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Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Which is the dominant phase in Pteridophytes?
(a) Capsule
(b) Gametophyte
(c) Sporophyte
(d) Embryo
Answer:
(c) Sporophyte

Question (B)
The tallest living gymnosperm among the following is
(a) Sequoia sempervirens
(b) Taxodium mucronatum
(c) Zamia pygmaea
(d) Ginkgo biloba
Answer:
(a) Sequoia sempervirens

Question (C)
In Bryophytes
(a) sporophyte and gametophyte generation are independent
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte
(c) gametophyte is dependent upon sporophyte
(d) inconspicuous gametophyte
Answer:
(b) sporophyte is partially dependent upon gametophyte

Question (D)
A characteristic of Angiosperm is
(a) Collateral vascular bundles
(b) Radial vascular bundles
(c) Seed formation
(d) Double fertilization
Answer:
(d) Double fertilization

Question (E)
Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having
(a) Vessels in wood
(b) Mode of nutrition
(c) Siphonogamy
(d) Enclosed seed
Answer:
Both (a) Monocotyledons and (d) Enclosed seed

Question 2.
How you place the pea, jowar and fern at its proper systematic position? Draw a flow chart.
Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following table.

Groups of algae	Chlorophyceae	Phaeophyccac	Rhodophyceae
1. Stored food	Starch
2. Cell wall	—	Cellulose and algin
3. Major pigments	—		Chl-a, d and phycoerythrin

Answer:

Groups of algae	Chlorophyceae	Phaeophyccac	Rhodophyceae
1. Stored food	Starch	Mannitol, laminarin	Floridean starch
2. Cell wall	Cellulose	Cellulose and algin	Cellulose, pectin
3. Major pigments	Chl-a, b	Chl-a, c, fucoxanthin	Chl-a, d and phycoerythrin

Question 4.
Differentiate between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae based on the following characters:
a. Type of roots
b. Venation in the leaves
c. Symmetry of flower
Answer:

Characters	Dicotyledonae	Monocotyledonae
1. Type of roots	Taproots	Fibrous roots
2. Venation in the leaves	Reticulate venation	Parallel venation
3. Symmetry of flower	Tetramerous or Pentamerous symmetry	Trimerous symmetry

Characters Dicotyledonae Monocotyledonae
1. Type of roots Tap roots Fibrous roots
2. V enation in the leaves Reticulate venation Parallel venation
3. Symmetry of flower Tetramerous or Pentamerous symmetry Trimerous symmetry

5. Answer the following questions.

Question (A)
We observe that land becomes barren soon after monsoon. But in the next monsoon it flourishes again with varieties we observed in season earlier. How you think it takes place?
Answer:

1. After monsoon, plants like mosses (bryophytes), ferns (pteridophytes), small herbaceous plants, etc become dry, due to which land becomes barren.
2. However, spores of bryophytes, pteridophytes and seeds of herbaceous plants, grass remain in barren land.
3. During next monsoon, these spores and seeds germinate due to availability of water and other favourable conditions.
4. Bryophytes and pteridophytes require water for reproduction. Hence they flourish during monsoon season.
5. Along with bryophytes and pteridophytes varieties of higher plants like grasses, some seasonal herbs or shrubs grow on barren land during monsoon due to favourable conditions.

Question (B)
Fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams. Why?
Answer:

1. Fern belongs to sub-kingdom Cryptogamae.
2. Cryptogams produce spores but do not produce seeds.
3. Also, in cryptogams the sex organs are concealed.
4. Phanerogams are seed producing plants and their sex organs are visible.
5. Hence, fern is a vascular plant. Yet it is not considered a Phanerogams.

Question (C)
Chlamydomonas is microscopic whereas Sargassum is macroscopic; both are algae. Which characters of these plants includes them in one group?
Answer:

1.  Both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum belong to division Thallophyta.
2. Members of Thallophyta range from unicellular (e.g. Chlamydomonas) to multicellular (e.g. Sargassum).
3. Both are aquatic plants containing photosynthetic pigments.
4. In both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum plant body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
5. The stored food is mainly in the form of starch and its other forms.
6. Cell wall is made up of cellulose and other components. Due to these characters, both Chlamydomonas and Sargassum are included in one group i.e. Thallophyta.

Question 6.
Girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time. Justify.
Answer:

1. Maize plant belongs to class monocotyledonae.
2. In monocotyledonous plants, vascular bundles are closed type.
3. Thus, cambium is absent between xylem and phloem, due to which secondary growth does not occur in these plants.
4. Increase in girth of a stem occurs by secondary growth. Thus, girth of a maize plant does not increase over a period of time.

Question 7.
Radha observed a plant in rainy season on the compound wall of her school. The plant did not have true roots but root like structures were present. Vascular tissue was absent. To which group the plant may belong?
Answer:
The plant observed by Radha belongs may belong to division Bryophyta, as it shows root like structures i.e. rhizoids and absence of vascular tissue.

8. Draw neat labelled diagrams

Question 1.
Draw neat and labelled diagram of:
(A) Spirogyra
(B) Chlamydomonas
Answer:

Question (C)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Funaria.
Answer:

Question (D)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Nephrolepis.
Answer:

[Note: Frond: Fern leaf, originating from rhizome. It consists of blade and petiole, Blade: Main part of the frond which is rich in chlorophyll]

Question (E)
Draw neat and labelled diagram of Haplontic and Haplo-diplontic life cycle.
Answer:

Question 9.
Identify the plant groups on the basis of following features:
A. Seed producing plants
B. Spore producing plants
C. Plant body undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves
D. Plant needs water for fertilization
E. First vascular plants
Answer:
1. Phanerogams (Angiospermae and Gymnospermae)
2. Cryptogams (Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta)
3. Thallophyta, Bryophyta
4. Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Pteridophyta
5. Pteridophytes

Practical/Project:

Question 1.
Study the Nephrolepis plant in detail.
Answer:

1. Nephrolepis belongs to division pteridophyta.
2. They grow abundantly in cool, shady, moist places.
3. Roots are adventitious (fibrous) growing from the underground stem.
4. Leaves are well developed on the stem (Rhizome).
5. They show presence of well-developed conducting system for transportation of water and food.
6. They reproduce asexually by spores produced within sporangia, which are present in sori. These sori are located along the posterior surface of leaflets.
7. These plants have neither fruits nor flowers.
8. Some ferms are used as food, medicine or as ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Study the coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas in detail.
Answer:
1. Coralloid roots of Cycas:
Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae for nitrogen fixation.
Coralloid roots are coral-like, dichotomously branched and fleshy. They grow upward toward the surface of the soil. These roots arise from the lateral branches of normal roots.
2. Scale leaf of Cycas:
In Cycas leaves are dimorphic i.e. foliage leaves and scale leaves. Scale leaves are minute, membranous and brown. These are non- photosynthetic and provide protection to the stem apex.
3. Megasporophyll of Cycas:
Megasporophylls are usually arranged in compact structures called female cones or female strobili. Megasporophyll contains megasporangia (ovule) which produce megaspores.
[Students are expected to collect more information about coralloid roots, scale leaf and megasporophyll of Cycas.]

Question 10.
Observe the following diagram. Correct it and write the information in your words.

Answer:

1. The given figure indicates alternation of generation.
2. The life cycle of a plant includes two generations, sporophytic (diploid = 2n) and gametophytic (haploid = n)
3. Some special diploid cells of sporophyte divide by meiosis to produce haploid cells.
4. These haploid cells divide mitotically to produce gametophyte.
5. On maturation, gametophyte produces male and female gametes which fuse during fertilization and produce diploid zygote.
6. Diploid zygote divides by mitosis and forms diploid sporophyte.

11th Biology Digest Chapter 3 Kingdom Plantae Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Why do we call plants as producers on land?
Answer:
Plants can prepare their own food by the process of photosynthesis. Hence, they are called as producers on land.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

What are differences between sub-kingdoms cryptogamae and Phanerogamae?
Answer:

Cryptogamae	Phanerogamae
1. Plants belonging to this sub-kingdom are non­flowering.	Plants belonging to this sub-kingdom are flowering.
2. Sex organs are concealed.	Sex organs are visible.
3. These plants do not produce seeds.	These plants produce fruits and seeds.
4. An ovule is not formed.	An ovule is formed.
5. It is further divided into three divisions, viz.	It is further divided into two divisions, viz.
6. Thallophyta, Bryophyta and Pteridophyta.	Gymnospermae and Angiospermae.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 19)

Collect different water samples of fresh water. Mount them on a glass slide and observe under a compound microscope. Try to identify the organisms which are visible under it.
Answer:
Micro-organisms like Paramoecium, Amoeba, blue-green algae, unicellular algae, filamentous algae can be observed under compound microscope.
[Students are expected to observe different water samples of fresh water under compound microscope and identify the organisms.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Give salient features of algae.
Answer:
Algae belongs to division Thallophyta.
Salient features of algae:
1. Habitat: Algae are mostly aquatic, few grow on other plants as epiphytes and some grow symbiotically. Some algae are epizoic i.e. growing or living non-parasitically on the exterior of living organisms.
Aquatic algae grow in marine or fresh water. Most of them are free-living while some are symbiotic.

2. Structure: Plant body is thalloid i.e. undifferentiated into root, stem and leaves. They may be small, unicellular, microscopic like Cblorella (non-motile), Chlamydomonas (motile). They can be multicellular, unbranched, filamentous like Spirogyra or branched and filamentous like Chara. Sargassum is a huge macroscopic sea weed which measures more than 60 meters in length.

3. Cell wall: The algal cell wall contains either polysaccharides like cellulose / glucose or a variety of proteins or both.
Reserve food material: Reserve food is in the form of starch and its other forms.

4. Photosynthetic pigments: Photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll – a, chlorophyll – b, chlorophyll – c, chlorophyll – d, carotenes, xanthophylls, phycobilins are found in algae.

5. Reproduction: Reproduction takes place by vegetative, asexual and sexual method.

6. Life cycle: The life cycle shows phenomenon of alternation of generation, dominant haploid and reduced diploid phases.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)

Write different pigments found in algae.
Answer:
Various types of photosynthetic pigments are found in algae.
1. Chlorophyll-a (Essential photosynthetic pigment) is present in all groups of algae.
2. The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Name the accessory pigments of algae.
Answer:
The accessory pigments are chlorophyll-b, chlorophyll-c, chlorophyll-d, carotenes, xanthophylls and phycobilins. Phycobilins are of two types, i.e. phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.
[Students are expected to collect more information about pigments found in algae from internet.]

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 21)

Differentiate between Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae.
Answer:

Chlorophyceae (Green algae)	Phaeophyceae (Brown algae)
1. Photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-b.	Photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll-a, chlorophyll-c and fucoxanthin.
2. Reserve food is in the form of starch.	Reserve food is mannitol and laminarin.
3. e.g. Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Chara, I Volvox, Ulothrix	Ectocarpus, Sargassum, Fucus, Laminaria, etc.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No.21)

Enlist examples of Chlorophyceae and Rhodophvceae.
Answer:
1. Examples of Chlorophyceae:
Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, Char a, Volvox, Ulothrix, etc.
2. Examples of Rhodophyceae:
Chondrus, Batrachospermum, Porphyra, Gelidium, Gracillaria, Polysiphonia, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Different forms of green, red, brown and blue green algae.
Answer:
1. Forms of green algae:
Unicellular motile: e.g. Chlamydomonas Unicellular non-motile: E.g. Chlorella Colonial forms: e.g. Volvox Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra

2. Forms of red algae:
The red thalli of most of the red algae are multicellular, macroscopic, e.g. Gracilaria, Gelidium, Porphyra, Polysiphonia, etc. .

3. Forms of brown algae:
Simple, branched and filamentous: Sargassum, Fucus, Ectocarpus Profusely branched: Laminaria, Dictyota, Kelps (Seaweed)

4. Forms of blue-green algae:
Unicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater or marine water or terrestrial algae.
[Note: Blue-green algae are cyanobacteria which are photosynthetic autotrophs.]
[Students are expected to collect more information from internet.]

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 20)
Enlist the forms of filamentous algae.
Answer: The forms of filamentous algae:
1. Filamentous branched: e.g. Cladophora, Chara, Ectocarpus, Dictyota, etc.
2. Filamentous unbranched: e.g. Ulothrix, Spirogyra, etc.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 21)

Economic importance of algae.
Answer:
(a) Many species of algae are used as food. For e.g. Chlorella (rich in cell proteins hence used as food supplement, even by space travelers), Sargassum, Laminaria, Porphyra, etc.
(b) Alginic acid is produced commercially from Kelps.
(c) Hydrocolloids like algin and carrageen are obtained from brown algae and red algae respectively.
(d) ‘Agar’ which is used as solidifying agent in tissue culture is obtained from red algae like Gelidium and Gracilaria.
(e) Brown algae like sea weeds are used a fodder for sheep, goat, etc.
[Students are expected to collect more information about the economic importance of algae.]
(f) Role of algae in environment.
Answer:
(a) Being photosynthetic, algae help in increasing the level of dissolved oxygen in their immediate environment.
(b) Algae are primary producers of energy rich compounds which forms the basis of food cycles in aquatic animals.
[Students are expected to find out more information about the role of algae in environment on internet.]

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Differentiate between Thallophytes and Bryophytes.
Answer:

Thallophytes	Bryophytes
1. Mostly aquatic in habitat.	Mostly terrestrial, occurs on moist and shady places.
2. Thallus may be unicellular or multicellular.	Thallus is multicellular.
3. Motile and non-motile forms are present.	Non-motile forms present, except male gametes.
4. Rhizoids are absent.	Rhizoids are present.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Why Bryophyta are called amphibians of Plant Kingdom?
Answer:
Members of Bryophyta are mostly terrestrial plants which depend on water for fertilization and completion of their life cycle. Hence, they are called ‘amphibians of Plant Kingdom’.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 21)

You may have seen Funaria plant in rainy season. Why is it called amphibious plant?
Answer:
Funaria belongs to division Bryophyta.
It is a terrestrial plant but requires water for fertilization and completion of its life cycle. Hence, it is called as an amphibious plant.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

You may have seen the various plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds but they have well developed root, stem and leaves. Discuss.
Answer:
1. The plants which do not bear flowers, fruits and seeds, but have true roots, stem and leaves belong to division Pteridophyta.
2. These plants are cryptogams as they do not produce seeds and flowers.
3. They have primitive conducting system.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams – Justify.
Answer:
1. The reproductive organs of pteridophytes are hidden.
2. Pteridophytes do not produce flowers, fruits and seeds. They reproduce asexually by forming spores and sexually by forming gametes, hence they belong to Cryptogamae.
3. These plants possess a primitive conducting system. Thus, conduction of water and food occurs through vascular tissue.
Hence, Pteridophytes are also known as vascular Cryptogams.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 23)

Give one example of aquatic and xerophytic Pteridophytes.
Answer:
Habitat: Pteridophytes grow in moist and shady places, e.g. Ferns, Horsetail. Some are aquatic (Azolla, Marsilea), xerophytic (Equisetum) and epiphytic (Lycopodium).

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 19)

Give any two examples of Pteridophyta.
Answer:
Nephrolepis, Selaginella, Azolla, Marsilea, Equisetum, Lycopodium, Psilotum, Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

Give general characters of Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Answer:
1. General characters of Gymnosperms:
(a) Types: Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen, shrubs or woody trees.
(b) Vascular tissues: They are vascular plants having xylem with tracheids and phloem with sieve cells.
(c) Flower: These are primitive group of flowering plants producing naked seeds.
(d) Body: The plant body is sporophyte. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
(e) Roots: The root system is tap root type. In some gymnosperms, the roots form symbiotic association with other life forms. Coralloid roots of Cycas show association with blue green algae and roots of Pinus show association with endophytic fungi called mycorrhizae.
(f) Stem: In gymnosperms, stem is mostly erect, aerial, solid and cylindrical. Secondary growth is seen in Gymnosperms due to the presence of cambium. In Cycas it is usually unbranched, while in conifers it is branched, (e.g. Pinus, Cedrus).
(g) Leaves: The leaves are dimorphic. The foliage leaves are green, simple needle like or pinnately compound, whereas scale leaves are small, membranous and brown.
(h) Spores: Spores are produced by microsporophyll (Male) and megasporophyll (Female).

(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Observe all garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna and compare them. Note similarities and dissimilarities among them.
Answer:
1. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following similarities can be observed:
Plant body is divided into root, stem and leaves.
2. When we observe garden plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus, Sunflower, Canna, following dissimilarities can be observed:
(a) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus seeds are not enclosed within a fruit, whereas in Sunflower and Canna seeds are enclosed within a fruit.
(b) Plants like Cycas, Thuja, Pinus show cones bearing microsporophylls and megasporophylls, whereas sunflower and Canna plant bear flowers.
(c) In Cycas, Thuja and Pinus green, simple needle like or pinnately compound foliage leaves and brown, membranous scaly leaves can be observed, whereas in Sunflower, Canna green foliage leaves can be observed.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What are the salient features of angiosperms?
Answer:
(ii) General characters of angiosperms:
(a) Habitat: Angiosperms is a group of highly evolved plants, primarily adapted to terrestrial habitat.
(b) Alternation of generations: Angiosperms show heteromorphic alternation of generation in which the sporophyte is diploid, dominant, autotrophic and independent. The gametophytes (male or female) are haploid, reduced and concealed.
(c) Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.
(d) Flower: Besides the essential whorls of microsporophylls (androecium) and megasporophylls (gynoecium), there are accessory whorls namely, calyx (sepals) and corolla (petals) arranged together to form flowers.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

What is double fertilization?
Answer:
(a) Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.
(b) In this process one male gamete fuses with egg cell and another male gamete fuses with secondary nucleus, to form an embryo and endosperm respectively.

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 24)

Explain in brief the two classes of Angiosperms? Draw and label one example of each class.
Answer:
Two classes of Angiosperms are Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
а. Dicotyledonae:

1. These plants have two cotyledons in their embryo.
2. They have a tap root system and the stem is branched.
3. Leaves show reticulate venation.
4. Flowers show tetramerous or pentamerous symmetry.
5. Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type.
6. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
7. In dicots, secondary growth is commonly found. e. g. Helianthus annuus (Sunflower)

b. Monocotyledonae:

1. These plants have single cotyledon in their embryo.
2. They have adventitious root system and stem is rarely branched.
3. Leaves generally have sheathing leaf base and parallel venation.
4. Flowers show trimerous symmetry.
5. The vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type.
6. Cambium is absent between xylem and phloem.
7. In Monocots, except few plants secondary growth is absent, e.g. Zea mays (Maize)

Try This (Textbook Page No. 24)

Study the leaves of Hibiscus, Peepal, Canna, Grass and Tulsi. Classify them as Monocot and Dicot.
Answer:

Monocot leaves	Dicot leaves
Canna. Grass (Parallel venation)	Hibiscus, Peepal, Tulsi (Reticulate venation)

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 25)

(i) Distinguish between Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae.
Answer:
Spores and Sporophylls: Angiosperms are heterosporous. Microspores (commonly called pollens) are formed in microsporangia (or anthers). They develop in highly specialized microsporophyll or stamens while megaspores are formed in megasporangia (or ovules) borne on highly specialized megasporophyll called carpel.

(ii) Why do Dicots show secondary growth while Monocots don’t?
Answer:
(a) In dicots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open type. Cambium is present between xylem and phloem for secondary growth.
(b) Whereas in monocots, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed type. Thus, due to absence of cambium, secondary growth does not occur in majority of monocots.

Observe and Discuss (Textbook Page No. 23)

Which differences did you notice between Gymnosperms and Angiosperms?
Answer:

Gymnosperms	Angiosperms
1. In gymnosperms, the seeds arc naked.	In angiosperms, the seeds are enclosed within the fruit.
2. Plants are evergreen, shrubs or woody trees.	Plants are annual, biennial or perennial herbs, shrubs or trees, either woody or herbaceous.
3. Xylem is made up of tracheids only.	Xylem is made up of vessels and tracheids.
4. Phloem is with sieve cells only.	Phloem is with sieve tubes and companion cells.
5. Usually two types of leaves are present, i.e. green foliage leaves and scale leaves.	Leaves are of usually one type only, such as green foliage leaves.
6. Double fertilization absent.	Double fertilization occurs.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

What is alternation of generations?
Answer:
The sporophytic and gametophytic generations generally occur alternately in the life cycle of a plant. This phenomenon is called alternation of generations.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 26)

Which phase is dominant in the life cycle of Bryophyta and Pteridophyta?
Answer:
In the life cycle of Bryophyta, gametophyte is the dominant phase whereas in the life cycle of Pteridophyta, sporophyte is the dominant phase.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
Candidates to the Lok Sabha are elected through ……….. .
(a) Territorial constituencies
(b) Religious constituencies
(c) Local bodies
(d) Proportional Representation System
Answer:
(a) Territorial constituencies

Question 2.
The ………….. of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(b) Vice-President

2. Find and write. 

Question 1.
Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as ……………….. .
Answer:
Members of Parliament (MPs)

Question 2.
The responsibility of making laws is with the ……………… .
Answer:
Parliament

3. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. The tenure of the members of Rajya Sabha does not get over at the same time.
2. 1/3rd of the total membership of Rajya Sabha retire after every two years and equal number of new members get elected.
3. Because the limited members of Rajys Sabha retire step by step, it can function continuously.
   Since Rajya Sabha is never dissolved completely it is called a permanent House.

Question 2.
Lok Sabha is known as the first House.
Answer:

1. Lok Sabha is the lower and the first House of the Parliament of India.
2. Lok Sabha is the House of Representatives directly elected by the people. Hence, Lok Sabha is known as the first House.

4. Answer the following in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
How are members of the Lok Sabha elected?
Answer:

1. As per the Constitution, there can be a maximum of 552 members in Lok Sabha.
2. General elections to Lok Sabha are held after every five years and members are directly elected by the people.
3. To ensure equal representation to all sections of the community, some seats are reserved for members belonging to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. In case there are no representation from the Anglo-Indian community, the President can appoint two members from this community to the Lok Sabha.
5. Thus, Lok Sabha is the representative body of the citizens of India.

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are :

1. To conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
2. To take care of the rights and privileges of the members of Lok Sabha.
3. To interpret the rules of daily functioning of the House and work accordingly.
4. To maintain the decorum and dignity of the House.

5. Explain the step involved in the lawmaking process.

Question 1.
Parliament :
Answer:

1. The Legislature at the national level is called the Parliament.
2. It consists of the President and two houses, i.e., the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. Though the President is an inseparable part of the Parliament, he/she cannot participate in the discussions in either of the Houses of the Parliament.
4. The Constitution of India has created the Parliament.

Question 2.
Amendment to the Constitution :
Answer:

1. According to the changing times, certain necessary changes have to be made in some laws. The process of making such changes is called Amendment.
2. Only the Parliament has the right to make such amendments to the Constitution.
3. The Constitution amendment bill is considered to be an important bill.
4. The Parliament discusses why the amendment is required and decides whether to accept it or not.

Question 3.
Members of Parliament :
Answer:

1. The members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are known as Members of Parliament (MPs).
2. The members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people.
3. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected from the constituent States and Union Territories.
4. MPs try to resolve the queries and complaints of their constituencies by raising questions in the Parliament.
5. MPs also participate in the process of formulation of laws.
6. The Government allocates funds to MPs to carry out development activities in their constituencies.

Question 4.
Bill of Law:
Answer:

1. At the initial stage of lawmaking process, a rough draft of the law is prepared.
2. This rough draft or outline is known as ‘draft proposal of the law’ or ‘bill of law’.
3. The Bill clearly mentions the objectives and the details of the proposed law.
4. Every bill has to undergo three readings in both the Houses, and then it is put to vote.

Can you find out?

For the purpose of elections, the State is divided into territorial constituencies. The constituent States in India get seats on the basis of their population. For e.g.

• Maharashtra – 48 seats
• Gujarat – 26 seats
• Madhya Pradesh – 29 seats
• Goa – 02 seats
• Uttar Pradesh – 80 seats

Understand It:
(The gist of the conversation held between Mazy, Radhika, Ran veer and others.)

1. Any Indian citizen who has completed 18 years of age is only eligible to vote.
2. An Indian citizens who has completed 25 years of age can contest for Lok Sabha election.
3. A citizen of India can contest for election from any constituency of any State.
4. Citizens of other countries cannot contest for elections of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
5. Just as there are set criteria for qualifying for election, there are set criteria for disqualification as well.

Rights regarding passing of Bills:

1. Though Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have same set of rights, Lok Sabha has certain rights which are not available for Rajya Sabha.
2. Bills related to finance (Money Bills) and such other bills are first introduced and passed in Lok Sabha.
3. Rajya Sabha has limited powers with respect to money bills.
4. Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution on the subject in the State List.

Can you tell?

Certain laws which become out-of-date (obsolete) are abolished. Can you give examples of such obsolete laws? For example, Privy purses.

Know this too:

1. Every year, on 1 February the Union Finance Minister presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha. Previously, it was presented on 28 February.
2. The State Legislatures also follow the same procedure of law making as in the Parliament.
3. The bill passed can become a law only after it is signed by the President at the Union level and by the Governor at the State level.

Project:

The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha. Collect information on what are the criteria for their selection.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 2 The Indian Parliament Additional Important Questions and Answers

Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct option:

Question 1.
…………….. is the upper House of the Parliament.
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Legislative Council
Answer:
(c) Rajya Sabha

Question 2.
The …………… of India has created the Parliament of India.
(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Constitution
(d) British Law
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 3.
1/3rd members of total membership of Rajya Sabha, who have completed their tenure of six years, retire after every ……………….. years.
(a) two
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) two

Question 4.
If ……………….. feels that the Parliament should make a law of the subject in the state list, it can pass a resolution to that effect.
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Executive
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
Every year in the month of February, the ………….. presents the national budget to the Lok Sabha.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister

Question 6.
The President appoints ……………….. distinguished personalities to the Rajya Sabha.
(a) two
(b) eight
(c) fifteen
(d) twelve
Answer:
(d) twelve

Find and write:

Question 1.
……………. represent the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Speaker

Question 2.
The bill passed by the State legislature becomes a law after it is signed by the ………….. .
Answer:
Governor

Question 3.
The House that gives representation to 29 States and 7 Union Territories is ………………. .
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Complete the following Concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Chairman of Rajya Sabha :
Answer:

1. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. He exercises a control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
3. Maintaining discipline in the House is the function of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
4. He also has the responsibility of facilitating discussions in the House by giving members a chance to speak, etc.

Question 2.
Speaker of Lok Sabha :
Answer:

1. The speaker is elected in the very first meeting after the election of Lok Sabha.
2. The members of Lok Sabha elect one member among them as the Speaker.
3. Lok Sabha functions under the guidance and control of the Speaker.
4. It is the responsibility of the speaker to conduct the business of the House in an unbiased manner.
5. The Speaker has to maintain decorum and dignity of the House.
6. Moreover, he has to interpret the rules and work accordingly.

Question 3.
Control over Council of Ministers :
Answer:

1. Council of Ministers are drawn from the Parliament and hence Parliament exercises control over them.
2. The members of Parliament exercise this control through multiple ways.
3. It is the responsibility of the Parliament to see that the Council of Ministers does not disregard the Parliament.
4. In case the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers, it has to resign.

Answer the following in 25 to 30 words :

Question 1.
Write about Lok Sabha elections.
Answer:

1. Since Lok Sabha is a House of people’s representatives, elections are held after every five years.
2. Elections to Lok Sabha which are held every five years are known as General elections.
3. When Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of five years and elections are held, such elections are called mid- term elections.
4. When a member resigns or dies suddenly, election held for such a seat is called by-election.

Question 2.
Explain the composition of Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The composition of Rajya Sabha is as follows :

1. The total membership of Rajya Sabha is 250 members.
2. Amongst them, 238 members are elected from the constituent states and Union Territories.
3. Remaining twelve members, who are distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social work, are appointed by the President.
4. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected through the system of proportional representation.

Question 3.
Explain the functions of the Parliament.
Answer:
In order to achieve welfare of the people and the objectives of the 8 Constitution, the Parliament has to perform 8 following functions :

1. To formulate new laws and to repeal the outdated laws.
2. To make necessary changes in the existing laws.
3. To amend the Constitution wherever necessary.
4. To keep control over Council of Ministers.

Question 4.
Mention the ways of amending the Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution can be amended in following ways :

1. Few provisions in the Indian Constitution can be amended by simple majority.
2. Some provisions require special (2/3rd) majority of the Parliament.
3. Few other provisions can be amended by special majority plus consent from more than half of the constituent states.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Though Lok Sabha is the Lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.
Answer:

1. Since members of Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people, it represents the people of the nation in the true sense.
2. Money bills related to financial matters are presented in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha has very limited powers with respect to Money Bills.
3. Since the total membership of Lok Sabha is more than Rajya Sabha, it always gets an upper hand when decisions are taken in the joint meeting of both the Houses.
4. Only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.

Hence, though Lok Sabha is the lower House, it is more powerful than Rajya Sabha.

Answer the following questions in details:

Question 1.
Explain the steps involved in the law-making process.
Answer:
The Bill undergoes following process in order to be converted into a Law (Act).
1. First reading :

• The minister of the concerned department/ministry or member of the Parliament presents the bill in the House.
• The objectives and the structure of the Bill are mentioned.

2. Second reading :

• The positive and negative points of the bill are discussed.
• The defects and faults in the bill are stressed.
• After removing the defects and the faults, the bill is put to vote.

3. Committee Stage :

• Sometimes, if required, the Bill is sent to the committee of the House.
• The Bill is discussed in the Committee in details.
• The Committee report consisting of instructions and recommendations is sent to the House.
• The Bill is discussed clause by clause and then voting is taken.

4. Third reading :

• The Bill is once again discussed in the House.
• Voting is taken for approving the Bill.

5. Approval of the other House :

• The Bill has to undergo the same procedure even in the other House.
• The Bill is approved by majority.

6. Assent by the President :

• After getting an approval from both the Houses, the Bill is further sent for assent by the President.
• After the final assent and signature of the President, the Bill is converted into Law.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha on the basis of following points:
1. Number of members
2. Age limit
3. Election
4. Tenure
Answer:

Points	Lok Sabha	Rajya Sabha
1. Number of members	Maximum 552 members	Total 250 members.
2. Age limit	25 years	30 years
3. Election	Directly elected by the people	238 members elected from the constituent states and Union Territories. 12 members appointed by the President.
4. Tenure	5 years	Permanent House. Tenure of every member is 6 years.

Question 3.
Why, according to you, the Constitution must have granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
1. The President appoints twelve members to the Rajya Sabha. These members are usually experienced and distinguished personalities from the fields of literature, arts, science, sports and social service.

2. Such personalities are very active and totally devoted to their respective fields. Hence, they have no time for contesting the elections.

3. They keep themselves away from election procedures like campaigning, conducting meetings, etc. So their election to the Parliament is not possible.

4. But, to derive benefit from their profound knowledge and experience for making of laws, their presence in the Parliament is essential.
Therefore, I feel that the Constitution has granted the President, the right to appoint twelve members to the Rajya Sabha.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Settlements

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Tick (✓) the correct options:

Question a.
The concentration of settlements is related to following major factors
(a) Proximity to the Sea
(b) Plain region
(c) Availability of water
(d) Climate
Answer:
(c) Availability of water

Question b.
In North-eastern part of Brazil, which types of settlements are found
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Star-shaped
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question c.
Where do you find dispersed settlements in India?
(i) Near the rivers
(ii) Near the transport routes
(iii) Hilly areas
(iv) Industrial regions
Answer:
(iii) Hilly areas

Question d.
Concentrated settlements are found in Narmada Valley
(i) Forested land
(ii) Cultivable land
(iii) Undulating topography
(iv) Industries
Answer:
(ii) Cultivable land

Question e.
Which state has the least urbanisation in Brazil?
(i) Para
(ii) Amapa
(iii) Espirito Santo
(iv) Parana
Answer:
(i) Para

2. Give geographical reasons:

Question a.
Availability of water is a major factor affecting settlements.
Answer:
(i) Water is a major factor affecting settlements because water is required for survival of living beings, for purposes like drinking, cooking, agriculture, industries, etc.
(ii) Due to availability of water, agriculture and industries flourish, generating employment opportunities and leading to development of settlements.
(iii) Shortage of water will hamper the growth of agriculture and industries which lead to less development of settlements.

Question b.
In Brazil, majority of population is found in the eastern coastal areas.
Answer:
(i) Although the coastal climate is hot and humid, and flat land is limited due to rugged topography, the eastern coast of Brazil has a good water supply and a large range of natural resources.
(ii) The region has rich fertile soil which is most suitable for coffee cultivation..
(iii) The region is rich in minerals like iron ore and has a steady power supply.
(iv) An excellent transportation facility is also available here.
(v) Due to these factors, agriculture, industries and trade flourish and settlements increase.
So, majority of Brazil’s population is found in the eastern coastal areas.

Question c.
Urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.
Answer:
(i) In India, there has been growing industrialisation, leading to availability of jobs in urban areas.
(ii) Urban areas have better facilities and amenities like water supply, electricity, health, education, etc.
(iii) There is increasing migration of people from rural areas to urban areas.
(iv) The urban population is increasing due to the expansion of urban centres and emergence of new towns.
So, urbanisation is increasing rapidly in India.

Question d.
Settlements are sparse in north-eastern Brazil.
Answer:
(i) The north east of Brazil is a Highland.
(ii) As this region lies in a rain shadow region it suffers from droughts.
(iii) Due to scanty rainfall and unavailability of resources, agriculture and industries are not well developed.
(iv) Transport facilities are also very poor here. Therefore, settlements are sparse in north – eastern Brazil.

Question e.
Except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.
Answer:
(i) Delhi and Chandigarh are union territories lying in the flat Northern Plains of India.
(ii) Delhi is the capital of India and has an ancient history of urbanisation while Chandigarh is one of the most well-planned cities.
(iii) Both Delhi and Chandigarh have good water supply due to river Yamuna and the Bhakra Canal.
(iv) As compared to the other cities in North India, both the cities have well-developed infrastructure, good transport links and other amenities.
(v) Fast developing industries and commercial centres in these places, offer high employment opportunities leading to urbanisation.
Hence, except Delhi and Chandigarh, urbanisation is low in other parts of India.

3. Answer in short:

Question a.
Write a comparative note on urbanisation in Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Rate of urbanisation in higher in Brazil than in India.
(ii) Growth of urbanisation in India has been slow.
E.g. From 18% in 1961 to 31.2% in 2011.
(iii) Growth of urbanisation in Brazil has been rapid.
E.g. From 47.1% in 1960 to 84.6% in 2010.
(iv) Urbanisation has been more in the southern part than in the Northern part of India.
(v) Urbanisation in Brazil has been more in the coastal states of south and southeast than the states in the interior of the west and north.
(vi) India’s rate of urbanisation has increased continously in a fluctuating rate.
(vii) Brazil’s is rate of urbanisation has increased but in a diminishing rate.

Question b.
Differentiate between the human settlements in the Ganga river basin and the Amazon river basin.
Answer:

S.No	Human settlements in the Ganga river basin	Human settlements in the Amazon river basin
(i)	Nucleated settlements are found in Ganga river basin.	(i) Dispersed settlements are found in Amazon river basin.
(ii)	Flat land, availibality of water, fertile soil,favourable climate is suitable for human settlement.	(ii) Unfavourable        climate,      heavy      rainfall, inaccessibility makes the Amazon river basin unsuitable for human settlement.
(iii)	The above conditions along with a good transport network has helped to flourish agriculture and other industries.	(iii) Due to dense evergreen forests and poor transport facility there are restrictions on the use of natural resources, which have affected economic development.

Question c.
Why do human settlements grow in specific locations only?
Answer:
Human settlements depend on various factors like climate, availability of water, slope of the land, level of development.
In India, nucleated human settlements are found in the Ganga River Basin because of flat fertile plains, abundance of water, favourable climate and growth of agriculture and industries. Dispersed settlements are found in Himalayan slopes, eastern and southern Rajasthan because of uneven topography, unfavourable climate and lack of development.

In Brazil, nucleated settlements are found in Sao Paulo and southern coast of Brazil, due to nearness to the ocean, fertile soil, availability of natural minerals like iron ore, steady power supply and good transportation system. Dispersed settlements are found in Northern Brazil due to the inaccessible forests in Amazon river basin, unhealthy climate, limitations on use of natural resources drought region and poor transport connectivity.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Intext Questions and Answers

Geographical Explanation

Study the two types of settlement patterns in India given in figure (a) and (b) Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlements?
Answer:
Fig a. Settlement Type is: Nucleated and in Fig. b. Settlement Type is: Linear and Dispersed settlement.

Question 2.
Which one is a nucleated settlement? Why?
Answer:
Fig. a. Shows the image of a Nucleated settlement, because it is a cultivated land and has a centrally located water body.

Question 3.
Which one is a dispersed settlement? What could be the reason behind it?
Answer:
In Fig. b. dispersed settlement is observed due to unsuitable topography.

Question 4.
Can you guess in which regions are these settlements located in India?
Answer:
Settlement in Fig. a. is located in the north Indian plain, it might be the river Ganga Basin and settlement in the Fig. b. is located in hilly terrain covered with forest and also a road passing through leads to a dispersed settlement.

Think About It

Question 1.
Tell whether settlements shown in images (a) and (b) are urban or rural.


Answer:
The image shown in (a) is urban and The image shown in (b) is rural

Lets Recall

Question 1.
Some amenities and facilities are given here. Tick (✓) in the relevant column and complete the table on the basis of their presence in urban and rural areas or both.
Answer:

S.No	Amentity	Available in Villages	Available in Cities
(1)	Petrol Pump	✓	✓
(2)	Theatre		✓
(3)	Weekly Market	✓
(4)	Primary Health Centre	✓
(5)	Police Outpost	✓	✓
(6)	Art Gallery		✓
(7)	Gram Panchayat	✓
(8)	Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC)	✓
(9)	Primary School	✓	✓
(10)	Senior School		✓
(11)	College		✓
(12)	Shop	✓	✓
(13)	Multi-speciality Hospital		✓
(14)	Metro station		✓
(15)	Bus station	✓	✓
(16)	University		✓

Try This.

Question 1.
In the figure (a) and (b), you can see images of two settlements in Brazil. One is from the Amazon river basin in Brazil while the other belongs to the coastal area. Observe the settlement patterns carefully and name the types of settlement patterns. Write a comment on their density and types.


Answer:
(1) Fig. (a)
Type settlement pattern: Dispersed settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Sparse.
(2) Fig. (b)
Type settlement pattern: Nucleated settlements as they are lying in the dense forested areas of the Amazon Basin.
Density of Population: Dense.

Can You Tell

Read the graph below and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What was the percentage of urbanisation in 1961?
Answer:
The percentage of urbanisation in 1961 was 18%.

Question 2.
In which decade was urbanisation the highest?
Answer:
Highest urbanisation took place in the decade 1971 -1981.

Question 3.
In which decade was the growth of urbanisation lowest?
Answer:
The growth of urbanisation was lowest in the decade 1961-1971.

Question 4.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1961 and 1971 was of 0.20%

Question 5.
What was the growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011?
Answer:
The growth in the percentage of urbanisation between 1991 and 2011 was of 5.5%.

Question 6.
What inference can you draw regarding India’s urbanisation after reading the graph?
Answer:
After reading the graph, we can say that urbanisation in India is slowly but continuously rising.

Try This

Look at the table. It shows the growth and share of urban population in total population of Brazil. Draw a line graph from this table. Examine the graph carefully and answer the following questions:
Brazil Percentage of urban population (1960 to 2010)

Answer:

Question 1.
What is the interval of the data?
Answer:
The interval of the data is 10 years.

Question 2.
In which period did urbanisation occur rapidly?
Answer:
Urbanisation occured rapidly in the period 1960 – 1970.

Question 3.
Write five sentences analysing the graph.
Answer:
(i) The graph shows the percentage of urbanisation in Brazil from 1960 to 2010.
(ii) The interval of the data is 10 years.
(iii) Clearly there has been a rapid urbanisation in Brazil.
(iv) The highest urbanisation is seen between 1960 to 1970, when urbanisation grew from 47.1% to 56.8%, a growth of 9.7%.
(v) Urbanisation occurred slowly during the decade from 2000 to 2010, at a growth of 3.1%.

Give It a Try

Question 1.
Prepare a choropleth map showing urban population using the data given in the table below.

S.No.	Urban population percentage category	States /UTs falling in the category
(1)	0-20	Himachal Pradesh, Bihar, Assam and Odisha
(2)	21-40	Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Manipur, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Haryana, A and N Islands, Punjab, Karnataka and M. P.
(3)	41-60	Gujarat, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Mizoram
(4)	61-80	Goa, Puducherry, Daman and Diu, Lakshadweep
(5)	81 -100	Chandigarh, NCT of Delhi

Answer:

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Compare the line graph shown in figure and the one drawn by you for Brazil. Write five lines on the changes that have occurred in urbanisation in both the countries, with time.

Answer:
(i) After comparing the graphs of India and Brazil, it is clear that urbanisation in Brazil has been much more rapid as compared to India.

(ii) Urbanisation in Brazil grew from 47.1% in 1960¬70 to 84.6% in 2000-2010. Whereas urbanisation in India grew from 18% in 1961-70 to 31.2% in 2001-2011.

(iii) But Brazil’s rate of urbanisation is showing signs of decline, whereas India’s rate of urbanisation is showing a slow and consistent growth.

(iv) For e.g. the rate of urbanisation in Brazil has decreased from 9.7% in 1960-1970 to 3.1% in 2000¬2010. Whereas the rate of urbanisation in India has increased from 0.2% in 1961-1971 to 3.4% in 2001-2011.

(v) Both Brazil and India are developing countries, but Brazil shows very high urbanisation as compared to India.

Question 2.
Make a short note on the comparison between the settlement patterns in India and Brazil on the basis of the following points:
(i) Location
(ii) Pattern
(iii) Types
(iv) Density
Answer:
India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Give It a Try

Question 1.
“Observe the two satellite images given below. Describe the settlements with respect to physiography, Considering the physiography, where could these settllements be located? Find out their settlement pattern and limitations with respect to their future growth.
Answer:
(i) Location : Both satellite images show human settlements in a mountainous region. One settlement is along mountain slope, while the other is on top of a mountain.
(ii) Pattern : Dispersed settlements.
(iii) Future growth : Further growth for human settlements seems difficult. This is mainly because of the hilly terrain and forested land along the mountain slope.

Study the choropleth map of Brazil showing the Statewise urban population of Brazil and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Which state (region) in Brazil is the most urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Sao Paulo, Rio de Janeiro, Goias, Espirito Santo in the southeastern part of Brazil and the port Manaus in the north are the most urbanised.

Question 2.
Which state (region) in the least urbanised?
Answer:
The states of Para, Maranhao and Piaui in northern part of Brazil are the least urbanised states.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
Which factors have affected urbanisation in Brazil?
Answer:
(i) In Brazil, rapid urbanisation has taken place in South and South East Coastal regions.
(ii) Being in proximity to the Atlantic Ocean have benefitted these regions immensely in the form of mild climatic conditions.
(iii) Availability of water, fertile soil, natural minerals such as iron ore, good transport system and steady electric supply have positively impacted urbanisation in these parts.
(iv) To the north of the Brazilian Highlands is the rain shadow region of ‘Drought Quadrilateral’ with sparse settlements.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the settlement pattern, urban and rural settlement and urbanisation in India and Brazil.
Answer:

India settlement pattern

• Location : Nucleated settlements are found throughout the plateau region of Narmada Valley, paddy lands in Bihar, U.P, Vindhyan Plateau and several other cultivated parts of India.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlements
• Types: Urban
•  Density : High population density

• Location : Dispersed settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India, eastern and southern Rajasthan, Himalayan slopes and land with dissected and uneven topography.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Types: Rural
• Density : Low population density.

Brazilian settlement pattern

• Location: The Southern and South Eastern parts of Brazil – Areas where there is good water supply, a large range of natural resources, rich soil, large supply of natural minerals, steady energy supply, a good transport system, etc.
• Pattern : Nucleated settlement
• Types: Urban
• Density : High population density.

• Location : Brazilian Highlands, Central part, Amazon Basin region : regions with dense forests, unfavourable climate, poor transport limits, limitations on the use and exploitation of natural resources, etc.
• Pattern : Dispersed settlements
• Type : Rural
• Density: Low population density

Class 10 Geography Chapter 7 Human Settlements Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements.

Question 1.
_______ settlements are found in tribal parts covering central part of India.
(a) Nucleated
(b) Linear
(c) Dispersed
(d) Circular
Answer:
(c) Dispersed

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by settlers from _______ mainly in coastal areas.
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Europe
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Europe

Question 3.
Sao paulo has _________ settlements.
(a) isolated
(b) nucleated
(c) scattered
(d) dispersed
Answer:
(b) nucleated

Question 4.
Rural areas of Brazil such as the north east highlands suffer from _____ which make it difficult for practising agriculture.
(a) high rainfall
(b) extreme cold
(c) extreme droughts
(d) extreme heat
Answer:
(c) extreme droughts

Question 5.
Settlements become _____ as we go to the central part of Brazil.
(a) sparse
(b) dense
(c) nucleated
(d) triangular
Answer:
(a) sparse

Question 6.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been ________.
(a) quick
(b) moderate
(c) slow
(d) rapid
Answer:
(c) slow

Question 7.
In India, urbanisation has been more in the _______ part.
(a) Western
(b) Eastern
(c) Northern
(d) Southern
Answer:
(d) Southern

Question 8.
Goa is the most urbanised state in India with _______ urban population.
(a) 92%
(b) 52%
(c) 62%
(d) 82%
Answer:
(c) 62%

Question 9.
_____ is more than 80% urban.
(a) Goa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Delhi
(d) Puducherry
Answer:
(c) Delhi

Question 10.
Today, about ______ of Brazil’s population lives in urban area.
(a) 96%
(b) 66%
(c) 86%
(d) 76%
Answer:
(c) 86%

Question 11.
Looking at the growth in a few parts of the country, the government is promoting “Go _______ ” policy which reduces pressure on other densely populated areas.
(a) East
(b) North
(c) South
(d) West
Answer:
(d) West

Question 12.
Urbanisation has occurred more in the _______ states, in Brazil.
(a) inland
(b) coastal
(c) central
(d) north-western
(b) coastal

Question 13.
_________ is a port on the confluence of the Negro and the Amazon rivers, where urbanisation has occurred.
(a) Alagoas
(b) Parana
(c) Manaus
(d) Ceara
(c) Manaus

Find out the correct group :

Question 1.
States of Brazil in having 91% to 100% urban population.
(a) Sao Paulo, Goias, Espirito Santo and Tocantins.
(b) Espirito Santo, Rio De Janeiro, Para and Goias.
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo, Rio De Janeiro.
(d) Sao Paulo, Amapa, Santa Catarina, and Rondonia.
Answer:
(c) Espirito Santo, Goias, Sao Paulo and Rio De Janeiro.

Question 2.
States of India having less than 20% of Urbanization.
(a) Meghalaya, Uttar Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan. .
(b) Lakshadweep, Daman and Diu, Puducherry and Nagaland.
(c) Tamil Nadu, Mizoram, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar and Himachal Pradesh.
Answer:
(d) Odisha, Assam, Bihar, Himachal Pradesh.

Question 3.
Nucleated settlements in India.
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Rajasthan, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Punjab.
(c) Himalayan slopes, East Rajasthan, Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh and Nagaland.
(d) Vindhyan plateau, Paddy lands in Uttar Pradesh, Land with dissected topography and Bihar.
Answer:
(a) Vindhyan plateau, Plateau region of Narmada valley, Paddy lands in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.

Question 4.
Dispersed settlements in India.
(a) West coast, West Rajasthan, Paddy lands of Punjab and Mizoram.
(b) Land with dissected topography, South Rajasthan, Vindhya plateau and Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.
(d) Himalayan slopes, Narmada Valley, West Rajasthan and South India.
Answer:
(c) Tribal part of Madhya Pradesh, Himalayan slopes, West and South Rajasthan and Land with the uneven topography.

Question 5.
States of India having urbanization between 41% to 60%.
(a) Chandigarh, Daman and Diu, Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat and Mizoram.
(c) Jharkhand, Karnataka, Maharashtra and Goa.
(d) Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Uttarakhand, Assam.
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra, Kerala, Gujarat, Mizoram.

Question 1.
Match the columns:

Column ‘A’		Column ‘B’
(1)	Most urbanised state in India	(a)	Sao Paulo
(2)	Most urbanised state in Brazil	(b)	Goa
(3)	Least urbanised state in India	(c)	Mato Grosso
(4)	Least urbanised	(d)	Himachal Pradesh
	state in Brazil	(e)	Delhi
		(f)	Para

Answer:
1 – b
2 – a
3 – d
4 – f

Are the sentences right or wrong?

Question 1.
India does not have a great tradition of urbanisation.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 2.
The earlier settlements in Brazil were formed by the settlers from America.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 3.
North-East Highlands of Brazil suffer from extreme drought.
Answer:
Right.

Question 4.
The growth of urbanisation in India has been very fast, reaching 86% in 2011.
Answer:
Wrong.

Question 5.
In underdeveloped countries, the rate of urbanisation is low.
Answer:
Right.

Give geographical reasons:

Question 1.
Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.
Answer:
(i) Sao Paulo is situated in South East coast of Brazil.
(ii) The region has a good water supply.
(iii) It an extensive area under rich fertile soil which is ideal for growing coffee.
(iv) It has a large supply of natural minerals, such as iron ore.
(v) It also has a steady energy supply.
(vi) This region has a good transport system too.
So, Sao Paulo area has nucleated settlements.

Question 2.
The Brazilian government is promoting ‘Go West’ policy.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is one of the few developing countries which is highly urbanised.
(ii) But urbanisation in Brazil is confined to South and South East.
(iii) For e.g. States like Sao Paulo, Goias, Minas Gerais, Rio De Janeiro have very high urban population.
(iv) Western Brazil continues to remain least urbanised, which is creating regional imbalance.
(v) In order to reduce regional imbalance, the Brazil Government is promoting ‘Go-West Policy’.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Bureaucracy

Class 8 Civics Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Identify if the following statements are correct or wrong and rewrite the wrong statements in their correct form:

Question 1.
In a Parliamentary democracy, representatives elected by the people and ministers bear the administrative responsibility.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) recruits candidates for civil services in Maharashtra.
Answer:
Wrong – Maharashtra Public Service Commission recruits candidates for civil services in Maharashtra.

2. Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Reservation policy is followed even in Civil Services.
Answer:

1. A part of the society comprising of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Women, Other Backward Castes and specially-abled is termed as the weaker section of the society.
2. It was essential to empower these weaker sections.
3. They were left out of civil services due to social inequality.
4. In order to establish social justice and provide opportunities to weaker sections of the society, reservation policy is followed even in civil services.

Question 2.
It is necessary for civil servants to be politically neutral.
Answer:

1. In Parliamentary democracy, in India, a new government comes in power after every five years. But the bureaucracy is permanent, i.e. they remain same.
2. Bureaucracy is expected to implement the policies and decisions of the earlier government with same efficiency and commitment.
3. Civil servants are expected to keep away from taking a political stand and remain neutral while discharging their duties.
4.  If civil servants work according to their political views it will lead to chaos. Hence, they should be politically neutral.

3. Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Explain the role of the ministers and civil servants in the efficient administration of the department.
Answer:

1. The efficiency of a particular department depends upon the inter-relationship between the Minister and his Secretary and Deputy secretary.
2. The decisions taken by the Ministers are based on the necessary information provided by the bureaucracy.
3. The bureaucracy, i.e. civil servants have complete information about the financial provisions for a particular scheme or plan and also about the history of successes and failures of policies.
4. Hence, if the Ministers develop mutual trust and transparency with the civil servants, it will help in the efficient administration of the department.

Question 2.
Explain how the bureaucracy provides stability to the political system.
Answer:

1. Bureaucracy does the work of implementing decisions taken by the ministers.
2. Several important reforms introduced during the post-independent period have been effectively implemented by the bureaucracy.
3. It consistently provides services like water supply, public cleanliness, transport, electricity, etc. to the people and brings stability in their day-to-day life.
4. It acts as an instrument of social transformation and democratisation. In this way, it gives stability to the political system.

4. Complete the concept picture.

Question 1.

Answer:

5. Discuss characteristics of bureaucracy.

Question 1.
Bureaucracy:
Answer:

1. It is the administrative system that works under the Union Executive.
2. As this administrative system includes civil servants i.e. bureaucrats, it is called Bureaucracy.
3. It has the responsibility of actual implementation of government’s policies.
4. Though the ministers control the bureaucracy, they are dependent on the bureaucracy for information and efficient functioning.

Question 2.
Armed Forces and Civil Services:
Answer:

1. Defending the country from external aggression and internal threats and ensuring security of the country is carried out by the Armed Forces.
2. Services provided to the citizens for making their daily lives comfortable and enabling them to develop themselves and the society are called Civil Services.
3. The administrative system developed to provide services to citizens are called Civil Services.
4. The armed forces help the civil services for internal security.

Meaning of the Headlines given In the box:

1. In the box, a few posts like District Collector, Municipal Commissioner, flnance Secretary, and Divisional Commissioner are mentioned.
2. They are civil servants in the government’s administrative system, working for the welfare of the people.

Project:

Question 1.
Prepare a questionnaire and interview a civil servant in your locality

Class 8 Civics Chapter 6 Bureaucracy Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct options and complete the statements:

Question 1.
…………….. is permanent in nature.
(a) Election Commission
(b) Bureaucracy
(c) President
(d) Prime Ministers
Answer:
(b) Bureaucracy

Question 2.
The bureaucracy is politically ……………….. .
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) biased
(d) neutral
Answer:
(d) neutral

Question 3.
The Parliament holds the ……….. responsible for malpractices.
(a) bureaucracy
(b) Prime Minister
(c) minister
(d) President
Answer:
(c) minister

Question 4.
The ………….. has established autonomous institutions like the Public Service Commissions for selecting efficient civil servants.
(a) Constitution
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Parliament
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Constitution

Question 5.
The ‘Indian Foreign Service’ is included under ……………
(a) All India Services
(b) Union or Central Services
(c) State Civil Services
(d) Armed Forces
Answer:
(b) Union or Central Services

Identify if the following statements are correct or wrong and rewrite the wrong statements in their correct form:

Question 1.
Bureaucracy is an important instrument of social transformation.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 2.
Civil servants are not aware of the history of successes and failures of policies.
Answer:
Wrong – Civil servants are aware of the history of successes and failures of policies.

Question 3.
Civil servants are never publicly criticised.
Answer:
Correct.

Complete the following concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Coordination between the Civil Servants and Ministers help in efficient functioning of the government.
Answer:

1. In Parliamentary democracy, the Executive is responsible for the efficient governance of the country.
2. The decisions relating to the concerned department are made by the minister-in-charge, but necessary information to make such decisions is given by the civil servants.
3. The ministers are dependent on the civil servants for many reasons.

Hence, coordination and mutual trust between the civil servants and ministers help in efficient functioning of the government.

Question 2.
The Bureaucracy is not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policy.
Answer:

1. It is the Minister who is responsible for the efficient and smooth functioning of his department.
2. Though providing necessary information and giving advice is the function of the bureaucracy, it is not accountable for any inefficiency.
3. The Parliament holds the Minister responsible for inefficiency and malpractices.
4. In such case, the Minister bears the responsibility and protects the bureaucracy.

Thus, the anonymity of bureaucracy is preserved, which means they are not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policy. ‘

Question 3.
Bureaucracy is considered as an important instrument of social transformation.
Answer:

1. Many laws are enacted by the government for empowerment of women, protection of children and marginalised sections of the society.
2. Social change is brought through the implementation of such policies.
3. These laws are successfully implemented by the bureaucracy.

Hence, Bureaucracy is considered as an important instrument of social transformation.

Answer the following questions in 25 to 30 words:

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of Bureaucracy.
Answer:

1. Bureaucracy is the administrative system which actually implements the government’s policies.
2. Though the government changes, bureaucracy remains constant. Thus, it is permanent in nature.
3. It has to remain politically neutral and discharge its duties.
4. Its anonymity is maintained, i.e. it is not held directly responsible for any success or failure of policies and it is never publicly criticized.

Thus, the structure of Bureaucracy in India is extensive and complex.

Question 2.
Explain the significance of Indian bureaucracy.
Answer:

1. The Indian bureaucracy implements the policies made by the government for the welfare of the people effectively.
2. It provides several essential services to the people consistently and brings stability in their day to day life.
3. It provides stability to the political system.
4. It acts as an important instrument of social transformation and democratization of society.

Question 3.
Explain the role of bureaucracy in the democratisation of society.
Answer:

1. Equality and social justice are important values of democracy.
2. Bureaucracy has helped in bringing marginalised sections of society into the mainstream by implementing the reservation policy effectively.
3. Their participation has been increased in the process of decision¬making.
4. Democratisation of society not only requires progressive laws and policies but also effective participation of bureaucracy in implementing it.

Thus, bureaucracy plays an important role in the democratisation of society.

Question 4.
Why have autonomous institutions like Public Service Commissions been established?
Answer:
The Constitution of India has established autonomous institutions like Public Service Commissions for following reasons:

1. To select civil servants.
2. To conduct competitive exams for selecting candidates on the criteria of merit and efficiency.
3. To decide other aspect to like the nature of the exam, syllabus, eligibility, etc.
4. To select efficient and deserving candidates through interviews and recommend them to the government for appointment.

Open-Ended Question:

Question 1.
Express your views on ‘ideal bureaucracy’.
Answer:
Bureaucracy includes civil servants and all the employees working in various government offices. In India, bureaucracy is criticised most of the times and is seldom praised.
According to me, an ideal bureaucracy should function as follows:

1. The bureaucracy should advise and force the ministers to adopt policies of public welfare.
2. It should give full cooperation to the ministers for implementing policies effectively.
3. It should adopt the principle of equality and an unbiased approach while implementing the policies so that maximum people are benefitted.
4. It should make the people aware of different beneficial policies.
5. It should strictly keep away from ill- practices like corruption, unnecessary delay, cheating and frauds, etc.
6. It should aim at establishing social justice by extending maximum benefits to weaker sections.
7. It should function as an effective medium for development of the country, social transformation and democratisation of society.

(B) Oral Examination:

Answer the following questions orally:

Question 1.
Who is the Chief Civil Servant of your district?

Question 2.
Name any two schemes/plans implemented by the government officers for your village/city.

Question 3.
How do armed forces help the civil servants?

Question 4.
Who is the Chief Civil Servant of a taluka/tehsil?

Formative Evaluation:

Oral Work:

1. Interview:
Prepare a questionnaire and interview a civil servant in your locality.

2. Group discussion:
Conduct a group discussion in your class on the topic ‘Role of bureaucracy in the development of city/village.’

Project:

Question 1.
Collect information about the working of bureaucracy at taluka/tehsil level.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 10 Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Fill in the blank with appropriate word.

Question a.
India’s per capita income is less than Brazil due to _______.
(a) low national income
(b) massive population
(c) big family size
(d) low foodgrain production
Answer:
(b) massive population

Question b.
The economy of Brazil is mainly dependent on ______ the activities.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quaternary
Answer:
(c) tertiary

Question c.
The economics of India and Brazil are of the _____ type
(a) undeveloped
(b) developed
(c) developing
(d) highly developed
Answer:
(c) developing

2. Answer the following questions:

Question a.
Why has mining not developed in the western part of Brazil?
Answer:
(i) Most of the western part of Brazil is covered by the thick dense equatorial rainforests of the Amazon Basin.
(ii) Inaccessibility, poor transport links, unfavourable climate, heavy rainfall are the main barriers for mining in this part.
(iii) Moreover, lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources is the other factor which has led to limitations in mining in the western part of Brazil.
(iv) Therefore, mining is not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question b.
What are the similarities and differences in the fishing activities in Brazil and India.
Answer:
Similarities:

• In Brazil and India fishing activity is developed near the coastal areas.
• In both the countries, marine fishing is well- developed.

Differences:

• In India, fresh water fishing is practised, whereas in Brazil due to unfavourable conditions, fresh water fishing is not developed.
• The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current, off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground. In India such currents do not come together but due to other favourable conditions fishing has been developed.
• Major fishes of Brazil are swordfish, shrimp, lobsters and sardines.
• Major fishes of India are mackerel, bombay duck, prawns, horse mackerels, clupeids, silver bellies and sardines.

3. Give reasons:

Question a.
Per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.
Answer:

• India occupies 2.4% land area of the world and supports 17.5% of the world’s total population.
• Brazil occupies 5.6% of land area of the world and supports only 2.75% of the world’s total population.
• Average density of population in India is about 382 persons per sq. km. while average density of population in Brazil is around 23 persons per sq. km.
• Thus Brazil’s population is lesser than India, but it occupies a larger land area than India.
• So, the per capita land availability is more in Brazil as compared to India.

Question b.
There is mixed economy in Brazil and India.
Answer:

• In a mixed economy there is a co-existence of public sector and private sector.
• In Brazil, sectors like health, banking, telecommunications, railways and airways are owned and managed by both public and private sectors.
• In India railways is largely a public sector whereas all the other sectors are owned and managed by both private and public sectors.
• So it is said that there is a mixed economy in Brazil and India.

4. Study the following graph and analyse in short.

Answer:
(i) This is a compound bar graph showing the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sectors to the national income of India and Brazil.
(ii) It also shows the percentage of population engaged in these sectors.
(iii) The contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to India’s national income is about 17%, 26% and 57% respectively.
(iv) Whereas the contribution of primary, secondary and tertiary sector to Brazil’s national income is about 5%, 28% and 67% respectively.
(v) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of India is about 49% 24% and 27% respectively.
(vi) The population engaged in primary, secondary and tertiary sector of Brazil is about 10%, 19% and 71% respectively.
(vii) Thus it is understood clearly from the graph that Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Intext Questions and Answers

Give It a Try

Read the following graph and answer the following questions:
Gross National Incomes (GNI) from 1960 to 2016 (in million US. $)

Question 1.
Which country’s national income was the highest in 2016 and how much was it?
Answer:
USA’s national income was highest in 2016. It was approx. U.S. $ 18000 million.

Question 2.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 1980?
Answer:
Brazil had a higher national income in 1980, as compared to India.

Question 3.
Comparing India and Brazil, which country had a higher national income in 2016?
Answer:
Comparing India and Brazil, India had a higher national income.in 2016.

Question 4.
Tell the difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the GNP of Brazil and India in 2016 is approximately US $ 300 million. (India : $ 2000 million – Brazil: $ 1700 million)

Question 5.
Name the developing and developed economies based on the graph?
Answer:
India and Brazil are developing economies and the USA is a developed economy.

Question 6.
Calculate the difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries , in 2016.
Answer:
The difference between the national incomes of developed and developing countries in 2016 was nearly U.S. $ 16500 million.
(US: $18500 million – India, Brazil: $ 2000 million)

Try this

Question 1.
A table regarding the ownership of various sectors in both the countries is given. Like Brazil, fill the details regarding India and complete the table.
Answer:

S.No	India	Sector	Brazil
(1)	Private and Public both	Banking	Private and public both
(2)	Largely Public	Railways	Private and public both
(3)	Largely Private Little Public	Airways	Private and public both
(4)	Private and Public both	Electricity production	Largely public
(5)	Private and Public both	Iron and Steel Industry	Largely public
(6)	Private and Public both	Health	Private and public both
(7)	Largely Private and Public	Education	Largely public, little private
(8)	Largely Private and little Public	Telecomm­ unications	Private and public both

Let’s Recall

Question 1.
Classify the following activities by ticking ( ✓ ) in the respective column
Answer:

S.No	Activities	Primary	Secondary	Tertiary
(1)	Television Broadcasting			✓
(2)	Bee-keeping	✓
(3)	Coir and Rope making	✓
(4)	Jaggery – making		✓
(5)	Producing blades of the plough		✓
(6)	Construction		✓
(7)	Extracting Iron Ore	✓
(8)	Automobile Production		✓
(9)	Rice Production	✓
(10)	Teaching			✓
(11)	Driving buses			✓
(12)	Providing lodging and boarding facilities			✓

Question 2.
Name the warm and cold ocean currents near the Brazilian coast.
Answer:
Warm ocean current: Brazil current Cold ocean current: Falkland current

Question 3.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

Export, Import and Balance of Trade (Value in US $)
	India		Brazil
Year	Exports	Imports	Exports	Imports
2009-10	178751.4	288372.9	152994.7	127647.3
2010-11	251136	369770	197356.4	180458.8
2011-12	304623.53	489181.3	256038.7	226243.4
2012-13	214099.8,	361271.9	242579.8	223749.1

Question (1).
What is balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade is the difference between the value of a nation’s exports and imports for a certain period.

Question (2).
Tell the types of balance of trades.
Answer:
There are three types of balance of trade they are as follows:

• Unfavourable balance of trade: The value of imports is more than the value of exports.
• Favourable balance of trade: The value of exports is more than the value of imports.
•  Balanced trade: The value of exports and imports is almost the same.

Question (3).
In which country do export exceed the imports in all the years?
Answer:
In Brazil, export exceeds the import in all the years.

Question (4).
Brazil’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
Brazil has a ‘favourable balance of trade’ or ‘surplus trade’.

Question (5).
India’s balance of trade belongs to which type?
Answer:
India has an ‘unfavourable balance of trade’ or ’trade deficit’.

Question 4.
With the help of the pie chart given in Fig. , mention what is the contribution of secondary activities in Brazil’s GDP is.

Answer:
The secondary activities contribute 27.5% in Brazil’s GDP.

Activity:

Question 1.
Look at the pie-charts carefully and answer the following questions:

Question (1).
Which country has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities?
Answer:
India has a higher percentage of population engaged in primary activities (48.8%).

Question (2).
In which country is the contribution of tertiary sector greater in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of tertiary sector is greater in Brazil’s GDP (67%).

Question (3).
In which country is the share of secondary activities more in the GDP?
Answer:
The contribution of secondary activities is more in Brazil’s GDP (27.5%).

Question (4).
Can we say that Brazil is an agrarian economy like India? Give reasons.
Answer:
(i) Brazil is not an agrarian economy like India.
(ii) This is because 71% of its population is engaged in the tertiary sector and it contributes 67% in GDP.

Question 2.
Use the following table and make a polyline graph with the help of computer

Country Name/Year	1960	1980	2000	2016
Brazil	240	2010	3060	8840
India	90	280	450	1680
USA	3250	14230	37470	56280

Answer:

Question 3.
Observe the map of Mining and answer the following questions:

Question (1)
Prepare a table of mining products and regions of production in Brazil.
Answer:

Mining products	Regions of production in Brazil
Manganese	North, east
Bauxite	Coastal region
Iron-Ore	Central, south-east
Coal	South

Question (2)
In which part of Brazil has mining activity not developed? What could be the reasons?
Answer:
Mining activity has not developed in the western part of Brazil.

Question (3)
Considering the availability of resources, where has the development of industries occurred?
Answer:
Considering the availability of resources development has occurred mainly in the coastal regions of north-east and south-east of Brazil.

Question 4.
Observe the map of Fishing and answer the following questions:

Question (1)
Can you give two reasons for concentration of fishing near the south-eastern coast of Brazil?
Answer:
Fishing is done on a large scale near the south-eastern coast of Brazil as it is the region where the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current meet making the conditions favourable for it to develop as a good fishing ground.

Question (2)
Inland fishing is not developed in Brazil though there are large number of rivers in Brazil. Can you think of a reason?
Answer:
(i) The Amazon River Basin is very vast with a dense growth of equatorial forests, making it largely inaccessible.
(ii) The methods of inland fishing followed are quite traditional and primitive.
These are some of the reasons why inland fishing is not developed in Brazil, though there are large number of rivers.

Question 5.
Observe the logos given and answer the questions.

Question (1)
Identify the industries with which they are associated.
Answer:
(i) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation – Oil and natural gas exploration and production .
(ii) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL) – Steel production.
(iii) Aarey – Dairy and dairy products.
(iv) Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW) – Electric locomotive manufacturing.
(v) Maharashtra Agro Industries Development Corporation (Limited) MAIDC – Production of pesticides, fertilizers, animal feed, agro-engineering (introducing new kinds of farm implements, sale and repair of tractors, harvesters etc.) and processing food (like jams, jellies and sauces).
(vi) Khadi and Village industries Commission
(KVIC)-Establishment and development of khadi and village Industries in rural areas.
(vii) Central Silk Board (CSB) – Silk production.
(viii) Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF) Chemical and fertilizer production

Question (2)
Which raw material is used for these industries. Classify them accordingly.
Answer:

Classification	Industries	Raw materials
Agro-based industries	Maharashtra Agro-industries Development Corporation Ltd.	Seeds, raw materials required for the production of pesticides, fertilisers
	Khadiand Village Industries Commission	Cotton, silk and wool
Animal product – based industries	Aarey	Milk
	Central Silk . Board (CSB)	Silk
Minerals and metal-based industries	Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)	Crude oil and natural gas
	Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. (RINL)	Iron ore and coal
	Chittaranjan Locomotive Works (CLW)	Iron and steel and aluminium
	Rashtriya Chemical and Fertilizers Ltd. (RCF)	Chemicals and different minerals

Question (3)
From which part of India do they get these raw materials? Discuss and write.
Answer:
(i) Iron ore, coal, limestone etc.: Chhota Nagpur plateau area of Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra etc.
(ii) Natural Gas: Krishna-Godavari Basin.
Mumbai High, in Arabian Sea.
(iii) Mineral Oil: Mumbai High in Arabian sea, Digboi in Assam, Ankleshwar in Gujarat.
(iv) Milk: Bihar, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Gujarat etc.
(v) Cotton: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh.
(vi) Silk: Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, Jammu and Kashmir.

Think about It

Question 1.
Which type of occupations gives a boost to the development of a country’s economy?
Answer:
Secondary and tertiary occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Make Friends With Maps

Look at the map given in Fig. The major primary occupations in Brazil are shown here. Discuss the following points and write your observations.

Question 1.
In which part of Brazil is coffee mainly produced?
Answer:
Coffee is mainly produced in the South and South-east part of Brazil.

Question 2.
Which food crops are mainly produced in Brazil?
Answer:
Rice, soyabean and corn are the food crops mainly produced in Brazil.

Question 3.
Can you relate the production of these crops with the climate there?
Answer:

• Brazil has a wide range of climatic variation.
• Rice requires hot and humid climate with heavy rainfall. So it is grown in the coastal region.
• Corn grows well in the central parts of Brazil, because the climate there is hot and dry.

Question 4.
Where are the rubber plantations concentrated?
Answer:
The rubber plantations are concentrated in the north western part in the Amazon River Basin area.

Question 5.
Complete the table.
Answer:

Types of crops	Crops	Areas of Prodution
Food crops	Corn / Maize	Central
	Rice	coastal region
Cash crops	Coffee	South east
	Sugarcane	Central, East
	Cocoa	East
	Rubber	North
	Soyabean	South
Fruits and Vegetables	Bananas	coastal region.
	Oranges	East, Central

Note : Areas of the production Each one has a different area. Difficult to point out one area for all the varieties of cash crops, food crops and rice.

Use Your Brain Power

Question 1.
If Rajasthan does not have a coastal area, then how does it produce salt?
Answer:
(i) Rajasthan does not have a coastline, but it still produces salt because of the Sambhar Lake, which is India’s largest inland salt lake.
(ii) Salt is produced on a large scale here due to high proportion of salt in Sambhar Lake and high rate evaporation.

Colours Of Both

Question 1.
Indo-Brazil ties: Answer the following.

Question (1)
What does BRICS stand for?
Answer:
BRICS stands for Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question (2)
When was it established?
Answer:
BRIC was established in June 2006. South Africa was inducted in 2010. Then it became BRICS.

Question (3)
What are the objectives of this bloc?
Answer:
The main objectives of BRICS are:

• To achieve regional development.
• To act as a bridge between developed and developing countries by providing financial assistance and support in various infrastructure projects.

Question (4)
The countries of which continent are not a member of this bloc?
Answer:
The countries of North America and Australia are not a member of this bloc.

Question (5)
In which continents do the member countries lie?
Answer:
The member countries lie in the continents of Europe, South America, Africa and Asia.

Question 2.
Study the graphs and answer the following questions on

Question (1)
In which years did the value of exports to Brazil exceed the imports from Brazil?
Answer:
In the years 2008, 2010, 2011, 2013, 2014 and 2015 the value of exports to Brazil have exceeded the imports from Brazil.

Question (2)
In which year was trade with Brazil the most favourable of all?
Answer:
Trade with Brazil was most favourable in the year 2013.

Question (3)
Comment upon the Balance of Trade in the year 2013.
Answer:
(i) The value of Balance of Trade between India and Brazil was maximum in the year 2013.
(ii) Also, the Balance of Trade was in India’s favour.

Question (4)
From which year the value of exports to Brazil have exeeded the value of import from Brazil?
Answer:
From 2010 to 2015 (except 2012).

Question (5)
Write a note on the trade between Brazil and India.
Answer:
(i) Trade between India and Brazil has not been consistent.
(ii) Most of the time the trade has been favourable for India, with exports more than imports.
(iii) In 2015, India-Brazil trade has shown a downfall with both imports and exports at an all-time low.

Question (6)
In which year was the value of exports to Brazil the maximum?
Answer:
The value of exports to Brazil was the maximum in 2014.

Give It A Try

Question 1.
The following images are related to agricultural activities. Identify and write whether they are practised in Brazil or India.


Answer:
(i) In the first image, coffee plantation is seen. It is found mainly in Brazil. In India, coffee plantation are seen in the South Indian states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

(ii) The second image is of the Tea plantation. It is mainly found in India, in Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

(iii) In the third image, shifting agriculture is seen. It is also called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture. In this method, the land under forests is cleared by cutting and burning. On this patch of land, subsistence type of agriculture is practised for the next few years.

Once this patch of land loses fertility; another patch of land is brought under shifting cultivation. It is mainly practiced in Brazil and in some parts of India.

In the fourth image, paddy cultivation is seen and it is mainly practiced in India where there is heavy sufficient and irrigation rainfall.

Try This

Question 1.
Show the distribution of crops like wheat, jowar, rice, cotton, sugarcane, tea, jute, coffee and rubber, apple in the outline map of India using symbols. Name the map.
Answer:

Find Out

Question 1.
Obtain information regarding pisciculture in India with the help of internet and reference books and write a note.
Answer:

• Breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish by artificial means is called pisciculture. It is also called fish farming.
• Fishes are raised in tanks or enclosures for commercial reasons.
• Pisciculture in India is increasing rapidly due to the increasing demand for fish and fish products.
• Indian climate is suitable for practising pisciculture. Wide variety of fish species are raised in the fish farms, e.g. salmon, carp, catfish.
• Due to availability of abundant labour and water sources like lakes, ponds, rivers, etc, pisciculture has become easier.
• Employment opportunities are created due to pisciculture.
• Banks offer loans for those interested in this business.

Class 10 Geography Chapter 8 Economy and Occupations Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statements:

Question 1.
India has a/an ________ national income as Compared to Brazil.
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) equal
(d) very low
Answer:
(a) higher

Question 2.
In Brazil, ______ is the main occupation of the people living in the highlands and coastal areas.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) animal rearing
(d) sericulture
Answer:
(a) agriculture

Question 3.
The main cereal crops grown in Brazil are ______ and maize.
(a) wheat
(b) barley
(c) oat
(d) rice
Answer:
(d) rice

Question 4.
Production of maize is largely concentrated in the _____ part of Brazil.
(a) western
(b) northern
(c) southern
(d) central
Answer:
(d) central

Question 5.
Brazil is the largest exporter of coffee and ______ in the world.
(a) rubber
(b) cocoa
(c) soyabean
(d) maize
Answer:
(c) soyabean

Question 6.
The major states growing coffee are _______ and Sao Paulo.
(a) Rio de Janeiro
(b) Minas Gerais
(c) Para
(d) Parana
Answer:
(b) Minas Gerais

Question 7.
Coffee farms are called _____ in Brazil
(a) para
(b) fazendas
(c) Cerrado
(d) Savannah
Answer:
(b) fazendas

Question 8.
Cattle, sheep and goats are reared in the _____ of the South of Brazil.
(a) Amazon Basin
(b) Parana River basin
(c) Savannah grasslands
(d) Coastal areas
Answer:
(c) Savannah grasslands

Question 9.
The eastern part of Brazil is rich in various types of _____.
(a) crops
(b) animals
(c) minerals
(d) forests
Answer:
(c) minerals

Question 10.
Inaccessibility, lack of knowledge of ________ potential reserves, dense forests are factors which have led to limitation in in the interior parts of Brazil.
(a) agriculture
(b) mining
(c) agro- forestry
(d) fishing
Answer:
(b) mining

Question 11.
Due to the increasing demand in the country, mining has developed well in the ______ region of Brazil.
(a) coastal
(b) highland
(c) mountainous
(d) equatorial forest
Answer:
(b) highland

Question 12.
Brazil has a sea coast of around 7,400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the ____ coast.
(a) South Atlantic
(b) North Atlantic
(c) South Pacific
(d) North Pacific
Answer:
(a) South Atlantic

Question 13.
The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-east Brazil make it a good ______.
(a) fishing ground
(b) offshore oil rig
(c) ocean transport route
(d) fishermen’s settlement
Answer:
(a) fishing ground

Question 14.
Traditionally, in Brazil, fishing has been carried on by small groups of individual fishermen using _____ techniques and equipment.
(a) scientific
(b) modern
(c) primitive
(d) latest
Answer:
(c) primitive

Question 15.
The fish resources of the _____ river are not exploited much and fishing only takes place on a small scale.
(a) Parana
(b) Sao Francisco
(c) Paraguay
(d) Amazon
Answer:
(d) Amazon

Question 16.
Around 60% of land in India is under ________.
(a) cultivation
(b) industries
(c) forestry
(d) mining
Answer:
(a) cultivation

Question 17.
Indian agriculture is mainly _______ type.
(a) commercial
(b) mechanized
(c) subsistence
(d) extensive
Answer:
(c) subsistence

Question 18.
In the coastal areas of India, ______ forms an important part of the diet of many people.
(a) wheat
(b) fish
(c) lobsters
(d) millets
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 19.
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellies are important varieties of ________
(a) crops
(b) fish
(c) millets
(d) cereals
Answer:
(b) fish

Question 20.
Among the freshwater varieties of fish, _______ is a major one.
(a) Sardines
(b) Mackerel
(c) Bombay Duck
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)
Answer:
(d) Silver Bellies Carp (Chopda)

Question 21.
In India, the _____ plateau is a big store house of minerals.
(a) Malwa
(b) Bundelkhand
(c) Baghelkhand
(d) Chhota Nagpur
Answer:
(d) Chhota Nagpur

Question 22.
Coal is mined in ____ in Chhattisgarh and in eastern Maharashtra.
(a) Korba
(b) Cuddapah
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(a) Korba

Question 23.
Mineral oil wells are found in _____ in Assam.
(a) Korba
(b) Koyali
(c) Digboi
(d) Kalol
Answer:
(c) Digboi

Question 24.
Reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered at the mouth of the river _______.
(a) Krishna
(b) Kaveri
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
Answer:
(c) Godavari

Question 25.
Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in ______.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Andhra Pradesh

Question 26.
Traditionally, the poorest part of Brazil is the ______.
(a) north-east
(b) south
(c) north-west
(d) central
Answer:
(a) north-east

Question 27.
The north-eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a very high concentration of _____ industries.
(a) chemical
(b) metallurgical
(c) canning
(d) fruit processing
Answer:
(b) metallurgical

Question 28.
The coastal belt of _______ has a heavy concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
(a) Kerala
(b) Goa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
Answer:
(a) Kerala

Question 29.
Many refineries are situated close to the petroleum producing areas whereas Mathura and _______ refineries are in the interior, away from the oil producing areas.
(a) Digboi
(b) Bongaigaon
(c) Barauni
(d) Koyali
Answer:
(c) Barauni

Question 30.
Among the minerals, Brazil mainly exports _____.
(a) coal
(b) gold
(c) iron ore
(d) manganese
Answer:
(c) iron ore

Question 31.
The main trading partner of Brazil among the Gulf countries is _______.
(a) Bahrain
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Kuwait
(d) Iran
Answer:
(b) Saudi Arabia

Question 32.
India’s major trading partners from the continent of Europe are the UK and _______.
(a) Italy
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) Greece
Answer:
(c) Germany

Match the columns:

Question 1.

S.No	Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1)	Rice and maize	(a) Commercial crops of Brazil
(2)	Tea and mangoes	(b) Cereal crops of Brazil
(3)	Cotton and jute	(c) India’s imports
(4)	Coffee, cocoa, rubber,soyabean	(d)      India’s exports (e)      India’s cash crops

Answer:
1 – b
2 – d
3 – e

Question 2.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Kachchh	(a) Kerala
(2) Coromandal coast	(b) North east India
(3) Malabar coast	(c) Near Maharashtra
(4) Mumbai High	(d) South east India (e) Western coast

Answer:
1 – e
2 – d
3 – a
4 – c

Question 3.

Column ‘A’	Column ’B’	Column ‘C’
(1) Coal	(a) Digboi	(i) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Mineral oil well	(b) Coastal belt	(ii) Chhattisgarh
(3) Stones	(c) Korba	(iii) Kaveri
(4) Mineral oil and Natural gas	(d) River mouth	(iv) Assam
(5) Coir and copra	(e) Cuddapah	(v) Godavari
	(f) Estuary	(vi) Kerala

Answer:
1 – c – ii
2 – a – iv
3 – e – i
4 – d – v
5 – b – vi

Question 4.

Column ‘A’	Column ‘B’
(1) Coir, copra and fish canning	(a) Mathura
(2) Salt	(b) Gujarat
(3) Oil refineries	(c) Kerala
(4) Stones	(d) Barauni
	(e) Andhra Pradesh

Answer:
1 – c
2 – b
3 – d
4 – e

Answer the following in one sentence:

Question 1.
Which currency is mainly used for international trade?
Answer:
US dollar is the currency which is mainly used for international trade.

Question 2.
Name the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Information technology, pharmaceuticals, energy, agro-business, mining, engineering, automobiles, etc. are the sectors of Brazil in which Indian companies have invested money.

Question 3.
Name the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested money.
Answer:
Automobiles, information technology, mining, energy, bio-fuel, footwear, etc. are the sectors of India in which Brazilian companies have invested capital.

Question 4.
Which type of occupations give a boost to the development of a country’s economy ?
Answer:
Tertiary occupation give a boost to the development of a country’s economy.

Name the following:

Question 1.
Factors making it possible for growing a variety of crops in Brazil.
Answer:
Favourable climate and topography.

Question 2.
The main cereal crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Rice and maize

Question 3.
The production of this cereal crop is largely concentrated in the central part of Brazil.
Answer:
Maize.

Question 4.
The major commercial crops of Brazil.
Answer:
Coffee, cocoa, rubber, soyabean and sugarcane.

Question 5.
The largest exporter of coffee and soyabean in the world.
Answer:
Brazil.

Question 6.
The major coffee-growing states of Brazil.
Answer:
Minas Gerais and Sao Paulo.

Question 7.
Fruits are grown in Brazil.
Answer:
Bananas, pineapples, oranges and other citrus fruits.

Question 8.
The region in Brazil where cattle, sheep and goats are reared.
Answer:
Savannah grasslands in the south.

Question 9.
Two factors that have led to limitations in mining in the interior parts of Brazil.
Answer:

• Inaccessibility due to dense forests
• Lack of knowledge of potential reserves of resources.

Question 10.
The warm current in the eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Brazil current.

Question 11.
The cold current off the south-eastern coast of Brazil.
Answer:
Falkland current.

Question 12.
The main catches of the fishermen in Brazil.
Answer:
Swordfish, shrimp, lobsters, sardines, etc.

Question 13.
Major food crops produced in India.
Answer:
Rice, wheat, maize, sorghum and millets.

Question 14.
Crops grown in plantation in India.
Answer:
Tea, coffee and rubber.

Question 15.
Major cash crops grown in India.
Answer:
Sugarcane, cotton and jute.

Question 16.
Main type of Indian agriculture.
Answer:
Subsistence.

Question 17.
Maj or fish varieties found in the western coastal region of India.
Answer:
Sardines, mackerel, bombay duck and prawns.

Question 18.
The important varieties of fish on the eastern coast of India.
Answer:
Horse mackerels, clupeids and silver bellied carp.

Question 19.
The major freshwater fish variety in India.
Answer:
Silver bellied carp (chopda).

Question 20.
Places where coal is mined in India.
Answer:
Korba in Chhattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra

Question 21.
Places where mineral oil wells are found in India.
Answer:
(i) Digboi in Assam
(ii) Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra
(iii) Kalol and Koyali in Gujarat.

Question 22.
The name of the river mouth, where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.
Answer:
River Godavari.

Question 23.
The state where stones like marble are found.
Answer:
Rajasthan.

Question 24.
The place/state where stones like Cuddapah are found.
Answer:
Cuddappah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 25.
The states in which fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in the coastal areas in India.
Answer:
Kerala, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Maharashtra.

Question 26.
States of India where metallic minerals are found.
Answer: Jharkhand, Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh, parts of Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 27.
The agro-based industries in India which are heavily concentrated in the raw material- producing areas.
Answer:
Cotton, jute and sugar.

Question 28.
The forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
Paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac.

Question 29.
Industries found in the coastal belt of Kerala in India.
Answer:
Coir, copra and fish canning.

Question 30.
Refineries in India situated close to the petroleum-producing areas.
Answer:
Koyali, Digboi, Noonmati and Bongaigaon.

Question 31.
Refineries in India located away from the coast and oil-producing areas.
Answer:
Mathura and Barauni.

Question 32.
Major salt-producing states in India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.

Question 33.
Brazil’s export items.
Answer:
Iron ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas.

Question 34.
Brazil’s import items.
Answer:
Machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants.

Question 35.
Major trading partners of Brazil.
Answer:
Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy and Argentina, Saudi Arabia.

Question 36.
India’s export items.
Answer:
Tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather & leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles etc.

Question 37.
India’s import items.
Answer:
Petroleum, machines, pearls and precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc.

Question 38.
India’s major trading partners.
Answer:
The USA, The UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Distinguish between:

Question 1.
The Indian companies’ investment in Brazil and Brazil’s investment in India.
Answer:

Indian investment in Brazil	Brazilian investment in India
(i) Indian companies have invested a lot of capital in Brazil. (ii) e.g. IT, pharmaceuticals, energy, agri-business, mining, engineering and auto sectors.	(i) Brazilian companies investment in India is smaller.(ii)  e.g. automobiles, IT, mining, energy, biofuels, footwear sectors in India.

Question 2.
Brazil-International Trade and India-International Trade
Answer:

Brazil-International Trade	India-International Trade
(i) Major exports of Brazil are iron-ore, coffee, cocoa, cotton, sugar, tobacco, oranges and bananas. (ii) Major imports of Brazil are machinery, chemical products, fertilizers, wheat, heavy vehicles, mineral oil and lubricants. (iii) Major trading partners of Brazil are Germany, the USA, Canada, Italy, Argentina, India and Saudi Arabia.	(i) Major exports of India are tea, coffee, mangoes, spices, leather and leather goods, iron ore, cotton and silk textiles. (ii) Major imports of India are petroleum, machines, pearls, precious stones, gold and silver, paper, medicines, etc. (iii) Major trading partners of India are the USA, the UK, Germany, Japan, China, Russia, etc.

Question 3.
US Economy and India-Brazil Economies.
Answer:

US Economy	India-Brazil Economy
(i) The US economy is a developed economy. (ii) National income and per capita income of US is far ahead of Brazil and India. (iii) The US has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.	(i) India and Brazil are developing economies. (ii) National income and per capita income of India and Brazil is low. (iii)India and Brazil have just about started progressing in the fields of technology, education and industry.

Mark the following on the outline map:

Question 1.
On the given Political map of Brazil, show the following details (Draw index).

1. Major coffee producing areas of Brazil.
2. The cold and warm ocean current near the Brazilian coast.
3. Important fishing areas in the Northern coast.
4. Important fishing areas in the Eastern coast.

Answer:

Question 2.
Indicate the following on a map of India.

1. The plateau region rich in minerals.
2. Region where coal is mined.
3. State where marble is found.
4. Cudappah stones are found in this state.
5. The state whose coastal belt has a concentration of coir, copra and fish canning industries.
6. Major salt producing state.

Answer:

Question 3.
Locate the following regions on the map of India.

1. Mineral oil wells.
2. Oil refineries close to petroleum producing areas.
3. Oil refineries in the interiors.
4. The mouth of the river where reserves of mineral oil and natural gas have been discovered.

Answer:

Give Geographical Reasons:

Question 1.
Unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.
Answer:

• Around 60% of land in India is under cultivation.
• Agriculture has been a long standing activity here with a large chunk of population engaged in it.
• The enormous expanse of level plains, rich soils, high percentage of cultivable land, wide climatic variety, long growing season, etc. provide a strong base for agriculture in India.
• So, unlike Brazil, India’s agriculture contributes more towards the GDP.

Question 2.
Fishing plays an important role in the economy of India.
Answer:

• India has a coastline of about 7500 km.
• India is one of the largest producer of fish, both marine and inland.
• Marine fishing accounts for about 40% of the total annual fish production and the remaining 60% is by freshwater fishing.
• Fisheries help in augmenting food supply, generating employment, raising nutritional level and earning foreign exchange.
• Fish forms an important part of the diet of many people living in all the coastal states.
• Thus, fishing plays a significant role in the economy of the country.

Question 3.
The distribution of industries in India is highly uneven.
Answer:
The distribution of industries is India in highly uneven due to the following reasons:

• Uneven distribution of the necessary raw materials and power resources.
• There is concentration of enterprises, financial resources and other necessary conditions in large towns.

Question 4.
The North Eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries.
Answer:
The north eastern part of the Indian Peninsula has a high concentration of heavy metallurgical industries because:

• Chattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal are rich in minerals.
• Large quantities of coal deposits, an important raw material in metallurgical industries is available.
• There are availability of refractory materials, cheap power from the Damodar Valley Corporation and a number of thermal power projects.
• There is availability of cheap labour in and around this region.

Question 5.
USA is a developed country.
Answer:
The United States is a developed country because:

• This country has less but a well-educated population.
• It has the strength of many patents, modern technology and mechanical strength.
• USA has a very high national income and per capita income.

Question 6.
Brazil is a good fishing ground.
Answer:
Brazil is a good fishing ground because :

• Brazil has a sea coast of around 7400 km and excellent fishing grounds off the South Atlantic coast.
• The meeting of the warm Brazil current and the cold Falkland current off the coast of South-East Brazil makes it a good fishing ground.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Mining in India:
Answer:
(i) The Chhota Nagpur plateau in India is a big storehouse of different minerals. Mining is the main occupation of the people.
(ii) Coal is mined in Korba in Chattisgarh and in Eastern Maharashtra.
(iii) Mineral oil wells are found in Digboi in
Assam, Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea near Maharashtra, Kalol, Koyali in Gujarat.
(iv) Stones like marble are found in Rajasthan and Cuddapah in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 2.
Industries in Brazil:
Answer:
(i) Major industries of Brazil are iron and steel, automobile assembling, petroleum processing, chemical production and cement making.
(ii) Technologically based industries have been the most dynamic in recent years.
(iii) Food-processing industries, cotton textiles, silk and woollen industries have developed well.
(iv) Most large industries are concentrated in the south and south-east of Brazil.

Question 3.
Agro-based and forest-based industries in India.
Answer:
(i) Agro-based industries: The agro-based industries including cotton, jute and sugar are heavily concentrated in the raw material producing areas.
(ii) Forest-based industries: The forest based industries including paper, plywood, matches, resins and lac are increasingly finding mostly found in the forest areas of various states.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 5 The State Government

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The winter session of Maharashtra Legislature takes place at ……………… .
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Pune
(d) Aurangabad
Answer:
(b) Nagpur

Question 2.
The ……………. appoints the Governor.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Question 3.
The right to summon the state legislature lies with the …………… .
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(b) Governor

2. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The Governor:
Answer:

1. The Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. He is appointed by the President and holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
5. As the head of the state, he enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers.
6. He has a right to summon the session of the state legislature.
7. In case the need arises, he can issue ordinance to make the law.

Question 2.
Functions of the Chief Minister:
Answer:
The functions of the Chief Minister, as an Executive head of the state, are as follows:

1. To form an able Council of Ministers giving maximum representation to various regions and social groups.
2. To distribute portfolios considering the political experience, administrative skills, public awareness, leadership, etc. of the ministers.
3. To develop proper cooperation and coordination between Departments, resolve their conflicts and make them work effectively.
4. To lead the state, frame proper policies and implement them effectively, intervene in issues of the state and solve them for the comfort of the people.

4. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of Vidhan Sabha. His functions are as follows:

1. To prepare the order of daily proceedings in the House.
2. To carry out the proceedings of the House in a disciplined manner.
3. To suspend the members for misbehaviour or misconduct.
4. To control and guide the proceedings of the House during sessions.

Question 2.
Why did the Constitution adopt a federal system for India?
Answer:

1. India is a country having large geographic expanse.
2. It has a multicultural population.
3. There is a great diversity in language, religion, ways of life and regional characteristics.
4. It would not have been possible to govern such a huge country from a centralised place. Hence, the Constitution adopted a federal system of India.

Question 3.
What are the considerations of the Chief Minister while allocation of portfolios?
OR
Formation of Council of Ministers is a challenging task for the Chief Minister.
Answer:
After the formation of the Council of Ministers, the Chief Minister has to distribute portfolios among the ministers. He has to consider following aspects:

1. Some portfolios are of prime importance while others are of secondary importance. He has to select appropriate people for each portfolio.
2. He has to consider the experience i and the efficiency of the ministers he has selected.
3. The political experience and administrative skills of the concerned ministers is also taken into consideration by him.
4. Other factors like the awareness of public issues, effective leadership, etc. are also considered by him.
5. If the government is in a coalition, he has to distribute portfolios appropriately among the constituent parties in the alliance.

Do you know?

1. At present, India has 29 Constituent States and 7 Union Territories.
2. All Constituent States have Legislative Assemblies.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories, only Delhi and Puducherry have Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha).
4. Jammu and Kashmir, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh have Bicameral Legislatures (both the Houses).

Project:

Visit official website of the Maharashtra Government and collect information of various ministers and the working of their respective departments.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 5 The State Government Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
The Indian Union has totally …………….. constituent states.
(a) 22
(b) 25
(c) 29
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 29

Question 2.
In India, only ……………… states have Bicameral legislatures.
(a) three
(b) five
(c) six
(d) seven
Answer:
(d) seven

Question 3.
Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum ………………. sessions in a year.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) three

Question 4.
Distinguished personalities from various fields are nominated by the ……………. to the Vidhan Parishad.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Governor
(d) Chairman
Answer:
(c) Governor

Question 5.
When the legislature is not in session and need arises to make law, the Governor can issue ……………….. .
(a) a Bill
(b) a Proposal
(c) an Ordinance
(d) an Order
Answer:
(c) an Ordinance

State whether the following statements are True or False. Correct the False statements and rewrite:

Question 1.
States in India have been formed on the basis of population.
Answer:
False. States in India have been formed on the basis of language.

Question 2.
In exceptional circumstances, elections to Vidhan Sabha can be held before the completion of 5 years.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Absence of cooperation and coordination between Departments can affect the working of the government.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The people look at the Governor as a ‘Problem Solver’.
Answer:
False. The people look at the Chief Minister as a ‘Problem Solver’.

Question 5.
Every constituent state has a Vidhan Parishad.
Answer:
False. Every constituent state has a Vidhan Sabha.

Find and write:

Question 1.
The State having a government machinery different than other states
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir

Question 2.
The Vidhan Bhavan of Maharashtrais located in:
Answer:
Mumbai

Question 3.
The member of Vidhan Sabha are called:
Answer:
MLA

Question 4.
Major challenges faced by Maharashtra:
Answer:
Terrorism and Naxalite movements

Question 5.
The place where the winter session of Maharashtra’s legislature is conducted:
Answer:
Nagpur.

Complete the following concept maps:

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Explain the following concepts:

Question 1.
Session:
Answer:

1. A session is a meeting where members of both the Houses meet.
2. Maharashtra’s legislature conducts minimum three sessions in a year.
3. The budget session and monsoon session of Maharashtra is held in Mumbai while the winter session is held at Nagpur.
4. The Governor has the right to summon and conclude the session.
5. During the session, new laws are passed, existing laws are amended and out-dated laws are repealed.
6. The sessions are conducted under the leadership and guidance of the Speaker and the Chairman.

Question 2.
Council of Ministers:
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers consists of the Chief Minister and other ministers.
2. The leader of the majority party in Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor.
3. The Governor also appoints the other ministers chosen by the Chief Minister to form Council of Ministers.
4. Framing appropriate laws, working for the welfare of the people, governing the state efficiently are some of the functions of the Council of Ministers.
5. The Chief Minister along with his Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly.

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Powers of the Governor:
Answer:
The Governor enjoys certain important Legislative and Executive powers as the head of the state.

1. The Bills passed by Vidhan Sabha and Vidhan Parishad are converted into laws only after receiving his assent.
2. He has the right to summon the session of the state legislature and to conclude it.
3. He can issue an ordinance to make law, on important subject if required, when the Legislature is not in session.
4. He appoints the Chief Minister and the other Council of Ministers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The Governor is the titular/nominal head of the state.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has granted Executive powers to the Governor as the head of the state.
2. The government of the state is run in the name of the Governor.
3. But in reality, the administration is carried out by the Chief Minister. Hence, the Governor is the titular/ nominal head of the state.

Question 2.
Vidhan Parishad (Legislative Council) is a permanent House.
Answer:

1. All members of the Vidhan Parishad (MLCs) do not retire at the same time.
2. A specific number (1/3rd) of the members retire every 2 years.
3. These vacant seats are filled again by conducting fresh elections for those seats.
4. The tenure of each member is 6 years.
5. Since the Vidhan Parishad is never fully dissolved, it is a permanent House.

Question 3.
India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:

1. According to the Constitution, every constituent state must have a Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly).
2. India has 29 constituent states and each state has its Vidhan Sabha.
3. Out of the 7 Union Territories in India, Delhi and Puducherry have Vidhan Sabha. Hence, India has 29 constituent states, but 31 Vidhan Sabha.

Question 4.
The Chief Minister’s post is most important in the state.
Answer:

1. The Chief Minister can select his Council of Ministers according to his choice.
2. He can ask any of his ministers to resign.
3. Framing policies of public welfare and developing the state in a progressive manner entirely depends upon the Chief Minister.
4. The Chief Minister leads the state and people look at him as a problem solver.
5. His intervention in solving the problems of the state comforts the people.

Hence, all these executive powers makes the Chief Minister’s post most important in the State.

Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
Mention the eligibility conditions for contesting Vidhan Sabha elections.
Answer:
Following are the eligibility conditions for candidates contesting for Vidhan Sabha elections:

1. He/She should be a citizen of India.
2. He/She should have completed 25 years of age.
3. He/She should be a resident of Maharashtra.

Question 2.
Do you consider Maharashtra to be progressive state?
Answer:

1. Industrial development has taken place in Maharashtra on a large scale. It has many industries based on modern technology.
2. Maharashtra’s literacy rate is higher than many other states.
3. It has a rich tradition of saints and social reformers who have nurtured progressive thinking among people.
4. Maharashtra is leading in many fields like education, health, agriculture, sports, tourism, etc.
5. Maharashtra has been a land of Movements. Many important movements like the Labour movement, Farmer’s movement have been initiated here.
6. Similarly, many progressive laws have been passed in Maharashtra.
7. Maharashtra is facing many challenges like terrorism, poverty, crime, Naxalite movements, etc. Even then, I feel that Maharashtra is a progressive state.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
Laws are made by …………………. .
(a) Legislature
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Judiciary
(d) Executive
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 2.
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court is appointed by the …………………… .
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Law Minister
Answer:
(b) President

2. Explain the concepts:

Question 1.
Judicial Review:
Answer:

1. The Constitution is the fundamental law of the nation and to protect it is the prime responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. The Parliament cannot pass any law that violates the Constitution.
3. Every act or policy made by the Executive should be consistent with the Constitution.
4. If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act is declared illegal.
5. So, it is struck down by the Supreme Court.
6. This power of the Supreme Court is known as Judicial Review.

Question 2.
Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
Answer:

1. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers to litigations filed on issues of public importance and issues related to the welfare of the people.
2. It can be filed by individual citizens, social organisation or Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs) on behalf of all the people.
3. Issues related to rehabilitation of people who have lost their homes/lands, protection of environment, protection of the weaker sections of society, etc. have been effectively handled through PIL.
4. PILs are effective tool which require minimum expenditure and get immediate justice.

3. Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Civil Law:
Answer:

1. It is one of the two main branches of law.
2. It deals with conflicts which affect or interfere with the rights of an individual.
3. Conflicts regarding land and property, rent agreement, divorce, etc. are included under Civil law.
4. After filing a petition in the relevant court, the court gives a decision.

Question 2.
Criminal Law:
Answer:

1. Serious crimes are dealt under Criminal law.
2. Crimes like theft, robbery, dowry, murder, etc. are included under Criminal law.
3. In these cases, the first step is to file a ‘First Information Report’ (FIR) with the police, who investigate the matter and file a petition in the court.
4. If the charges are proved, there are provisions for severe punishment.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Why are laws necessary in society?
Answer:

1. Differences in opinions, thoughts, perspectives, different cultures of people give rise to conflicts. These conflicts can be resolved impartially by the Judiciary.
2. Social justice and equality in society can be established with the help of law.
3. It also helps to bring weaker sections of the society, women, children differently-abled and transgenders into the mainstream of the society.
4. Law helps the common man to get the benefits of values of freedom, equality and democracy.
5. Law helps to protect the rights of the people.
6. It prevents emergence of repressive and authoritarian groups and individuals.
   Hence, laws are necessary in society.

Question 2.
Enumerate the functions of the Supreme Court.
Answer:
The functions of the Supreme Court are as follows:

1. As a federal court, it has the responsibility to settle disputes between the centre and the states; and states on one side and states on the other.
2. It gives orders to relevant authorities to protect the fundamental rights of the people.
3. It has the power to review decrees and orders of the lower courts and also review its own decisions.
4. It provides necessary advice to the President if he/she asks for advice to understand the legal aspects in matters of public importance.

Question 3.
Which are the provisions that preserve the independence of the judiciary?
Answer:
The Constitution has made following provisions to preserve the independence of the judiciary:

1. To avoid any political pressure, judges are appointed by the President.
2. Judges enjoy the security of tenure. They cannot be removed from the post for trivial reasons or for political motives.
3. The salaries of the judges are drawn from the Consolidated Fund of India. No discussion regarding this takes place in the Parliament.
4. Personal criticism cannot be made on judges for their acts and decisions. It is considered as contempt of court and is a punishable offence.
5. The Parliament cannot discuss the decisions of the judges.

5. Complete the table:

Question 1.

Answer:

See this example:

1. The court had asked the candidates contesting in elections to declare their property and income details and educational qualifications through or affidavit.
2. The idea behind this was to ensure that the voters will vote on the basis of accurate information about the candidates.
3. This is an attempt to make our election process more transparent.
4. It is mandatory for the contesting candidates to declare whether there are any charges filed against them,
and the nature of the charges whether civil or criminal also has to be declared.

Do it:

High Courts having jurisdiction over more than one state:

1. Mumbai High Court: Maharashtra, Goa and Union Territories of Diu Daman and Dadra-Nagar Haveli.
2. Guwahati High Court: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland.
3. Kerala High Court: Kerala and Union Territory of Lakshadweep islands.
4. Kolkata High Court: West Bengal and Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands.
5. Chandigarh High Court: Punjab and Haryana.

Project:

Question 1.
Organise a Moot Court’ in your school, prepare and ask questions related to Public Interest Litigations in this Moot Court.

Question 2.
Visit the nearest police station and understand the procedure of filing a First Information Report (FIR) with the help of your teacher.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 4 The Indian Judicial System Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and complete the statements:

Question 1.
When the common man benefits from the values of freedom, equality and justice, it leads to the widening and deepening of ……………… .
(a) values
(b) democracy
(c) Judiciary
(d) Law
Answer:
(b) democracy

Question 2.
…………. helps to protect the rights of people.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Judiciary
(d) Social Organisation
Answer:
(c) Judiciary

Question 3.
The …………. is the fundamental law of the nation.
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) Constitution
(d) President’s order
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 4.
If any law passed by the Legislature or any act of the Executive violates any provision of the Constitution, the said law or act can be declared illegal by the ………….
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(d) Supreme Court

Question 5.
The …………. has the power to establish a High Court in every state of India.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 6.
Currently, there are ……………. High Courts in India.
(a) 20
(b) 29
(c) 24
(d) 22
Answer:
(c) 24

Find and write:

Question 1.
Nature of Judiciary in India:
Answer:
Integrated System

Question 2.
In the criminal cases, the first step is to file:
Answer:
First Information Report (FIR)

Question 3.
The District judges are appointed by
Answer:
The Governor

Question 4.
The High Court judges are appointed by:
Answer:
The President.

Complete the following concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Judicial Activism:
Answer:

1. The courts settle the disputes whenever they are approached for that purpose.
2. But, in the recent times, this image of the courts has undergone a change.
3. They have become increasingly active.
4. The courts are now trying to fulfill the constitutional goals of justice and equality.
5. The courts have tried to provide legal protection to the marginalised sections of society, women, tribal, workers, farmers and children.
6. Public Interest Litigations related to issues like victimisation of women, malnourishment among children, etc. have played an important role in boosting Judicial Activism

Question 2.
High Court:
Answer:

1. The Indian Constitution confers the Parliament with the power to establish a High Court in each constituent state in the Union.
2. Normally, each state has a High Court. But, in certain cases where the population and area of the states is less, one High Court has jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. For example, the Bombay High Court’s jurisdiction covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa, and the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
4. Currently, there are 24 High Courts in India.

Question 3.
Supreme Court of India:
Answer:

1. Judiciary in India is an integrated system where Supreme Court is at the apex position.
2. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
3. By convention, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court is appointed as the Chief Justice.
4. The President appoints the Chief Justice of India and other judges of the Supreme Court.
5. The Supreme Court of India is located at New Delhi.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
Judiciary in India is an integrated system.
Answer:

1. India is a Union of States. The Centre and the Constituent States have a separate Legislature and Executive.
2. But there is one judicial system for the whole of India.
3. The Supreme Court is the apex court under which there are High Courts.
4. The High Courts control the district courts and below them are the lower courts. Hence, this structure makes Judiciary in India an integrated system.

Question 2.
The Constitution has made provision for independence of Judiciary.
Answer:
1. The Constitution wants Judiciary to work freely, without any kind of pressure.
2. The independence of the judiciary is maintained so as to enable the judges to fearlessly carry out the function of giving justice.
For this purpose, the Constitution has made provisions for independence of Judiciary.

Question 3.
The Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.
Answer:

1. The Indian judiciary has always given importance to social values while protecting the Constitution.
2. It has exposed wrong practices like superstitions, discrimination, injustice to weaker sections, etc. and forced the legislature to pass laws against them.
3. It has protected individual freedom, the federal system and the Constitution of India.
4. Common people have a lot of respect and trust in the judicial system.

Thus, the Indian judiciary has made a significant contribution in the development of the country.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
What are the eligibility criteria for appointment of Supreme Court judges?
Answer:
The eligibility criteria laid down by the Constitution for appointment of Supreme Court judges are as follows:

1. He/She must be a citizen of India.
2. He/She must be a legal expert.
3. He/She must have served as a High Court judge or as an experienced advocate in the High Court.

Question 2.
Mention the functions of the High Court.
Answer:
The functions of the High Court are as follows:

1. To supervise over the District and other lower courts in its jurisdiction.
2. To maintain control over the functioning of the lower courts.
3. To give orders to protect the fundamental rights of the citizens.
4. To give advice to the governor while appointing judges in the district courts.

Question 3.
Should the Supreme Court have the power of Judicial Review?
Answer:
The Supreme Court must have the power of Judicial Review for following reasons:

1. Protecting the Constitution is the most important responsibility of the Supreme Court.
2. Many a times, laws violating the Constitution are passed under public pressure or for gaining popularity.
3. The Executive may pass laws or frame policies violating the Constitution.
4. Laws violating the fundamental rights of the citizens may be passed which may prove to be harmful for democracy.
5. The power of Judicial Review helps in curbing all anti-constitutional practices and protects and strengthens democracy.
6. It also helps in keeping the Executive under control.

Question 4.
Why does the President seek the advice of the Supreme Court on any issue of public importance? Can you tell?
Answer:

1. Decisions taken on issues of public importance have long-lasting effect on the lives of the people.
2. Such decisions should also be according to the Rule of Law which treats everyone equally.
3. Care has to be taken that such decisions should not violate the Constitution.
4. Since the President is not a legal expert, he has to seek advice of the Supreme Court on any issues of public importance.

Balbharti Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 3.1 Summary Writing Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 English Yuvakbharati Solutions Chapter 3.1 Summary Writing

12th English Digest Chapter 3.1 Summary Writing Textbook Questions and Answers

Discuss in pairs and guess the correct alternative for the following:

Question 1.
To summarize means …………… .
(a) Put information in chronological order.
(b) To recapitulate the main points in selection
(c) To introduce new information
(d) To write one’s opinion about selection
Answer:
(b) To recapitulate the main points in selection

Question 2.
The type of summary that consists of a paragraph to express the main idea is …………… .
(a) Outline
(b) Report
(c) Synopsis
(d) Written summary
Answer:
(d) Written summary

Question 3.
There are various ways of incorporating other writers’ works into your own writing. They differ according to the closeness of your writing to the source writing. Match the ways of writing in brief given in column (A) with their descriptions in column (B):

Answer:

1. Summarizing – (e) It includes main ideas into one’s own words.
2. Paraphrasing – (f) It must be identical to the original and match the document word by word.
3. Precis writing – (d) It includes taking broader segment of the source and condensing it slightly.
4. Quoting – (a) It includes not just the main idea but every detail expressed clearly and to the point.
5. Editing – (b) It includes selection of proper lines from the given text for correction, condensation and organization.
6. Gist writing – (c) It includes the most essential part or the crux of the matter.

(A1)

Question 1.
Complete the following as instructed:
Read the passage and write its summary according to the given steps:
Answer:
Use the following steps for summary writing:
Step 1: Read the article twice.
Step 2: The purpose of writing – To tell the reader about the interesting communication methods among birds and mammals.
Step 3: Identify the main idea – Surprising examples of communication methods among birds and mammals.
Steps 4 and 5: Write the first draft: Revise your first draft and edit it.
(Students may attempt this on their own.)
Step 5: Write the final draft (Given overleaf.)

(A2)

(ii) Avoid adverbs:
Delete the adverbs in italics and rewrite:

Question (a)
“That’s usually a good thing to do.”
Answer:
“That’s a good thing to do.”

Question (b)
“That’s fairly good coffee.”
Answer:
“That’s good coffee.”

Question (c)
“I totally agree.”
Answer:
“I agree.”

Question (d)
“Actually I disagree.”
Answer:
“I disagree.”

Question (iii)
One word substitution:
Find examples similar to those given in the textbook and make a list:
Answer:

1. friendly relationship in which people understand well : rapport (pronounced as ‘rappo’)
2. able to cause death: fatal
3. seize by way of penalty: confiscate
4. someone who goes into buildings in order to steal: burglar
5. the principal character in a play or a story: protagonist
6. the path described by an object moving in air: trajectory
7. a person regarded as a symbol: icon
8. a person who knows many languages: polyglot
9. a badly behaved child: brat
10. a period of ten years: decade
11. a persistent increase in the general level of prices: inflation
12. organisation of supplies and services for any, complex operation : logistics
13. extremely careful about details: meticulous
14. not harmful or offensive: innocuous
15. present, appearing or found everywhere: ubiquitous

(ii) Change the following sentences into simple:

Question (a)
Mr. Rohit is the member and he is also the director.
Answer:
Mr. Rohit is the member and also the director.

Question (b)
The room is so small that it cannot accommodate many people.
Answer:
The room is too small to accommodate many people.

Question (c)
You have to prove that you are innocent.
Answer:
You have to prove your innocence.

Question (d)
He was late so he walked in a great hurry.
Answer:
Being late, he walked in a great hurry.

(A4)

Question (i)
Read any book of your choice and write its summary according to the steps explained in the chapter.

Question (ii)
Find some professions that require the skill of summary writing and editing. Write them
in your notebook.

Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 3.1 Summary Writing Additional Important Questions and Answers

Question (i)
Cut redundant words:
Write five examples of redundant words:
Answer:

1. puzzling mystery = ‘mystery’
2. connect together = ‘connect’
3. divide into two equal halves = ‘divide into halves
4. surrounded on all sides = ‘surrounded’
5. return back = ‘return’

Balbharti Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.8 Small Towns and Rivers Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 English Yuvakbharati Solutions Chapter 2.8 Small Towns and Rivers

12th English Digest Chapter 2.8 Small Towns and Rivers Textbook Questions and Answers

Question (i)
Most of the civilizations have flourished on the banks of the rivers. Discuss the reasons in the class.
Points:
(a) Availability of water
(b) Fertile soil for agriculture
(c) Fishing ground
(d) Transport

Question (ii)
Write down the names of the famous cities that are situated on the banks of the rivers given below.
Answer:

River	City
Ganga	Varanasi
Yamuna	Mathura
Godavari	Rajahmundry
Varada	Sagara
Krishna	Vijayawada
Tapi	Surat

Question (iii)
Write down the names of the rivers on the banks of which following cities have prospered:
Answer:

City	River
London	Thames
Cairo	Nile
New York	Hudson
Paris	Siene

Question (iv)
Divide your class into groups and discuss the changes that might have taken place when the cities grow on the banks of the rivers.
Points: Dwellings are built – Population grows – Fishing flourishes – Outsiders come to settle – Trading takes place – Prosperity increases – Increased population, trade, traffic and fishing begin to harm the river system – River system shows damage – River starts to decay

Question (v)
Share your views in the class on the topic ‘Conservation of Rivers and Development of the Cities.’
(Students may list their own points of views.)

(A1)

Question 1.
State the importance of Nature in the lives of the people from the North-eastern part of India as expressed in the poem with reference to:
(a) Flowers
(b) River
(c) Bamboo
(d) East
Answer:
(a) Flowers – Tuberoses are woven into wreaths to be placed on the body of a departed as a mark of love and respect.
Sole: Most of the textual ‘Wh’ questions are converted to Activity Format.
(b) River: The people believe the river has a soul. They respect their rivers and even revere it as divine as its waters are immortal.
(c) Bamboo: The poet says ‘in the cool bamboo’. The colour is a cool green. The place where the bamboo grows is also cool.
(d) East: The direction of sunrise is very important for the people of Arunachal Pradesh. They ensure the dead are placed pointing west so that their soul directly enters the golden house of the sun. They believe that finally souls must attain the sun’s abode in the east.

(A2)

Question (i)
The poet has described her small town in Arunachal Pradesh. Pick out from the extract, the lines that describe the poet’s town.
Answer:
1. ‘My hometown lies calmly amidst the trees’,
2. ‘it is always the same In summer and winter With the dust flying Or the wind howling down the gorge’

Question (ii)
Make a list of natural elements mentioned in the extract.
Answer:
trees, winter, summer, wind, tuberoses, life, land, river, fish, stars

Question (iii)
‘The river has a soul.’ Elaborate the concept in your words as the poet has explained in the extract.
Answer:
When the poet says ‘The river has a soul’ she personifies the river. The river flows with great force – ‘like a torrent of grief. The river flowing with great force can be like a person pouring out grief in a storm of emotion. The river also seems to be holding its breath, maybe because it is choking with filth. There are no fishes. It is not clear and sparkling. So the poet says -‘I think it holds its breath seeking a land of fish and stars’.

Question (iv)
The poet is convinced with the thought of immortality of water. Pick out the relevant lines from the extract.
Answer:
‘The river has a soul’.

(v) The poet has used some unconventional expressions. Illustrate them in your words.

Question (a)
‘Torrent of grief.
Answer:
The poet describes the river flowing in summer with great speed. Just like someone becomes emotional in great sadness, the force of the water seems to be like the outpouring of sorrow of the river.

Question (vi)
The poet has connected the need to preserve Nature with the belief of particular community and her childhood memories. Write down the measures you would take to convince the people regarding the need to conserve the Nature.
Answer:
We have to make people at large realize that we are a part of the nature not apart from the nature. Saving nature is to save ourselves, To bring about this realization I can address my steps to two sections. The first would be the children. Saving water would be the first thing to teach children. Story-telling, poems, songs, games, cartoons and can easily bring the conservation ideas to young minds. I would take my ideas to schools, parks, malls and try to spread this to the young ones.

The other section is of course the adult public across economic and social levels. The well- off people must not be careless if they can afford to pay bills they can waste resources.

I will do everything possible. I will use social media to spread various messages/ mottos.

(A3)

Question (i)
Write down the expressions related to ‘the seasons’ from the extract.
Answer:
1. Summer or winter
2. ‘in the summer’

Question (ii)
Match column ‘A’ with column ‘B’.

A	B
1. cool 2. happy 3. dreadful 4. dry	(a) silence (b) earth (c) bamboo (d) pictures

Answer:

1. cool-bamboo
2. happy – pictures
3. dreadful – silence
4. dry-earth

(A4)

Question (i)
Read the expression ‘a sad wreath of tuberoses’.
‘Is the wreath sad?’ Explain the figure of speech.
Answer:
The figure of speech is transferred epithet. The sad mourners have placed the wreath of tuberoses on the dead. The emotion of sadness has been transferred to the flowers for effect.

Question (ii)
List and explain the metaphorical expressions from the extract.
Answer:
1. ‘torrent of grief’. The river sweeps along with great speed as if it is pouring out sorrow.
2. ‘Wind howling down the gorge’. The wind blowing through the narrow gorges creates a sound exactly like howling.
3. ‘The river has a soul’. The river is spoken of as a living being, a human.
4. ‘It holds its breath’. The river may be choking with debris and filth.

Question (iii)
‘The river has a soul.’
‘Life and death.’
These are the two expressions that are repeated in the poem; but both of them indicate different figures of speech. Find out and discuss.
Answer:
(a) ‘Life and death’
In the first usage it is used as antithesis, to emphasise the beginning and end.
In the second instance it is irony to indicate that neither life nor death is permanent. Ironically the rituals are permanent.
(b) ‘The river has a soul’
In the first instance it is used to personify the river. Several human-like qualities are attributed to the river,
= it cuts through the land
= it is cascading in grief
= it holds its breath
= it seeks a land

Question (iv)
Find out the beauty of the free verse reflected in this poem.
Answer:
“Small Towns and Rivers’ is written in free- verse. Since there are irregular lengths of lines and no rhyme, the reading of the poem is almost like a story-telling. Each stanza has a different number of lines and there is no order for mixing up the short and long lines.

The poem is not confined by an obvious rhythm so we feel there is a kind of freedom.We are free to imagine the widespread setting of the North-eastern terrain of mountains and rivers, mists, golden sunlight and the town by the river.

(A5)

Question (i)
Prepare the arguments for group discussion on the topic
‘A balanced progress never harms the Nature’.
For:

• Growth should be planned to take place in stages
• Planning vital for the growth
• Sustainability must be ensured
• Pros and cons of the damage to environment must be weighed
• Short-term gains in progress must not harm long-term eco-factors

Against:

• Growth must not be halted for issues of environment
• Costs will go up due to delays
• Delays in progress will slow down economy and employment
• Slowdown in economy will cause public to protest
• Sacrifices have to be made – one can’t have the cake and eat it too.

Question (ii)
Compose 4 to 6 lines on ‘Gift of the Seasons’.
Answer:
Gift of the Seasons
Each season brings a sweetly wrapt gift;
We can gift her back : no water pollution in
the season of the Sun.
No air pollution when
The rains come down.
And no degradation the rest of the year!

Question (iii)
Write an appreciation of the poem ‘Small Towns and Rivers’. Use the points given below:

• About the poem/poet/title
• Theme
• Poetic devices, language, style
• Special features – tone and type
• Values, message
• Your opinion about the poem

Answer:
The poem ‘Small Towns and Rivers’ written by Mamang Dai is a beautiful word-picture. It is also a lament of the poet about her beautiful native land of Arunachal Pradesh.

This theme shows in the way she begins the poem that small towns remind her of death. It is shocking. She implies the town is unchanging in all weathers, but development comes along and changes everything. There is irony in that the cycle of life and death shows that life is not permanent, but the rituals are permanent.

She uses metaphor that the rivers are not only alive like us humans, but actually immortal. She personifies the river by way the river ‘holds its breath’ because it is choking. It is flowing in search of a place where it will flow clean and clear. The poet uses metaphor of the water-cycle to illustrate the river has a soul and its waters are immortal.

The poet builds a climax with ‘shrine of happy’ childhood memories. This becomes growing up -‘grow with anxiety’. Then she speaks of how the dead are placed pointing west so the soul can ascend directly into the sun’s golden home in the east. This tells us about the traditions of her region.

The poem is in free verse and seems to be in easy language, but we can understand the full depth of meaning only after reading it more than once. The poem is a lament about the destruction of nature for development. We all will feel the sorrow of the poet when we read about how nature’s beauty is damaged for man’s greed called ‘progress’.

Question (iv)
Write a dialogue between two friends on ‘Importance of the rivers’
Answer:
Priya: Jai, it goes without saying that fresh, clean water is essential for humans and nature to survive. Rivers are precious sources of fresh drinking water for people across the world. And when rivers are so badly polluted by industry or by poor water management practices, it can be a case of life-or-death. This unfortunately happens across the world.

Jai: Yes Priya. Freshwater habitats account for some of the richest biodiversity in the world, and rivers are a vital, vibrant ecosystem for many species. Only those who live by the river know about this wealth of nature. Those who live far away and damaging the system with the poisons are not aware.

Priya: People depend on rivers for their way of life and their livelihoods. From fishing to agriculture, the way our waterways are managed has a direct impact on people’s lives. There are millions of people who follow their ancestors’ way of living and earning a livelihood. But modern technology has wrecked the very source of these.

Jai: Rivers are absolutely vital: for fresh drinking water, for people’s livelihoods and for nature. Unfortunately, they’re still threatened. We must commit to recovering freshwater biodiversity, restoring natural river flows and cleaning up polluted water for people and nature to thrive.
Priya: Yes Jai. I agree. It is the crying need of the day.

(A6)

Question (i)
Collect information about rivers in Maharashtra.

Question (ii)
Further reading:
‘The River Poems’ – Mamang Dai
‘The World Is Too Much With Us’ – William Wordsworth

Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.8 Small Towns and Rivers Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the extract and complete the activities given below:

Global Understanding:

Question 1.
Describe the river in the 3rd stanza.
Answer:
The river flows with great force -‘like a torrent’-. The river has life and soul. It breathes. But it seems as if the river is holding its breath. It seems to be in search of fishes which will live in it and stars which will be reflected in its waters.

Question 2.
What is meant by immortality?
Answer:
Immortality means the ability to live forever, without death.

Question 3.
Give reasons-The dead are placed pointing to the west.
Answer:
The people of Arunachal Pradesh believe that it will be possible for the soul of the departed person enter ‘the house of the sun’. They hope the soul will be able to ‘walk into the golden east’. So they place the dead (with feet) pointing to the west.

Question 4.
The poet has described her small town in Arunachal Pradesh. Pick out from the extract the lines that describe the poet’s town.
Answer:

1. The town has ‘A shrine of happy pictures’ to mark the days of childhood.
2. Small towns grow with anxiety for the future.
3. Like her town, ‘small towns’ are ‘by the river’.
4. Make a list of natural elements mentioned in the extract.

Question 5.
Make a list of natural elements mentioned in the extract.
Answer:
River, Earth, Mountaintops, Sun, Sunlight, Bamboo

Question 6.
The poet is convinced with the thought of immortality of water. Pick out the relevant lines from the extract.
Answer:
1. The river has a soul.
2. from the first drop of rain to dry earth
3. mist on the mountaintops
4. the immortality of water.

Interpretation/Inference/Analysis:

Question 1.
The land of fish and stars.
Answer:
The poet says she thinks the river is holding its breath. One has to hold one’s breath when he/she is unable to breathe or does not want to breathe. The river may be choking with garbage and is not able to breathe. The river may be stinking and may not be able to breathe.

As the river is so filthy there are no fish. It is dirty; the water is not sparkling in the day and cannot reflect the stars at night. So the river is in search of a land where there it can flow clean, it will have fish and where its clear water will sparkle in the sun and glitter with stars at night.

Question 2.
The river has a soul.’ Elaborate the concept in your words as the poet has explained in the extract.
Answer:
The poet states the river has a soul. The soul is deathless. The water that flows in the river came from the drops of rain. The water evaporated, rose as mist to the mountaintops. Then it formed clouds and poured down as rain to the dry earth and flowed again. Thus the river goes on, immortal, deathless.

Question 3.
The poet has used some unconventional expressions. Illustrate them in your words. Illustrate them in your words. Shrine of happy pictures
Answer:
There is a shrine probably in the town which has pictures inside. The pictures may be those of the happy moments experienced by the people in the town. Those memories are so sacred that it is a shrine to them. They protect and guard it because they have only sad and grim things happening at present.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
Rivers are our lifeline. They are an extremely important part of the eco-system and even considered sacred. Many major rivers and smaller ones have been misused and almost destroyed. Write down how we can restore our rivers to their original state.
Answer:
The condition of rivers worldwide is horrific. Everything from industrial chemical-waste to garbage is being thrown into rivers. Melted snow or the rainwater from springs come down from hills and mountains as sweet water for our survival. Polluting this is a crime against humanity.

Strict laws should be made and enforced to stop industrial activity near rivers. Wastes from industry, city, town or village must not reach the river. Only channels of rainwater must be allowed to reach the river. Awareness should be created for maintaining cleanliness along the banks.

In the olden days lakes, water bodies were considered precious and were guarded, Houses had wells. But people have lost the respect for water sources. Rivers are treated as sewage channels. Fines and punishments must be imposed and security put in for safeguarding our beautiful rivers.

Poetic Creativity:

Question 1.
Compose 4 to 6 lines on ‘River’.
Answer:
The River is our Mother

Like a mother the river soothes us.
When dying of thirst she revives us.
When tired and dirty she cleans us.
When growing our grain she waters the green.
Why! Oh why can’t we keep her clean!

Balbharti Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.7 She Walks in Beauty Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 English Yuvakbharati Solutions Chapter 2.7 She Walks in Beauty

12th English Digest Chapter 2.7 She Walks in Beauty Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
While judging any person you would consider certain aspects. Complete the diagram after carefully thinking what aspects you would consider:

Answer:

Question 2.
Make a list of proverbs and quotations related to ‘Beauty’.
Answer:
(a) Beauty is in the eye of the beholder.
(b) Beauty is only skin deep.
(c) Beauty is as beauty does.
(d) There is beauty in simplicity.
(e) Beauty is not in the face, it is a light in the heart.

Question 3.
Discuss your impressions about someone’s personality, and say what you like the most and why-
Answer:
The personality that captures the attention of all who meet her is Ms Murti.

1. Simplicity and warmth: She is a brilliant engineer, extremely wealthy yet is simple, and so cheerful and warm in her interaction with anyone she meets.
2. Humbleness: In spite her achievements, wealth and position she never mentions them, rather praises the efforts and achievements of others
3. Elegance: She is graceful and elegant and yet is never dressed expensively.
4. Motivational: She addresses young people and students in a way that is always encouraging and uplifting.
5. Generous: She is generous in giving those who are disadvantaged. She donates for the emancipation of women for making them economically independent.

(A1)

Question (i)
‘Beauty lies in the eyes of the beholder’ – you have probably heard this saying. Discuss in your class how far the statement is true.
Points:

• Outward appearance gives only an idea
• There may sometimes be an exception to the rule ‘first impression is the best
• The external look may be completely different if one looks deeper
• Henry Ford [founder of Ford Automobiles] dressed in the same old suit and said, ‘people who know me know who I am. People who don’t know me don’t matter, A very wealthy person may choose to appear very ordinary.

Question (ii)
Discuss with your partner about the most inspirational person you have come across. Also explain the reasons behind your opinion.
Points:

• Attended a lecture by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, before he became President
• His views stayed in my mind
• He stressed on dreaming for high aims
• He stressed on the importance of hard work
• He came from very humble background
• He worked his way to achieve great things
• I also want to achieve something and I have a lot of support which Dr. Abdul Kalam may not have had.

(A2)

Question (i)
Match column A with column B:

Answer:

1. The lady’s beauty – a cloudless starry night
2. Her hair – wavy and black
3. Her eyes – a perfect blend of light and darkness
4. Her smile – soft, calm and eloquent
5. Her mind – at peace with all below a heart
6. Her face – expresses thoughts serenely and sweetly

Question (ii)
Complete the reasons:
The lady in the poem has a winning smile and a glowing skin. According to the poet she is blessed with these things. Explain why.
Answer:
The lady in the poem has a winning smile and a glowing skin. According to the poet she is blessed with these things because in the last stanza the poet says that lovely cheek, the calm brow, the delicate colouring, the glowing skin all are a result of her life spent without sin. She has a peaceful mind and an innocent heart. These come together to make her face glow with an inner beauty.

Question (iii)
The poet brings a perfect balance of outer beauty and inner beauty. Write a few lines from the poem on how the poet brings this balance in his description.
Answer:
One of the themes in the poem is harmony or balance. The poet does not directly call her beautiful, but she ‘walks in beauty’. The overall beauty is compared to a combination of cloudless (clear) climate and starry skies. He says the best of dark and light meet in her eyes and features, to be seen in the soft, dim light. The effect would not be so wonderful if it was even one shade darker or brighter. That balance of the light is important.

The poet says that her calm brow, sweet smile, the lovely colour of her skin, is the result of a peaceful mind, a loving heart and a pure life. Inner beauty is reflected in this ‘nameless grace’ – indescribable beauty.

Question (iv)
‘Beauty is skin deep.’ Do you agree with the statement? Or do you feel that beauty comes from within? Explain your views in a few sentences.
Answer:
I agree with the statement. Beauty is not about perfect features, clear skin, shining hair or smart clothes. Beauty is about the person’s heart. The helpful nature, a mind without guilt, a cheerful attitude, kind way of speaking will all be reflected in the person’s outward appearance.

The eyes are windows to a person’s soul, they say. If a person has wicked thoughts and bad intentions it shows in the eyes. The expression on the face will reflect the nasty mind. Harsh words will show their unkind nature. So beautiful features and perfect skin are not real indicators of beauty.

(A3)

Question (i)
Find out from the poem the words which are used to describe the lady.
Answer:

1. Raven tresses
2. Serene and sweet expression
3. Pure thoughts
4. Dearheart
5. Calm brow
6. Smiling face
7. Gowing skin
8. Innocent heart
9. Peaceful mind

Question (ii)
Find out the instances of contractions from the poem.
Answer:
The contractions in the poem are – ‘that’s’ – that is ‘o’er’ – over

(A4)

Question (i)
The poet creates imagery of light and darkness to bring out the beauty of the lady. Find out the lines with such imageries and complete the table:
Answer:

Lines with imagery	Reason for using
1. And all that’s best of dark and bright	To express the beauty of the eyes
2. Thus mellowed to that tender light – heaven to gaudy day denies	To convey the dim soft light of evening not the harsh brightness of the day
3. One shade the more, one ray the less	To stress the perfect balance between darkness of night and the glare of day

Question (ii)
Find out from the poem examples of:
(a) Simile
(b) Metaphor
(c) Alliteration
(d) Personification
(e) Antithesis.
Answer:

Figure of speech	Example	(Explanation)
1. Simile	like the night of cloudless climes and starry skies	(Her beauty Is directly compared to the cloudless starry skies.)
2. Metaphor	in every raven tress	(Her hair-tress – is shiny and jet black like a raven’s colour.)
3. Alliteration	Cloudless climes and starry skies	(The ‘c’ sound and ‘s’ occur in adjacent words for poetic effect.)
4. Personification	eloquent, The smiles that win	(The beautiful woman does the act of smiling, which wins hearts.)
5. Antithesis	1. best of dark and bright 2. One shade the more, one ray the less	(Words of opposite meanings are used for poetic effect.)

(A5)

Question (i)
Write an appreciation of the poem considering the following points :

• About the poem / poet / title
• Theme
• Poetic devices, language, style
• Special features – tone and type
• Values, message
• Your opinion about the poem

Answer:
Lord Byron’s poem opens with the same words that form the title: “She walks in beauty.” These four simple words quickly create an atmosphere of admiration and mystery. It is a short eighteen line poem having three sestets (six lines) in praise of an unnamed woman. The poet uses several poetic devices to express how deeply he is impressed.

There are several themes. One is of course beauty. Each feature of the woman – her eyes, her black (raven) tresses, her soft cheek, her calm brow and the lovely colour of skin is praised. The poet speaks of harmony. He speaks of the perfect blend of day and night, of light and dark. He speaks of the ‘mellowed’ or tender light which makes the beauty so rare, delicate and astonishing.

The other theme is the inner beauty which is what brings the outer beauty. He mentions ‘heaven’ [line 6] which may point to a divine side to the beauty. If a person is sinless their mind is pure and calm. There is no evil so the innocence inside causes the outer beauty which is indescribable – ‘nameless grace [line 8]

The poet uses simile [line 1] ‘like the night..’, alliteration – ‘cloudless climes’, ‘starry skies’. There is rhyme ababab in all the sestets. He uses metaphor -raven tress [line 9], and personification – ‘smiles that win’ [line 15]. There are many examples of antithesis through which the poet stresses on balance.

There is harmony of light – ‘dark and bright’, ‘tender light -gaudy day’, ‘one shade more, one ray less’. These are to emphasize that the beauty is not only physical and external, but actually because there is inner beauty. The mind is calm, the heart is innocent and this causes the outer beauty which is seen by him.

The poem is lyrical, has a steady rhythm and the language is rich with poetic devices. Though the poet does not name the woman, or give any details of her age, his admiration is felt in the tone. The message is about the importance of inner beauty, which is almost a divine thing that will make external beauty possible.

I feel the poem makes us realize that one should look deeper than just outward appearance. One should appreciate beauty in its entirety.

Question (ii)
Compose a poem of at least 4-6 lines on ‘Beauty of Nature’.
Answer:
Beauty of Nature

I look up at the majestic peaks I peer into the sapphire deeps I gaze at the endless shades of green My eyes drink the silver threads between.
In this life God I’m quite sure we can see Why? He’s everywhere in Nature’s beauty!

Question (iii)
Write at least one paragraph and expand the inherent idea of the saying ‘A Thing of Beauty is a Joy Forever’.
Answer:
A Thing of Beauty is a Joy Forever

We all love beauty. We are instantly attracted toward anything beautiful. Even children are drawn toward something pretty. We admire its qualities like lovely colour or soft texture. We admire something beautiful created by someone, like a painting or sculpture. We exclaim on the realistic appearance and the artist’s skill. We appreciate beauty in nature. Gorgeous flowers, majestic mountains, the green of hills and the charming waterfalls. We enjoy the sweetness of fruits.

To create something beautiful requires patience, effort and care. When all these come together the result is beautiful. We appreciate it whether it is in nature or is man-made. Our ears keenly listen to birds calling in the morning, melodious music, the rush of waves and the splashing of rain. Thus all our senses are attracted and we feel good when we see, hear or taste something. It brings us happiness.

Thus a thing of beauty is a joy forever.

(A6)

Question (i)
Browse the internet and find out different types of poems on ‘Beauty’.

Question (ii)
Byron’s name is often taken along with his two contemporaries – Shelley and Keats. Go to your school/college library and read some poems written by P. B. Shelley and John Keats to get a better idea about the Romantic Poets.

Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.7 She Walks in Beauty Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the poem and complete the given activities:

Global Understanding:

Question 1.
Complete the following:
The colour of the lady’s hair is
Answer:
The colour of the lady’s hair is shiny black (like a raven’s).

Interpretation/Inference/Analysis:

Question 1.
Complete the following:
Answer:
The phrase ‘dwelling – place’ refers to her mind. The poet says that her face sweetly expresses her thoughts and says that the dwelling place of those thoughts (expressed by the face) is very dear. The dwelling place of thoughts is the mind.