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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 Animal Classification Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 6 Animal Classification

Question 1.
a. I am diploblastic and acoelomate. Which phylum do I belong to ?
Answer:
I am from phylum Cnidaria or Coelenterata.

b. My body is radially symmetrical. Water vascular system is present in my body. I am referred as fish though I am not. What is my name?
Answer:
Starfish. I am from Echinodermata phylum.

c. I live in your small intestine. Pseudocoelom is present in my thread like body. In which phylum will you include me?
Answer:
I am Ascaris. I am included in Aschelminthes.

d. Though I am multicellular, there are no tissues in my body. What is the name of my phylum?
Answer:
Sponge, Porifera.

Question 2.
Write the characters of each of the following animals with the help of classification chart:
a. Bath sponge.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Porifera
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Cellular grade organization.
• Asymmetrical body
• Acoelomate

Bath sponge is a marine animal. Blackish in colour and round in shape having porous body. It has spongin fibres and spicules which serve as skeleton. Bath sponges have good water-holding capacity. It is sedentary animal which is fixed to some substratum in the aquatic environment. Reproduction is by budding. It also has a good regeneration capacity.

b. Grasshopper.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthropoda
Class: Insecta
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Grasshopper is an insect included under class insecta of phylum arthropoda because it has jointed appendages. There are three pairs of legs and two pairs of wings. It is a terrestrial insect which is well adapted to the surrounding environment by showing camouflage. It has chitinous exoskeleton. The respiration by tracheae.

c. Rohu.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Pisces
Subclass: Teleostei (Bony fish)
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Rohu is a fresh water bony fish. It is a chordate having a vertebral column, hence included under subphylum vertebrata. The body is well adapted for aquatic mode of life. The shape of the body is streamlined. The exoskeleton is of scales. The gills Eire present which are used for respiration. The endoskeleton is of bones, hence called bony fish. There are paired fins and a impaired caudal fin which is used in steering and changing the direction during swimming.

d. Penguin.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Aves
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Penguin is a flightless bird inhabitant of cold snow-clad regions. It has exoskeleton of feathers. The body is well adapted to survive in cold regions.

It is a warm-blooded bird. The forelimbs are modified into wings. But due. to excessive body weight, the penguins are not seen flying. It can wade in the water with modified hind limbs.

e. Frog.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Amphibia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

The frog is a true amphibian that can live in water as well as on land. When on land it respires with the help of lungs while in water it uses its skin for breathing. It does not have exoskeleton. The skin is soft, slimy and moist. It is suitably coloured and hence the frog can camouflage in the surroundings. Body is divisible into head and trunk. Two pairs of limbs are seen. The forelimbs are short and used for support during locomotion. The hind limbs are long and strong, used for jumping when on land and for swimming when in water.

The eyes are large and protruding. Since the neck is absent, such eyes help in looking around. The tympanum is present.

f. Lizard.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Reptilia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

The lizard is a cold-blooded reptile. The limbs are weak and do not support the body weight, hence lizard is seen creeping. But the feet are provided with pads and suckers due to which lizards are well- adapted to climb on the vertical walls. The exoskeleton has fine scales. The body is divisible into head, neck and trunk. The capacity to regenerate is developed in lizards, hence it can produce the lost tail or limbs. The mode of reproduction is egg laying. It feeds on insects with the help of long and sticky tongue.

g. Elephant.
f. Lizard.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Class: Mammalia
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Organ-system grade organization
• Bilaterally symmetrical
• Triploblastic and Eucoelomate.

Elephant is the terrestrial, herbivorous mammal adapted to survive in hot and humid tropical forests.
It is a mammal and hence shows viviparity and milk secretion. The body is divisible into head, neck, trunk, and tail. The proboscis is a characteristic feature of the elephant which is actually modified nose.

h. Jellyfish.
Answer:
Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Sub-kingdom: Non-chordata
Phylum: Cnidaria or Coelenterata
Characters:

• Multicellular organisms without cell wall
• Tissue grade organization
• Radially symmetrical
• Diploplastic and Acoelomate

Jellyfish or Aurelia is a coelenterate. Its body is medusa. It appears as a transparent balloon seen floating in the marine waters. Since it has appearance like a jelly, it is known commonly as jellyfish. There are tentacles provided with cnidoblasts or stinging cells. Tentacles are used for catching the prey. Cnidoblasts are used to secrete a toxin which paralyses the prey.

Question 3.
Write in brief about progressive changes in animal classification.
Answer:
There were different methods of classification of animals.

1. The first classification method was given by the Greek philosopher Aristotle. He took into account the criteria like body size, habits and habitats of the animals. This method was called artificial method of classification.
2. The same artificial method was used by other scientists such as Theophrastus, Pliny, John Ray, Linnaeus, etc.
3. Further due to advances in science the references were changed and there were some new methods of classification proposed.
4. The system of classification called ‘Natural system of classification’ was then proposed. This system of classification was based on criteria such as body organization, types of cells, chromosomes, bio-chemical properties, etc.
5. Later, Dobzhansky and Meyer gave the system of classification based on evolution.
6. In 1977, Carl Woese has also proposed the three domain system of animal classification.

Question 4.
What is the exact difference between grades of organization and symmetry? Explain with examples.
Answer:
I. Grades of organization:
(1) The grades of organization mean the way an organism has different body formation.
(2) Unicellular organisms like amoeba have a single cell in the body and hence the organization in its body is called protoplasmic grade of organization.
(3) Some organisms have only cells in their body which is called cellular grade of organization, e.g. Poriferans.
(4) Some have tissues e.g. Coelenterates. They are said to have tissue grade organization. Some have organs, they are said to have organization-organ grade, e.g. Platyhelminthes. All other higher animals have organ-system grade organization.

II. Symmetry:
(1) Symmetry on the other hand shows the base of the body formation.
(2) The symmetry can be understood by taking an imaginary cut through the animal body.
(3) Based on the symmetry there can be three types.
(4) In asymmetric animals, there is no symmetry in any plane, e.g. Amoeba.
(5) The bilateral symmetry is the one in which an imaginary axis can pass through only one median plane to divide the body into two equal halves. Most of the animals have bilateral symmetry and hence their organs are arranged in symmetric way on both the sides.
(6) The imaginary cut passing through the central axis but any plane of body aan -give more than one equal half. The organs of such animals are arranged in a radius of an imaginary circle, e.g. Cnidarians and some echinoderms.
Both grades of organization and symmetry are the bases for classifying animals into different phyla.

Question 5.
Answer in brief.
a. Give scientific classification of shark upto class.
Answer:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Subphylum: Vertebrata
Class: Pisces
Subclass: Elasmobranchii (Cartilaginous)
Example: Scientific name: Scoliodon sorrakowah.
Common name: Shark

b. Write four distinguishing characters of phylum – Echinodermata.
Answer:
Distinguishing characters of Echinodermata:

1. Marine organisms with skeleton made up of calcareous spines. Calcareous material on the body hence the name is Echiodermata. Some are sedentary while some are free swimming.
2. Body is triploblastic, eucoelomate and radially symmetrical when adult. The larvae are bilateral symmetrical.
3. Locomotion with the help of tube-feet which are also used for capturing the prey.
4. Echinoderms have regeneration capability. Hence they can restore their lost parts.
5. Most of them are unisexual.
6. Examples; Starfish, sea-urchin, brittle star, sea cucumber, etc.

c. Distinguish between butterfly and bat with the help of four distinguish properties.
Answer:
Butterfly:

1. Butterfly is classified as Non-chordate.
2. It is included in class Insecta of phylum Arthropoda.
3. Butterfly has three pairs of legs and two pairs of chitinous wings.
4. Butterfly is a diurnal (active during day) insect.
5. Butterfly lays eggs which hatch into larva. Larva develops into pupa and pupa metamorphoses into an adult.

Bat:

1. Bat is classified as a Chordate.
2. It is included in class Mammalia of subphylum Vertebrata.
3. Bat has one pair of legs and a pair of patagium which are used for flying. Patagium has bones.
4. Bat is a nocturnal (active at night) mammal.
5. Bat is a viviparous animal that gives birth to live young ones. Young ones are fed by milk secreted by mammary glands.

d. To which phylum does Cockroach belong? Justify your answer with scientific reasons.
Answer:
(1) Cockroach belongs to the phylum Arthropoda and class Insecta.
(2) Scientific reasons for placement of Cockroach in the phylum Arthropoda:

• The body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
• Jointed appendages present, three pairs of walking legs and two pairs of membranous wings.
• Body is eucoelomate, triploblastic, bilaterally segmented and segmented.
• Respiration by spiracles and tracheal tubes.

Question 6.
Give scientific reasons.
a. Though tortoise lives on land as well as in water, it cannot be included in class-Amphibia.
Answer:

• When tortoise lives on the land, it respires with the help of lungs.
• When in water, it puts out its nares (nasal openings) out of the water and breathes air.
• It cannot take up oxygen dissolved in water. In both the habitats it respires with the help of lungs. In case of true amphibians, this is not the case.
• They can breathe in water with the help of skin and on land with the help of lungs.
• Tortoise also has exo-skeleton which is lacking in Amphibia. Therefore, tortoise cannot be included in class Amphibia.

b. Our body irritates if it comes in contact with jellyfish.
Answer:

• Jellyfish is a coelenterate that has cnidoblasts bearing tentacles.
• These cnidoblasts inject toxins to paralyse the prey at the time of feeding.
• When jellyfish comes in contact with our body, this toxin is released causing reaction to our skin.
• Therefore, our body gets irritation when we come in contact with jellyfish.

c. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Answer:

• All chordates possess notochord in some period of their development.
• All vertebrates also have notochord during embryonic life, which is later replaced by vertebral column.
• Therefore all vertebrates are chordates.
• But some chrodate’s like Urochordata and cephalochordata do not possess vertebral column and hence they are not vertebrates.

d. Balanoglossus is connecting link between non-chordates and chordates.
Answer:

• Balanoglossus shows some characters of non-chordates.
• It also has notochord as in case of chordates.
• Since it shares the characters of non-chordates and chordates, from the view point of evolution, it is called connecting link between them.

e. Body temperature of reptiles is not constant. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

1. Reptiles are cold-blooded animals.
2. The thermoregulatory system is not there in their bodies.
3. Their body temperatures, fluctuate as per the environmental temperatures.
4. Therefore, the body temperature is not maintained at constant level in reptiles.

Question 7.
Answer the following questions by choosing correct option.
a. Which special cells are present in the body of sponges (Porifera)?
1. Collar cells
2. Cnidoblasts
3. Germ cells
4. Ectodermal cells
Answer:
1. Collar cells
Explanation: Porifera animals are attached to the substratum. They do not show locomotion. For gathering and catching the food, they need to produce a current in the water. For this purpose, they have characteristic collar cells in their body. Germ cells and ectodermal cells are seen in all other phyla. Cnidoblasts are characteristic feature of coelenterates.

b. Which of the following animals’ body shows bilateral symmetry?
1. Starfish
2. Jellyfish
3. Earthworm
4. Sponge
Answer:
3. Earthworm
Explanation: When an imaginary plane passing through only one axis can divide the body into two equal halves, then it is called bilateral symmetry. Such symmetry is shown only by earthworm. Sponge body is asymmetrical while starfish and jellyfish are radially symmetrical.

c. Which of the following animals can regenerate it’s broken body part?
1. Cockroach
2. Frog
3. Sparrow
4. Starfish
Answer:
4. Starfish
Explanation: Cockroach, sparrow and frog cannot perform regeneration. Only echinoderms show power of regeneration. So only starfish can regenerate its broken part.

d. Bat is included in which class?
1. Amphibia
2. Reptilia
3. Aves
4. Mammalia
Answer:
4. Mammalia
Explanation: Bat gives birth to young ones and they also possess mammary glands. Amphibia, Reptilia and Aves do not show such features. Therefore, bat is included in Mammalia.

Question 8.

Body cavity	Germ Layer	Phylum
Absent	_____________	Porifera
Absent	Triploblastic	_____________
Pseudocoelom	_____________	Aschelminthes
Present	_____________	Arthropoda

Answer:

Body cavity	Germ Layer	Phylum
Absent	Diploblastic	Porifera
Absent	Triploblastic	Platyhelminthes
Pseudocoelom	Triploblastic	Aschelminthes
Present	Triploblastic	Arthropoda

Question 9.

Type	Character	Examples
Cyclostomata	……………	……………
……………	Gill respiration	……………
Amphibia	……………	……………
……………	……………	Whale, Cat, Man
……………	Poikilotherms	……………

Answer:

Type	Character	Examples
Cyclostomata	Jawless mouth with suckers	Petromyzon, Myxine
Pisces	Gill respiration	Pomfret, Sea horse, Shark
Amphibia	Moist skin without exoskeleton	Frog, Toad, Salamander
Mammalia	Mammary glands	Whale, Cat, Man
Reptilia	Poikilotherms	Tortoise, Lizard, Snake

Question 10.
Sketch, labell and classify.
1. Hydra.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Coelenterata
Example: Hydra

2. Jellyfish
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Coelenterata
Example: Jellyfish

3. Planaria
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Platyhelminthes
Example: Planaria

4. Roundworm
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-Chordata
Phylum: Aschelminthes
Example: Ascaris (Roundworm)

5. Butterfly
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthopoda
Class: Insecta
Example: Butterfly

6. Earthworm
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Annelida
Example: Earthworm

7. Octopus
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Mollusca
Example: Octopus

8. star fish
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Echinodermata
Example: Star fish

9. Shark
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Pisces
Example: Scoliodon (Shark)

10. Frog
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Amphibia
Example: Frog

11. Wall Lizard
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Reptilia
Example: Wall Lizard

12. Pigeon.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Phylum: Chordata
Sub-Phylum: Vertebrata
Class: Aves
Example: Pigeon

Question 11.

Answer:
(1) Jellyfish
(2) Nereis
(3) Flatworm/Planaria
(4) Bony fish.

Project: (Do it your self)

1. In each week, on a specific day of your convenience, observe the animals present around your school and residence. Perform this activity for six months. Keep date-wise record of your observations. After the observation period of six months, analyse your observations with respect to seasons. With the help of your teacher, classify the reported animals.

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 61)

Question 1.
Which criteria are used for classification of organisms?
Answer:
The living organisms are classified according to their basic characteristics, such as presence or absence of nucleus, unicellular body or multicellular body, presence or absence of cell wall and the mode of nutrition in them.

Question 2.
How are the plants classified?
Answer:
The plants are classified according to the following basis:

1. Presence or absence of the organs.
2. Presence or absence of separate

Use your brain power: (Text Book Page No. 74)

(A) Animals like gharial and crocodile live in water as well as on land. Are they amphibians or reptiles?
Answer:
Ghariyal and crocodile are reptiles. They can swim in water and crawl on land. But they can respire only with the help of lungs. Their breathing is through nostrils. Even when in water, they have to inhale and exhale by coming up to the surface of water for air. Amphibians can breathe through the skin when in water and by lungs when on land. They also have hard exoskeleton which amphibians do not have. Hence, ghariyal and crocodile are not amphibians, but they are reptiles.

(B) Animals like whale, walrus live in water (ocean). Are they included in Pisces or Mammalia?
Answer:
Whale and walrus are aquatic and marine mammals. They do not belong to class Pisces. They do not have gills to breathe in dissolved oxygen in water. Neither they have scales on the body nor can they lay eggs. Whales and walrus have mammary glands like all other mammals. They give birth to live young one. They breathe only with the help of lungs by putting their nostrils out of the water at surface. Hence they are included in Mammalia.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
System of classification based on evolution was brought into practice by ……….. and …………
(a) Darwin, Mendel
(b) Lamarck, De Vries
(c) Morgan, Mayor
(d) Dobzansky, Meyer
Answer:
(d) Dobzansky, Meyer

Question 2.
Artificial method of animal classification was proposed by ………….
(a) Aristotle
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Whittaker
Answer:
(a) Aristotle

Question 3.
Animals attached to substratum are called ……….. animals.
(a) sessile
(b) sedentary
(c) lame
(d) motionless
Answer:
(b) sedentary

Question 4.
In coelenterates, ………… are useful for capturing the prey whereas ………. inject the toxin in the body of prey.
(a) tentacles, cnidoblast
(b) hands, legs
(c) flagella, sting
(d) cilia, sting cells
Answer:
(a) tentacles, cnidoblast

Question 5.
Body of annelidan animals is long, cylindrical and …………. segmented.
(a) annular
(b) metamerically
(c) jointed
(d) cuticular
Answer:
(b) metamerically

Question 6.
…………. is second largest phylum in animal kingdom.
(a) Mollusca
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Porifera
(d) Platyhelminthes
Answer:
(a) Mollusca

Question 7.
Endoskeleton of Cyclostomata animals is …………..
(a) bony
(b) bony and cartilaginous
(c) cartilaginous
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) cartilaginous

Question 8.
Body cavity between the body and internal organs is called ………….
(a) gastrocoel
(b) enteron
(c) coelom
(d) cave
Answer:
(c) coelom

Question 9.
Larvae of ……….. metamorphose into adults after settling down at bottom of the sea.
(a) Hemichdrdata
(b) Urochordata
(c) Cephalochordata
(d) Cyclostomata
Answer:
(b) Urochordata

Question 10.
The body organization of unicellular organisms is of …………. grade.
(a) cellular
(b) tissue
(c) protoplasmic
(d) organ
Answer:
(c) protoplasmic

Question 11.
………….. is a cold blooded animal. (March 2019)
(a) Bat
(b) Snake
(c) Rabbit
(d) Elephant
Answer:
(b) Snake

Question 12.
Calcareous spines are present on the body of ………… animal. (July 2019)
(a) fish
(b) snail
(c) sponge
(d) starfish
Answer:
(d) starfish

Question 13.
Due to which similar characteristic honey bee and cockroach are included in the same phylum?
(a) Wings
(b) Three pair of legs
(c) Jointed appendages
(d) Antenna
Answer:
(c) Jointed appendages

Write whether the following statements are true or false with proper explanation:

Question 1.
Greek philosopher Linnaeus was the first to perform the animal classification.
Answer:
False. (Greek philosopher Aristotle was the first to perform the animal classification.)

Question 2.
Heart if present in the non-chordates is on dorsal side of body.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Arthropoda animals bear numerous pores on their body.
Answer:
False. (Porifera animals bear numerous pores on their body.)

Question 4.
Porifera animals have special type of collar cells.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Aschelminthes have acoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body.
Answer:
False. (Platyhelminthes have acoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body. OR Aschelminthes have pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical body.

Question 6.
Planet Earth has highest number of animals from phylum Arthropoda.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Animals belonging to phylum Annelida perform locomotion with the help of tube-feet.
Answer:
False. (Animals belonging to phylum Echinodermata perform locomotion with the help of tube-feet.)

Question 8.
Herdmania has notochord in only tail region and hence it is called Urochordate.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Mammals breathe with the help of lungs.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
Amphibians are warm blooded.
Answer:
False. (Amphibians are cold-blooded. OR Mammals are warm blooded.)

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Phylum	Characteristics
(1) Mollusca	(a) Collar cells
(2) Hemichordata	(b) Mantle
	(c) Trunk
	(d) Cnidoblasts

Answer:
(1) Mollusca – Mantle
(2) Hemichordata – Trunk.

Question 2.

Phylum	Characteristics
(1) Porifera	(a) Tunic
(2) Coelenterata	(b) Collar cells
	(c) Tentacles bearing cnidoblasts
	(d) Mantle

Answer:
(1) Porifera – Collar cells
(2) Coelenterata – Tentacles bearing cnidoblasts.

Question 3.

Subphylum/Class	Characteristics
(1) Cyclostomata	(a) Collar cells
(2) Urochordat	(b) Sucker
	(c) Tunic
	(d) Chitinous exoskeleton

Answer:
(1) Cyclostomata – Sucker
(2) Urochordata – Tunic.

Find the odd one out:

Question 1.
Physalia, Hyalonema, Ruplectella, Spongilla
Answer:
Physalia. (Physalia belongs to Coelenterata, all the remaining are poriferans.)

Question 2.
Planaria, Liverfluke, Filarial worm, Tapeworm
Answer:
Filarial worm. (Filarial worm is Aschelminthes remaining are Platyhelminthes.)

Question 3.
Star fish, Sea-urchin, Nereis, Sea-cucumber
Answer:
Nereis. (Nereis belongs to Annelida all the remaining are Echinoderm animals.)

Question 4.
Cockroach, Butterfly, Spider, Honey bee
Answer:
Spider. (Spider is eight-legged Arachnid, remaining are insects.)

Question 5.
Amphioxus, Herdmania, Doliolum,Oikopleura
Answer:
Amphioxus. (Amphioxus is Cepholochordate all the remaining are Urochordates.)

Question 6.
Frog, Tortoise, Toad, Salamander
Answer:
Tortoise. (Tortoise is a reptile, the remaining are amphibians.)

Question 7.
Tube feet, Setae, Parapodia, Sucker
Answer:
Tube feet. (Tube feet are locomotory organs of Echinoderms, the remaining are locomotory organs of Annelids.)

Question 8.
Shark, Sting ray, Electric ray, Pomfret
Answer:
Pomfret. (Pomfret is a bony fish, all the remaining are cartilaginous fish.)

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Annelida : Earthworm : : Platyhelminthes : …………
Answer:
Annelida : Earthworm : : Platyhelminthes : Planaria/Liverfluke

Question 2.
Horse : Mammal : : Seahorse : ………….
Answer:
Horse : Mammal : : Seahorse : Pisces

Question 3.
Parapodia : Annelida : : Tube feet : ………..
Answer:
Parapodia : Annelida : : Tube feet : Echinodermata

Question 4.
Frog : Amphibia : : Turtle : …………..
Answer:
Frog : Amphibia : : Turtle : Reptilia

Question 5.
Proboscis : Hemichordata : : Suctorial mouth : …………
Answer:
Proboscis : Hemichordata : : Suctorial mouth : Cyclostomata

Question 6.
Bird from very cold regions : Penguin : : Aquatic Mammal from very cold regions : ………..
Answer:
Bird from very cold regions : Penguin : : Aquatic Mammal from very cold regions : Whale.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Non-chordates and Chordates.
Answer:
Non-chordates

1. Non-chordates are less evolved animals and are on the lower levels of evolution.
2. Non-chordates do not have notochord.
3. In non-chordates, there are no pharyngeal gill slits.
4. Nerve cord, if present is double and solid.
5. Nerve cord is located on the ventral side of the body.
6. Heart if present is on the dorsal side of the body.

Chordates:

1. Chordates are more evolved animals and are on the higher levels of evolution.
2. Chordates have notochord at least in some stage of development.
3. In chordates, there are pharyngeal gill slits.
4. Nerve cord is single and hollow.
5. Nerve cord is located on the dorsal side of the body.
6. Heart if present is on the ventral side of the body.

Question 2.
Phylum Platyhelminthes and Phylum Aschelminthes. OR Write any two points of differences between flat worms and round worms.
Answer:
Phylum Platyhelminthes (Flat worms):

1. Platyhelminth worms have slender and flat leaf or strip like body hence called flat worms.
2. Platyhelminthes are triploblastic and acoelomate.
3. Most of them are hermaphrodite or bisexual having both male and female reproductive systems in the same body.
4. Examples: Planaria, Liver fluke, Tapeworm, etc.

Phylum Aschelminthes (Round worms):

1. Aschelminthes have long thread-like or Cylindrical body, hence called round worms.
2. Aschelminthes are triploblastic and pseudocoelomate.
3. They are unisexual with male and female sexes separate. There is sexual dimorphism.
4. Examples: Ascaris (Intestinal worm), Filarial worm, Loa loa (Eye worm), etc.

Question 3.
Urochordata and Cephalochordata.
Answer:
Urochordata:

1. Urochordates have notochord in the tail region of the adult body.
2. These animals look like small sacs.
3. Usually urochordates are hermaphrodites.
4. Body of urochordate is covered over by skin-like test or tunic.
5. Examples: Herdmania, Doliolum, Oikopleura, etc.

Cephalochordata:

1. Cephalochrodates have notochord in the entire length of the body.
2. These animals look like small fish.
3. Cephalochordates are unisexual.
4. Body of cephalochordate is not covered in a test.
5. Example: Amphioxus.

Question 4.
Cyclostomata and Pisces.
Answer:
Cyclostomata:

1. Cyclostomata are the poorly evolved first class of vertebrate animals.
2. Cyclostomata have circular jawless mouth with suckers.
3. Paired appendages are absent in cyclostomates.
4. Cyclostomes have soft skin which is without any scales.
5. Endoskeleton is cartilaginous.
6. Examples: Petromyzon, Myxine, etc.

Pisces:

1. Pisces are the better evolved class of vertebrates which is well adapted for aquatic living.
2. Pisces have mouth with upper and lower jaws. Teeth are present in the mouth.
3. Paired and unpaired fins present in all kinds of fishes.
4. Fishes have different types of scales on the body.
5. Endoskeleton may be cartilaginous, or it may be bony.
6. Examples: Shark (Scoliodoh), rays which are cartilaginous fishes and pomfret, makerel, sardines, rohu which are bony fishes.

Question 5.
Amphibia and Reptilia.
Answer:
Amphibia:

1. Amphibians can inhabit both land and water. They can survive on both environments by breathing there.
2. The exoskeleton is absent in amphibians. The skin is soft, slimy and moist.
3. Body is divided into head and trunk. Neck is absent.
4. The digits do not have claws.
5. The respiration is by skin when in water and by lungs when on land. The larvae breathe by gills.
6. There is external fertilization at the time of sexual reproduction.
7. The developmental stages are eggs and tadpole. Metamorphosis is seen in amphibians.
8. Examples : Frog, Toad, Salamander, etc.

Reptilia:

1. Reptilians are terrestrial animals. Though turtle and sea snakes can stay in water, they cannot breathe in water.
2. The exoskeleton in the form of scales. Some animals have plates or scutes (e.g. tortoise and crocodile).
3. Body is divided into head, neck and trunk.
4. The digits have claws.
5. The respiration is only by lungs.
6. There is internal fertilization at the time of sexual reproduction.
7. The developmental stages are eggs and juvenile. Metamorphosis is not seen in reptiles.
8. Examples : Tortoise, Lizard, Snake, etc.

Question 6.
Aves and Mammalia.
Answer:
Aves:

1. Aves are totally adapted for the aerial mode of life.
2. Body is spindle shaped. Body is divisible into head, neck and trunk. There are two pairs of limbs. The forelimbs are modified to form wings for flight.
3. Digits have scales and claws.
4. The exoskeleton is in the form of feathers.
5. Jaws are modified into a beak.
6. Birds are oviparous. The eggs hatch into nestlings.
7. The incubation of eggs and feeding of nestlings is done by both parents.
8. Examples: Crow, Sparrow, Peacock, Parrot, Pigeon, Duck, Penguin, etc.

Mammalia:

1. Mammals are adapted for terrestrial life.
2. Body is not spindle shaped. It is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. There are two pairs of limbs. They are adapted for walking or running on the ground.
3. Digits have nails or hoofs. Few have claws.
4. The exoskeleton is in the form of fur, hair, wool, etc.
5. Jaws have teeth and they surround the mouth.
6. Mammals are viviparous. They give birth to live young ones. (Exception: Platypus)
7. Parental care is shown only by mother, who feeds, the babies with milk from mammary glands.
8. Examples: Cat, Dog, Tiger, Lion, Elephant, Human, Kangaroo, Dolphin, Bat, etc.

Classification-based questions:

Question 1.
Identify me:
(1) I am metamerically segmented, blood sucking, ectoparasite. I have suckers. Who am I and to what phylum do I belong to? (OR) Who am I? (July 2019)
I have suckers. I am blood sucking.
Answer:
Leech, Phylum Annelida.

(2) I have chitinous exoskeleton, I have four pairs of walking appendages. I can sting you. Who am I? What phylum do I belong to?
Answer:
Scorpion. Phylum Arthropoda.

Question 2.
Characters of a phylum are given below. Read them carefully and answer the questions:
(a) Spines of calcium carbonate are present on the body, (b) These animals are exclusively marine, (c) They perform the locomotion with the help of tube feet, (d) Their skeleton is made up of calcareous plates or spicules.
(i) Animals of which phylum show the above character?
Answer:
Animals belonging to phylum Echinodermata show the above characters.

(ii) Give an example from that phylum.
Answer:
Starfish, brittlestar, sea urchin.

(iii) These animals can be classified with the help of which criteria of new system of animals classification.
Answer:
Animals are classified on the basis of criteria such as body organization, body symmetry, body cavity, etc.

Question 3.
Identify my class/phylum and give one example of it: (March 2019)
(a) I have mammary glands and exoskeleton in the form of hair.
(b) We form the highest number of animals on the planet. We have bilateral symmetry and our exoskeleton is in the form of chitin.
(c) I live in your small intestine, my body is long and thread like and pseudocoelomate.
Answer:
(a) Class: Mammalia, Example: Cat, Dog, Man.
(b) Phylum: Arthropoda, Example: Prawn, Crab.
(c) Phylum: Aschelminthes, Example: Ascaris or round worm, Filarial worm.

Question 4.
Tell me who am I? What is my class/ phylum?
1. My body is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk. I am marine animal.
Answer:
Balanoglossus; Phylum: Hemichordata.

2. I stay inside two shells. My body is divided into head, foot and visceral mass.
Answer:
Bivalve or Oyster; Phylum: Mollusca.

3. I am male as well as female. I am endoparasite having a coelomate and bilaterally symmetrical and flattened body.
Answer:
Liver fluke or tape worm; Phylum: Platyhelminthes.

4. I am sedentary marine animal drinking water all the time through numerous pores on the body.
Answer:
Sponge; Phylum: Porifera.

5. I am venomous, eight legged creature having chitinous exoskeleton.
Answer:
Scorpion; Phylum: Arthropoda.

6. My body is covered by tunic. As a larva I swim but as an adult I settle down.
Answer:
Doliolum or Salpa; Phylum: Chordata subphylum : Urochordata.

Question 5.
Identify the class of given animals and write one characteristic of each animal:
(1) Kangaroq (2) Penguin (3) Crocodile (4) Frog (5) Sea-horse. (July 2019)
Answer:
(1) Kangaroo: Class Mammalia. It is a marsupial animal with pouch for development of offspring. Long hind limbs for jumping.
(2) Penguin: Class Aves. It is flightless bird. Body covered with thick feathery coat. Oviparous mode.
(3) Crocodile: Class Reptilia. It is a large animal seen near water bodies. Can swim in water but cannot respire in water. Body covered with exoskeleton of scaly plates. Limbs very weak in comparison with huge bodies.
(4) Frog: Class Amphibia. Shows aquatic as well as terrestrial mode. Can breathe with lungs and skin. No exoskeleton and skin is slimy.
(5) Sea-horse: Class Pisces. Bony fish. Highly modified body structure showing brood pouch for development of offspring gills for respiration, fins for swimming.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
State any four benefits of animal classification. (March 2019)
Answer:

1. Studying the different animals becomes easy when they are placed under different groups.
2. When few representative animals of the particular group are studied then the idea about other animals belonging to that group also becomes clear.
3. The animal evolution becomes easier to follow after studying classification.
4. The identification of animals can be done accurately.
5. Relationship of the different animals with each other and with other groups can be understood clearly.
6. Habitat of each animal and its role in nature is understood by classification.
7. Various adaptations are understood by learning classification.

Question 2.
Into which phyla is Non-chordata divided? In which three subphyla are Chordates divided?
Answer:
I. The phyla of Non-chordata:

• Protozoa
• Porifera
• Coelenterata or Cnidaria
• Platyhelminthes
• Aschelminthes
• Annelida
• Arthropoda
• Mollusca
• Echinodermata
• Hemichordata

II. The subphyla of Chordata:

• Urochordata
• Cephalochordata
• Vertebrata

Question 3.
Write the characteristics of chordates.
Answer:
Characteristics of Chordates:

1. All chordates possess notochord and pharyngeal gill slits in at least during some developmental stage.
2. Presence of single, tubular and dorsally located spinal cord and ventrally located heart.

Question 4.
Write the characteristics of vertebrates.
Answer:
Characteristics of vertebrates:

• In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by vertebral column.
• Development of head is complete.
• Well-developed cranium which protects the brain.
• Presence of endoskeleton which is either cartilaginous or bony.
• Presence of jaws as in Gnathostomata or absence of jaws as in Agantha.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
(1) Benefits of classification.
Answer:

• Studying the different animals becomes easy when they are placed under different groups.
• When few representative animals of the particular group are studied then the idea about other animals belonging to that group also becomes clear.
• The animal evolution becomes easier to follow after studying classification.
• The identification of animals can be done accurately.
• Relationship of the different animals with each other and with other groups can be understood clearly.
• Habitat of each animal and its role in nature is understood by classification.
• Various adaptations are understood by learning classification.

Question 2.
Germinal layers.
Answer:

• During the initial embryonic period of any multicellular animal there is formation of germinal layers or germ layer.
• These germ layers give rise to new tissues in the developing animal.
• The primitive animals were diploblastic i.e. they have only two germ layers called ectoderm and endoderm.
• The higher animals are triploblastic, having three germ layers; ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
• Cnidarians are diploblastic while all other animals are triploblastic.

Question 3.
Coelom.
Answer:

• Coelom means body cavity. It is situated between the body wall and the internal organs of the body.
• The coelom is formed during early embryonic life in case of multicellular animals. It is formed from either mesoderm or gut.
• Coelom when present in the body, those animals are called eucoelomate. Phylum Annelida onwards are eucoelomate animals. They are animals with true body cavity.
• Those animals in which coelom are absent are called acoelomate animals. Porifera, Cnidaria and Platyhelminthes are acoelomate animals.
• When coelom is not formed from mesoderm or gut, but formed from other tissues, it is called pseudocoelom. Only Aschelminthes animals have such coelom and hence they are called pseudocoelomate.

Question 4.
Notochord.
Answer:

• Notochord is an important feature of Chordates.
• Notochord is supporting rod like structure.
• This structure is present on the dorsal side of the animals.
• It keeps the nervous tissue separated from the rest of the tissues.
• In Hemichordates, the notochord is present in the proboscis.
• In Urochordates, the notochord is present in the tail region of the free swimming larvae.
• In Cephalochordates, the notochord lies throughout the length of the body.
• In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by the vertebral column.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

Question 1.
(Linnaeus, Dobzhansky, Carl Woese, Theophrastus, Artificial method, Aristotle, Natural system, Traditional system)
Time to time, different scientists have tried to classify the animals. Greek philosopher ………… was the first to perform the animal classification. Aristotle classified the animals, according to the criteria like body size, habits and habitats. Classification proposed by Aristotle is known as ………… Besides Aristotle, artificial method of classification was followed by ……….., Pliny, John Ray and ……….. Later on,’………… of classification’ was followed. Natural system of classification was based on various other criteria. By the time, system of classification based on evolution was also brought into practice. It was used by …………. and Meyer. Recently, ……….. has also proposed the animal classification.
Answer:
Time to time, different scientists have tried to classify the animals. Greek philosopher Aristotle was the first to perform the animal classification. Aristotle classified the animals, according to the criteria like body size, habits and habitats. Classification proposed by Aristotle is known as ‘Artificial method’. Besides Aristotle, artificial method of classification was followed by Theophrastus, Pliny, John Ray and Linnaeus. Later on, ‘Natural system of classification’ was followed. Natural system of classification was based on various other criteria. By the time, system of classification based on evolution was also brought into practice. It was used by Dobzansky and Meyer. Recently, Carl Woese has also proposed the animal classification.

Question 2.
(neck, lungs, skin, exoskeleton, amphibian, metamorphose, aquatic, gills)
Class Amphibia consist of animals which are strictly ……….. only during their larval stages. At that time they breathe through their …………. Tadpoles are such stages which later ………… to form adult frog. Adult frog respires with the help of ………… when in water and with when on land. Thus, it is a true …………. For performing cutaneous respiration, i.e. respiration through skin, they lack ………. in any form. The skin is also kept moist by staying near the water bodies. Amphibians do not have a ………… but eyes are bulging and prominent, this solves the problems of vision.
Answer:
Class Amphibia consist of animals which are strictly aquatic only during their larval stages. At that time they breathe through their gills. Tadpoles are such stages which later metamorphose to form adult frog. Adult frog respires with the help of skin when in water and with lungs when on land. Thus, it is a true amphibian. For performing cutaneous respiration, i.e. respiration through skin, they lack exoskeleton in any form. The skin is also kept moist by staying near the water bodies. Amphibians do not have a neck but eyes are bulging and prominent, this solves the problems of vision.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Locomotion is considered as an important j characteristics of the animals. However, animals belonging to Porifera are said to be sedentary. Every 1 other phylum has typical locomotory organs. E.g. Nereis crawls with the help of parapodia, whereas earthworm buries in soil by setae. Spiders have four pairs of walking legs, crab has five while all insects have three pairs of walking legs. The walking legs are also called appendages. Starfish moves with the help of tube feet. Snails and bivalves use muscular foot for locomotion. Birds flying with their spread out wings and fish swimming with their fins, both have spindle-shaped body tapering at both the ends. While flying or swimming such body offers least resistance during locomotion. Mammals have two pairs of limbs while animals like snakes are limbless. Other animals belonging to the class of snakes also have very weak limbs which make them creep on the ground.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What are the locomotory organs in phylum Annelida?
Answer:
Annelidans have parapodia and setae as the locomotory organs.

Question 2.
Which phylum has a characteristic of jointed appendages?
Answer:
Phylum Arthropoda has a characteristic of jointed appendages.

Question 3.
Which the locomotory organ of animals belong to Phylum Mollusca?
Answer:
Animals belonging to Phylum Mollusca have strong muscular foot which is used for locomotion.

Question 4.
Which class of animals show weak legs?
Answer:
Class Reptilia belonging to subphylum vertebrata show weak legs.

Question 5.
In which class of animals the forelimbs are modified?
Answer:
Class Aves belonging to subphylum vertebrata have wings which are modified forelimbs.

Diagram based questions:

Question 1.
Sketch, label and classify the following organisms:
1. Liverfluke.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Platyhelminthes
Example: Liverfluke

2. Leench.
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Annelida
Example: Leech

3. Cockroach:
Answer:

Classification:
Kingdom: Animalia
Division: Non-chordata
Phylum: Arthopoda
Class: Insecta
Example: Cockroach

Question 2.
Identify the animal given in the figure and label the figure:
1.

Answer:
Balanoglossus

2.

Answer:
Herdmania.

3.

Answer:
Amphioxus

4.

Answer:
Petromyzon.

5.

Answer:
bat

Question 3.
Identify the class of the animal shown in the figure and write any two characteristics.
Answer:
(1) The animal shown in the figure is bat.
(2) It belongs to class Mammalia of Subphylum Vertebrata. Phylum Chordata.
(3) Characteristics:
(i) Body is divided into head, neck, torso and tail. Patagium present for the flying mode. Nocturnal in habit. It is warm blooded.
(ii) Gives birth to live young ones. Mammary glands present for nourishing young ones.

Question 4.
Observe the figure and answer the following questions.

(a) To which phylum these organisms belong?
(b) Name the substance with which their body is covered.
(c) Name their organs of locomotion.
Answer:
(a) The starfish and the sea urchin shown in the figure belong to phylum Echinodermata.
(b) The body of echinoderm animal is covered with calcareous spines or ossicles/plates.
This is the substance covering the body is mostly calcium salts and compounds.
(c) Their locomotory organs are tube feet.

Question 5.
Observe the figures given below and answer the given questions: (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

(a) In which phylum are these animals included?
(b) Which substance forms the outer layer of their exoskeleton?
(c) What are their locomotory organs?
Answer:
(a) These animals are included in phylum Arthropoda.
(b) The outer layer of their exoskeleton is covered by chitinous substance.
(c) Their locomotory organs are jointed paired appendages.

Question 6.
Identify the phylum of the given animal and write any two characteristics of this phylum. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:

This animal is Sycon sponge and its phylum in Porifera.
Characteristics of phylum Porifera
(a) Asymmetrical body.
(b) Many pores on body. Large osculum and smaller ostia.

Question 7.
(a) Identify the animal given here.
(b) Write the phylum to which it belongs.
(c) Identify the pointed parts; p, q, r and s.

Answer:
(a) The given animal is Octopus.
(b) It belongs to the phylum Mollusca.
(c) p = eye, q = sucker, s = siphon and r = tentacle.

Complete the following charts:

Question 1.
Complete the chart by taking into consideration the criteria for classification: (Text Book Page No. 61)

Answer:

Question 2.
Complete the following flow-chart.

Answer:
(A) Eukaryotes
(B) Monera.

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Observe: (Text Book Page No. 65)
(1) Body organization of human has been shown in the following figure. Use appropriate labels for different organs present in human body.

Answer:
There are different organs in the human body. The liver, pancreas, stomach, intestine, etc. related to the digestive system and a pair of kidney concerned with excretion is present in the abdominal cavity. The cranial cavity shows brain and sense organs. In the thoracic cavity there are lungs and heart. In addition to these organs, there are network of blood capillaries, nerve network, etc. which is spread from head to toes.

Question 2.
Why is earthworm called as friend of farmers? (Get Information: Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
Earthworms move through the soil in the farms and fields. They feed on the detritus in the soil. They also help in decomposition of the organic matter. When the soil is loosened due to their activities, the roots of the crops grow well. They enrich the soil by their excreta which act as fertilizers. All these facts make earthworm, a farmer’s friend.

Question 3.
In what way the leech is used in ayurvedic system of treatment? (Get Information: Text Book Page No. 69)
Answer:
Leeches are blood sucking ectoparasite. In Ayurveda leech is used to remove impure blood and blood clots. Such blood is sucked up by leeches and then the patient gets some relief. In the leech body there is. a substance called hirudine which prevent blood clotting as it sucks up the blood. This hirudine is also used for medicinal purpose.

Question 4.
What is chitin? (Find out: Text Book Page No. 70)
Answer:
Chitin is a type of polysaccharide. Its chemical formula is (C8H13O5N)n. It is a long-chain polymer of N-acetylglucosamine, which is actually a derivative of glucose. It is a primary component of cell walls in fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods, such as crustaceans and insects. In many medicines chitin is used. The industrial processes and the biotechnological experiments also use chitin.

Question 5.
Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 70)
(i) What types of benefit and harm occur to human from animals of phylum-Arthropoda?
Answer:
Some insects are very useful for us. We get many products from them. e.g. Honey bee, Lac insect, Silk worm, are the insects that provide us with honey and wax, lac and silk respectively. The culture experiments are done on these insects for large scale production of these substances. Butterflies help in the pollination of crops and are thus helpful for the farmers and gardeners. Lady bug beetle is an insect which acts as a natural pest control as it attacks the other harmful insect pests.

In biological pest control methods it is widely used. Some insects, on the contrary are very harmful. Mosquito, bed bugs, lice are blood sucking parasites which can spread the diseases. Mosquito is a vector for dengue, filariasis and malaria. Some are biting insects that can cause wounds, some cause allergies of various kinds. The grains and crops are destroyed to great extent by the insects. In this way the insects belonging to the phylum Arthropods are harmful to health, wealth and peace of mind too.

(ii) Which are the animals from phylum Arthropoda those have shortest and longest life span?
Answer:
The shortest life span: May fly – About 24 hours. The longest life span : Lobster (Homarus americanus) – About 100 years.

(iii) Why has it been said that only insects directly compete with humans for food?
Answer:
The standing crop in the fields can be totally ruined by insects. The locust can damage the crops when they attack in thousands at a time. The grains are also infested by variety of insects like ants, weevils, beetles, etc. Therefore, we can say that only insects compete with humans for food.

Project: (Do it your self)

Project 1.
How does the infection of tapeworm in man, liver fluke in grazing animals like goat and sheep occur and what are their preventive measures? (Collect the Information, Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 69)

Project 2.
How does the infection of round worms like Ascaris, filarial worm and plant nematodes occur and what are their preventive measures and treatment? (Collect the Information, Internet is my friend: Textbook page no. 69)

Project 3.
Books are my friend: Collect the information about pearl production from bivalves by reading appropriate books. (Textbook page no. 70)

Project 4.
Book are my friends: The Animal Kingdom: Libbie Hyman and some other similar books.
(Textbook page no. 75)

Project 5.
Use of Information Technology: (Textbook page no. 75)
Prepare the presentation of animal classification using video clips downloaded from internet.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

(Mahatma Gandhi, Khuda-i-Khidmatgar, [ Ramsay Mac Donald, Sarojini Naidu)

Question 1.
……………. organised the Round Table Conference in London.
Answer:
Ramsay Mac Donald

Question 2.
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan established the organisation named …………….
Answer:
Khuda-i-Khidmatgar

Question 3.
……………. led the Dharasana Satyagraha.
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu

Question 4.
In the Second Round Table Conference ……………. participated as a representative of Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

2. Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Chandrasing Thakur was court martialled and severely punished.
Answer:

1. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan began Satyagraha at Peshawar on 23rd April, 1930. His organisation Khuda-i Khidmatgar led the satyagraha.
2. They kept Peshawar town in their control for a week.
3. The British government ordered Garhwal regiment to fire on the satyagrahis.
4. Chandrasing Thakur an officer of the Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on the satyagrahis.

Therefore, he was court-martialled and severely punished.

Question 2.
The Government declared Martial Law at Solapur.
Answer:

1. After the Salt Satyagraha many movements which were integral of Civil Disobedience Movement started.
2. The mill workers in Solapur observed hartal and organised a huge procession on 6th May 1930.
3. The District Collector ordered firing on procession. Many volunteers including Shankar Shivdare died in the firing.
4. People got enraged and attacked railway stations, police stations, courts, municipal buildings, etc.

Therefore, Martial law was imposed in Solapur by the government.

Question 3.
The deliberation in the First Round Table Conference proved to be meaningless.
Answer:

1. The Civil Disobedience Movement intensified in India in 1930.
2. The British Prime Minister, Ramsay Mac Donald organised Round Table Conference at London to discuss constitutional issues related to India.
3. The representatives of many political parties and princely states participated in the conference. Indian National Congress did not participate in it.
4. Without the participation of the Congress which was a body that represented the country deliberations were meaningless.

Thus, the deliberation in the First Round Table Conference proved to be meaningless.

Question 4.
Gandhiji began fast unto death in the Yerwada jail.
Answer:

1. The Communal Award declared by the British Prime Minister Ramsay Mac Donald provided separate electorates for the Dalits.
2. This division of the society on the basis of caste was not acceptable to Gandhiji.
3. Therefore, to protest against the Award, Gandhiji began fast unto death in the Yerawada jail.

3. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Why did Gandhiji decide to break the Salt Act to begin the Satyagraha?
Answer:
1. Before launching the Civil Disobedience Movement Gandhiji demanded cancellation of salt tax and end the monopoly of the British government to manufacture it.
2. Being an important ingredient in the food of the common people, it was unjust to impose a tax on salt.
3. Gandhiji decided to launch the Salt Satyagraha by a violation of the Salt Act, which was symbolic in breaking all unjust and oppressive laws of the British.

Question 2.
Why did the Indian National Congress withdraw the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
1. After the failure of the First Round Table Conference, Prime Minister Ramsay Mac Donald hoped that Indian National Congress would participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
2. In order to create a conducive atmosphere Gandhiji and other political leaders were released from jail.
3. A pact was signed after discussion between Gandhiji and Viceroy Irwin.
4. According to the pact, the British Government gave an assurance of providing Responsible Government in the proposed constitution of India.
5. So, the congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

4. Complete the following timeline of Civil Disobedience Movement:

Question 1.

Answer:

Do you Know?

Features of the Civil Disobedience Movement :
1. All the movements, till now, were limited only to urban areas. But this movement became a nationwide movement. People from rural areas registered their participation. Women also took part in large numbers. Kasturba Gandhi, Kamladevi Chattopadhyay, Ayantikaba I Gokha le, Lilavati Munshi, Hansaben Mehta led the satyagraha.

2. This movement was based on complete nonviolence. The British Government was trying to greatly suppress the movement, but the people protested unarmed. Due to this, the Indian people became fearless.

project:

Question 1.
Gather additional information along with photographs about the work of the following personalities in the Civil Disobedience Movement and exhibit it in the class. (a) Sarojini Naidu (b) Khan Abdul Gafar Khan (c) Babu Genu Said.

Question 2.
The plot on an outline map of India, the places mentioned in the chapter where the Civil Disobedience Movement took place.

Class 8 History Chapter 8 Civil Disobedience Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
After the resolution of Complete Independence was passed in Lahore session, Gandhiji decided to launch ……………. Movement.
(a) Home Rule
(b) Non-co-operation
(c) Quit India
(d) Civil Disobedience
Answer:
(d) Civil Disobedience

Question 2.
During Civil Disobedience Movement, government imposed Martial law in ……………. .
(a) Peshawar
(b) Solapur
(c) Pune
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Solapur

Question 3.
Gandhiji withdrew the Civil Disobedience Movement in ……………. .
(a) April 1934
(b) March 1930
(c) November 1932
(d) May 1933
Answer:
(a) April 1934

Question 4.
Gandhiji broke the Salt Act at ……………. .
(a) Dandi
(b) Peshawar
(c) Dharasana
(d) Yerwada
Answer:
(a) Dandi

Question 5.
The British government gave orders to regiment in Peshawar to ……………. open fire on the satyagrahis.
(a) Garhwal
(b) Sikh
(c) Maratha
(d) Rajput
Answer:
(a) Garhwal

Name the following :

Question 1.
Follower of Gandhiji known as Frontier Gandhi.
Answer:
Khan Abdul Gafar Khan

Question 2.
Volunteer who died in firing at Solapur satyagraha.
Answer:
Shankar Shivdare

Question 3.
Laid down his life in front of the truck boycotting foreign goods in Mumbai.
Answer:
Babu Genu Said

Question 4.
Attended the Second Round Table Conference as representative of Dalits.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.

Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
What was the objective of Gandhiji in starting the Civil Disobedience?
Answer:
The objective of Gandhiji was to break the oppressive and unjust laws of the British Government through peace and Satyagraha.

Question 2.
From which place and when did the Dandi March start?
Answer:
The Dandi March started from Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad on 12 March, 1930.

Question 3.
Name the leaders present at the First Round Table Conference.
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru, Barrister Jinnah were the leaders present at the First Round Table Conference.

Question 4.
Which issues were discussed in the First Round Table Conference?
Answer:
The issues like Responsible Government at centre and establishment of Federal State in India were discussed.

Question 5.
What decision was made in the Poona Pact?
Answer:
According to the Poona Pact, separate electorates for the Dalits was cancelled and a provision for reserved seats was made.

Do as Directed :

Complete the graphical presentation :

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes :

Question 1.
Gandhi-Irwin Pact :
Answer:
1. On the appeal of the Prime Minister, the Viceroy released Gandhiji and other political leaders from prison.
2. In this conducive atmosphere, a pact was signed between Gandhiji and Viceroy Irwin. It is known as Gandhi-Irwin Pact.

• According to the pact, the British Government gave an assurance of providing Responsible Government in the proposed constitution of India.
• Congress decided to withdraw the Civil Disobedience Movement.
• Agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

Question 2.
Second Round Table Conference :
Answer:

1. The Second Round Table Conference was held in 1931.
2. Gandhiji participated as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress.
3. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar represented the Dalits. The representatives of the various castes and communities, political parties and the princely states also participated.
4. The issues of minority representation and nature of proposed federal constitution were discussed.
5. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the Dalits.
6. Gandhiji tried to bring unanimity but he was unsuccessful. ‘
7. So, he was disappointed and returned to India.

Question 3.
Poona Pact :
Answer:

1. After the Second Round Table Conference, the British Prime Minister Ramsay Mac Donald declared Communal Awards.
2. Communal Awards granted separate electorates to the Dalits as demanded by Dr. Ambedkar.
3. Gandhiji was against the division on the basis of caste. He started fast unto death in Yerwada jail.
4. The leaders of Indian National Congress requested Dr. Ambedkar to reconsider his demand in the interest of the nation.
5. So, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar signed the. Poona Pact with Gandhiji in 1932.
6. It provided reserved seats instead of separate electorates for the Dalits.

Question 4.
The Round Table Conference :
Answer:

1. The British Prime Minister, Ramsay Mac Donald wanted to discuss constitutional issues related to India.
2. For this purpose, he organised Three Round Table Conferences at London between 1930 and 1932.
3. Representatives of various communities, castes, political parties and princely states attended the conferences.
4. Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Conference as the representative of Indian National Congress.
5. As no important decision was taken in them, all these conferences proved to be futile.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about the sacrifice of Babu Genu.
Answer:

1. There was agitation against foreign goods in Mumbai.
2. Babu Genu Said, a mill worker, was at the forefront in this Satyagraha.
3. He threw himself in front of a truck carrying foreign goods in order to stop it.
4. He did not budge even after the police threatened him.
5. In the end, he was crushed under the truck.
6. His martyrdom was a source of inspiration for the national movement.

Question 2.
Write features of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience Movement launched in 1930 had the following features :

1. All the movements launched till then were limited to urban areas.
2. But this movement became nationwide as the people from rural areas also participated.
3. Women participated in large numbers in the movement and even led it at many places.
4. The movement was based on non-violence. People faced the suppressive measures of the government unarmed and fearlessly.

Question 3.
What suppressive measures were adopted by the British government after the Second Round Table Conference?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji resumed the Civil Disobedience Movement after he failed and returned from the Second Round Table Conference.
2. The government responded by resorting to inhuman oppressive measures.
3. Civic rights were strangled.
4. The Indian National Congress and associated institutions were declared illegal.
5. Restrictions were imposed on national newspapers and literature.

Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Gandhiji was arrested on 4th May 1930.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji started Salt Satyagraha on 6th April 1930 at Dandi by breaking the Salt act.
2. With this the Civil Disobedience Movement started all over India.
3. In spite of suppressive measures undertaken by the British Government, they could not suppress the movement.

The British government found itself in a difficult situation. So, Gandhiji was arrested on 4th May 1930.

Question 2.
Gandhiji returned disappointed from the Second Round Table Conference.
Answer:

1. The British Government raised the issue of representation of the minorities and the nature of the federal constitution.
2. There were differences of opinion among the representatives.
3. Moreover, the efforts of Gandhiji to arrive at a consensus did not succeed.
4. This disappointed Gandhiji and he returned from the Second Round Table Conference.

Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

Passage:
The satyagraha at …………….
………………… Malavan and Shiroda.

Question 1.
Who led the Dharasana Satyagraha?
Answer:
Sarojini Naidu led the Dharasana Satyagraha in Gujarat.

Question 2.
At which places in Maharashtra did Salt Satyagraha take place?
Answer:
The Salt Satyagraha in Maharashtra took place at Wadala, Malvan and Shiroda.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of the Dharasana Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. The leadership of salt satyagraha was taken over by Sarojini Naidu at Dharasana in Gujarat after the arrest of Gandhiji.
2. The police lathi-charged the batches of the satyagrahis who came forward to break the Salt Act.
3. They silently tolerated the blows of the lathis.
4. The injured were provided medical aid and another batch of satyagrahis would replace them.
5. This chain of satyagrahis continued endlessly at Dharasana.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the extensive nature of Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:

1. After the resolution of complete independence was passed, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. he Salt Satyagraha was launched on 6th April 1930 at Dandi. It was a symbolic act by Gandhiji.
3. The main objective was to break all unjust and oppressive laws of the British through peace and Satyagraha.
4. Salt Satyagraha took place at Dharasana in Gujarat and at Wadala, Malvan and Shiroda in Maharashtra.
5. The mill workers were on the forefront in the Solapur Satyagraha.
6. The forest Satyagraha was undertaken at Bilashi, Sangamner, Kalavan, Chirner and Pusad by tribals in Maharashtra.
7. In the Northwest Frontier Province, the Satyagraha was organised under the leadership of Khan Abdul Gafar Khan.
8. The satyagrahis in Mumbai obstructed the trucks loaded with foreign goods.
9. Women also participated in large numbers.
10. This movement reached urban as well as the rural areas, thus making it a national movement.

Question 2.
Write information of Dandi March.
Answer:

1. Gandhiji decided to launch Civil Disobedience Movement to cancel unjust tax on salt and to end the monopoly of the British Government to manufacture of salt.
2. Salt, an important ingredient in the food of common people, was chosen by Gandhiji.
3. On 12th March 1930 he set out from Sabarmati ashram with his 7 followers.
4. Gandhiji delivered speeches in the villages on his way to Dandi.
5. Due to Gandhiji’s speech the message of Civil Disobedience spread everywhere and a favorable atmosphere was created.
6. He appealed to the people to join the movement fearlessly.
7. Covering a distance of 35 km, Gandhiji reached Dandi, a seashore, on 5th April 1930.
8. On 6th April, he broke the salt act by picking up the salt lying on the seashore.
9. With this, the Civil Disobedience Movement started all over the country.

Question 3.
Do you feel Gandhiji’s Civil Disobedience technique can be used in present times?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji opposed the unjust and oppressive laws of the British and broke them through peace and Satyagraha.
2. I strongly feel India needs such ways in present times. Political parties and organisations call for strike or start a movement against decisions of government.
3. They resort to unconstitutional acts such as stopping the vehicles, vandalising public property, setting objects on fire and starting riots.
4. They destroy property of the nation by involving in all this anti-social activities. Innocent people get killed.
5. It brings development to a halt, creates a divide in society.
6. The feeling of unity, co-operation and tolerance remains no more. Society becomes unsafe.
7. Therefore, I feel that even today the nation requires technique of Civil Disobedience.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Location and Extent

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Are the sentences right or wrong. ? Rewrite the wrong ones

Question a.
Brazil is mainly located in the Southern Hemisphere.
Answer:
Right

Question b.
Tropic of Capricorn passes through the middle of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India.

Question c.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil is less than India.
Answer:
Wrong. The longitudinal extent of Brazil is more than India.

Question d.
Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil.
Answer:
Right

Question e.
Brazil has a coastline along the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Wrong. Brazil has a coastline along the Atlantic. Ocean.

Question f.
Pakistan is a neighbouring country to the south east of India.
Answer:
Wrong. Pakistan is neighbouring a country to the north west of India.

Question g.
The southern part of India is called Peninsula.
Answer:
Right.

2. Answer in brief:

Question a.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one- and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Question b.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question c.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Select the correct option

Question a.
India’s southernmost point is known as __________.
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Port Blair
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question b.
These two countries in South America do not share their border with Brazil?
(a) Chile – Ecuador
(b) Argentina – Bolivia
(c) Columbia – French Guiana
(d) Surinam – Uruguay
Answer:
(a) Chile – Ecuador

Question c.
Both the countries have _________ type of government.
Military
(b) Republic
Communist
(d) Presidential
Answer:
(b) Republic

Question d.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of Brazil correctly?

Answer:

Question e.
Which of the following shapes show the coastal part of India Correctly?

Answer:

Question f.
Considering hemisphere, which shape correctly represents the hemisphere in which India lies?

Answer:

Question g.
Considering the hemisphere, which correctly represents the hemisphere in which Brazil mainly lies?

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Intext Questions and Answers

Colours of both
Answer the following questions with respect to the countries that you have studied.

Question 1.
Out of the countries that you have coloured, which country is larger in size?
Answer:
Brazil is larger in size.

Question 2.
Which country has a larger latitudinal extent?
Answer:
Brazil has a larger latitudinal extent.

Question 3.
How do the locations of Brazil and India differ in terms of their positions in their respective continents?
Answer:
Brazil lies in the northern part of the continent of South America, whereas India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia.

Question 4.
How many states does each of the two countries have?
Answer:
Brazil has 26 states and one federal district. India has 28 states and 8 union territories.

Question 5.
Obtain information regarding the emblems of both the countries, i.e. India and Brazil.
Answer:
India:
The national emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion capital of Ashoka at Sarnath. The emblem has three lions visible, the fourth being hidden from the view. The four lions symbolise power, courage, confidence and pride. At the bottom is a horse and a bull, and its centre is a wheel (Dharma Chakra). Forming an integral part of the emblem is the motto inscribed in Devanagari Script: Satyameva Jayate (Truth Alone Triumphs)

Brazil:
The national emblem of Brazil is coat of arms shows the Southern cross in a blue circle. The ring of 27 stars around it represents Brazil’s 26 states and the Federal District. The whole is placed on a star and surrounded by coffee (at the left) and tobacco (at the right), which are the important crops in Brazil. The blue ribbon contains the official name of Brazil (Republica Federativa Do Brazil – Federative Republic of Brazil) in the first line. In the second, the date of the federative republic’s establishment (November 15, 1889) is written.

Give it a try.

Question 1.
The imperial power which ruled Brazil also ruled a part of India. Find out when that part of India achieved independence?
Answer:
Answer: In India, Goa, Diu and Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese rule. These regions got independence on 19th December 1961.

Match the column:

Question 1.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)      Dance form of Brazil (2)      Capital of India (3)      Capital of Brazil (4)      Coffee pot of world	(a)     Brazil (b)     Samba (c)     New Delhi (d)     Brasilia (e)     Bangladesh (f)     Myanmar

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – a

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Country to the south of Brazil	(a) China
(2) Sea to the west of India	(b) Uruguay
(3) Second largest populated country	(c) Arabian sea
(4) Coffee pot of the world Imperial power ruled Brazil	(d) India
	(e) Portuguese
	(f) Japan

Answer:
1 – b
2 – c
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which is the second largest populated country in the world?
Answer:
India is the second-largest populated country in the world.

Question 2.
Which country is called the ‘coffee pot’ of the world’?
Answer:
Brazil is called the coffee pot of the world.

Question 3.
Which dance form is famous in Brazil?
Answer:
Samba is the famous dance form of Brazil.

Question 4.
Name the capital of India?
Answer:
The capital of India is New Delhi.

Question 5.
When did India gain Independence?
Answer:
India got independence on 15th August 1947.

Question 6.
When did Brazil gain independence?
Answer:
Brazil gained its independence on 7th September 1822.

Question 7.
Which countries are located to the north of Brazil?
Answer:
Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname and French Guiana are situated to the north of Brazil

Question 8.
Which countries are located to the west of Brazil?
Answer:
Colombia, Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay and Argentina are situated to the west of Brazil.

Question 9.
Which country is situated to the south of Brazil?
Answer:
Uruguay is situated to the south of Brazil.

Question 10.
Which ocean lies to the east of Brazil?
Answer:
The North and South Atlantic Ocean lies to the east of Brazil.

Question 11.
Which countries are situated to the east of India?
Answer:
Myanmar and Bangladesh are situated to the east of India.

Question 12.
Which countries are situated to the north of India?
Answer:
China, Bhutan and Nepal are situated to the north of India.

Question 13.
Which sea lies to the west of India?
Answer:
Arabian sea lies to the west of India.

Question 14.
Which countries lie to the south of India?
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives and Indonesia lie to the south of India.

Question 15.
What is the location of the southernmost tip of India?
Answer:
The location of the southernmost tip of India (Indira Point) is 6°45′ N parallel.

Question 16.
According to the equator, in which hemisphere is Brazil located?
Answer:
Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.

Question 17.
In which hemispheres is India located?
Answer:
India is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 18.
What type of government does Brazil have today?
Answer:
Today, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government.

Question 19.
What type of government does India have today?
Answer:
Today, India has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.

Question 20.
Where does the name Brazil come from?
Answer:
The name Brazil comes from ‘Pau Brasil’, a local wooded tree.

Question 21.
Who established the early settlement in Brazil?
Answer:
The Portuguese settlers established the early settlement in Brazil.

Question 22.
Distinguish between: Location of India and Brazil
Answer:

India	Brazil
(i) India is located at 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitude and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.	(i) Brazil is located at 5°15’N to 33°45’S latitudes and between 34°47’W to 73°48’W.
(ii) It is located in the northern and eastern hemispheres.	(ii) Some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere, while most of it lies in the southern hemisphere. Brazil also lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India is located in the southern part of the Asian continent.	(iii) Brazil is located in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 23.
Find the difference between the post-independence characteristics of India and Brazil.
Answer:

Brazil	India
(i) Brazil gained its independence in 1822. From 1930 to 1985, for more than half a century, it was under a populist military government. Presently, Brazil has Federal Presidential Republic type of government	(i) India got its independence in the year 1947. It has Federal Parliamentary Republic type of government.
(ii) The proportion of older people that is non – working population is high.	(ii) The proportion of youth, i.e. working population is high.
(iii )It has overcome global financial difficulties in the late 20th century	(iii) It has faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is high in Brazil.	(iv) Sex ratio and literacy rate is low in India.

Observe the map and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Identify the countries and water bodies around India and complete the following table.


To the North
To the East
To the South
To the West
Answer:

No.	Directions	Neighbouring Countries/ Oceans
(1)	North	China, Bhutan, Nepal
(2)	South	Indian Ocean, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Indonesia
(3)	East	Myanmar, Bangladesh, Bay of Bengal
(4)	West	Arabian Sea, Pakistan, Afghanistan

Question 2.
Identify Brazil’s neighbouring countries and oceans. Complete the following table.


(a) To the North
(b) To the South
(c) To the East
(d) To the West
Answer:

No.	Directions	Neighbouring Countries	Oceans
(1)	North	Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, French Guiana	North Atlantic Ocean
(2)	South	Uruguay	South Atlantic Ocean
(3)	East		South Atlantic Ocean
(4)	West	Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay, Colombia, Argentina

Question 3.
Show the following on an outline of the world map.
(a) Name all the continents and oceans of the world.
(b) Colour Brazil and India using different colours and name them.
(c) Draw equator on the map and write its value in degrees.
(d) Show the symbol for direction.
Answer:

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.
Answer:
(i) Brazil ranks first in the world in the terms of production of coffee.
(ii) It produces nearly 40% of the total coffee production in the world.
(iii) It is the largest exporter of coffee.
Therefore, Brazil is called the ‘coffee pot of the world’.

Question 2.
Brazil is known as the country having third longest land border.
Answer:
(i) Brazil has the world’s third longest land border, after China and Russia.
(ii) It shares its boundaries with all South American countries, except Chile and Ecuador, totalling 16,885 Kilometers.
(iii) Brazil has borders with 10 different countries, which are Argentina, Bolivia, Colombia, French Guiana, Guyana, Paraguay, Peru, Suriname, Uruguay and Venezuela.
(iv) Hence, Brazil is called the country having third longest land borders.

Question 3.
India is looked upon as a young country.
Answer:
(i) The proportion of youth in India’s population is high.
(ii) This forms a major part of the working population.
(iii) According to 2011 census the percentage of working population is more than 50 %.
(iv) Hence, India is looked upon as a young country.

Question 4.
India’s economic development has paced up. OR India is considered as a major global market.
Answer:
(i) Despite facing several problems after independence, today India is a major developing country of the world.
(ii) It is because of various reforms from time to time, that India’s economic development has paced up.
(iii) So, it is considered to be a global market.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What problems did Brazil and India face after independence?
Answer:
(i) India was under the British rule for almost one-and-a-half centuries and it got its independence in the year 1947.
(ii) It faced several problems like three wars, famine situations in various parts and similar issues after independence.
(iii) Brazil gained its independence in 1822 after more than three centuries of Portuguese rule.
(iv) From 1930 to 1985, for more than a half century, it was under a populist military government and it faced global financial difficulties in the late 20th century.
Thus, both India and Brazil faced many problems post-independence.

Question 2.
How are Brazil and India different from each other in terms of location?
Answer:
(i) India is located in the northern hemisphere of the earth whereas some part of Brazil lies in the northern hemisphere and most of it lies in the southern hemisphere.
(ii) India entirely lies in the eastern hemisphere whereas, Brazil lies in the western hemisphere.
(iii) India lies in the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the continent of South America.
(iv) India lies in the southern part of the continent of Asia whereas Brazil lies in the northern part of South American continent.

Question 3.
Describe the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The extent of the mainland India is 8°4’N to 37°6’N latitudes and between 68°7’E to 97°25’E longitudes.
(ii) Indira Point is the southernmost tip of India.
(iii) It is located on 6°45’N parallel.
(iv) The extent of the mainland Brazil is 5°15’N to 33°45′ S latitudes and between to 34°47’W to 73°48’W longitude.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 2 Location and Extent Additional Important Questions and Answers

Name the following:
Question 1.
The second-largest populated country in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 2.
The country is famous for its spices in the world.
Answer:
India

Question 3.
The country is known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world.
Answer:
Brazil

Question 4.
The famous dance form of Brazil.
Answer:
Samba

Question 5.
Hemispheres in which India is located.
Answer:
Northern and eastern hemispheres.

Question 6.
A continent in which India is located.
Answer:
Asia

Question 7.
The latitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
8°4’N to 37°6’N

Question 8.
The longitudinal extent of India.
Answer:
68°7’E to 97°25’E

Question 8.
Foreign power which ruled Brazil for more than three centuries.
Answer:
Portuguese.

Question 9.
Independence day of Brazil.
Answer:
7th September 1822.

Question 10.
Type of Government in Brazil from 1930 to 1985.
Answer:
Populist Military Government.

Question 11.
The latitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
5°15’N to 33°45’S.

Question 12.
The longitudinal extent of Brazil.
Answer:
34°47’W to 73°48’W

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
The second largest populated country in the world is _________.
(a) China
(b) Brazil
(c) India
(d) Russia
Answer:
(c) India

Question 2.
Brazil is famous for ________ type of dance form.
(a) Salsa
(b) Samba
(c) Ballet
(d) Tango
Answer:
(b) Samba

Question 3.
The country known as the ‘coffee pot’ of the world is _______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Brazil

Question 4.
India is located in the ________ part of the Asian continent.
(a) southern
(b) northern
(c) northeastern
(d) western
Answer:
(a) southern

Question 5.
Brazil gained independence in _______.
(a) 1890
(b) 1980
(c) 1822
(d) 1820
Answer:
(c) 1822

Question 6.
Capital of Brazil is _______.
(a) Kabul
(b) Kaula Lumpur
(c) Brasilia
(d) Monaco
Answer:
(c) Brasilia

Question 7.
Capital of India is _____.
(a) Patna
(b) New Delhi
(c) Dispur
(d) Chandigarh
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 8.
India was under ___ rule for almost one and a half-century.
(a) Portuguese
(b) African
(c) Russian
(d) British
Answer:
(d) British

Question 9.
For more than a half-century, Brazil was under a _____ government.
(a) Populist military
(b) Monarchy
(c) Constitutional government
(d) Dictatorial
(a) Populist military

Question 10.
Most part of the of mainland Brazil lies in the ______ hemisphere.
(a) northern
(b) southern
(c) eastern
(d) northwestern
Answer:
(b) southern

Question 11.
Brazil was ruled by ______ imperial power which also ruled a part of India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) British
(c) Indonesia
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:
(Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan, Maharshi Dhondo Karve, Abdul Latif, Swami Vivekananda, Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde)

Question 1.
………….. established the Ramkrishna Mission.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda

Question 2.
The Anglo-Mohammedan Oriental College was established by………….. .
Answer:
Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan

Question 3.
The Depressed Classes Mission was founded by ……………. .
Answer:
Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde

2. Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The social and religious reform movement began in India.
Answer:

1. With the spread of English education in India, there was spread of new ideas, new thoughts, new philosophy.
2. Indians got introduced to western thoughts and culture.
3. They wanted to create a society based on principles of Humanity, Equality and Fraternity.
4. They realised that the flaws like superstitions, casteism, old customs, class system and lack of critical outlook is responsible for the backwardness of India.
5. This association was responsible for social and religious reform in India.

Question 2.
Mahatma Phule conducted a strike of Barbers.
Answer:

1. There was a custom of Keshavapan, i.e. shaving head of widows in India.
2. In order to oppose this unjust custom, Mahatma Phule conducted a strike of Barbers.

4. Write short note:

Question 1.
Ramkrishna Mission :
Answer:

1. Swami Vivekananda, a close disciple of Ramkrishna Paramhansa, founded the Ramkrishna Mission in 1897.
2. The mission carried out social work like providing help to famine-stricken people, patients and gave medical help to the poor and worked for female education.
3. It taught people service to humanity is a true religion and worked towards spiritual progress of the people.

Question 2.
Reforms for women by Savitribai Phule:
Answer:

1. Savitribai Phule, wife of Mahatma Phule, advocated women’s education along with him.
2. She supported her husband in his efforts to start first school for girls at Bhide Wada in Pune.
3. She continued her work in the field of education though she faced severe criticism from the society.
4. She put great efforts in women reform movement which resulted in putting an end to many unjust practices.

Do you know?

Renaissance in other fields/areas :

Sr. No.	Field/ Area	Changes/Progress
1.	Literature	1) Stories and novels dealt with the themes related with social reforms. Writing by women authors. 2) Newspapers and magazines became the carriers of social reform and political awakening.
2.	Art	1) Music became people-oriented. 2) Traditional Indian style of painting was combined with western techniques.
3.	Science	1) Writing of books on science emphasized scientific outlook. 2) People realised the importance of experimentation and scientific outlook for progress.

Project:

Question 1.
Organise an essay competition on the topic ‘Education of women’.

Question 2.
Collect the paragraphs of social reformers.

Class 8 History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reforms Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:
(Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan, Maharshi Dhondo Karve, Abdul Latif, Swami Vivekananda, Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde)

Question 1.
Through the efforts of ……….. first women’s university was set up in the 20th century.
Answer:
Maharshi Dhondo Karve

Question 2.
………….. established The Mohammedan Literary Society in Bengal.
Answer:
Abdul Latif.

Name the following :

Question 1.
He founded Hindu College at Kolkata.
Answer:
Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
First president of Prarthana Samaj.
Answer:
Dr. Atmaram Pandurang Tarkhadkar

Question 3.
‘Go Back to the Vedas’ was the slogan of this Institution.
Answer:
Arya Samaj

Question 4.
He represented Hinduism at the Parliament of Religions at Chicago in 1893.
Answer:
Swami Vivekananda.

Identify the wrong pair:

Answer:
Wrong pair: Dr. Keshav Baliram
Hedgewar – Founded Hindu Mahasabha
Corrected pair: Dr. Keshav Baliram
Hedgewar – founded Rashtriya
Swayam- Sevak Sangh.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
Raja Rammohan Roy helped Governor General ……… to pass the Sati Prohibition Act.
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Bentinck
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer:
Lord Bentinck

Question 2.
Gopal Ganesh Agarkar gave his staunch opinion about child marriage, law of consent in his newspaper ………… .
(a) Maratha
(b) Darpan
(c) Sudharak
(d) Dnyanoday
Answer:
Sudharak

Question 3.
……….. started the Nursing Course for Women through Seva Sadan Institute.
(a) Tarabai Shinde
(b) Ramabai Ranade
(c) Savitribai Phule
(d) Pandita Ramabai
Answer:
Ramabai Ranade

Question 4.
………… continued tradition of reformation in Sikh religion.
(a) Singh Sabha
(b) Akali movement
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
Akali movement

Question 5.
Lokhitwadi advocated gender equality through his writings in ………… .
(a) Sudharak
(b) Kesari
(c) Shatpatre
(d) Darpan
Answer:
(c) Shatpatre

Do as Directed:

Complete the concept map:
Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

2. Complete the timeline:

Answer:

Answer the following in one sentence each :

Question 1.
What message was given by Swami Vivekanand to the Indian youth?
Answer:
‘Arise, Awake and stop not till the goal is achieved’ was the message given by Swami Vivekanand to the Indian youth.

Question 2.
Write about the work of Singh Sabha.
Answer:
The Singh Sabha worked to achieve reforms, to spread education among the Sikh community and bring in modernisation among them

Question 3.
What were the principles of Prarthana Samaj?
Answer:
The opposition to idol worship, monotheism and opposition to rituals were the principles of Prarthana Samaj.

Question 4.
Which social reformers worked for the cause of widow remarriage?
Answer:
Pandit Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar, Vishnushastri Pandit and Vireshlingam Pantalu worked for the cause of widow remarriage.

Question 5.
Who started ‘Anath Balikashram’?
Answer:
Maharshi Dhondo Keshav Karve started Anath Balikashram, an orphanage for girls, to give education to all women so that they become independent.

Question 6.
Who received the Nobel Prize and in which field?
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore received Nobel in the field of literature and C. V. Raman for Science.

Question 7.
What was The Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College later known as?
Answer:
The Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College was later known as the Aligarh Muslim University.

Write short note:

Question 1.
Prarthana Samaj :
Answer:
(1) Paramhansa Sabha was dissolved and some of its members formed Prarthana Samaj.
(2) Dr. Atmaram Pandurang was its first President.
(3) They opposed idol worship, monotheism and advocated prayers and devotional songs instead of rituals in place of worship of God.
(4) The important contribution of Prarthana Samaj in reforming the society was that it started orphanages, women’s education institutes, night schools for workers and society for Dalits.
(5) The prestige of Prarthana Samaj rose immensely due to the enrollment of young graduates from Mumbai University.
(6) Justice Ranade, Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar carried the work of Prarthana Samaj forward.

Question 2.
Sir Sayyad Ahmed Khan :
Answer:

1.  Sir Sayyad Ahmad Khan worked for the cause of Muslims.
2. He believed that the Muslims would not make progress without acquiring western education and science.
3. He founded ‘The Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College’ which later became Aligarh Muslim University.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about the contribution of Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde.
Answer:

1. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde was member of Prarthana Samaj, contributed in reforming society.
2. He started the ‘Depressed Class Mission’.
3. He tried to solve problems in society through this mission.
4. He organised conference against the practice of Devdasi in Mumbai.

Question 2.
Write about the efforts taken to unite Hindu Society.
Answer:

1. Hindu Mahasabha was formed in 1915 to achieve respectful position of Hindu community and protect it.
2. Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya founded the ‘Banaras Hindu University’.
3. Dr. Keshav Baliram Hedgewar established Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh in 1925 at Nagpur to set up a disciplinary and virtuous organisation of Hindu youth.
4. Patit Pawan Temple built by V. D. Savarkar at Ratnagiri was open to all castes of Hindu religion. He also organized common dining programmes.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of the work of women social reformers for the emancipation of women.
Answer:
The women reformers contributed in the following way to improve the condition of women :

1. Savitribai Phule faced severe criticism of society but continued her work in the field of education.
2. Tarabai Shinde wrote the book ‘Stri Purush Tulana’ in which she fiercely put her views about the rights of women.
3. Pandita Ramabai founded the Sharada Sadan and took care of disabled women and children.
4. Ramabai Ranade founded the Seva Sadan Institute. She started the Nursing course for women as well as demanded the right to vote for them.

Question 4.
State the outcome of women reform movement.
Answer:

1. The women’s reforms movement resulted in putting an end to many unjust practices in the society.
2. They voiced their problems and made efforts to find solution to them.
3. The women got opportunities to prove their capabilities in different fields.
4. Women started expressing their ideas, thoughts through writing.
5. Their performance flourished in every sphere of life due to education.

Question 5.
What changes came about in the field of Science, Art and Literature during Indian Renaissance?
Answer:
The following changes were seen in the field of Science, Art and Literature during Indian Renaissance :
(A) Science :

1. C. V. Raman received the Nobel Prize in Science.
2. Many books were written on science which emphasized scientific outlook.
3. People realised the importance of experimentation and scientific outlook for progress of the country.

(B) Art :

1. Music became more popular and people-oriented.
2. A new school of painting combining traditional Indian style of painting with the western techniques emerged.

(C) Literature :

1. Rabindranath Tagore received the Nobel Prize in literature.
2. Stories and novels gave inspiration in gaining independence and expressed thoughts on social reforms.
3. Women took to writing.
4. New magazines and newspapers became sources of inspiration and political awakening.

Write short note :

Question 1.
The condition of women was miserable in the beginning of nineteenth century.
Answer:
The condition of women during the British period was very miserable in India, because :

1. They had no right to education.
2. There was no equality between men and women.
3. Women were victims of child marriage, dowry system, sati, Keshavapan, opposition to widow remarriage.

Answer the following in detail :

Question 1.
Write briefly about Indian Renaissance.
Answer:
1. The modern educated Indians realised that the unhealthy social conditions and customs like casteism, superstitions, old customs, class system and lack of critical outlook had arrested the progress of India.
2. Rise in the spread of new ideas, new thoughts, new philosophy marked the beginning of modern age.
3. It was necessary to eradicate the flaws and undesirable tendencies in order to create a new society based on principles of Humanity, Equality and Fraternity.
4. They started finding new ways for development of society and country. Educated thinkers started social awareness through writings.
5. This intellectual awakening in the contemporary society in India is called the Indian Renaissance.

Question 2.
Give a brief account of the work of social reformers for the betterment of women.
Answer:

1. Raja Rammohan Roy launched agitations against practice of Sati.
2. It led to the enactment of the Sati Prohibition Act in 1829.
3. He advocated widow remarriage and female education and opposed Purdah system.
4. Gopal Hari Deshmukh (Lokhitwadi) criticized the unjust social customs related to women and advocated equality of men and women through his writings in ‘Shatapatre’.
5. Mahatma Phule gave importance to 2 girl’s education. He started first school for i girls at Bhide Wada in Pune.
6. Through his writings Babasaheb Ambedkar exposed injustice inflicted on women.
7. Mahatma Gandhi advocated education for women.
8. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Vishnushastri Pandit and Vireshlingam Pantalu strove for the recognition of the right to remarriage for the widows.
9. Gopal Ganesh Agarkar gave his staunch opinion about child marriage and j law of consent in his newspaper ‘Sudharak’.
10. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde organised a conference to oppose practice of Devdasi.
11. Maharshi Dhondo Keshav Karve founded the Anath Balikashram for orphan girls and later the first Women’s University.

Question 3.
What would have happened if social reformers had not taken initiative for women education?
Answer:
We have seen many social reformers in the last 100-150 years. They not only insisted on women education but also took efforts to make it reality.
If they had not taken efforts towards women education then:

1. Women would have still remained illiterate and would have easily fallen prey to superstitions.
2. They would have to carry burden of age old customs and traditions.
3. Illiterate women could not contribute to the development of family, society and nation.
4. Today they work hand in hand with their male counterparts because they are educated.

Question 4.
What changes have been made in the life of women due to education?
Answer:
Education has brought lot of changes in the life of women.

1. Women started taking jobs, doing business which made them financially independent.
2. They are working and competing along with men in every field.
3. Educated women freed themselves from the clutches of superstitions.
4. Educated women have become strong enough to face the injustice of society.
5. The principle of equality is put into practice because of their education.
6. As woman got educated she contributed for development of her family and country.

Question 5.
Do you still feel there is need to make efforts for women’s education? If yes, then what efforts need to be made?
Answer:

1. I feel we still need to make efforts on girls’ education because among illiterates and less educated the number of women is more.
2. The number of illiterate girls in rural and tribal areas is more.
3. It is important to explain importance of girls’ education. Reforms are still required.
4. To make people understand the benefit of girls’ education, documentaries and advertisements should be made.
5. We need to take help of modern technology to achieve it.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 10 Disaster Management Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Science Solutions Part 2 Chapter 10 Disaster Management

Question 1.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 2.
Write notes.
a. Disaster Management Authority.
Answer:
Disaster Management Authority is the body that works at the level of government from national level to village level. This work is basically about management of any disaster and tackling the problems of the affected people. At National level there is National Disaster Management Authority for which the Prime Minister is the chairman. For every state there is State Disaster Management Authority, where the chief minister of every state is the chairman. Under the state level, there are district level units where district collector is responsible for disaster management and implementation of rehabilitation schemes. Below district level authority there are Taluka and then Village Disaster Management Committees.

The Tahsildar is the chairman for Taluka level while the Sarpanch of the village is responsible for management of disasters at village level. Collector of each district helps in planning, coordinating and controlling the implementation of rehabilitation programme and also gives essential instructions and reviews the entire system.

b. Nature of disaster management.
Answer:
Disaster management involves either prevention of disasters (Pre-disaster management) or creating preparedness to face them (Post-disaster management). The action plans are prepared for managing disasters. This is done after studying the different aspects such as preventive measures, rehabilitation and reconstruction plans. The disasters are tackled by executing action plans in the following steps: Preparation, redemption, preparedness, action during actual disaster, response, resurgence and restoration. At every level there are other voluntary organizations and Government meteorological institutions for their help.

c. Mock drill.
Answer:

• Mock drill is the practice to check whether there is preparedness for dealing with the sudden attack of disaster.
• For this purpose, virtual or apparent situations that simulate the disaster are created.
• The reaction time for any type of disaster is checked by such activity. In the presence of trained personnel, the execution of the rescue plans are observed.
• People also understand their responsibilities at the time of actual disaster.
• The experts also check execution of plan designed for disaster redressal.
• By such mock drills, the efficacy of the system can be understood. In future, when actual calamity strikes, there is already preparation for disaster redressal. Therefore, mock drill is useful.

d. Disaster Management Act, 2005.
Answer:
Government of India has made Disaster Management Act in 2005. The affected people are given all necessary help as per this act. With the humanitarian view, people are rehabilitated and helped them to come back to normalcy after the disaster.

As per this Act, National Disaster Response Force has been established. This force consists of 12 divisions in entire India which are attached with Indian Army. The headquarter is located in Delhi, but the action is taken all over the country with the help of army. As per the Act, in Maharashtra National Disaster Response Force is in action through State Reserve Polioe Force. The personnel of this force are trained accordingly, and they take part in the rescue work during different disasters.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions.
a. Explain the role of district disaster control unit after occurrence of any disaster.
Answer:
(1) District control unit looks after the ; disaster management of the district.
(2) It is immediately formed either after the impact of disaster or if warning is given about some upcoming disaster.

District-wise Disaster Control Unit performs following role:

• The review of various aspects of disasters is done.
• Through the disaster control unit there is continuous contact established with various agencies like army, air force, navy, telecommunication department, paramilitary forces, etc. for obtaining help.
• The unit also coordinates with various voluntary organizations for their help in disaster management.

b. Give the reasons for increase in human disasters after the World War-II.
Answer:

• After Second World War, the feelings of peace and brotherhood among the global citizens were lost. The geographic, religious, racial and ethnic differences sprang up tremendously.
• Atrocities that Nazi has performed made deep impact on the minds of people. Terrorism, abduction, robberies and social unrest increased in almost all the countries.
• The financial losses had incurred in the World War II. The misuse of science and technology was done to retrieve these deficits.
• At the end of World War II, the atomic bombs were dropped in Japan. This has created health problems in the entire world.
• Social inequality, economic disparity, racial and religious differences were some adversaries that created unrest in the country.
• Later, the neighbouring nations kept on fighting. The geographical boundaries were changed. People always had feelings of insecurity. The terrorism flourished. All such instances gave rise to man-made disasters.

c. What are the objectives of disaster management?
(OR)
State any four objectives of disaster management. (March ’19)
Answer:
Objectives of disaster management:

• To save human life from disasters. To help them for moving away from the place of disasters by rapid action.
• To supply essential commodities to the affected people. This helps to reduce the gravity of disaster. People are given grains, water and clothes and other basic necessities under this objective.
• To bring back the conditions of affected people to normalcy.
• To rehabilitate the affected and displaced victims.
• To think and execute the protective measures in order to develop capability to face the disasters in future.

d. Why is it essential to get the training of first aid? (July ’19)
Answer:
When there is a disaster, we need to immediately help the victim. Till the medical help arrives, one should be in position to treat the injured and save his or her life. In such cases; knowing first- aid is essential. Such kind of a need may arise in case of our parents, our siblings at home or with friends in school. Those who are injured should be treated at once. If we know about techniques of first aid, we can save such person before the medical help arrives. Therefore, it is essential to get the training of the first aid.

e. Which different methods are used for transportation of patients? Why?
Answer:
For the transportation of patients following methods are used:

• Cradle method: This method is used for children and persons with less weight.
• Carrying piggy back: This method is useful in carrying the unconscious persons.
• Human crutch method: If one leg of the person is injured, then the victim is supported with minimum load on the other leg. This is called human crutch method.
• Pulling or lifting method: For carrying an unconscious person for a short distance this method is used.
• Carrying on four-hand chair: This method is used when the support is needed for a part below waist region.
• Carrying on two-hand chair: Patients that cannot use their hands but can hold their body upright, are carried by such method.
• Stretcher: By making temporary stretcher in case of emergency, the unconscious patient can be moved. Such temporary stretchers are made by using bamboos, blanket, etc.

Question 4.
On the basis of the structure of disaster management authority, form the same for your school.
Answer:

Question 5.
Write down the reasons, effects and remedial measures taken for any two disasters experienced by you.
Answer:
Students are expected to write the answer based on their own experiences.

Question 6.
Which different aspects of disaster management would you check for your school? Why?
Answer:
For the pre-disaster management at school following aspects would be inspected.

• Are the telephones 6f the school working properly?
• Is there a first-aid box in each class?
• Are there any basic medicines in the school?
• Is the team ready for rescue of smaller children from lower classes?
• Has monitor or prefect participated in a mock drill? Does he/she know about first aid?
• Is the contact of parent representative available in emergency situations?
• Is the Medical Officer/Doctor present on the school campus?
• Is there enough drinking water and some dry snacks available in the school?
• Are the staircases and corridors suitable for quick evacuation of the children?

Question 7.
Identify the type of disaster.
a. Terrorism.
Answer:
Man-made, intentional.
Due to the activities of terrorism, many innocent lives are lost. Many are seriously injured. Some become crippled for their entire life. Buildings, monuments, vehicles everything is completely destroyed. There is rift between different religions or sects. The peaceful atmosphere is disturbed. The entire society is under the constant fear of insecurity.

b. Soil erosion.
Answer:
Natural, geophysical, geological.
When the upper fertile layer of soil is lost, it becomes barren. The trees are uprooted. The fertility of the area is lost. The land becomes unsuitable for cultivation or farming. Due to wind, flowing water or grazing animals the naturally occurring soil erosion becomes hazardous for the environment.

c. Hepatitis.
Answer:
Natural, biological, animal-origin.
Hepatitis is a viral disease which spreads through the contaminated food and water. The outburst of epidemic of hepatitis is difficult to control. As in big cities the quality of road side food is often consumed, the spread of hepatitis is. fast. People suffer due to hepatitis.

d. Forest fire.
Answer:
Natural, biological, plant-origin.
Due to heat and wind, the dry grass and the shrubs catch fire in the forests, resulting in forest fires. Such rapidly spreading forest fire can finish the biodiversity within a very short span of time. It is difficult to extinguish the naturally lit forest fires. Many trees and other vegetation, animals and birds along with their habitats are destroyed due to forest fire. The smoke emanating causes the air pollution.

e. Famine.
Answer:
Natural, climatic.
Due to famine there is severe water scarcity. In absence of water, the fields and farms become barren as the crops cannot grow without water. There is shortage of food grains. The cattle dies due to want of water and grass. Local people have to migrate in search of food, water and shelter.

f. Theft.
Answer:
Man-made, intentional.
Theft causes economic loss for the one whose money or valuables are looted. The person who suffers the loss also undergo mental and emotional shock. Sometimes the thief may also cause physical harm. It may cost on life too.

Question 8.
Some symbols are given below. Explain those symbols. Which disasters may occur if those symbols are ignored?

Answer:
The above signs are warning symbols which should never be ignored.
The meaning of each is given below. They are giving warnings about explosive, inflammable, oxidizing, compressed gas, corrosive, toxic, irritant, environmentally hazardous and health hazard.

(1) Explosive: Some materials are explosive. While handling such materials care should be taken. We should not take anything that would cause fire leading to explosion. If explosion occurs, there would be a major disaster causing great loss of life and property. Thus if this sign is seen, great care has to be taken.

(2) Inflammable: Similar to explosive substances, the inflammable materials can also catch fire easily. Therefore, to warn people such sign is given on materials that can cause hazard by burning.

(3) Oxidizing: Some chemical substances are oxidizing. They carry out chemical reactions with a rapid speed. E.g. If potassium permanganate falls on the cloth, it starts the reaction on its C-C bonds. Due to such property of carrying out reactions, the cloths may catch fire. Therefore, oxidizing substances should be handled with care.

(4) Compressed: Compressed substances are filled under pressure in some container. If mishandled, they can come out of the container by bursting it open. This can cause some injuries.

(5) Corrosive: The corrosive substances are very reactive. The mere touch of corrosive substances can cause destruction of skin, eyes, respiratory passages, digestive organs, etc. rapidly. Just touching or smelling of such substances can cause major injury and thus warning sign of corrosive substance should never be ignored.

(6) Toxic: To taste a toxic substance or even to smell it, can lead to death. The packing of these substances are therefore marked as dangerous. They should be avoided as far as possible.

(7) Irritant: When skin or any delicate part of the body comes in contact with the irritant substance, it can cause harmful reaction. Especially, eyes, nasal mucosa and skin are affected by contact with corrosive substances.

(8) Environmentally hazardous: Many sub¬stances cause harm to the environment due to their toxicity. Air, water or soil can be polluted due to such pollutants. When environment is affected, ultimately these hazardous effects come back to human species. Therefore, such substances should be carefully used. Their use should be judicious and controlled.

(9) Health hazard: The substances that can cause hazard to our health should always be distanced from us. Such substances should not be kept in proximity. As far as possible they should be kept away and handled with great care if needed for any work. Materials marked with health hazard can cause severe toxicity.

Question 9.
Explain that why is it said like that?
a. Mock drill is useful.
Answer:

• Mock drill is the practice to check whether there is preparedness for dealing with the sudden attack of disaster.
• For this purpose, virtual or apparent situations that simulate the disaster are created.
• The reaction time for any type of disaster is checked by such activity. In the presence of trained personnel, the execution of the rescue plans are observed.
• People also understand their responsibilities at the time of actual disaster.
• The experts also check execution of plan designed for disaster redressal.
• By such mock drills, the efficacy of the system can be understood. In future, when actual calamity strikes, there is already preparation for disaster redressal. Therefore, mock drill is useful.

b. Effective disaster management makes us well prepared for future.
Answer:

• Disaster can strike any time. The sudden disasters can be man-made with some bad intentions or may be accidental.
• When natural calamity strikes suddenly with a huge impact, large scale devastation of property and general environment degradation occurs along with substantial mortality of people and animals.
• Therefore, it is most appropriate to have the preparedness to reduce the impact of any future disasters.
• We cannot control the onset of the natural disaster, but we can definitely reduce the harsh effects of the disaster by following disaster management plan.

Question 10.
Complete the following chart.

Answer:

Question 11.
Following are the pictures of some disasters. How will be your pre and post-disaster management in case you face any of those disasters?

Answer:
In the pictures given, following disasters are shown:
(1) Two groups of children are fighting with each other.
(2) There is gas leakage from the LPG cylinder.
(3) There is heavy downpour due to cloud bursting which has led to waterlogging in the town.
(4) There is cyclone causing a tornado. (Commonly called a twister)

Projects:

Project 1.
Demonstrate the activities shown on page no. 106 of Std. IX Science and Technology textbook in front of the students of other classes. Make a video clip and send it to others.

Project 2.
Form a group of students from your school to demonstrate the mock drill and demonstrate it in the school

Can you recall? (Text Book Page No. 109)

Question 1.
What is disaster?
Answer:
Disaster is the incidence that occurs suddenly causing heavy damage to life and property. The disaster can be man-made or due to natural reason.

Question 2.
Which disasters have you experienced in your area?
Answer:
On September 2019, there was a heavy downpour in Pune. This disaster has been experienced recently.
On 26th November 2008 there was attack at several places by the Pakistani terrorists. The stories about the deaths and damage caused by this disaster were seen in films and learnt about this from our elders.

Question 3.
What are the effects of that disaster on local and surrounding conditions?
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour in Pune, there was waterlogging in all the shallow areas. All the transport systems collapsed on that day. Large trees fell down injuring the people. The water logging caused condition like floods. Schools, colleges and offices were shut down. People were caught in troublesome situation.

On 26th November 2008 many innocent people lost their lives. There was tremendous damage caused to some of the important places like Taj Palace Hotel and Chabad house.

Use your brain power: (Text Book Page No. 111)

Question 1.
Depending upon information given on page 111, explain the various effects of the disaster of railway accident.
Answer:
The effects of disastrous railway accident:
The effect will be dependent upon the nature of the accident that has occurred. Whether, it is a collapse of bridge or due to derailment of the train, or due to collision of two moving trains, whether it is due to failure in signaling system, due to land slide or due to obstacle in the tunnel, that has to be understood. The impact of such railway accident will be dependent on the way that accident has occurred. Based on this impact the effects will take place.

(1) Environmental	The entire surroundings will show destruction.
(2) Administrative/ Managerial	The railway department will have stress and the time table will collapse. The regular use of tracks will hamper, resulting into delay in railway traffic.
(3) Political	Ministry of railways is considered to be responsible for the accident. Sometimes the Railway Minister resigns.
(4) Medical	The passengers commuting in the train die or suffer from serious injuries.
(5) Economic	The railways suffer huge financial loss.
(6) Social	The railway traffic is disturbed. Passengers are troubled as they get held up at some place.

Observe/Discuss:
Let’s Discuss: (Text Book Page No. 110)
Question 1.
observe the images on textbook page no. 110. whether the places of disasters are known to you? Discuss the emfects of these disasters on public lire. How people could lave been saved from these disasters? Discuss with your friends in the classroom.
Answer:
Students should discuss the disasters given in the pictures by themselves after collecting the information.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 114)

Question 1.
Observe the disaster cycle given below and explain each aspect of the disaster of earthquake.
Answer:
The main aspects of disaster cycle to tackle disaster of earthquake are as follows:
(1) Preparation : With the help of seismograph, the warning about forthcoming earthquake can be obtained these days. The intensity of the earthquake is also predicted with the help of technology. If the estimate of the Richter scale is on the higher sides, there would be more preparatory measures taken to tackle the forthcoming problem of earthquake.

(2) Redemption: Once this information is obtained the possible impact of the earthquake on the houses, buildings, people can be studied by the geological experts. The meetings of the Disaster Management Authority will be organized for same.

(3) Preparedness: What the general public should do and what action the reserved forces should take, will be decided in case of actual incidence of the earthquake. The schemes and plans will be made ready in this direction.

(4) Impact of Earthquake: In case of disaster of earthquake, people will be helped to safety. The trapped people will be rescued. First aid and other necessary help will be provided. The data about the losses and the intensity of this disaster will be noted and reported for the further process.

(5) Response: In this phase the response of the people as well as the action of Government can be well studied. The response should be quick and positive. The maximum lives and property should be saved by such responses. The disaster of earthquake should be managed with positivity and through help given to the sufferers.

(6) Resurgence: Earthquakes can destroy the entire households or even entire community. Such homeless people should be given the place to stay. Resurgence is important phase for the national welfare. If the citizens of India are cared for, the nation too will progress.

(7) Restoration: The earthquake victims should be settled by providing them with new settlements. Sometimes, entire village is to be settled. E.g. In Latur or Kutch, there twas very large scale devastation. But Government of India as well as some NGOs helped to reconstruct the houses. In such earthquake-prone areas, houses are built in specific pattern to withstand any possible future calamities.

Observe: (Text Book Page No. 117)

Question 1.
Give the reference of following pictures and explain importance of each of those in disaster management. Which are other such activities ?

Answer:
The actions shown in the above pictures are as follows:
(a) The patient is made to lie on the stretcher. He must be unconscious and injured to greater extent, so that he cannot move by himself.
(b) The patient is helped by giving artificial respiration. Probably the victim is suffocated and needs oxygen supply.
(c) and (d) The patient is being picked up. Most probably the patient is unconscious.
The unconscious person who cannot move by himself is carried by these two methods. In method ‘c’, the weight of the patient is less and hence he can be lifted as shown in the picture. In picture ‘d’ the victim has to be lifted in other way, may be due to his greater body weight.
(e) The patient is carried on the back as in ‘carrying piggy back’ position. He too is unconscious and needs to be shifted for medical treatment.
(f) The patient in this picture is carried by ‘human crutch method’. When victim’s one leg is injured, he cannot walk without support. Hence, he needs to be carried in such a way.

In all the above methods, the injured person at the time of disaster is transported to hospital or dispensary for further medical help. The primary first-aid is given to the victim. Now the volunteer is taking him for further treatment. Such rescue activities depend upon the type of disaster and the extent of the injury. Hence the methods will be of different nature.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 111)

Question 1.
What will be the effect on yourself and surrounding, if any accident-like disaster occurs during the sports on playground or in school?
Answer:
When in school, there is an accident, first of all we get scared. But with caring help of the teacher, we will give the first aid to the injured friends by using first aid kit. If the injury is serious, we will take him to the medical centre of the school. While playing or during sports event, children flock around and make unnecessary crowding. In case of such accident, first of all the crowd will have to be dispersed. If there is major disaster, one should not fumble but manage the disaster in a wise way with the help of teachers.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 112)

Question 1.
Explain the nature and scope of the disaster of flood with the help of six points given on text book page no. 112.
Answer:
The nature and the scope of the disaster of flood can be described according to the six points:
(1) Pre-disaster phase: Due to Indian Meteorological Department the warning predictions are received before any climatic disaster strikes. If the scope of the flood is predicted to be high, then the people who may be affected by the calamity are relocated to a safer area.

(2) Warning phase: In the warning phase the Government warns the general public about the forthcoming disaster of floods through mass media like radio, television, newspapers, etc. In recent times, even the cellphone messages are sent to people for warning them. The people living in coastal areas will be worst affected and hence such people are given greater care and they are immediately made to leave their houses. They are taken to the safe places.

(3) Emergency phase: When the flood waters actually start rising up, the low-lying areas are submerged. Houses, roads and shops everything goes under water. The rescue operations are carried out by army men from National Disaster Rescue Force. They take every possible effort to rescue the trapped people. The emergency continues till the water does not recede. Later after the water starts receding, people who had been taken to places on heights, start coming back. During this phase, search, rescue operations, medical treatment, and first aid are all the aspects on which the attention is focussed.

(4) Rehabilitation phase: The people affected due to floods are given emotional and financial support. The fields, farms, houses or cattle-shed are under water. Such people are given transient accommodations. Many cattle and other animals die by drowning. Their rotting carcasses have to be disposed as soon as possible because the decaying process spreads epidemics of diseases. People are given vaccinations to protect them from diseases of such kind. Special care of young children and senior citizens is taken during this period. Supply of food and drinking water is also very important task during this time.

(5) Recovery phase: During recovery phase, the life comes gradually back to normalcy. The removal of dead, decaying material and the debris is the first priority. The water connections and electricity is restored back. Various NGOs or Government organizations provide help of various kind to the affected people. This help is to be distributed to those who are in real need. This work is also done by Disaster Management Department.

(6) Reconstruction phase: The houses and building that collapse due to floods are built back. Agricultural activities start again. Roads and water supply is once again normalized. Schools and colleges start once again. Thus, the once flood affected area comes back to routine functioning again.

Let’s Think: (Text Book Page No. 117)

Question 1.
Following are some pictures of disasters. Which precautions would you take during those disasters?

Answer:
The pictures shown above are showing earthquake, fire and snake bite respectively.
In the above disasters, the initial precautions to be taken are as follows:
(1) Earthquake: In case of earthquake, one should immediately come out of house and stand in the open ground. If this is not possible, one has to go below table or any other cover. During collapse of the building, there should not be a head injury. This precaution is basically for prevention of dangerous injuries and saving our life. Switch off the power supply. If in journey, stay inside the vehicle.

(2) Fire: First and foremost is to save ourselves from fire. Then one can help others in rescue operations. Help others to extinguish fire. Call the fire department for immediate action.

(3) Snake bite: Many a times the biting snake can be non-venomous too. But the victim is psychologically affected too. The tourniquet should be tied in the region above the snake bite. The rope, piece of cloth or even handkerchief can be used for this purpose, so that the venom, if any should not rise and reach vital organs. The wound should be made near the bite-wound so that the blood will ooze out and some venom can automatically flow out. Though these are first-aid measures, the victim should be rushed to a qualified doctor for an injection of antivenin.

Choose the correct alternative and write its alphabet against the sub-question number:

Question 1.
Disasters definitely affect the ………… of the nation.
(a) people
(b) economy
(c) security
(d) employment
Answer:
(b) economy

Question 2.
If local ………… is not strong enough, citizens become confused.
(a) leadership
(b) women
(c) politicians
(d) cattle
Answer:
(a) leadership

Question 3.
…………… problems arise diming the disaster.
(a) Local
(b) Global
(c) Administrative
(d) Private
Answer:
(c) Administrative

Question 4.
Stinking pollution caused due to decomposing corpses of humans and other animal is ………… disaster.
(a) environmental
(b) health
(c) necessary
(d) effective
Answer:
(a) environmental

Question 5.
After the subsidence of any type of disaster, rehabilitation work is started in ………… phase.
(a) later
(b) transitional
(c) terminal
(d) ultimate
Answer:
(b) transitional

Question 6.
…………. phase is highly complicated phase.
(a) Reconstruction
(b) Recycling
(c) Reuse
(d) Redevelopment
Answer:
(a) Reconstruction

Question 7.
There had been a huge ……….. in the village Malin, Tal. Ambegaon in 2014.
(a) earthquake
(b) storm
(c) landslide
(d) change
Answer:
(c) landslide

Question 8.
The atomic energy plant at Chernobyl was used only for generating ………….
(a) electricity
(b) solar power
(c) atomic energy
(d) agriculture
Answer:
(a) electricity

Question 9.
Supply of essential ………….. to the affected people can reduce the effect of the disaster.
(a) food
(b) water
(c) commodities
(d) money
Answer:
(c) commodities

Question 10.
Keeping …………. ready is a practice to check the preparedness of facing the disaster.
(a) First aid
(b) Mock drill
(c) Ambulance
(d) Fire brigade
Answer:
(b) Mock drill

Question 11.
Which of the following is man-made disaster. (March, July ’19)
(a) Earthquake
(b) Flood
(c) Meteor
(d) Leakage of toxic gases
Answer:
(d) Leakage of toxic gases

Question 12.
What should be done if gas cylinder at your house catches fire?
(a) Water should be sprinkled
(b) Sand, soil should be put on it
(c) Cylinder should be covered with wet blanket
(d) one should run away
Answer:
(c) Cylinder should be covered with wet blanket

Which type of disaster is described in the following statements:

Question 1.
On 26th July 2005, entire suburban Mumbai was waterlogged.
Answer:
Cloudbursting and severe downpour

Question 2.
Elephants in the Bandipur forest started running helter and skelter due to smoke.
Answer:
Forest fires

Question 3.
Many innocent people died in the bomb blast that occurred on 11th July 2006 in local trains.
Answer:
Bomb explosion-Terrorism

Question 4.
In Kutch, suddenly many school children were buried under the rubble.
Answer:
Earthquake

Question 5.
Because of lack of crops, people from Vidarbha are migrating to other regions.
Answer:
Dry famine

Question 6.
The huge waves in Chennai engulfed many human lives in December 2004.
Answer:
Tsunami.

Find the correlation:

Question 1.
Earthquake in recent times : Gujarat, Latur : : Devastating floods in 2018 : ………….
Answer:
Earthquake in recent times : Gujarat, Latur : : Devastating floods in 2018 : Kerala/Assam

Question 2.
Toxic gas leakage: Accidental disaster : : war : …………..
Answer:
Toxic gas leakage: Accidental disaster : : war : Intentional

Question 3.
Sun spots : Atmospheric type of disaster : : Salinization : …………..
Answer:
Sun spots : Atmospheric type of disaster : : Salinization : Geological type of disaster

Question 4.
Pre-disaster management : Preparation and warning : : Post-disaster management : ………..
Answer:
Pre-disaster management : Preparation and warning : : Post-disaster management : Resurgence and restoration.

Match the columns:

Question 1.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Earthquake and volcano	(a) Animal origin
(2) Snowfall and snowstorms	(b) Geological
	(c) Climatic
	(d) Terrorism

Answer:
(1) Earthquake and volcano – Geological.
(2) Snowfall and snowstorms – Climatic.

Question 2.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Aquatic weeds	(a) Animal origin
(2) Attack by locusts (insects)	(b) Plant origin
	(c) Geological
	(d) Climatic

Answer:
(1) Aquatic weeds – Plant origin
(2) Attack by locusts (insects) – Animal origin.

Question 3.

Column A: Disaster	Column B: Type
(1) Atomic tests	(a) Intentional
(2) Terrorism	(b) Unintentional
	(c) Geological
	(d) Animal origin

Answer:
(1) Atomic tests – Unintentional
(2) Terrorism – Intentional.

Question 4.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Effect
(1) Contamination of water	(a) Economical
(2) Collapsing of transport system	(b) Environmental
	(c) Administrative
	(d) Geological

Answer:
(1) Contamination of water – Environmental
(2) Collapsing of transport system – Administrative.

Question 5.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Problem
(1) Spread of epidemics	(a) Economical
(2) Shortage of funds	(b) Administrative
	(c) Medical
	(d) Physical

Answer:
(1) Spread of epidemics – Medical
(2) Shortage of funds – Economical.

Question 6.

Column A: Effect	Column B: Problem
(1) Rift due to religions	(a) Economical
(2) Citizens getting confused	(b) Social
	(c) Political
	(d) Environmental

Answer:
(1) Rift due to religions – Social
(2) Citizens getting confused – Political.

Identify the type of disaster and describe the effects of the same in brief:

Question 1.
Accident at Chernobyl.
Answer:
Man-made, unintentional. At Chernobyl in Russia there was the atomic energy plant, where disastrous accident took place. The radiations emitted through the reactors caused tremendous radiation pollution. These hazardous effects are even seen today.

Give reasons:

Question 1.
When there are riots, the cities, towns or villages show signs of tense atmosphere.
Answer:

• During riots, there is financial loss for all the rioting groups.
• The belongings, houses, shops, etc. are destroyed or damaged.
• Property is looted. There is no guarantee of safety and security for anyone.
• Women and children suffer the most as they are easily victimized. Therefore, when there are riots, the cities, towns or villages show signs of tense atmosphere.

Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
which are the disaters that make Impact for longer duration? Give examples.
Answer:
Those disasters that make the impact for long duration and those disasters, whose after-elfbcts are either severe are long term disasters. Their severity increases with thme. Such disasters are famine, various problems of growth of crop, strikes of workers, rising levels of oceans, desertification, etc.

Question 2.
What types of disaster are the following? Explain their impacts.
(a) Floods (b) War. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)
Answer:
(a) Flood is geophysical climatic disaster.
(b) War is man-made intentional disaster.

Impact of flood : The low-lying and the coastal areas are seen to be submerged. The entire region is waterlogged.
Impact of war: Tremendous destruction causing loss. Many lives are lost. The costs of all the items rise due to war conditions. Entire nation faces insecurity.

Question 3.
Explain in brief the sensitive issues of general public about disaster.
(OR)
Which are the three aspects of disaster tjiat are important for common citizens?
Answer:
The phase of emergency, transitional phase and reconstruction phase are the three phases of disaster that are important for common citizens.

(1) Phase of emergency: If timely and rapid action is taken during this phase, maximum lives can be saved. Search and rescue operations, medical help, first aid, restoring communication services, removing the people from affected area are done during this phase. The gravity of disaster can be estimated during this phase.

(2) Transitional Phase: The disaster subsides and then the work of transitional phase starts. The main concern is rehabilitation work for the affected and displaced people. This work includes clearing of debris, restoring water supply, repairing roads, etc. to bring normalcy in public life. Help from different voluntary and Government institute is taken to offer the monetary provision and essential commodities to affected victims. Permanent means of livelihood is given to the people to reduce their mental and emotional stress. The victims are truly rehabilitated.

(3) Reconstruction Phase: Reconstruction phase is a highly complicated phase which actually overlaps with transition stage. Help is offered to people to reconstruct their buildings. Other facilities like roads and water supply are restored. Farming practices are restarted. It is a very gradual phase that makes the victims to completely rehabilitate.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of mock drill?
Answer:
Objectives of Mock Drill:

• To evaluate the response of the people to the disaster.
• To improve the coordination between various departments of disaster control.
• To identify one’s own abilities if disaster approaches.
• To improve the ability to quick response to disaster and taking rapid action.
• To check the competency of the planned actions.
• To identify the possible errors and risks while dealing with disasters.

Question 5.
Write down the names of international organizations that work for disaster management.
Answer:
Following international organizations work for disaster management.

• United Nations Disaster Relief Organization
• United Nations Centre for Human Settlements
• Asian Disaster Reduction Centre.
• Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre.
• World Health Organization.
• United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

Question 6.
The building in which you are residing ( has caught fire on the ground floor. What necessary rescue steps will you take? (July ’19)
Answer:

• We shall call out for help.
• We shall immediately call fire brigade.
• We shall try to extinguish fire with the help of other people.
• We will give first aid to people who are injured, fill the medical help arrives.
• We will cover our nose and mouth with moist cloth to prevent suffocation.

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Pre-disaster management.
Answer:
The management measures taken before onset of a disaster is called pre-disaster management.
In pre-disaster management, complete preparation and planning to face any type of disaster is done. For this purpose, following steps are taken.

• Identifying the areas where the disaster can strike. Such disaster-prone areas are to be thoroughly studied.
• Through predictive intensity maps and hazard maps, the information is collected about the intensity of disaster and probable sites of disasters respectively.
• Special training for disaster management is given to the concerned people.
• The mass awareness is created about disaster management through training programmes, mass media and internet, etc.

Question 2.
Post-disaster management.
Answer:
The management measures taken after the striking of a disaster is called post-disaster management.
Following steps are taken during post-disaster management:

• Helping the victims of disasters by giving all possible help needed for their survival.
• Local people are trained to take part in the disaster management so that affected people can be saved rapidly.
• Establishing the help centres that could provide all the necessary help. Such centres will be different in case of different disasters.
• Collection and categorization of the material received from control centre for helping the victims. Distributing the same and reviewing the measures continuously.
• Disaster rescue programmes are mainly focused.

Some symbols are given below. Explain those symbols. Which disasters may occur if those symbols are ignored?

Question 1.
Write what the signs indicate:

Answer:

• Figure A indicates inflammable substances. They can catch fire if they come in contact with oxygen-rich air.
• Figure B indicates corrosive substances which can cause damage to tissues of skin, eyes and other delicate organs etc.
• Both the symbols are warning signs for people to keep away or handle carefully such substances.

Question 2.
What does the symbols below indicate? Write in brief. (Board’s Model Activity Sheet)

Answer:
(1) Symbol ‘A’ indicates Irritant. When skin or any delicate part of the body comes in contact with the irritant substance, it can cause harmful reaction. Especially, eyes, nasal mucosa and skin are affected by contact with corrosive substances.
(2) Symbol ‘B’ indicates toxic substance. To taste a toxic substance or even to smell it, can lead to death. The packing of these substances are therefore marked as dangerous. They should be avoided as far as possible.

Complete the paragraph by choosing the appropriate words given in the brackets:

(Capability, Rehabilitation, Commodities, Human, objectives, normalcy, amusements)
The ………. of disaster management comprise of the following aspects …………. life is saved from the disasters. People are helped to move away from the place of disasters. They are given essential ……….. by the government so that the gravity of disaster is reduced. The disaster conditions are brought back to ………… of the affected and displaced victims is done. Moreover, protective measures for future are also planned to develop ………… among the people to face any possible disasters in future.
Answer:
The objectives of disaster management, comprise of the following aspects. Human life is saved from the disasters. People are helped to move away from the place of disasters. They are given essential commodities by the government so that the gravity of disaster is reduced. The disaster conditions are brought back to normalcy. Rehabilitation of the affected and displaced victims is done. Moreover, protective measures for future are also planned to develop capability among the people to face any possible disasters in future.

Paragraph based questions:

1. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below:
Disasters can be properly classified into three categories, viz. natural disasters, technological disasters and man-made disasters. The forces that cause natural disasters cannot be controlled. Moreover, they are becoming more frequent in the current years due to phenomena of climate change. On and off incidences of cyclones, cloud bursting, floods, etc. am creating havoc in the lives of people. Technological disasters are due to improper and callous behaviour at the different processes carried out in technical establishments. Man-made disasters are conflicts arising due to different religions, regions and-terrorism.

Questions and Answers:

Question 1.
What are three broad areas of disasters?
Answer:
Natural disasters, technological disasters and manmade disasters are three broad areas of disasters.

Question 2.
Which disasters cannot be controlled? Why?
Answer:
Natural disasters cannot be controlled as they are due to natural phenomena beyond the human power to stop them.

Question 3.
Which type of disasters were very common in Western Maharashtra in recent times? Why?
Answer:
Cloud bursting and floods were very common in Western Maharashtra caused due to climate change.

Question 4.
Give any one example of technological disaster that shook the entire India.
Answer:
Bhopal gas tragedy that occurred in 1984 was a worst disaster that shook the entire India.

Question 5.
Which types of disasters can be controlled in order to lead happy, peaceful and secured life? How?
Answer:
We have to control manmade disasters such as wars, riots, terrorism, etc. by having peaceful negotiations, respect for each human being and feeling of brotherhood among all.

Questions based on tables and charts:

Question 1.
Complete the chart: (Text Book Page No. 111)
Different problems occur with disasters. In the concept map different effects are mentioned. Read it and fill the blank places.
Answer:
(Answers are given directly in bold.)

Question 2.
Complete the chart: (Text Book Page No. 117)
Complete the chart as per the objectives of the first aidr:t
Answer:
(Answers are given directly in bold.)

Activity based questions:

Question 1.
Observe the images ‘A’ and ‘B’ and answer the following questions.

(i) Which disasters are shown in the images ?
Answer:
Image A is showing damage due to earthquake. Image B is showing house on fire.

(ii) Which primary precautions will you take in case of disaster shown in ‘A’?
Answer:
In the above disasters, the initial precautions to be taken are as follows :
Earthquake: In case of earthquake, one should immediately come out of house and stand in the open ground. If this is not possible, one has to go below table or any other cover. During collapse of the building, there should not be a head injury. This precaution is basically for prevention of dangerous injuries and saving our life. Switch off the power supply. If in journey, stay inside the vehicle.

(iii) Which type of first-aid is offered to the injured people in disaster ‘B’?
Answer:
First aid given to burn victim:

• The person who is injured by fire should be dotised with cold water on his/her body. This will extinguish fire and give some relief caused due to inflammation. Do not break the blisters. Give water to drink.
• Cover the burnt part by wet and moist cloth. Wash the wounds with antiseptic solution.
• If the person is severely burnt, transfer him/her immediately to hospital.

Question 2.
Correct the following diagram:

Answer:

Projects:

Project 1.
Can you tell? ( Textbook page no. 118)
Whether there had been mock drill by fire fighters under the disaster management scheme in your school? Which techniques did you see during the drill?

Project 2.
Try this: (Textbook page no. 115)
Which factors will you consider while designing the pre-disaster management plan for your school/home? Prepare a survey report with the help of your teacher.

Project 3.
Get information:
(1) Visit the district collector or Taluka Tehasildar office and collect the information about disaster management. (Textbook page no. 115)
(2) Meet the medical officer/doctor from your village and collect information about providing the first aid. (Textbook page no. 118)

Project 4.
Internet is my friend:
(1) Search for the video clips of disasters. Discuss in your class about effects of disasters and remedies over it. (Textbook page no. 110)
(2) Find out more about the activities of international organizations that work for disaster management.
(Textbook page no. 116)
1. United Nations Disaster Relief Organization.
2. United Nations Centre for Human Settlements.
3. Asian Disaster Reduction Centre.
4. Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre.
5. World Health Organization.
6. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 2 Europe and India Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 2 Europe and India

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Europe and India Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
In 1453, the city of was conquered by Ottoman Turks.
(a) Venice
(b) Constantinople
(c) Rome
(d) Paris
Answer:
(b) Constantinople

Question 2.
The Industrial Revolution began in
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) Portugal
Answer:
(a) England

Question 3.
…….. tried to put restrictions on the illegal trade of British.
(a) Siraj-ud-Daulah
(b) Mir Kasim
(c) Mir Jafar
(d) Shah Alam
Answer:
(b) Mir Kasim

2. Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Colonialism:
Answer:
1. Exploitation of one country by another and making it into a colony is called Colonialism.
2. On the basis of economic and military strength one country occupies a region of another country and establishes its political supremacy.
3. Many European nations established their colonies in various parts of the continents of America, Asia, Africa and Australia.
4. They grabbed the power by using force to exploit the colonies systematically. This gave rise to Imperialism.

Question 2.
Imperialism:
Answer:

1. Imperialism means a powerful country controls other country by establishing its overall domination.
2. The objective of imperialism is to establish more and more colonies.
3. European countries with strong military power and imperialist aspirations enslaved the countries in Asia and Africa.
4. Imperialism gained momentum after industrial revolution and came to an end in twentieth century.

Question 3.
Age of Renaissance:
Answer:
(1) Renaissance literally means rebirth or revival. In the latter phase of medieval Europe, reformation, religious reform movement and geographical discoveries gained momentum.
(2) It was a comprehensive movement which touched all aspects of human life. The Greek and Roman traditions in art, architecture and philosophy were revived in the Age of Renaissance.
(3) Humanitarianism got great impetus.
(4) Renaissance inspired all round progress and ushered a new era in the history of world.
(5) This developments took place from 13th century to 16th century in Europe. This period is known as the Age of Renaissance.

Question 4.
Capitalism:
Answer:
1. Many traders participated in the competition for trade with Asia after the discovery of the new sea routes to the east.
2. As it was not possible to carry out trade single-handedly, it was decided by the traders to pool their resources to raise capital for trade.
3. Many trading companies like the East India Company were formed.
4. Trade with Oriental countries was very profitable and responsible for economic prosperity.
5. The ruling powers gave protection and trade concessions to these companies.
6. This led to the accumulation of wealth in Europe. This wealth was used as capital for trade and commerce which gave rise to capitalism in Europe.

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated in the Battle of Plassey.
Answer:
1. The officers of the British East India Company misused the trade concessions and built fortification around the factory in Kolkata.
2. Siraj-ud-Daulah captured the factory at Kolkata.
3. This created discontent in England.
4. Robert Clive diplomatically bribed Mir Jafar, Commander in Chief of Nawab’s army and promised to make him Nawab of Bengal.
5. So. the Army of Siraj-ud-Daulah under the command of Mir Kasim did not join the battle against the British at Plassey in 1757 AD.
6. Thus, the British won the battle of Plassey by treachery and deceit.

Question 2.
The European countries felt the necessity of finding new sea routes to Asia.
Answer:

1. The Ottoman Turks captured Constantinople. the capital of Byzantine Empire. in 1453 AD.
2. All land trade routes joining Asia and Europe passed through this city.
3. It stopped the flow of valuable goods from the countries in the east. Therefore, the European countries felt the necessity of finding new sea routes to Asia.

Question 3.
European rulers started giving military protection and trade concessions to the trading companies.
Answer:
1. With the discovery of new sea routes to the east, trade with oriental countries became very profitable. Thus, European trade prospered.
2. Competition for trade began among many European nations.
3. The traders pooled their resources and formed trading companies like the East India Company.
4. As this trade brought economic prosperity, the European rulers started giving military protection and trade concessions to these trading companies.

4. Complete the following table.

Question 1.

Answer:

Leonardo Da Vinci :

1. A famous personality of the Renaissance period who was well versed in different branches of science and arts.
2. He had mastery over varied subjects such as sculpture, architecture, mathematics, engineering, music, astronomy, etc.
3. His paintings ‘Monalisa’ and ‘The Last Supper’ became immortal.

Let us Know:

Project:

Collect information and pictures about the work of famous painters, writers, scientists during renaissance period with the help of reference books and internet. Present a project on it in the classroom.

Class 8 History Chapter 2 Europe and India Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
American colonies organised the army under the leadership of and won against England.
(a) Thomas Jefferson
(b) Robert Clive
(c) George Washington
(d) Johannes Gutenberg
Answer:
(c) George Washington

Question 2.
The British East India Company established its factory at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Cochin
(c) Mumbai
(d) Surat
Answer:
(d) Surat

Question 3.
Siraj-ud-Daulah was defeated because diplomatically bribed Mir Jafar.
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Lord Wellesley
(c) Lord Dalhousie
(d) Lord Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive

Question 4.
Tipu Sultan died in the battle of in 1799.
(a) Mysore
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Srirangapatna
(d) Buxar
Answer:
(c) Srirangapatna

Question 5.
The chieftain of rose against the British.
(a) Multan
(b) Bengal
(c) Carnatic
(d) Jhansi
Answer:
(a) Multan

Question 6.
was the first Portuguese sailor who landed on the western coast of India.
(a) Christopher Columbus
(b) Bartolomeu Días
(c) Vasco-da- Gama
(d) Leonardo da Vinci
Answer:
(c) Vasco-da- Gama

Question 7.
England established colonies on the eastern coast of America.
(a) ten
(b) thirteen
(c) eight
(d) seventeen
Answer:
(b) thirteen

Name the following:

Question 1.
Invented printing press
Answer:
Johannes Gutenberg

Question 2.
Empire of Ottoman Turks
Answer:
Byzantine

Question 3.
The Bill which laid limitations on powers of the King in England.
Answer:
Bill of Rights

Question 4.
Mughal Emperor who gave permission to Britishers to establish factory at Surat.
Answer:
Emperor Jahangir

Question 5.
Came to be known as ‘World Factory’.
Answer:
England.

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which period in the history of Europe is known as Period of Renaissance?
Answer:
In the history of Europe, the last phase of medieval period i.e. 13th to century in Europe is known as the Period of Renaissance.

Question 2.
Name the developments that laid the foundation of modern era.
Answer:
The Renaissance, the Reformation and the geographical discoveries laid the foundation of the modern era.

Question 3.
State the significance of the invention of printing press.
Answer:
It became possible to take new ideas, new concepts and knowledge to all the sections of society due to the invention of the printing press.

Question 4.
What was the effect of the Reformation movement in the area of religion?
Answer:
Individual freedom and rationalism gained importance in the area of religion due to the Reformation movement.

Question 5.
State the principles that the French Revolution gave to the world.
Answer:
The French Revolution gave the principles of liberty equality and fraternity to the world.

Question 6.
Why did the British establish East India Company?
Answer:
The British established the East India Company to carry out trade in India.

Question 7.
What was the outcome of the American War of Independence?
Answer:
Due to American War of Independence, a new nation known as the United States of America with a federal government, written constitution and based on the principles of democracy was formed.

Do as Directed: 

1. Complete the concept Map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

2. Arrange the following events in chronological order on timeline:
1. Battle of Srirangapatna
2. Second Anglo-Sikh War
3. Battle of Buxar
4. Battle of Plassey
Answer:

Write short notes:

Question 1.
Leonardo-da-Vinci:
Answer:

1. Leonardo-da-Vinci is regarded as an all round personality of the Renaissance period.
2. He was well versed with the different branches of science and art.
3. He had mastery over varied subjects such as sculpture, architecture, mathematics, engineering, music, astronomy, etc.
4. But he became world-famous as a painter.
5. His paintings ‘Monalisa’ and ‘The Last Supper’ became immortal.

Question 2.
Carnatic Wars :
Answer:

1. There was competition among the European nationals to secure monopoly of trading rights in India.
2. Due to this three Cainatic wars were fought between England and France.
3. England defeated France in the third Carnatic War.
4. Alter this, there was no strong European competitor for British East India Company in India.

Question 3.
The Battle of Buxar:
Answer:

1. Mir Kasim was replaced by Mir Jafar when he tried to put restrictions on illegal practices of the British.
2. Mir Kasim, the deposed Nawab of Bengal, Shuja-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Ayodhya and Mughal Emperor Shah Alam formed an affiance.
3. They undertook a campaign to restrain the activities of the British in Bengal.
4. They were defeated by the British in the Battle of Buxar in 1764 in Bihar.
5. The Treaty of Allahabad was signed after the Battle of Buxar. The British secured the right to collect revenue from Bengal province by this treaty.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The period between 18th and 19th century came to be known as ‘Age of Revolutions’.
Answer:
1. The British Parliament passed The Bill of Rights in 1689. It established sovereignty of Parliament and curtailed powers of the King.
2. This gave momentum to the development of Parliamentary Democracy in England.
3.  The thirteen British colonies in America won the War of Independence in 1783.
4. These thirteen colonies established the first federal republic, known as the United States of America.
5. The people of France revolted against the unjust and uncontrolled monarchy and feudalism. They established a Republic.
6. The Industrial Revolution in Europe in the latter part of the 18th century brought revolutionary changes in Europe.
7. These changes had long-lasting effect on the entire world.
8. All these revolutionary events took place during 18th and 19th century period. Hence it is known as the ‘Age of Revolutions’.

Question 2.
England was described as World Factory.
Answer:

1. There were many revolutionary changes in the latter part of the 18th century in Europe.
2. Many technological innovations in Europe gave enormous outputs
3. Goods were produced with the help of machines running on steam and later on electricity. It was the dawn of the age of machines.
4. Though the industrial revolution started in England it gradually spread to other ports of the western world.
5. During this period. England enjoyed industrial prosperity and was described as World Factory.

Question 3.
The British captured Sindh in 1843.
Answer:

1. The British were afraid of Russian aggression on India via Afghanistan.
2. They decided to bring Afghanistan under their control to ensure the safety of their Indian Empire.
3. The province of Sindh was located at the Northwest frontier.
4. All routes to Afghanistan passed through Sindh.
5. Realising its strategic importance, the British captured Sindh in 1843.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Write about the Religious Reform Movement.
Answer:

1. The independent intellectuals attacked the old religious ideologies and beliefs of Roman Catholic Church.
2. The Christian priests used to give undue importance to religious rites and practices by taking advantage of the ignorance of the people.
3. They robbed people in the name of religion.
4. The movement which started against this is known as Religious Reform Movement.

Question 2.
What is Intellectual Revolution?
Answer:

1. Due to Renaissance, the European society stepped out of past ignorance and blind faith.
2. The pre-determined customs and traditions came to be seen from a critical point of view.
3. These changes are addressed as Intellectual Revolution.

Question 3.
State the significance of French Revolution.
Answer:

1. The French Revolution was the first event in world history in which the might of the people’s power was witnessed.
2. It had put an end to uncontrolled and unjust monarchy and the feudalism.
3. France became a Republican state. It gave the world principles of liberty, equality and fraternity.
4. The spread of democratic form of government began with the French Revolution.

Question 4.
What were the changes brought about by the Industrial Revolution in the system of production?
Answer:

1. The latter part of 18th century saw many technological innovations in Europe.
2. The production started with the help of machines running on steam.
3. The big factories replaced cottage industries.
4. Handlooms were replaced by machines.
5. New modes of transport like railways and steamer were available.

Question 5.
How did the conflict between Siraj- ud-Daulah and the British start?
Answer:

1. Siraj-ud-Daulah became the Nawab of Bengal in 1756.
2. The British traders misused trade concessions and fortified their factories in Kolkata without seeking permission from the Nawab.
3. So, Siraj-ud-Daulah captured the factory. This was the beginning of conflict between Siraj-ud-Daulah and the British.

Question 6.
Why were the Sikhs defeated in the First Anglo-Sikh War?
Answer:

1. Ranjitsingh, the ruler of Punjab was succeeded by his minor son Duleep Singh.
2. Queen Jindan assumed the reins of administration on behalf of her minor son.
3. Taking advantage of the inability of Queen Jindan to control the officers, the British lured some of them to their side.
4. The Sikhs attacked the British under the impression that the British would invade Punjab.
5. Thus, the Sikhs were defeated in the first Anglo-Sikh war.

Question 7.
What brought an end to the Sikh rule in Punjab in 1849?
Answer:

1. After the First Anglo-Sikh War Duleep Singh remained on throne, but the power rested in the hands of the British.
2. The Sikhs could not accept the growing impact of the British over Punjab.
3. The growing influence of the British led to the revolt by Mulraj, the chieftain of Multan.
4. Thousands of Sikh soldiers participated in this war.
5. The British defeated the Sikhs in the Second Anglo-Sikh war and annexed the whole of Punjab in 1849.

Answer the following questions in detail: (4 marks each)

Question 1.
Give detailed account of Renaissance.
Answer:
The foundation of Renaissance period was laid between 13th century and 16th century in Europe.

1. It revived the Greek and Roman traditions.
2. The changes were seen in the field of art, architecture and philosophy in Europe.
3. Humanitarianism gained great momentum.
4. There was a change in the outlook of treating each other as a human being.
5. Man became the centre of all ideologies instead of religion.
6. The sentiments and emotions of human being found expressions in the art and literature.
7. The reform movement could be found in science and different art forms.
8. Literature was produced in local languages for the better understanding of the people.
9. Renaissance was a comprehensive movement which pervaded all sectors of human life.

Question 2.
Give information about American War of Independence.
Answer:
1. After the discovery of American continent, the imperialist European powers took control of different regions of America and established their colonies.
2. England established 13 colonies on the East coast of America.
3. Initially, England kept nominal domination but later British Parliament laid oppressive restrictions and taxes on the colonies.
4. This created discontent among the people and the colonies revolted.
5. George Washington led the American army in the war against England.
6. The colonies won the war and established the first federal democratic republic, known as the United States of America.
7. USA became the first country in the world to have a written constitution and was based on the principles of Democracy.

Question 3.
What according to you are the advantages of Religious Reform Movement?
Answer:
With changing times we find changes in every field. Religious reforms are part of this process. I feel the following are the advantages of Religious Reforms Movement.

1. Superstitions give way to rational thinking.
2. Priest cannot take advantage of people’s ignorance.
3. People will not indulge in unnecessary rituals.
4. They will engage themselves in constructive work which will help them eventually.
5. Some people take advantage in the name of religion and exploit others. Religious Reforms will stop such malpractices.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 12 India Gains Independence Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 12 India Gains Independence

Class 8 History Chapter 12 India Gains Independence Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
………………. was the head of the interim Government.
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Barrister Jinnah
Answer:
(c) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 2.
The plan of creation of two independent nations, India and Pakistan, was made by ………………… .
(a) Lord Wavell
(b) Stafford Cripps
(c) Lord Mountbatten
(d) Pethick Lawrence
Answer:
(c) Lord Mountbatten

2. Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which demand was advocated by Barrister Jinnah?
Answer:
The two nation theory and demand of separate Muslim nation named Pakistan was advocated by Barrister Jinnah.

Question 2.
Write the names of the ministers participating in Cabinet Mission.
Answer:
Pethick Lawrence, Stafford Cripps and A.V. Ale ander were the ministers participating in the Cabinet Mission.

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1
The Indian National Congress approved the partition.
Answer:

1. Lord Mountbatten prepared a plan of creation of India and Pakistan as two independent nations.
2. Indian National Congress opposed the plan of partition as unity of the Nation was its basic stand.
3. However, the Muslim League remained adamant on the creation of Pakistan.
4. So, the Indian National Congress was left with no option but to accept the partition with complete helplessness.

Question 2.
The working of Interim Government could not run smoothly.
Answer:

1. Muslim League demanded a separate Muslim nation of Pakistan.
2. The followers of the Muslim League resorted to violent ways.
3. Though the Muslim League declined to participate initially, they later participated in it.
4. However, the leaders of the Muslim League adopted the policy of obstruction and therefore the Interim Government could not run smoothly.

Question 3.
The Wavell Plan could not succeed.
Answer:
The Wavell Plan could not succeed because

1. Barrister Jinnah insisted that only Muslim League should have the right to suggest the names of Muslim representatives to the Viceroy’s Executive Council.
2. The Congress opposed this and as a result, no consensus could be arrived at the meeting called by Lord Wavell.

4. Write the events on the following timeline:

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why did the British took steps towards granting freedom to India?
Answer:

1. The Indian freedom struggle had become very intense during the period of Second World War. The revolt of Navy and Air Force shook the foundation of the British empire.
2. The demand for independence of India was gaining its strength.
3. The Muslim League had demanded a separate Muslim nation.
4. The followers of the Muslim League resorted to violence.
5. The British government realised that it was necessary to take a serious note of it. They realised that their rule in India will not last long.

Accordingly, the British government started preparing plans for granting Independence to India.

Question 2.
Write information about the Mountbatten Plan.
Answer:

1. England’s Prime Minister Atlee announced the transfer of power would be before June 1948.
2. He appointed Lord Mountbatten as the Viceroy of India who was to arrange the transfer of power.
3. He held discussions with the leaders of India.
4. Mountbatten prepared a plan for partition of India i.e., creation of two independent nations, India and Pakistan.
5. The Indian National Congress opposed the plan.
6. But, due to the adamant behaviour of the Muslim League, the Indian National Congress accepted the Plan, with complete helplessness.
7. On the basis of Mountbatten Plan, Indian Independence Act was passed.

Question 3.
Why did Muslim League declare to observe 16 August as Direct Action Day? What were its effects?
Answer:

1. The Muslim League was adamant on the demand of Pakistan.
2. It was not satisfied with Cabinet Mission plan as it had no provision for a separate Muslim state.
3. 16th August 1946 was observed as Direct Action Day. ‘
4. The followers of Muslim League resorted to violent ways.
5. There were Hindu-Muslim riots in various parts of the country.
6. There were massacres in the Noakhali region in the province of Bengal.

Project:

Collect information about the response of common people after gaining independence, with the help of various reference books as well as the internet.

Class 8 History Chapter 12 India Gains Independence Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
……………… put forth the two Nation theory and demanded a separate Muslim nation.
(a) Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(b) Chaudhary Rahmat Ali
(c) Dr. Muhammad Iqbal
(d) Lord Mountbatten
Answer:
(a) Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah

Question 2.
……………., Prime Minister of England, declared that England would leave its dominion on India before June 194 .
(a) Winston Churchill
(b) Linlithgo
(c) Atlee
(d) Mountbatten
Answer:
(c) Atlee

Question 3.
The ……………. initially refused to participate in the Interim Government.
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Muslim League
(c) Hindu Mahasabha
(d) Kisan Sabha
Answer:
(b) Muslim League

Question 4.
The Muslim League decided to observe 16th August as ……………. Day.
(a) Non Violence
(b) Pakistan
(c) Direct Action
(d) Independence
Answer:
(c) Direct Action

Question 5.
As per ………………, India got independence.
(a) Mountbatten Plan
(b) Wctvell Plan
(c) Indian Independence Act
(d) Cabinet Mission
Answer:
(c) Indian Independence Act

Question 6.
Gandhiji was assassinated on ………………….. .
(a) 30 December 1947
(b) 30 January 194
(c) 30 March 194
(d) 2 October 194
Answer:
(b) 30 January 194

Name the following:

Question 1.
First person to present idea of free Muslim nation.
Answer:
Dr. Muhammad Iqbal

Question 2.
Last Viceroy of India.
Answer:
Lord Mountbatten

Question 3.
One who presented idea of Pakistan.
Answer:
Chaudhary Rahmat Ali

Question 4.
Went to Noakhali to stop violence
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi.

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
What did Prime Minister Atlee declare in the British Parliament of England?
Answer:
Prime Minister Atlee declared in the British Parliament that England would transfer all of its government responsibility to Indians not later than June 1948.

Question 2.
Why did the Interim Government not work smoothly?
Answer:
The Interim Government could not work smoothly because the Muslim League followed the policy of obstruction.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Which were the important provisions :
of the Wavell Plan?
Answer:

1. The Wavell Plan provided a proper representation to Muslims, Dalits and minorities in the Central and Provincial Legislatures.
2. It provided for an equal number of Hindu and Muslim members in Viceroy’s Executive Council.

Question 2.
State the provisions of the Indian Independence Act.
Answer:
The Indian Independence Act was passed on the basis of Mountbatten Plan on 18th July, 1947.
According to the plan :

1. Two Independent nations of India and Pakistan will come into existence on 15th August, 1947.
2. Thereafter, the British Parliament would not retain any control over them.
3. The British supremacy over the princely states would come to an end.
4. They would be free to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent.

Question 3.
Write about the attainment of independence by India.
Answer:

1. As per the Indian Independence Act, India was granted Independence on 15th August, 1947.
2. A meeting of the Constituent Assembly was going on in the hall of Parliament House in Delhi in the midnight of 14th August.
3. At the stroke of midnight, the Union Jack of Britain was lowered and in its place the Indian tricolour flag was unfurled.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Cabinet Mission Plan could not satisfy the political parties in India.
Answer:
The Cabinet Mission Plan could not satisfy the political parties in India because,

1. The Indian National Congress was not happy with some of its provisions.
2. The Muslim League was also dissatisfied with the plan as it did not provide for the creation of a separate Muslim state of Pakistan.

Question 2.
The joy of attainment of freedom was not untinted:
Answer:

1. India attained Independence from the slavery of 150 years.
2. But, the people were grieved due to the partition of the country and the terrible violence during that period.

So, the joy of attainment of freedom was not untinted.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
State the genesis of Pakistan.
Answer:

1. To weaken the national movement, the British adopted the policy of ‘divide and rule’. Its consequence was the establishment of ‘Muslim League’.
2. Famous poet, Dr. Muhammad Iqbal put forth the idea of an independent Muslim state.
3. Later Chaudhary Rahmat Ali coined the name Pakistan.
4. Barrister Muhammad Ali Jinnah put forth the two nation theory and demanded a separate state for the Muslims naming Pakistan.
5. Barrister Jinnah and the Muslim League started the propaganda that Indian National Congress was only a Hindu organisation and the Muslims have no benefit of it.
6. Since their demand was not fulfilled, they observed ‘Direct Action Day’ and resorted to violence.
7. The nation witnessed Hindu-Muslim riots in various parts.
8. After the consent of the Indian National Congress to the Mountbatten Plan, the Indian Independence Act provided for the partition.

Question 2.
Why do you think everyone needs freedom?
Answer:

1. Freedom is liberation from any kind of bondage.
2. The rights of people are denied under foreign rule.
3. Lot of restrictions are imposed by a foreign power.
4. Under a foreign rule or dictatorship, power is not used for the welfare of the people but for the benefit of few.
5. All round development of the citizens take place in an independent free state.
6. Equality, Fraternity, Justice, Humanity are values which are cherished in freedom. Therefore, everyone needs freedom.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
On the basis of the information given in the chapter, figures and maps, complete the table below:

S.No	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
1	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.
2	Semi arid thorny vegetation	1. 2.
3	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.
4	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.
5	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.

Answer:

S. No.	Type of forest	Characteristics	Regions in India	Regions in Brazil
(1)	Tropical Forests	Broad-leaved evergreen trees.	Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Western Ghats. Some parts of North East India.	Amazon Basin, Guyana Highlands.
(2)	Semi arid thorny vegetation	(a)     Thorny and shrub type vegetation. (b)   Leaves are small in size. Leaves are modified into thorns to minimise evaporation.	Gujarat, Rajasthan, Parts of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.	North-Eastern part of Brazil.
(3)	Savannah	Scanty bushes and shrub like trees and rain resistant grass.		Brazilian Highland.
(4)	Tropical semi-deciduous	Mixed type vegetation.	Central India and South India.	Parana Basin and South Eastern part of Brazil.
(5)	Grasslands	Grassland region like the Pampas of Argentina.	Foothills of Shiwalik hills and Assam.	Southern Brazil.

2. Identify the odd man out:

Question a.
Forest type of Brazil ______.
(a) Thorny bush type vegetation
(b) Evergreen forests
(c) The Himalayan Forests
(d) Deciduous forests
Answer:
(c) The Himalayan Forests

Question b.
With reference to India
(a) Mangrove forests
(b) Mediterranean forests
(c) Thorny bush-type vegetation
(d) Equatorial forests
Answer:
(b) Mediterranean forests

Question c.
With reference to Fauna of Brazil.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Tamairin
(c) Red Panda
(d) Lion
Answer:
(c) Red Panda

Question d.
With reference to flora in India.
(a Deodar
(b) Anjan
(c) Orchid
(d) Banyan
Answer:
(c) Orchid

3. Match the Column:

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
Evergreen Forests	(a) Sundari trees
Deciduous forests	(b) Pine
Coastal forests	(c) Pau Brasil
Himalayan forests	(d) Khejari
Thorny and bush type vegetation	(e) Teak
	(f) Orchid

Answer:
1 – c
2 – e
3 – a
4 – b
5 – d

4. Answer in short:

Question a.
Differentiate between the forest types of Brazil and India.
Answer:

Forest type of Brazil	Forest type of India
1. The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region. It receives ample sunshine and heavy rainfall. So dense evergreen forests are seen here.	1. The location of India is far away from the Equator. Heavy rainfall occurs only in the Western Ghats and North Eastern hilly areas. So evergreen forests are seen in these regions.
2. The Highland region of Brazil receives low rainfall. So tropical grasslands are seen in this region.	2. The Peninsula region of India receives rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm, so they are covered by deciduous forests.
3. As there are no tall and long extending mountains in Brazil, Himalayan type forests are not found here.	3. Owing to presence of Himalayas, Himalayan type forests are found in North and North-East of India that are classified on the basis of altitude.
4. Thorny shrubs are found to the North Eastern part of Brazilian Highlands which is also considered to be a Drought Quadrilateral.	4. Thorny shrubs are found in India receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall. It is majorly found in Gujarat, Rajasthan and rain shadow regions of the Western Ghats.

Question b.
Correlate wildlife and natural vegetation in India and Brazil.
Answer:
(i) Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of natural vegetation in India and Brazil. Also depending upon the vegetation we find a variety of wildlife in different regions.

(ii) Grasslands of Brazil like the Savannah and the deciduous forest of India have a large number of herbivores and carnivores.

(iii) The dense evergreen forests of India in the west, north east India and the Amazon Basin of Brazil are a home to a large variety of birds, insects, reptiles along with the herbivores and the carnivores.

(iv) Coastal forests and swampy areas of Pantanal and Sunderbans have mangroves, a variety of birds, fishes and reptiles like crocodiles, alligators and the anacondas in Brazil.

(v) Vegetation provides food and shelter to wildlife but if vegetation is limited like in the Thar desert or the Caatinga it will also limit the variety of animals species.

Question c.
What environmental issues are faced by Brazil and India?
Answer:

• Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and burn agriculture (roca), deforestation, pollution, etc.
• Due to these problems, many endemic species are on the verge of extinction.
• India too faces environmental issues such as poaching, pollution and the fast spreading deforestation.
• Many species of wildlife are on the verge of extinction in India.

Question d.
What are the major causes of degradation of forest in Brazil and India?
Answer:
(i) Forests are being cut down as more area is required to expand the cities. Hence rapid urbanisation is one of the reasons for degradation of forest.

(ii) To ensure continuous food supply to meet the needs of the ever increasing population, more and more area needs to be brought under agriculture. For the expansion of agricultural land, forest areas are being cut down.

(iii) In both India and Brazil, forests are being cut down for firewood and for other domestic needs.

(iv) Slash and Burn agriculture which is also known as Roca in Brazil and Jhum in India is responsible for deforestation.

(v) Apart from all the above reasons, forest fire, pollution, overgrazing, etc. are also responsible for the degradation of forests.

Question e.
Why does the deciduous type vegetation occupy most of India?
Answer:

• Vegetation in a region is affected by the climate and rainfall of the region.
• In dia lies in the tropical zone and it has a monsoon type climate throughout the year.
• Also, a major portion of India receives seasonal rainfall between 1000-2000 mm.
• Deciduous forests thrive well in this condition and these forests shed their leaves during the hot and dry summer so that water is not lost due to evaporation.
• Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are the trees found in deciduous forest of India.

5. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
The northern part of Brazil is covered with dense forests.
Answer:

• The northern part of Brazil lies in the equatorial region.
• It receives ample sunlight and about 2000 mm of rainfall throughout the year.
• In this region, the growth of vegetation is very rapid.
• So, the northern part of Brazil is covered with dense and evergreen forests.

Question b.
Vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.
Answer:

• As the altitude increases, the temperature decreases.
• The climate is very cold in the high altitudes. In Jammu and Kashmir and parts of Himalayas temperature drops to -40fiC.
• Also this region is snow-covered for most part of the year.
• Very few species of plants can survive in such extreme conditions. Only seasonally flowering trees are found at higher altitudes.
• Hence, vegetation is scarce in the high altitude of the Himalayas.

Question c.
A wide variety of insect species is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• Insects are mostly found in forests, grasslands and swampy lands.
• Many insects eat leaves, grass and nectar from the plant.
• The evergreen rainforests are seen in the northern parts of Brazil. The grasslands are found in the central parts and Paraguay-Parana river basin. Similarly, swampy lands are found in Pantanal region in Brazil. .
• Therefore, a wide variety of insect’s species is found in Brazil.

Question d.
Wild life in India is decreasing day by day.
Answer:
(i) Wildlife in India is decreasing day by day because of rapidly occurring deforestation, poaching, pollution.

(ii) Expansion of cities to accommodate the growing population is leading to cutting down of the valuable forest which leads to the loss of the habitat of wildlife.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Poaching of wildlife species have also led to the loss of wildlife in India.

(v) Agricultural practices like shifting cultivation has also reduced the forest cover leading to loss of wildlife habitat.

Question e.
Like India, there is a need for conservation of forests in Brazil too.
Answer:
(i) Like India, Brazil is facing the problem of degradation of environment due to deforestation, pollution, slash and burn agriculture, illegal smuggling of wild animals, etc.

(ii) Trees are being cut down to obtain wood, leading to large scale deforestation in both countries.

(iii) Also the problem of pollution has become severe due to urbanisation. Various types of pollution have threatened the lives of many of the species.

(iv) Agricultural practices like slash and burn agriculture (roca) has reduced the forest cover in Brazil.

(v) Like India, the problem of illegal smuggling of animals has affected Brazil too.

(vi) Hence there is a need for conservation of forests in both Brazil and India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Intext Questions and Answers

Observe the images given below and discuss on the basis of the following points and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Can you tell the names of the plants/trees shown in the image?
Answer:
Coffee, cactus, rubber.

Question 2.
Where have you seen these plants before?
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 3.
Name the fauna shown in the image.
Answer:
Rufous bellied thrush, leopard, green anaconda.

Question 4.
Where have you seen them before?
Answer:
On the internet and in movies.

Question 5.
In which country do you find a greater diversity of vegetation? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the variation in climatic conditions.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
In which country do equatorial forests occupy a greater area? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
Equatorial forests occupy a greater area in Brazil. This is because the Equator passes through northern part of Brazil. Hence, the climate is generally hot throughout the year. Moreover, this region receives heavy rainfall throughout the year.

Question 2.
Which type of forests found in India are not found in Brazil?
Answer:
Himalayan forests are found in India and not in Brazil.

Question 3.
Which type of forests found in Brazil are found in India too?
Answer:
Evergreen forests, deciduous forests, and thorny shrub type vegetation are found in both Brazil and India.

Question 4.
In which country a greater diversity of vegetation is found? What is the reason behind it?
Answer:
Brazil has a greater diversity of vegetation because of the equatorial climate, ample sunlight, heavy rainfall, and vast forest expanse.

Question 5.
Considering the climate and vegetation types, in which country will forest-based occupations flourish?
Answer:
Forest-based occupations will flourish more in Brazil.

Activity

Question 1.
Correlate geographical conditions and the flora and fauna there? (India)
Answer:
Depending upon favourable geographical conditions, we find a variety of flora and fauna in India.

(i) In the snow-capped regions of Himalayas where precipitation occurs in the form of snow, we find alpine vegetation. Animals like snow leopards and yaks are found who can sustain the extreme cold of the Himalayas.

(ii) The evergreen forest in the Western Ghats have hot and humid conditions with a temperature of 28°C and annual rainfall more than 2000mm. In such are as animals like lions, tigers, elephants, and a variety of birds are seen.

(iii) The coastal forest are home to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials, etc. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the swampy, marshy lands of Assam. Mangrove vegetation is found in the saline waters.

(iv) In areas where the climate is hot and dry and the rainfall is low, thorny scrub vegetation is found. Animals like wild ass and camels are common here.

(v) In the regions of medium rainfall. We find deciduous forest, wide variety of animals and birds.

Question 2.
Do you know some other animals too ?
Answer:
Four-horned antelope, black buck, Tibetan yak, giant squirrel (shekaru).

Use your Brain:

Question 1.
Find out in which parts of India agricultural practices like the ‘Roca’ is found? By what names are they called?
Answer:

Slash and Burn Farming in India
Name	Regions
Jhumming	Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland
Pamlou	Manipur
Dipa	Bastar (Chhattisgarh) and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Bewar or Dahiya	Madhya Pradesh
Podu or Penda	Andhra Pradesh
Pama Dabi or Koman or Bringa	Odisha
Kumara	Western Ghats
Valre or Waltre	South Eastern Rajasthan
Khi	Himalayan belt
Kuruwa	Jharkhand

Answer the following questions on the basis of map given:

Question 1.
How many mm of rainfall does Tropical forests have?
Answer:
Tropical forests receives rainfall of 1600 mm.

Question 2.
How much rainfall does equatorial forests receive?
Answer:
Equatorial forests receive 2000 mm of rainfall.

Question 3.
Name the types of forests shown in figure.
Answer:
Tropical forests, Equatorial forests, Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are shown in the above figure.

Question 4.
Where are tropical and equatorial forests found in Brazil?
Answer:Tropical and equatorial forests are found in Guyana Highlands and Amazon basin respectively.

Question 5.
Where are deciduous forests and temperate forests found in Brazil?
Answer:
Deciduous forests and Temperate forests are found in Parana Basin and Brazilian Highlands respectively.

Question 6.
What kind of wildlife is seen in Brazilian Highlands?
Answer:
Reptiles and grassland animals are seen in Brazilian Highlands.

Question 1.
Which forests are found in western snow¬capped regions?
Answer:
Himalayan Forests are found in western snow-capped regions.

Question 2.
On which coast do you mainly find the coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The coastal vegetation is mainly found along the Eastern Coast.

Question 3.
Which type of forests occupy maximum area in India ? Why?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm Since most of India has rainfall in that range, deciduous forests dominate the Indian subcontinent.

Question 4.
Where do you find thorny and shrub vegetation in India and why?
Answer:
Semi arid areas of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Haryana are the places where thorny and shrub vegetation are found. The thorny forests are found in these regions as the rainfall is less than 500 mm.

Question 1.
Name the species shown on the map.
Answer:
Some of the major species shown on the map are condor, golden lion tamarin, anaconda, crocodile, sword fish, flamingoes, macaw, parrots, rufous bellied thrush.

Question 2.
In which regions are these animals found? Why are their habitats found in these forests?
Answer:

• The dense equatorial forest region is home to golden lion tamarin, condor, anaconda, etc. This is because these forest lie near the Amazon River and receive rainfall throughout the year.
• Swampy lands of Pantanal is home to anacondas and crocodiles because these conditions are favourable for their habitation.
• Sword fish thrives near the South Atlantic Coast due to the extensive continental shelf.

Question 3.
Classify the forest regions in Brazil with reference to their extent.
Answer:

• Equatorial forests are found in the northern part of Brazil and it covers an extensive area.
• Tropical Grasslands (Savanna) is the next major forest type occupying central part of Brazil.
• Hot deciduous forests occupy the southern Brazil whereas swampy lands of Pantanal occupy a small part of Brazil in the south west.
• Thorny shrubs occupy the north western part of Brazil owing to low rainfall whereas Temperate Grasslands (Pampas) occupy south Brazil.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:
Question 1.

1. Bengal Tiger
2. Lion
3. Great Indian Bustard
4. Gangetic Dolphin
5. Olive Ridley turtles
6. Swamp deers
7. One-horned rhinos
8. Nilgiri Tahr goat
9. Gharials

Answer:

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
In Brazil, _____ varies due to physiography.
(a) soil
(b) rainfall
(c) agriculture
(d) mineral availability
Answer:
(b) rainfall

Question 2.
In most parts of the _____ region, it rains throughout the year.
(a) temperate
(b) tropical
(c) grasslands
(d) equatorial
Answer:
(d) equatorial

Question 3.
As one moves away from the Equator, _______ decreases.
(a) altitude
(b) forest
(c) rainfall
(d) snowfall
Answer:
(c) rainfall

Question 4.
The _______ forests are found where there is rainfall throughout the year.
(a) tropical
(b) thorny
(c) evergreen
(d) temperate
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 5.
Brazil has the/a ______ number of vegetation species in the world.
(a) moderate
(b) largest
(c) low
(d) smallest
Answer:
(b) largest

Question 6.
The rainforests are rightly called the _______.
(a) lungs of the world’
(b) ’limbs of the world’
(c) ’heart of the world’
(d) ’veins of the world’
Answer:
(a) lungs of the world’

Question 7.
Highest biodiversity is found in _____ forests.
(a) thorny
(b) deciduous
(c) evergreen
(d) coastal
Answer:
(c) evergreen

Question 8.
In regions receiving rainfall between 1000 mm to 2000 mm in India, ______ forests are found.
(a) thorny
(b) evergreen
(c) deciduous
(d) tropical
Answer:
(c) deciduous

Question 9.
In regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall that experience dry summers for a long time in India, ______ and shrub like vegetation are found.
(a) equatorial
(b) evergreen
(c) grasslands
(d) thorny
Answer:
(d) thorny

Question 10.
In _____ areas, coastal type of vegetation is found.
(a) peninsular
(b) mountainous
(c) rocky
(d) swampy
Answer:
(d) swampy

Question 11.
Coastal type of vegetation is called ____ in India.
(a) Bangar
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Pantanal
(d) Terai
Answer:
(b) Sunderbans

Question 12.
The wood found in Sunderbans is _____ light and durable.
(a) dry
(b) fragile
(c) oily
(d) soft
Answer:
(c) oily

Question 13.
In areas located in the ____ altitude of Himalayas, seasonly flowering trees are found.
(a) highest
(b) lowest
(c) plains
(d) medium
Answer:
(a) highest

Question 14.
In regions with medium altitude of Himalayas, ______ trees are found.
(a) rubber
(b) evergreen
(c) rose wood
(d) coniferous
Answer:
(d) coniferous

Question 15.
At foothills of the Himalayas _____ forests are found.
(a) mixed
(b) teak –
(c) coniferous
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) mixed

Question 16.
The proportion of ________ trees is higher at the foothills of the Himalayas.
(a) sal
(b) deodar
(c) rosewood
(d) pine
Answer:
(a) sal

Question 17.
Teak is mainly found in the _______ type of forest.
(a) Coastal
(b) Thorny and bush
(c) Coniferous
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(d) Deciduous

Question 18.
A greater diversity of wildlife is found in ________ than any other country in the
world.
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) Australia
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(d) Brazil

Question 19.
In the swampy areas of Pantanal, _______ are found.
(a) cobras
(b) vipers
(c) huge anacondas
(d) Indian pythons
Answer:
(c) huge anacondas

Question 20.
Among fish varieties, ______ is found in seas of Brazil
(a) mackerel
(b) king fish
(c) sword fish
(d) pink dolphins
Answer:
(c) sword fish

Question 21.
In Brazilian rivers, pink dolphins and ______ are found.
(a) gold fish
(b) piranhas
(c) king fish
(d) mackrels
Answer:
(b) piranhas

Question 22.
One of the major bird species found in Brazil includes _______.
(a) ostrich
(b) flamingoes
(c) kiwi
(d) duck
Answer:
(b) flamingoes

Question 23.
Slash and bum agriculture is also called ______ in Brazil.
(a) kumri
(b) roka (roca)
(c) dry farming
(d) bewar
Answer:
(b) roka (roca)

Question 24.
Hot and humid forests are a home for _______
(a) tiger
(b) elephants
(c) dogs
(d) leopard
Answer:
(b) elephants

Question 25.
One horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of ______.
(a) Assam
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(a) Assam

Question 26.
Indian bisons, deers, monkeys are found in the _____ region.
(a) Himalayan
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Peninsular
(d) Deccan
Answer:
(c) Peninsular

Question 27.
The only country where both lions and tigers are found is ______.
(a) Brazil
(b) India
(c) Australia
(d) America
Answer:
(b) India

Question 28.
______ which are huge in size fly high in the Brazilian sky.
(a) Macaws
(b) Kingfishers
(c) Condors
(d) Pheasants
Answer:
(c) Condors

Match the Column:

Question 1.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Evergreen Forests	(a) Major portion of Madhya Pradesh
2. Deciduous forests	(b) Arunachal Pradesh
3. Thorny shrubs	(c) Sundarbans
4. Himalayan forests	(d) Western Ghats
5. Coastal forests	(e) Gujarat
	(f) Cold desert in Jammu and Kashmir
	(g) Hot desert in Rajasthan

Answer:
1 – d
2 – a
3 – e
4 – b
5 – c

Question 2.

Column ’A’	Column ‘B’
1. Equatorial forests	(a) Caatinga
2. Grasslands	(b) Pantanal
3. Swampy Lands	(c) Pampas
4. Hot deciduous forests	(d) Amazon river basin
5. Thorny shrubs	(e) Escarpment
	(f) Savanna
	(g) Parana basin

Answer:
1 – d
2 – c
3 – b
4 – e
5 – a

Identify the odd man out:

Question 1.
With reference to Fauna in India.
(a) Anaconda
(b) Elephants
(c) Lion
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(a) Anaconda

Question 2.
With reference to Flora of Brazil.
(a) Pau Brazil
(b) Rubber
(c) Mahogany
(d) Deodar
Answer:
(d) Deodar

Question 3.
With reference to Himalayan Forests.
(a) Seasonal flowering plants
(b) Orchids
(c) Pine
(d) Mixed Forests
Answer:
(b) Orchids

Question 4.
With reference to birds found in Brazil.
(a) Condors
(b) Flamingoes
(c) Macaws
(d) Peacocks
Answer:
(d) Peacocks

Question 5.
With reference to birds found in India.
(a) Peacock
(b) Kingfisher
(c) Duck
(d) Condors.
Answer:
(d) Condors.

Question 6.
With reference to protection of wildlife, Government of India has setup.
(a) Museums
(b) Biosphere reserves
(c) National Parks
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer:
(a) Museums

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
Where does it rain throughout the year?
Answer:
It rains throughout the year, in most parts of the equatorial region.

Question 2.
As one moves away from the Equator, does the rainfall increase?
Answer:
No, the rainfall decreases as one moves away from the Equator.

Question 3.
Where are evergreen forests found?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are found in the area where it rains throughout the year.

Question 4.
What effect does rainfall have on vegetation?
Answer:
As the rainfall decreases, the density of the vegetation also decreases.

Question 5.
What kind of vegetation is found in places of less rainfall?
Answer:
Various types of grass, short shrubs and thorny vegetation is found in places of less rainfall.

Question 6.
Where are the largest number of vegetation species found in the world?
Answer:
Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.

Question 7.
What kind of trees are found in Brazil?
Answer:
Trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids are found in Brazil.

Question 8.
Why are the evergreen forests called the ‘lungs of the world’?
Answer:
Evergreen forests are called the lungs of the world because they release large amount of oxygen in the environment which helps to reduce the carbon dioxide levels.

Question 9.
Describe the leaves of trees found in evergreen forests.
Answer:
The leaves of trees found in evergreen forests are broad and green.

Question 10.
What quality of wood is found in evergreen forests?
Answer:
The wood found in evergreen forests is hard, heavy and durable.

Question 11.
In which regions are deciduous forests found?
Answer:
Deciduous forests are found in the regions receiving an average amount of rainfall ranging between 1000mm to 2000mm in India.

Question 12.
Which trees are found in deciduous forests?
Answer:
Trees like teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal, etc. are found in deciduous forest.

Question 13.
Which regions experience dry summers for a long time in India?
Answer:
Regions that receive less than 500 mm of rainfall experience dry summers for a long time in India.

Question 14.
Which kind of vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
Thorny or shrub like vegetation is found in regions receiving less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 15.
How are the leaves of trees in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall?
Answer:
The leaves of trees are small in the region where there is less than 500 mm of rainfall.

Question 16.
Where is coastal vegetation found?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is found in swampy areas, estuaries and lagoons near coastal areas.

Question 17.
What is coastal vegetation called in India?
Answer:
Coastal vegetation is called mangroves or Sunderbans in India.

Question 18.
How is the wood of trees found in coastal vegetation?
Answer:
The wood of trees found in coastal vegetation is oily, light and durable.

Question 19.
How many types of forests are there in the Himalayas?
Answer:
There are three types of forests in the Himalayas based on their altitude.

Question 20.
Which kind of trees are found in regions of high altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees are found in regions of high altitude.

Question 21.
Which type of trees are found in regions with medium altitude in the Himalayas?
Answer:
In regions with medium altitude, coniferous trees like pine, deodar and fir are found.

Question 22.
Where are mixed forests found in India?
Answer:
Mixed forest are found at the foothills of the Himalayas.

Question 23.
Where is greater diversity in wildlife found in the world?
Answer:
A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil than any other country in the world.

Question 24.
Which animal is found in the swampy areas of the Pantanal?
Answer:
Huge anacondas are found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 25.
Which are the other animals found in Brazil?
Answer:
Animals like guinea pigs, crocodiles, alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found in Brazil.

Question 26.
Which is the main variety of fish found in the Brazilian sea?
Answer:
Sword fish is mainly found in the Brazilian sea.

Question 27.
Which varieties of fish are found in the rivers of Brazil?
Answer:
Piranhas are found in the rivers of Brazil.

Question 28.
What kind of birds are seen in the Brazilian sky?
Answer:
Condors, parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are found in the Brazilian skies.

Question 29.
Why is degradation of environment happening in Brazil?
Answer:
Degradation of environment is happening in Brazil due to illegal smuggling of wild animals, slash and bum agriculture (roka), deforestation, and pollution.

Question 30.
Where are elephants found in India?
Answer:
Elephants are found in hot and humid forests of India.

Question 31.
Where are one homed rhinoceroses found?
Answer:
One homed rhinoceroses are found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.

Question 32.
Which animals are found in the arid lands of India?
Answer:
Wild ass and camels are found in the arid lands of India.

Question 33.
Which animal is found in the snow capped regions of Himalayas?
Answer:
Snow leopards are found in the snow capped regions of the Himalayas.

Question 34.
Which animals are found in the peninsular region of India?
Answer:
Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region of India.

Question 35.
Which is the only country where both lions and tigers are found?
Answer:
India is the only country where both lions and tigers are found.

Question 36.
Where are turtles, crocodiles and gharials found in India?
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and gharials are found in rivers, estuaries, and coastal areas of India.

Question 37.
Which birds are found in the forests and wetlands of India?
Answer:
Birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, peasants, ducks, parakeet, cranes, and pigeons are found in the forests and wetlands of India.

Question 38.
What measures are taken by the Government of India for the protection of wildlife and forests of India?
Answer:
The Government of India has set up a number of national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, bird sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves for the protection of wildlife and forests in India.

Question 39.
Name some plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and a variety of cactus like aloevera and agave are found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall in India.

Name the following:

Question 1.
The region where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Equatorial region.

Question 2.
The forests which are found where it rains throughout the year.
Answer:
Evergreen forests.

Question 3.
Kind of vegetation found in places of less rainfall.
Answer:
Grass, short shrubs, thorny vegetation.

Question 4.
Country where the largest number of vegetation species in the world is located.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 5.
The types of trees found in Brazil.
Answer:
Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and variety of orchids.

Question 6.
Other name for rain forests.
Answer:
‘The lungs of the world.’

Question 7.
Trees found in deciduous forests.
Answer:
Teak, bamboo, banyan, peepal.

Question 8.
Type of vegetation found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Thorny and shrub-like.

Question 9.
Plants found in regions having less than 500 mm of rainfall.
Answer:
Catechu, acacia, khejri and varieties of cactus.

Question 10.
Kind of vegetation found in swampy areas.
Answer:
Coastal type.

Question 11.
Another name of coastal type of vegetation in India.
Answer:
Mangroves or sunderbans.

Question 12.
Kind of trees found in forests located on higher altitudes in the Himalayas.
Answer:
Seasonally flowering trees.

Question 13.
Kind of trees which have grown in forests located on medium altitudes in Himalayas. Coniferous trees like Pine, Deodar and Fir.
Answer:
Region where mixed forests are found in Himalayas.

Question 14.
Foothills of Himalayas.
Answer:
Animal found in the swampy areas of Pantanal.

Question 15.
Huge anacondas.
Answer:
Any two varieties of animals found in Brazil. Guinea pigs and crocodiles.

Question 16.
Kind of fishes found in seas of Brazil.
Answer:
Sword fish.

Question 17.
Fish varieties found in the rivers of Brazil.
Answer:
Pink dolphins and Piranhas.

Question 18.
Any two species of birds found in Brazil.
Answer:
Condors and macaws.

Question 19.
Causes for degradation of environment.
Answer:
Illegal smuggling of wild animals, roka, deforestation and pollution

Question 20.
Region where elephants are found in India.
Answer:
Hot and humid forests.

Question 21.
Animal which is found in the swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
Answer:
One horned rhinoceroses.

Question 22.
Animals which are found in arid lands of India.
Answer:
Wild ass and camels.

Question 23.
Animals which are found in the snowcapped mountain of Himalayas.
Answer:
Yaks and snow leopards.

Question 24.
Animals found in the Peninsular region of India.
Answer:
Indian bisons, deer, antelopes and monkeys.

Question 25.
Country where both lion and tigers are found.
Answer:
India.

Question 26.
Animals found in rivers, estuaries and coastal areas of India.
Answer:
Turtles, crocodiles and garials.

Question 27.
Measures taken by the Government of India to protect wildlife.
Answer:
Setting up of National parks, bird sanctuaries, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.

Question 28.
National animal of India.
Answer:
Tiger.

Mark the following on the map of India with the given information:

1. Evergreen forests
2. Deciduous forest
3. Thorny shrubs
4. Himalayan Forests
5. Coastal Forests

Answer:

Mark the following on the map of Brazil with the given information:

1. Equatorial forests
2. Tropical grasslands
3. Swampy lands
4. Hot deciduous forest
5. Caatinga
6. Temperate grasslands

Answer:

Equatorial Forests Tropical Grasslands:Savanna Swampy Lands Hot Deciduous Forest Thorny Shrubs/Caatinga Temperate Grasslands:Pampas

Question 1.
Show the habitats of tigers in India with their names on a map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is their habitat found in these regions?
Answer:
Tiger’s habitats are found in these regions because here there are various types of forest areas with different types of herbivorous animals.

Answer the Questions Briefly:

Question 1.
Thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall.
Answer:

• The regions where there is less or no rainfall have a hot and dry climate.
• The soils in these regions are also rocky and dry.
• Water evaporation in leaves is more since the surface area of exposure is more than that of thorns
• Hence, thorny and shrub-like vegetation is found in regions where there is less or no rainfall to conserve water.

Question 2.
The evergreen rainforests in Brazil are rightly called the ‘Lungs of the world’.
Answer:

• The northern Part of Brazil has dense evergreen forests. .
• These forests release a large amount of oxygen in the environment.
• This helps to reduce carbon dioxide levels.
• Therefore, these rainforests are rightly called the Tungs of the world’.

Question 3.
The largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.
Answer:

• The flora of any region depends upon the amount of rainfall and its physiography.
• Brazil has equatorial forests in high rainfall areas, tropical grasslands and deciduous forests in moderate rainfall areas.
• Western part of Brazil has swampy lands, whereas low rainfall regions have thorny shrubs.
• Temperate grasslands are found in temperate regions.
• Thus, the largest variety of flora is found in Brazil.

Question 4.
Suggest measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India?
Answer:
Measures for the conservation of wildlife and forest in India are as follows:

• Restricting wildlife trading and hunting.
• Declaring more national parks and sanctuaries.
• Giving more importance to the protection of endangered animals.
• Controlling felling of trees.
• Implementing afforestation and social forestry programmes.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Brazilian Vegetation:
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rainfall varies due to physiography. In most parts of the Equatorial region, it rains throughout the year.
(ii) As one moves away from the equator, the number of rainy days as well as amount of rainfall reduces.
(iii) This affects the life cycle of the vegetation too.
(iv) Evergreen forests are found in the areas where it rains throughout the year.
(v) In regions which receive rainfall only during certain seasons, the density of the vegetation reduces.
(vi) Instead of forests, various types of grass, short shrubs,,thorny vegetation, etc. are found.
(vii) Brazil has the largest number of vegetation species in the world.
(viii) This includes evergreen vegetation, semi-evergreen, arid, etc.
(ix) One finds trees like Pau Brasil, rubber, mahogany, rosewood and a variety of orchids.

Question 2.
wildlife of Brazil:
Answer:
(i) A greater diversity in wildlife is found in Brazil compared to any other country in the world.
(ii) In the swampy areas of the Pantanal, huge anacondas are found.
Animals, such as guinea pigs, crocodiles,
alligators, monkeys, pumas, leopards, etc. are found.
(iv) Among the fish varieties, mainly swordfish are found in the seas, while pink dolphins and piranhas are found in the rivers .
(v) Condors which are huge in size and fly high in the sky, various types of parrots, macaws, and flamingoes are the major birds found here.
(vi) Millions of insect varieties are also found here.

Question 3.
The wildlife of India:
Answer:
(i) India is also a mega-diverse country in terms of wildlife. There are many species of wildlife in Irdia.
(ii) Elephants are found in hot and humid forests. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in swampy and marshy lands of Assam.
(iii) Wild ass and camels are found in arid lands. Snow leopards and yaks are found in the snow-capped regions of the Himalayas.
(iv) Indian Bisons, deer, antelopes, and monkeys are found in the Peninsular region.
(v) India is the only country in the world where both tigers and lions are found.
(vi) Rivers, estuaries and coastal areas are homes to many turtles, crocodiles, and gavials (gharials).
(vii) The forests and wetlands are the shelters of variety of birds like peacocks, Indian bustard, kingfishers, pheasants, ducks, parakeets, cranes, and pigeons.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality

Class 8 History Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by- choosing the appropriate options:
(Lala Lajpat Rai, Sane Guruji, Dr. Rakhmabai Janardan Save, Deenbandhu Mitra, Babasaheb Bole)

Question 1.
…………….. founded the Red Cross Society at Rajkot.
Answer:
Dr. Rakhmabai Janardan Save

Question 2.
…………….. was the president of mill workers union at Ammalner.
Answer:
Sane Guruji

Question 3.
The president of the first session of AITUC was ……………..
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai

2. Write short notes:

Question 1.
Social Work of Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde :
Answer:

1. The goal of Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde was to make the Dalits self respectful, well educated and engaged in work.
2. He worked to destroy the delusive ideas regarding Dalits in the minds of the upper caste.
3. He founded the ‘Depressed Classes Mission’ for the progress of Dalits in 1906.
4. To achieve this, he started Marathi schools and work schools in parts of Parel, Deonar in Mumbai.
5. He actively took part in various movement which were related to the welfare of the Dalits like Satyagraha for entry in Parvati temple at Pune, Shetkari Parishad of Dalits and Federal Electorates.

Question 2.
Reforms of Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj in the state of Kolhapur :
Answer:

1. Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj worked for abolishing of caste discrimination.
2. He made revolutionary declaration for reservation in the state of Kolhapur.
3. He made law for free and compulsory primary education.
4. He worked to remove restrictions on inter dining, intermarriage and change of occupation in the caste system.
5. He passed the Act of inter-caste marriage and made it legal in state.
6. He abolished ‘Balutedari System’, by publishing a declaration in the Government Gazette of the state of Kolhapur on 22 February, 1918.
7. This allowed people to practice any occupation and freed them from type of social slavery.

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Government decided to crush down the Communist movement.
Answer:

1. The Communist Party was formed in India in 1925.
2. The young communist leaders started building militant organisations of workers and peasants.
3. The British government started feeling the danger of Communist movement and hence decide to crush it.

Question 2.
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar started newspapers like ‘Muknayak’, ‘Bahishkrut Bharat’, etc.
Answer:

1. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar wanted to establish a society based on principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
2. He intended to carry out movement to establish self-respect and social equality for Dalits.
3. It was necessary to create awakening in society in this respect and to voice their grief.
4. The newspaper was an integral part of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar’s movement.
5. Hence, he started many newspapers so that his ideas and thoughts reach the society.

Question 3.
There aroused a need of a nationwide workers union.
Answer:

1. In the later half of the 19th century, textile mills, railway companies and such other industries were started in India.
2. The workers group were not aroused on large scale.
3. As there were no unions, the workers were not organised.
4. After the First World War, there was rise of worker class in India due to industrialisation.

Therefore, a necessity was felt for a nationwide worker union.

4. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Why was the struggle for equality important in the making of Modern India?
Answer:

1. India achieved freedom because of freedom struggle.
2. The scope of this struggle was not limited to achieve political freedom but emancipation of man from all types of bondages.
3. Therefore in the course of this struggle, there was opposition to feudalism, social inequality and economic exploitation.
4. The principle of equality was given equal importance.
5. Various groups such as farmers, workers, women and Dalits came forward and started movements in order to get justice and bring about reforms.

This proves that the struggle for equality has great significance in the making of Modern India.

Question 2.
Write about the work of Sane Guruji in eastern Khandesh.
Answer:

1. In 1938, due to heavy rains crops were destroyed in eastern Khandesh.
2. He organised the farmers who were in miserable state.
3. Sane Guruji organised meetings and processions at many places in eastern Khandesh to have land revenue waived for the farmers.
4. He took out marches on the Collector office.
5. He tried to create a strong centre of workers union at Dhule-Ammalner.

Question 3.
How was the struggle built up by the workers decisive for the national movement?
Answer:

1. The beginning of the 19th century witnessed the emergence of working-class due to industrialisation. They made efforts to solve their problems.
2. During the anti-partition movement, workers carried out strikes from time to time to pressurise the British government.
3. The tea plantation workers in Assam launched an agitation against their wretched condition.
4. During the anti-partition movement, workers carried out strikes from time to time in support of Swadeshi.
5. In 1928, the Mill Workers Union went on strike for six months. Many such strikes were organised by the Railway workers, jute mill workers, etc.

Question 4.
Discuss the nature of reform movement related to women.
Answer:

1. Women had a secondary position in the Indian social system.
2. They were subjected to many injustices because of evil practices.
3. In the 20th century, many reforms were initiated for the betterment of women.
4. The reform movement was led by women and institutions formed by them.
5. They fought for issues such as the right to inheritance, right to vote through the medium of these institutions.
6. The involvement of women went on increasing. They played an active role in the national movement and in the revolutionary movement.
7. Due to the reform movement, women were included in the Provincial Ministries.

Do you Know?

Narayan Meghaji Lokhande:

The native place of Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was Kanhesar near Saswad in Pune district.

1. He formed the mill workers un ion known as ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ in 1890.
2. This workers union is believed to be the beginning of organised movement in India.
3. He was also the chairman of Mumbai branch of Satyashodhak Samaj founded by Mahatma Phule.
4. Due to his efforts, from 10 June 1890, the workers started getting weekly holiday on Sunday.

Dr. Anandibai Joshi:

1. She was the first Indian Female Doctor.
2. The death of her 10 days old son inspired her to study medicine and acquired M. D. degree in 1886.
3. She died of tuberculosis on February 1887 at Pune.

Project:

Question 1.
Read the biography of Dr. Anandibai Joshi.

Question 2.
Read the biography of Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj.

Class 8 History Chapter 11 Struggle for Equality Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by- choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
……………. got a bill passed in the Bombay Provincial Assembly for the public water reservoirs to be opened to the untouchable.
Answer:
Babasaheb Bole

Question 2.
Neel Darpan written by …………….. brought to notice of the society wretched conditions of the peasants.
Answer:
Deenbandhu Mitra.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Through the magazine ‘Somavanshiya Mitra’ raised voice regarding issues of Muralis and Jogtins.
Answer:
Shivram Janbci Kamble

Question 2.
Chairman of Mumbai branch of Satyashodhak Samaj.
Answer:
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 3.
Movement of eradication of untouchability in Tamil Nadu
Answer:
Perriyar Ramaswamy

Question 4.
Active in international Communist Movement.
Answer:
Manavendranath Roy

Question 5.
Baba Ramachandra.
Answer:
Baba Ramchandra.

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options:

Question 1.
…………….. was the president of ‘Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) Swami Sahajananda Saraswati
(c) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
(d) Manavendranath Roy
Answer:
(b) Swami Sahajananda Saraswati

Question 2.
The session of the Congress was held in the rural part of …………… in Maharashtra.
(a) Nagpur
(b) Baramati
(c) Faizpur
(d) Miraj
Answer:
(c) Faizpur

Question 3.
……………… went on fast unto death to open the doors of Vitthal temple at Pandharpur for the Dalits,
(a) Sane Guruji
(b) Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar
(c) Karmaveer Dadasaheb Gaikwad
(d) Babasaheb Bole
Answer:
(a) Sane Guruji

Question 4.
Due to efforts of …………….., the workers started getting weekly holiday on Sunday from 10 June, 1890.
(a) Shripad Amrut Dange
(b) Shashipad Banerjee
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
Answer:
(d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande

Question 5.
In 1881, …………….. wrote an article on Marx.
(a) Dr. Rammanohar Lohia
(b) Lokmanya Tilak
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Shripad Amrut Dange
Answer:
(b) Lokmanya Tilak

Question 6.
Condemned untouchability through his book ‘Vital Vidhwansan’
(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
(b) Shivram Janba Kamble
(c) Thakkar Bappa
(d) Appasaheb Patwardhan
Answer:
(a) Gopal Baba Walangkar

Question 7.
Karmaveer Dadasaheb Gaikwad led Satyagraha for entry of Dalits in
(a) Kalaram temple
(b) Vitthal temple
(c) Parvati temple
(d) Bhavani temple
Answer:
(a) Kalaram temple

Question 8.
…………….. passed the Act of inter-caste marriage and gave it a legal acceptance in the state of Kolhapur.
(a) Mahatma Jyotirao Phule
(b) Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj
(c) Rajaram Maharaj
(d) Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde
Answer:
(b) Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj

Answer the following questions in one sentence:

Question 1.
State the significance of ‘Neel Darpan’
Answer:
Deenbandhu Mitra in his play ‘Neel Darpan’ brought to the notice of the society the wretched conditions of the peasants who were forced to cultivate indigo.

Question 2.
What was the important work done by ‘Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’?
Answer:
The Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’ presented a declaration of peasants’ rights to the Indian National Congress.

Question 3.
What message did Lala Lajpat Rai give to the workers in the first session of AITUC?
Answer:
At the first session of AITUC Lala Lajpat Rai asked the workers to actively participate in the national movement.

Question 4.
Why did Dr. Ambedkar and his followers embrace Buddhism?
Answer:
Dr. Ambedkar and his followers embraced Buddhism as it advocated humanity and equality. ‘

Question 5.
Which institutions were founded by Pandita Ramabai?
Answer:
Pandita Ramabai had founded the ‘Arya Mahila Samaj’ and ‘Sharda Sadan’.

Question 6.
What message did Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar give his followers?
Answer:
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar gave the inspirational message,’Be Educated, Be Organised and Be Agitated’ to his followers.

Do as Directed:

Complete the Concept Map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Complete the following table:

Question 1.

Founder	Organisation/ Institution
1. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde	…………………………………………
2. ……………………………….	Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha
3. Ramabai Ranade	…………………………………………
4. ………………………………..	Independent Labour Party

Answer:

Founder	Organisation/ Institution
1. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde	Depressed Classes Mission
2. Prof. N.G. Ranga	Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha
3. Ramabai Ranade	Seva Sadan institution
4. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar	Independent Labour Party

Write short notes:

Question 1.
The Meerut Conspiracy Case:
Answer:

1. The young communist leaders built militant organisations of workers and peasants.
2. The growing influence of Communism on Indian youth became a matter of concern for the British and they felt it was a danger.
3. The communist leaders Shripad Amrut Dange, Muzaffar Ahmed, Keshav Neelkanth Joglekar, etc. were arrested.
4. They were falsely charged with planning of a conspiracy to overthrow the British rule.
5. The trial took place at Meerut. So it was called as ‘Meerut Conspiracy Case’.
6. They were given different punishments.

Question 2.
Work of Rakhmabai Janardan Save:
Answer:

1. Dr. Rakhmabai Janardhan Save was the first practicing woman doctor in India.
2. She delivered lectures on health related issues of women.
3. She opened a branch of Red Cross Society at Rajkot.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Narayan Meghaji Lokhande is described as ‘Father of Indian Workers Movement’.
Answer:

1. Industrialisation of India had started during the second half of the 19th century.
2. Shashipad Banerjee and Narayan Meghaji Lokhande organised workers at local level and made efforts to solve their problems.
3. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande formed the mill workers union known as ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ in 1890.
4. Due to his efforts, the workers started getting weekly holiday on Sunday from 10 June, 1890.
5. This was the beginning of organised movement in India.

Thus, his contribution to the working-class movement was so valuable that he is described as ‘Father of Indian Workers Movement’.

Question 2.
The Congress Socialist Party was formed in 1934.
Answer:

1. Many young activists of the Indian National Congress believed that the society should be built on the principles of economic and social equality.
2. Due to this, there was spread of socialist ideas and thoughts.
3. They believed that to protect interests of the people it was necessary to overthrow the British rule.
4. So, they decided to set up a Socialist Party within the Congress fold while they were in Nashik jail. Accordingly, the Congress Socialist Party was formed in 1934.

Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Write about the work of Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj for abolition of caste distinction.
Answer:
The following work was done by Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj in his state of Kolhapur for abolition of caste distinction:

1. He made revolutionary declaration for reservation in state of Kolhapur.
2. There were three restrictions in the caste system: inter dining, inter marriage and change of occupation.
3. Shahu Maharaj ate food from the hands of Dalit people and overthrew the restriction on inter dining.
4. He passed the Act of inter caste marriage and gave it a legal acceptance in his state.
5. He abolished ‘Balutedari System’ on 22 February, 1918 and granted permission to practice any occupation by anyone.

Question 2.
Explain the objectives of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar in launching the Dalit movement.
Answer:
The objectives of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar in launching the Dalit movement 5 is as follows:

1. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar aimed at building a society on the principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.
2. He was of the view that unless the caste system is completely uprooted, the x injustice to the Dalits and inequality would x not end.
3. According to him, social equality is the right of Dalits.
4. He intended to carry out the movement based on self-respect.

Question 3.
Write about the work done by Mahatma Gandhi for eradication of untouchability.
Answer:

1. Mahatma Gandhi took up the issue of eradication of untouchability in his hands and put it up on the platform of Indian National Congress.
2. When in Yerwada jail, he debated with rigid Hindu Pandits stating that the religious texts of the Hindus do not support untouchability.
3. He gave inspiration to Harijan Sevak Sangh.
4. Many took inspiration from him and dedicated themselves to the work for 8 eradication of untouchability.

Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Give a brief account of the peasant’s movement during the pre-independence movement.
Answer:

1. The economic policies of the British protected the landlords and the moneylenders and adversely affected the farmers. The peasants revolted against the injustice in different parts of India.
2. The peasants in Bengal formed union and revolted against the compulsion to cultivate indigo.
3. The peasants in Maharashtra revolted in 1875 against the atrocities of the landlords and moneylenders.
4. In 1918, ‘Kisan Sabha’ was formed by the farmers in Uttar Pradesh.
5. The Mopla peasants in Kerala rose in great revolt.
6. With the initiative of Prof N.G. Ranga Akhil Bharatiya Kisan Sabha’ was established.
7. It presented a declaration of peasants rights to the Indian National Congress.
8. Thousands of peasants attended the session of Indian National Congress which was held in rural part of Faizpur.
9. In 1938, due to heavy rains crops were destroyed in eastern Khandesh. Sane Guruji organised the farmers who were in a miserable state and took out procession.
10. The peasants participated in large numbers in the revolutionary period of 1942.

Question 2.
Write information about the workers’ movement in the pre-independence movement.
Answer:

1. The beginning of the 19th century witnessed the emergence of the working-class due to industrialisation. They made efforts to solve their problems.
2. Shashipad Banerjee and Narayan Meghaji Lokhande organised workers at local level and made efforts to solve their problems.
3. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande described as ‘Father of Indian Workers Movement’ formed ‘Bombay Mill Hands Association’ in 1890. This was the beginning of organised movement in India.
4. The workers on the tea plantations in Assam launched an agitation against their wretched conditions.
5. In 1899, the workers of the Great Indian Peninsular Railway (GIP) called for a strike for their demands.
6. During the anti-partition movement, workers carried out strikes from time to time in support of Swadeshi.
7. In 1920, ‘All India Trade Union Congress’ (AITUC) was established.
8. In 1928, the Mumbai Mill workers went on strike for six months.
9. Many such strikes were carried out: by the railway workers, jute mill workers, etc.

Question 3.
Write about the development in the Dalit movement.
Answer:

1. The Dalit movement was launched to remove the injustice done to Dalits due to Indian social structure.
2. Mahatma Phule and Narayan Guru brought about awakening among the people regarding social inequality.
3. Gopal Baba Walangkar condemned untouchability through his book ‘Vital Vidhwansan’.
4. Periyar Ramaswamy started a movement for the eradication of untouchability in Tamil Nadu.
5. Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde founded the ‘Depressed Classes Mission’ for the progress of the Dalits.
6. Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj worked to remove restrictions on inter dining, intermarriage and change of occupation.
7. Mahatma Gandhi presented the issue of untouchability before the Indian National Congress.
8. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar dedicated his entire life for the Dalit movement and gave it broader perspective.

Question 4.
What work was done for development of workers and Dalits by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar?
Answer:
The following work was done by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar for the development of workers and Dalits:

1. He founded the ‘Bahishkrut Hitkarni Sabha’ to establish social equality.
2. He led the Chavdar Lake Satyagraha in Mahad to make the water reservoir accessible to Dalits.
3. He burnt ‘Manusmriti’ that advocated social inequality.
4. In 1930, he started Satyagraha for the entry of Dalits in the Kalaram temple at Nashik.
5. He started periodicals such as ‘Muknayak’, ‘Bahishkrut Bharat’, Janata’, ‘Samata’ etc. to voice the grievances of the Dalits.
6. He established ‘All India Scheduled Caste Federation’ to put forth issues of the Dalits in effective manner.
7. He established ‘Independent Labour Party’ to oppose the laws that went against the interest of the workers.
8. Through the Constitution of India he made a significant contribution to the creation of a social structure based on equality in Modern India.

Question 5.
Identify the given incident depicted in the picture and write information on it.
image
Answer:

1. This picture is of the Satyagraha carried out by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and his followers at Chavdar Lake in Mahad.
2. Though the bill regarding opening of public water reservoirs to the Dalits was passed they were denied access.
3. He believed that social equality was the right of Dalits.
4. Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar and his 8 followers went to Chavdar lake and started a Satyagraha to make the lake water accessible to Dalits.

Question 6.
Why do you feel the structure of the society should be based on equality?
Answer:

1. I believe that it is the right of every human being to have society based on equality.
2. Due to inequality, rights of some groups are denied. They do not get opportunities for their development.
3. They face injustice in several forms. They do not get self-respect.
4. Farmers, workers, women and Dalits suffer due to inequality. So, it is important to have structure of the society based on equality.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 History Solutions Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement

Class 8 History Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
Gandhiji began his career from the country of …………. .
(a) India
(b) England
(c) South Africa
(d) Myanmar
Answer:
(c) South Africa

Question 2.
The farmers started the no-tax movement in the district of ………….
(a) Gorakhpur
(b) Kheda
(c) Solapur
(d) Amravati
Answer:
(b) Kheda

Question 3.
As a protest to Jallianwala Baug massacre, Rabindranath Tagore returned the title of ………… bestowed upon him by the British government.
(a) Lord
(b) Sir
(c) Raobahadur
(d) Raosaheb
Answer:
(b) Sir

2. Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
Which restriction were put up on the Blacks in South Africa according to the declaration of 1906?
Answer:
In 1906, the government declared that the Blacks in South Africa should compulsorily carry an identity card. This was the restriction imposed on their freedom.

Question 2.
Where did Gandhiji launch the first Satyagraha in India?
Answer:
The first Satyagraha in India was launched by Gandhiji at Champaran at Bihar in 1917.

Question 3.
Which officer gave orders of firing in the Jallianwala Baug?
Answer:
General Dyer gave orders of firing in the Jallianwala Baug.

3. Answer the following questions in 25-30 words :

Question 1.
Explain the philosophy of Satyagraha.
Answer:

1. Satyagraha, a novel technique, means insistence of truth.
2. The aim of Satyagraha was to make the unjust person aware of truth and justice and also to transform his views.
3. A Satyagrahi should never use violence and untruth meAnswer:

Question 2.
Why was the Swaraj Party formed?
Answer:
1. The members of the Indian National Congress like Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das put an idea to contest elections and enter the Legislative Assembly and Provincial Legislative Council to obstruct the working of the government and oppose the unjust policies.
2. Therefore, they formed the Swaraj Party in 1922.

4. Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
Rowlatt Act was opposed by the people of India.
Answer:

1. The Rowlatt Act was enacted to suppress the growing discontent among the Indians and suggest measures about it.
2. This Act authorised the government to arrest any Indian and imprison him without trial or warrant.
3. There was no provision for appeal against the punishment given under the Act.
4. Due to such unjust provisions in the Rowlatt Act it was opposed by the people of India and called ‘Black Act’.

Question 2.
Gandhiji suspended the Non-co-operation Movement.
Answer:

1. In February, 1922 the police opened fire on a peaceful procession at Chauri-Chaura in Gorakhpur district of Uttar Pradesh.
2. In retaliation to this, the enraged mob set fire the police station in Chauri- Chaura.
3. Twenty-two policemen including one officer were killed in this incident.
4. Gandhiji was hurt by this incident. So he decided to suspend the Non-co-operation Movement on 12 February, 1922.

Question 3.
The Indians boycotted the Simon Commission.
Answer:

1. The reforms introduced by Montague Chelmsford Act of 1919 was unsatisfactory.
2. It created discontent among IndiAnswer: The British Government appointed the Simon Commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon in 1927.’
3. There was not a single Indian member on the commission. In protest of this, the Congress boycotted the Simon Commission.

Question 4.
Khilafat movement was started in India.
Answer:

1. The ruler of Turkey was regarded as the Khalifa or religious head of the Muslims all over the world.
2. To get the support of Indian Muslims, in the First World War, the British gave false assurance of not harming the Khalifa’s empire after the war.
3. But they did not keep their word. It caused resentment among the Indian Muslims. So, they started the Khilafat Movement.

Do you Know?
Mulshi Satyagraha (1920-1924):
Muishi Pethcz was a small viilage,with hilly terrain, approximately 40-45 kms away from Pune. The Tata Company decided to set up hydro-electricity project in this part. It was given permission by the British government. The dam would have displaced 52 villages and 11000 people. There was no consent taken from the people nor was there any programme for their rehabilitation. The farmers started their struggle against a mighty power and influential capitalists. Senapa’ti Pandurcing Mahadev Bapat led the struggle. People started caffing him Senapati Bapat. In spite of resisting it for four years, they were unsuccessful. The Satyagraha became inspirational not only in India but all over the world wherever the issue of rehabilitation came up.

Project:

Trace out the pledge of independence that was taken on 26th January 1930 and read it aloud collectively in the classroom.

Class 8 History Chapter 7 Non-co-operation Movement Additional Important Questions and Answers

Rewrite the statements by choosing the appropriate options :

Question 1.
The period between 1920-1947 in the Indian national movement is known as ………….
(a) Moderate Phase
(b) Extremist Phase
(c) Revolutionary Period
(d) Gandhian Era
Answer:
(d) Gandhian Era

Question 2.
…………. suggested Gandhiji to tour the entire nation when he returned from South Africa.
(a) Dadabhai Nowrojee
(b) Surendranath Banerjee
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) Lokmanya Tilak
Answer:
(c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Question 3.
After the death of Lokmanya Tilak in 1920, the reins of freedom movement went into the hands of ………….
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 4.
…………. Commission was appointed to enquire about Jallianwala Baug massacre.
(a) Hunter
(b) Simon
(c) Minto
(d) Rowlatt
Answer:
(a) Hunter

Question 5.
The Resolution of Non-co-operation Movement was put forth by Chittaranjan Das in ………. session of Indian National Congress.
(a) Lahore
(b) Nagpur
(c) Mumbai
(d) Amritsar
Answer:
(b) Nagpur

Question 6.
An officer named attacked Lalaji with a lathi at Lahore.
(a) Dyer
(b) Hunter
(c) Odwire
(d) Saunders
Answer:
(d) Saunders

Question 7.
……………., Secretary of State, criticised that Indians were incapable of drafting a constitution.
(a) Morley
(b) Minto
(c) Berkenhead
(d) Montague
Answer:
(c) Berkenhead

Identify the wrong pair and correct it:

Work – Leader

(1) President of the Lahore session of
Congress – Motilal Nehru

(2) Demonstrated against Simon
commission at Lahore – Lala Lajpat Rai

(3) Held satyagraha
in South Africa – Mahatma Gandhi

(4) Led the Mulshi
Satyagraha – Senapati Bapat
Answer:
Wrong pair : President of the Lahore session of Congress
– Motilal Nehru.
Corrected pair : President of the Lahore session of Congress
– Jawaharlal Nehru.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Leaders in other countries who were influenced by Satyagraha technique of Mahatma Gandhi.
(1) …………………………………….
(2) …………………………………….
Answer:
(1) Martin Luther King in USA
(2) Nelson Mandela in South Africa

Question 2.
Young Congress leaders who demanded Poorna Swaraj.
(1) …………………………………….
(2) …………………………………….
Answer:
(1) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Subash Chandra Bose

Question 3.
Eminent lawyers who boycotted court by giving up their practice
(1) …………………………………….
(2) …………………………………….
Answer:
(1) Pandit Motilal Nehru
(2) Chittaranjan Das.

Complete the graphical presentation :

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Answer the following questions in one sentence :

Question 1.
Which principles gave a new direction to the freedom movement?
Answer:
The principles of truth and non-violence gave new direction to the freedom movement.

Question 2.
How was the constructive programme beneficial?
Answer:
Due to the constructive programme, the national movement became more comprehensive in rural areas.

Question 3.
How did Lala Lajpat Rai react after he was attacked by the British officer?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai said that Every blow on my body will prove a nail in the coffin of the British Empire, when he was attacked by the British officer.

Write short note :

Question 1.
Gandhiji’s work in South Africa :
Answer:

1. In 1893, Gandhiji went to South Africa for some legal work where he began his political work.
2. Many Indians had settled in South Africa for the purpose of trade and business.
3. They were treated as criminals and humiliating treatment was given to them.
4. Many restrictions were imposed on their freedom like it was compulsory for them to carry an identity card.
5. Gandhiji adopted the path of Satyagraha and gained justice for them.

Question 2.
Champaran Satyagraha :
Answer:

1. The farmers in Champaran region in Bihar were forced to cultivate indigo.
2. The cultivators suffered as they received a fixed amount as price from the plantation owners.
3. In 1917, Gandhiji went to Champaran and organized the farmers.
4. He launched agitation by adopting the technique of Satyagraha.
5. The farmers were given justice and thus Gandhiji was successful in his first satyagraha in India.

Question 3.
Work of Swaraj Party :
Answer:

1. The leaders of the Swaraj Party put up an idea of contesting elections and obstructing the work of the government.
2. They severely opposed unjust policies of the government.
3. They demanded that a Responsible Government should be given to India.
4. They demanded for Round Table Conference.
5. They made a resolution in Assembly which demanded the release of political leaders taken as prisoners.
6. Many resolutions were passed in the Central Legislative Assembly but were rejected by the government.

Question 4.
Nehru Report :
Answer:
1. Berkenhead, the Secretary of State of India, criticised that Indian leaders were incapable of drafting a unanimously accepted constitution for India.
2. This challenge was taken up by all party committee under the chairmanship of Pandit Motilal Nehru.
3. The proposals of the Nehru Report were :

• implement Adult Franchise system in India,
• establish self government colonies of India, and
• division of provinces on linguistic division.

Explain the following statements with reasons :

Question 1.
No-tax campaign in Kheda district was successful.
Answer:

1. Due to continuous famines the crops had failed in Kheda district of Gujarat.
2. But the farmers were forced to pay land tax by the government.
3. Gandhiji suggested to the farmers that they should refuse to pay tax.
4. The farmers started the campaign to scrap the tax in 1918.
5. The tax was suspended by the British Government which made the movement successful.

Question 2.
The movement started by Mill workers at Ahmedabad was successful.
Answer:

1. During the First World War the inflation was very high.
2. The mill workers demanded for rise in salary which was refused by the mill owners.
3. Gandhiji advised the workers to go on hunger strike.
4. In the end, the mill owners had to back off and the salary of workers was increased.

Question 3.
The British government passed the Rowlatt Act in 1919.
Answer:

1. Indians extended help to the British government in the First World War.
2. The Indians expected that after the war is over there will be a system of governance for taking decision for the well-being of the IndiAnswer:
3. Moreover, the rising prices, increased taxes led to growing unrest among the Indians.
4. To suppress this discontent and suggest measures about it Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919.

Answer the following questions in 25-30 words :

Question 1.
Why was the Hunter Commission appointed?
Answer:

1. General Dyer ordered an unrestrained firing on the unarmed people who gathered for a meeting on 13th April 1919, at Jallianwala Baug.
2. About 400 people were killed and injured. The injured did not receive any medical help.
3. There was nationwide protest against this act.
4. Rabindranath Tagore gave up the title of Sir given by the British government.
5. The Indians demanded an enquiry against this massacre. So the British government appointed Hunter commission.

Question 2.
Why did Gandhiji support the Khilafat movement?
Answer:

1. Indian Muslims started a movement to support Khalifa known as the Khilafat Movement.
2. Gandhiji felt that if Hindus and Muslims unitedly start a national movement then the government can be brought to its senses.
3. Therefore, Gandhiji supported the Khilafat movement.
4. The Khilafat committee accepted Gandhiji’s proposal and extended support to the Non-co-operation movement.

Question 3.
How was Simon Commission opposed in India?
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress boycotted the Simon Commission because there was not a single Indian in it.
2. In 1928, when the commission arrived in India, people strongly protested against it shouting ‘Simon go back’.
3. The police lathi charged the demonstrators. Lala Lajpat Rai himself led the demonstrators in Lahore.
4. He was injured in lathi charge and succumbed to his injuries.

Question 4.
Why was Gandhiji sent to six years of imprisonment?
Answer:

1. Gandhiji was arrested in March 1922 for writing three anti-national articles in ‘Young India’.
2. His trial was conducted in a special court set up in Ahmedabad.
3. The charges were levied against him. He was imprisoned for six years.

Read the passage and answer the questions given below :

Question 1.
What was the pledge taken by Indians on 26th January 1930?
Answer:
On 26th January 1930, people all over the country took the pledge for carrying out of freedom movement with non-violent means for attainment of independence of India.

Question 2.
Why was the demand of Poorna Swaraj passed in Lahore session?
Answer:
1. The objective of Dominion Status was not acceptable to Pandit Nehru, Subash Chandra Bose and other young leaders.
2. Due to their influence, the resolution of demanding complete independence i.e. ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was passed in the Lahore session.

Question 3
Why was the Lahore session historic?
Answer:

1. The Indian National Congress gave up the objective of Dominion Status.
2. A resolution of complete independence was passed and it became the objective of the national movement.
3. A resolution was passed to observe 26th January as the Independence Day.

Answer the following in detail :

Question 1.
Give an account of the Jallianwala Baug Massacre.
Answer:
Points :
(a) Preceding events
(b) Massacre
(c) Reactions

(a) Preceding events :

1. The British government resorted to suppressive measures as the protest was more intense in Punjab province.
2. Amritsar became the centre of this movement.
3. Gandhiji was prohibited from entering the province of Punjab.
4. General Dyer had banned public meetings in Amritsar.
5. Dr. Satyapal and Dr. Kitchelu were arrested for their involvement in Amritsar Hartal case.

(b) Massacre :

1. Despite the ban, a public meeting was held at Jallianwala Baug in Amritsar on 13th April 1919 on the occasion of Baisakhi.
2. General Dyer deployed troops around the single gate that led to the ground. .
3. Without giving any warning, he ordered unrestrained firing on the unarmed people who had assembled for the meeting.
4. 1660 rounds were fired. The firing continued until the ammunition was over.
5. About 400 men and women were killed.
6. Curfew was announced after the firing which made it impossible for medical help to reach.

(c) Reactions :

1. Military law was imposed in entire Punjab. Many were imprisoned.
2. This led to discontent among the IndiAnswer:
3. Rabindranath Tagore gave away the title of ‘Sir’ given by the British.
4. As Indians demanded the enquiry, the British government appointed the Hunter Commission.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Non-co-operation.
Answer:

1. According to Gandhiji, the British rule lasted in India only because of the co-operation extended by the IndiAnswer:
2. If the Indians withdraw this co-operation and adopt complete non co-operation then the British government will collapse.
3. With this intention, Gandhiji devised and executed Non-co-operation Movement.
4. The Indian National Congress passed the resolution of Non-co-operation Movement at its Nagpur session in 1920.
5. The reins of the movement was given in the hands of Gandhiji.
6. According to this resolution there would be : (i) Boycott of government offices and courts, (ii) Boycott of government schools and colleges, (iii) Boycott of foreign goods and clothes.
7. Boycott and bonfire of foreign clothes was seen at several places and demonstration in front of shops selling such goods.
8. Motilal Nehru, Chittaranjan Das, etc. boycotted court by giving up their practice.
9. Schools and colleges imparting national education were started.
10. Elections were boycotted.
11. The movement spread from the planters in Assam to rail workers in Bengal.

Question 3.
Do you feel that the nation still needs the constructive programme started by Mahatma Gandhi? Why?
Answer:

• Gandhiji implemented the constructive programme along with Non¬co-operation Movement.
• It included Hindu-Muslim unity, prohibition of alcohol, removal of untouchability, etc.
• In spite of completion of 70 years of independence, these problems still exist.
• Communal and religious riots take place. It causes great loss of life and property.

Therefore it is necessary to implement constructive programme in present times.