?
Answer:

1. Around every mitochondrion there is a double membrane.
2. The outer membrane of these is porous while the inner membrane is deeply folded.
3. These folds or ‘cristae’ enclose the matrix filled with proteinaceous gel containing ribosomes, phosphate granules and DNA. Protein synthesis takes place in this matrix.
4. Mitochondria carry out oxidation of carbohydrates and fats in the cell. This produces energy in the form of ATP, s i.e. Adenosine Tri Phosphate

Question 7.
What is the benefit of foldings of inner membrane in mitochondria?

Answer:
The structure of the inner mitochondrial membrane is extensively folded and compartmentalized. The numerous imaginations of the membrane are called cristae. This folded inner membrane increases the area which is about 5 times more than that the outer membrane due to cristae. Cristae membranes have small round protein complexes known as Fx particles. In these particles the process of energy production goes on.

Research:

Question 1.
Keep 4 – 5 raisins in water and observe after an hour. Afterward, keep the same raisins in sugar solution and observe after an hour. Note down the observations and discuss in the classroom.
Answer:
When raisins are kept in water its outer skin acts as a semi-permeable membrane. The water content inside the raisin is lesser as compared to the water content in the outside medium. Therefore the water enters in the raisins due to process of endosmosis. Thus if raisins kept in plain water are observed after one hour, they are seen to be swollen.

On the other hand, if raisins are kept in sugar solution, they show plasmolysis and they shrink. The sugar solution acts as hypertonic medium. Water content in the raisin is higher than that present in the sugary solution. Thus water exists from raisins and its content thus shrinks.

Question 2.
Wooden doors fit very tightly in rainy season. Why does it happen?
Answer:
During rainy season there is more humidity in air. The doors get soaked in rain water. Though wood is non-living, it has the ability to absorb water. As the moisture is more in the surrounding area, it enters the wood. This is a type of endosmosis. It causes the doors to swell. The swollen doors then fit very tightly.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Structure of the cell:

Answer:

(iii) Complete the chart:

Answer:

Question 2.
Sketch the diagrams to show how osmosis occurs in plant cell if kept separately in isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic medium.
Answer:

Question 3.
Sketch the diagrams to show how osmosis occurs in animal cell if kept separately in isotonic, hypotonic and hypertonic medium
Answer:

Activity-based questions:

Question 1.
Experiment Activity – Take a drop of water on a clean glass slide. Using an ice-cream spoon, gently scrap the inner surface of your cheek. With a needle, transfer a little material from spoon to the water drop on the slide and spread it evenly. Put a drop of methylene blue stain on the smear. Put a cover slip and observe under microscope. Did you observe the cells with blue nucleus?
Answer:
Students should do this activity at school laboratory. There are squamous epithelial cells in the inner side of the cheek. When stained with methylene blue the nucleus takes up dark stain and can be seen clearly.

Question 2.
Experiment Activity – Take out a thin peel of Rheo or Croton leaf and observe the chromoplasts under the compound microscope.
Answer:
Students are expected to do the observations in the school laboratory.

Question 3.
Can you recall? Observe the cells of onion peel under the microscope. Have you seen the fully turgid, rectangular cells of onion peelings?

Answer:
Students are expected to do the observations in the school laboratory.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 8th Std Science Textbook Solutions 

• Living World and Classification of Microbes Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Health and Diseases Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Pressure Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Current Electricity and Magnetism Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Inside the Atom Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Composition of Matter Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Metals and Nonmetals Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Pollution Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Cell and Cell Organelles Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 2 The Living World Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 2 The Living World Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 The Living World Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Write the answers to the following questions in your words. 

Question a.
What are the differences between plants and animals?
Answer:

Question b.
What are the similarities between plants and animals?
Answer:

1. Both plants and animals increase in height, size and weight as they grow into an adult.
2. They require food to supply energy to carry out the various life processes.
3. They have a fixed life span after which they die.
4. All plants and animals respire and they take in oxygen and give out carbon dioxide while breathing.
5. All the plants and animals excrete their wastes produced in their body.
6. All plants and animals have ability to reproduce.
7. All plants and animals show responsiveness to their external stimuli.

Question c.
How is the plant kingdom useful to us?
Answer:

1. Plants are used for household as well as industrial purposes.
2. They provide us with food in the form of fruits, vegetables etc., e.g. Potato, methi, bhendi, apple, mango, etc.
3. Some plants are also used as medicines e.g. Adulsa, Hirada, Tulsi etc.
4. They also support birds which build their nests.
5. Wood of tress like oak, fir, birch, etc. are used to make furniture, in building homes, etc. Wood pulp is used to make paper.

Question d.
How is the animal kingdom useful to us?
Answer:

1. Dogs, cats, cows, etc. are domesticated. Dogs and cats are used as pets.
2. Cows, buffaloes, goats, etc. are used for getting their milk.
3. Sheep is used for obtaining wool.
4. Horses, oxen, camels and donkeys are used to carry burden and for various other occupations.
5. Earthworm is useful in agriculture.
6. Birds like hens, turkeys, and ducks provide their eggs to us for food.
7. Insects like bees provide us with honey, silkworm provides us with silk.

Question e.
What makes living things different from non-living things?
Answer:

2. What helps them to breathe?

Question a.
(a) A fish (b) A snake (c) A crane (d) An earthworm (e) Man (f) A banyantree (g) A caterpillar.
Answer:

3. Fill in the blanks with the proper words from the brackets.
(plants, oxygen, dies, excretion, carbon- dioxide, photosynthesis, stimuli, cells, sunlight, chlorophyll, microscopic pores, responsiveness.)

Question a.
The process by which plants make their own food is called ……………… .
Answer:
photosynthesis

Question b.
To inhale …………. and to exhale ……………. is called respiration.
Answer:
oxygen, carbon-dioxide

Question c.
The elimination of waste substances fr6m the body is called ………….. .
Answer:
excretion

Question d.
The ability to respond to an event is called ……….. to ………… .
Answer:
responsiveness, stimuli

Question e.
On completing their lifespan, every living thing ………….. .
Answer:
dies

4. Write the uses of these animals and plants.
Animals: Honeybees, sharks, yaks, sheep, earthworms, dogs, bivalves, horses, mice.
Plants: Ginger, mango, eucalyptus, babul (acacia), teak, spinach, aloevera, turmeric, holy basil, karanja, moh, mulberry, grapevine.

Question a.
Write the uses of these animals and plants.
Answer:

Animals Uses:

Plants Uses:

5. What are the peculiarities of the movements of these living things?
Living things : Snakes, tortoises, kangaroos, eagles, chameleons, frogs, gulmohur, sweet potato creeper, dolphins, ants, rattlesnakes, grasshoppers, earthworms.

Question a.
What are the peculiarities of the movements of these living things?
Answer:

6. Write in detail about how the plants and animals found in your surroundings prove useful or harmful.

Question a.
Write in detail about how the plants and animals found in your surroundings prove useful or harmful.
Answer:
Some animals and plants around us are harmful to man.

1. Mosquitoes and flies spread diseases.
2. Cockroaches, mice, rats destroy our food. Lice, ticks also spread diseases.
3. The bites of some poisonous lizards, spiders, snakes and scorpions can even cause death.
4. If wild elephants enter human settlements, they cause a lot of destruction.
5. Dog bite from a rabid dog can cause rabies.
6. Plants like datura are poisonous. Consumption of its seed can cause death.
7. Uncontrolled growth of algae and fungi pollutes water and may cause disease. Fungi cause rotting of food.
8. Pods of nettle and colocasia leaves can cause itching.
9. Weeds like parthemum, dodder affect crop growth.

Activity:

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 The Living World Question Answer Question 1.
Obtain information about the work of the Botanical Survey of India and the Zoological Survey of India by visiting the websites :
www.bsi.gov.in, W.zsi.gov.in

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 The Living World Question 2.
Collect information about the lifespan of various animals, make a chart and display it in your class.

The Living World Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Gather information about the poisonous snakes found in India and present it in a Science Exhibition.

Class 6 Science Chapter 2 The Living World Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with the proper words from the brackets.
(plants, cells, sunlight, chlorophyll, microscopic pores.)

The Living World Class 6 Question Answers Question 1.
Living things are made up of small units called ……….. .
Answer:
cells

The Living World Class 6 Question 2.
A potted plant placed in a window grows towards ………… .
Answer:
sunlight

The Living World Class 6 Solutions Question 3.
Plants appear green in colour due to the presence of ………… .
Answer:
chlorophyll

The Living World Class 6 Exercise Answers Question 4.
Plants respire by means of ………….. on their stems and leaves.
Answer:
microscopic pores

My Living World Book Class 6 Answers Question 5.
……………….. grow throughout their lifespan.
Answer:
Plants

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Answer:

Plants carry out photosynthesis to prepare their food. With reference to this process of photosynthesis, match the columns given below.

Question 1.

Answer:

Can you tell?

Question 1.
What differences do you see between the young ones and the adults in the picture?
Answer:

Answer:
The young ones are smaller in size, height and shape.

Question 2.
What do we learn from these pictures?

Answer:
We learn that all living beings whether plants or animals reproduce in different ways.

Question 3.
Observe a honeycomb and a wall. What are they made up of?
Answer:
Bricks are laid one over the other to form a wall. In a honeycomb, the beeswax is joined to form small compartments to form a honeycomb.

Question 4.
In what ways are the plants and animals useful to us?
Answer:

Use your brainpower!

Question 1.
What differences do you see in the growth of trees like mango, banyan and peepal and that of bamboo, coconut and toddy palms?
Answer:

1. Trees like mango, banyan and peepal have lot of branches and leaves.
2. They have a thick and wide trunk which is short.
3. Trees like bamboo, coconut and toddy palm have few leaves and they are found only at the top of the trunk.
4. The trunk of the tree is tall and comparatively thin.

Question 2.
In each of the examples given below, what is the stimulus? What is the response?

Answer:

1. In mimosa plant, touching the leaf is the stimulus and closing of mimosa leaves is the response.
2. Keeping the potted plant near the window is the stimulus and growing the stem in the direction of sunlight is the response.

Question 3.
What is the main difference between movements of plants and animals?
Answer:

1. Movement in plants is restricted i.e branches can bend towards light.
2. They swing to and fro when the wind blows.
3. The leaves open or close during the day and night, petals of flowers close or open during night and day.
4. Roots grow in the direction of water under the ground.?
5. Animals can freely move from one place to another in search of food, habitat and shelter.

Question 4.
Why have so many plants and animals been able to survive on the earth even today?
Answer:

1. All the animals and plants have ability to reproduce young ones similar to themselves.
2. Also they have ability to adjust themselves to the conditions in their surroundings.
3. Due to this ability we have so many types of plants and animals and they have been able to survive on the earth even today.

Question 5.
What is the sticky substance seen on the stems of the babul (acacia) or drumstick trees?
Answer:

1. It is the gum which oozes out when we prick it or cut it.
2. It is the waste product that is stored in the bark.
3. This gum has a lot of medicinal value.

Observe and discuss.

Question 1.
Hold your hand in front of your nose or keep your hand on your chest. What do you feel?

Answer:

Find the life span and age of maturity of the given living beings.

Question 1.
Find the life span and age of maturity of the given living beings.
Answer:

Answer the following:

Question 1.
Is all the food we eat used by the body?
Answer:
No, non-essential and undigested food is thrown out of the body in the form of waste.

Question 2.
What is the unused part of food converted into?
Answer:
The unused part of food is converted into excreta.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Natural Resources – Air, Water and Land Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Living World Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Diversity in Living Things and their Classification Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Disaster Management Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Substances in the Surroundings – Their States and Proper Class 6 Science Textbook Solutionsties
• Substances in Daily Use Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Nutrition and Diet Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Our Skeletal System and the Skin Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Motion and Types of Motion Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Force and Types of Force Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 8 Science Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Science Solutions Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Search and you will find:

Question a.
Our galaxy is called ………… .
Answer:
Our galaxy is called the Milky Way and Mandakini.

Question b.
For measuring large distances, ………… is used as a unit.
Answer:
For measuring large distances, the light year is used as a unit.

Question c.
The speed of light is …………. km/s.
Answer:
The speed of light is 300000 km/s.

Question d.
There are about ………… stars in our galaxy.
Answer:
There are about 100 billion stars in our galaxy.

Question e.
The end stage of the Sun will be …………. .
Answer:
The end stage of the Sun will be a white dwarf.

Question f.
Stars are born out of ………… clouds.
Answer:
Stars are born out of interstellar clouds.

Question g.
Milky way is a ………. galaxy.
Answer:
Milky way is a spiral galaxy.

Question h.
Stars are gigantic spheres of ………… gas.
Answer:
Stars are gigantic spheres of hot gas.

Question i.
The masses of other stars are measured relative to the mass of the …………. .
Answer:
The masses of other stars are measured relative to the mass of the Sun.

Question j.
Light takes ……………. to reach us from the Sun while it takes …….. to reach us from the moon.
Answer:
Light takes about 8 minutes to reach us from the Sun while it takes about 1 second to reach us from the moon.

Question k.
The larger the mass of a star, the faster is its ……….. .
Answer:
The larger the mass of a star, the faster is its evolution.

Question l.
The number of fuels used in the life of a star depends on its …………. .
Answer:
The number of fuels used in the life of a star depends on its mass.

2. Who is telling lies?

Question a.
Light year is used to measure time.
Answer:
False. (Light year is used to measure distance.)

Question b.
End stage of a star depends on its initial mass.
Answer:
True.

Question c.
A star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of its electrons balances its gravity.
Answer:
False. (A star ends its life as a neutron star when the pressure of its neutrons balances its gravity.)

Question d.
Only light can emit from the black hole.
Answer:
False. (Not even light can be emitted by a black hole.)

Question e.
The Sun will pass through the supergiant stage during its evolution.
Answer:
False. (The Sun will pass through the red giant stage during its evolution.)

Question f.
The Sun will end its life as a white dwarf.
Answer:
True.

3. Answer the following question:

Question a.
How do stars form?
Answer:
There are huge clouds of gas and dust in the empty spaces between the stars in a galaxy. These clouds are called interstellar clouds. The size of an interstellar cloud is about a few light years.

When an interstellar cloud starts contracting due to some disturbance, its density and temperature increase. This results in formation of a dense sphere of hot gas and nuclear energy generation starts at the centre of the star. Therefore, the gas sphere becomes self-luminous. Thus a star is formed, i.e., a star is born.
A huge interstellar cloud can produce thousands of stars at a time.

Question b.
Why do stars evolve?
Answer:
Although stars appear stable for quite a long period of time, their properties do change, though very slowly. A change in the properties of a star, leading to its passing through different stages, is called evolution of the star. Burning of the fuel at the centre of the star and a gradual decrease in its amount is the main reason of evolution of a star.

Question c.
What are the three end stages of stars?
Answer:

1. Stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become white dwarfs.
2. Stars having initial mass between i 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become neutron stars.
3. Stars having initial mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately turn into black holes.

Question d.
Why was the name black hole given?
Answer:
When a star having initial mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun reaches its end stage, its gravitational force and density increase exponentially. All nearby objects get attracted towards the star and nothing can come out of it, not even light. All incident light is absorbed by the star. We can probably see a very minute black hole at its place. Hence, the name is given as black hole.

Question e.
Which types of stars end their life as a neutron star?
Answer:
Stars having initial mass between 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun end up as neutron stars. When these stars pass through ( the supergiant stage, their size increases to 1000 times. Huge explosion that occurs in the last stage of these stars is very powerful and very high energy is given off. After the huge explosion, called the supernova explosion, their central portion contracts in size to about 10 km. In this stage, such stars are completely made up of neutrons and hence are called neutron stars.

4. A. If you are the Sun, write about your properties in your own words.
B. Describe white dwarfs.

Question A.
If you are the Sun, write about your properties in your own words.
Answer:

If you are the Sun, write about your properties in your own words.
Answer:
There are billions of stars in the galaxy called the Milky Way and Mandakini. I am one of the small stars called the Sun. I have my own family called the solar system. There are planets, satellites, asteroids, comets and meteors in my family. My mass is 2 × 1030 kg which is about 3.3 lakh times that of the earth. With a radius of 695700 km, my size is about 100 times that of the earth. My surface temperature is about 5800 K while it is 1.5 × 107 K at the centre.

72 % of my mass consists of hydrogen while 26 % consists of helium. Rest 2 % is made up of elements heavier than helium. I am about 4.5 billion years old and the scientists on the earth have concluded that not much change has taken place in my properties during this period. According to the scientists, in the end stage of my life, I will turn into a red giant star. Thereafter, I will first explode and then contract to become as small as the earth. I will appear small as well as white and hence, I will be called a white dwarf. This will be my last stage for ever.

Question B.
Describe white dwarfs.
Answer:
Depending on the initial mass, stars can reach one of the three end stages. White dwarf is one such stage of stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun. These stars undergo huge expansion and their radius increases by a factor of 100 to 200. These stars appear reddish because of their large size and lower temperature. Hence, these stars are also called red giant stars.

At the end of their evolution, these stars explode, their outer gas envelope is thrown outward and the inner part contracts to the size of the earth. However, the density in the star becomes very high. In this stage, the pressure due to electrons becomes independent of temperature and sufficient to balance the gravitational force for ever.

In this stage, such stars look white and due to their small size they are called white dwarfs.

Can you recall?

Question 1.
What is a galaxy?
Answer:
A system of billions of stars, their planetary systems and interstellar clouds of gas and dust held together by gravitational attraction is called a galaxy.

Question 2.
What are the different constituents of our solar system?
Answer:
The different constituents of our solar system are as follows :

1. Sun as a star.
2. Eight planets, namely, Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune; of which Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are made up of rocks and minerals, while Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are made up of gases.
3. Natural satellites of some planets revolving around the respective planets.
4. Asteroids located between Mars and Jupiter.
5. Comets made up of ice, dust and gases.
6. Meteors and meteoroids.

Question 3.
What are the major differences between a star and a planet?
Answer:

1. Nuclear/atomic explosions regularly take place at the centre of stars. This causes the discharge of heat and light. Hence, stars shine. Planets do not discharge any light. They are visible due to the light reflected by them.
2. Stars are very big in size and massive relative to planets.
3. Stars twinkle, planets do not.
4. Stars are made up of hydrogen, helium and other light elements.
5. Planets are made up of solid, liquid or gaseous substances or a combination thereof.

Question 4.
What is a satellite?
Answer:
An astronomical object orbiting a planet is called a satellite.

Question 5.
Which is the star nearest to us?
Answer:
The star nearest to us is the Sun.

Project:

Question 1.
Use your imagination and make models of the Milky Way and the solar system.
Answer:
N.B. Students can make these models and display the same in science exhibition. You can use sand, scrap material, stones, pebbles, marbles, pieces of glass, beads, etc.

Question 2.
Write the effects: If the Sun disappears ………..
Answer:
N.B. You can write the effects with the help of the following points:

1. No sunrise, no sunset, no beauty of morning and evening wee hours.
2. In the absence of the gravitational force due to the Sun, the earth will drift away in the galaxy.
3. Darkness, no source of energy, end of life on the earth.
4. Moon will be invisible.
5. The temperature of the earth will fall below the freezing point of water. All oceans will also freeze.
6. Even the atmosphere will freeze and fall on the earth. This will cause more cosmic rays to reach the earth.

Class 8 Science Chapter 19 Life Cycle of Stars Important Questions and Answers

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.
Mass of the star:

Answer:
Mass of the star:

Answer the following questions in one sentence each:

Question 1.
Name the star nearest to the earth.
Answer:
The Sun.

Question 2.
Other than the Sun, which is the star nearest to the earth?
Answer:
Alpha Centauri.

Question 3.
What would be the last stage of the Sun?
Answer:
The last stage of the Sun would be white dwarf.

Question 4.
Name two forces that act on any star.
Answer:
Gravitational force and the force due to the pressure of hot gas are the two forces that act on any star.

Question 5.
What is a black hole?
Answer:
A black hole is the end stage of a quite big star, where due to the extremely high gravitational force, nothing, not even light, comes out.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How is stability of stars maintained?
Answer:
Properties of a star remain unchanged for quite a long time. The gravitational force and the force due to the pressure of the hot gas act together on a star. The gravitational force acts towards the centre of the star and tries to bring the gas particles close together. Hot gas shows the tendency to spread and its force acts away from the centre of the star. This force tries to disperse the gas particles. A balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the hot gas keeps the star stable.

However, if the magnitude of any one force is more than that of the other force, the star either contracts or expands depending upon which force dominates.

Question 2.
Why is the Sun called an ordinary star?
Answer:
The star nearest to the earth is the Sun. Hence, it appears quite big and bright. There are billions of stars in our galaxy called the Milky Way and Mandakini which are greater or lower in mass, size and temperature than the Sun. Hence, the Sun is called an ordinary star.

Do you know?

When the Sun will become a red giant, its diameter will increase so much that it will swallow Mercury and Venus. It is possible that the earth will also be absorbed by the Sun. It will take about 4-5 billion years for the Sun to reach this state.

Question 3.
Describe various stages of evolution of star.
Answer:
Though the properties of a star remain unchanged for quite a long time, this situation is never static. A star passes through different stages. This process is called the evolution of a star.
Important stages of the evolution of a star are as follows:

1. Initial stage of stability: The gravitational force and the force due to the pressure of the hot gas act together on a star. The gravitational force acts towards the centre of the star and tries to bring the gas particles close together. Hot gas shows the tendency to spread and its force acts away from the centre of the star.

This force tries to disperse the gas particles. A balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the hot gases keeps the star stable, as long as the energy generation continues at the centre of the star.

2. Burning of the fuel: As a star continuously emits energy, its energy constantly decreases. When the fuel at the centre of the star is exhausted, the energy generation stops and the temperature of the star starts decreasing. Decreasing temperature causes the gas pressure to decrease and the balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the gas pressure is no more maintained.

As the magnitude of the gravitational force is now more than that of the force due to the gas pressure, the star starts contracting. This causes another fuel to start burning, e.g. on exhausting hydrogen, helium starts undergoing fusion. Availability of multiple fuels depends on the mass of the star.

The higher the mass of the star, the more is the number of fuels used. The star either contracts or expands during the course of using these fuels. This may cause the imbalance between the gravitational force and the force due to the hot gas.

3. Total exhaustion of the fuel: When all fuels are exhausted, the energy generation in the star finally stops completely and the temperature of the star starts decreasing. The balance between the gravitational force and the force due to the gas pressure can no more be maintained. The evolution of the star ends and the star proceeds to its end stage.

4. End stage of a star: Once the fuel in the star is totally exhausted, the energy generation in the star stops and subsequently the gas pressure decreases, the star starts contracting and its density starts increasing. When the density becomes very high, some new types of pressures are generated which are independent of the temperature of the gas.

In such a case, the pressure remains stable despite low temperature and absence of any energy generation and thus the star remains stable for ever. This stage is the end stage of the star. Depending on the initial mass, stars can reach one of the three end stages.

• Stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become white dwarfs.
• Stars having initial mass between 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately become neutron stars.
• Stars having initial mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun ultimately turn into black holes.

Write short notes on the following:

Question 1.
End stages of stars having initial mass less than 8 times the mass of the Sun.
Answer:
These stars undergo huge expansion and their radius increases by a factor of 100 to 200 during their various stages of evolution. These stars appear reddish due to their lower temperature. Hence, they are called red giant stars.

At the end of evolution, these stars explode, their outer gas envelope is thrown out and the inner part contracts roughly to the size of the earth. Hence, the density of the star becomes very high. In this stage, the pressure due to electrons becomes independent of temperature and sufficient to balance the gravitational force for ever. Such stars look white and due to their small size they are called white dwarfs.

Question 2.
End stage of the stars having mass between 8 and 25 times the mass of the Sun.
Answer:
These stars pass through the red giant stage and later super giant stage, during which their size may increase to 1000 times. The huge explosion, called the supernova explosion, occurs in the last stage of the evolution. It is very powerful and very high energy is given off in this case.

As a result, the stars are visible even during the day. Later their central portion contracts to about 10 km. In this stage, the stars are completely made up of neutrons and are called neutron stars. The pressure of these neutrons is independent of temperature and sufficient enough to balance the gravitational force for ever.

Question 3.
End stages of stars having mass larger than 25 times the mass of the Sun.
Answer:
After the supernova explosion, no pressure can balance the gravitational force. Hence these stars contract continuously and their gravitational force and density increase exponentially. All nearby objects get attracted towards these stars and not even light can come out of them. Light falling on these stars is completely absorbed by the star. We cannot see these stars. A very minute black hole is formed at the place of such a star. This is the end stage of these stars.

Balbharati Maharashtra State Board 8th Std Science Textbook Solutions

• Human Body and Organ System Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Introduction to Acid and Base Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Chemical Change and Chemical Bond Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Measurement and Effects of Heat Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Reflection of Light Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Man-made Materials Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Ecosystems Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions
• Life Cycle of Stars Class 8 Science Textbook Solutions

Std 6 Science Chapter 11 Work and Energy Question Answer Maharashtra Board

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Solutions Chapter 11 Work and Energy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Work and Energy Question Answer Maharashtra Board

1. Fill in each blank with the appropriate term from the brackets.

Question a.
A bucketful of water is to be drawn from a well ………. will be done when a ………… is applied to do this, because there will be an ……………. of water.
(displacement, workforce)
Answer:
work, force, displacement

Question b.
If a ball is dropped on the sloping roof of a house, it acquires ……………. and falls on the ground. That is transformation of ………… energy into ……….. energy takes place.
(kinetic, potential, motion)
Answer:
motion, kinetic, potential

Question c.
You might have seen some beautiful fireworks during Diwali. It is an example of transformation of ……….. energy into ………………. energy.
(light, atom, chemical, solar)
Answer:
chemical, light

Question d.
The solar cooker is an application of the ………… energy of the sun, while solar cells, solar lamps are applications of the ………….. energy of the sun.
(light, chemical, heat)
Answer:
heat, light

Question e.
One labourer carried four pans of road metal through a distance of 100 metres. If he carries two pans of road metal through a 200 metre distance …………. work will be done.
(equal, more, less)
Answer:
equal

Question f.
The capacity that an object has for doing work is called ………… .
(energy, displacement, force)
Answer:
energy

2. Match the pairs.

Question a.

Answer:

3. Can you tell?

Question a.
When can we say that displacement has taken place?
Answer:
When the position of an object changes, we say that the object is displaced.

Question b.
What are the various forms of energy?
Answer:
Various forms of energy are: mechanical energy, heat energy, light energy, sound energy, chemical energy and electrical energy.

Question c.
Describe the natural chain of transformation of energy.
Answer:

1. In the course of water cycle, water evaporates due to the heat of the sun.
2. This water vapour forms clouds that give rain.
3. Rainwater flows into rivers and is stored in reservoirs or dams.
4. This stored water at a height has potential energy.
5. As the water falls down, this is transformed into kinetic energy.
6. When the water falls on the turbine, its kinetic energy is transferred to turbine.
7. The turbine rotates producing electrical energy.

Question d.
What should be taken into account for measuring work?
Answer:
For measuring work both force and displacement must be taken into account.

Question e.
Why should we save energy?
Answer:
Due to increasing population and increasing use of energy resources, there is a danger that limited reserves of coal, petrol, etc. will get exhausted. Hence, we should save energy for future generation.

Question f.
What is ‘green energy’?
Answer:
The energy resources which do not produce smoke and carbon gases such as carbon dioxide or carbon monoxide are called ‘green energy resources’. Energy from them is called green energy.

Question g.
What are the non-conventional energy resources?
Answer:
The resources that:

1. have not been used traditionally.
2. are inexhaustible and continuous.
3. That can be used in various forms again and again are called non-conventional energy resources.
4. e.g.: solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy, hydal power.

Question h.
Which forms of energy from the sun is used in solar energy devices?
Answer:

1. Heat energy from the sun is used in solar cookers, solar water heaters, solar driers.
2. Light energy from the sun is used in solar cells, solar panels.
3. Solar electric plants have the capacity to produce electricity on large scale.

Question i.
Why should we maximize the use of non- ntional energy sources?
Answer:

1. Due to increase in population there is increasing use of conventional sources like petrol, coal, etc. Their reserves are limited and they may get exhausted.
2. Hence, it will be better to use non- conventional sources of energy to save conventional resources for future.

4. Who is the odd-one-out?

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Work And Energy Question 1.
Diesel, crude oil, natural gas, wind.
Answer:
wind

Work And Energy Class 6 Maharashtra Board Question 2.
A running car, hauling a log, a book kept on a table, picking up the school bag.
Answer:
A book kept on table.

Work And Energy Class 6 Question 3.
Sunlight, wind, wave, petrol.
Answer:
Petrol.

11 Work And Energy Class 6 Question 4.
Leaving the fan on in a vacant room, leaving the TV on while working, using A.C during winter, putting off the light when going out.
Answer:
putting off the light when going out.

5. Find out the types of energy from the following puzzle.

Question a.
Find out the types of energy from the following puzzle.

Answer:
Potential, Kinetic, Solar, Wind, Sound, Light, Heat

Activity:

Work And Energy Exercise Class 6 Question 1.
How can you save energy at home and in school? Discuss this with your friends and list all such measures. Put them into practice.

Work And Energy Class 6 Questions Answers Question 2.
Find out about energy saving devices available in the market.

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Work and Energy Important Questions and Answers

Fill in the blanks with suitable words.

Work And Energy Class 6 Exercise Question 1.
Falling water possesses ………………… energy.
(potential, kinetic, chemical)
Answer:
kinetic

Work And Energy Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Heat is measured in unit called ……………….. .
(kilometres, kilogram, calorie)
Answer:
calorie

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Question 3.
Plant stores the food in the form of ……………….. energy.
(mechanical, light, chemical)
Answer:
chemical

11. Work And Energy Class 6 Question 4.
We should use ……………….. energy resources with care.
(conventional, non-conventional, both)
Answer:
conventional

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Answer:

Can you tell?

6th Science Work And Energy Question 1.
Water in dams or reservoirs shows potential energy.
Answer:
Rainwater flows into river and is stored in reservoirs on dams. These are at height and therefore, their water has potential energy.

Class 6 Science Chapter 11 Question Answer Question 2.
The sun is the most important source of all energy.
Answer:
All forms of energy are utilizing indirectly solar energy in all transformation of energy. Therefore, the sun is the most important source of all energy.

Question 3.
What is tidal energy?
Answer:
A wall is constructed at a narrow region of a creek. Due to waves generated by high and low tides, the turbine of the generator fitted in the wall starts rotating and electricity is generated.

Use your brain power!

Question 1.
Why do you get hungry after physical exercise?
Answer:

1. When we do physical exercise we use the energy stored in the body.
2. To replenish this energy, we have to eat. Hence we feel hungry.

Question 2.
From where does our body get energy.
Answer:
Our body gets energy from the food we eat.

Question 3.
Why do we get tired?
Answer:
When we do any work, we use the energy. If this energy level becomes very low, then we feel tired.

Question 4.
What is the unit of work and energy?
Answer:
The unit of work and energy in SI (System International) is ‘Joule’.

Question 5.
If no displacement occurs on applying a force, what does it indicate?
Answer:
If no displacement occurs, then no work is said to be performed.

Can you tell?

Question 1.
In the game of marbles, from where does one marble get energy to set another marble in motion?
Answer:
When we apply physical force to the fast marble, it gains some force and when it strikes the second marble, energy in the form of force is transferred to the second marble and this force sets the second marble in motion.

Question 2.
While playing carrom from where does the striker gets the energy to make the pieces move?
Answer:
When we strike the striker, the force exerted by our muscles is transferred to the striker. When the striker strikes the coin, this energy is transferred to the coin which may help to pocket the coin.

Question 3.
What will happen as result of the action in the picture?

Question i.
The rubber band is released after streaching it.
Answer:
It comes back to its orriginal position.

Question ii.
A stone is held in the rubber of a catapult, the rubber is stretched and released.
Answer:
Stone gets thrown to a distance and rubber band cones back to its original position.

Let’s try this.

Question 1.
If we hold a convex lens over a sheet of paper in sunlight such that there is tiny spot of light on the paper for a while. What happens? Why?
Answer:

1. If a convex lens is held over a paper in sunlight such that there is a tiny spot of light on the paper for a while the paper bums.
2. This is due to the heat energy of the sun concentrated at a point due to the convex lens.

Question 2.
How does a picture appear on the screen of a TV?
Answer:
When a TV is switched on, the electrical energy is converted into light and sound energy. Hence, a picture appears on TV.

Question 3.
In which form is energy stored in plant food?
Answer:
Energy stored in plant food is in the form of chemical energy.

Question 4.
How is energy obtained from cooking gas?
Answer:
Energy obtained from cooking gas is heat energy which is obtained by conversion of chemical energy.

Question 5.
Why is Energy not visible to us?
Answer:
Energy is the capacity to do work. Energy is converted from one form to another in the form of work being done. Hence it is not visible to us.

How are we different from each other?

Question 1.
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
Answer:

Question 2.
Work and energy
Answer:

Question 3.
Conventional and Non-conventional energy sources
Answer:

Classify as directed:

Question 1.
Into kinetic and potential energy
Waterfalls, water in a reservoir, a stretched spring, a boy running in a race.
Answer:

• Potential – water in a reservoir, a stretched spring.
• Kinetic – waterfalls, a boy running in a race.

Question 2.
Into conventional and non-conventional energy sources.
Tidal energy, diesel, cooking gas, coal, hydropower, solar energy.
Answer:

• Conventional energy sources – diesel, cooking gas, coal.
• Non-conventional energy sources – tidal energy, hydropower, solar energy.

Question 3.
Into different forms of energy

1. rubber band is released
2. cooking food
3. switching on fan
4. a battery
5. radio
6. TV

Answer:

1. Mechanical energy
2. Heat energy
3. Mechanical energy, electrical energy
4. Chemical energy
5. Sound energy
6. Light and sound energy

Define:

Question 1.
Work
Answer:
When an object is displaced by applying a force on it, work is said to be done.

Question 2.
Energy
Answer:
Energy is the capacity to do work.

Question 3.
Chemical energy
Answer:
The energy obtained through chemical action is called chemical energy.

Question 4.
Potential energy
Answer:
The energy which is stored in an object due to a specific state or position of that object is called potential energy.

Question 5.
Kinetic energy
Answer:
The energy obtained by the virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy.

Question 6.
Solar energy
Answer:
The enormous and continuous energy obtained from the sun is called solar energy. Solar energy is at the root of all energy available on earth.

Question 7.
Conventional energy resources: (non-renewable energy sources)
Answer:
The energy sources which man has been using for centuries and that cannot be replenished are called conventional energy sources.

Question 8.
Renewable energy sources: (non – conventional energy sources)
Answer:
The resources that have not been used traditionally and that are inexhaustible, continuous and can be used in various forms again and again are called renewable energy sources.

Explain – why?

Question 1.
Energy is not visible to us.
Answer:
There is energy in every substance in the universe. It is present in non-living as well as living things. But still we can only feel the energy when some work is done, e.g. When wind blows, we can feel the coolness in air. When we switch on the light in a dark room, we can see things due to light energy.

Question 2.
Save energy, (use alternative energy sources)
Answer:

1. Due to increasing population, there is increasing usage of energy resources.
2. There is a danger that limited reserves of conventional resources like diesel, crude oil, may get exhausted.
3. We should save energy so that future availability is ensured.
4. It will be better to use alternative and supplementary energy sources.

Question 3.
Methods of saving energy.
Answer:

1. Saving energy is as good as generating energy.
2. There are several ways of saving energy such as putting off lamps when not needed.
3. Making maximum use of sunlight.
4. Saving energy and energy resources is absolutely necessary. Otherwise, we will have to face the serious calamity like global warming.

Question 4.
State the energy conversions in following cases.

1. Solar water heater
2. Solar cell
3. Fission of uranium, thorium
4. Switch on mixer
5. Switch on lamp
6. Switch on TV
7. Switch on radio
8. Ram plays tabla
9. Ravi plays shehnai
10. You switch on the torch
11. Your mother lights the gas stove to cook
12. Dinesh is bursting crackers during Diwali

Answer:

1. Solar energy to heat energy
2. Solar energy to electrical energy
3. Atomic energy to heat energy and then to electrical energy
4. Electrical energy to mechanical energy
5. Electrical energy to light energy
6. Electrical energy to light energy and sound energy
7. Electrical energy to sound energy,
8. Mechanical energy to sound energy
9. Wind energy to sound energy
10. Chemical energy to light energy
11. Chemical energy to heat energy
12. Chemical energy to heat, light and sound energy

Observe the figure below and answer the question given.

Question i.
In the above activity, which are the different forces acting on the box?
Answer:
In the above activity, muscular force, frictional force and gravitational force act on the box.

Question ii.
Is displacement possible without force?
Answer:
No, force has to be applied in order to displace the box.

Question iii.
If force is applied to both the boxes is same, which box will be displaced more?
Answer:
If force applied to both the boxes is same, then empty box will be displaced more than box with books.

Question iv.
If me e books are added to box, and same force is applied, will the displacement be more or less?
Answer:
If the same force is applied for a heavier load then the displacement will be less.

Question v.a.
If a force is applied with both the hands on a wall, will there be a displacement?
Answer:
Whatever be the amount of force applied, the wall will not be displaced.

Question b.
If no displacement occurs on applying as force, what does it indicate?
Answer:
If no displacement occurs, then no work is said to be performed.

Maharashtra State Board Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions

• Work and Energy Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Simple Machines Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Sound Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Light and the Formation of Shadows Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• Fun with Magnets Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions
• The Universe Class 6 Science Textbook Solutions