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Balbharti Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.6 Money Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 English Yuvakbharati Solutions Chapter 2.6 Money

12th English Digest Chapter 2.6 Money Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss in the class about ‘Importance of money.’
Points :
(a) Money is used as capital in business.
(b) It is used by traders to Jill up stocks
(c) It is used by the common man for buying essentials/necessities.
(d) Everyone uses money for paying transport fare/ food-bill/wages and so on.

Question 2.
Complete the web:

Answer:

Question 3.
Make a list of the good qualities of your friend.
Answer:
(a) Calm and good tempered at all times
(b) Helpful and concerned about anyone in trouble
(c) Quick to intervene/calm down any situation that could become unpleasant
(d) Very simple and down to earth in spite of coming from an extremely wealthy background

Question 4.
Share your views on ‘Money is the root of all evils’.
Answer:
Points:

1. Money is a resource.
2. Resources should be available/ used in times of need
3. Money is accumulated by few people/others in need are deprived/some people are not paid fully/workers are paid less for their time and energy
4. Employer gets profit/ imbalance of resources
5. Imbalance in wealth causes discontent among disadvantaged sections of society.
6. Crime increases
7. Haves are targeted by have-nots
8. Normal life becomes unstable
9. Accumulation of money causes this upset in society
10. So important resource becomes reason for evil

Question 5.
Do you lend money to your friend? Give reasons:
Answer:

Yes	No
1. He/She comes from an economically disadvantaged background	1. I know that he/she gets enough money to spend
2. He/She is a very bright student, hopes to study well and find employment	2. He/She wastes time at movies and malls
3. He/She will fall sick if she does not have good nourishment	3. He/She has no intention of returning borrowed money
4. His/Her mother is the only bread winner. His/Her father very sick	4. He/She comes to college only to meet friends and socialize

(A1)

Question (i)
‘Money does not mean everything in life’. Justify the statement by giving examples. Take help of the following points:
(a) Money cannot give you eternal happiness.
(b) Art, music and literature can give you unending happiness.
(c) Money is short-lived.
(d) Money cannot purchase happiness and contentment.
Answer:
Happiness is in the mind. If a person is satisfied with what is on hand then he is happy. Rich clothes, gold, expensive food, servants may all be available. But the owner of these may still be sad and lonely.

Some are happy to make music another may create art or write. They may not have material possessions. But in their hearts they are happy to do what they love.

Money is only a medium to purchase our needs. One cannot give money and buy a bag of joy. Joy is in the heart. Money can be stolen. But joy cannot be stolen. One can earn money but not happiness. No amount of money will satisfy greed or buy happiness.

Question (ii)
Debate on the following topic in groups : Money is the solution for everything For: We need money for – Food-Clothes-Medicines- Education- Travel
Against: One cannot eat money itself/one must have food. We should not buy more than essential clothes/ no need to buy often-Good hygiene and food-habits will ensure health-Government schools are available- Travel is not needed for survival.

(A2)

(i) State whether the following statements are True or False. 

Question (a)
The poet knew no joy till he was rich.
Answer:
False. The poet had no joy as long as he was rich. He was happy when he was poor.

Question (b)
The poet felt that he should talk about his poverty.
Answer:
False. He could not talk about his money.

Question (c)
When the poet had money, he had many true friends.
Answer:
False. When the poet had money, all his friends were false ones.

Question (d)
When poet became poor he had very few real friends.
Answer:
True.

(ii) Write reasons for the following statements.

Question (a)
Friends came knocking all day at the poet’s door.
Answer:
When the poet was rich he had many callers. They claimed they were friends. They were being friendly because he had money. They were not true friends. Such people are called ‘fair-weather friends’.

Question (b)
Poor men’s wives hum like bees.
Answer:
Poor men have no worries. They do not have to safeguard their wealth from liars and cheats. They don’t have false friends who actually love his money and not him. When a man is satisfied with what he has he is happy. He is not chasing wealth and or pretending. The wives are busy and do not have the time to wish for fancy things or gossip. So a happy man has a happy busy wife.

Question (iii)
Money makes the world go round. Explain it in the light of the poet’s experience.
Answer:
Money makes the world go round is a popular saying. It means money is the most important thing in the world. But in ‘Money’, the poet does not accept this view. He had money but he could not say that he possessed it. There were many insincere men who said they were friends.

Contentment is the main thing for being happy, not worldly possessions. Lack of money is a problem. We need it for things like health or education. When all needs are taken care of, then excess money is not necessary. Money is needed in life but it is not the only important thing in life.

The poet repeats that money brought many false men to be near him. But in poverty only a few true friends were with him.

Question (iv)
Poor men need not go up so much as rich men should come down. Express your views regarding this statement.
Answer:
Poor men need not go up as rich men should come down. This statement is perfectly true. The poor will survive. Living a simple, real life, and working hard. They are happy with necessities which may not be expensive. They are content and that brings happiness. They do not have to worry about safeguarding the excess.

But the rich may not know how to live simply, just with basic necessities. They may have servants to do basic chores. They travel in style and sometimes for no reason. They spend unnecessarily. So the poor need not go up as much as the rich need to come down is true.

(A3)

Question (i)
Find out meanings of the phrases given below and use them in your own sentences:
Answer:
(a) Be in the money –
Meaning: to suddenly have a lot of money.
Sentence: It looks he is in the money, by the way he is giving everyone costly gifts.
(b) Win lots of money –
Meaning: get money in a lottery/ gambling/ get money through luck, not work.
Sentence: He bought a lottery ticket every week hoping to win lots of money.
(c) For my money –
Meaning: in exchange for. Worth the amount.
Sentence: The old man asked. ‘Is this all I’m getting for my money?’
(d) Money for old rope –
Meaning: money that is easily earned or gotten
Sentence: She got two thousand just for answering questions in the interview! Money for old rope!
(e) Put one’s money where one’s mouth is Meaning: to take appropriate action to support what one has said.
Sentence: The Municipal Commissioner promised he would put the money where his mouth is and immediately release funds for the school facilities as promised.

Question (ii)
Complete the crossword with the help of the clues from the poem :

Across:
1. A brass musical instrument – TRUMPET
2. A low steady continuous sound – HUM
3. False – UNTRUE
4. Say Something – SPEAK
Down :
5. Not imaginary – REAL
6. Ponder – THINK
7. Stinging insects – BEES
8. In large number – MANY
9. Strike a surface noisily – KNOCK

(A4)

Question (i)
Complete the following table:
Answer:

Figure of speech	Line from the poem	Explanation
1. Inversion	‘felt I like a child’”think I’ Much have I thought of life	The order of words – ‘I felt like a child’, ‘I think’ – is reversed for effect. ‘I have thought much of life’ is reversed to give effect.
2. Simile	‘Like a child. ‘wives do hum like bees about their work’.	The poet compares himself with a child The wives of poor men are as busy as bees in their work.
3. Repetition	‘When I had money, money, O! [line 1 and 17]	The line is repeated and the word money. The word is the theme and it is repeated to emphasize he was very rich.
4. Onomatopoeia	‘do hum like bees’	The word ‘hum’ imitates the humming of bees.
5. Antithesis	‘many a false man as a friend’ ‘many friends proved all untrue’ ‘poor ones laugh – rich ones frown’ ‘poor men need not go up-the rich men should come down’	The quality of friends is supposed to be sincere and loyal. But they are described as opposite – false and untrue. The poor smile and the rich frown. This is opposite of what we expect. The rich must know simplicity says the poet, the opposite of what we say that the poor must come up in life.

Question (ii)
Identify the rhyme scheme of all the stanzas of the poem.
Answer:
The rhyme scheme of the stanzas 1 to 4 is abcb.
The rhyme scheme of the 5th stanza is abab.

Question (iii)
Compose a short poem on ‘Friendship’.
Answer:
‘Friendship’
We knew playtime in the park
Study time in school.
We helped one another
Struggling for each difficult mark.
We grew up, and though we fought
We will meet years later
We fondly thought.

(A5)

Question 1.
Write an appreciation of the poem considering the following points:

• About the poem/poet/title
• Theme
• Poetic devices, language, style
• Special features-tone and type
• Values, message
• Your opinion about the poem

Answer:
William H. Davies – a Welsh poet and writer – in his poem ‘Money’ speaks of both times – when he had money and when he did not. Davies tramped through the United Kingdom and the United States.

So he actually led a poor simple life of a wanderer. He actually experienced the difference in the life of a rich man and a poor one. The theme of the poem is the effect of money on the behaviour of people. False friends are plenty when a man has money. The poet compares himself to a child with a trumpet. He is not allowed to blow it for there has been a death.

He uses simile again when the poor man’s wife is described as humming about busily like a bee. The poet also has seen that the lack of money does not mean lack of happiness. The poor man is able to laugh while a rich man frowns; he feels the rich must become poor to taste the simple joys of life – the use of antithesis helps to stress this point.

The poem has five stanzas of four lines each, The seven or eight syllable lines are short but rich ; in poetic devices. The rhyme scheme lends rhythm. Repetition of the word ‘money’ stresses the way man gives money too much importance when it actually takes away our happiness.

The message is that money does not bring happiness. The poor are cheerful while the rich are worried. The poem is very useful to remind us the value of money. It is a necessity. It is not the only thing to chase.

(A6)

Question (i)
Visit a library and read a few poems written by William H. Davies.

Question (ii)
There are many career opportunities related to finance and planning.

Question (iii)
Try to get information about the following careers by surfing the internet.
(a) Finance Management
(b) Banking and Finance
(c) Actuaries
(d) Economics
(e) Share Market
(f) Accountancy
(g) Company Secretary

Question (iv)
Economics is a very important subject in which you can pursue vour career. Browse the websites of these institutions and get information for various courses in Economics.
(a) Delhi School of Economics
(b) Indian Statistical Institute
(c) Gokhale Institute of Politics and Economics, Pune
(d) Madras School of Economics

Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.6 Money Additional Important Questions and Answers

Interpretation/Inference/Analysis:

Question 1.
Complete the reasons:
Poor ones laugh because ………………
Answer:
Poor ones laugh because – poor people live a simple life. If the basic needs are fulfilled the poor man is happy. He has nothing to worry about or fear. When a man has wealth he has to safeguard it. The poor man is worry-free like health or education. When all needs are taken care of, then excess money is not necessary. Money is needed in life but it is not the only important thing in life. The poet repeats that money brought many false men to be near him. But in poverty, only a few true friends were with him.

Balbharti Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.5 Father Returning Home Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 English Yuvakbharati Solutions Chapter 2.5 Father Returning Home

12th English Digest Chapter 2.5 Father Returning Home Textbook Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Discuss with your partner the difficulties that you face while commuting to and from the college by public transport.
Answer:
(a) crowded buses, trains
(b) are difficult to board in peak-hours
(c) have to miss a couple of trains/buses to board safely
(d) on such days miss an important lecture

Question 2.
The similar problems are faced by the other commuters on the way to their workplace. Imagine their plight and suggest three solutions.

Answer:

Question 3.
Complete the following table:
Answer:

A	B
The way our elders take care of us	The way you can take care of elders in your family.
1. Love and protect us. 2. Support, educate and guide us through childhood and youth until we are independent. 3. Provide us with pocket-money and gifts we ask for.	1. Help them in daily chores. 2. Help with errands to the bank, stores or other requirements. 3. Ensure good health with exercise/ social- engagement/doctor- visits/ meditation.

Question 4.
Write your duties towards the following:

Answer:

(A1)

Question (i)
Discuss with your friend the difficulties focused by the father in the poem.

Question (ii)
Discuss and write the character sketch of the father with the help of the given points.
(His pathetic condition, the treatment he receives at home, his solitude, the way he tries to overcome it)
Answer:
The father is on the late train. This shows he is hard-working. He does not spend any money on himself as his appearance is shown as shabby. He is uncaring about his appearance probably because he is lonely and heart-broken.

He is silent on the train-trip home. He does not speak to co-passengers. Perhaps the sadness in his heart prevents him from even small-talk. He has no travel-mates. He is silent through the trip, and gets off without waving goodbye to any passenger.

His family is cold, distant and uncaring. He is not greeted on arrival. He is given cold food which is not nourishing. He is left to eat the meal alone just reading his book. At the end of the work-day he reads a book, eats by himself, listens to the radio and dreams of the future all alone. Thus the father is a lonely old man, neglected by his own family in spite of working hard for them and heart-sick of his existence.

(A2)

Question (i)
Given below are the ideas conveyed through the poem. Match the pairs and draw out the hidden meaning from those expressions:


Answer:
1. The father hurries home crossing railway line – Father is so eager to meet family members that he doesn’t even bother about his safety.
2. Suburban area, visible through the train, is passed unnoticed – Because there is hardly anything enchanting/interesting in the monotonous routine journey to look out of the window
3. He is just as a small word, dropping from a sentence. – He has so little value in the society where his presence or absence might hardly make any difference
4. He doesn’t get a place in a crowded train. – Uncomfortable journey

(ii) Find the lines to prove the following facts from the extract:

Question (a)
Father is deprived of good food.
Answer:
‘Home again, I see him drinking weak tea Eating a stale chapati’

Question (b)
Children did not have a healthy relation with the father
Answer:
His sullen children have often refused to share
Jokes and secrets with him.

Question (iii)
The poet deals with the theme of man’s estrangement from a man-made world. Analyze it with the help of the extract.
Answer:
The father reaches home. He has a lonely poor meal, served without care. The stale cold food also indicates the coldness in relationships in the family. The weak tea is a metaphor for the fragile family bond. There is no bonding. Home is only a shelter for him and he is only a provider for them. The father is lonely among his own family as well. So the father is alone in the crowd of strangers and also among his own family.

Question (iv)
The father contemplates his past and peeps into his future. Give reasons.
Answer:
The father silently ponders on his past. There is no communication with his family members. He would have sat with family members together to recall happy memories and enjoy them again. Reliving the past would have been one way for the family to bond. But the father thinks of the past alone. Future plans could be also discussed with family members. A lot of discussions could have happened about money, savings, career, a wedding and so on.

Advice, suggestions are given, arguments and disagreements happen, and even anger sometimes. But the father has nothing like this happening in his presence. There is only a sullen silence. He remembers his past and thinks of possible grandchildren. No one shares his dreams. He spends the past, present and future alone and in silence.

(A3)

Question 1.
Complete the following using suitable describing words as they appear in the poem with the help of the words given in the brackets:
(weak, dim, muddy, soggy, stale)
Answer:
(a) Father’s attire – soggy
(b) Father’s tea – weak
(c) Father’s footwear – muddy
(d) Father’s food – stale
(e) Father’s eyesight – dim

(A4)

Question (i)
Identify and write the lines from the extract which expresses the following figures of speech:
Answer:

Figures of speech	Lines
1. Simile	‘Like a word dropped from a long sentence’ The father getting off the train is compared to a word dropped unnoticed as many others words are there.
2. Alliteration	1. ‘My father travels on the late evening train’ [1] The sound ‘t’ is repeated. 2. ’Suburbs slide past his unseeing eyes’ [3] the sound ‘s’ is repeated.

Question (ii)
I see him drinking weak tea, eating a stale chapati.
Here ‘stale chapati’ stands for stale food/ non-nourishing food or diet, where the part symbolizes the whole, i.e. food. Guess the name of the figure of speech.
Answer:
The figure of speech is ‘synecdoche’.

(A5)

Question (i)
Write a counterview on the following topic:
“Every day is a mother’s/ father’s day.”
(a) If you love them, you don’t need to wait for such days.
(b) Celebrating days is just a formality.
(c) Celebrations of the days condition your expression of emotions.
(d) It is a kind of a pretext to neglect your everyday responsibilities.
Answer:
We love and respect our parents. We must be sure to be loving and respectful in our everyday behaviour and actions. They work, laugh, sacrifice – all only for their children -US! When we behave respectfully and lovingly with elders, the cards or a special day in the year are just a formality.

Our feelings for our parents are unconditional. We don’t say ‘if they do something, only then will we do something in return, while interacting with elders in the family. We cannot be loving, caring, obedient and helpful only on a Father’s/Mother’s Day. We have to be all these towards our parents and elders EVERY DAY.

So ‘Every day is Mother’s/Father’s Day!’

Question (ii)
Write an appreciation of the poem considering the following points :

• About the poem/poet/title
• Theme
• Poetic devices, language, style
• Special features – tone and type
• Values, message
• Your opinion about the poem

Answer:
The poem ‘Father Returning Home’, by Dilip Chitre – a bilingual poet – is about a lonely old man’s coming home from a long day at work. The poet describes his silent and lonely journey home in the crowded Mumbai local train. It is a metaphor for the father’s isolated life even though he is among people.

The poet speaks of the ‘unseeing’ eyes on the scenery flashing past the train. The same thing the man sees daily when commuting has nothing new, just like his uninteresting life. The setting is dusk in monsoon. The man’s dress and appearance are also metaphorical.

His soggy clothes and mud stained raincoat symbolize his shabby appearance and also his sad life. The man carries a bag full of books. He is well-read maybe. Thus when the man gets off the train the poet compares it to a word falling from a sentence. He goes unnoticed as an unimportant word dropped from a long sentence – a simile. The ‘long sentence’ – imagery – makes us imagine the long train and the passenger is one word that is getting down.

The platform he crosses is grey, colour imagery for gloominess or dirty surroundings. The poet uses informal language and an easy style. The poet describes him ‘hurries’ along the platform and again ‘hurries’ on to his home. This repeated word shows his eagerness to reach his shelter and I get dry. The words create an imagery of a shabby, pitiable but scholarly man.

The second part of the poem is about the man in his home. The meal he eats shows the poor quality as well as the careless way it is served. He ‘ reads a book while he eats. That is a clear imagery for his loneliness at home also. The family offers no company after his long day and tiring commute.

In the toilet he is pondering on how he has been shut out of the world although he is in the crowd. He is a stranger among his family in his own home. His children don’t speak to him and won’t share any part of their life. They are not interested in his life also. He goes to sleep thinking of the past and future, listening to harsh sounds on the radio.

The message is how the elderly are used by their own children but neglected when they need care. The poem is about a man who may be misunderstood. He is lonely even in the middle of crowds. It teaches how we should not behave to j persons who are in the autumn of their life. I feel sorry for such people who have worked hard in their life but the younger relatives discard them once their use is over.

Question (iii)
Compose a short poem in about 4-6 lines on your father.
Answer:
My Father

He is unselfish, caring,
Honest and hard-working
Simple, strict and well-read
Upright, always respected
By family and every friend.
He tried to excel till the end.

Question (iv)
Write a character sketch of any one of your family member.
Answer:
My Mother
If anyone cannot believe angels walk on the earth they should come and meet my mother. My mother is the most affectionate and gentle human I have ever met. She has never spoken a harsh word to anyone as far as I recall. She is so very concerned for the comfort of every other person that she neglects herself.

She looks after her father-in-law who is in his eighties. He is a great scholar and gets many visitors. She attends cheerfully to them all apart from looking after us. My father, my sister and I help out with as much of the household chores as we can.

But the main load of running the home falls on her. She takes care of that responsibility so cheerfully as if it is very light. She is loving and jovial with our friends when my sister and I invite them home, She advises us not to overspend but always has a tasty meal when friends and relatives gather for a festival meal.

My father does not make any important decisions in my mother’s absence. She discusses everything till they arrive at the most suitable decision. Our grandfather will not eat anything which my mother has not made. After my grandmother passed, he relies on ‘Saru’ my mother, for his diet meals, medicine, his reference books, walking stick, shawl and everything to be in their place.

My mother is our world.

(A6)

Question (i)
Dilip Chitre has translated Sant Tukaram’s ‘Abhangas’ (devotional poems) for which he received Sahitya Akadeini Award. Browse the internet to collect more information about it.

Question (ii)
List various occupations related to services which can be rendered to senior citizens.
(a) To counsel patients of Alzheimers’ disease.
(b) (Students may attempt this on their own.)
(c) (Students may attempt this on their own.)

Yuvakbharati English 12th Digest Chapter 2.5 Father Returning Home Additional Important Questions and Answers

Read the extract and complete the given activities:

Global Understanding:

Question 1.
List the difficulties faced by the father in the extract.
Answer:

1. The father is returning late in the day.
2. He has to stand the entire trip home.
3. He is in wet clothes for a long time till he can reach home.
4. His sight is weak with age.
5. His cheap footwear is muddy and maybe inconvenient in the monsoon.

Question 2.
Find the lines to prove the following facts from the poem.
Father does not bother to buy anything new for himself and makes do with old, worn out possessions.
Answer:
‘His bag stuffed with books is falling apart’ (line 6)

Question 3.
Choose the correct option and give reasons for it:
Refusal of the children to share jokes and secrets indicates:
(a) They are angry
(b) Generation gap
(c) Lack of concern
Answer:
All three could be reasons.
The children are angry that the father is unable to earn more, provide better life for them.
The father is old and the youngsters cannot relate to him. They are selfish and don’t care for the man who is doing his best.
The children have no care, love or respect for the father. It might not be a close-knit family. So there is no concern for the hard-working breadwinner.

Question 4.
List the difficulties faced by the father in the extract.
Answer:

1. The father is not greeted on his arrival home at the end of the day; is not served any nourishing food – has weak tea and stale chapati.
2. The family does not interact with him. His book is his company.
3. His children are bad tempered sharing no details of their life or asking about his day.
4. He must be going to work like this, also returns silently, to a silent home to his unfriendly family for whom he works.
5. He is unnoticed, uncared for, unappreciated, almost like an outsider in his own home and family.

Inference/Interpretation/Analysis:

Question 1.
The poet deals with the theme of man’s estrangement from a man-made world. Analyze it with the help of the extract.
Answer:
There are two scenarios in the poem. The first part is about the father’s time spent time outside, and the second part describes his time in his home. The first line says he is travelling on the evening train. The Mumbai local trains are famously crowded. But among the crowds he does not speak to a fellow passenger. He stands silently through the commute till he gets down. He doesn’t take leave of any friend and no one waves to him. Among the crowds he is alone.

Question 2.
Given below are the ideas conveyed through the poem. Match the pairs and draw out the hidden meaning from those expressions:
Answer:

Expressions	Meaning
1. The father hurries home crossing railway line	(a) Uncomfortable journey
2. Suburban area, visible through the train, is passed unnoticed.	(b) Has least value in the society where his presence or absence might hardly make any difference
3. He is just as a small word, dropping from a sentence.	(c) Because there is hardly anything enchanting/ interesting in the monotonous routine journey to look out of the window
(4) He doesn’t get a place in a crowded train.	(d) Father is so eager to meet family members that he doesn’t even bother about his safety.

Answer:
1. Children avoid expressing themselves – Hostility of children
2. Father was deprived of refreshing hot beverages or nourishing diet – His basic daily requirements were also not catered to.
3. The father was destined to listen only to the crackling sounds on media – The father could not even have some entertainment by himself on the radio.
4. His sordid present is devoid of any hope – He could only indulge in imagination about his past and future.
5. The father’s endless commuting distance him from his children – Father is not less than any tribal wanderer, a modern nomad.

Personal Response:

Question 1.
Write a note on ‘the hard work faced by parents for the family’.
Answer:
Our parents love us from the moment we are born. They watch us grow up and give us everything they can. They try to fulfil our wishes to the maximum extent possible. They work hard. The father works outside the home and the mother in the home. They spend their time, energy and resources on the children.

The children should realize that their parents do so much for them. We must not take their sacrifice for granted. We can never repay them. We must at least try and give them comfort and joy. It is our first duty to obey and love our parents and look after them when they grow old and unable to take care of themselves.

Question 2.
Describe the nature of the family members, from the father’s behaviour in the extract.
Answer:
The family members seems selfish and uncaring. The father drinks weak tea and eats stale food on his return. It is possible to serve fresh food, to the bread-winner returning home even if it is the most simple or poorest of food. If he has a wife then she does not seem to care much about his wellbeing.

The poet clearly states that the children have refused to share any lighter moments or conversation with their father. Probably the mother’s behaviour has made the children also treat him this way. If it is poverty they are facing then the family seems selfish in demanding he work for them but not even offering their company or kindness in return.

Poetic Devices:

Question 1.
Find out the examples of transferred epithets from the extract.
Answer:
‘Suburbs slide past his unseeing eyes. The ‘unseeing’ is transferred to eyes. The eyes are seeing but his mind is not registering any sight. So the quality of ‘not seeing’ is given to the eyes.

Poetic Creativity:

Question 1.
Compose a few lines on ‘Distance’.
Answer:
Distance
I travel for an hour to work, and an hour back.
This is the exact distance of the track
Between myself and the people whom
I go to a place called home.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 The Union Executive Notes, Textbook Exercise Important Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 8 Civics Solutions Chapter 3 The Union Executive

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Textbook Questions and Answers

1. Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
In India, the executive power is vested in the ………………. .
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The tenure of the President is of ………… years.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
Answer:
(c) five

Question 3.
The Council of Ministers is led by the ………………. .
(a) Party Chief
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
Answer:
(b) Prime Minister

2. Find and write:

Question 1.
The President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers are called the ……………. .
Answer:
Executive

Question 2.
During the Parliamentary session, the period around 12 noon is known as ……………… .
Answer:
Zero hour

3. write the following concepts in your own words:

Question 1.
Impeachment procedure:
Answer:

1. The responsibility of protecting the Constitution is shouldered by the President.
2. But, if any act of the President violates the Constitution, the Parliament has the authority to remove him.
3. This process known as process of Impeachment.

The procedure for impeachment is as follows:

1. Anyone House can lay the charge of violation of the Constitution.
2. The investigation of the charge is carried out by the other House.
3. If the resolution is passed by special (2/3rd) majority of both the Houses, the President can be removed from his post.

Question 2.
No-confidence motion:
Answer:

1. In the Parliamentary system of government, the Legislature tries to keep control over the Executive.
2. The Executive stays in power till it enjoys the support of the majority in Lok Sabha.
3. The members of the Lok Sabha can move a No-confidence motion by simply expressing “We do not have confidence in the government”.
4. If the motion is passed with majority support, the Council of Ministers (the Executive) has to resign.
5. Thus, this is the most effective way to keep a check on the Council of Ministers.

Question 3.
Jumbo Ministry:
Answer:

1. A huge Council of Ministers with more than necessary ministers is referred to as Jumbo Ministry.
2. There was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers in our country.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the Council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

4. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
The functions of the Council of Ministers are as follows:
1. The Council of Ministers takes initiative in the process of Law-making by drafting the bills/proposals.
2. It introduces and discusses the bills/ proposals in the House.
3. It introduces bills on various subjects like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign relations, etc. in the Parliament, conducts discussions on them and tries to get them approved by the Parliament.
4. It also takes the responsibility of implementing the policies approved by the Parliament.

Question 2.
How does the Parliament keep a check on the Executive?
Answer:
The Parliament keeps a check on the Executive in the following ways:
1. The bills/proposals presented by the Council of Ministers are discussed in the Parliament.
2. These discussions and debates help the members to scrutinize the bills/ proposals and point out the shortcomings and help in a creation of healthy laws.
3. During Parliamentary sessions, the proceedings of the House begins with questions asked by the members of the House. The concerned Ministers are expected to give satisfactory answers to these questions.
4. During the Parliamentary sessions, the period around 12 noon is called as ‘Zero House’. During this period, any question of public importance can be raised and discussed.
5. The Parliament can pass a No-confidence motion on the Executive. If the motion is passed with majority support, then it has to resign.

5. Complete the concept picture. 

Question 1.

Answer:

Do it:

Find out the text of the oath taken by the President. Understand its meaning with the help of your teachers.

Do you know:

Jumbo Ministry:

1. Earlier, there was a trend to keep large Council of Ministers.
2. Such huge Councils were known as jumbo Ministry’.
3. Later, a constitutional amendment was made to limit the size of the Council of Ministers.
4. As per this amendment, the number of ministers in the council should not be more than 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Can you tell?

What should the members of the Parliament do to participate effectively in debates and discussions?

Understand it :
(The gist of the conversation between Rama and Vidya.)

1. The President is the nominal head and the Prime Minister is the executive head.
2. The Prime Minister meets the President regularly and informs him about the conduct of administration.
3. The President has the right to seek information about new laws and policies framed by the Parliament. from the Prime Minister.

Project:

Question 1.
If you become the Prime Minister what works will you prioritise? Create a priority-wise list and present it in class.

Question 2.
Collect pictures and information of India’s Presidents since independence.

Class 8 Civics Chapter 3 The Union Executive Additional Important Questions and Answers

Choose the correct option and rewrite the statement:

Question 1.
The ………………. bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Vice-President
Answer:
(b) President

Question 2.
The President can be removed if the impeachment resolution is passed by ………………. majority in both the Houses of Parliament.
(a) 1/3rd
(b) 2/3rd
(c) 3/4th
Answer:
(b) 2/3rd

Question 3.
The ………………. is the Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) President
(d) Brigadier
Answer:
(c) President

Question 4.
In case a minister is not a member of the Parliament, he/she has to get elected to the Parliament within ………………. months.
(a) three
(b) six
(c) nine
(d) two
Answer:
(b) six

Question 5.
As per the amendment, the number of minister’s in the council should not be more than ………………. % of the total number of members in Lok Sabha.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 15
(d) 25
Answer:
(c) 15

Question 6.
The Council of Ministers stays in power till it enjoys the support of majority in ………………. .
(a) Legislative Assembly
(b) Legislative Council
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Lok Sabha

Question 7.
In the absence of the President, ………………. carries out his functions.
(a) Vice-President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
Answer:
(a) Vice-President

Find and write:

Question 1.
The group of Parliamentarians and members of the state legislatures who elect the President ……………… .
Answer:
Electoral college

Question 2.
One who has the right to declare emergency in case of crisis …………… .
Answer:
President

Complete the concept map:

Question 1.

Answer:

Write short notes on:

Question 1.
Vice-President:
Answer:

1. The Vice-President is elected by members of both the Houses.
2. The person contesting the election for the post of Vice-President should be a citizen of India and should have completed 35 years of age.
3. He is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha and exercises control over the functioning of Rajya Sabha.
4. In the absence of the President, his functions are carried out by the Vice President.

Question 2.
President:
Answer:

1. The President is the Constitutional Head of India.
2. He is elected by the directly elected representatives of the Central and State legislatures.
3. The person elected to the post of the President has to take an oath while accepting the post.
4. According to the oath, the President bears the responsibility of protecting the Constitution and ensuring that the government runs as per the Constitution.
5. The President governs in accordance with the advice given by the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.
6. He has Legislative, Executive, Judicial, Defence and Emergency powers.

Explain the following statements with reasons:

Question 1.
The President is the nominal and constitutional Head of India.
Answer:

1. The Constitution has vested all executive powers in the President.
2. The government carries out its functions in the name of the President.
3. However, in reality, the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers run the government.

Hence, the President is the nominal and Constitutional Head of India.

Question 2.
The Council of Ministers has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.
Answer:

1. The Council of Ministers has to decide specific policies on subject like education, agriculture, industry, health, foreign affairs, etc.
2. The Ministers of respective departments have to lay their policy plans in the House and discuss them thoroughly.
3. The policies cannot be implemented without the approval of the Parliament.
4. Also, the Council of Ministers can stay in power till it enjoys the support of the Parliament.
5. Hence, it has to take the Parliament into confidence while framing policies.

Answer in brief:

Question 1.
How is the President elected?
Answer:

1. The President is not directly elected by the people of India.
2. The common people do not vote in the election of the President.
3. He is elected by the Electoral College.
4. The Electoral College includes all members/elected representatives of Parliament and the members of the State Legislatures.

Question 2.
How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

1. The party which attains majority in the Lok Sabha election, nominates its leader as the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is given an oath by the President.
3. The Prime Minister then, chooses his trustworthy and efficient colleagues from within the party to form the Council of Ministers.
4. He gives priority to his colleagues considering their administrative experience, governance skills, efficiency and technical expertise.
5. The President administers oath to all the Council of Ministers. In this way, the Council of Ministers is formed.

Question 3.
State the qualifications necessary for contesting the Presidential election.
Answer:

1. The person contesting the Presidential election should be a citizen of India.
2. He should be 35 years of age.
3. He should also fulfill other conditions mentioned by the Constitution.

Question 4.
Mention the functions of the Prime Minister.
Answer:
The functions of the Prime Minister are as follows:

1. To form the Council of Ministers, selecting trustworthy, experienced and efficient people.
2. To allocate portfolios and chair all the meetings of the Council of Ministers.
3. To lead the Council of Ministers, maintain coordination among various departments, facilitate cooperation among departments and supervise to bring about efficiency and efficacy.
4. To raise the image of the country at international level.
5. To support the people during disasters.

Question 5.
What should the MPs do to enable them to participate effectively in Lok Sabha discussions?
Answer:
For effective participation in Lok Sabha, the MPs have to practise following things:

1. They should come prepared to the Lok Sabha with deep study of the problems of their constituencies and effective solutions to the same.
2. They should thoroughly understand the functioning of the Parliament and express people’s problems in a precise manner, without wasting other’s time.
3. They should be able to criticise the shortcomings and defects in bills/policies effectively.
4. They should be well-versed with the various effective tools, granted by the Constitution, for keeping a check on the Council of Ministers.
5. They should strictly keep away from unparliamentary practices like creating chaos, shouting slogans, tearing papers, being physically aggressive or fighting, etc. as such practices are not helpful in any manner.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 8 Plant Tissues and Anatomy Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 8 Plant Tissues and Anatomy

1. Choose the correct option.

Question (A)
Location or position of meristematic regions is divided into _______ types.
(A) one
(B) two
(C) three
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(C) three

Question (B)
Cambium is also called
(A) apical meristem
(B) intercalary meristem
(C) lateral meristem
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(C) lateral meristem

Question (C)
Collenchyma is a type of ________ tissue.
(A) living
(B) dead
(C) living and dead
(D) none of the above
Answer:
(A) living

Question (D)
_______ is a complex permanent tissue.
(A) Parenchyma
(B) Sclerenchyma
(C) Chlorenchyma
(D) Xylem
Answer:
(D) Xylem

Question (E)
Mesophyll tissue is present in ________ .
(A) root
(B) stem
(C) leaf
(D) flower
Answer:
(C) leaf

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
A fresh section was taken by a student but he was very disappointed because there were only few green and most colourless cells. Teacher provided a pink colour solution. The section was immersed in this solution and when observed it was much clearer. What is the magic?
Answer:
1. The pink coloured solution given by teacher must be a saffanin stain.
2. Saffanin is used to stain plant tissues, especially lignified tissues such as cell wall and xylem.

Question (B)
While observing a section, many scattered vascular bundles could be seen. Teacher said, in spite of this large number the stem cannot grow in girth. Why?
Answer:

1. Students must have observed monocot stems.
2. It is because, monocot stem shows scattered vascular bundles.
3. In monocot stem, vascular bundles are closed i.e. without cambium.
4. Thus, secondary growth does not occur which is required for increase in girth. Hence, in spite of having large number of scattered vascular bundles, monocot stems do not grow in girth.

Question (C)
A section of the stem had vascular bundles, where one tissue was wrapped around the other. How will you technically describe it?
Answer:
Concentric vascular bundle:
a. When one vascular tissue is completely encircling the other, it is called as concentric vascular bundle.
b. When phloem is encircled by xylem, it is called as leptocentric vascular bundle, whereas when xylem is encircled by phloem, it is called as hadrocentric vascular bundle.
c. When xylem is encircled by phloem on both faces, it is called as amphicribral vascular bundle. When phloem is encircled by xylem on both faces it is called as amphivasal vascular bundle.

Question (D)
There were two cut logs of wood lying in the campus. One had growth rings and other didn’t. Teacher said it is due to differences in their pattern of grow th which is dependent on season. How?
Answer:
1. It is possible that one of the cut logs was of a tropical tree, whereas the other was of a temperate tree. Since tropical trees grow in a similar manner all year, growth rings are not apparent. Another explanation for this could be that the log which had growth rings must be of an old tree which has experience many seasons, whereas the log without growth rings must be of younger tree, that has not been subjected to seasonal changes and hence not developed prominent growth rings.

2. Growth rings are formed due cambial activity during favourable and non-favourable climatic conditions.

3. During favourable conditions, spring wood (early wood) is formed which has broader xylem bands, lighter colour, tracheids with thin wall and wide lumen, fibres are less in number, low density. Whereas, during unfavourable conditions, autumn wood (late wood) is formed which has narrow xylem band, darker in colour, lumen is narrow and walls are thick with abundant fibres, high density.

4. Spring wood and autumn wood that appear as alternate light and dark concentric rings, constitute an annual ring or growth ring.

5. These growth rings can be used to estimate the age of the tree. These are found more in older trees as compare to younger tree.

Question (E)
While on the trip to Kashmir, Pintoo observed that cut portions of large trees show distinct rings, which he never found in Maharashtra. Why is so?
Answer:
1. Cut portions of large tress show distinct rings which are annual rings formed due to activity of cambium during favourable and non-favourable climatic conditions.
2. Kashmir falls under temperate region where the climatic conditions are not uniform through the year. In the spring season, conditions are favourable due to which cambium is active, whereas in autumn season, conditions are unfavourable due to which cambium is less active. This leads to formation of spring wood and autumn wood that appear as alternate light and dark concentric rings, constitute an annual ring or growth ring.
3. Maharashtra falls under tropical region where climatic conditions are favourable throughout the year. In tropical areas, continuous growth of secondary xylem occurs. Thus, trees growing in tropical regions show less or no annual rings as compared to trees in temperate region.

Question (F)
A student was observing a slide with no label under microscope. The section had some vascular bundles scattered in the ground tissue. It is section of a monocot stem! He exclaimed. No! it is section of fern rachis, said the teacher. Teacher told to observe vascular bundle again. Student agreed, Why?
Answer:

1. In fern rachis, the number of vascular bundles is less as compared to number of vascular bundles in monocot stem. In monocot stem, vascular bundles are numerous.
2. In fern rachis, xylem consists of only tracheids whereas in monocot stem, xylem consists of vessels (protoxylem and metaxylem) as well as tracheids. Monocot stem shows presence of lysigenous cavity just below protoxylem.
3. In fern rachis, phloem consists of only sieve cells whereas in monocot stem, phloem consists of sieve tubes and companion cells. Thus, a student must hav e observed these differences in the given section and agreed to teacher’s statement that the given section is of fern rachis and not of monocot stem.

Question (G)
Student found a wooden stopper in lab. He was told by an old lab attendant that it is there for many years. He kept thinking how it did not rot?
Answer:
1. Wooden stopper or cork is obtained from the phellem (cork) part of a bark.
2. Phellem (cork) is impervious in nature and does not allow entry of water due to suberized walls.
3. Due to this it does not rot and remains as it is for many years.

Question (H)
Student while observing a slide of leaf section observed many stomata on the upper surface. He thought he has placed slide upside down. Teacher confirmed it is rightly placed. Explain.
Answer:
1. In a dicot leaf, stomata are generally absent on upper epidermis but are present on lower epidermis. Thus, the student must have thought that he has placed slide upside down.
2. According to teacher, the section was placed rightly, thus the given section must be of monocot leaf.
3. It is because, in monocot leaf stomata are present on both upper and lower epidermis.

3. Write short notes on the following points.

Question (A)
Structure of stomata.
Answer:

1. Small gateways in the epidermal cells are called as stomata.
2. Stoma is controlled or guarded by specially modified cells called guard cells.
3. These guard cells may be kidney-shaped (dicot) or dumbbell-shaped (monocot), collectively called as stomata.
4. Guard cells have chloroplasts to carry out photosynthesis.
5. Change in turgor pressure of guard cells causes opening and closing of stomata, which enables exchange of gases and water vapour.
6. Stomata are further covered by subsidiary cells.
7. Stoma, guard cells and subsidiary cells form a unit called stomatal apparatus.

Question (B)
Write a short note on secondary growth.
OR
With the help of neat and labelled diagram explain the secondary growth in dicot stem.
Answer:
Secondary growth:

1. Dicotyledonous plants and gymnosperms exhibit increase in girth of root and stem.
2. In dicot stem, secondary growth begins with the formation of a continuous cambium ring.
3. The cambium present between the primary xylem and primary phloem of a vascular bundle is called intrafascicular cambium.
4. The cells of medullary rays adjoining these intrafascicular cambium strips become meristematic (regain the capacity to divide) and form the interfascicular cambium.
5. Thus, a complete and continuous ring of vascular cambium is formed.
6. The cambium ring cuts off new cells, towards both inner and outer sides.
7. The cells that are cut-off towards pith (inner side) mature into secondary xylem and cells that are cut-off towards periphery mature into secondary phloem.
8. Generally, amount of secondary xylem is more than the secondary phloem.

Question (C)
Write a short note on peculiarity of a sclerenchyma cell wall.
Answer:
Peculiarity of a sclerenchyma cell wall:
1. Cell wall of sclerenchyma is evenly thickened due to uniform deposition of lignin.
2. Cell wall of sclereids is extremely thick and strongly lignified.

4. Differentiate

Question (A)
Differentiate between vascular bundles of monocot and dicot.
Answer:

1. Vascular bundle of monocot and dicot root.
2. Vascular bundle of monocot and dicot stem.
3. Vascular bundle of monocot and dicot leaf.

Question (B)
Differentiate between xylem and phloem.
Answer:

Xylem	Phloem
1. It is a dead complex tissue.	It is a living complex tissue.
2. It is composed of xylem, tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma.	It is composed of sieve tubes, sieve cells, companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.
3. It is also known as wood.	It is also known as bast.
4. The cell walls are thick due to lignin.	The cell walls are thin.
5. Xylem conducts water and minerals from roots to the stem and leaves. It also provides mechanical strength to the plant parts.	It is the chief food conducting tissue of vascular plants responsible for translocation of food from leaves to other plant parts.

5. Draw neat labelled diagrams

Question (A)
T.S. of dicot leaf.
Answer:
1. Structure of dorsiventral leaf: The mesophyll tissue is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma in a dorsiventral leaf. This type is very common in dicot leaf. The different parts of this leaf are as follows:
2. Upper epidermis: It consists of a single layer of tightly packed rectangular, barrel shaped, parenchymatous cells which are devoid of chloroplast. A distinct layer of cuticle lies on the outside of the epidermis. Stomata are generally absent.
3. Mesophyll: Between upper and lower epidermis, there is chloroplast-containing photosynthetic tissue called mesophyll It is differentiated into Palisade parenchyma and Spongy parenchyma.
a. Palisade parenchyma:
Palisade parenchyma is present below upper epidermis and consists of closely packed elongated cells. The cells contain abundant chloroplasts and help in photosynthesis.
b. Spongy parenchyma:
Spongy parenchyma is present below palisade tissue and consists of loosely arranged irregularly shaped cells with intercellular spaces. The spongy parenchyma cells contain chloroplast and are in contact with the atmosphere through stomata.

4. Vascular system: It is made up of a number of vascular bundles of varying size depending upon the venation. Each one is surrounded by a thin layer of parenchymatous cells called bundle sheath. Vascular bundles are closed. Xylem lies towards upper epidermis and phloem towards lower epidermis. Cambium is absent, hence there is no secondary growth in the leaf.
5. Lower epidermis: It consists of a single layer of compactly arranged rectangular, parenchymatous cells. A thin layer of cuticle is also present. The lower epidermis contains a large number of microscopic pores called stomata. There is an air-space called substomatal chamber at each stoma.

Question (B)
T.S. of Monocot root.
Answer:

Question (C)
Draw neat labelled diagrams of T.S. of dicot stem.
Answer:

Question 6.
Write the information related to diagram given below.

Answer:


[Note: The labelled part can be considered as the ‘region of maturation ’ of root apical however, the region of maturation does not contain meristematic tissue ]
Classification of meristematic tissue based on its position:
1. Apical meristem:
a. It is produced from promeristem and forms growing point of apices of root, shoot and their lateral branches.
b. It brings about increase in length of plant body and is called as apical initials.
c. Shoot apical meristem is terminal in position whereas in root it is subterminal i.e. located behind the root cap.

2. Intercalary meristem:
a. Intercalary meristematic tissue is present in the top or base area of node.
b. Their activity is mainly seen in monocots.
c. These are short lived.

3. Lateral meristem:
a. It is present along the sides of central axis of organs.
b. It takes part in increasing girth of stem or root, e.g. Intrafascicular cambium.
c. It is found in vascular bundles of gymnosperms and dicot angiosperms.

Question 7.
Identify the following diagrams, label it and prepare a chart of characteristics.
Answer:
1. Figure ‘c’

Question 8.
Distinguish between dicot and monocot leaf on the basis of following characters.
Answer:

Characters	Dicot leaf	Monocot leaf
Stomata	Stomata are restricted to lower epidermis. Guard cells of stoma are kidney shaped.	Stomata occur on both epidermis. Guard cells of stoma are dumbbell shaped.
Intercellular space	More intercellular spaces due to presence of spongy parenchyma.	Less intercellular spaces as mesophyll is not differentiated into spongy and palisade tissue.
Venation	Reticulate venation	Parallel venation
Vascular bundle	Vascular bundles of varying size. The size of the vascular bundles is dependent on the size of the veins which vary in thickness in dicot leaf.	Vascular bundles are nearly of similar size (Except in main veins).
Mesophyll cells	Mesophyll tissue is differentiated into palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.	Mesophyll tissue is not differentiated into palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.

Practical/ Project:

Question 1.
Prepare detail anatomical charts with diagrammatic representation of dicot and monocot plants.
Answer:
Anatomy of dicot root: The transverse section of a typical dicotyledonous root shows following anatomical features:
1. Epiblema: It is the outermost single layer of cells without cuticle. Some epidermal cells prolong to form unicellular root hairs.
2. Cortex: It is made up of many layers of thin walled parenchyma cells. Cortical cells store food and water.
3. Exodermis: After the death of epiblema, outer layer of cortex become cutinized and is called Exodermis.

4. Endodermis:
The innermost layer of cortex is called Endodermis.
The cells are barrel-shaped and their radial walls bear Casparian strip or Casparian bands composed of suberin. Near the protoxylem, there are unthickened passage cells.

5. Stele: It consists of pericycle, vascular bundles and pith.
a. Pericycle: Next to the endodermis, there is a single layer of thin walled parenchyma cells called pericycle. It forms outermost layer of stele or vascular cylinder.
b. Vascular bundle: Vascular bundles are radial. Xylem and Phloem occur in separate patches arranged on alternate radii. Xylem is exarch in root that means protoxylem vessels are towards periphery and metaxylem elements are towards centre. Xylem bundles vary from two to six number, i.e. they may be diarch, triarch, tetrarch, etc.
Connective tissue: A parenchymatous tissue is present in between xylem and phloem.
c. Pith: The central part of stele is called pith. It is narrow and made up of parenchymatous cells, with or without intercellular spaces.
6. At a later stage cambium ring develops between the xylem and phloem causing secondary growth.

Anatomy of monocot stem: A transverse section of maize (monocot) stem shows the following structures:

1. Epidermis: It is single-layered and without trichomes.
2. Hypodermis: It is sclerenchymatous.
3. Ground tissue: It consists of thin walled parenchyma cells. It extends from hypodermis to the centre. It is not differentiated into cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith.
4. Vascular bundles: Vascular bundles are numerous and are scattered in ground tissue. Each vascular bundle is surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath. Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and closed (without cambium). Xylem is endarch and shows lysigenous cavity.
5. Pith: Pith is absent.

Anatomy of dicot leaf:

1. Structure of dorsiventral leaf: The mesophyll tissue is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma in a dorsiventral leaf. This type is very common in dicot leaf. The different parts of this leaf are as follows:
2. Upper epidermis: It consists of a single layer of tightly packed rectangular, barrel shaped, parenchymatous cells which are devoid of chloroplast. A distinct layer of cuticle lies on the outside of the epidermis. Stomata are generally absent.
3. Mesophyll: Between upper and lower epidermis, there is chloroplast-containing photosynthetic tissue called mesophyll It is differentiated into Palisade parenchyma and Spongy parenchyma.
a. Palisade parenchyma:
Palisade parenchyma is present below upper epidermis and consists of closely packed elongated cells. The cells contain abundant chloroplasts and help in photosynthesis.
b. Spongy parenchyma:
Spongy parenchyma is present below palisade tissue and consists of loosely arranged irregularly shaped cells with intercellular spaces. The spongy parenchyma cells contain chloroplast and are in contact with the atmosphere through stomata.
4. Vascular system: It is made up of a number of vascular bundles of varying size depending upon the venation. Each one is surrounded by a thin layer of parenchymatous cells called bundle sheath. Vascular bundles are closed. Xylem lies towards upper epidermis and phloem towards lower epidermis. Cambium is absent, hence there is no secondary growth in the leaf.
5. Lower epidermis: It consists of a single layer of compactly arranged rectangular, parenchymatous cells. A thin layer of cuticle is also present. The lower epidermis contains a large number of microscopic pores called stomata. There is an air-space called substomatal chamber at each stoma.

Anatomy of monocot leaf:

1.It is single layered, present on both sides of the leaf.
It consists of compactly arranged rectangular transparent parenchymatous cells.
Both the surfaces contain stomata.
Both the surfaces have a distinct layer of cuticle.
2. Mesophyll:
Mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy tissue.
3. Vascular bundle:
These are conjoint, collateral and closed.

Question 2.
Observe different slides related to anatomy of flowering plants under the guidance of teacher.
[Students are expected to perform this practical own their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 8 Plant Tissues and Anatomy Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 85)

(i) Which component brings about important processes in the living organisms?
Answer:
Cell is the component that brings about important processes in the living organisms.

(ii) What is tissue?
Answer:
A group of cells having essentially a common function and origin is called as tissue.

(iii) Explain simple and complex tissue.
Answer:
a. Simple tissue:
1. They are made up of only one type of cells.
2. They are found in all the plant parts.
3. They perform many functions.
4. Simple tissues in plants are Parenchyma, Collenchyma, Sclerenchyma.

b. Complex tissue:
1. They are made up of many types of cells.
2. They are found only in the vascular regions of the plant.
3. They mainly perform the function of conduction of food and water.
4. Complex tissues in plants are Xylem and Phloem.

(iv) Complete the flow chart.
Organisms → Organs → Cells
Answer:
Organism → Organ system → Organs → Tissue system → Tissue → Cells

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 86)

Enlist the characteristics of meristematic tissue.
Answer:
Characteristics of meristematic tissue:

1. It is a group of young, immature cells.
2. These are living cells with ability to divide in the regions where they are present.
3. These are polyhedral or isodiametric in shape without intercellular spaces.
4. Cell wall is thin, elastic and mainly composed of cellulose.
5. Protoplasm is dense with distinct nucleus at the centre and vacuoles if present, are very small.
6. Cells show high rate of metabolism.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 86)

Classify meristematic tissue on the basis of origin.
Answer:
Classification of meristematic tissue on the basis of origin:
1. Promeristem / Primordial meristem:
a. It is also called as embryonic meristem.
b. It usually occupies very minute area at the tip of root and shoot.

2. Primary meristem:
a. It originates from the primordial meristem and occurs in the plant body from the beginning, at the root and shoot apices.
b. Cells are always in active state of division and give rise to permanent tissues.

3. Secondary meristem:
a. These tissues develop from living permanent tissues during later stages of plant growth hence are called as secondary meristems.
b. This tissue occurs in the mature regions of root and shoot of many plants.
c. Secondary meristem is always lateral (to the central axis) in position e.g. Fascicular cambium, inter fascicular cambium, cork cambium.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 89)

Write a note on parenchyma.
Answer:
Parenchyma:

1. It is a type of simple permanent tissue.
2. Cells in this tissue are thin walled, isodiametric, round, oval to polygonal or elongated in shape.
3. Cell wall is composed of cellulose.
4. Cells are living with prominent nucleus and cytoplasm with large vacuole.
5. Parenchyma has distinct intercellular spaces. Sometimes, cells may show compact arrangement.
6. The cytoplasm of adjacent cells is interconnected through plasmodesmata and thus forms a continuous tissue.
7. This is less specialized permanent tissue.
8. Occurrence:
   These cells are distributed in all the parts of a plant body viz. epidermis, cortex, pericycle, pith, mesophyll cells, endosperm, xylem and phloem.
9. Functions:
   These cells store food, water, help in gaseous exchange, increase buoyancy, perform photosynthesis and different functions in plant body.
10. Dedifferentiation in parenchyma cells develops vascular cambium and cork cambium at the time of
    secondary growth.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 89)

Describe sclerenchyma fibres.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma fibres:
1. Fibres are thread-like, elongated and narrow structures with tapering and interlocking end walls.
2. Fibres are mostly in bundles. Pits are narrow, unbranched and oblique.
They provide mechanical strength.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 89)

Sketch and label T.S. of phloem tissue.
Answer:
T.S. of phloem tissue: Structure of phloem:
1. Phloem is a living tissue. It is also called as bast.
2. It is responsible for conduction of organic food material from source (generally leaf) to a sink (other plant parts).
3. On the basis of origin, it can be protophloem (first formed) and metaphloem (latterly formed).
4. It is composed of sieve elements (sieve cells and sieve tubes), companion cells, phloem parenchyma and phloem fibres.

2. Sieve elements:
a. Sieve tubes are long tubular conducting channel of phloem.
b. These are placed end to end with bulging at end walls.
c. The sieve tube has sieve plate formed by septa with small pores.
d. The sieve plates connect protoplast of adjacent sieve tube cells.
e. The sieve tube cell is a living cell with a thin layer of cytoplasm, but loses its nucleus at maturity.
f. The sieve tube cell is connected to companion cell through phloem parenchyma by plasmodesmata.
g. Sieve cells are found in lower plants like pteridophytes and gymnosperms and sieve tubes are found in angiosperms.
h. The cells are narrow, elongated with tapering ends and sieve area located laterally.

3. Companion cells:
a. These are narrow elongated and living.
b. Companion cells are laterally associated with sieve tube elements.
c. Companion cells have dense cytoplasm and prominent nucleus.
d. Nucleus of companion cell regulates functions of sieve tube cells through simple pits.
e. From origin point of view, sieve tube cells and companion cell are derived from same cell. Death of the one result in death of the other type.

4. Phloem parenchyma:
a. Cells of phloem parenchyma are living, elongated found associated with sieve tube and companion cells.
b. Their chief function is to store food, latex, resins, mucilage, etc.
c. The cells carry out lateral conduction of food material.
d. These cells are absent in most of the monocots.

5. Phloem fibres (Bast fibres):
a. Phloem fibres are the only dead tissue among this unit.
b. They are sclerenchymatous.
c. They are generally absent in primary phloem, but present in secondary phloem.
d. These cells have with lignified walls and provide mechanical support.
e. They are used in making ropes and rough clothes.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 92)

Concentric vascular bundles are always closed. Describe.
Answer:

1. When one vascular tissue is completely encircling the other, it is called as concentric vascular bundle.
2. When cambium is not present between xylem and phloem, it is known as closed vascular bundle.
3. Due to absence of cambium between xylem and phloem, concentric vascular bundles are always closed.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 92)

How is the structure of vascular bundles of the root?
Answer:

1. Vascular bundles of the root are radial.
2. In radial vascular bundles, complex tissues are situated separately on separate radius as separate bundle.
3. The xylem and phloem bundles are arranged alternating with each other.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 92)

Why vascular bundles of dicot stem are described as conjoint collateral and open?
Answer:
Vascular bundles of dicot stem are described as conjoint collateral and open because;
1. In dicot stem, the complex tissue is collectively present as neighbours of each other on the same radius in the form of xylem inside and phloem outside. Such type of vascular bundles are called as conjoint and collateral.
2. In dicot stem, a strip of cambium is present between xylem and phloem. Hence, it is called as open vascular bundle.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 92)

How is the arrangement of vascular bundles in dicot and monocot stem?
Answer:
1. Vascular bundle in dicot stem: Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral, open, and are arranged in a ring. Each one is composed of xylem, phloem and cambium. Xylem is endarch. A strip of cambium is present between xylem and phloem.
2. Vascular bundle in monocot stem: Vascular bundles are numerous and are scattered in ground tissue. Each vascular bundle is surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath. Vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and cloused (without cambium). Xylem is endarch and shows lysigenous cavity.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Textbook Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Division Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board 11th Biology Solutions Chapter 7 Cell Division

1. Choose the correct option

Question (A)
The connecting link between Meiosis – I and Meiosis – II is …………
(a) interphase – I
(b) interphase – II
(c) interkinesis – III
(d) anaphase – IV
Answer:
(c) interkinesis – III

Question (B)
Synapsis is pairing of ………………. .
(a) any two chromosomes
(b) non – homologous chromosomes
(c) sister chromatids
(d) homologous chromosomes
Answer:
(d) homologous chromosomes

Question (C)
Spindle apparatus is formed during which stage of mitosis?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(b) S-phase

Question (D)
Chromosome number of a cell is almost doubled up during _______ .
(a) G₁ – phase
(b) S – phase
(c) G₂-phase
(d) G₀-phase
[Note: Due to DNA replication the DNA content of cell doubles during S-phase. But the number of chromosomes remain the same.]
Answer:
(b) S – phase

Question (E)
How many meiotic divisions are necessary for formation of 80 sperms?
(a) 80
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 20

Question (F)
How many chromatids are present in anaphase – I of meiosis – I of a diploid cell having 20 chromosomes?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 20
(d) 40
Answer:
(d) 40

Question (G)
In which of the following phase of mitosis chromosomes are arranged at equatorial plane?
(a) Prophase
(b) Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d) Telophase
Answer:
(b) Metaphase

Question (H)
Find incorrect statement.
(a) Condensation of chromatin material occurs in prophase.
(b) Daughter chromatids are formed in anaphase.
(c) Daughter nuclei are formed at metaphase.
(d) Nuclear membrane reappears in telophase.
Answer:
(c) Daughter nuclei are formed at metaphase.

Question (I)
Histone proteins are synthesized during
(a) G₁ phase
(b) S – phase
(c) G₂ – phase
(d) Interphase
Answer:
(b) S – phase

2. Answer the following questions

Question (A)
While observing a slide, student observed many cells with nuclei. But some of the nuclei were bigger as compared to others but their nuclear membrane was not so clear. Teacher inferred it as one of the phase in the cell division. Which phase may be inferred by teacher?
Answer:
Prophase.

Question (B)
Students prepared a slide of onion root tip. There were many cells seen under microscope. There was a cell seen under microscope. There was a cell with two groups of chromosomes at opposite ends of the cell. This cell is in which phase of mitosis?
Answer:
Anaphase.

Question (C)
Students were shown some slides of cancerous cells. Teacher made a comment as if there would have been a control at one of its cell cycle phase, there wouldn’t have been a condition like this. Which phase the teacher was referring to?
Answer:
The phase teacher was referring would be G_i phase.

Question (D)
Some Mendelian crossing experimental results were shown to the students. Teacher informed that there are two genes located on the same chromosome. He enquired if they will be ever separated from each other?
Answer:

1. Genes are located on chromosomes at specific distance and position.
2. The greater this distance, the greater the chance that a crossover can occur between the genes and the greater the chances of recombination.
3. The chances of recombination are less between the genes that are placed closed to each other on the chromosome.
4. Therefore, due to recombination the two genes located on the same chromosome have possibility of separating from each other.

Question (E)
Students were observing a film on Paramoecium. It underwent a process of reproduction. Teacher said it is due to cell division. But students objected and said that there was no disappearance of nuclear membrane and no spindle formation, how can it be cell division? Can you clarify?
Answer:

1. Paramoecium is a unicellular organism. The division in Paramoecium occurs by amitosis.
2. It is the simplest mode of cell division.
3. In amitosis, nucleus elongates and a constriction appears. This constriction deepens and divides the nucleus in two daughter nuclei followed by the division of cytoplasm.

Question (F)
Is the meiosis responsible for evolution? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Meiosis ensures that organisms produced by sexual reproduction contain correct number of chromosomes.
2. Meiosis exhibits genetic variation by the process of recombination.
3. Variations increase further after union of gametes during fertilization creating offspring with unique characteristics. Thus, it creates diversity of life and is responsible for evolution.

Question (G)
Why mitosis and meiosis – II are called as homotypic division?
Answer:
1. In mitosis, the chromosome number and genetic material of daughter cells remain same as that of the parent cell.
2. In meiosis – II, two haploid cells formed during first meiotic division divide further into four haploid cells. This division is identical to mitosis. The daughter cells formed in second meiotic division are similar to their parent cells with respect to the chromosome number formed in meiosis -1. Hence mitosis and meiosis – II are called homotypic division.

Question (H)
Write the significance of mitosis.
Answer:

1. As mitosis is equational division, the chromosome number is maintained constant.
2. It ensures equal distribution of the nuclear and the cytoplasmic content between the daughter cells, both quantitatively and qualitatively. Therefore, the process of mitosis also maintains the nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio.
3. The DNA is also equally distributed.
4. It helps in growth and development of organisms.
5. Old and worn-out cells are replaced through mitosis.
6. It helps in the asexual reproduction of organisms and vegetative propagation in plants.

Question (I)
Enlist the different stages of prophase – I.
Answer:
1. Prophase -I:
It is the most complicated and longest phase of meiotic division.
It is further divided into five sub-phases viz. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis.

a. Leptotene:
The volume of the nucleus increases.
The chromosomes become long distinct and coiled.
They orient themselves in a specific fonn known as bouquet stage. This is characterized with the ends of chromosomes converged towards the side of nucleus where the centrosome lies. j Lep
The centriole duplicates into two and migrates to opposite poles. [Note: Centrioles divide during Gj phase of interphase.]

b. Zygotene:
Pairing of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place by formation of synaptonemal complex. This pairing is called synapsis.
Each pair consists of a maternal chromosome and a paternal chromosome. Chromosomal pairs are called bivalents or tetrads.

c. Pachytene:
Each individual chromosome begins to split longitudinally into two similar chromatids. Therefore, each bivalent now appears as a tetrad consisting of four chromatids.
The homologous chromosomes begin to separate but they do not separate completely and remain attached to one or more points. These points are called chiasmata (Appear like a cross-X).
Chromatids break at these points and broken segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes resulting in recombination.

d. Diplotene:
The chiasma becomes clearly visible in diplotene due to beginning of repulsion between synapsed homologous chromosomes. This is known as desynapsis. Synaptonemal complex also starts to disappear.

e. Diakinesis:
The chiasmata begin to move along the length of chromosomes from the centromere towards the ends of chromosomes. The displacement of chiasmata is termed as terminalization.
The terminal chiasmata exist till the metaphase.
The nucleolus and nuclear membrane completely disappear and spindle fibres begin to appear.

3. Draw labelled diagrams and write explanation

Question (A)
With the help of suitable diagram, describe the cell cycle.
Answer:
1. Series of events occurring in the life of a cell is called cell cycle. Interphase and M – phase are the two phases of cell cycle.
2. Interphase: It is the stage between two successive cell divisions. It is the longest phase of a cell cycle during which the cell is highly active and prepares itself for cell division.
The interphase is subdivided into three sub-phases as G₁ – phase, S-phase and G₂-phase.
a. G₁ – phase (First gap period/First Gap Phase):
It begins immediately after cell division.
RNA (mRNA, rRNA and tRNA) synthesis, protein synthesis and synthesis of membranes take place during this phase.
b. S – phase (Synthesis phase):
In this phase DNA is synthesized (replicated), so that amount of DNA per cell doubles.
Synthesis of histone proteins takes place in this phase.
c. G₂ – phase (Second growth phase/Second Gap Phase):
Metabolic activities essential for cell division occur during this phase.
Various proteins which are necessary for the cell division are also synthesized in this phase.
Apart from this, RNA synthesis also occurs during this phase.
In animal cells, a daughter pair of centrioles appears near the pre-existing pair.

Question (B)
Distinguish between mitosis and meiosis.
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
(a) It occurs in somatic cells and stem cells.	It occurs in germ cells.
(b) In this nucleus divides only once.	In this nucleus divides twice (Meiosis I and Meiosis II)
(c) In these two daughter cells are formed.	In these four daughter cells are formed.
(d) Daughter cells formed by mitotic division are diploid (2n).	Daughter cells formed by meiotic division are haploid (n)•
(e) In mitosis, crossing over does not take place.	In meiosis, crossing over takes place.
(f) Mitosis plays an important role in growth, repair, healing and development.	Meiosis is important for formation of haploid gametes and spores.

Question (C)
Draw labelled diagrams and write explanation Draw the diagram of metaphase.
Answer:
Metaphase:
a. Chromosomes are completely condensed and appear short.
b. Centromere and sister chromatids become very prominent.
c. All the chromosomes are arranged at equatorial plane of cell. This is called metaphase plate.
d. Mitotic spindle is fully formed in this phase.
e. Centromere of each chromosome divides horizontally into two, each being associated with a chromatid. [Note: The centromeres divide at the beginning of anaphase so that the two chromatids of each chromosome become separated from each other.
Source: Cell Division, Donald B. McMillan, Richard J. Harris, in An Atlas of Comparative Vertebrate Histology, 2018.]

Question 4.
Match the following column – A with column – B

Column I (Phases)	Column II (Their events)
1. Leptotene	(a) Crossing over
2. Zygotene	(b) Desynapsis
3. Pachytene	(c) Synapsis
4. Diplotene	(d) Bouquet stage

Answer:

Column I (Phases)	Column II (Their events)
1. Leptotene	(d) Bouquet stage
2. Zygotene	(c) Synapsis
3. Pachytene	(a) Crossing over
4. Diplotene	(b) Desynapsis

Question 5.
Is the given figure correct? Why?

Answer:
1. The given figure is incorrect as the spindle fibres are not attached to centromere of the chromosomes.
2. During metaphase, chromosomes are attached to spindle fibres with the help of centromeres.

Question 6.
If an onion has 16 chromosomes in its leaf cell, how many chromosomes will be there in its root cell and pollen grain.
Answer:
1. The chromosomes in root cell will be 16 as root cell is a diploid cell.
2. The chromosomes in pollen grain will be 8 as pollen grain is a haploid cell.

7. Identify the following phases of mitosis and label the ‘A’ and ‘B’ given in diagrams.

Question (i)

Answer:
The diagram shown is of Metaphase.
A: Chromosomes arranged on metaphase plate

Question (ii)

Answer:
The diagram shown is of Anaphase.
B: Chromatids moving to opposite poles.

Practical / Project:

Question 1.
Fix the onion root tips at different durations of the day starting from 6am up to 9am at the intervals of half an hour. Prepare the slide of each fixed root tip and analyse the relation between time and phase of mitosis.
Answer:
Mitotic division is an equational division in which one parent cell give rise to two daughter cells with equal number of chromosomes in daughter cells and mother cell. It has four sub phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

Mitosis is affected by temperature and time. Mitotic index is high in morning so the mitosis is observed clearly in the morning. (Mitotic index is defined as the ratio between the number of cells in a population undergoing mitosis to the total number of cells in a population. )
[Note: Students catt use above information for reference and perform this activity on their own.]

11th Biology Digest Chapter 7 Cell Division Intext Questions and Answers

Can you recall? (Textbook Page No. 76)

How do your wounds heal?
Answer:
a. A wound is an injury to living tissue.
b. Healing of wound take place by mitosis.
c. Repetitive mitotic divisions near the site of injury results in healing of wound.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 79)

What is cell cycle?
Answer:

1. Sequential events occurring in the life of a cell is called cell cycle.
2. Interphase and M – phase are the two phases of cell cycle.
3. Cell undergoes growth or rest during interphase and divides during M – phase.

Discuss with teacher (Textbook Page No. 76)

Some cells do not have gap phase in their cell cycle whereas some cells spend maximum part of their life in gap phase. Search for such cells. Some cells are said to be in G₀ phase. What is this G₀ phase?
Answer:

1. G₀ is the phase of the cell cycle in eukaryotes in which many cell types stop dividing. It is also called a quiescent stage.
2. If cells are deprived of appropriate growth factors, they stop at the Gi checkpoint of the cell cycle. Their growth and division are arrested and they remain in G₀ phase.
3. Mature neurons and muscle cells remain in G₀ phase.

Question 5.
Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 79)
Answer:
1. Series of events occurring in the life of a cell is called cell cycle. Interphase and M – phase are the two phases of cell cycle.
2. Interphase: It is the stage between two successive cell divisions. It is the longest phase of a cell cycle during which the cell is highly active and prepares itself for cell division.
The interphase is subdivided into three sub-phases as G₁ – phase, S-phase and G₂-phase.
a. G₁ – phase (First gap period/First Gap Phase):
It begins immediately after cell division.
RNA (mRNA, rRNA and tRNA) synthesis, protein synthesis and synthesis of membranes take place during this phase.
b. S – phase (Synthesis phase):
In this phase DNA is synthesized (replicated), so that amount of DNA per cell doubles.
Synthesis of histone proteins takes place in this phase.
c. G₂ – phase (Second growth phase/Second Gap Phase):

1. Metabolic activities essential for cell division occur during this phase.
2. Various proteins which are necessary for the cell division are also synthesized in this phase.
3. Apart from this, RNA synthesis also occurs during this phase.
4. In animal cells, a daughter pair of centrioles appears near the pre-existing pair.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 77)

What is Karyogram or Karyotype?
Answer:
1. A karyotype is a representation of condensed chromosomes arranged in pairs.
2. Analysis of the karyotype of a particular individual indicates whether the individual has a normal set of chromosomes or whether there are abnormalities in number or appearance of individual chromosomes.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 79)

Which are the steps of mitosis?
Answer:
Steps in mitosis are Karyokinesis and Cytokinesis. Karyokinesis includes four stages – Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase.

Internet my friend (Textbook Page No. 79)

How the life span of a cell is decided?
Answer:

1. Life span of different cells vary greatly.
2. Life span of a cell is decided by its growth rate, metabolic activities and cell size.
3. The life span of a cell can be analysed in laboratory by applying carbon-14 technique to DNA.
4. This method is commonly used in archaeology and paleontology to find the age of fossils. Same can be applied to determine the life span of a cell.

Do yourself (Textbook Page No. 80)

Write down the explanation of prophase I in your own words.
Answer:
1. Prophase -I:
It is the most complicated and longest phas0e of meiotic division.
It is further divided into five sub-phases viz. leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and diakinesis.

a. Leptotene:

1. The volume of the nucleus increases.
2. The chromosomes become long distinct and coiled.
3. They orient themselves in a specific fonn known as bouquet stage. This is characterized with the ends of chromosomes converged towards the side of nucleus where the centrosome lies.
4. The centriole duplicates into two and migrates to opposite poles. [Note: Centrioles divide during G_j phase of interphase.]

b. Zygotene:

1. Pairing of non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes takes place by formation of synaptonemal complex. This pairing is called synapsis.
2. Each pair consists of a maternal chromosome and a paternal chromosome. Chromosomal pairs are called bivalents or tetrads.

c. Pachytene:

1. Each individual chromosome begins to split longitudinally into two similar chromatids. Therefore, each bivalent now appears as a tetrad consisting of four chromatids.
2. The homologous chromosomes begin to separate but they do not separate completely and remain attached to one or more points.
3. These points are called chiasmata (Appear like a cross-X).
4. Chromatids break at these points and broken segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes resulting in recombination.

d. Diplotene:
The chiasma becomes clearly visible in diplotene due to beginning of repulsion between synapsed homologous chromosomes. This is known as desynapsis. Synaptonemal complex also starts to disappear.

e. Diakinesis:

1. The chiasmata begin to move along the length of chromosomes from the centromere towards the ends of chromosomes. The displacement of chiasmata is termed as terminalization.
2. The terminal chiasmata exist till the metaphase.
3. The nucleolus and nuclear membrane completely disappear and spindle fibres begin to appear.

Curiosity Box: (Textbook Page No. 81)

(i) What is exact structure of synaptonemal complex?
Answer:
Synaptonemal complexes are zipper like structures assembled between homologous chromosomes during the prophase of first meiotic division.
[Source: ncbi.nlm. nih.gov/pubmed/8743892]

(ii) What is structure of chiasma?
Answer:
Chiasma is a X-shaped point of attachment between two non-sister chromatids of a homologous chromosomes.

(iii) Which type of proteins are involved in formation of spindle fibres?
Answer:
Spindle fibres are formed from microtubules with many accessory proteins.

(iv) Why and how spindle fibres elongate and some contract?
Answer:
a. Spindle fibres elongate for assembly of chromosomes at equatorial plane of the cell during metaphase and spindle fibres contract for pulling chromosomes towards opposite poles during anaphase.
b. The spindle fibres elongate (polymerize) by incorporating subunits of the protein tubulin and contract

(v) What is the role of centrioles in formation of spindle apparatus?
Answer:
Centriole plays an important role in cell division. Centrioles help organize microtubule assembly and forms spindle apparatus that separate the chromosomes during cell division.

Curiosity box (Textbook Page No. 81)

What would have happened in absence of meiosis?
Answer:

1.  Gametes are produced by the process of meiosis which are essential for sexual reproduction.
2. Diploid organisms have two set of chromosomes (one paternal and one maternal).
3. For a diploid organism to undergo sexual reproduction it needs to create gametes that contain only one set of chromosomes so the number of chromosomes remains same in the next generation.
4. In absence of meiosis, the chromosome number of parents and their offsprings will differ in every generation; hence no species will hold its characters.
5. Also, there will be no crossing over of homologous chromosomes. Thus, there will be no variations with respect to the changing environment in progeny to maintain their existence, which may lead to extinction of species.

Can you tell? (Textbook Page No. 82)

(i) What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?
Answer:

Mitosis	Meiosis
(a) It occurs in somatic cells and stem cells.	It occurs in germ cells.
(b) In this nucleus divides only once.	In this nucleus divides twice (Meiosis I and Meiosis II)
(c) In these two daughter cells are formed.	In these four daughter cells are formed.
(d) Daughter cells formed by mitotic division are diploid (2n).	Daughter cells formed by meiotic division are haploid (n) •
(e) In mitosis, crossing over does not take place.	In meiosis, crossing over takes place.
(f) Mitosis plays an important role in growth, repair, healing and development.	Meiosis is important for formation of haploid gametes and spores.

(ii) What is difference between meiosis – I and meiosis – II?
Answer:

Meiosis I	Meiosis II
(a) Diploid cell is divided into two haploid cells.	Two haploid cells formed in meiosis I divides further into four haploid cells.
(b) This division is called heterotypic division.	This division is called homotypic (equational) division.
(c) It consists of prophase – I, metaphase – I, anaphase -1, telophase -1 and cytokinesis.	It consists of prophase – II, metaphase – II, anaphase – II, telophase – II and cytokinesis.
(d) Number of chromosomes is reduced to half, i.e. from diploid to haploid state.	In meiosis II number of chromosomes remain the same.
(e) It is complicated and long duration division.	It is simple and short duration division.
(f) Telophase I results into 2 daughter cells.	Telophase II results in 4 daughter cells.

(iii) Elaborate the process of recombination.
Answer:
a. Recombination is exchange of genetic material between paternal and maternal chromosomes during gamete formation.
b. The points where crossing over takes place is known as chiasmata.
c. Chromatids acquire new combinations of alleles by physically exchanging segments in crossing-over.
d. The exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes involves accurate breakage and joining of DNA molecules through a complex mechanism.
e. It is catalyzed by enzymes.

Do Yourself (Textbook Page No. 82)

Prepare a concept map on cell division in following box.
Answer:
Refer Quick Review

Internet My Friend (Textbook Page No. 82)

Different types of proteins like cyclins, maturation promoting factor (MPF), cyclosomes, enzymes like cyclin dependent kinases (CDK) play important role in control of cell cycle. Collect more information about these proteins and enzymes from internet, prepare a power-point presentation and present it in the class.
Answer:

1. The regulation of the cell cycle involves an internal control system consisting of proteins called cyclins and enzymes called cyclin-dependent kinases.
2. A Cdk is a protein kinase. When the kinase of the Cdk is activated upon binding to a cyclin, it phosphorylates target proteins in the cell, regulating their activities.
3. Those proteins play important roles in initiating or regulating significant events of the cell cycle, such as DNA replication, mitosis, and cytokinesis.
4. Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF) triggers the cell’s passage into the mitotic phase.
   [Note: Students are expected to perform the above activity by their own with the help of information provided in the answer.]

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• Chapter 2 Matrices Miscellaneous Exercise 2

Std 12 Commerce Statistics Part 1 Digest Pdf Chapter 3 Differentiation

• Chapter 3 Differentiation Ex 3.1
• Chapter 3 Differentiation Ex 3.2
• Chapter 3 Differentiation Ex 3.3
• Chapter 3 Differentiation Ex 3.4
• Chapter 3 Differentiation Ex 3.5
• Chapter 3 Differentiation Ex 3.6
• Chapter 3 Differentiation Miscellaneous Exercise 3

12th Commerce Maths Solution Book Pdf Chapter 4 Applications of Derivatives

• Chapter 4 Applications of Derivatives Ex 4.1
• Chapter 4 Applications of Derivatives Ex 4.2
• Chapter 4 Applications of Derivatives Ex 4.3
• Chapter 4 Applications of Derivatives Ex 4.4
• Chapter 4 Applications of Derivatives Miscellaneous Exercise 4

12th Commerce Maths Notes Chapter 5 Integration

• Chapter 5 Integration Ex 5.1
• Chapter 5 Integration Ex 5.2
• Chapter 5 Integration Ex 5.3
• Chapter 5 Integration Ex 5.4
• Chapter 5 Integration Ex 5.5
• Chapter 5 Integration Ex 5.6
• Chapter 5 Integration Miscellaneous Exercise 5

12th Commerce Maths Digest Pdf Chapter 6 Definite Integration

• Chapter 6 Definite Integration Ex 6.1
• Chapter 6 Definite Integration Ex 6.2
• Chapter 6 Definite Integration Miscellaneous Exercise 6

12th Maharashtra State Board Maths Solution Book Pdf Part 1 Chapter 7 Application of Definite Integration

• Chapter 7 Application of Definite Integration Ex 7.1
• Chapter 7 Application of Definite Integration Miscellaneous Exercise 7

12th Maths 1 Digest Pdf Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications

• Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications Ex 8.1
• Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications Ex 8.2
• Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications Ex 8.3
• Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications Ex 8.4
• Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications Ex 8.5
• Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications Ex 8.6
• Chapter 8 Differential Equation and Applications Miscellaneous Exercise 8

12th Commerce Maths Solution Book Pdf Part 2

HSC Maths Textbook Pdf Chapter 1 Commission, Brokerage and Discount

• Chapter 1 Commission, Brokerage and Discount Ex 1.1
• Chapter 1 Commission, Brokerage and Discount Ex 1.2
• Chapter 1 Commission, Brokerage and Discount Miscellaneous Exercise 1

12th Maths Digest Pdf Part 2 Chapter 2 Insurance and Annuity

• Chapter 2 Insurance and Annuity Ex 2.1
• Chapter 2 Insurance and Annuity Ex 2.2
• Chapter 2 Insurance and Annuity Miscellaneous Exercise 2

12 Maths Book Pdf State Board Chapter 3 Linear Regression

• Chapter 3 Linear Regression Ex 3.1
• Chapter 3 Linear Regression Ex 3.2
• Chapter 3 Linear Regression Ex 3.3
• Chapter 3 Linear Regression Miscellaneous Exercise 3

12th Maths 2 Digest Pdf Chapter 4 Time Series

• Chapter 4 Time Series Ex 4.1
• Chapter 4 Time Series Miscellaneous Exercise 4

12th Maths Part 2 Digest Pdf Chapter 5 Index Numbers

• Chapter 5 Index Numbers Ex 5.1
• Chapter 5 Index Numbers Ex 5.2
• Chapter 5 Index Numbers Ex 5.3
• Chapter 5 Index Numbers Miscellaneous Exercise 5

12th Statistics Book Chapter 6 Linear Programming

• Chapter 6 Linear Programming Ex 6.1
• Chapter 6 Linear Programming Ex 6.2
• Chapter 6 Linear Programming Miscellaneous Exercise 6

12th Commerce Maths Book Pdf Chapter 7 Assignment Problem and Sequencing

• Chapter 7 Assignment Problem and Sequencing Ex 7.1
• Chapter 7 Assignment Problem and Sequencing Ex 7.2
• Chapter 7 Assignment Problem and Sequencing Miscellaneous Exercise 7

12th Commerce Maths Solution Book Pdf Chapter 8 Probability Distributions

• Chapter 8 Probability Distributions Ex 8.1
• Chapter 8 Probability Distributions Ex 8.2
• Chapter 8 Probability Distributions Ex 8.3
• Chapter 8 Probability Distributions Ex 8.4
• Chapter 8 Probability Distributions Miscellaneous Exercise 8

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Textbook Solutions

Maharashtra State Board Std 12th Commerce Book Keeping & Accountancy Textbook Solutions Digest

Book Keeping and Accountancy Class 12 Solutions | 12th BK Textbook Solutions

• Chapter 1 Introduction to Partnership and Partnership Final Accounts
• Chapter 2 Accounts of ‘Not for Profit’ Concerns
• Chapter 3 Reconstitution of Partnership (Admission of Partner)
• Chapter 4 Reconstitution of Partnership (Retirement of Partner)
• Chapter 5 Reconstitution of Partnership (Death of Partner)
• Chapter 6 Dissolution of Partnership Firm
• Chapter 7 Bills of Exchange
• Chapter 8 Company Accounts – Issue of Shares
• Chapter 9 Analysis of Financial Statements
• Chapter 10 Computer in Accounting

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Textbook Solutions

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Solutions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Solutions Chapter 8 Positive Psychology

1. Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
……………. is the father of positive psychology.
(a) Carver
(b) Masten
(c) Seligman
Answer:
(c) Seligman

Question 2.
Barbara Fredrickson introduced the Broaden and ………………. theory.
(a) Build
(b) Emotion
(c) Learning
Answer:
(a) Build

Question 3.
The belief that good things will happen is called as ………………..
(a) pessimism
(b) resilience
(c) optimism
Answer:
(c) optimism

Question 4.
The capacity to understand what the other person is experiencing is………………
(a) sympathy
(b) empathy
(c) emotion
Answer:
(b) empathy

2. Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
Explain the theories of happiness
Answer:
Happiness is a positive emotional state that is subjective to each person, for e.g., people feel happy when they are successful or surprised or loved, etc.
The main theories of happiness are-

1. Need/ goal satisfaction theories – Happiness is experienced when some need or goal is satisfied, e.g., Rohit feels happiness when he clears IIT-JEE exams.
2. Process/ activity theories – Happiness is experienced when one engages in a particular activity, e.g., Sumit enjoys trekking.
3. Genetic/ personality theories – Genetic and personality characteristics are involved in the experience of happiness.

Question 2.
What is mindfulness?
Answer:
Mindfulness is the basic human ability to be fully aware of where we are and what we are doing. It means that we should not be overly reactive or overwhelmed by what’s going on around us. Mindfulness refers to mental awareness that helps to focus on the ‘Here and Now’. It helps to increase self-regulation, which results in growth and happiness. Mindfulness is maintaining moment by moment awareness of our bodily sensations, environment, thoughts and feelings.

Question 3.
What is resilience?
Answer:
According to the American Psychological Association, resilience is the process of adapting well in the face of adversity, trauma, tragedy, threats or significant sources of stress such as family and relationships, health, work and finances, etc. It is the act of ‘bouncing back’ inspite of barriers or set backs.

Resilience helps the person to recover form setbacks with the least negative consequences. Individuals high on resilience exhibit the following characteristics-

1. they regain their confidence after a period of emotional disturbance
2. they are able to maintain their psychological well-being.

The types of resilience are physical, psychological, emotional and community resilience.

3. Write short notes on the following in 50 – 60 words each.

Question 1.
Life above zero
Answer:
Traditional psychology focused on life at and below zero. Zero is the line that divides illness form
health. Hence, life below zero indicates a life that is full of problems stress, diseases, etc. Positive psychology emphasizes the study of life above zero.

-1 to +1 indicates neutral charactristics while below 0 indicates disorders, dysfunction or illness. Life above zero covers a large area of positive aspects of behaviour such as mindfulness, resilience, happiness, hope, trust and empathy. It acknowledges elements of living that enrich and meaningfully sustain what is referred to as “the good life” in positive psychology.

Question 2.
Determinants of happiness
Answer:
Happiness is a positive emotional state. Factors like health, prestige, income, success, etc., contribute to only a small portion of our total happiness.
Some factors are predictors of long lasting happiness-

1. Strong, intimate social relationships, positive contacts and good support system.
2. Optimism leads to less of negative emotions like stress.
3. Self-esteem enhances our confidence level and ability to approach challenges in a constructive manner.
4. Achieving challenging goals- If the goals are too easy, it leads to boredom and if they are too difficult, it leads to frustration. Moderately challenging goals, increase the chance of success, leading to happiness.
5. Perceiving meaning and purpose in life, without which we will experience frustration, boredom, etc.
6. Looking at life’s challenges as an opportunity rather than a threat helps to develop our potential.

Question 3.
Characteristics of an optimist
Answer:
Optimism is a mental attitude that includes feelings of hopefulness and a belief that the future will be positive and favourable. It is the belief that negative events are merely setbacks that are temporary and can be overcome.
The characteristics of optimists are:

1. they try to choose the best options available
2. they tend to be high on self confidence
3. they face difficulties positively as they view them as a challenge for a person to become strong
4. they are hopeful about the future and do not generalize present failure to future events.

Question 4.
Methods to promote empathy
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference i.e. capacity to place oneself in another’s position.

According to Simon Baron-Cohen there are three components of empathy viz. cognitive empathy emotional reactivity and social skills. Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence and is a key to successful relationships.
Empathy can be promoted by using the following methods-

1. Increase social interactions – Especially with people who need help in order to understand their perspectives and motives.
2. Connecting through similarities – With others, e.g., those having same hobbies/ work/ goals, etc.
3. Understanding what you are feeling – Those who are able to accurately judge their own motives, can empathize better.
4. Challenge yourself – Tasks that are challenging lead to the person struggling to achieve a goal. This lead to humility which enables empathy.
5. Cultivate a sense of curiosity – This leads to open-mindedness and a better understanding of those around us.
6. Widen our social circle – Contact with people of different races, cultures, viewpoints helps to increase empathy towards them at a neurological level.

4. Explain the Following concepts.

Question 1.
Positive Psychology
Answer:
Positive Psychology is a newly emerging branch of psychology. Martin Seligman officially introduced Positive Psychology as a subfield of psychology. It is the science of happiness, human strength and growth. Positive Psychology focuses on building of character strengths like courage, happiness, perseverance, etc., rather than on anxiety, conflict, avoidance, etc. According to Seligman, positive psychology is “the scientific study of positive human functioning and flourishing on multiple levels that include the biological, personal, relational, institutional, cultural and global dimensions of life.”

Question 2.
Half glass full and half glass empty.
Answer:
Optimism is a mental attitude that includes feelings of hopefulness. It is a belief that the future will be positive and favourable and that negative events are merely setbacks that are temporary and can be overcome. Seligman explained about optimism in the book ‘Learned Optimism’. Our perspective determines whether or not we will show optimism.

A glass which has water upto its mid level may be perceived as half full (optimism) or as half empty (pessimism). This is described as ‘Half glass full and half glass empty’.

Question 3.
Empathy
Answer:
Empathy is the capacity to understand and feel what another person is experiencing from within their frame of reference, i.e., capacity to place oneself in another’s position. According to Simon Baron-Cohen, there are three components of empathy viz. cognitive empathy i.e., perspective taking, emotional reactivity (connecting in an intimate bond with another person) and social skills (moved to help the other). Empathy builds a sense of security and trust. It is closely related to emotional intelligence and is a key to successful relationships.

Question 4.
Mindfulness
Answer:
Mindfulness is the basic human ability to be fully aware of where we are and what we are doing. It means that we should not be overly reactive or overwhelmed by what’s going on around us. Mindfulness refers to mental awareness that helps to focus on the ‘Here and Now’. It helps to increase self-regulation, which results in growth and happiness. Mindfulness is maintaining moment by moment awareness of our bodily sensations, environment, thoughts and feelings.

Question 5.
Social resilience
Answer:
According to the American Psychological Association, resilience is the process of adapting well in the face of adversity, trauma, tragedy, threats or significant sources of stress such as family, health, etc. It is the act of ‘bouncing back’ inspite of barriers or set backs.

Social resilience is also called community resilience. It is the ability of groups of people to respond to and recover from adverse situations such as natural disasters, epidemics, war and socio-economic challenges to their community. This is mainly due to strong connections or bonds that the community members have with each other.

5. Answer the following question in 150 – 200 words each.

Question 1.
What are the essential building blocks of resilience?
Answer:
According to the American Psychological Association, resilience is the process of adapting well in the face of adversity, trauma, tragedy, threats or significant sources of stress such as family, health, etc. It is the act of ‘bouncing back’ inspite of barriers or set backs. Resilience helps the person to recover form setbacks with the least negative consequences. Individuals who are resilience tend to-

1. regain their confidence after a period of emotional disturbance
2. they are able to maintain their psychological well-being.

6. The types of resilience are physical, psychological, emotional and community resilience.

According to Ann Masten, building blocks is ‘ordinary magic’, which involves behaviour that can be easily learnt. The 7 C’s of reilience are-

1. Competence – Competence is the ability or know-how to handle situations effectively. Competence is acquired through actual experience.
2. Confidence – True confidence is a strong belief in one’s own abilities. Confidence is gained by demonstrating competence in real life situations.
3. Connection – Family is the central force in an individual’s life. Connections with other people, schools and communities gives the individual a sense of security that allows him/her to be independent and develop creative solutions.
4. Character – It refers to a clear sense of right and wrong and a commitment to integrity. An individual with character has a strong sense of self-worth and confidence.
5. Contribution – An individual who understands the importance of personal contribution develops a sense of purpose that can motivate him/her, further leading to him/her psychological well-being.
6. Coping – A person who learns to cope effectively with stress is better prepared to overcome life’s challenges.
7. Control – When an individual realizes that he can control the outcomes of his decisions and actions, he is more likely to know that he has the ability to bounce back.

Question 2.
Recollect the most challenging situation you faced in your life till now and the way you dealt with it. With reference to the 7 C’s of Resilience, which qualities helped you to overcome the challenge? For each of the C’s write the process you adopted to deal with the situation.
Answer:
[Students are expected to answer this question by themselves.]

7. Find out the positive aspects of behaviour from the example given below and answer in one word.

Question 1.
Mahesh studies so attentively that he never gets distracted.
Answer:
Mindfulness

Question 2.
Sujata lost her hands in an accident. Now she has learned to write with her leg.
Answer:
Resilience

Question 3.
Vasanta’s daughter died by cancer. He has opened a rehabilitation center for cancer patients.
Answer:
Empathy

8. Case Study

Anurag was a software engineer working in one of the leading company’s in the USA for almost 5 years. He was in a stable relationship and he had plans to start a family and to settle there. Unfortunately due to the poor economy in USA he lost his job and had to return back to India. He felt distressed as he realized that he had lost everything he had worked so hard to build. This made him feel like a failure.

1. How do you think Anurag can apply the 7 C’s of resilience to overcome the difficult situation he is in?
2. As Anurag’s friend how will you empathise with him and help him deal with this challenge?
3. Anurag has developed a very pessimistic approach after these setbacks, how will you guide him to stay happy and optimistic?

Answer:
According to the American Psychological Association, resilience is the process of adapting well in the face of adversity, trauma, tragedy, threats or significant sources of stress such as family, health, etc. It is the act of ‘bouncing back’ inspite of barriers or set backs. Resilience helps the person to recover form setbacks. Individuals who are resilient tend to-
(i) regain their confidence after a period of emotional disturbance
(ii) maintain their psychological well-being.

Anurag can apply the 7 C’s of resilience as follows-
1. He has already worked in a reputed firm successfully. Hence he has the Competence and Confidence in his own abilities. Although he is feeling a sense of hopelessness and failure, he must live in the ‘Here and Now’ by taking stock of the situation. Character will provide Anurag self worth and provide a sense of purpose and motivation, i.e., Contribution. When he realizes that he can still succeed in life by applying for a similar job here and accepting the situation, i.e., Control he can use effective Coping mechanisms. Besides, he should not forget social support of family and friends, i.e., Connection.

2. As Anurag’s friend, I can understand and feel what he is going through, from his frame of reference. Since, he is feeling distressed and like a failure due to loss of job, I will empathize with him by being encouraging and supportive. I will try to make him understand that with his own competence and experience, he can easily find a well paying job in India. I will also encourage him to improve his professional skills and seek social support from family and friends.

3. It seems natural for a person who was in a good job, stable relationship and successful position to feel pessimistic and like a failure when all of these no longer exist in his life. I will help Anurag to have a positive approach towards the challenges and difficulties in his life, i.e., view all setbacks i.e. loss of job, being sent back from the USA, etc., as opportunities not as obstacles. This will help him to gain a better perspective.

Class 12 Psychology Chapter 8 Positive Psychology Intext Questions and Answers

ACTIVITY (Textbook Page. No. 99)

Activity 4

(a) Meera scored poor marks in the examination.
(b) Suresh’s scholarship application got rejected.
(c) Mahesh lost his job.
Imagine yourself in their position and answer the following questions-
(i) How does being in their situation make you feel?
(ii) What do you think about yourself and your future being in their position?
Answer:
(i) You may feel

• Hopeless and so you might think that your future is dark.
• Helpless and so you might think that you cannot do anything to get out of the situation.
• Worthless and so you might think that you are a failure.

(ii) In contrast you may also feel

• Hopeful and think that the current adverse situation can change in the future.
• Challenged and think that you have the ability to overcome the adversity.
• Confident and think that one failure does not define you

Activity 5 (Textbook Page. No. 100)

What would your feeling be in the following situations?
(i) After a long struggle your friend got a job.
(ii) You see a person who just met with an accident and is bleeding profusely.
(iii) Your cousin is awarded a PhD. degree.
Answer:
In all the above examples I would feel empathy i.e., feel what these persons are experiencing.
(i) I will also feel happy and hopeful.
(ii) I will also feel concerned and helpless,
(iii) I will feel elated and proud.

Activity 8 (Textbook Page. No. 104)

Think of someone you know who has faced a challenging situation in their life and were successfully able to deal with it. This situation may have been emotionally difficult to deal with like death of a loved one, loss of a job, dealing with chronic illness, failure etc. Answer the following questions and discuss the answers in class.

1. How did they handle the adverse situation?
2. Which obstacles did they have to overcome?
3. In your opinion which specific attitudes and skills helped them cope with the situation?
4. Do you think they received help and support from others?

Answer:
Sundari, a professor in a reputed college was diagnosed with cancer at age 35 years.

1. Initially, she was overcome by feelings of intense fear and hopelessness. However, she decided that she would not give up the fight against cancer.
2. She had to overcome obstacles such as intense pain, fear of chemotherapy, pity shown by some ‘well wishers’, financial constraints, etc.
3. Specific attitudes that helped her to cope with this trauma were Resilience, fighting spirit interacting with other cancer survivors and good coping skills.
4. Yes, she received immense support from family, colleagues, friends and support groups like CPAA and Cancer Aid Foundation.

Activity 9 (Textbook Page. No. 105)

Read about the life of Indian boxer Mary Kom. Discuss in class the struggles she faced and how she overcame them to win multiple medals for the country.
Answer:
Mary Kom was born in Kangathei in the north-east state of Manipur. She grew up in a humble surroundings in an agricultural family. She is the eldest of three siblings. Her father had been a keen wrestler. Since a young age, Mary exhibited an inclination towards sports, like athletics and football. She was inspired by Dingko Singh, (a fellow Manipur who won a gold medal in 1998 Asian games ) to take up boxing. She was unable to pass her matriculation exam but still cleared X Std., from NIOS, Imphal. When she was 15, she left home to study at the Sports Academy in Imphal.

Her first coach K. K. Meitei recalls her as being hard working, dedicated, a quick learner with a strong will power. She has won many accolades such as 6 World Championships, Bronze medal at London Olympics (2012), 1 gold medal each at Asian Games (2014) and at Commonwealth Games (2018). She has been awarded the Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan and Padam Vibushan.

Her life story exhibits how Mary overcome obstacles of poverty, family opposition, gender bias to become the undisputed Queen of Boxing. Even at age 37, she still has the hunger to compete and win medals for India. Mary showed resilience as she has returned to the very demanding sport of boxing, after the birth of each child and has exceeded all expectations.

Activities 1, 2, 3, and 6
Answer:
[These are personal response questions.]

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Solutions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Solutions Chapter 7 First Aid in Mental Health

1. Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
One of the major obstacles to getting help from a mental health professional is the ………………… attached to mental illness.
(a) policy
(b) stigma
(c) society
Answer:
(b) stigma

Question 2.
Friends and family are not a substitute for …………………..
(a) solving problems
(b) giving solutions
(c) professional help
Answer:
(c) professional help

Question 3.
In our culture the ………………….. of an individual is considered to be the reflection of one’s family.
(a) intelligence
(b) behaviour
(c) status
Answer:
(b) behaviour

Question 4.
Individuals who experience ………………… commonly have a negative thinking style.
(a) depression
(b) phobia
(c) acute stress
Answer:
(a) depression

2. Answer the following questions in 35 – 40 words each.

Question 1.
Describe the term Mental Health First Aid?
Answer:
Mental Health First Aid (MHFA) is an internationally recognized training programme designed to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis. MHFA was originally developed by Betty Kitchener and Anthony Jorm.

First Aid in Mental Health is a concept based on the idea of ‘prevention is better than cure’. If the early signs of mental illness are recognized, it can help in the following ways.

1. Diagnosis – timely diagnosis at the onset of mental illness helps to prevent it from developing into a more severe form.
2. Intervention – early intervention helps to get professional help.
3. Relapse prevention – it prevent reoccurrence of symptom of the mental illness.

Question 2.
What are the stigmas attached to mental illness?
Answer:
One of the major obstacles to getting help from a mental health professional is the stigma that is attached to mental illness. We fear things that we do not understand. In the same way, our lack of understanding of mental illness makes us fear it.
This lack of knowledge and awareness makes us-

1. Blame the individual, i.e., think that mental illness is a personal failing or weakness.
2. Think that mental illness is caused as punishment for our sins.
3. Think that the person is intentionally behaving in an inappropriate way.

Question 3.
Anxiety disrupts day to day functioning of an individual : State two predispositional factors contributing to anxiety.
Answer:
Anxiety that is excessive or persists after the anxiety creating situation has subsided leads to anxiety disorders such as phobias, acute stress disorder, etc.
Predispositional factors in anxiety are-

1. Genetic factors – if anyone in the family has anxiety issues, then the person will be at a higher risk of exhibiting high levels of anxiety as compared to other persons.
2. Childhood trauma such as physical or mental neglect or abuse, death of a loved one, parental divorce, etc.

Question 4.
Your friend confided in you that he is suffering from anxiety.
Suggest two self- help strategies to help him deal with this issue.
Answer:
The self help strategies that can be suggested to help him deal with excessive anxiety are-

1. Engage in some activity that he always wanted to pursue for e.g., pottery, writing, sketching or voluntary social service.
2. Indulge in physical activity like exercise, outdoor games or trekking.
3. Relaxation techniques like laughter therapy, meditation and breathing techniques.

3. Answer the following in 80 – 100 words based on the given points.

Question 1.
Explain the reasons why First Aid in Mental Health is required.
(a) Stigma associated with mental health
(b) Shame
(c) People do not always know how to respond
(d) People may not always seek professional help
Answer:
MHFA is an internationally recognized training programme whose objective is to teach people how to identify the signs and symptoms of mental health problems and to provide assistance on a first aid basis.
(a) Stigma associated with mental health:
Lack of understanding about mental illness makes us fear it. This lack of awareness leads us to blame the person for behaving inappropriately or showing personal failing.

(b) Shame:
Often, a person who has been diagnosed with a mental illness is ridiculed or blamed. He/she experiences shame, withdraws from social interaction and does not reach out to others or seek help. Hence, it is beneficial to show understanding and provide support.

(c) People do not always know how to respond:
Most people may not respond in an adequate way to a mentally ill person who reaches out to them. Sometimes, their advice/help may do more harm than good. However, MHFA programme can help friends/family to identify early signs of mental illness and help the person to get professional help.

(d) People may not always seek professional help:
The main reasons for this is-

1. Culture – Stigma attached to mental illness prevents people from seeking professional help as it may hurt the reputation of the family.
2. Advice from elders – A mentally ill person may incorrectly believe that advice of elders alone is sufficient to cure his illness.
3. Superstitions – If the person is convinced that his//her mental illness is caused due to sins/curses etc., they will not want to visit a mental health professional. Hence, they will be deprived of the benefits of early intervention.

Question 2.
Explain the ALGEE Model in your own words.
(a) Approach, Assess and Assist in any crisis
(b) Listen non-judgmentally
(c) Give support and information
(d) Encourage the person to get professional help
(e) Encourage self-help and other support strategies
Answer:
ALGEE is an action plan to carry out First Aid in Mental Health.
(a) Approach, Assess and Assist in any crisis – An attempt is made to understand the situation and observe if there are behavioural changes in the person whom we are concerned about.

(b) Listen non-judgmentally – We should listen to the other person without letting our opinions influence us. We should not judge/ criticise but listen with acceptance and empathy. It does not imply that we agree with what the other person is saying but it ensures that the person feels supported.

(c) Give support and information – This helps the person to feel more in control of the situation since they have emotional and informational support.

(d) Encourage the person to get professional help – Persons suffering from mental illness may hesitate to seek help due to lack of knowledge or due to stigma attached. Others may not know how to respond to someone showing ‘red flags’ of mental illness and may do more harm than good. Mental health professionals are trained to help the person to identify the problem and cope with the situation.

(e) Encourage self-help and other support strategies – Self-help strategies are tasks that help to increase our resources to deal with stress and to maintain mental health such as exercise, adequate sleep, having hobbies, etc.

Question 3.
Enumerate the various symptoms that are exhibited by an individual with anxiety disorders.
(a) Physical Symptoms
(b) Psychological Symptoms
(c) Behavioural Symptoms
Answer:
Anxiety is an emotion characterised by feelings of tension, hopelessness, etc. Excessive level of anxiety which persists even after the anxiety producing situation has gone away, can lead to anxiety disorders.
(a) Physical Symptoms

1. Heart palpitations and rapid heart rate
2. Shortness of breath
3. Dizziness or headaches
4. Restlessness, tremors and shaking

(b) Psychological Symptoms

1. Mind racing or going blank
2. Difficulty in concentration
3. Forgetfulness
4. Problems in decision making
5. Irritability, impatience and anger

(c) Behavioural Symptoms

1. Avoiding people and situations
2. Repetitive checking
3. Strong urge to escape the situation

Question 4.
Explain excessive dependence on the internet.
(a) Meaning
(b) Four C’s to identify excessive internet usage
(c) Red flags that indicate internet addiction.
Answer:
(a) Meaning
The amount of time as well as reason for using the internet may become a matter of concern for e.g., online gambling, gaming, etc. The person may socialise more online with friends than real life socialising. Spending excess time online may cause the person to neglect family, relationships, work etc. Virtual world enables games/gambling almost continuously. This leads to the person neglecting personal hygiene, real life relationships and become withdrawn and irresponsible. The person may feel guilty or defensive about internet use. He/ she may panic in the absence of internet service. A growing dependence on internet refers to an inability to stop and down down.

(b) Four C’s to identify excessive internet usage
Excessive internet usage is characterised by extensive, problematic addiction to the use of computer and internet. It signifies poorly controlled preoccupations or behaviour regarding such usage. Excessive internet usage leads to personal distress and social impairment.
The four C’s to identify excessive internet usage are as follows-

1. Craving – Do you have an intense desire to use the internet?
2. Control – Do you have an inability to control your self using the internet?
3. Compulsion – Do you find it difficult to stop using the internet? Even though you know you should not spend so much time on it?
4. Consequence – Have you ever experienced any physical or psychological ill effects as a result of excessive use of the internet? If you answer a ‘yes’ for at least three of the C’s, it can be a matter of concern.

(c) Red flags that indicate internet addiction
The Red Flags that indicate over dependence on internet are-

1. Feelings of euphoria while using the internet.
2. Physical symptoms like headache, dry eyes, etc.
3. Inability to keep to schedules and boredom with routine tasks.
4. Poor personal hygiene and nutrition to remain online.

4. Analysis the following case study.

Sujata is now a sad and lonely girl. She has cut off herself from all her relatives and family friends. She doesn’t participate in any college programmes nor family functions. She is mostly found in the library all by herself. She has lost her self-confidence. At home she prefers eating in the bedroom and mostly indulges in television or mobile activities. Apply the ALGEE model and help Sujata to evolve in her mental health.
Answer:
Sujata is showing symptoms of depression and anxiety such as sadness, withdrawing from family/ friends and social activities. The ALGEE model can be used.

1. Approach, assess and assist in any crisis – Behavioural changes are very noticeable in Sujata. I can voice my concern to the teachers/ counsellor of the school or to her family members.
2. Listen in a non-judgemental manner -1 will try to meet Sujata in the library or any place where she feels comfortable. I will explain my concerns to her about not interacting with others and overuse of mobile phones. I will listen patiently and compassionately.
3. Give support and information – Let Sujata know that she has emotional support of her friends. There is nothing to feel guilty or ashamed of. She should hence be forthcoming about her problems.
4. Encourage her to get professional help – I will encourage her to meet the college counsellor who will be able to help her professionally.
5. Encourage self-help strategies – This will help Sujata to regain control over her life. Some positive measures include breathing exercises, yoga, laughter therapy, etc.

Balbharti Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Solutions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

Maharashtra State Board Class 12 Psychology Solutions Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders

1. (A) Choose the correct option and complete the following statements.

Question 1.
………………… is the present system for the classification of mental disorders.
(a) DSM-5
(b) WHO
(c) APA
Answer:
(a) DSM-5

Question 2.
Term Schizophrenia was first used by ………………
(a) Albert Ellis
(b) Eugene Bleuler
(c) John Travis
Answer:
(b) Eugene Bleuler

Question 3.
World Health Organization has developed …………….. for classification of all types of disorders.
(a) ICD
(b) DSM
(c) MCA
Answer:
(a) ICD

Question 4.
We find alternate phases of depression and mania in …………………. disorders.
(a) depressive
(b) bipolar
(c) anxiety
Answer:
(b) bipolar

(B). Match the pairs.

Question 1.

Group A	Group B
(1) Phobia	(a) 2013
(2) DSM-5	(b) Wellness
(3) ICD – 11	(c) Schizophrenia
(4) Eugen Bleuler	(d) 2019
(5) John Travis	(e) Illogical fear
(6) Depressive disorders	(f) Sad feelings for a long period of time

Answer:

Group A	Group B
(1) Phobia	(e) Illogical fear
(2) DSM-5	(a) 2013
(3) ICD – 11	(d) 2019
(4) Eugen Bleuler	(c) Schizophrenia
(5) John Travis	(b) Wellness
(6) Depressive disorders	(f) Sad feelings for a long period of time

(C) State whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
Socially or culturally deviant behaviours are signs of psychological disorders.
Answer:
False

Question 2.
Schizophrenia is a serious psychological disorder.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Feeling of hopelessness is one of the symptoms seen in depressive disorders.
Answer:
True

(D) Answer the following in one sentence each.

Question 1.
From which Latin word is the term anxiety derived?
Answer:
The word ‘anxiety’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Anxietas’ which means ‘uneasy or troubled mind’.

Question 2.
In which disorder does the person experience sadness and guilt for a long period of time?
Answer:
In a depressive disorder the person experiences sadness and guilt for a long period of time.

Question 3.
What do you call the fear that you experience unnecessarily in a non threatening situation?
Answer:
The fear that is experienced unnecessarily in a non threatening situation is called a phobia.

2. Answer the following questions Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain the nature of psychological disorder.
Answer:
The major criteria of abnormality or psychological disorders are deviance, personal distress and impaired functioning. Illness and absence of illness are not distinct categories but are on opposite poles of the continuum sequence as explained below.

Stage 1 – The person is physically and psychologically healthy. They are motivated and emotionally stable.
Stage 2 – The person may get affected by life stressors, feel anxious, lack energy, etc. For e.g., before an examination. It is possible to push oneself back towards positive health by adopting a healthy lifestyle.
Stage 3 – The person shows signs of psychological damage and experience negative feelings like sadness, lack of motivation, fear and may even indulge in addictive behaviour. However, even this stage is not irreversible.
Stage 4 – The person exhibits extreme distress, impairment in mental, emotional and social functioning. He/She needs professional treatment.

Question 2.
What is meant by Anxiety disorders?
Answer:
The word ‘anxiety’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Anxietas’ which means ‘uneasy or troubled mind’. Anxiety refers to a condition in which the person feels worried and uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. Anxiety disorders include disorders in which anxiety is the main symptom or is experienced when an attempt is made to modify some maladjustment. The main anxiety disorder are Generalised Anxiety disorder, Phobic disorder. Panic disorder, O. C. D, etc.

Question 3.
Narrate indicators of psychological disorders.
Answer:
According to DSM-5, there are five criteria (indicators) for psychological disorders.

1. Clinically significant syndrome – In psychological disorders, there should be a cluster of symptoms together i.e., a syndrome.
2. Distress and Impairment – There should be distress, i.e., psychological pain due to negative feelings and stress, as well as impairment, i.e., inability to perform appropriate roles in personal and social situations.
3. Dysfunction – If the symptoms lead to developmental or psychological dysfunctions, it signifies mental disorders.
4. Responses to stressors that are normally accepted responses e.g., sadness experienced at the loss of a loved one or culturally sanctioned responses are not considered as signs of mental disorders.
5. Behaviour which is only deviant but does not produce any disability/ distress/ dysfunction
   does not become a sign of mental disorder.

Question 4.
What is meant by bipolar disorder?
Answer:
Bipolar Disorder is also known as Manic Depressive disorder. The person experiences alternate phases of two states viz. mania and depression. Mania includes symptoms such as high energy, excitement, reduced need for sleep and loss of touch with reality, impulsivity, delusion, etc. Depressive state symptoms include low energy and motivation, loss of interest in daily activities, extreme sadness, apathy, feeling of hopelessness, fatigue, guilt, etc. Main causative factors are genetic factors, imbalance in neurotransmitters such as dopamine and epinephrine; environmental factors such as traumatic event.

Question 5.
Describe Post Traumatic Stress Disorders?
Answer:
If the symptoms of Acute Stress Disorder (ASD) continue for more than one month with the same intensity, the person is diagnosed with PTSD. A person who has suffered trauma goes through three stages viz-

1. Shock stage – the individual is in shock, i.e., extremely disturbed.
2. Suggestible stage – he/she may seek guidance from others and may either accept these suggestions unquestioningly or may get extra sensitive.
3. Recovery stage – the person shows signs of recovery.

However, some persons still show signs of mental illness i.e., PTSD.
The symptoms of PTSD include

1. nightmares, flashbacks, severe anxiety
2. hyper vigilance and avoidance of situations that bring back the trauma
3. irritability, social isolation
4. survivour’s guilt

3. Explain the Following concepts.

Question 1.
DSM-5
Answer:
Presently, the two major systems of classifying psychological disorders are DSM and ICD. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual for Mental Disorders (DSM) was published in its first version by the APA in 1952, i.e., DSM-I. In 2013, the DSM-5 was introduced which contains 22 broad categories of mental disorders with subcategories. It is the classification of officially recognized psychiatric disorders, for e.g., categories in DSM-5 include anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive and related disorders and personality disorders.

Question 2.
ICD 11
Answer:
Presently, the two major systems of classifying psychological disorders are DSM and ICD. The International Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD) was created by the WHO for documenting all types of diagnoses, diseases, signs and symptoms and social circumstances. It contains a section on psychological disorders. The latest, 11th version of ICD was presented in 2019. According to the ICD-11, there are 19 broad categories of mental disorders, most of which overlap with DSM-5.

Question 3.
Phobia
Answer:
The main anxiety disorders include phobic disorders and generalized anxiety disorders. The word ‘phobia’ is derived from the Greek word ‘phobos’ which was used to refer to the God of Fear. A phobia is an intense, persistent but irrational and disproportionate fear of a specific object or situation. DSM classifies phobias as simple phobias, e.g., Acrophobia, Claustrophobia etc., and social phobias, e.g., fear of speaking or eating in public. The phobic object e.g., animals or situations e.g., elevators, almost always provide immediate anxiety.

Question 4.
Syndrome
Answer:
A syndrome refers to a cluster or collection of symptoms and signs that are characteristic of a diseases or disorder, e.g., Down’s syndrome. It is a group of symptoms which consistently occur together and indicate a particular condition. A syndrome refers to a set of symptoms that tend to occur together and can be associated with a particular physical or mental disorder. In psychological disorders, one of the criteria as suggested by DSM-5 is clinically significant syndrome.

Question 5.
Hallucination
Answer:
Hallucinations are false perceptions in the absence of appropriate stimuli. Hallucinations are a symptom of schizophrenia and other mental disorders. Commonly occurring hallucinations are visual, auditory, tactile, gustatory and olfactory in nature. For e.g., the person may hear voices telling him to do something. Hallucinations are also noticed due to substance abuse, medications, epilepsy, etc.

4. Write short notes on the following.

Question 1.
Nature of mental wellness
Answer:
According to the WHO, mental wellness refers to “a state of well-being in which the individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope up with the normal stresses of life, can work productively and fruitfully, and is able to make a contribution to his or her community.”
The important aspects of mental wellness are –

1. Emotional aspect – There is a sense of well-being and contentment
2. Psychological aspect – There is high self esteem and tendency of self actualization.
3. Life philosophy – There are clear goals and objectives in life.

The Illness Wellness Continuum Model by John Travis

Quadrant 1 – The person is in an ideal state of functioning.
Quadrant 2 – Thepersonhasnomentalillnessbutexperiencessubjectivefeelingofunhappiness.
Quadrant 3 – The person suffers from mental illness yet he/she experiences a high sense of subjective well-being.
Quadrant 4 – This is the lowest level of functioning. The person has mental illness and also experiences distress.

Question 2.
Drug addiction
Answer:
Addictive disorders refer to the physical and psychological inability to stop consuming some substance or indulging in some activity although it is harmful. This includes dependence on drugs, nicotine, alcohol, etc., or activities like gambling, eating, gaming etc. Drug addiction refers to an inability to control the use of alcohol, nicotine, narcotics, marijuana, medications, etc.
Symptoms of addiction are-

1. Excessive consumption of drugs or alcohol and inability to reduce the dosage.
2. In case the person tries to stop the drug use, then withdrawal symptoms occur which include sweating, tremors, muscle pain, goosebumps, etc.
3. Physical and psychological dependence may lead to drug abuse or overdose of the addictive substance and even death of the person.
4. The person’s physical, emotional, social and financial well-being break down.

Alcoholics Anonymous (AA), Narcotics Anonymous (NA) are organizations that help addicts to overcome dependence.

Question 3.
Depressive disorders
Answer:
Depression is an emotional state typically marked by sadness and guilt, feelings of anxiety and hopelessness. Other symptoms include loss of appetite, interest and sleep, fatigue, sexual dysfunction and suicidal thoughts. Depression is associated with distractability, memory loss, neglect of personal hygiene, panic attacks and even substance abuse. Children may experience symptoms such as irritability, feelings of incompetence, difficulty in concentration, difficulty in sleeping, digestive problems etc.

Question 4.
Anxiety disorders
Answer:
The word ‘anxiety’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Anxietas’ which means ‘uneasy or troubled mind’. Anxiety refers to a condition in which the person feels worried and uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons. The main anxiety disorders are.
(i) Generalized Anxiety Disorder – The person frequently experiences anxiety more intensely so that it starts interfering with the ability to perform daily tasks. Symptoms include irritability, headaches, insomnia, dizziness, breathlessness, etc.

(ii) Phobic disorders – The word ‘phobia’ is derived form the Greek word ‘phobos’ which was used to refer to the God of Fear. A phobia is an intense, persistent but irrational and disproportionate fear of a specific object or situation. DSM classifies phobias as simple phobias, e.g., Acrophobia, Claustrophobia etc., and social phobias, e.g., fear of speaking or eating in public.

5. Answer the following questions in 150 – 200 words.

Question 1.
Describe the criteria of psychological disorders.
Answer:
The major criteria of abnormality are deviance, personal distress and impaired functioning. Illness and absence of illness are not distinct categories but are on opposite poles of the continuum sequence as explained below.

Stage – 1: The person is physically and psychologically healthy. He/She are motivated and emotionally stable.
Stage – 2: The person may get affected by life stressors, feel anxious, lack energy, etc., for e.g., most students are tense before the exams. It is possible to push oneself back towards positive health by adopting a healthy lifestyle.
Stage – 3: The person shows signs of psychological damage and may experience negative feelings like sadness, lack of motivation, fear and may even indulge in addictive behaviour. However, even this stage is not irreversible.
Stage – 4: The person exhibits extreme distress, impairment in mental, emotional and social functioning. He/She needs professional treatment.

Psychological disorders are also called mental disorders. These are patterns of behavioural or psychological symptoms that impact multiple areas of life and create distress for the person.

According to DSM-5, there are five criteria for psychological disorders.

1. Clinically significant syndrome – In psychological disorders, there should be a cluster of symptoms together i.e., a syndrome.
2. Distress and Impairment – There should be distress, i.e., psychological pain due to negative feelings and stress, as well as impairment, i.e., inability to perform appropriate roles in personal and social situations.
3. Dysfunction – If the symptoms lead to developmental or psychological dysfunctions, it signifies mental disorders.
4. Responses to stressors that are normally accepted responses e.g., sadness experienced at the loss of a loved one or culturally sanctioned responses are not considered as signs of mental disorders.
5. Behaviour which is only deviant but does not produce any disability/ distress/ dysfunction does not become a sign of mental disorder.

Question 2.
Narrate any two psychological disorders in detail.
Answer:
Psychological disorders are also called mental disorders. These are patterns of behavioural or psychological symptoms that impact multiple areas of life and create distress for the person.
According to DSM-5, there are five criteria for psychological disorders are:

1. Clinically significant syndrome – In psychological disorders, there should be a cluster of symptoms together i.e., a syndrome.
2. Distress and Impairment – There should be distress, i.e., psychological pain due to negative feelings and stress, as well as impairment, i.e., inability to perform appropriate roles in personal and social situations.
3. Dysfunction – If the symptoms lead to developmental or psychological dysfunctions, it signifies mental disorders.
4. Responses to stressors that are normally accepted responses e.g., sadness experienced at the loss of a loved one or culturally sanctioned responses are not considered as signs of mental disorders.
5. Behaviour which is only deviant but does not produce any disability/ distress/ dysfunction does not become a sign of mental disorder.

(A) Anxiety Disorders – The word ‘anxiety’ is derived from the Latin word ‘Anxietas’ which means ‘uneasy or troubled mind’. Anxiety refers to a condition in which the person feels worried and uneasy for a long time for no obvious reasons.
The main anxiety disorders are-
(i) Generalized Anxiety Disorder – The person frequently experiences anxiety more intensely so that it starts interfering with the ability to perform daily tasks. Symptoms include irritability, headaches, insomnia, dizziness, breathlessness, etc.

(ii) Phobic disorders – The word ‘photjia’ is derived form the Greek word ‘phobos’ which was used to refer to the God of Fear. A phobia is an intense, persistent but irrational and disproportionate fear of a specific object or situation. DSM classifies phobias as simple phobias, e.g., Acrophobia, Claustrophobia etc., and social phobias, e.g., fear of speaking or eating in public.

(B) Trauma Trauma and Stress-Related Disorders
Stress is inevitable in life. Daily hassles, relationship issue, frustration, chronic illness, etc., lead to stress. If stress is in moderate intensity, it acts as a motivation. However, intense prolonged stress impairs normal functioning of the individual and may lead to stress disorders.
The two types of stress disorders are-
1. Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)
If a person (aged 6 years and above) has experienced extremely stressful situations like death of a loved one, serious disease or injury, sexual abuse, natural disasters, etc., then he/she may experience ASD. The symptoms of ASD include-

• emotional numbness and instability
• nightmares and sleep disturbances
• insomnia, lack of concentration, irritability and guilt feelings
• depression

2. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
If symptoms of ASD continue for more than one month with the same intensity, the person is diagnosed with PTSD. A person who has suffered trauma goes through three stages viz.

• Shock stage – the individual is in shock, i.e., extremely disturbed.
• Suggestible stage – he/she may seek guidance from others and may either accept these suggestions unquestioningly or may get extra sensitive.
• Recovery stage – the person shows signs of recovery.

However, some persons still show signs of mental illness i.e., PTSD.

Question 3.
What is Schizophrenia? Describe the major symptoms of it.
Answer:
The term ‘Schizophrenia’ is derived from Greek words Schizein (to split) and phren (mind). Thus, the literal meaning of the word ‘schizophrenia’ is split mind. The term ‘schizophrenia’ was coined in 1911 by a Swiss psychologist, Paul Eugene Bleuler. Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder.
According to DSM-5 the two types of symptoms for schizophrenia are-
(a) Positive symptoms are an excess addition to normal thoughts or behaviour of the period. Such symptoms are-

1. hallucinations – mainly auditory and visual hallucination
2. delusions – mainly of grandeur, reference and persecution
3. disorganized thought and speech
4. bizarre body movements and disorganized behaviour
5. incongruent affect.

(b) Negative symptoms are deficits of normal emotional responses or of thought processes. They lead to low level of functioning and may not improve much even with treatment. This includes-

1. emotional blunting – diminished emotional expression
2. anhedonia – inability to experience deep positive emotions
3. alogia – diminished speed
4. asociality – lack of desire to form relationships
5. avolition – lack of motivation
6. apathy.

Sometimes, a schizophrenic exhibits positive as well as negative symptoms.

Class 12 Psychology Chapter 6 Psychological Disorders Intext Questions and Answers

ACTIVITIES (Textbook Page. No. 62)

Activity 1

On the basis of your understanding of various criteria for abnormality, which of these would you consider as normal or abnormal behavior?

1. Hemant wears the same lucky blue shirt for all his major competitive exams.
2. Seema is not able to fall asleep easily.
3. Rakesh throws pillows and pounding fists on the wall during arguments if he finds himself losing ground.
4. Reena always experiences fear but is not able to specify what is so scary.

Answer:
All the stated examples show at least one of the five criteria for abnormality.

1. Hemant seems superstitious and lacks confidence. He appears moderately healthy.
2. Seema exhibits personal distress and signs of sleep disorders.
3. Rakesh exhibits clear symptoms of abnormal behaviour and seems extremely unhealthy mentally.
4. Reena seems to have anxiety disorder and may need professional help.

Activity 3 (Textbook Page. No. 67)

In which Quadrants of wellness illness continuum will you place Karan, Lalita, Pramila and Santosh?
Answer:
Karan – Quadrant 2, Pramila – Quadrant 3, Lalita – Quadrant 4, Santosh – Quadrant 3.

Activity 5 (Textbook Page. No. 68)

Collect information about Anxiety disorders and discuss this with your friends or parents.
Answer:
Anxiety disorders are characterised by feelings of worry and restlessness that tend to interfere with daily activities. Besides generalized anxiety disorder and phobia which are explained in the chapter, anxiety disorders includes Panic disorder, Obsessive-Compulsive disorder (OCD) and Social Anxiety disorders include disorders in which anxiety is the main symptom or is experienced. When an attempt is made to modify maladjustment.

Activity 6 (Textbook Page. No. 69)

Collect information about other types of phobia.
Answer:
A phobia is a persistent, irrational fear of a situation or object. Phobias are of three types viz. Social phobia (fear of social situations); specific phobias (fear of particular situations) and agoraphobia (fear of being alone in public places from which there is no easy escape). Some phobias are:

1. Claustrophobia (fear of enclose spaces)
2. Acrophobia (fear of heights)
3. Homophobia (fear of blood)
4. Zoophobia (fear of animals)
5. Arachnophobia (fear of spiders)
6. Pyrophobia (fear of fire)
7. Trypanophobia (fear of needles and injections)
8. Xenophobia (fear of foreigners or strangers)

Activity 7 (Textbook Page. No. 71)

We make use of various strategies to reduce our stress. Speak to five of your friends and make a list of atleast ten different strategies used by them to reduce stress. Share it with your group and discuss which are healthy and which are unhealthy.
Answer:
Some strategies to reduce stress are-

1. Negative coping such as use of alcohol/drugs, over eating, agression, etc.
2. Exercise
3. Developing a hobby
4. Indulging in some constructive activity
5. Following relaxation/meditation techniques
6. Seeking social support, i.e., of friends/ family, etc.
7. Having proper time management
8. Developing rational thinking and positive attitude
9. Indulging in self care, e.g., proper diet, rest, etc.
10. Seeking professional help if needed

Activity 9 (Textbook Page. No. 74)

Identify from the internet the red flags (signaling symptoms) for various disorders that you have already studied.
Answer:
Red flags for the following disorders.
(1) Phobias

• Displaying extreme nervousness or distress when in the presence of the source of the phobia
• Avoidance behaviour
• Refusal to face certain situations

(2) Depression

• Irritability, moodiness and agitation.
• Inability to concentrate
• Unexplained aches and pains
• Disruptions in sleep habits
• Changes in appetite and eating habits
• Suicidal thoughts.

(3) Bipolar disorder

• Change in thought processes, and concentration
• Change in sleep patterns
• Change is social interaction
• Uncharacteristic moodiness

(4) PTSD

• Persistent negative thoughts
• Trouble in concentration
• Irritability and aggression
• Engaging in reckless behaviour
• Changes in sleep and appetite
• Loss of interest in friends/family/favourite activities.